Pathology PRC Finaledit

PATHOLOGY
Instructions:
Choose the BEST answer
1. Acute myelogenous leukemia is:

a. most common in females
b. most common in adults over 60 years old
c. occasionally aleukemic
d. associated with massive splenomegaly
1. Answer: C
Robbins 6th ed pp. 677
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2. Hodgkins lymphoma with the worst prognosis:

a. lymphocyte predominance
b. nodular sclerosis
c. mixed cellularity
d. lymphocyte depletion
2. Answer: D
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3. The
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
most important difference between a benign reactive lymph node and lymphoma :
interstitial fibrosis
follicular hyperplasia
effacement of normal architecture
presence of plasma cells
Answer: C
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4. Plasma cells are characterized by

a. abundant surface immunoglobulins
b. Fc surface receptors
c. Abundant cytoplasm immunoglobulins
d. Complement surface receptors
4. Answer: C
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5. Paroxysmal hypertension is most typically associated with which of the following?

a. adrenal adenoma
b. thyroid adenoma
c. parathyroid adenoma
d. pheochromocytoma
5. Answer: D
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6. The association of medullary carcinoma of the thyroid with pheochromocytoma with or without
parathyroid hyperplasia or adenoma is called:
a. Conns syndrome
b. Cushings syndrome
c. Sipples syndrome
d. Waterhouse-Friedricksens syndrome
6. Answer: C
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7. Which of the following is the most common cause of Cushings syndrome
a. exogenous corticosteroids
b. adrenal cortical carcinoma
c. oat cell carcinoma of the lungs
d. basophilic adenoma of the pituitary
7. Answer: A
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8. A destructive lesion in this area will result in diabetes insipidus:
a. mamillothalamic tract
b. adenohypophysis
c. subthalamic fasciculus
d. supraoptic and paraventricular hypothalamic nuclei
8. Answer: D
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9. Conns syndrome is primarily associated with an excess of :
a. glucocorticoids
b. mineralocorticoids
c. thyroid hormone
d. ADH
9. Answer: B
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10. Primary hyperaldosteronism is associated with:
a. hyponatremia
b. hypotension
c. elevation of plasma renin levels
d. hypokalemia
10. Answer: D
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11. The single most frequent adrenal lesion producing primary hyperaldosteronism:
a. single unilateral adenoma
b. multiple unilateral adenomas
c. bilateral adenomas
d. carcinoma
11. Answer: A
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12. Truncal obesity, easy bruising and osteoporosis is associated with:
a. craniopharyngioma
b. adrenal adenoma
c. thyroid adenoma
d. parathyroid adenoma
12. Answer: B
Robbins 6th ed pp. 1154-1155
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13 Urinalysis results show proteinuria, red blood cells and casts, and 1-2 pus cells per HPO. These
findings are consistent with:
a. acute cystitis
b. acute pyelonephritis
c. chronic pyelonephritis
d. acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
13. Answer: D
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14. Membranous glomerulopathy and poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis are similar in that they
both:
a. are self-limiting and transient renal diseases
b. are commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome
c. are most commonly seen in children
d. have glomerular immune complex deposits
14. Answer: D
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15. A patient with hemoptysis and renal failure has a renal biopsy which reveals crescentic
glomerulonephritis, with linear deposits of IgG and C3 on immunofluorescence. Diagnosis?
a. acute post-infectious glomerulonephritis
b. membranous nephropathy
c. Goodpastures syndrome
d. Minimal change disease
15. Answer: C
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16. The most characteristic feature of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis:
a. crescent formation
b. hyaline nodules
c. subepithelial dense deposits
d. thickened capillary loops
16. Answer: A
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17. Benign nephrosclerosis is best defined as:
a. fibrinoid necrosis of afferent arterioles with ischemic atrophy of nephrons
b. hyalinization of afferent arterioles with ischemic atrophy of nephrons
c. diffuse thickening of glomerular capillary basement membrane leading to glomerulosclerosis
d. deposition of basement-like material within the glomerular mesangium leading to
glomerulosclerosis
17. Answer: B
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18. Ischemic acute tubular necrosis occurs most commonly in association with:
a. septic shock
b. ruptured aneurysm
c. carcinoma of the prostate
d. malignant hypertension
18. Answer: A
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19. The most common appearance of nephrotic syndrome in adults is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
proliferative glomerulonephritis
membranous glomerulonephritis
rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
wire-loops
19. Answer: B
20. Nutmeg liver is a gross finding seen in:

a. petechial hemorrhages
b. viral hepatitis
c. alcoholism
d. chronic passive congestion
20. Answer: D
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21. Which of the following is associated with high levels of serum alkaline phosphatase?
a. hemolytic anemia
b. metastatic carcinoma to the liver
c. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
d. Gilberts syndrome
21. Answer: B
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22. The most common outcome in-patients with acute Hepatitis B is:
a. complete recovery without residual dysfunction
b. chronic persistent hepatitis
c. chronic active hepatitis
d. postnecrotic cirrhosis
22. Answer: A
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23. In a patient suspected of having viral hepatitis, which laboratory finding would indicate the most
severe and life threatening amount of liver damage?
a. prolonged prothrombin time
b. high serum bilirubin
c. high serum aspartate transaminases
d. high serum alkaline phosphatase
23. Answer: A
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24. The most important substance in the formation of gallstones is:
a. calcium
c. bile salts
b. bilirubin
d. lecithin
24. Answer: C
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25. Cirrhosis produces most of its clinical manifestations by means of:
a. hepatic necrosis leading to insufficient number of liver cells to sustain life
b. cancerous change in regenerating nodules
c. obstruction of large biliary passages
d. vascular derangements in the liver
25. Answer: D
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26. The major cause of portal hypertension is:
a. Intrahepatic
c. prehepatic
b. Posthepatic
d. cardiac
26. Answer: A
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27. The most common factor in the formation of esophageal varices is obstruction at the level of:
a. esophageal vein
b. hepatic vein
c. intrahepatic vessels
d. portal vein
27. Answer: C
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28. When a person dies suddenly from a heart attack the most likely event causing it will be:
a. aortic aneurysm
b. coronary artery embolism
c. congestive heart failure
d. arrhythmia
28. Answer: D
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29. Acute rheumatic heart disease is associated with:
a. arthritis
b. emboli to multiple organs
c. cardiac tamponade
d. right to left shunt
29. Answer: A
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30. The most frequent and clinically significant residual lesion of acute rheumatic fever is:
a. myocardial fibrosis
b. aortic stenosis
c. mitral stenosis
d. pericardial adhesion
30. Answer: D
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31. The absolute criterion of cardiomegaly:
a. increase in size
b. increase wall thickness
c. increase in weight
d. change in shape
31. Answer: C
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32. Myocardial disease gradually producing 4-chamber dilatation:

a. viral myocarditis
b. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c. congestive cardiomyopathy
d. restrictive cardiomyopathy
32. Answer: C
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33. Necrotizing infection caused by highly virulent organisms seeding a normal valve:
a. rheumatic heart disease
b. SLE endocarditis
c. acute infective endocarditis
d. marantic Endocarditis
33. Answer: C
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34. The most common cause of intestinal obstruction is:
a. adhesions
b. volvulus
c. neoplasm
d. hernia
34. Answer: A
Robbins 6th ed pp. 825 (table)
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35. A two-week old boy has projectile vomiting. The most likely diagnosis is :
a. pyloric stenosis
b. esophageal atresia
c. annular pancreas
d. incomplete rotation of the gut
35. Answer: A
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36. An endoscopic gastric biopsy finding of intestinal type epithelia is most likely due to:
a. chronic gastritis
b. congenital heterotopia
c. precancerous dysplasia
d. metastatic carcinoma
36. Answer: A
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37. Most characteristic of right sided colon cancer compared to left-sided cancer:
a. anemia
b. associated with polyposis
c. bowel obstruction
d. diarrhea
37. Answer: A
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38. Acute erosive gastritis is characterized by:

a. superficial and multiple gastric mucosal ulceration
b. pus in the gastric mucosa
c. deep ulcer with scarred base
d. frequent association with gastric cancer
38. Answer: A
39. The most common site of chronic gastric peptic ulcer:

a. lesser curvature at the antral-body junction
b. anterior wall of the duodenal verge
c. greater curvature at the mid-antrum
d. esophago-gastric junction
39. Answer: A
40. The definitive finding in acute appendicitis:
a. obstruction of the lumen by a fecalith
b. mucus inspissation in the lumen
c. neutrophils in the muscularis
d. serosal congestion and margination of polys
40. Answer: C
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41. Morphologic appearance favoring benign rather than malignant gastric ulcer:
a. large ulcer
b. heaped up margin
c. antral location
d. folds radiating from the ulcer
41. Answer: C
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42. Most frequently found neoplasm in the appendix:
a. adenoma
b. polyp
c. carcinoid
d. adenocarcinoma
42. Answer: C
43. The most common malignant soft tissue tumor:
a. rhabdomyosarcoma
b. malignant fibrous histiocytoma
c. leiomyosarcoma
d. liposarcoma
43. Answer: D
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44. Brown tumors of bone is associated with:

a. hyperparathyroidism
b. trauma
c. metastatic carcinoma
d. vitamin deficiency
44. Answer: A
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45. The most frequent site of compression fracture is:

a. femur
b. radio-ulnar area
c. clavicle
d. vertebrae
45. Answer: D
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46. Rheumatoid arthritis usually has its origin in:

a. ball and socket joints
b. lumbo-sacral joints
c. small peripheral joints
d. major weight-bearing joints
46. Answer: C
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47. Most common primary malignant bone tumor in 15-25 years of age:
a. chondrosarcoma
b. osteosarcoma
c. Ewings sarcoma
d. Chondroblastoma
47. Answer: B
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48. The most likely malignant bone tumor in a 65 yo man is:

a. Giant cell tumor
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Metastatic prostatic cancer
d. Multiple myeloma
48. Answer: C
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49. The most common primary type of bronchogenic carcinoma is:

a. metastatic carcinoma
b. adenocarcinoma
c. squamous cell carcinoma
d. small cell carcinoma
49. Answer: C
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50. The source of surfactant is believed to be:
a. Type I pneumocyte
b. Type II pneumocyte
c. Mast cell
d. Alveolar mcrophage
50. Answer: B
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51. The single most characteristic feature of bronchiectasis is:

a. excessive mucus secretion
b. immotile cilia
c. dilatation of bronchi
d. alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
51. Answer: C
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52. Non-communicating hydrocephalus means obstruction:
a. between ventricles and subarachnoid space
b. at the cisterna ambiens
c. at the arachnoid granulations
d. at the vein of Galen
52. Answer: B
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53. The most common cause of bacterial meningitis in a patient <2 months old is:
a. Escherichia coli
b. Hemophilus influenza
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Neisseria meningitides
53. Answer: A
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54. The most important and consistent site for histologic lesion in parkinsonism is:
a. caudate nucleus
b. substantia nigra
c. red nucleus
d. putamen
54. Answer: B
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55. Increased hormonal stimulation may cause cells to undergo:
a. atrophy
c. hyperplasia
b. metaplasia
d. dysplasia
55. Answer: C
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56. A reversible change or alteration in adult cells characterized by variation in size, shape and
organization:
a. metaplasia
c. dysplasia
b. hyperplasia
d. atrophy
56. Answer: C
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57. Type of cellular adaptation where there is marked increase in the number of autophagosomes
accompanied by decrease in the number of mitochondria, myofilaments, ad endoplasmic reticulum:
a. hypertrophy
c. hyperplasia
b. atrophy
d. metaplasia
57. Answer: B
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58. The most common cause of hypoxic injury is;
a. ischemia
b. depletion of oxygen-carrying capacity of blood

c. poisoning of the oxidative enzymes within the cells
d. thrombosis
58. Answer: A
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59. The sum of all morphologic changes following cell death:

a. necrosis
c. autolysis
b. heterolysis
d. autophagy
59. Answer: A
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60. The characteristic cellular infiltrate in the early phase of acute inflammation:
a. lymphocyte
c. plasma cells
b. neutrophils
d. eosinophil
60. Answer: B
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61. The immediate transient phase of vascular permeability in most types of tissue injury is mediated
by:
a. histamine
c. complement
b. prostaglandins
d. bradykinin
61. Answer: A
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62. The characteristic cell of a granuloma:
a. Langhans type giant cell
c. lymphocyte
b. epithelioid cell
d. plasma cell
62. Answer: B
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63. The essential features of a granulation tissue:
a. fibroblasts and inflammatory cells
c. edema & inflammatory cell
b. small blood vessels and fibroblasts
d. inflammatory cells & vessels
63. Answer: B
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64. Acute pancreatitis:
a. coagulation necrosis
c. liquefaction necrosis
b. caseation necrosis
d. enzymatic fat necrosis
64. Answer: D
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65. Acute inflammation is characterized by the following:
A. relatively long duration
B. proliferation blood vessels and connective tissue
65. Answer: D
C. emigration of macrophages
D. exudation
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66. The most common mechanism of vascular leakage elicited by free oxygen radicals:
A. endothelial contraction
C. leukocyte-dependent leakage
B. direct endothelial cell injury
D. regeneration of endothelial cell
th
66. Answer: B
Robbins 6 ed pp. 55 / 76
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67. Leukocyte adhesion, chemotaxis and activation are important inflammatory mediator processes
performed by complement factor:
A. C7a
C. C5a
B. C6a
D. C1a
67. Answer: C
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68.
Oxygen-derived free radicals are implicated in:

A. endothelial cell damage
B. release of histamine
68. Answer: A
C. tissue regeneration
D. prostaglandin release
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69. This inflammatory infiltrate is the prima donna of chronic inflammation because of the great
number of biologically active substances it releases:
A. lymphocytes
C. neutrophils
B. macrophage
D. plasma cells
69. Answer: B
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70. Adaptation has happen:
a. if the cell undergoes necrosis
c. ..is replaced by another cell type
b. loses its genetic apparatus
d. undergoes dystrophic calcification
70. Answer: C
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71. Characteristics of benign tumors:
a. invasive
c. immortal
b. cohesive
71. Answer: B
d. escape from regulatory control

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72. The most reliable feature of malignancy:

a. metastasis
c. rate of growth
b. differentiation
d. invasion
72. Answer: A
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73. The most common route of metastasis of a carcinoma:
a. contiguity
c. hematogenous
b. lymphatic
d. iatrogenic
73. Answer: B
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74. The most important prognostic factor for malignancy:
a. stage
c. invasion
b. grade
d. localization
74. Answer: A
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75. A 25-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use has had one bout of Pneumocystis carinii
pneumonia which was successfully treated a year ago. He now has a WBC count of 3600/microliter
with differential count of 78 segs, 3 bands, 5 lymphs, and 14 monos. He has recently developed
painful, progressive visual loss involving both eyes. Which of the following infections is he most likely
to have:
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Staphylococcus aures
D. Cytomegalovirus
75. Answer: D
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76. A 65-year-old previously healthy woman has had a non-productive cough increasing in severity
over the last 10 days. She has a temperature of 38.0 C. A chest radiograph shows faint interstitial
infiltrates but no areas of consolidation. A CBC reveals a WBC count of 8900/microliter with differential
count of 60 segs, 3 bands, 25 lymphs, and 12 monos. A sputum gram stain reveals a few gram
positive cocci, gram negative cocci, and Candida with few neutrophils. Her condition gradually
improves over the next week. Which of the following infectious agents is most likely responsible for her
illness:
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Staphylococcus aures
D. Influenza A virus
76. Answer: D
Robbins 6th ed pp.348
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77. A 39-year-old man had an acute febrile illness with fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and
malaise following a trip to a city known for its commercial sex workers. In how many years would you
predict that his peripheral blood CD4 lymphocyte count will drop below 200/microliter:
A. one
C. ten
B. five
D. fifteen
77. Answer: C
Robbins 6th ed pp.246-248
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78. A 20-year-old commercial sex worker has lower abdominal pain of 24 hours duration. There is no
previous history of pain. She is febrile, her total WBC is 29,000/mm3 with 85% neutrophils. She has a
markedly tender lower abdomen on palpation. Laparotomy reveals a distended, fluid-filled reddened
left fallopian tube that is about to rupture. The tube is removed. A culture of the fluid from the tube is
most likely to grow:
A.
TB bacilli
C.
AIDS virus
B.
Neisseria gonorrhea
D.
Human Papilloma virus
78. Answer: B
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79. A 10-year-old child has a severe watery diarrhea that causes her to become severely dehydrated
over the past two days. The persistent activation of adenylate cyclase by GTP leads to excessive
intestinal fluid loss. Which of the following organisms is most likely to produce a toxin that has this
effect:
A. Eschericia coli
C. Vibrio cholera
B. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Salmonella enteritidis
79. Answer: C
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80. An 18-year-old man is plowing a field on a hillside. He discovers a deep, penetrating puncture
wound to his foot. He walks home and washes the soil off the wound site and puts a bandage over it. A
week later the wound is healing, and the leg is not swollen, but he begins to experience generalized
muscle spasms, with stiffness and pain in his shoulders and back. He has difficulty with eating and
swallowing, with painful stiff jaw and facial muscles. Which of the following organisms is most likely
responsible for these findings :
A. Clostridium tetani
C. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Clostridium perfringens
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
80. Answer: A
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81. A 41-year-old man has a chronic cough and recently experienced an episode of hemoptysis. A
chest radiograph shows a cavitary 4 cm nodule in the right upper lung. There are a few adjacent
smaller nodules with calcifications. The best diagnosis is:
A. AIDS with cytomegalovirus
C. Bronchopneumonia with
pseudomonas
B. Secondary tuberculosis
D. peripheral organizing pulmonary thromboembolus
81. Answer: C
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82. A 40-year-old man has had a productive cough with yellowish sputum for several days. A complete
blood count shows that he has a total WBC count of 15,700/microliter with differential count of 73
segs, 10 bands, 12 lymphs, and 5 monos. He has a fever of 38.9 C. A chest radiograph reveals a
nodule in the left upper lobe that has a central cavity with an air-fluid level. Which of the following
findings is most likely to be present in his sputum|:
A. +2 acid fast bacilli
C. 4+ gram positive cocci
B.
atypical squamous cells
D. hemosiderin-laden macrophages
82. Answer: C
Robbins 6th ed pp.367 / 722
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83. A 78-year-old woman has a history of Alzheimer's disease. She dies after an illness lasting only a
two-day history of fever and cough productive of copious amounts of yellowish sputum. Her vital signs
on admission included blood pressure 110/75 mm Hg, pulse 105, respirations 26, and temperature
38.1 C. She had dullness to percussion at the right lung base. The microscopic findings from the right
lower lobe at autopsy include numerous neutrophils within the alveolar spaces, with minimal
destruction of alveolar walls. What was the most likely infectious cause for her pulmonary disease:
A.
Influenza A virus
C. streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Cytomegalovirus
83. Answer: C
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84. A 22-year-old woman has experienced episodes of myalgias, pleural effusions, pericarditis, and
arthralgias without joint deformity over the course of several years. She has continued working at her
job. A CBC reveals a mild normocytic anemia. The best laboratory screening test to begin the workup
for her condition would be a(an):
A. CD4 lymphocyte count
C. antinuclear antibody test
B. Blood culture
D. creatine phosphokinase
84. Answer: C
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85. A male infant was born at term. No congenital anomalies were noted at birth. A year later he now
has failure to thrive and has been getting one bacterial pneumonia after another with both Hemophilus
influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae cultured from his sputum. You should most strongly suspect
that he has which of the following diseases
A. Di George Syndrome
C. EBV infection
B. Selective IgA deficiency
D. X-inked agammaglobulinemia
th
85. Answer: D
Robbins 6 ed pp.232-233
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86. An appropriate, useful type I hypersensitivity response of the immune system, accompanied by
eosinophilia, would be directed against:
A. amyloid protein
C. neoplasms
B. pinworm infection
D. inhaled dusts
86. Answer: B
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87. A 54-year-old woman is found to have a blood pressure of 170/110 mm Hg. Her fingers become
cold and painful upon exposure to cold. She has mild dyspnea, but no wheezing. The antinuclear
antibody test is positive with a titer of 1:256 and a nucleolar pattern. Her serum urea nitrogen is 15
mg/dL with creatinine of 1.1 mg/dL. These findings most strongly suggest that she has which of the
following autoimmune diseases:
A. discoid lupus erythematosus
C. polymyositis-dermatomyositis
B. progressive systemic sclerosis
D. rheumatoid arthritis
87. Answer: B
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88. Several hours after going on a hike through dense foliage, a 40-year-old man notices a slightly
raised and tender irregular reddish rash on one forearm that was not covered by clothing. This rash
gradually increases in intensity for a couple of days and then fades after two weeks. The rash is most
indicative of:
A. Type I
C. Type III
B. Type II
D. Type IV
88. Answer: D
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89. The second pregnancy of a 23-year-old woman appears uncomplicated until ultrasound
performed at 19 weeks shows hydrops fetalis. The fetal organ development is consistent for 19 weeks,
and no congenital anomalies are noted. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and resulted in the
birth of a normal girl at term. The current pregnancy yields a baby born prematurely at 32 weeks
gestation with marked icterus. The baby is also markedly anemic, and an exchange transfusion is
performed. Which of the following immunologic mechanisms best explains these findings
A. anti-receptor antibody
C. immune complex formation
B. complement-mediated cell destruction
D. delayed type
hypersentsitivity
89. Answer: B
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90. A man in his mid-30's presents with malar skin rash, polyarthritis with swelling and warmth of his
hands, and sensitization to cold. On physical examination he has generalized lymphadenopathy and
pale conjunctivae. Laboratory findings include a hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL, total WBC count of
2100/microliter, total serum protein 8.8 g/dL, albumin 3.6 g/dL, creatinine 1.1 mg/dL, and creatine
kinase of 468 U/L. His antinuclear antibody test is positive at 1:256. The best additional serologic test
to help determine his underlying disease process is:
A. Anti-centromere
C. Rheumatoid Factor
B. Anti-RNP
D. Serum C1q complement level
90. Answer: B
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91. Several weeks following a pharyngitis in which the throat culture grew group A hemolytic
streptococcus, a child is noted to have hematuria on urinalysis. An immunofluorescence staining
pattern in a renal biopsy shows granular deposition of IgG and complement around glomerular
capillary loops. Which of the following immune hypersensitivity mechanisms is most likely responsible
for this pattern of findings
A. Type I
C. Type III
B. Type II
D. Type IV
91. Answer: C
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92. A 48-year-old man has a chronic cough with fever that have persisted for several months. The
chest radiograph reveals a diffuse reticulonodular pattern. Microscopically on transbronchial biopsy
there are focal areas of inflammation containing epitheloid macrophages, Langhan's giant cells, and
lymphocytes. These findings are most typical for which of the following immunologic responses:
A. Type I
C. Type III
B. Type II
D. Type IV
92. Answer: D
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93. A 31-year-old woman with chest pain for the past week has a chest radiograph that shows modest
bilateral pleural effusions. On chest CT scan, the pleural effusions, as well as a pericardial effusion, are
observed. A thoracentesis on the left yields clear fluid with a low protein and cell count. She is found to
have an anti-double stranded DNA titer of 1:512. If she is later found to have a serum urea nitrogen
that is 55 mg/dL, it will probably be the result of which of the following pathologic processes
A. atherosclerosis
C. amyloid deposition
B. glomerular immune deposits
D. Anti-glomerular basement membrane
93. Answer: B
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94. A 5 cm well-encapsulated mass was excised from the breast of a 21-year-old woman.
Histologically, the mass was composed of elongated, ductlike structures surrounded by
loose, fibrous connective tissue. Diagnosis
A. fibroadenoma
B. intraductal papilloma
C Pagets disease
D. Phyllodes tumor
94. Answer: A
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95. An 18-year-old medical student complains of poor concentration and easy fatigability. She
had heavy menstrual bleeding but was otherwise healthy. Examination of the blood showed
a microcytic, hypochromic erythrocytes. Diagnosis?
A. aplastic anemia
B. sickle cell anemia
C. thalassemia
D. iron deficiency anemia
95. Answer: B
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96. A 30-year-old man known to be a heavy smoker developed gangrene of the leg, which had
to be amputated. Intraluminal thrombi associated with microabscesses in the wall of
medium sized arteries were found in the resected leg. Diagnosis?
A. Henoch-Sholein purpura
B. Syphilis
10
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
D. Buerger disease
96. Answer: D
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97. Ocular muscle weakness and general fatigability were found in a 38-year-old woman who
also had antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Diagnosis?
A. Graves disease
B. Polymyositis
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome
97. Answer: C
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98. Congenital aplasia of the thymus and parathyroid glands was discovered in a neonate that
developed spastic contraction on the second postpartum day. Diagnosis?
A. Goodpasture syndrome
B. DiGeorge syndrome
C. Isolated IgA deficiency
D. Brutons agammaglobulinemia
98. Answer: B
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99. Hemorrhagic cutaneous nodules in a male homosexual with AIDS. Diagnosis?
A. hemangioma
B. lentigo maligna
C. neurofibroma
D. Kaposi sarcoma
99. Answer: D
Robbins 6th ed pp535
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100. Short female with web neck and amenorrhea. Her karyotype was 45,X. Diagnosis?
A. Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Fragile-X syndrome
Answer: A
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PATHOLOGY

Choose the BEST answer

1. Acute myelogenous leukemia is:

2. Hodgkins lymphoma with the worst prognosis:

4. Plasma cells are characterized by

5. Paroxysmal hypertension is most typically associated with which of the following?

19. The most common appearance of nephrotic syndrome in adults is:

Robbins 6th ed pp. 953

20. Nutmeg liver is a gross finding seen in:

32. Myocardial disease gradually producing 4-chamber dilatation:

38. Acute erosive gastritis is characterized by:

Robbins 6th ed pp. 789-790

39. The most common site of chronic gastric peptic ulcer:

44. Brown tumors of bone is associated with:

45. The most frequent site of compression fracture is:

46. Rheumatoid arthritis usually has its origin in:

48. The most likely malignant bone tumor in a 65 yo man is:

49. The most common primary type of bronchogenic carcinoma is:

51. The single most characteristic feature of bronchiectasis is:

b. depletion of oxygen-carrying capacity of blood

59. The sum of all morphologic changes following cell death:

Oxygen-derived free radicals are implicated in:

Robbins 6th ed pp. 270

d. escape from regulatory control

72. The most reliable feature of malignancy:

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