Mid PDF

System Analysis
Chapter 1
Assuming the Role of the Analyst
True-False
1. Information along with financial, material, and human resources is now
regarded as a key resource in many organizations. T (p. 1)
2. A management information system departs from the traditional transaction
processing system in that it emphasizes the support of decision making in all
its phases. F (p. 3)
3. Knowledge work systems use common software tools to manipulate but not
create new information. F (p. 3)
4. Computer supported collaborative work might include groupware for teams
via networked computers. T (p. 4)
5. User involvement throughout the systems project is of little importance in
the successful development of business information systems. F (p. 7)
6. The three primary roles of the systems analyst are as consultant, supporting
expert, and change agent. T (p. 8)
7. When analysts are hired specifically from outside the business to address
information systems issues within a business, they are acting as supporting
experts. F (p. 8)
8. Each phase of the system development life cycle is accomplished as a
discrete, separate step. F (p. 10)
9. The first phase that the analyst enters into is that of determining information
requirements for the particular users involved. F (p. 10)
10. A systems proposal is prepared after the analysis of system needs. T (p.
12)
11. Structured techniques like the structure charts, Nassi-Schneiderman charts,

and pseudocode are chiefly useful during the system evaluation and
implementation phase. F (p. 12)
12. When each phase of the SDLC has been finished, there is rarely any need to
review or modify the work done in that phase. F (p. 13)
13. CASE tools have the potential of increasing systems analysts' productivity.
T (p. 15)
14. CASE tools allow the user to easily draw and modify data flow diagrams. T
(p. 15)
15. It is the drawing of data flow diagrams, rather than in their modification,
that CASE tools excel over the use of templates. F (p. 15)
16. Since CASE tools are located on only one microcomputer, they are of little
use in helping team members communicate. F (p. 15)
17. Upper CASE tools help the analyst and designer. T (p. 16)
18. A disadvantage of using lower CASE tools is that time to maintain systems
is increased. F (p. 16)
19. Code generators create error free computer programs. T (p. 17)
20. Object-oriented techniques are used when systems are stable and not
undergoing much maintenance. F (p. 19)
21. The four values of extreme programming are communication, simplicity,
feedback, and courage. T (p. 20)
22. One of the advantages of ecommerce is creating a system that can extend
globally. T (p. 5)
23. ERP is a method for developing Web sites for a single user group. F (p. 5)
24. Mcommerce systems are developed for handheld wireless devices. T (p. 6)
25. Open source software is distributed for free and then users pay for updates
to the software. F (p. 6)
Multiple Choice
26. Which of these systems processes large amounts of data for routine
transactions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Transaction processing systems (p. 2)

Decision support systems
Expert systems
Management information systems
27. Which of these is the most personalized?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Data-processing systems
Decision support systems (p. 3)
Expert systems
28. Which of these systems allows management to think about strategic

problems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Group decision support systems

Expert systems
Executive support systems (p. 4)
29. Which of these is not considered to be a primary role of a systems analyst?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Change agent
Consultant
Programmer (p. 8)
Supporting expert
30. Which of these characteristics is most important to a systems analyst?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Communicator
Problem solver (p. 9)
Programmer
Project manager
31. Which of these statements concerning the systems development life cycle is
true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Designing the system is the first step in the SDLC.

No phase can occur until the previous phase is completed.
Although each phase is presented discretely, it is never
accomplished as a separate step. (p. 10)
There is widespread agreement that the SDLC is composed of seven
phases.
32. During which phase of the SDLC should the analyst determine the who,
what, where, when, and how of the current system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Determining Information Requirements (p. 11)

Analyzing System Needs
Designing the System
Implementing and Evaluating the System
33. In which phase of the SDLC are data flow diagrams constructed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Determining Information Requirements

Analyzing System Needs (p. 11)
Testing and Maintaining the System
34. During which phase of the SDLC are structure charts most useful?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Developing and Documenting Software (p. 12)
35. During which phase of the SDLC is the analyst concerned with determining
problems within the organization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Identifying Problems, Opportunities, and Objectives (p. 10)

Determining Information Requirements
36. In which phase of the SDLC is the analyst most heavily involved in user
training?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Developing and Documenting Software
Testing and Maintaining System
Implementing and Evaluating the System (p. 13)
37. System maintenance must be performed to:

A.
B.
C.
D.
correct software errors.

add capabilities to the software.
incorporate new business or government requirements to the software.
All of the above (p. 14)
38. Which of these is not an approach taken by the analyst when adopting
CASE tools?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Communicating more effectively with users

Expediting the local area network (p. 15)
Increasing productivity
Integrating the work done during life cycle stages
39. An encyclopedia that is used to store all project information is called a(n):
A.
B.
C.
D.
data dictionary.
upper CASE tool.
repository. (p. 16)
lower CASE tool.
40. An advantage of software reverse engineering is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
maintenance time is reduced. (p. 19)

documentation may be eliminated.
code is created from system design.
the program code is guaranteed to be free from errors.
41. Which of the following methodologies uses rich pictures that capture
organizational narratives?
A.
ETHICS
B.
Project Champion
C.
Soft Systems (p. 20)
D.
Multiview
42. Which of the following is not an advantage of mounting an application on
the Web?
A.
It is easy to create a Web site to which different cultures can
relate. (p. 5)
B.
The possibility of 24-hour access for users
C.
Increasing awareness of the availability of a service, product, person,
industry, or group
D.
Standardizing the design of the interface
43. Enterprise resource planning systems integrate:
A.
B.
C.
D.
different cultures across the globe in an ecommerce environment.

legacy systems into an extranet.
information systems existing on different management levels. (p.
5)
resources so that capital expenditures are minimized.
44. Designing systems for wireless handheld devices is called:

A.
B.
C.
D.
small-scale systems.
wcommerce.
mcommerce. (p. 6)
enterprise resource planning.
45. Program software distributed free with the code or computer instructions
available for anyone to modify is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
freeware.
code independent software.
a distributed system.
open source software. (p. 6)
46. When groups need to work together to make semistructured or unstructured

decisions, a solution is to use a(n):
A.
B.
C.
D.
executive support system.

group decision support system. (p. 4)
expert system.
knowledge work system.
47. An object-oriented approach to systems development that includes a method

of development as well as software tools is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
rapid application development. (p. 11)

artificial intelligence.
CASE toolset development.
SDLC.
48. A standardized language in which a system is broken down into a use case
model is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
artificial intelligence.
a distributed system.
the unified modeling language. (p. 19)
multiview.
49. Which of the following is not one of the fundamental components of

extreme programming?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pressure (p. 20)

Values
Principles
Core practices
50. Which of the following is not one of the four values of extreme
programming?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Communication
Expertise (p. 20)
Simplicity
Courage
Completion
51. Decision makers are beginning to understand that (information) is not just a
by-product of conducting business, but a critical factor in determining the
success or failure of a business. (p. 1)
52. (Transaction processing systems) are computerized information systems
developed to process large amounts of data for routine business transactions
such as payroll and inventory. (p. 2)
53. When groups of people need to work together to make decisions, a(n)
(group decision support system) may be used. (p. 4)
54. The (database) stores data and models that help the user interpret and use
the data. (p. 3)
55. A(n) (expert system), also called a knowledge-based system, effectively
captures and uses the knowledge of an expert for solving a particular
problem experienced in an organization. (p. 4)
56. When analysts perform any activities in the systems development life cycle
and are present in the business for an extended period of time, they are
acting as (change agents). (p. 9)
57. The most prominent quality of an analyst is that of a(n) (problem solver).
(p. 9)
58. (Opportunities) are situations that the analyst believes can be improved
through the use of information systems. (p. 10)
59. The (systems proposal) summarizes what has been found during the
systems analysis phase, provides cost/benefit analyses of alternatives, and
makes recommendations on what should be done. (p. 12)
60. The (program specifications packet) contains design information
necessary for programmers to construct programs. (p. 12)
61. (Implementation) involves training users to use the system and planning for
the smooth conversion of the old system to the new one. (p. 13)
62. One important justification for CASE tools is to increase analyst
(productivity). (p. 15)
63. CASE tools are useful in (integrating) life-cycle activities. (p. 16)
64. CASE tools help the analyst to increase productivity, (communicate) more
effectively with users, and integrate the systems life cycle work. (p. 15)
65. (Lower CASE) tools generate computer code. (p. 16)
66. The process of analyzing computer program source code and converting it
into repository entities is called (reverse engineering). (p. 18)
67. (Ecommerce) is mounting an application on the Web. (p. 4)
68. (Enterprise resource planning) is the integration of many information
systems existing on different management levels and within different
functions. (p. 5)
69. Wireless ecommerce is referred to as (mcommerce). (p. 6)
70. Software that is distributed free along with the program source code is called
(open source software) (p. 6)
71. The (Unified modeling language) is an industry standard for modeling
object-oriented systems. (p. 19)
72. (Extreme programming) takes good software development practices and
pushes them to the limit. (p. 20)
Chapter 2
Understanding Organizational Style and Its Impact on Information Systems
True-False
1. Subsystems are composed of systems. F (p. 27)
2. Systems and subsystems are interrelated and interdependent. T (p.
28)
3. The interface between a system and its environment is known as the
boundary. T (p. 28)
4. Feedback is a form of system control. T (p. 28)
5. Anything that affects the functioning of an organization is considered
to be an environment. F (p. 29)
6. Open systems are characterized by a free flow of ideas among
organizational members. T (p. 29)
7. A context-level data flow diagram includes many detailed processes
representing the computer programs within the system. F (p. 32)
8. In an entity-relationship diagram, rectangles represent entities, and
ovals represent relationships. F (p. 34)
9. The elements that make up an organizational system are referred to as
entities. T (p. 33)
10. A crows foot on each side of a relationship indicates a one-to-one
relationship. F (p. 34)
11. An associative entity joins two entities. T (p. 36)
12. Middle managers make decisions using predetermined rules that have
predictable outcomes when implemented correctly. F (p. 39)
13. Strategic managers work in a highly uncertain decision-making

environment. T (p. 40)
14. Operations managers most often make one-time decisions but the
decisions made by strategic managers tend to be repetitive. F (p. 40)
15. Middle managers are highly dependent on external information. F
(p. 41)
16. Strategic planners tend to use information that is more current than
information used by middle managers. F (p. 41)
17. Often, considering organizational subcultures is more useful than
considering organizational culture. T (p. 42)
18. Understanding organizational subcultures may help analysts
overcome resistance to change. T (p. 42)
19. Virtual enterprises use computer networks and communications
technology to bring people together on a project. T (p. 29)
20. One drawback of working on a virtual team is that there is no easy
way for members to share project results. F (p. 30)
21. Enterprise resource planning is a method of developing specifications
for computer programs and then writing custom enterprise-wide
software. F (p. 32)
22. Implementing an enterprise resource system is easy because it is easy
to analyze a system currently in use. F (p. 32)
23. Another name for an associative entity is a gerund. T (p. 36)
24. A many-to-many relationship may be implemented by using an
attributive entity on one end. F (p. 37)
25. A zero on one end of a relationship line indicates that there may be
none of the entity that the line is connected to. T (p. 34)
Multiple Choice
26. Which of the following is most closely associated with system control?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Boundary
Environment
Feedback (p. 28)
Interface
27. The elements that make up an organizational system are called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
entities (p. 33)

events
factors
relationships
28. Which of the following symbols is not used on the context level data flow
diagram?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rectangle with rounded corners

Triangle (p. 33)
Arrow
Shaded corner square
29. The context-level data flow diagram depicts:

A.
B.
C.
D.
the boundaries of a system. (p. 33)

detailed processes that transform the incoming data to information.
the system entities and how they are related.
computer programs and their files.
30. An external entity may be:

A.
B.
C.
D.
a person.
another department.
another computer system.
31. Which of the following is used to depict a relationship in an

entity-relationship diagram?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Triangle
Square
Crows foot line (p. 34).
Rectangle
32. An organization with many employees and many cubicles, with each
employee having a unique phone extension is said to be a _____
relationship.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1:1 (p. 34)

1:M
M:1
M:N
33. A crows foot notation indicates:

A.
B.
C.
D.
none of the other entity.

one of the other entity.
an attributive entity.
many of the other entity. (p. 34)
34. An entity that describes attributes, such as repeating groups is called a(n)
_______ entity.
A.
fundamental
B.
associative
C.
attributive (p. 36x
D.
external
35. An entity that joins two other entities is called a(n) ______ entity.
A.
B.
C.
D.
fundamental
associative (p. 36)
attributive
linking
36. A many-to-many relationship is replaced with a(n)

two one-to-many relationships.
A.
B.
C.
D.
entity to form
fundamental
associative (p. 37)
attributive
bipolar
37. Which level of management makes decisions using predetermined rules that
have predictable outcomes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Operations (p. 39)

Middle
Strategic
None of the above
38. Which level of management is most dependent on external information?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Operations
Middle
Strategic (p. 41)
None of the above
39. Which view of organizations concentrates on myths, metaphors, humor, and

ceremonies?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Culture (p. 42)

Human relationships
Leadership style
Technology
40. Anything external to an organizations boundaries is considered to be:

A.
B.
C.
D.
of little importance.
an environment. (p. 29)
an enterprise resource system.
an associative entity.
41. The free flow of information within a system is called:

A.
open source information.
B.
a virtual organization.
C.
openness. (p. 29)
D.
enterprise-wide resource availability.
42. A(n) ________ uses computer networks and communications technology to
bring people together to work on projects.
A.
B.
C.
D.
virtual enterprise (p. 29)

open system
enterprise system
official subculture
43. An integrated organizational information system is called a(n):

A.
B.
C.
D.
virtual organization.
open system.
interrelated external entity.
enterprise resource planning system. (p. 32)
44. An enterprise resource planning system:

A.
is purchased rather than developed. (p. 32)
B.
links team members at remote distances.
C.
uses project management software to develop program coding
schedules.
D.
involves the use of isolated systems that do not interact.
45. The symbol used to represent a process on a context-level data flow diagram
is a(n):
A.
B.
C.
D.
diamond inside a rectangle.

circle.
oval inside a rectangle.
rectangle with rounded corners. (p. 33)
46. Processes on a data flow diagram:

A.
transform incoming data into outgoing information. (p. 32)
B.
represent the system boundaries.
C.
represent the work that a specific user performs.
D.
change the nature of the relationships on a entity-relationship
diagram.
47. Another name for an associative entity is a(n):
A.
B.
C.
D.
attributive entity.
external entity.
co-variant entity.
gerund. (p. 36)
48. A zero on a relationship line indicates:

A.
that the relationship line is undefined.
B.
the absence of any well-defined entities.
C.
that none is possible for the next relationship. (p. 34)
D.
that the relationship should be used to create an associative entity.
49. Attributes that are underlined on an entity-relationship diagram:
A.
B.
C.
D.
are the names of external entities.

can be found by using a search tool. (p. 38)
represent virtual organizational components.
are used to create attributive entities.
50. The group that has a high need for historical data along with information
that allows prediction of future events is _______ management.
A.
B.
C.
D.
operations
middle (p. 41)
strategic.
virtual
Completion
51. All systems are composed of interrelated (subsystems). (p. 27)
52. (Processes) change or transform inputs into outputs. (p. 28)

53. All systems and subsystems are interrelated and (interdependent), which
indicates that when any element of a system is changed or eliminated, other
system elements are also affected. (p. 28)
54. The interface between a system and its environment is known as the
(boundary). (p. 28)
55. System outputs are used as (feedback) to compare performance with goals.
(p. 28)
56. A(n) (open) system has a relatively free flow of information within the
organization. (p. 29)
57. A(n) (context level data flow diagram) defines the boundaries of the
system. (p. 33)
58. (Entities) supply the system with data or receive information from the
system. (p. 33)
59. A(n) (entity-relationship diagram) is used to help model the database or
files. (p. 38)
60. A(n) (circle) on one end of a relationship indicates that none of the entity
are a possibility. (p. 34)
61. A(n) (associative entity) joins two fundamental entities. (p. 36)
62. The level of management concerned with making decisions using
predetermined rules that have predictable outcomes is the (operations)
manager. (p. 39)
63. (Subcultures) coexist with "official" organizational cultures. (p. 42)
64. A(n) (virtual enterprise) uses computer networks and communications
technology to bring people together to work on projects. (p. 29)
65. A(n) (enterprise resource planning) system describes an integrated
organizational information system. (p. 32)
Chapter 3
Determining Feasibility and Managing Analysis and Design Activities
True-False
1. Feedback gives information about the gap between actual and intended
performance. T (p. 50)
2. Analysts should have little interest in improving worker satisfaction with the
system. F (p. 50)
3. Prospective projects should be examined from a systems perspective in
order to consider the impact of the proposed change on the entire
organization. T (p. 51)
4. Reducing errors of data input is a legitimate object of systems projects. T
(p. 53)
5. A feasibility impact grid is used to show how each system component
affects corporate objectives. T (p. 54)
6. The objectives for the project should be cleared formally on paper as well as
informally through talking to people in the business. T (p. 55)
7. Economic feasibility includes the cost of operating the system, but not the
cost of the systems analysis team. F (p. 56)
8. Technical feasibility is dependent upon determining human resources for the
project. F (p. 56)
9. Judging the feasibility of a proposed systems project is usually a clear-cut
decision. F (p. 57)
10. A commitment from management to conduct a feasibility study means that

the proposed system is accepted. F (p. 57)
11. Using a weighted average formula to determine expected activity times is
probably the best strategy for estimating those times. F (p. 59)
12. The main advantage of the PERT diagram is its simplicity. F (p. 59)
13. PERT is an acronym for Program Evaluation and Review Techniques. T
(p. 60)
14. PERT is useful when activities can be done in parallel rather than in
sequence. T (p. 60)
15. The length of the arrows in a PERT diagram has a direct relationship with
the duration of the activity. F (p. 60)
16. The critical path is defined as the most expensive path. F (p. 61)
17. PERT diagrams occasionally need to use dummy activities to preserve the
logic. T (p. 61)
18. An advantage of PERT diagrams is the easy determination of slack time. T
(p. 62)
19. Personal information manager software can perform analysis of Gantt charts
and PERT diagrams. F (p. 64)
20. A dysfunctional norm may make team members squander precious
resources. T (p. 65)
21. COTS software packages are used as is and do not support customization.
F (p. 67)
22. Systems analysts make the final decision about whether a proposed project
is worthy of further study. F (p. 68)
23. Timeboxing uses a PERT chart to calculate the minimum amount of time to
develop the complete system and uses the resultant due date as the
installation date. F (p. 64)

24. One of the differences between managing traditional projects and
ecommerce projects is that all ecommerce team members have the same set
of skills. F (p. 67)
25. A major difference between managing a traditional project and an
ecommerce project is that the ecommerce project require developing and
implementing a security plan before the new system is installed. T (p. 68)
26. One of the reasons programmers gave for project failure was the belief that
adding more people to a project would expedite the project. T (p. 68)
27. The main difference between XP and traditional project management is that
you quickly determine resource requirements, then meet with users to
confirm the findings. F (p. 68)
28. One of the four control variables of extreme programming may be adjusted
to compensate for other variables that may be deficient. T (p. 68)
29. A method that works to decrease the time required to complete a project is
to use increased funds to hire additional programmers. F (p. 71)
30. The one resource that extreme programming does not allow the analyst to
change is quality. F (p. 71)
31. In extreme programming, scope is determined by listening to customers and
getting them to write down their stories. T (p. 71)
32. Having employees work only forty hours a week is one of the extreme
programming core practices. T (p. 73)
33. The extreme programmer is asked above all to be a rash decision maker. F
(p. 73)
34. In extreme programming, the Big Boss needs to show that they have
courage in the face of difficult scheduling or functional decisions. F (p. 74)
35. In extreme programming, customers decide what the development team
should tackle first. T (p. 75)
36. Two words that characterize a project done with the extreme programming
approach are interactive and incremental. T (p. 77)
37. During the productionizing stage, software versions are turned around in a
time span of about one month. F (p. 78)
Multiple Choice
38. One way to think about problems is to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
think that they arise from bad programming and older technology.
visualize them as elements on a feasibility impact grid.
realize that we all make mistakes and not assign blame to anyone.
reflect on the lack of perfection within any team framework and avoid
the blame syndrome.
think about them as situations where goals have never been met
or are no longer being met. (p. 50)
39. Which of the following is not a specific criteria for project selection?
A.
Appropriate timing of project commitment
B.
Practicality in terms of resources for the analyst and organization
C.
Backing from programmers (p. 52)
D.
Worthwhile project compared with other ways the organization could
invest resources
E.
Possibility of improving attainment of organizational goals
40. Improvements to systems include all the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
combining processes.
improving worker satisfaction with the system.
increasing redundant output. (p. 53)
reducing errors in input through changes of forms and display screens.
speeding up a process.
41. A feasibility impact grid is used to:

A.
determine the technical, economic, and operational feasibility of
programs.
B.
assess the impact improvements to existing systems can make. (p.
53)
C.
understand the time and money needed for both hardware and human
resources.
D.
plot the operational feasibility of the new system against the human
resources available.
42. Which of the following is not a corporate objective affected by
improvements to an information system?
A.
Improving cooperation with vendors and partners
B.
Improving customer service
C.
Improving the software development strategy of the organization
(p. 53)
D.
Improving internal decision support so that decisions are more
effective
43. The systems analyst should spend _____ time doing feasibility studies,
because _____ projects will be executed.
A.
B.
C.
D.
little; few (p. 52)

little; many
much; few
much; many
44. Which of the following is an acceptable objective of systems projects?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Asserting the superiority of one department over another

Automating for the sake of automation
Integrating business subsystems (p. 53)
Proving the prowess of the systems analysis team
45. Which of the following is concerned with the current technical resources
that can be upgraded or added to in order to fulfill the requests under
consideration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Economic feasibility
Operational feasibility
Tactical feasibility
Technical feasibility (p. 55)
46. Which of the following is concerned with the analysts time and the costs
for system development, hardware, and business employee time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Economic feasibility (p. 56)

Operational feasibility
Technical feasibility
47. Which of the following is dependent upon determining human resources for
the project?
A.
Economic feasibility
B.
Operational feasibility (p. 56)
C.
D.
Technical feasibility
48. Who has final responsibility for judging the feasibility of a systems project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Computer operators
Input personnel
Management (p. 57)
Programmers
Systems analysts
49. Which of the following is most valuable in estimating project time?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Experience (p. 59)

Historical records
Industry standards
Mathematical programming
50. Which of the following is not an advantage of a Gantt chart?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Communicating with users

Controlling activities
Planning activities
Showing precedence (p. 61)
51. A Gantt chart contains _______ on the vertical axis.

A.
B.
C.
D.
time
money
a description of the activities (p. 59)
precedence
52. Which of these statements about PERT diagrams is not true?

A.
B.
C.
D.
An arrow represents activities.

A circle represents events.
The length of the arrow indicates activity length. (p. 60)
Pseudo activities must occasionally be shown.
53. A PERT diagram is useful when:

A.
activities can be done in parallel rather than sequence. (p. 60)
B.
there is no slack time available.
C.
the project team needs to know which activities should be done at
which point in time.
D.
activities do not have any precedent activities.
54. The longest path through a PERT diagram is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
slack time.
the precedent activity path.
maximum path time.
the critical path. (p. 61)
55. Which of the following is not an advantage of using a PERT diagram over a
Gantt chart?
A.
B.
C.
62)
D.
Easy identification of the order of precedence

Easy determination of slack time
Easy to show activities that occur at any given point in time (p.
Easy identification of the critical path
56. Project scheduling software:

A.
runs best under the DOS operating system.
B.
allows the analyst to easily create Gantt charts and PERT
diagrams. (p. 63)
C.
is primarily used for calendaring functions and to-do lists.
D.
are graphical tools but do not perform any calculations, such as dates
or other information.
57. Which of the following is a technique for prioritizing goals and delivering
the most critical ones on a specific due date?
A.
B.
C.
D.
PERT diagrams
Timeboxing (p. 64)
Gantt charts
Critical path analysis
58. Which of the following is useful for storing phone and fax numbers,
planners and to-do lists?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Personal information managers (p. 64)

Computerized project management software
Timeboxes
Clockwork software
59. When teams have two leaders, there is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
one for technical details, one for user relationships.

one for technical details, one to manage the design of user interfaces.
one for accomplishing tasks, one for social relationships. (p. 65)
one for accomplishing tasks, one for technical design details.
60. Which of the following is not a reason that goal setting motivates team
members?
A.
It clarifies what must be done to get results.
B.
It makes explicit what is expected of team members.
C.
It portrays the operational technology in understandable terms.
(p. 66)
D.
Simply setting goals and monitoring them seems to motivate
individuals.
61. Which of the following is not a difference between managing ecommerce
projects and traditional projects?
A.
The data used in ecommerce is scattered all over the organization.
B.
The staff used for ecommerce has a unified set of skills. (p. 67)
C.
Ecommerce managers need to initially build internal and external
partnerships.
D.
Security in ecommerce is a must.
62. Which of the following is a reason given by programmers for failed
projects?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Impossible or unrealistic completion dates (p. 68)

Not adding more people to the project to expedite it
Seeking outside help instead of trusting the development staff
Not enough programming development tools
63. Which of the following is not one of the four variables that a systems
developer can control?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost
Quality
Scope
Errors (p. 68)
64. The four activities of extreme programming are:

A.
B.
C.
D.
coding, testing, debugging, and implementing.

coding, debugging, implementing, and maintaining.
coding, testing, listening, and designing. (p. 68)
debugging, testing, listening, and designing.
65. Which of the following times is not included in extreme programming

project management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Time to listen to the customers

Time to reflect on what you have learned (p. 69)
Time to design
Time to code
66. Internal software quality includes:

A.
B.
C.
D.
functionality and documentation.

functionality and conformance. (p. 71)
structure and conformance.
modularization and functionality.
67. In extreme programming, scope is determined by:

A.
B.
C.
D.
examining the time and cost of the project, along with required
functionality.
examining the user requirements within budget constraints.
creating diagrams that show the boundaries of the system.
listening to customers and getting them to write down their
stories. (p. 71)
68. Which of the following is not an extreme programming core practice?

A.
Using pair programming
B.
Having an onsite customer
C.
Producing the highest quality software possible (p. 72)
D.
Having a forty hour work week
69. The extreme programming programmer is above all asked to be a(n):
A.
B.
C.
D.
excellent communicator. (p. 73)

quick coder.
efficient debugger.
rash problem solver.
70. Which of the following development team members is responsible for

estimating and providing feedback on the teams estimates?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coach
Big boss
Tracker (p. 74)
Tester
71. Which of the following development team members is responsible for

bringing out the best qualities in all the other team members while
remaining in the background most of the time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coach (p. 75)

Big boss
Tracker
Tester
72. Which of the following is not a benefit of pair programming?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Reducing turnover
Improving documentation quality (p. 76)
Minimizing scope creep
Keeping defects to a minimum
73. Which of the following is not one of the five extreme programming stages?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Exploration
Iterations to the first release
Productionizing
Documenting (p. 77)
Completion
74. (Feedback) gives information about the gap between actual and intended
performance. (p. 50)
75. A(n) (feasibility impact grid) is useful for understanding and assessing the
impacts improvements to the existing system can make. (p. 53)
76. (Operational) feasibility refers to projecting whether the system will be
used once it is installed. (p. 56)
77. (Planning) includes all the activities required to select a systems analysis
team, assign members of the team to appropriate projects, estimate time
required to complete each task, and schedule the project so that tasks are
completed in a timely fashion. (p. 57)
78. (Control) means using feedback to monitor the project. (p. 57)
79. A(n) (Gantt) chart uses bars to represent each task. (p. 59)
80. The longest path through a PERT diagram is referred to as the (critical)
path. (p. 61)
81. An advantage of (PERT diagrams) is that they allow easy identification of
the order of precedence and easy determination of slack time. (p. 62)
82. (Project scheduling) software is used to create PERT diagrams and Gantt
charts. (p. 63)
83. (Timeboxing) is the concept of implementing the most critical features of
the system on an absolute due date. (p. 64)
84. A team leader who is concerned with the social relationships between group
members is known as a(n) (socioemotional) leader. (p. 65)

85. A (dysfunctional) norm is one that could make team members waste
resources. (p. 65)
86. Setting goals can (motivate) team members by clarifying for them and
others what must be done in order to get results. (p. 66)
87. (COTS) software packages are purchased and may allow some
customization. (p. 67)
88. In (ecommerce) systems, the data is scattered across the organization. (p.
67)
89. As ecommerce systems must link with the outside world, developing and
implementing a(n) (security plan) before the new system is in place is an
absolute must. (p. 68)
90. (Extreme programming) takes good systems development practices and
takes them to the extreme. (p. 68)
91. Often a customer is (80) percent satisfied with the first (20) percent of the
functionality of a project. (p. 70)
92. Software quality can be adjusted both (internally) and (externally). (p. 71)
93. In extreme programming, (scope) is determined by listening to customers
and getting them to write down their stories. (p. 71)
94. The extreme programming programmer is above all asked to be an excellent
(communicator). (p. 73)
95. In extreme programming, (customers) need to show that they have courage
in the face of difficult scheduling or functional decisions. (p. 74)
96. The value of a(n) (fishbone diagram) is to systematically list all of the
problems that can occur. (p. 76)
97. Two words that characterize a project done with the extreme programming
approach are (interactive) and (incremental). (p. 77)
Chapter 4
Information Gathering: Interactive Methods
True-False
1. In an interview, opinions may be more important and more revealing than
facts. T (p. 90)
2. When deciding whom to interview, it is unnecessary to include all
organizational levels that will be affected by the system. F (p. 91)
3. A drawback of open-ended questions is the possibility of giving the
impression that the interviewer is unprepared. T (p. 92)
4. A bipolar question is a special kind of open-ended question. F (p. 93)
5. One drawback of closed questions is the possibility that they may bore the
interviewee. T (p. 93)
6. One benefit of a closed interview question is the richness of detail
provided. F (p. 93)
7. When the interviewer begins with a very detailed set of questions and then
expands the scope, the interview is said to have a funnel shape. F (p. 95)
8. A pyramid structure should be used if the analyst believes the interviewee
needs to warm up to the topic. T (p. 95)
9. A funnel-shaped question sequence is useful when the interviewee feels
emotionally about the topic and needs freedom to express those emotions.
T (p. 96)
10. The diamond structure has the advantage of taking less interviewer time.
F (p. 96)
11. The longer you wait to write up your interview, the more suspect the
quality of the data becomes. T (p. 97)
12. No more than one session should be conducted with an interviewee. F (p.
97)
13. A JAD session should be held at a comfortable location away from the
corporate headquarters. T (p. 99)
14. A drawback of holding JAD sessions is that the system usually takes
longer to implement. F (p. 100)
15. It is unimportant to read background information about the organization
prior to an interview because it adds to the expense of the project, and the
information may be obtained from early open-ended questions. F (p. 91)
16. When ending an interview, it is important to ask the interviewee if there is
anything else that they want to add that hasnt been covered. T (p. 96)
17. One advantage of JAD sessions is that it isolates the user from the analysis
and design process. F (p. 101)
18. Behavior is defined as "what people in the organization say they want." F
(p. 101)
19. Responses gained through questionnaires using open-ended questions are
relatively easy to quantify. F (p. 101)
20. Questionnaires are a quick way to gather massive amounts of data. F (p.
102)
21. A questionnaire is an excellent means of doing an in-depth analysis of a
manager's decision-making processes. F (p. 102)
22. Using questionnaires is useful for doing exploratory studies to gauge
overall opinion. T (p. 102)
23. Questionnaires are useful in providing the analyst with interactive

feedback. F (p. 102)
24. Use open-ended questions when it is impossible to list effectively all the
possible responses to the question. T (p. 104)
25. Closed questions should be used when the analyst is able to list all possible
responses to the question. T (p. 105)
26. If an analyst has a standard set of questions for comparing the results of
many departments, it is important to resist the temptation to rewrite the
questions to reflect the businesss own terminology. F (p. 105)
27. To check whether language used on a questionnaire is that of the
respondents, it is good to try some questions on a pilot group. T (p. 105)
28. A guideline in choosing the language of the questionnaire is to ensure that
all questions are technically accurate before inclusion in the final
instrument. T (p. 106)
29. Scales are often arbitrary. T (p. 106)
30. Validity is the degree to which the question measures what the analyst
intends to measure. T (p. 107)
31. Reliability measures the degree to which the respondents may be trusted to
complete the questionnaire. F (p. 107)
32. The problem caused by respondents who are easy raters is called the halo
effect. F (p. 107)
33. One solution to the problem of central tendency is to place one trait and
several employees on each page, rather than one employee and several
traits on a page. F (p. 107)
34. The halo effect is when an impression formed in one question carries into
the next question. T (p. 107)
35. New research shows that respondents are willing to respond to questions
about highly sensitive matters via the Internet. T (p. 111)
Multiple Choice
36. Which of the following is most useful in understanding an organization's
culture more fully?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Goals
Feelings (p. 90)
Informal procedures
Opinions
37. Which of these steps in interview preparation is most helpful in allowing

the interviewer to build a vocabulary common to the interviewee?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Deciding on question types and structure

Deciding whom to interview
Establishing interview objectives
Preparing the interviewee
Reading background material (p. 91)
38. Which of the following should be used to prepare the interviewee?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Email your questions to the interviewee ahead of time so that

he/she can formulate responses. (p. 91)
Tell the interviewee the type and format of the questions.
Let the interviewee know the names of other people that you have
interviewed.
Ask the interviewee what he/she would like to be questioned about.
39. Which of the following interview structures begins with the general and
ends with the specific?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Circle
Diamond
Funnel (p. 95)
Pyramid
40. Which of the following is an advantage of open-ended questions?

A.
Allows more spontaneity (p. 92)
B.
Gets to the point more quickly
C.
Makes comparing interviews easier
D.
Saves time
41. Which of the following is an advantage of closed interview questions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Keeps interviewer in control of the interview (p. 93)

Makes it more interesting for the interviewee
Makes phrasing easier for the interviewer
Provides richness of detail
42. Which kind of question is easiest to analyze?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Closed (p. 93)

Open
Probe
Tactical
43. Probing questions:

A.
B.
C.
D.
should be avoided, because they may make the interviewee feel that
he/she is being interrogated.
are not used when interviewing business professionals because the
questioning should be strictly limited to understanding the system
and business situation.
are used to clarify, draw out and expand on the interviewees
point. (p. 94)
should be done using an investigative/reporter approach.
44. Which structure should be used when you want to warm up the
interviewee to a topic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Funnel
Pyramid (p. 95)
Diamond
Oval
45. After an interview has been conducted, which of these is not a good idea?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Arranging for a follow-up meeting with the interviewee

Proceeding directly to the next scheduled interview while you
are still in "interview mode" (p. 97)
Writing the interview report as soon as possible after the interview
None of the above
46. What question should be asked at the end of an interview?

Are there any answers that you would like to change, now that you
have had time to think things over?"
B.
Others in your organization have provided conflicting information.
Do we have your permission to explain your point of view
C.
Do you mind if we check your answers out with others in future
interviews?
D.
Is there anything we havent touched on that you think it is
important for me to know? (p. 96)
47. The written interview report:
A.
A.
B.
C.
D.
should be written as soon as possible after the interview.

(p. 97)
should be a transcript of the interview.
should not be shown to the interviewee because it may contain
interview opinions that may not be perceived as favorable.
should not contain the users name or position.
48. Which of the following is not an advantage of using Joint Application

Design (JAD)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Users have improved ownership of the system.

The time to develop the system is reduced.
JAD works independent of organizational culture. (p. 100)
JAD helps to generate new ideas.
49. JAD sessions are used:

A.
B.
C.
D.
when several interviews, with several users, contain only closed,

detailed questions.
when the users do not get along with one another.
to perform interviews with management and primary clients outside
the corporation.
to reduce the time and the cost of doing many one-to-one
interviews. (p. 97)
50. A JAD session involves:

A.
casual planning, because the interaction between users is when the

activity occurs in a creative fashion.
B.
using a session leader that has excellent communication skills.
(p. 99)
C.
having a systems analyst as a session leader.
D.
notetaking by all the individuals within the session.
51. JAD sessions may be used when:
A.
B.
C.
D.
user groups are restless and want something new. (p. 99)
organizational culture is very individualistic and the employees need
to learn how to relate to one another.
the users are pressed for time and cannot get away for the block of
time required for many interviews.
the questions are very closed and the analysts are not concerned
about idea generation.
52. Which of the following person(s) should not be included in a JAD session?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Observers
A scribe
A session leader
Clerical level users that are familiar with the data (p. 99)
53. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of JAD sessions?

A. JAD requires a commitment of a large block of time from the users.
B.
C.
D.
If the preparation for a JAD session is inadequate, it may result in a

less than satisfactory design.
Only one or two users have input into a JAD session. (p. 101)
The organizational culture may not support a JAD session.
54. Which term is defined as "what organizational members do"?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Attitudes
Behavior (p. 101)
Beliefs
Characteristics
55. Which term is defined as what people in the organization say they want?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Attitudes (p. 101)

Behavior
Beliefs
Characteristics
56. Which of the following is not a guideline in determining whether use of

questionnaires is appropriate?
A.
The people you need to question are widely dispersed.
B.
There are only a few people involved in the systems project.
(p. 102)
C.
You are doing an exploratory study to gauge overall opinion.
D.
You desire to do problem sensing to identify problems with the
current system.
57. The biggest difference between the questions used for most interviews and
those on questionnaires is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
interview questions may be open ended.

interview questions may be grouped into categories.
interviewing allows the analyst to include questions that are both
open ended and closed.
interviewing permits interaction between the questions and
their meanings. (p. 102)
58. Closed questions should be used when the analyst:

A.
needs to explore a new situation.
B.
is able to list all possible responses. (p. 105)
C.
needs to learn an opinion.
D.
has only a small group of people to obtain information from.
59. Which of the following is not a good guideline to use when choosing
questionnaire language?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Avoid bias in wording.

Do not use low-level language choices.
Keep questions general rather than specific. (p. 105)
Keep questions short.
Use respondents' language whenever possible.
60. The reason for scaling is to measure the:

A.
B.
C.
out.
D.
intensity of the questions.

validity of the questions.
amount of questionnaires that have been returned against those sent
attitudes or characteristics of the people answering the
questionnaire. (p. 106)
61. The degree to which the question measures what the analyst intends to
measure is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
external consistency.
internal consistency.
factoring.
validity. (p. 107)
62. When the same questionnaire is administered twice and very similar
results are obtained, the questionnaire is said to have demonstrated:
A.
B.
C.
D.
external consistency. (p. 107)

internal consistency.
factoring.
validity.
63. The problem caused by respondents who are easy raters is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
bipolarity.
central tendency.
halo effect.
leniency. (p. 107)
64. The problem that occurs when respondents rate everything as average is
called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
bipolarity.
central tendency. (p. 107)
halo effect.
leniency.
65. The problem of impressions carrying over from one question to the next is
known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
bipolarity.
central tendency.
halo effect. (p. 107)
leniency.
66. Which of the following is not a good guideline for formatting

questionnaires?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Allowing ample white space

Allowing adequate space for responses
Making it easy for respondents to clearly mark their answers
Utilizing as much available space as possible (p. 107)
Being consistent in style
67. What type of control (or element) should be included when the analyst
needs to obtain one or more paragraphs on a Web survey?
A.
B.
C.
D.
One line text box

Drop down menu
Scrolling text box (p. 109)
Expandable border box
needs a yes-no or a true-false answer on a Web survey?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
One line text box

Drop down menu
Scrolling text box
Check box
Radio button (p. 109)
needs obtain more consistent results by choosing an answer from a list on
a Web survey?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
One line text box

Drop-down menu (p. 109)
Scrolling text box
Check box
Radio button
70. Which questions should be positioned first in the questionnaire?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Controversial
Demographic
Important (p. 109)
Trivial
Completion
71. During an interview, the analyst should get the (opinions) of the
interviewees, their feelings, organizational and personal goals, and
informal procedures. (p. 90)
72. An example of a(n) (open-ended) question is "Explain how you make a
purchasing decision." (p. 91)
73. A(n) (closed) question has a finite number of responses. (p. 93)
74. A question for which there are only two possible responses, e.g., yes or no,
is known as a(n) (bipolar) question. (p. 93)
75. An example of a(n) (probe) is the question "Why?" (p. 94)
76. An inductive organization of interview questions can be visualized as
having a(n) (pyramid) shape. (p. 95)
77. With a(n) (funnel) structure, the interviewer begins with generalized
questions and then narrows possible responses. (p. 95)
78. An interview that begins in a very specific way, then examines general
issues, and concludes very specifically is said to have a(n) (diamond)
shape. (p. 96)
79. (Joint Application Design) can replace a series of interviews with an
intensive session. (p. 97)
80. A(n) (scribe) is responsible for taking notes at a JAD session. (p. 99)
81. The (session leader) is responsible for keeping the JAD session on track
and for negotiating and resolving conflicts. (p. 99)
82. (Observers) offer technical explanations and advice during a JAD session.
(p. 99)
83. (Attitudes) are what people in the organization say they want. (p. 101)
84. (Beliefs) are what people think is actually true. (p. 101)
85. (Behavior) is what organizational members do. (p. 101)
86. (Characteristics) are properties of people or things. (p. 101)
87. A disadvantage of questionnaires with respect to interviewing is the lack of
(interaction) regarding the questions and their meaning. (p. 102)
88. (Open-ended) questions leave all possible response options to the
respondent. (p. 103)
89. (Closed) questions limit response options available to the respondent. (p.
105)
90. (Scaling) is the process of assigning numbers to an attribute for the
purpose of measuring that attribute. (p. 106)
91. (Nominal) scales are used to classify things. (p. 106)
92. (Validity) is the degree to which the question measures what the analyst
intends to measure. (p. 107)
93. One quality questionnaires must possess is (reliability), a measure of
consistency. (p. 107)
94. (Leniency) is a problem caused by respondents who are easy raters. (p.
107)
95. (Central tendency) is a problem caused by respondents who rate
everything as average. (p. 107)
96. The (halo effect) is a problem that arises when the impression formed in
one question carries into the next question. (p. 107)
97. Administrating a questionnaire (electronically) is one way to reach current
users with minimal duplication costs. (p. 111)
98. A(n) (radio button) is used to obtain a yes-no or true-false answer on a
Web survey. (p. 109)
Chapter 5
Information Gathering:
Unobtrusive Methods
True-False
1. Sampling helps accelerate the process by gathering selected data rather than
all data for the entire population. T (p. 123)
2. Data gathering bias can be reduced by sampling. T (p. 124)
3. When the systems analyst asks an opinion of a permanent feature of the
installed information system, the executive interviewed may provide an
unbiased evaluation because there is little possibility of changing it. F (p.
124)
4. Stratification is the process of identifying subpopulations (or strata) and then
selecting objects or people for sampling within these subpopulations. T (p.
125)
5. It is necessary to set a sample size greater than one but less than the size of
the population itself. T (p. 126)
6. The absolute number is more important in sampling than the percentage of
the cluster. F (p. 126)
7. A good rule of thumb is to interview at least five people on every level of

the organization. F (p. 128)
8. More people should be interviewed in larger organizations. F (p. 128)
9. If the stratified sample is done properly, a small number of people will
adequately represent the entire organization. T (p. 128)
10. Examining documents for key or guiding metaphors is done because
behavior shapes language. F (p. 133)
11. Analysis of memo content will provide you with a clear idea of the values,
attitudes, and beliefs of organizational members. T (p. 133)
12. Signs serve as subtle reinforcements of values of those who read them. T
(p. 134)
13. Corporate Web sites are not useful as an indication of organizational culture.
F (p. 134)
14. Manuals are larger guidelines that spell out the organization's ideal of how
members should conduct themselves in order to achieve strategic goals. F
(p. 134)
15. One way of analyzing qualitative documents is to notice the graphics, logos,
and icons displayed on Web pages. T (p. 134)
16. There are two dimensions used to analyze a Web site: technical and
aesthetic. F (p. 134)
17. When using the analysts playscript, activities are recorded using nouns that
describe the outcome. F (p. 136)
18. Playscript is an organized and systematic approach that demands that the
analyst understand and articulate the action taken by the decision maker. T
(p. 136)
19. Accessible offices tend to increase the amount of formal messages used by
the decision maker. F (p. 138)
20. Executives who enclose a visitor in a tight space with his/her back to the
wall is in an insecure, weak power position. F (p. 138)
21. Stationary office equipment include equipment like file cabinets,
bookshelves, and other storage equipment. T (p. 138)
22. Offices distributed along the perimeter of the building often result in reports
being held up in one of the offices. T (p. 138)
23. An executive who positions his or her desk facing the wall with a chair at
the side for a visitor is in the strongest possible power position. F (p. 138)
24. Trade journals and newspaper clippings observed in an office indicate that
the manager has an interest in external information. T (p. 139)
25. The presence of calculators and PCs suggests that the decision maker is
more likely to use it personally. T (p. 138)
26. Executives in warmly lit offices tend to gather information more informally
than other executives do. T (p. 139)
27. The formal two-piece suit for a man and a skirted suit for a woman
represents the maximum authority. T (p. 139)
28. There is little truth to the idea that casual dressing in traditional
organizations results in some loss of credibility. F (p. 139)
29. An anecdotal list uses five shorthand symbols to evaluate the elements of
STROBE. T (p. 141)
Multiple Choice
30. Which of the following is a reason why a systems analyst would want to
perform sampling?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Thorough collection of data

Increasing user involvement
Accuracy is not a project requirement
Reducing bias (p. 124)
31. Which of the following is not a key question on which the systems analyst
must make a decision?
A.
Which should the systems analyst pay attention to, among many
reports, forms, output documents, and memos?
B.
Which should the systems analyst ignore?
C.
Which people should the systems analyst interview?
D.
Which people should the systems analyst seek information from via
questionnaires?
E.
Which people should the systems analyst observe in the process of
carrying out their mission? (p. 123)
32. Which of the following is not one of four steps that a systems analyst must
follow to design a good sample?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Determine the data to be collected or described.

Determine the population to be sampled.
Choose the type of population. (p. 124)
Describe the sample size.
33. Which of the following is not a main type of sample?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Objectiveness (p. 125)

Convenience
Purposive
Simple
Complex
34. Which of the following is not a quality of a convenience sample?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Unrestricted samples
Non-probability samples
The most difficult samples that could be set up (p. 125)
The most unreliable samples
35. Which of the following is not an approach for complex random samples?
A.
Random Sampling (p. 125)
B.
Systematic sampling
C.
Stratified sampling
D.
Cluster sampling
36. Which sampling technique is usually the most important to the systems
analyst?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Random sampling
Systematic sampling
Stratified sampling (p. 125)
Cluster sampling
37. Which determines the sample size?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Cluster itself
What we know about the sample itself
Population
Systems analyst (p. 126)
38. Which is the formula of the necessary sample size (n), where p is the
proportion of the population having the attribute and p is the standard error
of the proportion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
n = p (1-p) / p + 1
n = p (1-p) / p2 + 1 (p. 126)
n = p (1-p) / p2
n = p (1-p) / p2 - 1
39. The overriding variable that determines how many people the systems
analyst should interview in depth is:
A.
the number of analysts interviewing.
B.
the number of users in an organization.
C.
the number of departments and the number of users in an
organization.
D.
the time an interview takes. (p. 128)
40. A good rule of thumb is to interview at least ______ on every level of the
organization and at least ____ from each functional area directly involved in
the system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
three people; one (p. 128)

one person; three
one person; one
one person; two
41. Which of the following is not a quantitative document available for

interpretation in any business?
A.
Records
B.
Reports used for decision making
C.
Performance reports
D.
Data capture records (p. 129)
42. What documents provide periodic updates of events occurring in the
business?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Performance reports
Records (p. 130)
Reports used for decision making
Data capture forms
43. Which of the following is not a way that the analyst can inspect a record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Checking for correctness in amounts and totals (p. 130)

Looking for opportunities for improving the recording form design
Observing the number and type of transactions
Watching for instances where the computer can simplify the work
44. Which of the following is not a way to proceed when creating a catalog of
forms to help you understand the information flow currently in use in
business?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Collect examples of all of the forms in use

Note the type of form
Document the intended distribution pattern
Compare the intended distribution pattern with who actually
analyzes the form (p. 131)
45. Which of the following is not a guideline that can help analysts to take a
systematic approach to analysis?
A.
Examine documents for key or guiding metaphors
B.
Look for insiders versus outsiders or "we against them" mentally in
documents
C.
List terms that characterize good or characterize evil, which
appear once in documents (p. 133)
D.
Recognize a sense of humor, if present
46. Which of the following is the most common information flow?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Upward and horizontally

Downward and horizontally (p. 133)
Upward and vertically
Downward and vertically
47. Which of these recording techniques has a decision maker who is observed
in the left column and all of his/her actions in the right-hand column?
A.
Adjective pairs
B.
Categories
C.
Scales
D.
Analysts playscript (p. 135)
48. Which of these is not an organizational element of interest with the
STROBE technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Decision maker's body language (p. 137)

Decision maker's placement within an office
Decision maker's clothing
Office lighting and color
Office location
49. Accessible offices tend to:

A.
result in reports and memos being held up.
B.
indicate that the people in them tend to view the organization
differently.
C.
increase the amount of formal messages.
D.
increase interaction frequency and informal messages. (p. 138)
50. Decision makers that have their desk facing the wall with a chair at the side
of the desk:
A.
B.
C.
138)
D.
are putting themselves in the strongest possible power position.

are insecure and weak.
are probably encouraging participation and equal exchanges. (p.
are likely to have low seniority in a corporation.
51. If file cabinets and bookshelves are not present in the decision makers
office:
A.
they have little seniority and a restricted budget.
B.
it is likely that they store and value internal information.
C.
they are not very active within the corporation and do not have a
handle on the business.
D.
it is likely that they store very few items of information
personally. (p. 138)
52. The presence of small equipment such as calculators and PCs indicates that
the decision maker:
A.
B.
C.
D.
is very technically savvy.

uses the equipment personally. (p. 138)
has a large and important budget.
is one who puts on a show of being busy, even if they are not active.
53. If a decision maker has trade journals and newspaper clippings about other
companies, they tend to work with:
A.
B.
C.
D.
external information. (p. 139)

internal information.
detailed corporate information.
summarized corporate information.
54. An office lighted with warm, incandescent lighting indicates a tendency

toward:
A.
B.
C.
D.
formal communication.
gathering information from memos.
personal communication. (p. 139)
a person that is interested in external information.
55. The clothing for men that indicates maximum authority, according to some
researchers, is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
two-piece suit. (p. 139)

black or blue suit with a red tie.
tuxedo.
suit with a white shirt and a black tie.
56. The clothing for women that indicates maximum authority, according to
some researchers, is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
floor-length dress.
pants suit.
small black dress.
skirted suit. (p. 139)
57. Casual dress within an organization that has a predominant culture of

traditional, conservative clothing:
A.
B.
C.
D.
may lead to more formal, rigid decision making.

is likely to represent a friendly, fun-loving person.
may result in some loss of credibility. (p. 139)
is an indication of lower rank.
58. The shorthand symbol used in conjunction with STROBE to indicate that
narrative is reversed is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a circle with a checkmark.

a crossed-out circle. (p. 141)
a circle enclosing a dot.
a circle within a square.
two circles together.
59. The shorthand symbol used in conjunction with STROBE to indicate a

modified narrative is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a circle with a checkmark.

a crossed-out circle.
a circle enclosing a dot.
a square. (p. 141)
two circles together.
Completion
60. (Sampling) is the process of systematically selecting representative

elements of a population. (p. 123)
61. The duties and responsibilities of the systems analyst are to identify the
(variables), the attributes, and even the associated attributes that need to be
gathered in the sample. (p. 124)
62. The simplest method of probability sampling is called (systematic)
sampling. (p. 125)
63. When the systems analyst selects a group of documents or people to study, it
is an example of
(cluster) sampling. (p. 126)
64. The absolute number is more important in sampling than the percentage of
the (population). (p. 126)
65. A good rule of thumb is to interview at least (three) people on every level of
the organization. (p. 128)
66. Most (performance) reports take on the general form of actual versus
intended performance. (p. 129)
67. (Records) provide periodic updates of what is occurring in the business. (p.
130)
68. Quantitative documents include memos, (signs) on bulletin boards and in
work areas, procedure manuals, and policy handbooks. (p. 132)
69. Assessing use of (humor) provides a quick and accurate barometer of many
organizational variables. (p. 133)
70. Examining (manuals) systematically will give a picture of the way things
ought to happen. (p. 134)
71. Examining (policies) allows the systems analyst to gain an awareness of the
values, attitudes, and beliefs that are guiding the corporation. (p. 134)
72. (Observation) is an information gathering technique that allows the analyst
to see firsthand how managers process and use information. (p. 135)
73. (Playscript) is an organized and systematic approach that demands that
analysts understand and articulate the action taken by decision makers being
observed. (p. 136)
74. A form of structured observation having roots in film criticism is known as
(STROBE). (p. 137)
75. (Accessible offices) tend to increase interaction frequency and informal
messages. (p. 138)
76. Placement of a desk in the office can provide clues to the exercise of
(power) by the decision maker. (p. 138)
77. When using the STROBE technique, small equipment used to process
information, e.g., pens, calculators, etc., are referred to as (props). (p. 138)
78. If an office contains trade journals and newspaper clippings about other
companies, the decision maker is more likely to be interested in (external)
information. (p. 139)
79. An office lighted with warm, incandescent lighting indicates a tendency
toward more (personal) communication. (p. 139)
80. Casual dressing by leaders may result in some loss of (credibility) if the
predominant organizational culture values traditional, conservative clothing.
(p. 139)
81. A method of recording STROBE using meaningful shorthand symbols is
called a(n) (anecdotal list). (p. 139)
Chapter 6
Prototyping, RAD, and
Extreme Programming
True-False
1. Prototyping is best applied late in the systems development life cycle. F (p.
151)
2. Prototyping is very useful for eliciting user suggestions about changing the
prototyped system. T (p. 151)
3. User reactions to prototyping can be gathered through observation,
interviews, and questionnaires. T (p. 152)
4. A disadvantage of prototyping is the relatively large expense associated with
redirecting system plans. F (p. 157)
5. A prototype that works but is inefficient is referred to as a "first of a series
prototype." F (p. 153)
6. Some prototypes are nonworking models. T (p. 153)
7. Prototypes that are full-scaled and installed at one location with the
intention of later implementation at other locations are referred to as
"selected features prototypes." F (p. 153)
8. Models that include some of the features of the final system are thought of
as "mock-ups." F (p. 153)
9. Prototyping may be used as a replacement for the systems development life
cycle. T (p. 154)
10. One reason that prototyping is useful is that user requirements are likely to
change over time. T (p. 154)
11. An advantage of prototyping is that systems will be more thoroughly
understood before the system is shaped. F (p. 154)
12. Some experts suggest that prototyping be integrated with the system
development life cycle. T (p. 155)
13. Generally speaking, prototypes should be built rapidly. T (p. 159)
14. Prototyping can help protect against over committing resources to a project
that proves to be unworkable. T (p. 156)
15. Prototyping modules should be highly interdependent. F (p. 156)
16. One disadvantage of prototypes is that an inadequate prototype may be
adopted as a completed system. T (p. 157)
17. User feedback on the prototype should be obtained only one time. F (p.
158)
18. A disadvantage of prototyping is the difficulty in changing the system early
in its development. F (p. 157)
19. An advantage of prototyping is the possibility of abandoning systems that
prove unworkable. T (p. 157)
20. Most COTS software is too limited to be used for prototyping. F (p. 158)
21. One role of the analyst is to encourage criticism of the prototype. T (p.
160)
22. RAD can be thought of as a specific implementation of prototyping. T (p.
161)
23. Users and analysts meet to identify objectives of the application or system in
the RAD design workshop phase. F (p. 161)
24. During the requirements planning phase, users respond to actual working
prototypes and analysts refine designed modules based on user responses. F
(p. 162)
25. One way that RAD tools differ from one another is in their capabilities to
support client/server applications. T (p. 163)
26. The implementation phase of RAD is in many ways less stressful than other
phases. T (p. 164)
27. Extreme programming uses long feedback cycles during software
development. F (p. 165)
28. Projects that are subject to constant updating are prone to
miscommunication. T (p. 166)
29. Extreme programming projects should begin with the simplest possible
tasks. T (p. 166)
30. Courage is the quality that is used when customers create functional tests for
all of the stories that programmers have subsequently implemented. F (p.
167)
31. Feedback gives the analyst the strength to be able to throw out code and
rethink solutions. F (p. 167)
32. Only 70 percent of problems can be solved with utter simplicity. F (p. 168)
33. Sweeping change is one of the guiding principles of extreme programming.
F (p. 168)
34. Extreme programming means doing programming quickly without undue
concern about quality. F (p. 168)
35. Source code is the basis for a living system. T (p. 169)
36. In extreme programming, onsite customers write stories and communicate
with the team. T (p. 170)
37. Pair programming means that you work with another programmer assigned
by management or the team leader. F (p. 170)
38. In extreme programming, the activities are often done concurrently. T (p.
172)
39. Stories in extreme programming are on spoken interaction between
developers and users, not on written communication. T (p. 172)
40. Many of the tools used in extreme programming are inexpensive or free. T
(p. 174)
41. Pair programming speeds up development, but does not enhance overall
quality. F (p. 176)
42. The 40-hour work week advocated by extreme programming improves
effectiveness. T (p. 176)
43. Agile modeling uses all the values of extreme programming as well as
humility. T (p. 176)
44. The word "agile" in Agile modeling implies maneuverability. T (p. 177)
Multiple Choice
45. Which of the following is not a good use of prototyping?
A.
B.
C.
D.
151)
obtaining user suggestions about changing the prototyped system

revising plans for the parts of the system that need to be done first
seeking initial reactions from users and management to the prototype
verifying information requirements that are well understood (p.
46. User reactions to prototypes are elicited with:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
interviews.
observation.
questionnaires.
None of the above
47. When several very similar systems are to be developed by the same
organization, which kind of prototyping is most likely?
A.
First of a series prototype (p. 153)
B.
Model bearing some essential features
C.
Nonworking scale model
D.
Patched-up prototype
48. Which prototyping method is set up to test certain aspects of the design?
A.
B.
C.
D.
First of a series prototype

Model bearing some essential features
Nonoperational prototype (p. 153)
49. Which prototype includes some, but not all, of the components of the final
system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
First of a series prototype

Selected features prototype (p. 153)
Nonworking scale model
50. Which kind of prototyping is most similar to what engineers call

"breadboarding"?
A.
B.
C.
D.
first full-scale model

model bearing some essential features
nonworking scale model
patched-up prototype (p. 152)
51. A patched-up prototype is likely to be:

A.
B.
C.
D.
controversial.
inefficient. (p. 153)
nonworking.
standardized.
52. The two main complaints about going through the systems development life
cycle are:
A.
the time that it takes to build a system and that user requirements
change over time. (p. 154)
B.
the time that it takes to build a system and the users noninvolvement
in the process.
C.
the users noninvolvement in the process and that user requirements
change over time.
D.
the amount of inaccuracies that manifest during the long life cycle and
the lack of a method for quick implementation.
53. Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of prototyping?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ineffective for helping users articulate requirements

shapes systems before problem is thoroughly understood (p. 154)
More expensive than the traditional SDLC
Slower development than the traditional SDLC
54. Which of the following is not a guideline for developing a prototype?

A.
Build the system slowly and carefully. (p. 156)
B.
Modify the prototype in successive iterations.
C.
Emphasize the user interface.
D.
Work in manageable modules.
55. The first step in prototyping is to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
design input/output.
estimate costs. (p. 155)
modify interfaces.
obtain user feedback.
56. Prototyping modules should be:

A.
B.
C.
D.
full-scale.
independent. (p. 156)
interdependent.
unstructured.
57. Which of the following is not an advantage of prototyping?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Affords opportunity to change the system early in its development

Buffers users against computer malfunctioning (p. 157)
Helps prevent the adoption of inadequate systems
Presents more opportunities to improve the user interface
58. Which of the prototyping statements is false?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Prototyping is useful for nearly every project. (p. 157)

Several iterations may be required.
Special attention is given to the user interface.
Successful prototypes depend heavily on feedback.
59. Which of the following is not a way users can be expected to help in
prototyping?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Experimenting with the prototype

Giving open reactions to the prototype
Providing the necessary technical expertise for interfacing with
the database (p. 159)
Suggesting possible deletions to the prototype
60. Which of the following is not one of the three broad phases of RAD?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Requirements planning
Analysis (p. 162)
Design workshop
Implementation
61. In the requirements planning phase:

A.
analysts define the requirements that must be met before RAD may
continue.
B.
analysts and users work to list all the preliminary requirements that
must have management support before starting RAD.
C.
analysts work with the CIO and strategic planners to understand the
data and process details.
D.
users and analysts meet to identify objectives of the application or
system. (p. 161)
62. During the RAD design workshop:
A.
B.
C.
D.
users design the system interfaces, the components that they are going
to work with on a day-to-day basis.
under the guidance of analysts, users receive training and construct
simple screen and report prototypes.
users respond to actual working prototypes and analysts refine
designed modules based on the responses. (p. 162)
users and analysts work to come up with the requirements that must
be included in the system.
63. Which of the following is not a phase in Martins approach to RAD?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Requirements planning
User design
Cutover
Programming (p. 163)
64. One way the tools used for constructing RAD systems differ from each other
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
in their capability to support client/server applications. (p. 163)

the object-oriented nature of some of the tools.
the platform that the tools are used on.
the way that they build mainframe systems.
65. Which of the following is not a situation that should use RAD?
A.
The team includes programmers and analysts who are experienced
with RAD.
B.
When users are relatively simple and are detail-oriented and
usually not very involved with organizational goals (p. 165)
C.
There are pressing business reasons for speeding up application
development.
D.
Working with a novel ecommerce application
66. Which of the following is a disadvantage of RAD?
A.
B.
C.
The application has a quick learning curve for programmers, which

may not attract people interested in the project.
The cost of the project is several times the cost of using the systems
development life cycle.
The project may not have any documentation. (p. 165)
D.
The users may not like the final product because they have not
been involved beyond the requirements phase.
67. The implementation phase of RAD:

A.
B.
is performed once all the programs have been developed.

is more complicated for ecommerce systems because there may not be
an existing system to convert.
C.
is a very difficult time for the users because there is little user
participation.
D.
is in many ways less stressful than other phases. (p. 164)
68. Extreme programming is based on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
values.
principles.
practices.
69. Systems that require constant updating and technical design are prone to
which kind of error?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Miscommunication (p. 166)

Design
Coding
Documentation
70. Which of the following is not one of the four values of extreme
programming?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Communication
Technical skill (p. 166)
Simplicity
Courage
71. Which of the following extreme programming values is being used when
customers create functional tests for all of the stories that the programmers
have subsequently implemented?
A.
Feedback
B.
Simplicity
C.
Courage (p. 167)
D.
Communication
72. What percent of problems can be solved with utter simplicity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
less than 50 %
50 %
70 %
90 % (p. 168)
73. Which of the following is not a basic activity of extreme programming?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Coding
Listening
Documenting (p.168)
Designing
74. Which of the following can be used to communicate ideas that would
otherwise remain fuzzy or unshaped?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Testing
Documenting
Scope
Coding (p. 169)
75. Which of the following is not a variable that can be adjusted to complete the
project by its due date?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Time
Testing (p. 170)
Quality
Scope
76. When doing pair programming, which person(s) chooses a partner

programmer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The programmers (p. 170)

Management
The project leaders
The project team
77. In extreme programming __________ is based on spoken interaction

between developers and users, not on written communication.
A.
B.
C.
D.
design
documentation
feedback
stories (p. 172)
78. Agile modeling uses all the values of extreme programming plus:
A.
B.
C.
D.
humility. (p. 176)

outsourcing.
flexibility.
rapidly changing goals.
79. Which of the following statements is not a principle of agile modeling?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Travel light
Model with a purpose
Code for tomorrow (p, 176)
Software is your primary goal
80. Which of the following is not a component of the Scrum methodology?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Product backlog
Daily scrum
Spring (p. 177)
Demo
Completion
81.
Building a(n) (prototype) of information systems is a useful technique for

quickly gathering information requirements. (p. 151)
82.
A system that has all necessary features but is inefficient is an example of

a(n) (patched-up) prototype. (p. 153)
83.
A regional blood inventory system that is instituted in one regional hospital

with plans to install the system in the remaining hospitals is an example of
a(n) (first of a series) prototype. (p. 153)
84.
A system for which only input and output are prototyped is called a(n)
(nonoperational prototype). (p. 153)
85.
An advantage of prototyping is tied to the fact that user (requirements)

change over time. (p. 154)
86.
The best approach to development for eliciting user feedback about the
proposed system is (prototyping). (p. 155)
87.
The first step of prototyping is to estimate (costs) involved for building

system modules. (p. 155)
88.
When prototyping, it is essential that analysts work in (manageable)

modules. (p. 156)
89.
(COTS) software, such as Microsoft products or PeopleSoft may be used

for prototyping. (p. 158)
90.
Users' roles in prototyping can be summed up in two words: (honest

involvement). (p. 159)
It is the (analyst's) responsibility to translate suggestions and innovations
into workable systems. (p. 160)
91.
92.
(Rapid application development) is an object-oriented approach that

includes a method of development as well as software tools. (p. 161)
93.
In the (requirements planning) phase of RAD, users and analysts meet to

identify objectives and information requirements arising from those
objectives. (p. 161)
94.
(Extreme programming) uses intense, even shorter feedback cycles during

software development, compared with traditional software development. (p.
165)
95.
Extreme programming is based on (values), (principles), and (practices).

(p. 165)
96.
(Feedback) occurs when customers create functional tests for all of the
stories that the programmers have subsequently implemented. (p. 167)
97.
(Ninety) percent of problems can be solved with utter simplicity. (p. 168)
98.
(Code) can be used to communicate ideas that would otherwise remain

fuzzy or unshaped. (p. 169)
99.
(Pair programming) means that you work with another programmer of

your own choosing. (p. 170)
100. In extreme programming, the activities are often done (concurrently). (p.
172)
101. Many of the tools used in (extreme programming) are inexpensive or free.
(p. 174)
102. One of the lessons learned from extreme programming is that short releases
allow systems to (evolve). (p. 175)
103. Agile modeling uses all the values of extreme programming plus (humility).
(p. 176)
104. (Modeling) is a keyword in Agile methods. (p. 177)
105. (Scrum) is an agile approach based on rugby. (p. 177)
Chapter 7
Using Data Flow Diagrams
True-False
1. The data flow diagram graphically characterizes data processes and flows in
a business system. T (p. 191)
2. The biggest advantage of the data flow approach lies in the conceptual
freedom found in the use of the four symbols. T (p. 192)
3. The data flow diagram may be used to analyze the proposed system. T (p.
192)
4. An arrow is used to depict an external entity that can give and receive data
from the system. F (p. 193)
5. Each external entity is labeled with a noun. T (p. 193)
6. A rectangle with rounded corners is used to show the occurrence of a
transforming process. T (p. 193)
7. Processes in a rectangle with rounded corners sometimes denote something
other than a change in or transformation of data or a system/subsystem. F
(p. 193)
8. Processes that transform data should be indicated with a noun. F (p. 193)
9. In logical data flow diagrams, the type of physical storage is unspecified. T
(p. 193)
10. The name of the data flow coming out of a process should be different from
the name of the data flow going into the process. T (p. 193)
11. The top of the process symbol may be used later on in analysis when
physical implementation has been chosen. F (p. 192)
12. The systems analyst needs to conceptualize data flows from a top-down
perspective. T (p. 194)
13. The highest level data flow diagram is called Diagram 0. F (p. 194)
14. With a top-down approach, the diagrams move from specific to general. F
(p. 194)
15. More detail is achievable through using a process called exploding the
diagrams. T (p. 195)
16. Data flow diagrams must be drawn working from left to right on the page. F
(p. 195)
17. All data flow must either originate or terminate on a process. T (p. 198)
18. Data stores may be directly connected to each other by a data flow. F (p.
198)
19. Linear data flow from process to process is normal in higher level data flow
diagrams. F (p. 199)
20. Unbalanced decomposition means that the data flow to or from a parent
process does not match the data flow in or out of a child diagram. T (p.
199)
21. A logical data flow diagram shows how the business operates. T (p. 199)
22. A physical data flow diagram shows how the system will be implemented.
T (p. 199)
23. Transaction files are used to link all logical data flow diagram processes. F
(p. 203)
24. Partitioning is used to create a set of computer programs and manual
procedures from a data flow diagram. T (p. 207)
25. A CRUD matrix is a tool used to represent where master files are read,
updated, created, and deleted within the system. T (p. 203)
26. A use case summarizes an event and defines one activity. T (p. 207)
27. Partitioning may be used to show which Web pages are placed on a secure
server and which are on a non-secure server. T (p. 207)
28. Each time data must be obtained from a data store or an external partner,
there should be a unique Web form and process to validate the data. T (p.
221)
29. Having separate Web forms means that the forms will become more
complex. F (p. 221)
Multiple Choice
Wh
30.
Which of the following graphically characterize(s) processes and data

flows through a business system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Data dictionary
Data flow diagrams (p. 191)
Structured analysis
Design
31. Which of the following is the biggest advantage of the data flow approach
over narrative explanations?
A.
Freedom from committing to the technical implementation of the
system too early
B.
Further understanding of the interrelatedness of systems and
subsystems
C.
Communicating current system knowledge of users through data flow
diagrams
D.
Conceptual freedom found in the use of the four symbols (p. 192)
32. Which of the following is not one of the four basic symbols used to chart
data movement on data flow diagrams?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Oval (p. 192)

Arrow
Rectangle with rounded corners
Open-ended rectangle
33. What is the middle of the process symbol used for?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Process sequence
Identifying number
Process description (p. 192)
Process implementation
34. Which of the following describes an error condition?

A.
198)
B.
C.
D.
External entities directly connected to other external entities (p.

External entities connected to processes
Data stores connected to processes
Several data flow entering or leaving a process
35. Which of the following is not included in the context level diagram?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Basic inputs
Processes
Data store (p. 194)
Outputs
36. A primitive process is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
a process that is not exploded to a child diagram. (p. 197)

the central process on a context level diagram.
a process that requires two or more data flow into it.
a process that has only base elements flowing in or out of it.
37. Which of the following is not an error when drawing a data flow diagram?
A.
B.
C.
D.
all data flowing into a process or out of a process

data flow on a child diagram that has only one end connected to a
process, the other end is a point in space (p. 197)
connecting data stores and external entities directly to each other
placing more than nine processes on a data flow diagram
38. When the data flow in and out of a parent process do not match the data
flow in or out of a child diagram, it is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
a primitive process.
a disordered pair.
a logical data flow diagram.
unbalanced decomposition. (p. 199)
39. A logical data flow diagram:

A.
B.
C.
D.
includes types of programs, such as online or batch.

is a model of how the system will be implemented.
does not include any primitive processes.
is a model of how the business works. (p. 199)
40. Which of the following is not an advantage of using a logical model?

A.
A system based on a logical model is more stable.
B.
The logical model helps the analyst understand the business being
studied.
C.
It facilitates communication with the users.
D.
A logical model clarifies which processes are automated. (p. 201)
41. Which of the following is not an advantage of using a physical model?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Transaction data stores are identified.

It is easier to create compared with the logical model. (p. 202)
The sequence of processes is identified.
Controls are included.
42. Physical data flow diagrams:

A.
include processes for adding, updating, changing, and deleting
records. (p. 203)
B.
are used to model business events, along with their input and output.
C.
enable the analyst to better understand the business.
D.
include no interface data flow in or out of processes.
43. Transaction files:
A.
B.
203)
C.
D.
are used when interface data flow exist on data flow diagrams.
may be used to link processes that execute at different times. (p.
are included to store all derived elements.
are required to implement all on-line processes.
44. Which of the following is not a reason for partitioning processes into
separate programs?
A.
The processes represent different user groups.
B.
The processes execute at different times.
C.
To control system security.
D.
To maintain consistency of data. (p. 207)
45. A CRUD matrix is used to show:
A.
B.
C.
D.
places in the system where the data is inaccurate.

where records are updated, added, deleted, or used. (p. 203)
which Web pages are placed on a secure server.
the partitioning of data flow diagrams in a client/server environment.
46. In a CRUD matrix, each row represents the data stores used for each:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The
47.
process.
database table.
data flow child diagram.
activity. (p. 203)
The process of creating a simple data flow diagram fragment for each
unique system trigger is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
event modeling. (p. 205)

trigger analysis.
response cases.
CRUD model analysis.
48. The advantage of building data flow diagrams based on events is that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
events are small scale and easy to analyze for input and output.
users are familiar with the events within their business and know how
the events drive other activities. (p. 206)
events fall into one of four categories: read, update, create, delete.
events are predictable and lend a high degree of stability to the data
flow diagram.
49. A use case:

A.
B.
C.
D.
summarizes an activity, its trigger, input, and output. (p. 207)

describes a subsystem of a data flow diagram showing how the
processes use data produced by other processes.
describes how the data is partitioned into programs for different users.
shows when the data is updated, read, created or deleted.
50. Partitioning on a data flow diagram for an ecommerce Web site may be used
to show:
A.
B.
C.
D.
external events.
triggers.
security. (p. 207)
derived elements.
51. Which of the following is a goal of dividing a Web site into a series of Web
pages?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Improve the ease of maintaining the Web site. (p. 221)

Improve the collection of Web metrics.
Improve tracking of page movement by the customer.
Improve the revenue obtained by page marketing.
52. What should be created each time data must be obtained from a data store or
an external partner?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A transaction data store

A new browser window and DFD process to validate the windows
data
A unique Web form and DFD process to validate and process the
data (p. 221)
A Web form that extends the previous Web form.
53. Having separate Web forms to collect transaction data means that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the forms are each quite complex with complex validation.

the forms are less complex and easier to fill out. (p. 221)
the processing will take place slowly.
the Web site will not be as attractive.
54. Each time an external company or system is involved:

A.
B.
C.
D.
the processes that handle each of the interactions should be partitioned

into one program for security reasons.
a new temporary data store must be used with a process to create the
data store.
the process that handles the interaction must be on a secure server.
the process involved needs to be partitioned into a separate
program. (p. 221)
55. A method that provides conceptional freedom for representing processes and
flows in a business system is the (data flow diagram). (p. 191)
56. (Data flow diagrams) depict the broadest possible overview of system
inputs, processes, and outputs. (p. 191)
57. By using combinations of only four symbols, the systems analyst is able to
create a pictorial depiction of data flows that eventually can provide solid
system (documentation). (p. 191)
58. The data flow approach enables the systems analyst to better understand the
interrelatedness of the (system) and its (subsystems). (p. 192)
59. An external entity is called a source or (destination) of data, and is
considered to be external to the study. (p. 193)
60. Data flows occurring simultaneously can be depicted doing just that through
the use of (parallel) arrows. (p. 193)
61. The data store symbol is simply showing a depository for data that allows
addition or (retrieval) of data. (p. 193)
62. With a(n) (top-down) approach, the diagrams move from general to
specific. (p. 194)
63. Although the first diagram helps the systems analyst grasp basic data
(movement) , its general nature limits its usefulness. (p. 194)
64. When the first diagram is made, (inputs) and (outputs) are specified and
these remain constant throughout all of the following diagrams. (p. 195)
65. Effective (naming) is required for a person unfamiliar with the system to
understand the data flow diagram. (p. 193)
66. A(n) (primitive process) is one that does not explode to a child diagram.
(p. 197)
67. When a process has all input or all output data flow, it means that a(n)
(arrowhead) is pointing in the wrong direction or there is a missing (data
flow). (p. 197)
68. (Unbalanced decomposition) is when the data flow in or out of a child

diagram does not match the data flow in or out of a parent process. (p. 199)
69. A(n) (logical) data flow diagram focuses on how the business operates. (p.
199)
70. A(n) (physical) data flow diagram shows how the system will be
implemented. (p. 199)
71. A(n) (transaction file) links two processes that execute at different times.
(p. 203)
72. (Base elements) are keyed into the system. (p. 204)
73. (Derived elements) are created by a process using a formula or some logic.
(p. 205)
74. (Partitioning) data flow diagrams is the process of deciding which
processes are manual procedures and which processes should be grouped
into which computer programs. (p. 207)
75. (Effective naming) on data flow diagrams is a top priority. (p. 224)
76. A(n) (CRUD) matrix shows where records are added, changed, used, and
deleted from a file. (p. 203)
77. A (use case) summarizes an event and defines one activity, its trigger, input,
and output. (p. 207)
78. Each time an external company or system is involved in the activities of a
Web site, the process that handles them must be partitioned into a(n)
(separate program). (p. 221)
Chapter 8
Analyzing Systems Using Data Dictionaries
True-False
1. The data dictionary is a reference work of data about data. T (p. 245)
2. Data about data is called metadata. T (p. 245)

3. Systems analysts use the data dictionary to help catalog the data processes,
flows, stores, structures, and elements. F (p. 246)
4. The data dictionary can serve as a consistent standard for data. T (p. 245)
5. Automated data dictionaries are useful for only printing summary lists of
data. F (p. 245)
6. A larger collection of project information is called a depository. F (p. 246)
7. Data stores are usually the first component of a data dictionary to be defined.
F (p. 247)
8. An internal data flow is one that connects two processes. T (p. 247)
9. Data structures are usually described using a binary notation. F (p. 249)
10. An alias for each element is another name for the data used by different users
in different systems. T (p. 253)
11. Brackets [ ] represent repetitive elements. F (p. 249)
12. Parentheses represent an optional element in the data dictionary. T (p. 250)
13. Data structures are those data items within the system that are not meaningful
if broken down further. F (p. 250)
14. A default value is one that never changes on a report. F (p. 255)
15. A discrete data element is one that has certain fixed values. T (p. 255)
16. When a V is used as a formatting character for an element, it indicates where
the decimal point should occur, even though the actual decimal point is not
included. T (p. 255)
17. All derived elements must be stored on a data store. F (p. 257)
18. Each level of a data flow diagram should use data appropriate for the level.
T (p. 259)
19. It is important that data flow names on a child data flow diagram are
contained within the parent process data flow. F (p. 259)
20. A starting point for creating data dictionary entries is to identify and
categorize system input and output data flow. T (p. 260)
21. The ideal data dictionary is automated, interactive, online, and evolutionary.
T (p. 262)
22. To have maximum power, the data dictionary should be entirely independent
from other programs. F (p. 262)
23. The data dictionary may be used to generate computer source code. T (p.
263)
24. The data dictionary is the one common source in the organization for
answering questions and settling disputes about any aspect of data definition.
F (p. 264)
25. One of the rules for analyzing a data dictionary is that elements present on a
data flow coming or going to a data store must be contained within the data
store. T (p. 264)
26. Extensible markup language (XML) is a language that can be used to
exchange data between businesses. T (p. 264)
27. XML is used when other systems or external organizations use the same
software. F (p. 264)
28. XML is a way to define, sort, filter, and translate data into a universal data
language. T (p. 265)
29. In XML, tags become the metadata. T (p. 265)
30. A document type definition is used to determine validity is the hardest part of
creating an XML document because of its cryptic nature. F (p. 265)
Multiple Choice
31. What is a reference work of data about data compiled by systems analysts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Data dictionary (p. 245)

Data flow diagrams
Structured analysis
Design
32. What become(s) important for large systems that produce several thousand
data elements requiring cataloging and cross-referencing?
A.
Data dictionary
B.
Structured analysis
C.
Data flow diagrams
D.
Automated data dictionaries (p. 245)
E.
Design
33. Which of the following is not contained in the repository?
A.
B.
C.
D.
procedural logic
project management information
generated computer code (p. 246)
screen and report design
34. A data flow that contains data that are used between processes is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
internal. (p. 247)

derived.
base.
iterative.
35. Data structures are described using ________ notation.

A.
B.
C.
D.
relational
metadatic
geometric
algebraic (p. 249)
36. What does the symbol [ ]represent?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Either/or alternative (p. 249)

Optional
Iteration
Selection
37. {Braces} are used to indicate:

A.
B.
C.
D.
either/or alternative.
optional.
iteration. (p. 249)
selection.
38. Which of the following is included in a physical data structure?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Codes that identify the status of a master record (p. 252)

Expansion area for file records
The type of data structure, either for a screen or report
Editing criteria for the structure
39. Which of the following entails working with the smallest meaningful
components of the system?
A.
Processes
B.
Data flows
C.
Data structure
D.
Data elements (p. 249)
40. A base element is one that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
was initially keyed into the system. (p. 253)

does not change over a period of time.
is used within one and only one subsystem.
is the result of a calculation or some other logic.
41. A derived element is one that:

A.
B.
C.
D.
is keyed, derived by the users.

has several different meanings,one for each user group.
is created by processes as a result of calculations or logic. (p. 253)
has the displayed length and the stored length the same.
42. When determining the length for elements:

A.
B.
C.
D.
look at what the current length of data is and use that value.
use values that other corporations have for similar elements.
determine the amount of a numeric element and add a few
characters for reasonable expansion. (p. 253)
keep the value for the length small to save file space.
43. The symbol X(8) represents:

A.
B.
C.
D.
eight digits.
eight alphanumeric characters. (p. 255)
a data structure or element that repeats eight times.
an element that is found within eight data structures.
44. Packed decimal format is used for a numeric element because:

A.
the data is unreadable by the average person, and thus increases data
security.
B.
it increases the likelihood of containing a valid checkdigit.
C.
the numeric element contains decimal points that are represented by a
V on the file layout and are not actually included in the data.
D.
it saves space on file layouts. (p. 255)
45. A default value on a GUI screen may be used for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
drop-down lists.
radio buttons.
check boxes.
46. Data stores are used to store:

A.
all base elements and some derived elements. (p. 257)
B.
all derived elements and some base elements.
C.
all base and derived elements.
D.
only some base elements and some derived elements (the most critical
ones in the system).
47. As a single data flow may only show part of the collective data,
A.
the data store may be linked to several external structures defining
the different data
flows.
B.
many data flows may have to be examined to determine the
contents of a data store. (p. 257)
C.
data stores must contain multiple redundant elements within repeating
groups indicated by {braces}
D.
an alias must be used.
48. An analyst may develop the data flow diagram using a top-down method by
using:
A.
B.
C.
D.
algebraic notation.
structural records.
algebraic notation and structural records. (p. 259)
vertical expansion methodology.
49. The rule for vertical balancing between data flow diagrams is that:
A.
the data flow on a child diagram must be present within the structures
or elements on the parent diagram. (p. 259)
B.
the data flow on a parent diagram must have aliases to the child
diagram.
C.
the data flow into data stores on the parent diagram must be contained
within repetitive child diagram structures.
D.
the data flow on a parent diagram must contain all elements on a child
diagram.
50. The data dictionary may be used to create:

A.
B.
C.
D.
screens.
reports.
forms.
51. Which of the following is a flaw in the system design that is detected by
analyzing the data dictionary entries?
A.
All derived elements on an output flow must be present on an input
data flow.
B.
The data store may contain elements that are not present on any data
flow to or from the data store.
C.
All base elements on an output data flow must be present on a
data flow into the process. (p. 263)
D.
All elements that are discrete must have a table of codes definition.
52. Which of the following is a flaw in the system design that is detected by
analyzing the data dictionary entries?
A.
B.
C.
All derived elements on an output flow must be from a process

that they are not input into. (p. 264)
The data store must contain elements that are not present on any data
flow to or from the data store.
All base elements on an output data flow must be created by at least
one process.
D.
All elements that are discrete must have a table of codes definition.
53. Elements on a data flow going into or out from a data store:
A.
B.
C.
D.
must be created by the process linking to the data store.

must be base elements.
must be on a data flow that is input to the process that creates the
output that is going to the data store
must be contained by the data store. (p. 264)
54. What is not a characteristic of the ideal data dictionary?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Automated
Efficient (p. 262)
Interactive
Online
Evolutionary
55. Automated dictionaries may serve as references for:

A.
B.
C.
D.
people.
programs.
aliases.
people and programs. (p. 264)
56. A language that can be used to exchange data between businesses is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Extensible markup language. (p. 264)

Exchange mediation language.
Extranet manipulative language.
Extended machine language.
57. Which of the following may be created by transforming an XML document:

A.
A Web page.
B.
A portable document format (PDF) file.
C.
Output for a handheld device.
D.
58. A _____________ may be used to validate an XML document.
A.
B.
C.
D.
nested tag structure

document type definition (p. 265)
transformation filter definition
translation definition language
59. A method for describing the data flows and data stores of a data flow
diagram is the data (dictionary). (p. 245)
60. A(n) (alias) is a synonym or another name for the element, used by different
users of systems. (p. 253)
61. A(n) (repository) is a large collection of information that is larger than a
data dictionary. (p. 246)
62. (Data flow) is usually the first component to be stored in the data dictionary.
(p. 247)
63. A(n) (data structure) is composed of related elements. (p. 249)
64. A(n) (structural record) is one that is contained within a larger data
structure and consists of further subdivisions. (p. 250)
65. (Physical) data structures include additional elements necessary for
implementing the system. (p. 251)
66. The correct determination of a(n) (element) length is important to avoid
truncation. (p. 254)
67. A(n) (discrete) value for an element is one that has certain fixed values. (p.
255)
68. A(n) (continuous) element is one that has a smooth range of values. (p.
255)
69. A (default) value for an element is one that is automatically displayed on a
screen to reduce the amount of keystrokes the user must make. (p. 255)
70. All (base elements) on an output data flow must be present on a data flow
coming into the process. (p. 263)
71. A(n) (derived element) must be output from at least one process that it is
not input to. (p. 264)
72. The data structure and elements are commonly used to generate (computer
language sourcecode). (p. 263)
73. (Extensible markup language) (XML) is a language that can be used to
exchange data between businesses. (p. 264)
74. XML is used when users have different computer (systems) and (software).
(p. 264)
75. XML is a way to define, sort, filter, and translate data into a(n) (universal
data) language. (p. 265)
76. In XML, (tags) become the metadata. (p. 265)
77. A(n) (document type definition) is used to determine if the XML document
content is valid. (p. 265)
Chapter 9
Describing Process Specifications and Structured Decisions
True-False
1. Process specifications show the decision-making logic and formulas
necessary to transform process input data into output. T (p. 284)
2. Although process specifications produce a precise description of what is
accomplished, they are not detailed enough to validate the system design. F
(p. 284)
3. Process specifications are always produced for input and output operations,
such as a read or write operation. F (p. 284)
4. Process descriptions may exist on a form but not within a CASE tool
repository. F (p. 284)
5. Process logic may be represented as either structured English, a decision
table, a decision tree, or a formula. T (p. 285)
6. Selection data dictionary entries become IF...THEN...ELSE structured
English statements. T (p. 291)
7. Iteration data dictionary entries become simple structured English

statements in a sequence. F (p. 291)
8. When structured decisions are not complex, an appropriate technique for
analyzing the decision process is the use of semi-structured English. F (p.
286)
9. Besides the obvious advantage of clarifying the logic and relationships
found in human languages, structured English has another important
advantage as a communication tool. T (p. 290)
10. If communication is unimportant, structured English is a viable alternative
for decision analysis. F (p. 290)
11. It is important to develop decision tables in a logical, step-by-step approach.
T (p. 293)
12. Decision tables can become very burdensome because they grow rapidly as
the number of conditions and alternatives increase. T (p. 297)
13. If conditions are mutually inclusive, they can be written in extended-entry
form. F (p. 297)
14. The number of columns and rows necessary decreases while the
understandability decreases. F (p. 298)
15. Decision trees are most often drawn on their side, with the root of the tree on
the left-hand side of the paper, branching out to the right. T (p. 299)
16. It is useful to combine conditions and actions when drawing decision trees.
F (p. 299)
17. A square node indicates a condition, and a circle indicates an action. F (p.
299)
18. In drawing the tree, identify all conditions and actions and the order and
timing of these. T (p. 300)
19. Use structured English when complex combinations of conditions, actions,
and rules are found. F (p. 302)
20. Use decision tables when there are many repetitious actions. F (p. 301)
21. Use decision trees when the sequence of conditions and actions is critical. T
(p. 302)
22. The logic of a parent process shows the execution sequence that the child
diagram processes must follow. T (p. 304)
23. All the process specifications for the entire data flow diagram are
consolidated and included in the specification packet given to the computer
programmer. F (p. 304)
24. Horizontal balancing means that all output elements must be on input data
flow. F (p. 305)
25. Business rules are the set of procedures, conditions or formulas that allow a
corporation to run its business. T (p. 285)
Multiple Choice
26. To determine the information requirements using a decision analysis
strategy, what must the systems analyst determine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Necessary data
Objectives (p. 283)
Information
Data structure
27. A goal of producing process specifications is to:

A.
B.
C.
D.
reduce process interactions.

build technical specifications for a specific computer language.
validate the system design, including data flow diagrams and the
data dictionary. (p. 284)
design computer input and output processes.
28. Primitive process specifications are not produced for:

A.
B.
C.
D.
processes that use decision trees.

processes for which pre-written code already exists. (p. 284)
processes that involve complex editing.
All of the above
29. When creating process specifications, what needs to be done for manual
tasks?
A.
Create well-defined procedures for employees performing the
tasks. (p. 285)
B.
Replace them with automated processes.
C.
Outline the decisions using a decision tree.
D.
Nothing, they are not part of processing specifications.
30. Which of the following is not a business rule?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Logical inferences
Mathematical and functional derivations
Programming language IF statements (p. 285)
Definitions of business terms
31. Process logic may be represented as:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
structured English.
a decision table.
a decision tree.
a formula.
32. Which of the following is structured English not based on?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Instructions organized into nested and grouped procedures

Simple English statements
Unstructured logic (p. 286)
Add, multiply, move, and so on
33. In order to use structured English, which convention is not advisable?

A.
Express all logic in terms of sequential.
B.
Blank a line and indent blocks of statements to show their
hierarchy. (p. 287)
C.
Use and capitalize accepted keywords such as IF, THEN.
D.
Be careful when using "and" and "or."
34. Which of the following is not one of the three basic constructs used to code
computer programs?
A.
Sequence
B.
Selection
C.
Iteration
D.
Computation (p. 290)
35. When selection is indicated for elements in the data dictionary:
A.
A simple sequence of structured English statements is all that is
necessary.
B.
An IF...THEN...ELSE structure must be present in the structured
English statements. (p. 291)
C.
DO WHILE, DO UNTIL, or PERFORM UNTIL structured English
statements must be included.
D.
A decision tree must be used to depict the logic.
36. When iteration is indicated for an element or a group of elements in the data
dictionary:
A.
A simple sequence of structured English statements is all that is
necessary.
B.
An IF..THEN...ELSE structured must be present in the structured
English statements.
C.
DO WHILE, DO UNTIL, or PERFORM UNTIL structured
English statements must be included. (p. 291)
D.
A decision table must be used to depict the logic.
37. Which of the following is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quadrant
Content
upper-left
upper-right
lower-left
lower-right
condition alternatives
actions to be taken
condition
execution of actions (p. 292)
38. In order to build decision tables, what does the analyst not need to do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Eliminate any impossible situations.

Simplify the table as much as possible.
Determine the minimum size of the table. (p. 294)
Eliminate inconsistencies.
39. How many columns would a table with seven conditions with yes or no
alternatives have?
A.
B.
C.
D.
64
128 (p. 294)
256
512
40. Which of the following is not one of the ways to reduce the complexity of
unwieldy decision tables?
A.
Use alternatives (p. 298).
B.
Use extended entries.
C.
Use ELSE rule.
D.
Construct multiple tables.
41. Unlike the decision tree used in management science, what doesn't the
analyst's tree contain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Decisions
Conditions
Outcomes (p. 299)
Actions
42. When drawing the tree, systems analysts don't have to identify:
A.
B.
C.
D.
all outcomes. (p. 300)

all actions.
the order.
all conditions.
43. Which of the following is not one of three main advantages of a decision
tree over a decision table?
A.
B.
C.
D.
More correct as a communication tool (p. 300)

Sequential structure of decision tree branches
Conditions and actions of decision trees are found on some branches
More readily understood
44. Which choice is correct?

A.
Use structured English when not every condition is relevant to every
action.
B.
Use decision tables when communication to end users is important.
C.
Use decision trees when the sequence of conditions and actions is
critical. (p. 302)
D.
Use decision tables when there are many repetitious actions.
45. If a process explodes to a child diagram:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the process logic shows the order of execution for the child
diagram processes. (p. 304)
the process logic must be created using a decision table. Each process
on the child diagram is a PERFORM statement within the parent
decision table.
the process logic is depicted using a decision tree, with child data
flow appearing as the connecting lines on the tree.
process logic is not written.
46. The rules for horizontal balancing are:

A.
All base elements on an output data flow must be on an input flow or

included in the process logic.
B.
All derived elements on an output data flow must be on an input
flow or included in the process logic. (p. 305)
C.
The input and output from a parent process must be present on the
child diagram.
D.
Data flow from a parent process must indicate the sequence of
execution of child diagram processes.
47. Which of the following is not a business rule?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Business conditions and actions

User ethics (p. 285)
Logical inferences
Processing sequences
48. Which of the following is not a problem when creating decision tables?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Impossible situations
Too many conditions (p. 297)
Redundancy
Contradictions
49. In a decision table, contradictions occur when:

A.
B.
C.
D.
297)
an important condition is omitted.

when the situation cannot occur because there are two or more
conditions that cannot occur at the same time.
identical sets of alternatives require the same action.
rules suggest different actions but satisfy the same conditions. (p.
50. When applying the principles of horizontal balancing, base elements:

A.
must come from a data store.
B.
C.
must be derived from process logic.

must be on an input. (p. 305)
D.
must go to a data store.
51. (Process specifications) are created for primitive processes on a data flow
diagram. (p. 283)
52. One of the goals of producing (process specifications) is to validate the
system design, including the data flow diagram and the data dictionary. (p.
283)
53. Process descriptions may exist on a form or within a(n) (CASE tool)
repository. (p. 284)
54. When structured decisions are not complex, an appropriate technique for
analyzing the decision process is the use of (structured) English. (p. 286)
55. Structured English can be more complex if blocks of (instructions) are
nested within other blocks of (instructions). (p. 288)
56. (Selection) data dictionary entries become IF...THEN...ELSE structured
English statements. (p. 291)
57. (Iteration) data dictionary entries become DO WHILE, DO UNTIL, or
PERFORM UNTIL structured English statements. (p. 291)
58. One of the ways to reduce the complexity of unwieldy decision tables is to
use extended (entries). (p. 298)
59. Using an ELSE column is helpful in preventing errors of (omission). (p.

298)
60. Decision tables are an important tool in the analysis of (structured)
decisions. (p. 299)
61. One major advantage of using decision tables over other methods is that
tables help the analyst ensure (completeness). (p. 299)
62. In systems analysis, trees are used mainly for identifying and organizing
(conditions) and (actions) in a completely structured decision process. (p.
299)
63. The use of (notation) makes the decision tree more readable when one
thinks of a circle as signifying IF when the square means THEN. (p. 299)
64. In drawing the tree, begin building from left to right while making sure you
are complete in listing all possible (alternatives) before moving over to the
right. (p. 300)
65. Use decision trees when not every condition is relevant to every (action).
(p. 302)
66. All the process specifications are consolidated for a computer program and
are included in the (specification packet) given to the computer
programmer. (p. 304)
67. (Horizontal balancing) means that all output data flow must be either on
input data flow or described in the process logic. (p. 304)
68. When performing horizontal balancing, all (base elements) on an output
data flow must be present on an input data flow. (p. 305)
69. When performing horizontal balancing, all (derived elements) on an output
data flow must be present on an input data flow or created by the process.
(p. 305)
70. (Business rules) are the set of procedures, conditions, or formulas that allow
a corporation to run its business. (p. 285)

Mid PDF

Enviado por

Dados do documento

Descrição original:

Título original

Direitos autorais

Formatos disponíveis

Compartilhar este documento

Compartilhar ou incorporar documento

Opções de compartilhamento

Você considera este documento útil?

Este conteúdo é inapropriado?

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

Mid PDF

Enviado por

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

System Analysis

11. Structured techniques like the structure charts, Nassi-Schneiderman charts,

Transaction processing systems (p. 2)

27. Which of these is the most personalized?

28. Which of these systems allows management to think about strategic

Group decision support systems

29. Which of these is not considered to be a primary role of a systems analyst?

30. Which of these characteristics is most important to a systems analyst?

Designing the system is the first step in the SDLC.

Determining Information Requirements (p. 11)

Determining Information Requirements

Analyzing System Needs

Identifying Problems, Opportunities, and Objectives (p. 10)

Designing the System

37. System maintenance must be performed to:

correct software errors.

Communicating more effectively with users

40. An advantage of software reverse engineering is:

maintenance time is reduced. (p. 19)

different cultures across the globe in an ecommerce environment.

44. Designing systems for wireless handheld devices is called:

46. When groups need to work together to make semistructured or unstructured

executive support system.

47. An object-oriented approach to systems development that includes a method

rapid application development. (p. 11)

49. Which of the following is not one of the fundamental components of

Pressure (p. 20)

13. Strategic managers work in a highly uncertain decision-making

entities (p. 33)

Rectangle with rounded corners

29. The context-level data flow diagram depicts:

the boundaries of a system. (p. 33)

30. An external entity may be:

31. Which of the following is used to depict a relationship in an

1:1 (p. 34)

33. A crows foot notation indicates:

none of the other entity.

36. A many-to-many relationship is replaced with a(n)

Operations (p. 39)

38. Which level of management is most dependent on external information?

39. Which view of organizations concentrates on myths, metaphors, humor, and

Culture (p. 42)

40. Anything external to an organizations boundaries is considered to be:

41. The free flow of information within a system is called:

virtual enterprise (p. 29)

43. An integrated organizational information system is called a(n):

44. An enterprise resource planning system:

diamond inside a rectangle.

46. Processes on a data flow diagram:

48. A zero on a relationship line indicates:

are the names of external entities.

52. (Processes) change or transform inputs into outputs. (p. 28)

organizational information system. (p. 32)

10. A commitment from management to conduct a feasibility study means that

installation date. F (p. 64)

41. A feasibility impact grid is used to:

little; few (p. 52)

44. Which of the following is an acceptable objective of systems projects?

Asserting the superiority of one department over another

Economic feasibility (p. 56)

49. Which of the following is most valuable in estimating project time?

Experience (p. 59)