CRIMINOLOGY LICENSURE EXAMINATION

SAMPLE QUESTIONNAIRE
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
1.

The act that provides the National Police Commission to conduct Police examination is;
a. RA 2260
c. RA 6040
b. RA 4864
d. RA 6141

2.

The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director General of the PNP is;
a. 4 years
c. 6 years
b. 5 years
d. 7 years

3.

In the Attrition System of the PNP, the maximum tenure of the PNP Regional Director is ;
a. 4 years
c. 6 years
b. 5 years
d. 9 years

4.

The end product resulting from evaluation analysis, integration and interpretation of information is called
a. Police Intelligence
c. Intelligence
b. Military Intelligence
d. Undercover Intelligence

5.

The Law that provides for the Reform and Reorganization of the Philippine National Police.
a. RA 6975
c. RA 8551
b. RA 4864
d. RA 6141

6.

What should be conducted in order to determine whether a case falls under the jurisdiction of the
regional Trial Court?
a. Inquest proceeding
c. Preliminary conference
b. Preliminary investigation
d. Search and Seizure

7. When does the court acquire jurisdiction over a case filed by the law enforcement agencies?
a. the moment the case is filed with the fiscal office
b. the moment that it is filed with the court
c. the moment that the trial or the case begins
d. the moment that the parties presents their evidence
8.

In the conduct of custodial investigation, one of the rights provided for by law is the protection against
self-incrimination and right is found on the grounds of ;
a. public policy and morality
d. humanity and conscience
b. public policy and humanity
e. all of the above
c. humanity kindness

9.

What rule or doctrine in criminal jurisprudence requires mandatory pre-interrogation warnings

concerning self-incrimination and the right to counsel of the suspect.
a. Doctrine of the First of the Poisonous Tree
b. Doctrine on the Presumption of Innocence
c. Rule of Law
d. Miranda Doctrine
e. Due Process Law

10. Miranda Law is a law that is applied to every citizen. This is otherwise known also as;
a. RA 6975
d. The Philippine 1987 Constitution
b. RA 8551
e. The Rules of Court
c. RA 7438
11. What is the Latin term for criminal intent?
a. Mens Rea
d. Magna Culpa
b. Inflagrante Deleto
e. Mala Vise
c. Gamacta
12. In simple sense, it is an act of deciding in advance on what is to be done and how it is to be
accomplished; it is in essence, preparations for action.
a. operations
c. management
b. planning
d. administration
13. A standard operating procedures, that is intended to be used in all situations of all kinds, and shall be
outlines as a guide to officers and men in the field.
a. headquarters procedures c. special operating procedures
b. field procedures
d. characteristics of plans
14. A standard operating procedures, that is includes the procedures and the duties of dispatcher, jailer,
matron and other personnel concerned which may be reflected in the duty manual.
a. headquarters procedures c. special operating procedures
b. field procedures
d. operational plans

15. A type of plans, that considers plans for the operations of special divisions like, patrol, traffic, vice, and
juvenile delinquency control.
a. Policies or procedures
c. tactical plans
b. Operational plans
d. extra-office plans
16. A type of plan that includes those procedures for coping with specific situations at known locations, such
plans for dealing with an attack against building with alarm systems and an attack against.
Headquarters of the PNP.
a. tactical plans
c. management plans
b. extra-office plans
d. operational plans
17. A plan that includes the mapping out in advance all operations involved in the organization, management
of personnel and material and in the procurement and disbursement of money, etc.
a. management of plans
c. operational plans
b. extra-office plans
d. characteristics of plans
18. A step in planning, that calls for identification of the problem, understanding both records and its possible
solution; a situation must exit for which something must and can be done.
a. collecting all pertinent facts
c. analyzing the facts
b. clarifying the problems
d. developing alternative plans
19. A steps in planning, that states that no attempt shall be made to develop a plan until all facts relating to it
have been gathered.
a. collecting all pertinent facts
c. developing alternative plans
b. analyzing the facts
d. selecting the most appropriate alternative
20. Of the following steps in planning, one which after all the data have been gathered, a careful study and
evaluation shall be made; this provides the basis from which a plan or plans are evolved.
a. developing alternative plans
c. selecting the most appropriate alternative
b. developing the facts
d. selling the plan
21. One of the steps in planning, where a careful consideration of facts usually leads to the selection of a
best alternative proposals.
a. analyzing the facts
b. selecting the most appropriate alternative
a. selling the plan
b. arranging for the execution of the plan.
22. One step in planning, that is necessary in order to know whether a correct alternative was chosen,
whether or not the plan is correct, which phase was poorly implemented, and whether additional
planning may be necessary.
a. evaluating the effectiveness of the plan
b. arranging for the execution of the plan
c. selecting the most appropriate alternative
d. selling the plan
23.What activity requires the duty of a superior officer of any unit of the Philippine National Police and its
units subordinates to establish rapport or good relationship with other law enforcement agencies of the
government?
a. Police Executive Training
c. Business like Activity
b. Coordination and Cooperation
d. Socialization
24. The division that shall accomplish the primary responsibility of safeguarding the community through
protection of persons and property, the suppression of criminal activities, the apprehension of criminals,
the enforcement of laws and ordinances and regulations of conduct, and performing necessary services
and inspections is;
a. Traffic Division
c. Theft and Robbery Division
b. Patrol Force
d. Juvenile Delinquency Control Division
25.The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with accidents that involves one or both of the
elements namely;
a. motor vehicles and traffic way
c. motor vehicle and victim
b. victim and traffic way
d. victim and traffic unit
26. One of the following statements that best indicates the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is;
a. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
b. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
c. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
d. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
27. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen automobile license plates. The best reason
for this practice is to;
a. permit the promote issuance of new plate
b. prevent cards from being stolen
c. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use
d. detain any person found using or attempting to use any of these plates.

28. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to;

a. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than as causes
b. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors as secondary causes
c. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to the accident as a cause
d. look for the key event that cause the accident
29. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is
a. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
b. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
c. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
d. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive measure for future violation
30. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the following evidence will show how the accident
happened?
a. hole on the road pavement
b. the driver under the influence of liquor
c. point of impact
d. vehicle has break failure
34.A system of coordinated activities, group of people, authority and leadership and cooperation towards a
goal is called:
a. Formal Organizations
b. Informal Organizations
c. Administration
d. All of the above
35.An indefinite and unstructured organization that has no definite subdivision and comprised of
unconscious group feelings, passions and activities of individuals is referred to as:
a. Formal Organizations
b. Informal Organizations
c. Administration
d. None of the above
36. The structured group of trained personnel that deals with achieving police goals and objectives of an
organization is called:
a. Police Management
b. Police Organization
c. Organizational Structure
d. Police Administration
37. The study of the processes and conditions of the Law Enforcement pillar that is also called police in
action:
a. Police Management
b. Police Organization
c. Organizational Structure
d. Police Administration
38. The ability of police administrators in winning support for departmental programs from people with in the
department as well as the citizens is called:
a. Community relation
b. Police Leadership
c. Police planning
d. Community Policing
39. The performance of task that deals with commensurate authority to fulfill the responsibility is known as:
a. Policy formulation
b. Supervision
c. Direction
d. Execution
40. The extent to which an authority is concentrated or dispersed is called:
a Unity of Direction
b. Centralization
c Scalar of Chain
d. Unity of Command
41. The principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward and downward
through establish channels in the hierarchy is;
a. Chain of Command
b. Unity of Command
c. Span of Control
d. Delegation of Authority
42. The principle of organization that results from the division of force into separate units to perform
individual task is called:
a. Specialization
b. Chain of Command
c. Organizational Structure
d. All of the above
43. The section or territorial division of a large city which comprises of designated districts is referred as:
a. District
b. Section
c. Unit
d. Area
44. The staff specialist or unit in line organization that provides service knowledge is known as:
a. Line and Staff Organization
b. Functional Organization
c. Line Organization
d. Structural Organization
45. A type of organizational structure in which quick decisions are made because of direct line authority and
discipline is easily administered is called:
a. Line and Staff Organization
b. Functional Organization
c. Line Organization
d. Functional and Staff Organization
46. A personnel of the police department who has taken oath of office and possess the power to arrest is
called:
a. Arresting officer
b. Commanding Officer

c. Sworn Officer

d. Superior Officer

47. The nature of task primarily performed according to organized force is called delegation of task
according to:
a. Place of Work
b. Time Frame
c. Level of Authority
d. Function
48. The placement of subordinate into the position for which their capabilities best fit them is referred to as:
a. Staffing
b. Organizing
c. Directing
d. Planning
49. The structural changes to be made when need arises to provide a more effective medium of work that
can be performed and distributed is called:
a. Staffing
b. Directing
c. Organizing
d. Planning

50. The nature of service in which an employee shall receive order from only one superior is called:
a. Scalar Chain
b. Unity of Command
c. Chain of Command
d. Unity of Direction
51. The optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service is:
a. 15 years
b. 25 years
c. 30 years
d. 20 years
52. The nature of complaint against any PNP member is called;
a. Individual Complaint
b. Public Complaint
c. Citizens Complaint
d. Administrative Complaint
53. The consequence of an act, which temporarily deprives an officer from the privilege of performing his
duty, is referred to as:
a. Dismissal
b. Retirement
c. Resignation
d. Suspension
54. The staff service of the NAPOLCOM who renders legal opinion arising from the administration of the
PNP is referred to as:
a. Personnel Administration Service
b. Planning and Research Service
c. Legal Affairs Service
d. None of the above
55. The method of separation from the police service after completing the required age for length of service
is called:
a. Retirement
b. Dismissal
c. Demotion
c. AWOL
56. The following are considered minor offenses that may be committed by a PNP member except:
a. Neglect of Duty
b. Extortion
c. Habitual Drunkenness
d. Gambling while on Duty
57. The term of office of the four regular and full-time Commissioners of the NAPOLCOM is:
years
b. 5 years
c. 4 years
d. 9 years

a.

58. The NAPOLCOM shall be composed of the offices of Chairperson, Commissioners and one
a. Ex-officio Chairman
b. Secretary
c. Ex-officio Commissioner
d. Ex- officio Chairperson
59. The agency of the government responsible for the administration of police entrance and promotional
examination is the:
a. Civil Service Commission
b. NAPOLCOM
c. PNPA
d. Qualifications Upgrading Program
60. Complaints against personnel of the Internal Affairs Office shall be brought to the:
a. NAPOLCOM
b. Internal Affairs Service
c. PLEB
d. Inspectors Office
61. The PNP shall be organized to ensure accountability and uprightness in the police exercise of discretion
as well as to achieve:
a. Reformation and rehabilitation
b. Efficiency and effectiveness
c. Organization and Administration
d. None of the above
62. The ex-officio chairman of the NAPOLCOM is the:
a. Chief of the PNP
b. Secretary of DILG
c. Commissioner from the civilian sector
d. None of the above

63. The four regulars and fulltime Commissioners shall appointed for a term of:
a. 4 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 9 years

64. The reorganization of the PNP is made by the NAPOLCOM who shall conduct management audit, and
prepare a proposed reorganization plan to be approved by:
a. DILG Secretary
b. Congress
c. C/PNP
d. President
65. The required age for the grant of waiver of age requirement for initial appointment in the PNP is:
a. not below 25 nor over 35 years of age
b. not below 20 nor over 35 years of age
c. less than 25 but not more than 32 years of age
d. more than 22 but less than 32 years of age
66. Anybody who will enter the PNP service with out a baccalaureate degree shall be given a maximum
period of:
a. 3 years to comply with the education qualification;
b. 4 years to comply with the education qualification;
c. 5 years to comply with the education qualification;
d. 6 years to comply with the education qualification.
67. Under RA 8551 any PNP personnel who has not been promoted for a continuous service shall be
retired or separated if the said period of non promotion gained with in:
a. 20 yrs
b. 10 yrs c. 18 months
d. none of these
68. The body within the PNP organization tasked to take charge on investigation of complaints filed against
a PNP member is the:
a. IAS
b. PLEB c. NAB
d. RAB
69. A PNP member may also be dismiss from service if he/she will go on absence with out official leave for a
continuous period of:
a. 30 days or more
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 6 months
70. The power to direct or oversee the day to day functions of police investigation of crime, crime prevention
activities and traffic control in accordance with the rules and regulations promulgated by the
Commission is;
a. Employment
b. Planning
c. Operational Supervision
d. All of the above
71. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as such, are automatically
deputized as representatives of the:
a. NAPOLCOM
b. DND
c. PLEB
d. None of the above
72. As a police officer, he/she should live a decent and virtuous life to serve as an example to others. This
statement is part of the:
a. PNP Code of Covenant
b. Policemans Code
c. Police Officers Creed
d. All of the above
73. Cadets in the PNPA are classified above the Senior Police Officer IV and below the Inpector rank in the
PNP. This statement is:
a. True
b. False c. Neither true or false
d. Doubtful
74. The rank of a Senior Police Officer IV is equivalent to:
a. Master Sergeant in the Military rank
b. Captain in the Military rank
a. Lieutenant in the Military rank
b. None of the above
75. A person can escape from the scene of the accident on one of the following ground:
a. offense committed is serious
b. bringing the person to your custody
c. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of violation
d. if the person is under the imminent danger

76. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to traffic violation, the following procedures
are followed except:
a. bring the suspended person before the court
b. detention of the arrested person may take place

c. arrest can be effected even without a warrant

d. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed
77. The delay resulting from traffic congestion affect not only the time of travel but also the productivity of
individual is part of:
a. traffic engineering
c. traffic environment
b. traffic economy
d. traffic congestion
78. The method of training where the student is placed in the real life of driving is known as:
a. simulated training
c. traditional training
b. comprehensive training
d. commentary training
79. The traffic enforcement action that does not contemplate possible assessment of penalty by the court?
a. traffic arrest
c. traffic citation
b. traffic warning
d. traffic violation
80. The law which expedite the methods of prescribing, refining, or modifying the lines and modes of
operations of public utility vehicle is:
a. P.D. 96
c. P.D. 101
b. P.D. 207
d. P.D. 612
81. The occurrence in a sequence of events which usually produces unintended injury, property damage or
even death is called:
a. accident
c. key event
b. damage
d. fatal
82. The traffic sign that is triangular in shape and have a red colored border is known as:
a. information sign
c. instruction sign
b. direction sign
d. caution sign
83. The systematic examination of all the facts relating to condition, actions and physical features
associated with motor collision or accident is called:
a. traffic engineering
c. reckless driving
b. traffic accident investigation
d. hit and run
84. The combination of simultaneous and sequential circumstances without anyone of which accident could
not occur is;
a. key event
c. cause
b. reason
d. chain event
85. That event which characterizes the manner of occurrence of a motor vehicle traffic accident is;
a. accident
c. key event
b. chain of accident
d. all of these