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JEE Knockout Improvement Paper
Physics
Question 1
Two large parallel copper plates are 5.0 cm apart and have a uniform electric field between them as
depicted in figure given below.
An electron is released from the negative plate at the same time that a proton is released from the positive
plate. Their distance from the positive plate when they pass each other is
(Take mp/me = 2000 and neglect the force of the particles on each other.)
(1) 6.7 105 m
(2) 6.7 1010 m
(3) 2.5105 m
(4) 3.7 105 m
Solution
We take the positive direction to be to the right in the figure. The acceleration of the proton is
eE
(1)
ap
mp
and the acceleration of the electron is
eE
ae
(2)
me
where E is the magnitude of the electric field, mp is the mass of the proton, and me is the mass of the
electron. We take the origin to be at the initial position of the proton.
Then, the coordinate of the proton at time t is
x
1 2
ap t
2
(3)
and the coordinate of the electron is

( x L)
1 2
1
aet x L aet 2
2
2
(4)
where L is the separation between the plates.

They pass each other when their coordinates are the same, therefore from Eq. (3) and Eq. (4), we get
1 2
1
ap t L aet 2
2
2
2L
t2
(5)
(ap ae )
Substituting value of t2 from Eq. (5) into Eq. (4) we get
2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.
ap
ap ae
eE m p
eE m eE m
p
me
m m
p
e
L
mp
1 m
e
0.050 m
1 2000
2.5 105 m
Distance from the positive plate when electron and proton pass each other is 2.5 105 m.
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 2
6
1
If the electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by E0 sin [(3 10 m ) x t ] , the value of
is
1
(1) 0.01 rads
(2) 10 rads
1
(3) 100 rads
14
1
(4) 9 10 rads
Solution
6
1
6
1
In the equation E0 sin [(3 10 m ) x t ] , 3 10 m is the wave number.
We know that,
kc
Then the value ofangular frequency ( ) is
3 106 3 108 9 1014

Question 3
The current in the circuit shown in the below figure is
(1) zero
(2) 0.024 A
(3) 0.03 A
(4) 0.036 A
Solution
In the given circuit, D1 is is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased. So, D1 acts as a short circuit and D2
an open circuit. Therefore, the equivalent circuit is as shown below
Now the total resistance of circuit:
R 100 150 250
V 6V (Given)
We have to find current I. We know that
V RI
V
R
6
I
0.02 4A
250
I

Question 4
A uniform solid sphere, initially at rest, is pure rolled up an incline by a force F acting at the top of the
sphere parallel to the inclined plane as shown below. When the center of sphere moves a distance l up the
incline, then the work done by the
(1) force F is 2Fl

(2) force F is Fl
(3) force F is Fl sin

(4) gravity force is 2mgl sin
Solution
Since the sphere is purely rolling, the top point has a speed double that of the center so top points
cumulatively travel double the distance the center travels. Hence the work done by F is 2Fl. It gains
height of l sin . So work done by gravity is mgl sin.
Question 5
A particle of mass m is projected with velocity u at an angle with the horizontal. Its angular momentum
about the point of projection when it is at the highest point of its trajectory is
mu 3 sin 2 cos
mu 3 sin 2
(1)
(2)
2g
2g
mu 3 sin cos
2g
Solution
(3)
(4)
mu 3 sin 2
2 g cos
At the highest point, the particle has only horizontal velocity which remains constant, therefore
v ux u cos
Length of the perpendicular to the horizontal velocity from point O is the maximum height and is given
by the relation
u 2 sin 2
H max
2g
Hence the required angular momentum is
L mvr
mu x H max
L

Question 6
mu 3 sin 2 cos
2g
If the radius of the bubble on one side of tube is r and difference in height of liquid of density in
manometer is h, then surface tension of liquid used to make the bubble is
rh g
4
2 rh g
(3) T
2
(2) T = 2rhg
(1) T
(4) T
rh g
2
Solution
Pressure at point B
PB P0
4T
r
(1)
Also,
PB P0 gh
(2)
From Eq. (1) and (2)
rgh
4

Question 7
What is the equivalent capacitance of the capacitors in the figure given below? Given that: C1 C6 3F
and C3 C5 2C2 2C4 4F .
(1) 4.5F
(2) 1.5F
(3) 2F
(4) 3F
Solution
A little inspection of the given figure will show that the same can be redrawn as:
1
1
1
Ceq C4 [C3C5 / (C3 C5 )] C2 C6 C1

1
1
2 2 2 33
1
Thus,
Ceq 3F
Question 8
The amplitude of a lightly damped oscillator decreases by 4.0% during each cycle. What percentage of
mechanical energy of the oscillator is lost in each cycle?
(1) 4.0%
(2) 6.0%
(3) 8.0%
(4) 16%
Solution
The mechanical energy can be written as the maximum kinetic energy. Hence,
E K max
1
mv 2
2
1
mA2 2
2
(1)
On differentiating
(1)
(2) Dividing Eq. (2) by Eq.(1), we get
dE mA 2 dA
(2)
dE mA 2 dA
1
E
mA2 2
2
dA
2
A
2(4.0%)
8.0%

Question 9
The circuit shown below is equivalent to
(1) OR gate
(2) AND gate
(3) NAND gate
(4) NOR gate
Solution
The truth table is
A
0
0
1
1
B
0
1
0
1
C
1
0
0
0
X
0
1
1
1
Y
1
0
0
0

Question 10
The smallest radius of an flat track around which a bicyclist can travel, if her speed is 36 km h1 and the
s between tyres and track is 0.32, will be (Take g = 10 ms2)
(1) 72 m
(2) 24 m
(3) 31.25 m
(4) 45 m
Solution
The maximum value of static friction is s FN = smg. If the bicycle does not slip, then f smg. This
means
v2
v2
s g R
(3)
R
s g
Consequently, the minimum radius with which a cyclist is moving at 36 km h1 = 10 m s1 can round the
curve without slipping is
v2
(10 ms 1 ) 2
Rmin
31.25 m
s g (0.32)(10 ms )
Question 11
A proton with a speed of 2.2 106 ms1 is shot into a region between two plates that are separated by a
distance of 0.18 m. A magnetic field exists between the plates, and it is perpendicular to the velocity of
the proton, as shown in the following figure.
What must be the magnitude of the field so that the proton just misses colliding with the opposite plate?
(Mass of proton = 1.67 1027 kg .)
(1) 0.21 T
(2) 0.19 T
(3) 0.13 T
(4) 0.27 T
Solution
The proton will follow a circular path inside the magnetic field. To just avoid colliding with the opposite
plate, the radius of the circular path of the proton must be equal to 0.18 m.
mv 2
r
mv
B
qr
qvB
(1.67 1027 ) (2.2 106 )

(1.60 1019 )(0.18)
B 0.13 T

Question 12
The figure given below shows a ray of light whose angle of incidence is 1 60o , travelling through two
solid materials and then undergoing total internal reflection at a solid-liquid interface.
What is the largest possible index of refraction for the liquid?

(1) 1.33
(2) 1.28
(3) 1.50
(4) 1.21
Solution
Applying Snells law at the solid-solid interface,
n1 sin 1 n2 sin 2
At the solid-liquid interface,
n2 sin 2 n3 sin (90o )

Thus, the largest possible index of refraction for the liquid will be
n3 n2 sin 2
n1 sin 1
1.40 sin 60o
1.21

Question 13
If the maximum and the minimum voltage of amplitude modulated (AM) wave is 10 V and 2 V
respectively then the modulation index m is
(1) 5
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.67
(4) 1.5
Solution
Consider the following figure, Em is the amplitude of the audio signal (modulating) wave and EC is the
amplitude of the carrier signal.
From the figure, we have

Vmax Vmin
2
V Vmin
Em max
2
Ec
Modulation index is given by

m
m
Em Vmax Vmin
Ec Vmax Vmin
Vmax Vmin
Vmax Vmin
10 2 8
0.67
10 2 12
If m > 1, it is an over-modulated wave and possesses detection problems. Hence, m < 1 is recommended.
Question 14
Monochromatic light of wavelength 700 nm is used in a Young's double slit experiment. One of the slits
is covered by a transparent sheet of thickness 1.4 105 m made of a material of refractive index 1.5. How
many fringes will shift due to the introduction of the sheet?
(1) 18
(2) 10
(3) 9
(4) 5
Solution
The number of fringes that will shift can be calculated as
Total fringe shift
Fringe width
Number of fringes
( 1 )t
( 1 )t

Substituting values, we have
( 1 )t
( 1.5 1 ) 1 . 4 10 5 m
10
700 10 9 m
Ten fringes will shift due to the introduction of the sheet in one of the interfering beams.
Question 15
A cylindrical tube is partially filled with water such that air column length is 0.1 m. The air column
resonates in its fundamental mode with a tuning fork. The next resonance is observed at air column length
of 0.35 m as the level of the water is lowered. The end correction is
(1) 2.5 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 1.5 cm
(4) 10 cm
Solution
Let is the frequency of the tuning fork, v is the speed of sound in air, e the end correction and l the
length of air column then
Fundamental frequency
v
(1)
4 l1 e
First overtone frequency
3v
(2)
4 l2 e
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get,
3v
v
4 l2 e 4 l1 e
3 l1 e l2 e
3 0.1 e 0.35 e
0.3 3e 0.35 e
2e 0.05m
e = 0.025 m = 2.5 cm
Question 16
If is the breaking stress of a material of density, then the longest wire of that material that can hang
freely without breaking is
(1)
(2)
g
2 g
(3)
2
g
(4)
2 g
Solution
Highest tension is at the top point is equal to the weight of the wire, therefore
Weight of wire = mg= Al g
Weight
Area
Al g
A
l g
Stress ( ) =

Question 17
The figure given below shows a circuit containing a battery, resistor R1, resistor R2 ( R2 200 ), and an
inductor ( L 800H ).
Switch S has been closed for a long time and the current through the inductor is 20.0 mA . At time t 0 ,
the switch is opened. At what time t is the current through the inductor 10.0 mA ?
(1) 2 (ln 2) s
(2) 4 (ln 2) s
(3) 6 (ln 2) s
(4) 8 (ln 2) s
Solution
The energy stored in the inductor will dissipate through the resistor R2 when the switch is opened. The
current will decay with time.
t
i i0 exp
L/R
L i
ln
R i0
800 106 10
ln s
200
20
4 106 (ln 2)
t 4 (ln 2) s
Question 18
If one complete cycle of a reversible process is carried out on an ideal gas so that its final state is the same
as its initial state, which of the following quantities is the only one which can be non-zero?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The change in the volume of the gas.

The net heat absorbed by the gas.
The change in the entropy of the gas.
The change in the internal energy of the gas.
If one complete cycle of a reversible process is carried out on an ideal gas so that its final state is the same
as its initial state, which of the following quantities is the only one which can be non-zero?
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
The change in the volume of the gas.

The net heat absorbed by the gas.
The change in the entropy of the gas.
The change in the internal energy of the gas.
Solution
Volume, entropy and internal energy are state variables. So, in a reversible cyclic process these would
not change. However, heat is a path variable. In a reversible cyclic process there would be a finite
quantity of heat exchanged with the surrounding.
Hence, the correct option is (2)
Question 19
The stopping potential for electrons emitted from a surface illuminated by light of wavelength 491 nm is
0.710 V. When the incident wavelength is changed to a new value, the stopping potential is 1.43 V. What
is this new wavelength?
(1) 664 nm
(2) 529 nm
(3) 382 nm
(4) 276 nm
Solution
Photon energy is given by
hc
(6.63 1034 )(3 108 )

491 109
E 4.05 1019 J
Stopping potential, V0 = 0.710 V

Maximum kinetic energy will be
K max eV0
(1.6 1019 C)(0.710V)
K max 1.136 1019 J 1.14 1019 J
Therefore, work function
E K max
(4.05 1.14) 1019 J
2.91 1019 J
For the changed value of incident wavelength,
E K 'max
2.91 1019 J (1.43V)(1.6 1019 C)

E 5.20 1019 J
Therefore the required wavelength is
hc
E'
(6.63 1034 )(3 108 )
5.20 1019
' 382 nm
'

Question 20
A coil is formed by winding 250 turns of insulated 16-gauge copper wire (diameter = 1.3 mm) in a single
layer on a cylindrical form of radius 12 cm. Neglecting the thickness of the insulation, the resistance of
the coil will be (Resistivity of copper is 1.69 108 m )
(1) 2.4
(2) 4.2
(3) 5.6
(4) 6.5
Solution
The resistance of the coil is given by
L
R
A
where L is the length of the wire, is the resistivity of copper, and A is the cross-sectional area of the
wire. Since each turn of wire has length 2r, where r is the radius of the coil, then
L = (250)2r = (250) (2)(0.12 m) = 188.5 m.
If rw is the radius of the wire itself, then its cross-sectional area is
A rw2 m m
The resistivity of copper 1.69 108 m
Thus, the resistance will be
(4)
L
A
(1.69 108 m)(188.5m)

2.4
1.33 106 m2

Question 21
A body of mass m is dropped from a height h = 10 m. Simultaneously another body of mass 2 m is thrown
up vertically with a speed v 10 5 ms1 such that it collides with the first body at a height h/2 = 5 m. If
the collision is perfectly inelastic, the velocity of the combined mass as it returns to the ground is (Take g
= 10 m s)
(1) 10 ms1
(2) 10 2 ms 1
(3) 15 ms1
1
(4) 5 5 ms
Solution
In a perfectly inelastic collision, the colliding bodies combine after collision and move as a single system.
In an inelastic collision, law of conservation of momentum is also applicable.
Let v1 be velocity of m just before collision, v2 be velocity of 2m just before collision and v0 be combined
velocity just after collision
h
v12 u12 2 g
2
v12 02 gh
v1 gh 10ms2 10m 10 ms1
and
h
v22 u22 2 g
2
v22 u22 gh
v22 (10 5 ) 2 10 10
v22 500 100
v2 20 ms 1
Applying conservation of momentum to the above system, we get

2mv2 mv1 3mv0
2v2 v1 3v0
2v2 v1
3
2 20 10
3
v0 10 ms 1
Note that the system goes further up after collision but on the return journey, the velocity of the combined
system at h /2 is still v0. Applying conservation of energy, we get
v0
1
h 1
3mv02 3mg 3m vf2
2
2 2
2
2
v0 gh vf
(1)
where vf is the velocity of the combined mass as it strikes the ground. Substituting the values in Eq. (1)
we get
(10)2 + 100 = vf2
vf 10 2 ms 1
Thus, the velocity of the combined mass as it returns to the ground will be vf 10 2 ms1.
Question 22
The least count of a stop watch is 1/5 s. Two persons A and B use this watch to measure the time period of
an oscillating pendulum. Person A takes the time period of 30 oscillations and person B takes the time
period of 50 oscillations. Neglecting all other source of error, we can say that
(1) Absolute error in measurement by A is greater than that of B
(2) Absolute error in measurement by A is equal to that of B
(3) Accuracy in measurement by B is greater than that of A
(4) Accuracy in measurement by B is equal to that of A
Solution
1/ 5
1
s
30 150
(5)
1/ 5
1
T2
s
50 250
T1
T2 T1
So accuracy in measurement by person B is greater than that by person A.
Question 23
A charge of 9q is fixed to one corner of a square, while a charge of 8q is fixed to the opposite corner.
In terms of q , what charge should be fixed to the center of the square, so that the potential is zero at each
of the two empty corners?
(1) q / 2
(2) q 2
(3) q / 2
(4) q 3 / 2
Solution
Let the edges of square of length r.

The electric potential at an empty corner of the square
9q
8q
Q
4 0 r 4 0 r 4 0 (r / 2)
1
4 0 r
(q Q 2)
Since this potential must be zero, we have
q
2

Question 24
The power radiated by a black body is P, and it radiates maximum energy around the wavelength 0 . If
the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy around a
wavelength 30 / 4 , the power radiated by it will increase by a factor of
(1) 4/3
(2) 16/9
(3) 64/27
(4) 256/81
Solution
From Wiens law, we have
Substituting values, we get
1T1 2T2
0T
30
T'
4
4
T' T
3
The power at a given temperatures is

P Ae T 4
Substituting and solving for both the temperatures, we get
P T 4 4 4
P T 4 34
256
P
P
81
Question 25
Two long, thin wires parallel to the z-axis carry currents in the positive z-direction, as shown in the figure
given below.
The wire carrying 50 A current is in the xz plane and is 5 m from the z-axis. The wire carrying 40 A
current is in the yz plane and is 4 m from the z-axis. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the
origin?
(1) 0 T
(2) 1106 T
(3) 2.83 106 T
(4) 4 106 T
Solution
Magnetic field at the origin due to the two wires
(50) 0 (40)
B 0
( j )
(i )
2 (5)
2 (4)
50
(i j )
Thus, magnitude of magnetic field will be
50
5(4 107 )( 2)
B 2.83 106 T
Question 26
A shell is fired with a horizontal velocity in the positive x-direction from the top of an 80m high cliff.
The shell strikes the ground 1330m from the base of the cliff. What is the initial speed of the shell? (Take
g =10 ms2.)
(1) 332.5ms1
(2) 170ms1
(3) 82ms 1
Solution
(4) 9.8ms1
The initial velocity in the y-direction is zero.
1
y y0 u y t a y t 2
2
1
(80) 0 (0) t (10) t 2
2
t
80
4s
5
Horizontal displacement is 1330m . If the initial speed is v0 , then
v0 t 1330
v0
1330
332.5 ms 1
4

Question 27
The nuclei of a radioactive element, with decay constant , start getting produced at a constant rate .
Considering that before the decay began, there was no radioactive element present, the number of nuclei
at time t is given by
(1 e t )
t
(3) e
(1)
(2)
t
e
(4) (1 et )
Solution
The rate of radioactive decay is given by
dN
N
dt
N
t
dN
0 N 0 dt
Solving the above relation, we get
(1 e t )

Question 28
Each of the four corners of a square with edge a are occupied by a point masses having mass m each.
There is a fifth particle of mass m, which is placed at the center of the square. How much work must an
external agent do, to remove the mass from the center to a point far away?
4Gm 2
4Gm 2
(1)
(2)
a
a2
4 2 Gm2
4Gm 2
(3)
(4)
a
a 2
Solution
Consider two configurations: (1) when the mass is at the center of the square, and (2) when the mass has
been removed far away. The work done in moving from configuration (1) to (2) is equal to the difference
in the potential energy of the two configurations.
Potential energy of the mass at the center,
Gm m
U i 4
a/ 2
4 2 Gm 2
a
When the same mass is removed to a point far away, its potential energy becomes zero. Hence, U f 0 J .
Thus, the work done will be equal to
W Uf Ui
4 2 Gm 2
0
a
4 2 Gm 2
a

Question 29
The rain-soaked shoes of a person may explode if ground current from nearby lightning vaporizes the
water. Water has density 1000 kg m3 and requires 2000 kJ kg1 to be vaporized. If horizontal current lasts
2.00 ms and encounters water with resistivity 150 m, length 12.0 cm, and vertical cross-sectional area
15 105 m2, then average current required to vaporize the water is
(1) 130.0 A
(2) 12.25 A
(3) 10.0 A
(4) 31.0 A
Solution
The mass of the water over the length is
m d w Al
(1000 kgm 3 )(15 105 m 2 )(0.12 m) ,
(6)
0.018 kg
and the energy required to vaporize the water is
Q Lvap m
(2000 kJkg 1 )(0.018 kg) .
(7)
3.6 104 J
The thermal energy is supplied by joule heating of the resistor as

(8)
Q Pt I 2 Rt .
Since the resistance over the length of water is
l
R w
A
150 m 0.120 m
15 105 m 2
R 1.2 105
The average current required to vaporize water is
Q
I
Rt
3.6 104 J
(1.2 105 )(2.0 103 s)

I 12.25 A
Question 30
Light of wavelength 625 nm passes through a single slit of width 0.320 mm and forms a diffraction
pattern on a flat screen located 8.00 m away. Determine the approximate distance between the middle of
the central bright fringe and the first dark fringe.
(1) 0.0156 cm
(2) 0.516 cm
(3) 1.56 cm
(4) 5.16 cm
Solution
For single slit diffraction,
n
sin 1
For the first dark fringe n 1 , d is the width of the slit and is the wavelength of light.
sin 1
d

625 109
sin 1
3
0.320 10
sin 1 (1.95 103 )
1.95 103 rad
Thus, the distance between the middle of the central bright fringe and the first dark fringe is
y L tan L
[ For small angles tan ,

L is the distance between the slit and screen]
8.00(1.95 103 )
15.6 103 m
y 1.56 cm
Chemistry
Question 31
Which of the following is not used as a chemical test to test for the presence of protein?
(1) Biuret test
(2) Millons test
(3) Ninhydrin test
(4) Molisch test
Solution
Biuret test is used to test the presence of protein. It is a reaction in which 1% solution of copper sulphate
reacts with the peptide bond and turns the solution violet in color.
Millons test is given by any compound that has phenolic hydroxyl group. So proteins containing amino
acids with hydroxyl group will give a pink to dark red color as a positive result.
The reagent ninhydrin is used to detect ammonia, primary and secondary amines. On treatment, deep
blue/purple coloration is observed.
The Molisch reagent is used to detect carbohydrates(monosaccharides, disaccharides and
polysaccharides). On treatment, purple ring is formed at the interface between the layers.
So the presence of proteins can be detected using Biuret, Millon and Ninhydrin tests, out of which
Millons test is not a specific test for proteins. But proteins cannot be detected at all using Molisch test,
which is used to detect carbohydrates
Question 32
In which of the following molecules, the surrounding atoms imposed minimum bond angle at the central
atom?
(1) Cl2O
(2) H2Te
(3) XeF2
(4) I3
Solution
The shape of Cl2O is based on the tetrahedral geometry, so the bond involved in it is around tetrahedral
angle. In the case of H2Te, the shape is angular with bond angle around 90 because the central atom is
not participating in hybridization.
The shape of XeF2 and I3 is based on trigonal bipyramidal geomtry, and both molecules are linear due to
which atoms impose maximum bond angle at the central atom, that is, 180.
Question 33
The vapor pressure of a dilute aqueous solution is 23.45 torr at 27C, whereas the vapor pressure of pure
water at this temperature is 23.76 torr. If values of Kb and Kf for water are 0.51 K/m and 1.86 K/m, then
the incorrect statement is:
(1) The molality of the solution 7.3 101 molal

(2) The boiling point of the solution is 100.37C
(3) The freezing point of the solution is 1.36C
(4) The osmotic pressure of the solution is 17.86 atm at 27C
Solution
From Raoults law equation, the mole fraction of the solute is given by
pAo pB
23.76 23.45
xB xB
0.013
o
pA
23.76
Molality (m)
Moles of solute
0.013 mol
0.73 7.3 101 molal

(1
0.013)
18
Mass of solvent (in kg)
kg
1000
The colligative properties are determined as

Tb Kb m 0.51 0.73 0.37C Tb 100.37C
Tf Kf m 1.86 0.73 1.36C Tf 1.36C
n
RT (Data is not sufficient to calculate the volume of the solution)
V
Question 34
Which of the following cations are paramagnetic?
(1) Yb2+
(2) Lr3+
(3) Th4+
(4) None of these
[Atomic numbers are Yb = 70, Lr = 103, Th = 90]
Solution
The electronic configuration of above cations is as follows:
Yb2+: [Xe]4f14 is diamagnetic
Lr3+: [Rn]5f14 is diamagnetic
Th4+: [Rn] 6d0 4s0 is diamagnetic
Hence, none of them is paramagnetic.
Question 35
Which of the following statements is not correct?
I. o-Nitrophenol has intramolecular hydrogen bonding
II. Dipole moment of p-dinitrobenzene has non-zero value
III. Among lithium halides, LiI is more covalent than LiBr
IV. SF6 molecule obeys octet rule
(1) I, II and III
(2) II and IV
(3) I, III and IV
(4) I, II and IV
Solution
I: The nitro group in o-nitrophenol has an electronegative oxygen atom bonded with double bond, and
electropositive hydrogen atom bonded with oxygen in OH group. These groups are present at adjacent
positions that make it suitable for intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
II: Dipole moment of p-dinitrobenzene is zero as the net dipole moment is the resultant of two equal and
opposite vectors.
O 2N
NO 2
(III) According to Fajans rules, for the same cation, as the size of anion increases, covalent character of
the molecule increases. Therefore, LiI will be more covalent than LiBr.
(IV) SF6 does not obey octet rule as the central atom sulphur in this molecule has 12 electrons in its
outermost shell.
Thus, statements (II) and (IV) are incorrect.
Question 36
Consider the redox reaction in acidic medium: Mn 2 BiO3 MnO4 Bi3 . Choose the correct
statement from the following:
(1) The total electrons involved in the balanced chemical equation is 5.
(2) Two moles of electrons are donated per mole of BiO3
(3) 2.8 mol of acid are required for the change from BiO3 to Bi3+
(4) Acid is used as reducing agent in this reaction.
Solution:
In this reaction, BiO3 is reduced by accepting electrons which are donated by Mn 2+ that is getting
oxidized. Balancing the redox equation, we get:
[Mn 2 4H2O MnO4 8H 5e ] 2
[BiO3 6H 2e Bi3 3H2O] 5
2Mn 2 5BiO3 14H 2MnO4 5Bi3 7H2O
From the balanced equation, it is clear that total of 10 electrons are involved in the reaction, and 2.8 mol
of acid are required per mole of BiO3 .
Question 37
At 25C, 0.056 mol O2 and 0.02 mol N2O were placed in a 1 liter container where the following
equilibrium was established: 2N2O(g) 3O2 (g)
4NO2 (g).
At equilibrium, the NO2 concentration was 0.02 M. What is the value of KC for this reaction?
(1) 23.2
(2) 48.78
(3) 34.33
(4) 0.043
Solution
The reaction involved is
2N 2 O(g)
Initial conc.
0.02
3O 2 (g)
4NO 2 (g)
0.056
Final conc.
0.02 2 x 0.056 3x 4 x
Now, at equilibrium as [NO2] = 0.02 4x = 0.02 x = 0.005 M.
Therefore, [O2] = 0.056 3 (0.005) = 0.041 M, and [N2O] = 0.02 2(0.005) = 0.01 M
[NO2 ]4
(0.02)4
KC
23.2
[N 2 O]2 [O2 ]3 (0.01)2 (0.041)3
Question 38
Consider the one molal aqueous solution of each of the coordination compounds given below?
(I) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 3
(II) [Fe(H 2O) 5 Cl]Cl 2 H 2O
(III) [Fe(H 2O) 3 Cl 3 ] 3H 2O
The correct statement about them is
(1) I will show maximum freezing point
(2) III will show maximum boiling point
(3) III will show minimum freezing point
(4) I will show maximum boiling point
(IV) [Fe(H2O)4 Cl2 ]Cl 2H2O
Solution
The elevation in boiling point and depression in freezing point of a solvent depend on the number of
particles, or moles dissolved in it. Equal molal concentration indicates that equal moles of each compound
are dissolved.
But each compound may dissociate in different way in the solution. .
[Fe(H 2O) 6] 3 3Cl
(I) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 3
(II) [Fe(H 2O)5 Cl]Cl 2 H 2O [Fe(H 2O) 5Cl] 2 2Cl
(III) [Fe(H 2O) 3 Cl 3 ] 3H 2O No dissociation
[Fe(H2O)4 Cl2 ]2 Cl
(IV) [Fe(H2O)4 Cl2 ]Cl 2H2O
In this way, the first compound gives maximum ions on dissociation, it causes maximum depression in
freezing point and maximum elevation in boiling point. Therefore, solution (I) has maximum boiling
point and minimum freezing point.
In contrast, solution III has minimum boiling point and maximum freezing point since it does not
dissociate.
Question 39
Which of the following electronic configuration is not possible?
(1) [Kr] 4d8 5s1
(2) [Kr] 3d7 4s2
(3) [Xe] 4f14 5d7 6s2
(4) [Ar] 3d5 4s1
Solution
The electronic configuration is done by using Aufbaus law, that is, electron should be filled in increasing
order of energy. In [Kr] 3d7 4s2, the configuration 3d7 4s2 is already included with [Kr], the correct one is
[Kr]4d75s1 for Ru. All other configurations are written correctly.
Question 40
In the reaction, CH3CH2CHXCH3 CH3CH2CH=CH2
The percentage of 1-ene increases for given X in the order

(1) Br < SMe 2 < NMe 3
(2) Br < NMe 3 < SMe 2
(3) SMe 2 < NMe 3 < Br
(4) SMe 2 < Br < NMe 3
Solution
Hoffmann elimination follows anti-Saytzeff rule according to which hydrogen is extracted from the
carbon atom having more number of hydrogen atoms, and this takes place in the presence of bulkier and
sterically hindered base and bulkier leaving group.
Among the given four groups, the increasing order of bulkiness of group is
Br < SMe 2 < NMe 3 .
The order of increasing reactivity towards Hofmann elimination is Br < SMe 2 < NMe 3 , so the
percentage of 1-ene increases in the same order.
Question 41
The concentration of a drug in the body is often expressed in units of milligrams per kilogram of body
weight. The initial dose in an animal was 25.0 mg/kg body weight. After 2.00 h, 10.0 mg/kg body weight
is disappeared through metabolism. If metabolism is of first order then the approximate rate of
metabolism after 2 h is
(1) 0.083 mg/min
(2) 0.076 mg/min
(3) 0.063 mg/min
(4) 0.042 mg/min
.
Solution:
a
For first order reactions: kt ln
and Rate k[Drug]
a x
[Drug]0 a 25 mg and [Drug]t a x 25 10 15 mg
Therefore,
1 a
1
25
k ln
ln 0.0042 min 1
t a x 120 15
Rate 0.0042 min 115 mg 0.063 mg min 1

Hence, the correct option is (3) .
Question 42
In the following table, the first column lists some compounds of xenon with oxygen and fluorine and the
second column lists the shapes. Then which of the following options is correct:
Column I
Column II
(A) XeOF4
(p) Distorted octahedron
(B) XeF6
(q) Square pyramidal
(C) XeO2F2
(r) Octahedral
(s) Trigonal bipyramid
(D) [XeO6]4
(1) (A) (p); (B) (q); (C) (r); (D) (s)
(3) (A) (q); (B) (s); (C) (p); (D) (r)
(2) (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r)

(3) (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (p)
Solution
Xenon reacts directly only with fluorine. However, oxygen compounds can be obtained from fluorides.
The structures of the given compounds are as follows:
XeOF4
Square pyramidal (that is octahedral with one
position unoccupied)
XeF 6
Distorted octahedron
XeO2F2
[XeO6]4
Trigonal pyramidal (with one position unoccupied)

Octahedral
Question 43
In a compound, the anions (X) form hexagonal close packing and cations (Y) occupy only one-third of
octahedral voids. The general formula for the compound is
(1) YX
(2) Y2X3
(3) YX3
(4) Y3 X
Solution
1
1
The atoms per unit cell 12 2 3 1 6 . So, the number of anions (X) per unit cell is 6.
6
2
Now since it is hexagonal close packing, the number of octahedral voids present is equal to the number of
anions present. As only 1/3 of the voids are occupied by cations,
1
Number of cations (Y) 6 2
3
Therefore, formula is Y2 X6 YX3
Question 44
Gas A on reaction with propene, followed by Zn/H2O forms acetaldehyde and formaldehyde. When this
gas A is passed through KOH at low temperature, a deep red compound B and a gas are obtained. The
compounds A and B are, respectively,
(1) O3, KO2
(2) O2, KO2
(3) O3, KO3
(4) KOH, O2
Solution
When ozone reacts with an alkene, then aldehyde is formed (two molecules of same for symmetrical
alkenes and mixture for unsymmetrical alkenes). This confirms that Gas A is O3.
O3 CH3 CH CH2 CH3CHO HCHO
Acetaldehyde
Formaldehyde
The reaction of ozone with KOH is analyzed as follows:

KOH O3 2KO3 5O2 H 2O
(A)
Red
(B)
(Another gas)

Question 45
The correct order of increasing atomic radii among Se, O, S and As is
(1) As < S < Se < O
(2) Se < O < S < As
(3) O < S < Se < As
(4) S < Se < As < O
Solution
From O to Se group, the trend for atomic size is O < S < Se. Since As comes before Se in the period, so
As is bigger in size than Se as in a period the size decreases from left to right. So, the correct trend is
given in option (3).
Question 46
Each of the following mixtures was added to a flask or a separation funnel that contained diethyl ether (as
an organic solvent) and mixed well. In which case, would the organic compound be present in the
aqueous phase (soluble in aqueous NaHCO3) ?
(1) p-Cresol + aqueous NaHCO3
(2) p-Chlorophenol + aqueous NaHCO3
(3) p-Nitrophenol + aqueous NaHCO3 (4) Picric acid + aqueous NaHCO3
Solution
In general, phenols are more acidic than alcohols but less acidic than carboxylic acid. Carboxylic acids
can react with weak base NaHCO3, and are soluble in aqueous sodium bicarbonate. So, only those
phenols can be dissolved in aqueous NaHCO3 which are sufficiently acidic to react with weak base,
NaHCO3.
Out of the given compounds, only picric acid is exceptionally acidic which can react with weak base
NaHCO3. So, it dissolves in aqueous phase.

Quick Tip: Just look for the phenol that is as much as or more acidic than carboxylic acid. Picric acid
(2,4,6-trinitrophenol) is very acidic due to three electron withdrawing groups on the benzene ring.
Question 47
On heating of potassium permanganate and potassium dichromate, the number of gases evolved are
respectively
(1) 1, 2
(2) 2, 1
(3) 1, 1
(4) 2, 2
The following reactions taking place on heating:
Heat
2KMnO4 (aq)
K2 MnO4 (s) MnO2 (s) O2 (g)
(9)
Heat
4K 2Cr2O7 (aq)
4K 2CrO4 (s) 2Cr2O3 (s) 3O2 (g)

Question 48
Amine is basic in nature but after reaction with some reagents, its basicity is reduced to a great extent.
This concept is used to distinguish between primary, secondary and tertiary amines. Which of the
following pairs can be distinguished by Hinsbergs test?
(1) Benzylamine and benzamide
(2) Allylamine and propylamine
(3) p-Toluidine and N-methylaniline
(4) Cyclohexylamine and aniline
Solution
Hinsbergs test is very good method to distinguish between primary, secondary and tertiary amines. In
this test, a mixture of amine and benzenesulphonyl chloride (C 6H5SO2Cl) is treated with excess KOH and
then acidified after some time. Each type of amine gives different visible results.
Primary amines react with benzenesulphonyl chloride to form N-alkylbenzenesulphonyl amide

which is soluble in alkali. Secondary amines react with Hinsbergs reagent to give a sulphonamide which
is insoluble in alkali. Tertiary amines, however, do not react with Hinsbergs reagent.
The amines given in the option (3) are primary (p-Toluidine) and secondary (N-methylaniline), so
they can be distinguished by Hinsbergs test.
Question 49
Consider the reaction given below, the maximum possible deuterium atoms found in the product of the
reaction is
(1) 3
(3) 7
(2) 5
(4) 8
Solution
Since -hydrogens of carbonyl group are acidic in nature and the reaction medium is basic in the given
problem, so all hydrogen atoms alpha to carbonyl group will be substituted by deuterium atom.
In addition, in this reaction, the hydrogen atoms at alpha position to the double bond are also substituted
because the double bond is in conjugation with the carbonyl group.
Overall reaction:
So, in the reactant, a total of eight hydrogen atoms can be substituted to form a product with eight
deuterium atoms.
Question 50
Select the incorrect statement:

(1) The most probable speed increases with increase in temperature.
(2) The fraction of gaseous molecules moving with most probable speed decreases with increase in
temperature.
(3) Fraction of gaseous molecules moving with average speed is less than the fraction of molecules
moving with root mean square speed.
(4) In a mixture of gases, heavy molecules are unlikely to be found with very high speeds.
Solution
2RT
, on increasing temperature vmp will increase.
M
On increasing temperature, the distribution graph tends to flatten, which indicates that fraction of
molecules with most probable velocity decreases.
Since vmp
From Maxwell distribution, it is clear that average speed fraction is greater than root mean square speed.
Since speed is inversely proportional to the root of molar mass, heavier molecules move relatively with
less speed.
Question 51
Which of the following options is correct when six ligands are approaching towards central metal ion
along axis?
(1) Energy of t2g set of d-orbitals increases and that of eg set decreases as compared to that in free metal
ion.
(2) Energy t2g set of d-orbitals decreases and that of eg set increases as compared to that in free metal ion.
(3) Energy of both sets of d-orbitals increases equally as compared to that in free metal ion.
(4) Energy of eg set of d-orbitals increases more than t2g set of d-orbitals, but the energy of both sets of
d-orbitals increases as compared to that in free metal ion.
Solution
When ligands approach along the axes in octahedral fields, the electrons present in the eg set of d-orbitals
(d x2 y2 , d z 2 ) faces more repulsion as compared to the electrons in t2g set (dxy, dyx, dzx) which point in
between the axes. But repulsion is faced by electrons from both sets of d-orbitals. Hence, the energy will
increase for both sets of d-orbitals.
Question 52
Predict the product when cis-3-methylcyclopentanol is treated with TsCl/pyridine, followed by sodium
bromide.
(1) trans-1-Bromo-3-methylcyclopentane
(2) cis-1-Bromo-3-methylcyclopentane
(3) 2-Methylcyclopentene
(4) 1-Methylcyclopentene
Solution
When TsCl/pyridine reacts with cis-3-methylcyclopentanol, it reacts with alcoholic group of the
compound and forms tosylate which on reaction with NaBr gives SN2 to produce trans-1-bromo-3methylcyclopentane.
Quick Tip: Tosylate on nucleophilic substitution undergoes S N2 pathway which is associated with
inversion of configuration
Question 53
A buffer solution is formed by adding 0.2 mol each of CH3COOH and CH3COONa in one liter solution.
The pH upon adding 1.0 ml of 0.1 M HCl to 10 ml of this buffer [Given: pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.74]
(1) increases by 0.04.
(2) decreases by 0.04.
(3) increases by 2.7.
(4) decreases by 2.7.
Solution
Given that [CH3COOH] [CH3COONa] 0.2 10 103
Initial pH of the buffer solution is
[Salt]
0.2 10 103
pH pKa log
4.74 log
4.74
[Acid]
0.2 10 103
After addition of 0.1 M HCl to this buffer, few moles of CH3COONa convert to CH3COOH. Therefore,
Moles of salt, CH3COONa = (210-3 0.110-3 ) = 1.910-3
Moles of acid, CH3COOH 2.0 103 0.1103 2.1103
Therefore,
1.9 103 1.9
[CH3COONa] =
M and
11 / 1000 11
2.1 103 2.1
[CH3COOH] =
M
11 / 1000 11
[Salt]
1.9 / 11
pH pKa log
4.74 log
4.7
[Acid]
2.1/ 11
So, the pH decreases by 0.04.
Question 54
Which of the following monomers would be most reactive towards cationic polymerization?
(1) CH2 CH OCH3
(2) CH2 CH CN
(3) CH2 CH NO2
(4) CH2 CH CH3
Solution
Cationic polymerization is the polymerization in which cations are the reacting species. So, carbocations
are the intermediates in the polymerization. The compound in which carbocation produced is very stable,
will react relatively faster than the others.
The monomer given in the first option produces most stable carbocation because electron releasing group
OCH3 stabilize it by resonance. Hence, it is most reactive in cationic polymerization.
Question 55
Consider the transition from energy level n = 6 to n = 4 for He+, the wavelength observed is the same as
the transition in [consider no reduced mass effect]
(1) Li2+ from n = 6 to n = 4
(2) B4+ from n = 6 to n = 4
(3) H from n = 3 to n = 2
(4) Be3+ from n = 12 to n = 8
Solution
1
1
RH Z 2 2 2 , we have:
n1 n2
For transition from energy level n = 6 to n = 4 for He+ is
1
1 1
RH 22 2 2
He
4 6
This can be expressed in terms of following transitions:
Using Rydberg formula
R 22
H
H 2
2
2
He
4 6
2
same as in H from n 3 2
He
32
1
1
1
1
1
1
RH 2 2 RH 32 2 2 2 2 RH 32 2 2
3
3 3
9
2
3 2
6
same as in Li 2 from n 9 6
1
He
1
1
1 1
1
1
RH 2 2 RH 42 2 2 2 2 RH 42 2 2
4 3
2 3
4 2
8 12
same as in B4 from n 12 8
He
1
1
1 1
1
1
RH 2 2 RH 52 2 2 2 2 RH 52 2 2
2 3
5 2 5 3
10 15
same as in Be3 from n 15 10

Hence, the wavelength is the same in the case of H from n = 3 to 2.
Question 56
A sample of mercury (II) sulphide contains 82.6% mercury by mass. The mass of HgS that can be made
from 30 g of mercury is [At wt of Hg = 201, S = 32]
(1) 34.8 g
(2) 36.3 g
(3) 4.8 g
(4) 24.8 g
Solution
The percentage of Hg in pure HgS
201
100 86.2%
233
This is more than the given percentage of Hg, it implies that the sample is not pure. So, we cannot use
given percentage to calculate mass of pure HgS produced by 30 g Hg.
Consider x g of HgS can be obtained from 30 g of Hg. It indicates 30 g Hg is the 86.2% of x g HgS.
x
86.2
30 x 34.8 g
100

Question 57
Consider the half-reactions of a galvanic cell given below:
MnO2 H
Mn 2 2H2O;
o
EMnO
1.23 V
2
o
Pb 2Cl ; EPbCl
0.27 V
2
PbCl2
The correct statement about the cell is

(1) Standard cell potential is 0.95 V.
(2) During withdrawal of electricity from cell, lead is reduced.
(3) During withdrawal of electricity from cell, manganese is oxidized.
(4) During withdrawal of electricity from cell, two electrons are transferred from lead to manganese.
Solution
The reduction potential of MnO 2 is more than that of PbCl2, so, Pb2+ cannot reduce manganese oxide. For
cell reaction to occur, redox reaction is necessary. Hence, if MnO 2 is reduced, lead should be oxidized.
Reduction half reaction: MnO2 4H 2e
Oxidation half reaction: Pb 2Cl
Mn 2 2H2O;
PbCl2 2e;
Cell reaction: MnO2 Pb 2Cl 4H+
o
EMnO
1.23 V
2
o
EPb
0.27 V
o
Mn 2 PbCl2 2H2O Ecell
1.23 0.27 1.5 V

Question 58
Consider the compound shown in the figure.
Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Both protons are more acidic than acetic acid.
(2) All CC bonds in the dianion, C4 O24 are equal.
(3) All CO bonds in the dianion, C4 O24 are equal.
(4) The pKa1 and pKa2 values are equal for both deprotonations.
Solution
After deprotonation, the dianion obtained is stabilized by resonance and four membered ring becomes
aromatic due to which it is more acidic than acetic acid. In general, first deprotonation is easier than the
second, and pKa1 < pKa2. Thus, all four resonance structures are equally stable, which implies that all CC
and CO bonds are equal.
Question 59
For the reaction A B, H = 4 kcal mol1, S = 10 cal mol1 K1. The reaction is spontaneous when the
temperature is
(1) 400 K
(2) 300 K
(3) 500 K
(4) None of these.
Solution
AsG = ve for spontaneous change and G = H TS, we have
H
4000 cal mol1
T S H T
T
T 400 K
S
10 cal mol1K 1
Question 60
When the alkyl bromides (listed here) were subjected to hydrolysis in a mixture of ethanol and water
(80% EtOH/20% H2O) at 55C, the rates of the reaction showed the order:
I. CH3Br
II. CH3CH2Br
III. (CH3)2CHBr
IV. (CH3)3CBr
(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) IV > III > I > II
Solution
Two different mechanisms are involved in the hydrolysis of these compounds.
(CH3)3CBr reacts by SN1 mechanism only and apparently this reaction takes place faster. The other three
alkyl halides react by SN2 mechanism, and their reactions are slower because the nucleophile H 2O is
weak. The reaction rates are affected by the steric hindrance and thus their order of reactivity is I > II > III
(as order followed by alkyl halides towards S N2 is methyl > 1 > 2).
Mathematics
Question 61
The following question consists of two statements, 1 and 2. Of the four choices given, choose the one that
best describes the two statements.
Statement 1: Contrapositive of If xy is even, then either x or y is even is If neither x nor y is even, then
xy is not even
Statement 2: Contrapositive of p q is ~ q ~ p
(1) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False.
(4) Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True.
Solution
Contrapositive of p q
~ q ~ p
r: xy is even
s: Either x or y is even
Contrapositive of r s is ~ s ~ r
This implies that if neither x nor y is even, then xy is not even.
Question 62
Let X be a binomial variate with parameters n and p. If the mean is 20 and variance is 15, then p is equal
to
1
3
1
(3)
2
(1)
1
4
3
(4)
4
(2)
Solution
Mean np and variance 2 npq . Therefore,
and
Solving, we get
np 20
15 = npq
15 20q
3
q
4
p 1 q 1
3 1
4 4

Question 63
If the area bounded between two circles ( x 5)2 ( y 5)2 52 and ( x 1)2 ( y 1)2 52
is
1 13
a b 39 c sin
sq. unit, find a b c.
(1) 79
29
(3)
4
(2) 29
(4) 54
Solution
The area bounded between circles x2 y 2 52 and ( x 2 13)2 y 2 52 is same as the area bounded
between the given two circles (see the following figure).
We have
y 2 52 x2 52 ( x 2 13)2
( x 2 13)2 x2 0
( x 2 13 x)( x 2 13 x) 0
2 x 2 13 0
x 13
Dotted area is
5
13
x
25
x
5 x dx
25 x 2 sin 1
2
5
2
2
13
25
13
25 13
0
12 sin 1

2 2 2
2
5
25
13
25
39 sin 1

4
5
2
Therefore, the required area is
25
13
25
4 Dotted area 4
39 sin 1

2
5
4
13
25 4 39 50sin 1
5
13
a b 39 c sin 1
5
where a b c 25 4 50 29 .
Question 64
Let 1 be a cube root of unity and
E 2(1 )(1 2 ) 3(2 1)(2 2 1) 4(3 1)(3 2 1)
Then E is equal to
(1)
n 2 (n 1)2
4
(2)
n2 (n 1)2
n
4
(n 1)(n 1)(n 2 1)
(3)
n2 (n 1)2
n
4
(4)
n2 (n 1)2
1
4
Solution
The kth term of the given summation is
(k 1)(k 1)(k 2 1) (k 1)(k 2 k 1) k 3 1 .
Therefore using the above result, we can rewrite the summation as
n
k 1
k 1
E (k 3 1) k 3 n
n2 (n 1)2
n
4

Question 65
Four natural numbers are chosen (with repetition) and multiplied together. The probability that unit digit
of the product is odd other than 5 is
2
1
(1)
(2)
5
210
16
609
(3)
(4)
625
625
Solution
Possible unit digit of any natural number is 0, 1, 2, , 9. That is, 10 possibilities. For four natural
numbers with repetition, we have 104 choices.
For product to have odd unit digit other than 5, we must have four natural numbers have unit digit from 1,
3, 7, 9. Hence, there are 44 favourable cases.
Thus, the probability is
44 24 16
104 54 625
Question 66
Let A, B and C be finite sets such that A B C and each one of the sets A B , B C and
C A has 100 elements. Given that A B ( A B) ( A B) , the number of elements in A B C
is
(1) 250
(2) 200
(3) 150
(4) 300
Solution
Let n( X ) denote the number of elements in X.
Then,
n( A B C) n( A) n( B) n(C) n( A B) n( B C ) n(C A) n( A B C ).
Now,
n( A) n( A B)
(since A B C )
A B ( A B) ( B A) ( A B) ( A B).
Therefore,
n( A B ) n ( A B ) n ( A B )
n( A) n( B) 2n( A B)
and
n( A B) [n( A) n(B) 2n( A B)]

2 n( A) n( A B)
300
Therefore
n( A B C )
n( A) n( A B)
300
150
2

Question 67
Normal is drawn at point P to the ellipse
x2
y 2 1 as shown in the following figure. The equation of
9
the normal to the ellipse at point P is

(1) 3 3x y 4 3
(2) 3 3x y 4 3
(3) 3 3x y 5 3
(4) x 3 3 y 7 3
Solution
The equation of line OP is y = mx.
1
y
x
3
Equation of the ellipse is
x2
y 2 1 . To get the coordinates of point P, we get
9
x2 x2
1
9
3
4
x2 1
9
9
x2
4
3
x
2
Therefore, for point P, we consider

x
and
3
2
1 3
3

2
2
3
That is,
3 3
( x1 , y1 ) ,
2 2
Equation of normal at point P is

x x1
x1 / a
y y1
y1 / b2
or
y y1
a 2 ( x x1 )
b2
x1
y1
That is,
9[ x (3 / 2)] 1[ y ( 3 / 2)]
3/ 2
3/2
2x 2
9
1
y 1
3
3
2
6x 9
y 1
3
2
6x
y 8
3
y
3x
4
3
3 3x y 4 3

Question 68
1 cos B
If tan A
, then tan 3A is equal to
sin B
3B
(1) tan
(2) tan 2B
2
(3) tan B
(4) tan 2B
Solution
We have
tan A
1 cos B
B
tan
sin B
2
Therefore,
tan 2 A
2 tan A
2 tan( B / 2)
tan B
1 tan A 1 tan 2 ( B / 2)
tan A tan 2 A
tan( B / 2) tan B
3B
tan 3 A
tan
1 tan A tan 2 A 1 tan ( B / 2) tan B
2
2

Question 69
From a well shuffled pack of 52 cards, five cards are drawn at random. The probability of getting at least
two ace cards and at least two queen cards is
1782
270
(1) 52
(2) 52
C5
C5
(3)
1632
52
C5
(4)
1000
52
C5
Solution
Five cards are drawn; sample space is 52C5. Probability of drawing at least two queen cards and two ace
cards are as follows:
Two queen cards and two ace cards and one other: 4C2 4C2 44C1 = 6 6 44 = 1584.
Two queen cards and three ace cards: 4C2 4C3 = 6 4 = 24.
Three queen cards and two ace cards: 4C3 4C2 = 4 6 = 24
The above mentioned ways show that the favourable cases are:
1584 + 24 + 24 = 1632
Hence, the required probability is
1632
52
C5
Question 70
If a1, a2, , a2014 are in arithmetic progression such that
1
1
a1 a2 a2 a3
a2013 = 72, then find the value of a2014 a1 .

(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) 50
Solution
It is given that a1, a2,, a2014 are in arithmetic progression, such that
1
1
1
+
+ . +
=3
a2013 .a2014
a1a2 a2 a3
1 a2 a1 a 3 a2
d a1a2
a2 a3
1 1 1
1
1

d a1 a2 a 2 a3
a2014 a2013
=3
a2013 .a2014
1
a2013
1
3
a2014
1 1
1
1 a 2013d a
d a1 a2014
d a(a 2013d
a2 a2013 72 a1 a2014 2a 2013d

3=
2013
72a a2 = 671
a(a 72 2a)
1
3 and a2 +
a2013 a2014
a 72a + 671 = 0
a = 11 or 61
2
50
50
or
2013
2013
|a2014 a1| = 2013 |d| = 50
d =
Question 71
The number of five-digit numbers formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, and 8 without repetition and
divisible by 6 is
(1) 98
(2) 116
(3) 150
(4) 216
Solution
Out of six digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 8, five digit numbers have to be formed without repetition; hence, one digit
has to be left out. For the number to be divisible by 6, number has to be even and divisible by 3, that is,
the sum of digits to be divisible by 3, current sum of all digits is 18.
Case 1: 0 left out: The total number of five digit even numbers are
? ? ? ? 2/4/8
= 72 numbers
1 2 3 4 3
Case 2: 3 left out: The total number of five digit numbers are
? ? ? ? 0
= 24 numbers
4 3 2 1 1
? ? ? ? 2/4/8
= 54 numbers
3 3 2 1 3
The total number of five digit numbers = 72 + 24 + 54 = 150 numbers.
Question 72
For the system of equations ax + 4y + z = 0, 2y + 3z = 1 and 3x bz = 2, which of the following is not
true?
(1) Unique solution if ab 15
(2) Infinitely many solutions if a = 3 and b = 5
(3) No solution if ab = 15, a 3
(4) No solution if ab = 15, a 5
Solution
We have
ax 4 y z 0
2 y 3z 1
3x bz 2
Here,
a 4 1
D 0 2 3
3 0 b
a (2b) 3(12 2)
2ab 30
2(ab 15)
Dx 1
2 0 b
4b 24 4
4(b 5)
a
Dy 0
0
1
1
3
3 2 b
a (6 b) 3
a 4
Dz 0 2
3 0 2
4a 12
4(a 3)
Now the system equations will have a unique solution if,
D0
ab 15
System of equations will have infinitely many solution if,
Dx Dy Dz 0
a 3, b 5
System of equations will have no solution if,
D 0 and Dx 0, Dy 0, Dz 0
ab 15, a 3, b 5

Question 73
The equation of the plane containing the line
x y
1, z 0 and parallel to the straight line
3 5
x 1 y 2 3 z
is 5x + 3y +18z = c. Find the value of c.

3
1
1
(1) 0
(2) 5
(3) 10
(4) 15
Solution
Since the plane contains the line 5x 3 y 15 and z 0 , each and every point on the line also satisfies
equation of the plane.
x y
Let say (p, q, r) is a point on the line 1, z 0
3 5
So we have,
p q
1, r 0
.....(1)
3 5
Also as (p, q, r) is a point on the plane 5x 3 y 18z c , we get,

5 p 3q 18r c
....(2)
Comparing both the equations we have c 15 .
Question 74
x 2 3x c
1
f ( x) 2
. If the range of f (x) is ,7 , then find c.
x 3x c
7
(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3
Solution
We have
y f ( x)
x 2 3x c
x 2 3x c
( y 1) x2 3( y 1) x c( y 1) 0
Therefore,
x
3( y 1) 9( y 1)2 4c( y 1)2

2( y 1)
For real x
9( y 1)2 4c( y 1) 2 0
9 y 2 9 18 y 4cy 2 4c 8cy 0
(9 4c) y 2 2(9 4c) y (9 4c) 0
Given that
1
y 7 (7 y 1)(7 y ) 0
7
7 y 2 50 y 7 0
Therefore,
9 4c 7 c 4 and 2(9 4c) 50 c 4

Question 75
Evaluate: lim ( x 2 x x).
x
(1)
1
(3)
2
Solution
(2)
(4)
1
2
( x 2 x x)( x 2 x x)
lim ( x 2 x x) lim
lim
lim
lim
( x 2 x x)
x2 x x2
( x 2 x x)
x/x
[ ( x 2 x) / x ( x / x)]
1
[ ( x 2 / x 2 ) ( x / x 2 ) 1]
lim
x [
1
(1 (1 / x) 1]
1
2

Question 76
The area bounded by the curve y = f(x), x-axis and the ordinates x = 2 and x = k is (k + 1) cos (2k + 3).
Find the value of f(x).
(1) cos(2x 3) 2( x 1)sin(2x 3)
(2) cos(2x 3) 2( x 1)sin(2x 3)
(3) sin(2x 3) 2( x 1)sin(2 x 3)
(4) ( x 1)(cos(2x 3))
Solution
Area bounded by y = f(x), x-axis and the ordinate x = 2 and x = k is
k
f ( x)dx
2
Therefore,
k
f ( x)dx (k 1) cos(2k 3)
(1)
Differentiating Eq. (1) with respect to k on both sides, we get

f (k ) 1 cos(2k 3) (k 1)sin(2k 3)(2)
Therefore,
f ( x) cos(2x 3) ( x 1)(2)sin(2x 3)

Question 77
ABCD is a trapezium. If AB is parallel to CD; BC is perpendicular to AB and CD; BC = CD = 1; and
ADB 60, find AB.
(1)
2 3
3 1
(3) 3 3
Solution
(2) 3 3
(4) 5 3 1
The following figure depicts the trapezium with given measurements.
Therefore,
BD 12 12 2
And in ABD
AB
BD
2
sin 60 sin 75 sin 75
(sine rule)
Thus,
2 3
3/2
sin 60
AB 2

2
3 1
sin 75
( 3 1) / (2 2)
3( 3 1) 3 3
Question 78
If a, b, c, are distinct positive real numbers such that a > b > c and 2ln(a c), ln(a2 c2), ln(a2 + 2b2 + c2)
are in arithmetic progression, then
(1) a , b, c are in arithmetic progression
(2) a, b, c are in arithmetic progression
(3) a, b, c are in geometric progression
(4) a, b, c are in harmonic progression
Solution
We have that a > b > c and 2ln(a c), ln(a2 c2), ln(a2 + 2b2 + c2) are in arithmetic progression. These
imply that
2ln(a2 c2) = 2ln(a c) + ln(a2 + 2b2 + c2)
2
2 2
2 2
2
2
(a c ) = (a c ) (a + 2b + c )
2
2
2
2
(a + c) = a + 2b + c
2
2
2
2
2
a + c + 2ac = a + 2b + c
2
b = ac a, b, c are in geometric progression.
Question 79
Two vectors r and s are non-collinear. The volume of parallelopiped whose co-terminal edges are p , q
and s is v1 and the volume of parallelopiped whose edges are p , q , r is v2. If
( p q) (r s ) logb ar loga bs (where a, b > 1), then the least value of v1 + v2 is
(1) 2
(3) 4
(2) 3
(4) 12
Solution
We have
p q r s ( p q ) s r ( p q ) r s v1r v2 s
log b ar log a bs
v1 logb a;
v2 loga b
Now, a, b > 1 v1, v2 > 0
v v
1 2 v1v2
(AM GM)
2
v1 v2 2
( v1v2 1)
Therefore, the least value of v1 + v2 is 2.
Question 80
Consider y x for 0 x 9. P(, ) is any point on y x and Q (2, 0) is a point not on the curve.
Then
(1) Point (0, 0) is closest to Q and point (9, 3) is farthest from Q.
3
(2) Point (0, 0) is closest to Q and point ,

is farthest from Q.
2 2
(3) Point ,
3
is closest to Q and Point (9, 3) is farthest from Q.
2
(4) Point (0, 0) is closest to Q and point (3, 3) is farthest from Q.

Solution
The graph is depicted in the following figure. We have OQ = 2. Therefore,
AQ ((9 2)2 (3 0)2 )1/2 49 9 58
Given that y x and P(, ) is any point on this curve, therefore
(Distance PQ)2 ( 2)2 ( 0)2

( 2)2
( )
Let us consider that

f ( ) ( 2)2
Therefore,
f ( ) 2( 2) 1
and
f ( ) 2
For critical points,
(which is positive)
f ( ) 0
Therefore,
2( 2) 1 0

3
The point on the curve is ,

2
3
3

2
2
3
and this point is closest to the point Q and its distance from the point
2
Q is
2
1 3
3
3
2
0

4 2
2
2
7
2
2
(OQ 2)
which is equal to OQ.

Note: Maximum occurs at end point and minima occurs at a point in (0, 9), that is, 0 < x < 9.
Question 81
Find the equation of the locus of a point P which moves such that its distance from the origin is twice its
distance from the point A(1, 2).
(1) 3x2 + 3y2 8x 16y + 20 = 0
(2) 3x2 3y2 8x 16y + 20 = 0
2
2
(3) x + y 8x 16y 20 = 0
(4) x2 + y2 8x 16y + 20 = 0
Solution
We have
OP = 2PA (OP)2 = 4(PA)2
x2 + y2 = 4[(x 1)2 + (y 2)2]
x2 + y2 = 4x2 + 4y2 8x 16y + 20
3x2 + 3y2 8x 16y + 20 = 0
Hence, the equation of the locus is 3x2 + 3y2 8x 16y + 20 = 0.
Question 82
Evaluate:
x dx
24 x 4
(1) sin 1
(3)
2
x
1
(4) sin 1 c
4
2

x2
c
16
(2)
1 1 x 2
sin c
2
16
1 1 x 2
sin
2
2
Solution
d
1
Numerator x 2
dx 2
Substituting x2 = t, we get
1
dt
2 42 t 2
t
1
sin 1 c
4
2
[ 24 = (22)2 = 42]
x2
1
sin 1 c
2
4
Question 83
If y x 1 x 2 x 3 sin x , x R is not differentiable for n values of x, find the value of n.

2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) infinite
Solution
We have,

f ( x) x 1 x 2 x 3 sin x , x R
2
Then,
x
(6 3 x)sin 2 , x 1
(4 x)sin
, 1 x 2
2
f ( x)
x sin x ,
2 x3
(3x 6)sin x , x 3
Therefore,
(6 3x) 2 cos 2 x 3sin 2 , x 1
(4 x) cos x sin x ,
1 x 2
2
2
2
f ( x)
x
x cos x sin
,
2 x3
2
2
2
(3 x 6) cos x 3sin x ,
x3
2
2
2
For this function the left hand and the right hand derivatives of f(x) can be obtained by finding the left
hand and the right hand limits of f (x) at any point.
Now at x 1 ,
L F(1) 3,
R F(1) 1
L F(1) R F(1)
At x 2 ,
L F(2) ,
R F(2)
L F(2) R F(2)
At x 3
L F(3) ,
R F(3) 3
L F(3) R F(3)
Therefore f (x) is not differentiable at exactly 2 points x = 1 and 3.
Question 84
Find the value of [( 2 1)6 ]. ([] denotes greatest integer function.)
(1) 196
(2) 197
(3) 198
(4) 199
Solution
( 2 1)6 I f
( 2 1)6 f
I f f ( 2 1)6 ( 2 1)6
= 2(T1 + T3 + T5 + T7)
6
6
2[( 2) C2 ( 2)4 6C4 ( 2)2 6C6 ( 2)0 ]
= 2(8 + 15.4 + 15.2 + 1)
= 198
f f 1 I 197
[( 2 1)6 ] 197

Question 85
Straight lines are drawn from the point A(3, 2) to meet the line 6 x 7 y 30 0 at point P. Then, the
locus of the mid-points of the segment AP is
(1) x2 y 2 30
(2) 6 x 7 y 31
(3) (6 x 3)2 (7 y 2)2 302
(4) 6 x 7 y 32
Solution
Let the line that passes through A (3, 2) be
x3 y 2
r
cos sin
(say)
Every point on this line is of the form P(3 r cos ,2 r sin ) and this lies on the line
6x 7 y 30 r (6cos 7sin ) 2
(1)
Suppose M(h, k) be the mid-point of AP. Therefore,

2h 6 r cos and 2k 4 r sin
6(2h 6) 7(2k 4) 2
12h 14k 62 0
6h 7k 31 0
[from Eq. (1)]
Hence, the locus of M(h, k) is the line 6 x 7 y 31 0 .

Question 86
Let S be the set of all 3 3 symmetric matrices whose entries are either 0 or 1. Five of these entries are 1
and four of these entries are 0. If a matrix is selected from set S, what is the probability that the selected
matrix will be a non-singular matrix?
1
1
(1)
(2)
4
3
1
2
(3)
(4)
2
3
Solution
Symmetric matrix is the one that exists in the form
a d
d b
e f
f
c
Case 1: All three diagonal elements are 1.

1 1 0
1 0 0
1
A1 1 1 0 , A2 0 1 1 , A3 0
0 0 1
0 1 1
1
Case 2: Two diagonal entries are 0 and one entry is 1.

0 0 1
0 1 0
0
A4 0 0 1 , A5 1 0 1 , A6 1
1 1 1
0 1 1
1
0 1
1 0
0 1
1 1
0 0,
0 1
0 0 1
0 1 0
0 1 1
A7 0 1 1 , A8 1 1 1 , A9 1 1 0 ,
1 1 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 0 1
1 1 0
1 1 1
A10 0 0 1 , A11 1 0 1 , A12 1 0 0 .

1 1 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
Hence, there exist a total of 12 symmetric matrices.

From these, the determinants of those matrices which have identical 2 rows or 2 columns are zero. Hence,
A1, A2, A3, A4, A8, A12 are singular.
A5 1, A6 1
A7 1, A9 1, A10 1
A11 1
Hence, there are six non-singular matrices. Hence, the probability of selection of non-singular matrix is
6 1
12 2
Question 87
The locus of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the centre of the hyperbola xy = c2, where c 0,
onto any tangent of the same curve is (x2 + y2)2 = kc2xy. Then, find k.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 8
Solution
Equation of any tangent to a rectangular hyperbola at a point ct , c t is ty x t c .
Foot of the perpendicular drawn from the vertex (0, 0) to ty x t c can be found as,
x y
c
2
1 t t t 1 t2
ct
ct
x 2
,y 2
2
t 1 t
t 1 t2
Replacing these values of x and y in the equation under examination we get,
2
c t 2 ct 2
c t ct
2
2
kc 2 2
2
2
2 2
2
t 1 t t 1 t
t 1 t t 1 t
2
1 t2
t2
t
4
kc 4 1 t
c
2
2
2
2 2
2
2
2
2
2
t 1 t t 1 t
t 1 t t 1 t
1
1
k
2
2
2 2
2
t 1 t t 1 t 2
k 1
Question 88
Two circles c1 and c2 touch each other externally and both circles also touch the coordinate axes. If c1 is
smaller than c2 and its radius is 2 units, then the radius of c2 is
(1) 6 4 2
(2) 2 2 2
(3) 3 2 2
(4) 6 4 2
Solution
The following figure depicts the two circles c1 and c2 touching each other externally and also touching the
coordinate axes.
From the figure, we can write as
OQ = OR + RQ
2r2 OP PR RQ
( diagonal of a square is 2 side)
2r2 2 2 2 r2
r2 ( 2 1) 2( 2 1)
Rationalizing, we get
r2
2( 2 1)
2 1
2 1
2 1
64 2

Question 89
The direction cosines of two lines satisfy the equations 2l 2m n 0 and mn nl lm 0 . The angle
between two lines is
(1) 30
(2) 60
(3) 90
(4) 120
Solution
Given that
2l 2m n 0
mn nl lm 0
From Eq. (1), we get

Substituting n in Eq. (2), we get
(1)
(2)
n 2(l m)
m(2)(l m) 2(l m)l lm 0

2m2 3ml 2l 2 2lm 0
2m2 5ml 2l 2 0
2m2 ml 4ml 2l 2 0
m(2m l ) 2l (2m l )
(2l m)(l 2m) 0
l
m 2l or m
2
When m 2l , we get
l m n

1 2 2
Therefore, direction ratios of one line are 1: 2 : 2 .
[using n 2(l m)]
l
When m , we get
2
l m n
[using n 2(l m) ]
2 1 2
which implies that the direction ratios of another line are 2 : 1: 2.
Taking dot product of the above two direction ratios, we get 2 2 4 0 , which implies that the two
lines are inclined at 90 to each other.
Question 90
Solve:
x dy y dx
x dy y dx .
x2 y 2
y
(1) loge xy c
x
(2) loge xy 2 c
y
x
(3) tan 1 xy c
y
(4) tan 1 xy c
x
Solution
We know that
y x dy y dx
d tan 1
x
x2 y 2
Also, we know that
d ( xy) x dy y dx
Given that
x dy y dx
x dy y dx
x2 y 2
y
d tan 1 d ( xy )
x
y
d tan 1 d ( xy ) c
(by integrating on both sides)
x
y
tan 1 xy c
x

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JEE Knockout Improvement Paper

and the coordinate of the electron is

where L is the separation between the plates.

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

3 106 3 108 9 1014

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

Now the total resistance of circuit:

R 100 150 250

Hence, the correct option is (2).

(1) force F is 2Fl

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

(3) force F is Fl sin

Hence, the correct option is (1).

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

From Eq. (1) and (2)

Hence, the correct option is (1).

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

Ceq C4 [C3C5 / (C3 C5 )] C2 C6 C1

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

Hence, the correct option is (3).

(2) AND gate

(3) NAND gate

(4) NOR gate

Hence, the correct option is (4).

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

(1.67 1027 ) (2.2 106 )

Hence, the correct option is (3).

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

What is the largest possible index of refraction for the liquid?

Applying Snells law at the solid-solid interface,

n2 sin 2 n3 sin (90o )

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

Hence, the correct option is (4).

From the figure, we have

Modulation index is given by

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Substituting values, we have

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

Hence, the correct option is (1).

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

The change in the volume of the gas.

The change in the volume of the gas.

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

(6.63 1034 )(3 108 )

Stopping potential, V0 = 0.710 V

2.91 1019 J (1.43V)(1.6 1019 C)

Hence, the correct option is (3).

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

(1.69 108 m)(188.5m)

Hence, the correct option is (1).

v1 gh 10ms2 10m 10 ms1

Applying conservation of momentum to the above system, we get

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2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

Let the edges of square of length r.

Since this potential must be zero, we have

Hence, the correct option is (3).

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

The power at a given temperatures is

Thus, magnitude of magnetic field will be

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

The initial velocity in the y-direction is zero.

Horizontal displacement is 1330m . If the initial speed is v0 , then

Hence, the correct option is (1).