CH Test 4 PDF

Physical Science
Chapter Tests with Answer Keys

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Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Introduction to Science
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. The main branches of natural science are

a. physics and chemistry.
c. medicine and agriculture.
b. biology, zoology, and ecology. d. life, physical, and earth science.
______ 2. What do scientists who do pure science do?
a. They look for ways to use scientific knowledge to solve problems.
b. They develop new uses for scientific knowledge.
c. They do experiments to find out about the world.
d. They build faster and more powerful computers.
______ 3. A scientific law is
a. the same as a hypothesis.
b. a description of a natural event.
c. an explanation of a scientific observation.
d. the conclusion of a scientific experiment.
______ 4. According to the graph, for which year was the smallest number of
pennies found?
a. 1988
c. 1990
b. 1989
d. 1991
30
Number of Pennies
25
20
15
10
0
1988
1989
1990
1991
1992
1993
1994
1995
1996
1997
1998
1999
Year
Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.
Holt Science Spectrum
64
Name
Class
Date
Chapter Test continued

______ 5. Scientists test a hypothesis by
a. formulating questions.
b. designing models.
c. doing experiments.
d. drawing conclusions.
______ 6. Maria is 123 centimeters tall. Her height in meters is

a. 0.0123 m.
c. 1.23 m.
b. 0.123 m.
d. 12.3 m.
______ 7. Which SI prefix means one one-hundredth (1/100)?
a. nanoc. millib. microd. centi______ 8. A loaf of bread weighs 1362 g. The weight in kilograms is
a. 1.362 kg.
c. 0.1362 kg.
b. 1362 kg.
d. 0.013 62 kg.
______ 9. The speed of light is approximately 3 108 m/s. How would this be
written in conventional notation?
a. 300 000 m/s
c. 30 000 000 m/s
b. 3000 000 m/s
d. 300 000 000 m/s
______10. You are asked to find the volume of a cube that is 2.5 cm high, 2.65 cm
wide, and 3.456 cm long. How many significant figures should you
show in your answer?
a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. 4
______11. A measurement that is accurate is one that
a. is as exact as possible.
c. contains at least four significant
figures.
b. is close to the true value.
d. contains five decimal places.
______12. An important science skill is critical thinking. This means
a. thinking logically to solve a problem.
b. discovering the shortcomings of others.
c. knowing when something is very important.
d. testing a hypothesis during an experiment.
______13. A tool used by physicists to smash atoms is a
a. spectroscope.
c. particle accelerator.
b. stopwatch.
d. radio telescope.
Read each statement, and write in the blank the word or words that best completes
the statement.
14. A mathematical representation of an object or event is a
____________________.
65
Name
Class
Date

15. Any factor in an experiment that can change is referred to as a
____________________.
16. Combinations of the SI base units, which are used to measure quantities such
as volume, speed, and pressure, are called ____________________

____________________.
17. The number .000 9234 would be written in scientific notation as
____________________ ____________________.
18. The number 56 780 000 000 would be written in scientific notation as
____________________ ____________________.
19. The number 4.065 has ____________________ significant figures.
Read the statement, and write your answer in the space provided.
20. That measurement is very precise, but it is still not accurate. Explain how
this statement might be true.
66
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
______ 1. The two main branches of science are

a. physics and chemistry.
c. natural and physical science.
b. natural and social science.
d. biological and earth science.
______ 2. A scientific theory is an explanation that
a. has been published in a journal or book.
b. predicts what will happen.
c. has been tested by many observations.
d. a scientist has tested with an experiment.
______ 3. For a scientific theory to be valid, it must allow you to
a. perform experiments.
c. form a hypothesis.
b. obtain new results each time. d. make predictions.
______ 4. A scientific model is a
a. representation of a real event or object.
b. small building used to conduct experiments.
c. mathematical statement of a theory.
d. new theory that takes the place of an incorrect one.
______ 5. The SI unit for measuring temperature is the
a. degree.
c. mole.
b. kelvin.
d. ampere.
______ 6. Which SI prefix means one million?
a. kiloc. gigab. megad. milli______ 7. The decimal equivalent of 102 is
a. 100.
c. 0.1.
b. 10.
d. 0.01.
______ 8. What is 78 900 000 000 expressed in scientific notation?
a. 789 109
c. 7.89 109
8
b. 78.9 10
d. 7.89 1010
______ 9. You are asked to find the area of a room that is 4.56 m long and 5.668
m wide. How many significant figures should you show in your
answer?
a. 3
c. 6
b. 5
d. 7
67
Name
Class
Date

Read each statement, and write in the blank the word or words that best completes
the statement.
10. A ____________________ measurement is one that is as exact as possible.

11. Using scientific knowledge for practical applications is called
____________________.
12. Applying logic to investigate problems involves ____________________ thinking.
13. Astronomers use ____________________ to magnify distant objects.
14. A possible answer to a scientific problem is called a ____________________.
15. Length, mass, time, and temperature, are four of the seven SI
____________________.
16. In the SI system, the prefix ____________________ means one billion.
Gases in the Atmosphere

Carbon dioxide
Other
Oxygen
Nitrogen
17. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is ____________________.

18. In scientific notation, the number 46 500 000 is ____________________.
19. The number 50.775 has ____________________ significant figures.
Read the statement, and write your response in the space provided.
20. Explain why scientists use scientific notation.
68
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Matter
______ 1. Matter can be defined as anything that

a. can be seen and touched.
c. can be weighed.
b. has mass and takes up space. d. contains kinetic energy.
______ 2. The smallest unit of a substance that behaves like the substance is a(n)
a. element.
c. atom.
b. molecule.
d. compound.
______ 3. The chemical symbol for sulfuric acid is H2SO4 . How many atoms are
contained in each molecule of sulfuric acid?
a. 3
c. 6
b. 5
d. 7
______ 4. Which of the following is an example of a gas-liquid mixture?
a. the air we breathe
c. a carbonated drink
b. a helium balloon
d. ice cubes
______ 5. Which of the following is an element?
a. steel
c. iron
b. bronze
d. brass
______ 6. Which of the following is made of at least two different types of
atoms?
a. element
c. compound
b. molecule
d. matter
______ 7. Unlike a mixture, a pure substance has
a. atoms.
c. a specific size.
b. molecules.
d. a fixed composition.
______ 8. Which of the following is not an example of a physical property?
a. freezing point
c. boiling point
b. reactivity
d. density
______ 9. A substance has a mass of 360 g and a volume of 7.5 ml. What is its
density?
a. 2700 g/ml
c. 270 g/ml
b. 480 g/ml
d. 48 g/ml
______10. Stainless steel has chemical properties such as
a. hardness.
c. high melting point.
b. resistance to rust.
d. electrical conductivity.
26
Matter
Name
Class
Date

______11. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
a. ice melting
c. paint fading
b. pounding gold into a coin
d. a puddle of water evaporating
______12. Digesting food is an example of
a. physical change.
b. chemical change.
c. change of state.
d. buoyancy.
Read each statement and write in the blank the word or words that best completes
the statement.
13. A molecule is the smallest unit of a substance that retains the
_________________________ of that substance.

14. The chemical symbol O stands for the element _________________________.
15. The chemical formula for a chlorine molecule, which contains two chlorine
(Cl) atoms, is _________________________.

16. Two or more liquids that can dissolve into each other are referred to as
_________________________.
17. Tooth fillings are often made of gold or porcelain because those materials are
not _________________________.
18. Ice floats in water because it is _________________________ than water.
19. Grinding wheat into flour is an example of a _________________________
change.
Read the question, and write your response in the space provided.
20. Why is density an important property of matter? Explain at least two ways in
which density has practical importance.
27
Matter
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
Matter
______ 1. The science of what matter is made of and how it changes is called
a. chemistry.
c. physics.
b. kinetics.
d. engineering.
______ 2. A substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances is
a(n)
a. compound.
c. element.
b. mixture.
d. atom.
______ 3. The chemical formula for table sugar is C12H22O11 . How many oxygen
atoms are in each sugar molecule?
a. 2
c. 12
b. 11
d. 22
______ 4. You put a spoonful of salt into a bowl of water and stir. The resulting
liquid is an example of a(n)
a. pure substance.
c. heterogeneous mixture.
b. homogeneous mixture.
d. immiscible mixture.
______ 5. Which of the following is an example of a chemical property?
a. reactivity with oxygen
c. density
b. solubility in water
d. color
______ 6. Which of the following is not an example of a physical property?
a. freezing point
c. boiling point
b. reactivity
d. density
______ 7. Knowing the chemical properties of a substance will tell you how the
substance
a. looks.
c. smells.
b. can be broken down into
d. reacts with other substances.
atoms.
______ 8. Steel has a density of 7.8 g/cm3. What is the mass of a block of steel
with a volume of 600.0 cm3?
a. 77 g
c. 470 g
b. 4700 g
d. 7700 g
______ 9. Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
a. dissolving salt in water
c. burning wood into charcoal
b. cooking an egg
d. rusting iron
28
Matter
Name
Class
Date

the statement.
10. Aluminum, oxygen, and carbon are examples of _________________________.

11. Grinding quartz crystals down to produce sand is an example of a(n)
_________________________ change.
12. The smallest particle of oxygen that behaves like oxygen is an oxygen
_________________________.
13. Each molecule of iron oxide (Fe2O3) contains _________________________
iron atom(s).
14. A mixture of flour and water is called a(n) _________________________
mixture because the substances do not dissolve.

15. The _________________________ of a substance is defined as its mass divided
by its volume.
16. A chemical change is a change in the _________________________ of a sub-
stance.
17. A change in color during a reaction is often a sign that a(n)
_________________________ change has occurred.

18. The components of a _________________________ can be separated because
they are not chemically combined.

19. Gold is usually found in a pure form in nature because it is not
_________________________.
20. Explain what it means to say that a chemical change is a change in composition. Give an example of a chemical change and state what changes occur.
29
Matter
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
States of Matter
______ 1. Temperature is a measure of the average ____________ energy of the

particles in the object.
a. thermal
c. potential
b. kinetic
d. chemical
______ 2. The process of a liquid becoming a gas is called
a. sublimation.
c. evaporation.
b. condensation.
d. freezing.
______ 3. The process of a liquid becoming a solid is called
a. condensation.
c. evaporation.
b. freezing.
d. melting.
______ 4. A state of matter that is not a fluid is
a. water.
b. gas.
c. liquid.
d. solid.
______ 5. Which state of matter has a definite volume, but not shape?
a. plasma
c. liquid
b. gas
d. solid
______ 6. Archimedes principle states that the buoyant force on a(n)
___________ is equal to the weight of the displaced volume of fluid.
a. object in a fluid
b. object floating on a fluid
c. fluid mixing with liquid
d. substance dissolving into a fluid
______ 7. An object that sinks into a fluid is ____________ the liquid.
a. less dense than
c. more dense than
b. equally dense as
d. being dissolved in
______ 8. Unlike a gas, a plasma
a. is a fluid.
b. has no definite shape.
c. has no definite volume.

d. conducts electric current.
______ 9. Charless law relates the volume of a gas to its

a. container.
c. molecular composition.
b. pressure.
d. temperature.
______10. When a fixed sample of gas increases in temperature, it must also
a. increase in pressure.
c. decrease in pressure.
b. increase in volume.
d. Both (a) and (b)
22
States of Matter
Name
Class
Date

the statement.
11. The ____________________ theory of matter states that matter is made of
particles whose speed is dependent on their temperature and size.

12. The buoyant force exerts a(n) ____________________ force on any object
immersed in or floating on a fluid.

13. When an object floats, the buoyant force is ____________________ the weight
of the object.
14. Pascals principle states that a fluid in equilibrium within a vessel exerts
____________________ of equal intensity to all parts of the fluid.

15. Bernoullis principle describes the phenomenon of fluid pressure decreasing
when its speed _________________________.

16. Unlike liquids and solids, gases expand to ____________________ their con-
tainers.
17. Boyles law relates the pressure of a gas to its _____________________ .
18. Gay-Lussacs law relates the temperature of a gas to the
____________________ of a gas.
19. If a fixed sample of gas increases in temperature, at a constant pressure, its
volume ____________________.
20. How do the two conservation laws apply to changes of state?
23
States of Matter
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
States of Matter
______ 1. The kinetic theory helps to visualize the differences between

a. temperatures.
c. types of motion.
b. particles.
d. states of matter.
______ 2. The process of a solid becoming a gas is called
a. sublimation.
c. evaporation.
b. condensation.
d. freezing.
______ 3. The process of a gas becoming a liquid is called
a. melting.
c. evaporation.
b. freezing.
d. condensation.
______ 4. The heavier a particle, the ____________ it moves.
a. faster
c. more
b. slower
d. less
______ 5. The force keeping an object floating on a liquid is called
a. Archimedes force.
c. natural force.
b. buoyant force.
d. surface tension.
______ 6. Pascals principle states that a fluid in equilibrium enclosed by a vessel
exerts pressure
a. upwards.
c. equally in all directions.
b. towards the vessels opening.
d. downwards.
______ 7. An object that floats on a fluid is ____________ the fluid.
a. less dense than
c. more dense than
b. equally dense as
d. being dissolved in
______ 8. Unlike a plasma, a gas
a. is affected by magnetic fields.
b. has no definite volume.
c. is made of particles that have broken apart.
d. does not conduct electricity.
______ 9. Boyles law relates the volume of a gas to its
a. container.
c. molecular composition.
b. pressure.
d. temperature.
______10. When a fixed sample of gas increases in volume, it must also
a. decrease in pressure.
c. Either (a) or (b)
b. increase in temperature.
d. Both (a) and (b)
24
States of Matter
Name
Class
Date

the statement.
11. The kinetic theory of matter states that matter is made of particles whose
speed is dependent on their ____________________.

12. The law of mass conservation states that mass ____________________ be
created or destroyed.
13. The only state of matter with definite shape and form is
____________________.
14. _____________________ is the most common state of matter in the universe.
15. Archimedes principle states that the buoyant force on an object in a fluid is
equal to the ____________________ of the volume of fluid that the object

displaces.
16. Pascals principle states that a change in pressure at any point in an enclosed
fluid will be transmitted ____________________ to all parts of the fluid.

17. Charless law relates the volume of a gas to the ____________________ of a
gas.
18. Gay-Lussacs law relates the pressure of a gas to the ____________________ of
a gas.
19. If a fixed amount of gas increases in pressure, at a constant temperature, its
volume ____________________.
20. Explain how gases are different from liquids and solids, giving four examples
of properties of gases.
25
States of Matter
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Atoms and the Periodic Table
______ 1. Daltons atomic theory stated that every element was made of atoms
that could not be subdivided, atoms of the same element are alike, and
a. atoms are made of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
b. the nucleus is the center of the atom.
c. atoms can join to form molecules.
d. atoms are constantly in motion.
______ 2. Which statement about the atomic nucleus is correct?
a. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a negative
charge.
b. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a positive
charge.
c. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a positive charge.
d. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a negative charge.
______ 3. According to Bohrs model of the atom, electrons behave like
a. planets orbiting the sun.
c. light energy in a vacuum.
b. waves on a vibrating string.
d. planets rotating on their axes.
______ 4. The order of elements in the periodic table is based on
a. the number of protons in the nucleus.
b. the electric charge of the nucleus.
c. the number of neutrons in the nucleus.
d. atomic mass.
______ 5. Ionization refers to the process of
a. changing from one period to
c. turning lithium into fluorine.
another.
b. losing or gaining protons.
d. losing or gaining electrons.
______ 6. Oxygens atomic number is 8. This means that an oxygen atom has
a. eight neutrons in its nucleus.
b. a total of eight protons and neutrons.
c. eight protons in its nucleus.
d. a total of eight neutrons and electrons.
33
Name
Class
Date

______ 7. Which statement about an elements average atomic mass is correct?
a. It is determined by counting the number of isotopes in a sample of
the element.
b. It is equal to one-twelfth the mass of the most common isotope.
c. It is a weighted average, so common isotopes have a greater effect
than uncommon ones.
d. It is based on an isotopes charge, so negatively charged isotopes
have a greater effect than positive ones.
______ 8. Which statement about the alkali metals is correct?
a. They are located in the left-most column of the periodic table.
b. They are extremely nonreactive.
c. They are usually gases.
d. They form negative ions with a 1 charge.
______ 9. Which statement about noble gases is correct?
a. They form compounds with very bright colors.
b. They exist as single atoms rather than as molecules.
c. They are highly reactive with both metals and nonmetals.
d. They are extremely rare in nature.
______10. Group 18 noble gases are inert because
a. they readily form positive ions.
b. they can have either a positive or a negative charge.
c. their outermost energy level is missing one electron.
d. their outermost energy level is full.
______11. A mole is an SI base unit that describes the
a. mass of a substance.
c. volume of a substance.
b. amount of a substance.
d. electric charge of a substance.
______12. If the atomic mass of carbon is 12 amu, 1 mole of pure carbon will
have a mass of
a. 6 g.
c. 12 g.
b. 6 mol.
d. 12 mol.
______13. The average atomic mass of potassium is approximately 39 amu. What
is the mass of 2.0 mol of potassium?
a. 0.39 g
c. 39 g
b. 0.78 g
d. 78 g
______14. You have 6.50 mol of chromium, which has a molar mass of approximately 52 g/mol. What is the mass in grams of this amount of
chromium?
a. 3.38 g
c. 338 g
b. 33.8 g
d. 3.38 kg
34
Name
Class
Date

the statement.
15. The word atom comes from a Greek word that means unable to be
____________________.
16. The nucleus of an atom has a(n) ____________________ electric charge.
17. Bohrs model of the atom compares electrons to ____________________.
18. The order of elements in the periodic table is based on the number of
____________________ in the nucleus.

19. Some elements are highly ____________________ because their outermost
energy levels are only partially filled.

20. Isotopes of an element have the same atomic ____________________ but
different atomic ____________________.

21. The ____________________ are located in the center of the periodic table.
22. Noble gases are nonreactive gaseous elements that are located in Group
____________________ of the periodic table.

23. The ____________________ is the SI unit that is used for counting small
particles, such as atoms.

24. The molar mass of krypton is 83.80 g/mol. The mass of 5.00 mol of krypton is
____________________ g.
25. Explain the major differences between Bohrs model of the atom and the
modern model.
35
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
______ 1. Which statement is true according to Daltons theory?

a. Atoms of different elements can join to form larger atoms.
b. Atoms can be subdivided into smaller particles.
c. Atoms of the same element differ in electric charge.
d. Atoms of the same element are exactly alike.
______ 2. Atoms have no electric charge because they
a. have an equal number of charged and noncharged particles.
b. have neutrons in their nuclei.
c. have an equal number of electrons and protons.
d. have an equal number of neutrons and protons.
______ 3. According to Bohrs theory, an electrons path around the nucleus
defines its
a. electric charge.
c. energy level.
b. atomic mass.
d. speed.
______ 4. Atoms of elements that are in the same group have the same number
of
a. protons.
c. valence electrons.
b. neutrons.
d. protons and neutrons.
______ 5. A lithium ion is much less reactive than a lithium atom because it
a. is much more massive.
b. has a full outermost energy level.
c. has a negative electric charge.
d. is in a different periodic table group.
______ 6. An atoms mass number equals the number of
a. protons plus the number of electrons.
b. protons plus the number of neutrons.
c. protons.
d. neutrons.
______ 7. An atomic mass unit is equal to
a. one-half the mass of a hydrogen atom.
b. one-fourth the mass of a lithium atom.
c. one-twelfth the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
d. one-fifteenth the mass of a nitrogen-15 atom.
36
Name
Class
Date

______ 8. Alkali metals are extremely reactive because they
a. have very small atomic masses.
b. are not solids at room temperature.
c. have one valence electron that is easily removed to form a positive
ion.
d. have two valence electrons that form compounds with calcium and
magnesium.
______ 9. Most halogens form compounds by
a. gaining an electron to form a negative ion.
b. losing an electron to form a positive ion.
c. losing protons.
d. joining with both calcium and carbon.
______10. Transition metals such as copper or tungsten form compounds by
a. gaining electrons to form negative ions.
b. losing electrons to form positive ions.
c. losing neutrons.
d. changing shape and color.
______11. Avogadros constant is defined as the number of particles in
a. one mole of a pure substance. c. one gram of a pure substance.
b. one liter of a pure substance.
d. one kilogram of a pure substance.
______12. Molar mass is defined as
a. the number of particles in 1 mole of a substance.
b. the SI base unit that describes the amount of a substance.
c. the amount of a substance necessary to have a positive charge.
d. the mass in grams of 1 mole of a substance.
______13. The average atomic mass of the element cesium is approximately
133 amu. What is the mass of 3.00 mol of cesium?
a. 0.133 g
c. 266 g
b. 133 g
d. 399 g
______14. What is the mass in grams of 0.75 mol of sulfur, which has a molar
mass of approximately 32 g/mol?
a. 16 g
c. 32 g
b. 24 g
d. 240 g
the statement.
15. The first person who suggested that matter was made up of atoms was the
Greek philosopher ________________________.

37
Name
Class
Date

16. Neutrons and protons are found in the ____________________ of an atom.
17. According to modern atomic theory, the exact location of a(n)
____________________ is uncertain.
18. The ________________________ states that when elements are listed in order
of atomic number, similarities in their properties will emerge in a regular

pattern.
19. The valence electron of a lithium atom is easily removed to form a lithium
____________________ with a charge of 1.

20. An atom of potassium has an atomic mass of 39 amu and an atomic number
of 19. It therefore has ____________________ neutrons in its nucleus.

21. Group 1 of the periodic table consists of the ________________________, a
highly reactive group of elements.

22. The ________________________ are reactive elements in Group 17 of the
periodic table.
23. The number of particles in one mole of a substance is referred to as
____________________.
24. The molar mass of palladium is 106.42 g/mol. Therefore, 53.2 g of palladium
contains ____________________ mol.

25. Explain why atoms have no electric charge even though they are made up of
charged particles.
38
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
______ 1. A mixture is different from a compound because each substance in a

mixture
a. retains its own properties.
c. forms an ion.
b. changes its electric charge.
d. changes from a solid to a liquid.
______ 2. Each molecule of hydrochloric acid, HCl, contains one atom of hydrogen and
a. one atom of chlorine.
c. two atoms of chlorine.
b. one atom of oxygen.
d. two atoms of oxygen.
______ 3. In which substance do the molecules have the strongest attractions to
one another?
a. sugar, a solid
c. sulfuric acid, a liquid
b. hydrogen, a gas
d. water, a liquid
______ 4. Often atoms join so that each atom will have
a. an even number of electrons.
b. an outermost energy level that is full of electrons.
c. an equal number of protons and electrons.
d. more electrons than either protons or neutrons.
______ 5. In a metallic bond, the nucleus of one atom is attracted by a nearby
atoms
a. nucleus.
c. energy structure.
b. negative ion.
d. electrons.
______ 6. Solid ionic compounds have very high melting points because they
a. are positively charged.
b. contain metallic elements.
c. are made of elements that are solid at room temperature.
d. contain charged ions that are locked tightly together.
______ 7. The name for the compound with the formula CuBr2 would be written
as
a. copper(II) bromide.
c. copper bromine.
b. copper(I) bromide.
d. copper(III) bromide.
______ 8. Formaldehyde, CH2O, and acetic acid, C2H4O2 , have the same empirical formula but different
a. kinds of cations.
c. kinds of atoms.
b. kinds of anions.
d. molecular formulas.
20
The Structure of Matter
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. The simplest organic compound is
a. aspirin.
c. salt.
b. table sugar.
d. methane.
______10. Polymers are large organic molecules that are made of
a. cations.
c. carbon and oxygen only.
b. anions.
d. repeating units.
______11. A protein is a polymer that is made of
a. simple sugars.
c. amino acids.
b. nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
d. DNA.
the statement.
12. Unlike a mixture, a compound has a(n) ____________________ that is always

the same.
13. Formula units of salt, NaCl, contain equal numbers of ____________________
and ____________________.
14. A ____________________ formula resembles a ball and stick model of a compound except chemical symbols are used to represent the atoms.
15. In ionic compounds, the positively charged ions are formed from
____________________ elements.
16. A(n) ____________________ bond is formed by the attraction between posi
tively charged metal ions and the ____________________ around them.

17. A compound consisting of Br and Cd2 ions would be named
____________________.
18. The simplest formula for a covalent compound is its ____________________
formula.
19. ____________________ are compounds that have repeating subunits.
20. Describe how ionic, covalent, and metallic bonds differ from each other.
21
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
______ 1. The forces that hold different atoms or ions together are
a. electric currents.
c. physical bonds.
b. chemical bonds.
d. nuclear forces.
______ 2. Each molecule of table sugar, C12H22O11, contains
a. 0 atoms of carbon.
c. 6 atoms of carbon.
b. 1 atom of carbon.
d. 12 atoms of carbon.
______ 3. Gases take up a lot of space because gas molecules
a. have weak chemical
c. contain very few atoms.
d. have a small molar mass.
bonds.
b. are not attracted to one another.
______ 4. Covalent bonds are formed between
a. ions.
c. nonmetal atoms.
b. metal atoms.
d. compounds.
______ 5. Copper is a good conductor of electricity because its electrons
a. are positively charged.
c. have a 2 charge.
b. can move from atom to atom. d. are repelled by protons.
______ 6. The name dinitrogen tetroxide tells you that this compound contains
a. two N atoms and two O atoms. c. two N atoms and four O atoms.
b. four N atoms and two O atoms. d. four N atoms and four O atoms.
______ 7. When copper combines with oxygen to form copper(II) oxide, the
charge of the copper ion is
a. Cu1.
c. Cu3.
2
b. Cu .
d. Cu4.
______ 8. It is possible for different covalent compounds to have the same
empirical formula because empirical formulas represent
a. a total of all ionic bonds.
c. a model of the compound.
b. only the cations in the
d. a ratio of atoms in the
compound.
compound.
______ 9. How many chemical bonds can carbon form with other atoms?
a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. 4
22
Name
Class
Date

______10. Alkanes are hydocarbons that contain
a. single covalent bonds only.
c. carbon and oxygen only.
b. single or double covalent
d. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
bonds.
the statement.
11. When two atoms bond, the positive ____________________ of one
atom attracts the negative ____________________ of another.

12. The structural formula for a water molecule is ____________________.
13. When two chlorine atoms bond, they ____________________ a pair of electrons.
14. A(n) ____________________ bond is formed when atoms share
____________________ of electrons.
15. Because polyatomic ions are made of covalently bonded atoms that have
either gained or lost electrons, they behave like simple
____________________.
16. A compound consisting of Cr3 ions and OH ions would be named
______________________.
17. The chemical formula for the ionic compound consisting of oxide ions and
nickel(III) ions is ____________________.
18. A compounds ______________________ formula tells you how many atoms
of each type are in one molecule.
19. A(n) ____________________ is a polymer made of bonded amino acids.
20. Describe how the chemical structure of a compound affects its properties by
giving at least two examples.
23
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Chemical Reactions
______ 1. A substance that undergoes a change in a chemical reaction is

a. a product.
c. a reactant.
b. a chemical.
d. an enzyme.
______ 2. In an exothermic reaction, energy is transferred from
a. the reactants to the surroundings.
b. the surroundings to the reactants.
c. one reactant to another.
d. the container to the chemicals.
______ 3. The energy source in photosynthesis is
a. light energy.
c. heat energy.
b. chemical energy.
d. kinetic energy.
______ 4. A synthesis reaction is a reaction between at least two compounds
in which
a. one breaks down into at least two products.
b. a compound is decomposed by an electric current.
c. a compound burns in the presence of oxygen.
d. a new, more complex compound is formed.
______ 5. The product of the synthesis reaction between sodium and chlorine
gas is
a. polyethylene.
c. sodium chloride.
b. carbon dioxide.
d. copper (II) chloride.
______ 6. A chemical equation is balanced by changing or adding
a. chemical symbols.
c. coefficients.
b. subscripts.
d. reactants.
______ 7. In the reaction 2H2O : 2H2 O2, if you start with 2 mol of water,
how many moles of hydrogen gas are produced?
a. 1 mol
c. 3 mol
b. 2 mol
d. 4 mol
______ 8. In the reaction H2S 2O2 : H2SO4, the law of definite proportions
predicts that for every mole of H2S you will need how many moles
of O2?
a. 1 mol
c. 3 mol
b. 2 mol
d. 4 mol
30
Chemical Reactions
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. In a balanced chemical reaction, the total mass of the products always
equals the
a. molar mass of the reactants.
c. total mass of the reactants.
b. atomic mass of the reactants. d. proportional masses of the
reactants.
______10. Large, bulky molecules react more slowly than small ones because
they have less opportunity to
a. become heated.
c. collide with other molecules.
b. be mixed with catalysts.
d. increase their surface area.
______11. Which enzyme breaks down cellulose into smaller molecules?
a. amylase
c. protease
b. cellulase
d. lipase
______12. When a chemical reaction and its reverse are occurring at the same
time and at the same rate, the reaction has achieved
a. displacement.
c. imbalance.
b. equilibrium.
d. decomposition.
______13. Le Chteliers principle states that increasing temperature favors a
reaction that
a. releases energy as heat.
c. involves a chemical catalyst.
b. absorbs energy as heat.
d. involves an enzyme.
the statement.
14. A change of color is a sign that a ____________________ is taking place.

15. The changes that are visible during a chemical reaction are signs that the
____________________ in the reactants have been rearranged.

16. A chemical reaction that transfers energy from the reactants to the surroundings is referred to as ____________________.
17. In a(n)____________________ reaction, the reactants are broken down into
other substances.
18. A substance is said to be ____________________ when it gains electrons.
19. Balance the following chemical equation by filling in the correct coefficient
on the right-hand side. H2 Cl2 : ____________________ HCl
31
Chemical Reactions
Name
Class
Date

20. Suppose you were producing zinc chloride by the reaction
Zn 2HCl : ZnCl2 H2. If you started with 4 moles of zinc, you would need
____________________ moles of hydrogen chloride and you would produce

____________________ moles of zinc chloride.
21. In the chemical equation H2 Cl2 : 2HCl, the mole ratios are
____________________ .
22. If you ____________________ the temperature of a reaction, generally you
will ____________________ the rate of the reaction.

23. In a state of equilibrium, a reaction and its reverse occur at the same
____________________ and at the same ____________________.

24. When a reaction is at equilibrium, increasing the pressure favors the reaction
that produces ____________________.

25. Why is it incorrect to balance a chemical equation by changing the subscripts?

Explain.
32
Chemical Reactions
Name
Class
Assessment
Date
TEST B
Chapter Test
Chemical Reactions
______ 1. What happens in a chemical reaction?

a. Atoms are destroyed.
c. Atoms are heated and cooled.
b. Atoms are created.
d. Atoms are rearranged.
______ 2. Which statement about endothermic reactions is correct?
a. Energy is always created in the form of heat.
b. Energy is transferred from the surroundings to the reactants.
c. Energy is used to force electrons to move to higher energy levels.
d. Energy is transferred from the reactants to the surroundings.
______ 3. Most of the energy in an isooctane reaction is released in the form of
a. heat and light.
c. water.
b. electrical energy.
d. sound.
______ 4. Which of the following is an example of a decomposition reaction?
a. photosynthesis
c. respiration
b. digestion
d. exchange of ions between two
compounds
______ 5. When water is broken down by electrolysis, the products are
a. water and carbon dioxide.
c. hydrogen gas and oxygen gas.
b. hydrogen and oxygen ions.
d. oxygen and methane.
______ 6. A balanced chemical equation shows the proportions of reactants and
products necessary for
a. the reaction to occur.
c. energy use to be minimized.
b. mass to be conserved.
d. electrolysis to occur.
______ 7. In the reaction 2H2O2 : 2H2O O2, if you start with 4 mol of H2O2,
how many moles of O2 will you end up with?
a. 4 mol
c. 2 mol
b. 3 mol
d. 1 mol
______ 8. In the reaction 2Mg O2 : 2MgO, the law of definite proportions
states that for every 2 moles of Mg you will need how many moles
of O2?
a. 1 mol
c. 3 mol
b. 2 mol
d. 4 mol
33
Chemical Reactions
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. A balanced chemical equation indicates both the number of particles
of reactants and products and the number of
a. orbits.
c. nuclei.
b. electrons.
d. moles.
______10. What could you do to make yeast dough rise more slowly?
a. Add more yeast to the mixture.
b. Knead the dough more vigorously.
c. Add mold spores to the dough.
d. Reduce the temperature.
______11. An enzyme is a special kind of catalyst that works to
a. speed up a specific biochemical reaction.
b. slow down a chemical reaction.
c. break down chemical elements.
d. maintain the correct temperature for a reaction.
______12. What is the relationship between chemical equilibrium and the rates of
forward and reverse reaction?
a. In equilibrium, the forward reaction rate must be greater than the
reverse reaction rate.
b. In equilibrium, the forward reaction rate must be less than the
reverse reaction rate.
c. In equilibrium, the forward and reverse reaction rates must be
equal.
d. In equilibrium, both forward and reverse reactions must stop.
______13. Increasing the concentration of one substance in an equilibrium reaction favors the reaction that
a. absorbs energy as heat.
c. produces less of that substance.
b. releases energy as heat.
d. produces more of that
substance.
the statement.
14. A sign that a chemical reaction is taking place is release of energy in the form
of ____________________ or ____________________.
15. In a chemical reaction, atoms are ____________________, but they are not
created or destroyed.
16. A(n) ____________________ reaction is one in which heat is transferred from
the surroundings to the reactants.
17. In a combustion reaction, ____________________ is used to make reactants
burn.
34
Chemical Reactions
Name
Class
Date

18. A reaction that involves the transfer of ____________________ is called a(n)
____________________ reaction.
19. Balance the following chemical equation by filling in the correct coefficients.
____________________ KI Br2 : ____________________ KBr I2
20. In the chemical equation CH4 O2 : CO2 2H2O, for every one mole of
carbon dioxide you produced, you would have ____________________

mole/moles of water.
21. In the chemical equation FeS 2HCl : FeCl2 H2S, the mole ratios are
____________________.
22. If you ____________________ the surface area of a reactant, you will
probably ____________________ the rate of the reaction.

23. Equilibrium is achieved when the ____________________ and
____________________ reactions continue to take place at the same rate.

24. When a reaction is at equilibrium, increasing the temperature favors the
reaction that ____________________.
25. Why is the mole ratio an important concept for a scientist who frequently
measures and mixes chemicals in the lab? Explain.
35
Chemical Reactions
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Solutions
______ 1. Which of the following is an example of a heterogeneous mixture?

a. salt water
c. sugar solution
b. vinegar
d. mayonnaise
______ 2. A mixture that separates into different layers when you stop stirring it
is
a. a colloid.
c. a solution.
b. a suspension.
d. an emulsion.
______ 3. You can usually separate out a suspension by
a. pouring off the liquid.
c. distilling the entire suspension.
b. freezing the suspension.
d. using a filter.
______ 4. Loose sugar dissolves much faster than a sugar cube because loose
sugar
a. has greater surface area.
c. has a higher temperature.
b. has less kinetic energy.
d. has greater surface tension.
______ 5. You can make a solute dissolve more quickly in a solvent by
a. adding more solute.
c. heating the solvent.
b. adding ice.
d. removing some solvent.
______ 6. Water is referred to as the universal solvent because
a. it is found throughout the universe.
b. all known substances dissolve in water.
c. many different substances dissolve in water.
d. it covers more than half of Earths surface.
______ 7. An unsaturated solution is one that
a. can dissolve more solute at the current conditions.
b. will precipitate out all its dissolved solute.
c. can dissolve more solute only if heated.
d. can dissolve more solute only if the pressure is increased.
______ 8. Which states of matter can form solutions?
a. gas-liquid
c. solid-liquid
b. solid-solid
d. all of the above
______ 9. A bottle of soda fizzes when opened because the dissolved gas
a. is insoluble in the soda.
c. saturates the solution.
b. reacts with the air.
d. comes out of solution.
23
Solutions
Name
Class
Date

______10. A solution that holds more solute than it normally can is a(n)
a. dilute solution.
c. saturated solution.
b. unsaturated solution.
d. supersaturated solution
the statement.
11. Garden soil and potato salad are two examples of ____________________
mixtures.
12. A solution is an example of a(n) _____________________ mixture.
13. You can separate two ____________________ by pouring the less dense liquid
off the top.
14. As sugar dissolves in water, sugar molecules _____________________, or
spread throughout the entire solution.
15. Stirring a solution will make a solute _____________________ more quickly.
16. Water is a(n) _____________________ compound because its shared electrons
are not spread evenly throughout each water molecule.
17. To dissolve a substance, solvent molecules must exert_____________________
force on solute particles than the particles exert on_____________________.

18. Gases are _____________________ soluble in warm water than in cold water.
19. The maximum amount of a sustance that will dissolve in a given quantity of
solvent at a given temperature is the ____________________ of the substance.

20. Adding sugar to water _____________________ the boiling point of the water.
21. Hydrogen bonding occurs between _____________________ molecules.
22. Water will usually not dissolve_____________________ compounds.
Read each statement or question, and write your response in the space provided.
23. Calculate the molarity of the solution made from dissolving 36.0 g of silver
nitrate, AgNO3, in 325 mL of water.
24
Solutions
Name
Class
Date

24. How many moles of calcium chloride, CaCl2, must be dissolved in 1.30 L of
water to make a 0.25 M solution?
25. Describe the difference between a suspension and an emulsion.
25
Solutions
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
Solutions
______ 1. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?

a. salad dressing
c. rubbing alcohol
b. gelatin
d. orange juice with pulp
______ 2. Which statement about solutions is incorrect?
a. Liquids that mix to form a single layer are said to be miscible.
b. Solutions can be made of any combination of the three phases.
c. In a solution, the solvent is dissolved in the solute.
d. Solutions will not separate under normal circumstances.
______ 3. Distillation can be used to separate solutions of miscible liquids
because
a. different liquids usually have different boiling points.
b. boiling breaks the chemical bonds within each liquid.
c. denser liquids sink to the bottom.
d. solids remain after the liquids are boiled away.
______ 4. Sugar will dissolve more quickly in iced tea if you stir it because
stirring
a. absorbs kinetic energy.
c. increases solution solubility.
b. helps the solute to diffuse.
d. changes waters polarity.
______ 5. ____________ will not make it easier to dissolve a solute in a solvent.
a. Heating the solvent
c. Increasing solute surface area
b. Stirring the solution
d. Adding a large amount of solute
______ 6. Water can dissolve charged particles because
a. it is an ionic compound.
c. it is solid at 0C.
b. its atoms have partial charges. d. it has a low molecular weight.
______ 7. When a supersaturated solution cools down, the
a. solution starts to solidify.
c. solute floats above the solution.
b. solution dissolves more solute. d. solute may precipitate.
______ 8. Molarity is a measure of concentration based on moles of
a. solute per liter of solution.
c. solute per 100 g of solution.
b. solvent per liter of solution.
d. solvent per 100 g of solution.
26
Solutions
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. An example of a gas-liquid solution is
a. air.
c. a soft drink.
b. mothballs.
d. petroleum.
______10. A hydrogen bond is a partial covalent bond formed between two
a. water molecules.
c. hydrogen atoms.
b. oxygen atoms.
d. solute molecules.
the statement.
11. A type of suspension that does not settle out under normal conditions is a(n)
_____________________.
12. The particles in a colloid are _____________________ than those in a
suspension.
13. When a solid is dissolved in water, you can separate the two by
_____________________ or _____________________.
14. A solutes _____________________ can often be increased by heating.
15. A solute will dissolve more quickly if you increase its _____________________
by breaking it into small pieces.
16. Because so many substances can dissolve in water, it is often referred to as
the _____________________.
17. To dissolve an ionic substance, water molecules must exert a force on the
ions that is _____________________ than the force holding the ions in the
crystal.
18. Adding sugar to water _____________________ the freezing point of the water.
19. Gases are _____________________ soluble under high pressure than low
pressure conditions.
20. Polar compounds are more soluble in water than _____________________
compounds.
21. The scattering of light in a colloid is called the _____________________.
22. A homogeneous mixture can also be called a(n) _____________________.
27
Solutions
Name
Class
Date

Read each statement or question, and write your response in the space provided.
23. Calculate the molarity of the solution made from dissolving 48.0 g of potassium iodide, KI, in 775 mL of water.
24. How many moles of hydrochloric acid, HCl, must be dissolved in 2.50 L of
water to make a 0.19 M solution?
25. Explain why it would be difficult to separate two miscible liquids that have
similar boiling points.
28
Solutions
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Acids, Bases, and Salts
______ 1. Which statement about bases is incorrect?

a. turn red litmus paper blue
c. taste bitter
b. contain hydronium ions
d. feel slippery
______ 2. The pH of a substance is a measure of its
a. boiling point.
c. ability to mix with water.
b. food value.
d. hydronium ion concentration.
______ 3. When a solution of an acid reacts with a solution of a base, hydronium
ions react with hydroxide ions to form
a. salt.
c. a weaker base.
b. a stronger acid.
d. water.
______ 4. Which of the following is a basic solution?
a. household ammonia
c. vinegar
b. HCl dissolved in water
d. pure water
______ 5. A disinfectant is a substance that
a. forms a base.
b. mixes safely with vinegar.
c. kills bacteria and viruses.

d. forms an acid.
______ 6. Putting lemon juice on a piece of cut apple will

a. make the fruit softer and easier to chew.
b. prevent the fruit from turning brown.
c. make the fruit taste sweeter.
d. neutralize the acid in the fruit.
______ 7. What is the pH of a 0.01 M solution of the strong acid HNO3 in water?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
______ 8. The salt sodium sulfate, Na2SO4 , can be formed by a reaction between
a. NaOH and HCl.
c. NaOH and H2SO4.
b. NaCl and H2O.
d. NaCl and NH3.
______ 9. Which is not a use for household bleach?
a. to kill bacteria
c. to neutralize stomach acid
b. to whiten clothes
d. to kill viruses
______10. Which is a basic compound?
a. antacid
b. drain cleaner
c. bleach
d. all of the above
27
Name
Class
Date

the statement.
11. A(n) ____________________ is a substance that either contains hydroxide

ions (OH ) or reacts with water to form hydroxide ions.
12. Apple juice has a pH of 3, and stomach acid has a pH of 2. This means that
stomach acid is ____________________ times more acidic than apple juice.

13. Acids turn ____________________ litmus paper ____________________.
14. Salts are ____________________ formed when acids and bases react.
15. A compound that contains hydroxide ions is a(n) ____________________.
16. A strong acid ionizes ____________________ in water.
17. An antacid ____________________ excess stomach acid.
18. Marinades containing acids can be used to ____________________ meat.
19. A ____________________ reaction occurs between an acid and a base.
20. Soaps and detergents are such good cleaners because they can dissolve in
both ____________________ and ____________________.

21. The ____________________ in a titration of a strong acid with a strong base is
reached when the original amount of acid equals the amount of added base.
22. An ____________________ conducts electricity when dissolved in water.
23. The negative ion of a soap is a hydrocarbon chain with a(n)
____________________ at one end.

Read each question or statement, and write your response in the space provided.
24. Write the ionic equation for the neutralization reaction between hyrochloric
acid, HCl, and potassium hydroxide, KOH. Include all spectator ions.
25. Explain why strong acids and bases are also strong electrolytes, while weak
acids and bases are not.
28
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
______ 1. Acids are substances that

a. form hydronium ions when dissolved in water.
b. turn red litmus paper blue.
c. make foods taste bitter.
d. react with neutral liquids to form bases.
______ 2. A substance with a pH of 13 is
a. neutral.
b. strongly acidic.
c. mildly basic.
d. strongly basic.
______ 3. The pH of an acid and base mixed together in solution depends on the
a. amounts of acid and base used. c. temperature of the solution.
b. concentration of base alone.
d. concentration of acid alone.
______ 4. Marinades for meat commonly include acids such as vinegar or wine,
because the acids can
a. toughen meat.
c. preserve meat.
b. tenderize meat.
d. react with salt.
______ 5. Soap can remove grease and oil from your skin because it acts as
a. an emulsifier to surround oil.
c. a solvent to dissolve the dirt.
b. an acid to neutralize dirt.
d. a salt to make water harder.
______ 6. Which of the following substances is a base?
a. lactose
c. vitamin C
b. lemon juice
d. bleach
______ 7. What is the pH of a 0.1 M solution of the strong acid HNO3 in water?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
______ 8. The salt potassium chloride, KCl, can be formed by a reaction between
a. KOH and H2O.
c. KOH and HCl.
b. KI and HCl.
d. KI and NH3 .
______ 9. Which solution is the most acidic?
a. a solution with a pH 10
c. a solution with a pH 3
b. a solution with a pH 6
d. a solution with a pH 1
______10. Which is the strongest electrolyte?
a. a weak base
c. a neutral solution
b. a strong acid
d. a weak acid
29
Name
Class
Date

the statement.
11. A(n) acid is a substance that donates hydrogen ions (H) to form
_______________ ions when dissolved in water.

12. Baking soda has a pH of 9, and household ammonia has a pH of 12. This
means that ammonia is _____________________ times more basic than baking

soda.
13. In a neutralization reaction, hydronium ions react with hydroxide ions to
produce ____________________.
14. Salts are ionic compounds that are often soluble in ____________________.
15. ____________________ are used to neutralize stomach acid.
16. A weak base _________________________ in water, while a strong base
_________________________ in water.
17. The pH of a solution tells you its concentration of ____________________.
18. Ions that do not change during a chemical reaction are called
____________________.
19. During the titration of a strong acid with a strong base, the pH of the solution
at the equivalence point is ____________________.

20. Detergents are used instead of soap because they prevent the formation of
____________________.
21. The ____________________ of a soap molecule dissolves in oil.
22. A disinfectant is a substance that kills ____________________.
23. ____________________ change color depending on the pH of a solution.
Read each statement, and write your response in the space provided.
24. Write the ionic equation for the neutralization reaction between nitric acid,
HNO3 , and sodium hydroxide, NaOH. Include all spectator ions.
25. Explain why all neutralization reactions do not produce neutral solutions.
30
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Nuclear Changes
______ 1. Radioactive materials have unstable

a. electrons.
c. protons.
b. nuclei.
d. neutrons.
______ 2. The process of nuclear change in an atom of radioactive material is
called
a. nuclear decay.
c. nuclear mass.
b. isotopes.
d. radon.
______ 3. In alpha decay, the mass number of the atom before the decay
a. equals the sum of the mass numbers of the products.
b. does not change after the decay.
c. is the same as the atomic number.
d. cannot be determined.
______ 4. In this example, what are the chemical symbols of the products of the
decay?
226
88Ra
4
9: 222
86Rn 2He
a. Ra and Rn
b. Ra and He
c. Rn and He
d. He only
______ 5. When a nucleus undergoes nuclear decay by gamma rays, the atomic
number of the element
a. remains the same.
c. increases by one.
b. decreases by one.
d. increases by two.
______ 6. The attractive force between protons and neutrons in a nucleus caused
by the strong nuclear force acts only
a. outside the nucleus.
c. in unstable isotopes.
b. over a very short distance.
d. intermittently.
______ 7. Nuclei with too many or too few neutrons are
a. never found.
c. unnatural.
b. unstable.
d. stable.
______ 8. Fusion occurs when nuclei
a. split.
b. combine.
c. mutate.
d. gain energy.
24
Nuclear Changes
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. A fission chain reaction can be slowed by using materials that will
a. absorb some of the neutrons.
b. convert some of the neutrons to protons.
c. increase the rate of the neutron multiplication.
d. decrease the amount of available oxygen in the air.
______10. Background radiation can come from
a. the sun.
c. water.
b. plants.
d. All of the above
______11. Short-lived isotopes like magnesium-28 that are used in fields such as
geology, agriculture, and medicine are called
a. trace elements.
c. radioactive tracers.
b. carbon tracers.
d. alpha-emitting isotopes.
______12. The ideal location for a radioactive-waste storage facility is one that is
a. in a sparsely populated area.
c. far away from ground water.
b. in an area free from
d. All of the above
earthquakes.
______13. When a fusion reactor for safely generating energy is developed, the
element that could meet Earths energy demands for millions of years is
a. oxygen.
c. hydrogen.
b. nitrogen.
d. lithium.
Read each statement, and write in the blank the word or words that best completes the statement.
226
88Ra
9:
222
4
86 Rn 2He
14. In this example, the helium is also known as ____________________.

15. A(n) ____________________ particle is emitted when carbon-14 decays into
nitrogen-14.
16. The time required for half a sample of radioactive nuclei to decay is called
a(n) ____________________.
17. Nuclei with more than 83 protons are always unstable, no matter how many
____________________ they have.

18. The interaction that binds protons and neutrons together in a nucleus is
____________________.
25
Nuclear Changes
Name
Class
Date

19. The process by which a nucleus splits into two or more smaller fragments,
releasing neutrons and energy, is called ____________________.

20. The ____________________ is one example of a place where naturally occurring extreme temperatures provide the energy needed to bring hydrogen
nuclei together in a fusion reaction.
21. In the equation, E = mc2, the m stands for ____________________.
22. Ionization occurs when atoms lose or gain ____________________.
23. The main problem with disposing of radioactive wastes is that the wastes
have a long ____________________.

24. In nuclear-fission reactors operating today, ____________________ is the most
common fuel.
25. A beta particle is negatively charged, but it comes from a positively charged
nucleus. How is this possible?
26
Nuclear Changes
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
Nuclear Changes
______ 1. Which of the following is not a type of nuclear radiation?

a. alpha particles
c. neutron emission
b. beta particles
d. X rays
______ 2. Nuclear radiation refers to charged particles or energy emitted by an
unstable
a. proton.
c. nucleus.
b. atom.
d. isotope.
______ 3. Alpha particles are nuclei of
a. oxygen.
b. nitrogen.
226
88Ra
c. helium.
d. radium.
4
9: 222
86Rn 2He
______ 4. In this example of alpha decay, what is the mass number of radium
before the decay?
a. 226
c. 222
b. 88
d. 226 88 (314)
______ 5. During beta decay, a nucleus
a. gives up two protons and two neutrons.
b. maintains the same number of protons and neutrons.
c. loses a proton and gains a neutron.
d. gains a proton and loses a neutron.
______ 6. In radioactive decay, with each successive half-life, half the remaining
sample decays to form another
a. nucleus.
c. life-form.
b. element.
d. proton.
______ 7. The process of the production of lighter nuclei from heavier nuclei is
called
a. mass energy.
c. magneticism.
b. fusion.
d. fission.
______ 8. The opposite reaction to fusion is called
a. beta decay.
c. fission.
b. alpha decay.
d. neutron transmission.
27
Nuclear Changes
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. You prepare a large screened-in box, inside which you place several
dozen mouse traps. You set each trap, and on each mouse trap you
place a ping pong ball. You then drop another ping pong ball into the
box, which sets off one of the mouse traps, which sets off other mouse
traps, and so on. You have just demonstrated
a. a chain reaction.
c. fusion.
b. the theory of relativity.
d. alpha decay.
______10. Nuclear radiation can help detect diseases with the use of
a. X rays.
c. MRI.
b. radioactive tracers.
d. All of the above
______11. The particles that are released by the radioactive sources in smoke
alarms carry a charge and produce a(n)
a. odor.
c. electric current.
b. beam of light.
d. sound.
______12. Radioactive tracers are short-lived
a. drugs.
b. isotopes.
c. tumors.
d. rays.
______13. The use of nuclear reactors to generate electricity is

a. decreasing rapidly.
c. found in dozens of countries.
b. found only in the United States.
d. totally safe.
14. ____________________ are massive, positively charged particles emitted by

some radioactive elements.
15. If the atomic number of an atom before alpha decay is 88, and one of its
products has an atomic number of 86, the atomic number of the second
product is ____________________.
16. After three half-lives, the fraction of the original radioactive element that
remains is ____________________.
17. The force that binds protons and neutrons together in a nucleus is called
____________________.
18. The protons in a nucleus both repel and attract each other. In stable nuclei,
the ____________________ are stronger.

19. The equivalence of mass and energy means that matter can be converted into
energy and energy into matter. The equation that expresses this equivalence is
____________________.
28
Nuclear Changes
Name
Class
Date

20. ____________________ is the name for the process in which light nuclei
combine at extremely high temperatures, forming heavier nuclei and releasing
energy.
21. In the equation, E = mc2, the E stands for ____________________.
22. ____________________ is nuclear radiation that is emitted from natural
sources all around us.
23. The known reserves of coal and oil combined have ____________________
energy than the known uranium reserves.
24. ____________________ is the most likely fuel for nuclear-fusion reactors.
25. Why can a small amount of mass (of matter) create a large amount of energy?
29
Nuclear Changes
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Motion
______ 1. The distance traveled by an object divided by the time it takes to travel
that distance is called
a. average velocity.
c. average acceleration.
b. average speed.
d. activity.
______ 2. What is the speed of an object at rest?
a. 15 km/h
b. 0 km/h
c. 1 km/h
d. This cannot be determined without further information.
______ 3. The difference between speed and velocity is that velocity includes
a. direction.
c. time.
b. distance.
d. weight.
______ 4. An example of helpful friction is
a. car tires wearing out.
b. getting holes in your socks.
c. writing on paper with a pen.

d. scraping your knee on the floor.
______ 5. Friction is defined as the

a. force that opposes motion between two surfaces that are touching.
b. rate at which velocity changes.
c. resistance of an object to a change in its velocity.
d. speed of an object in a particular direction.
______ 6. An object is in motion when
a. you observe the object move.
b. the objects speed increases.
c. the objects displacement is greater than the distance traveled.
d. the object changes position relative to a stationary reference point.
______ 7. Force is a quantity made up of
a. weight and speed.
b. magnitude and direction.
c. time and acceleration.

d. mass and velocity.
______ 8. Which is an example of balanced forces acting on an object?

a. a kangaroo jumping
c. a cyclist slowing down
b. a car turning a corner
d. a leaf lying on the grass
______ 9. Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity divided by
a. speed.
c. time.
b. final velocity.
d. distance.
31
Motion
Name
Class
Date

______10. Which is an example of kinetic friction?
a. friction between a cars windshield and the air as you drive into the
wind
b. friction between your shoes and the ground when you stand still
c. friction between a sticky note and the page of a book as it marks
your place
d. friction between your skin and a pencil as it rests in your palm
the statement.
11. Because the speed of an object can change from one instant to the next,
dividing the total distance covered by the time of travel gives
______________________________.
12. Velocity describes both speed and _____________________.
13. Acceleration can be determined from a velocity-time graph by calculating the
______________________________.
14. One way to reduce friction in a car engine is to add a(n)
____________________.
15. The change in the position of an object is called _____________________.
16. On a distance-time graph, distance is usually the _____________________
variable.
17. A negative acceleration means the object is
______________________________.
18. The combination of all forces acting on an object is the
______________________________.
19. When the net force on an object is greater than zero, the object will accelerate
in the direction of the _____________________ force.

20. Static friction is usually greater than ______________________________.
Read each question, and write your response in the space provided.
21. How long does it take for a fly traveling at 9.1 m/s to fly 100.0 m?
32
Motion
Name
Class
Date

22. Find the velocity, in km/h, of a dolphin that is observed swimming 55 m in
5.0 s.
23. During a race, a sprinter increases from 5.0 m/s to 7.5 m/s over a period of
1.25 s. What is the sprinters average acceleration during this period?
24. A coin falls from rest from the balcony of a building. If it takes 2.7 s for it to
hit the ground, what is the final velocity of the coin?
25. A race car travels around a circular track. Explain why the car is accelerating
even though the driver maintains a constant speed.
33
Motion
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
Motion
______ 1. In order to determine speed, you must know

a. time.
c. Both (a) and (b)
b. distance.
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
______ 2. An airplane is flying at 635 miles per hour at an altitude of 35,000 feet.
It is currently over Kansas and is approximately 16 minutes ahead of
its scheduled arrival time. What is its velocity?
a. 635 mi/h
b. 16 mi/min
c. 35 000 ft/s
d. This cannot be determined without further information about its
direction.
______ 3. Which of the following does not indicate velocity?
a. 14 ft/s SSE
b. 40 mi/h toward the town square along the main street
c. 80 km/h going from New York toward New Jersey
d. 28 miles from Los Angeles to Catalina Island
______ 4. The SI unit for acceleration is
a. mi/h.
b. ft/s2.
c. m/s2.
d. v/t.
______ 5. If the net force acting on a stationary object is zero, then the object will
a. accelerate in the direction of the strongest force.
b. remain at rest.
c. begin moving backwards.
d. decelerate at a steady rate of speed.
______ 6. Displacement
a. must be in a particular direction.
b. is the change in postition of an object.
c. must be a straight line.
d. All of the above
______ 7. For an object moving at a constant speed, the distance-time graph
a. is quite steep.
c. has a negative slope.
b. has a positive slope.
d. is a straight line.
______ 8. An example of constant acceleration is
a. uniform circular motion.
c. average speed.
b. balanced forces.
d. static friction.
34
Motion
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. The friction between the bristles of your toothbrush and the surfaces
of your teeth is an example of
a. rolling friction.
c. helpful friction.
b. static friction.
d. All of the above
______10. Which straight-line acceleration indicates an increase in speed?
a. 0 m/s2
c. 4 m/s2
b. 15 m/s2
d. all of the above
the statement.
11. When an object covers equal distances in equal amounts of time, it is moving
at a(n) _____________________ speed.

12. Acceleration is the rate at which _____________________ changes.
13. In order to determine if an object is moving, you must observe the object in
relation to a(n) ______________________________.

14. Speed measured in an infinitely small time interval is_____________________.
15. The acceleration that occurs during uniform circular motion is
_____________________.
16. A(n) _____________________ line on a velocity-time graph means that the
velocity changes by the same amount over each time interval.
17. The friction between a book at rest and the desk it is lying on is an example
of _____________________ friction.
18. Cyclists wear_____________________ to reduce fluid friction.
19. An action exerted on a body to change its state of rest or motion is a(n)
_____________________.
20. In the acceleration equation, the change in an objects velocity is symbolized
by _____________________.
35
Motion
Name
Class
Date

21. A boat is traveling north at 13.4 m/s.The captain walks north on the deck at
1.3 m/s. What is her resultant velocity?
22. How far can a caterpillar, traveling at 0.05 m/s, move in 3 minutes?
23. A powerboat accelerates along a straight path from 0 km/h to 99.8 km/h in
10.0 s. Find the average acceleration of the boat in m/s2.
24. A tennis player serves a ball that accelerates at an average rate of 21.2 m/s2.
How long does it take for the ball to speed up from 10.5 m/s to 20.5 m/s?
25. In your own words, explain the similarities and differences between velocity
and acceleration.
36
Motion
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Forces
______ 1. If you divide momentum by velocity, the result is the value of the
objects
a. mass.
c. energy.
b. direction.
d. speed.
______ 2. A 10.0 kg dog chasing a rabbit north at 6.0 m/s has a momentum of
a. 0.6 kg m/s.
c. 60.0 m/s.
b. 60.0 kg m/s north.
d. 60.0 kg/s.

______ 3. When the velocity of an object changes, it is acted upon by a(n)

a. force.
c. momentum.
b. inertia.
d. deceleration.
______ 4. If the net force on an object is zero then the object has
a. reaction forces.
c. balanced forces.
b. action forces.
d. unbalanced forces.
______ 5. When objects are moved further apart from each other, the force of
gravity between them
a. increases.
c. decreases.
b. stays the same.
d. decreases at first then increases.
______ 6. The SI unit of force, named for the scientist who described the relationship between motion and force, is called the
a. newton.
c. curie.
b. einstein.
d. pasteur.
______ 7. When air resistance balances the weight of an object that is falling, the
velocity
a. slowly decreases.
c. rapidly increases.
b. remains constant.
d. None of the above
______ 8. The weight of an object can be calculated by multiplying mass by
a. distance.
c. velocity.
b. speed.
d. free-fall acceleration.
______ 9. Which object does not have momentum?
a. a fish swimming in a pond
c. a rock by the side of the road
b. a feather falling to the ground d. a boulder rolling down a hill
32
Forces
Name
Class
Date

______10. What is the reaction force when you place a cup on a table?
a. The force of the cup on the table.
b. The force of the table on the cup.
c. The force of gravity on the table.
d. The force of gravity on the cup.
the statement.
11. The free fall acceleration of an object under Earths gravity is directed
_____________________________________________________________________.
12. Terminal velocity is defined as _________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________.
13. When you kick a stone, your foot exerts a force on the stone and the stone
exerts a force _____________________ in size and _____________________ in

direction on your foot.
14. Orbital motion is a combination of _____________________ motion and free
fall.
15. An important safety feature in your car that is based on the concept of inertia
is the _____________________.
16. The gravitational force on an object _____________________ as the objects
mass increases.
17. The path of a pitched ball is an example of____________________ motion.
18. An object changes its motion only if a force acts on it to change its speed or
direction. This is a statement of Newtons _____________________.

19. Action and reaction forces always occur at _____________________ time.
20. Rearrange the equation for Newtons second law of motion to define acceleration in terms of force and mass.
33
Forces
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
Forces
______ 1. Which of the following is not a factor in calculating momentum?

a. mass
c. acceleration
b. direction
d. speed
______ 2. Whenever an object is standing still, which value is always zero?
a. speed
c. momentum
b. velocity
d. all of the above
______ 3. A tug-of-war that results in one team pulling the other across the line
is an example of
a. action forces.
c. balanced forces.
b. reaction forces.
d. unbalanced forces.
______ 4. A force is continuously applied to an object, causing it to accelerate.
After a period of time, however, the object stops accelerating. What
conclusions can be drawn?
a. The mass of the object has increased.
b. Gravity on the object has increased.
c. The object is experiencing some kind of friction.
d. The momentum of the object has reached a maximum.
______ 5. Weight is best described as
a. an objects resistance to acceleration.
b. what causes an object to fall.
c. the downward force exerted on an object due to gravity.
d. a force solely dependent on an objects mass.
______ 6. Which of the following units is used to measure acceleration?
a. m/s
b. m s
c. m/s2
d. m2/s2
______ 7. Which of the following is true?

a. Weight and mass are proportional but not equal.
b. Weight is gravitational force an object experiences due to its mass.
c. The weight of an object on Earth is greater than the weight of the
same object on the moon, but the objects mass stays the same.
d. all of the above
______ 8. The tendency of an object at rest to remain at rest is
a. inertia.
c. free fall.
b. momentum.
d. acceleration.
34
Forces
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. The strongest gravitational force occurs between Earth and
a. Jupiter.
b. Venus.
c. Pluto.
d. the moon.
______10. Near Earths surface, an objects free-fall acceleration increases as its
a. mass increases.
c. speed increases.
b. weight increases.
the statement.
11. According to Newtons second law of motion, force is the product of
_____________________ and _____________________.

12. Free fall is the motion of an object resulting from _____________________.
13. The value for the acceleration of objects in free fall near Earth is
_____________________.
14. When gravitational forces and air resistance equalize on an object that is
falling toward Earth and the object stops accelerating, its velocity is called
the _____________________ velocity.

15. An object at rest remains at rest unless it experiences a(n)
____________________.
16. If the car you are riding in comes to a sudden stop, _____________________
helps stop your forward motion.
17. When a satellite orbits Earth it experiences two motions,
_____________________ motion and _____________________ toward Earth.

18. All _____________________ objects have momentum.
19. As the time period of an objects momentum change becomes longer, the
force needed to cause this change becomes _____________________.

20. A force of 6.2 105 N is needed to blast off a 5.0 103 kg rocket from rest.
What is the rockets average acceleration?
35
Forces
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Work and Energy
______ 1. A boy pushes on a parked car with a force of 200 N. The car does not
move. How much work does the boy do on the car?
a. 200 N
c. zero
b. 200 J
d. none of the above
______ 2. What are the units of work?
a. J
b. N m
c. kg m2/s2
d. all of the above
______ 3. A weightlifter presses a 400 N weight 0.5 m over his head in 2 seconds.
What is the power of the weightlifter?
a. 100 N
c. 400 watts
b. 25 watts
d. 100 watts
______ 4. A machine is a device that
a. requires less work to do a given task.
b. decreases the amount of work done by a given force.
c. increases energy.
d. can multiply and change the direction of an input force.
______ 5. What is the mechanical advantage of a single fixed pulley?
a. 1
c. 2
b. 1.5
d. 3
______ 6. An inclined plane
a. changes the direction of the force only.
b. changes the magnitude of the force only.
c. changes both the magnitude and the direction of the force.
d. decreases the amount of work done.
______ 7. Which of the following is a compound machine?
a. a wheel and axle
c. a pulley
b. a pair of pliers
d. a ramp
______ 8. What is the gravitational potential energy of a 54 kg box that is 8.0 m
above the ground?
a. 5500 J
c. 3400 J
b. 4300 J
d. 550 J
43
Work and Energy
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. Which of the following is an example of mechanical energy?
a. nuclear energy
c. chemical energy
b. potential energy
d. light energy
______10. The primary source of the suns energy is
a. chemical energy.
c. nuclear fission.
b. nuclear fusion.
d. potential energy.
______11. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. The energy of a closed system is constant.
b. The energy of an open system can increase.
c. If the kinetic energy of an object decreases, the nonmechanical
energy will decrease.
d. Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
______12. The efficiency of a ramp is 75%. If the amount of work input is 240 J,
what is the amount of useful work output?
a. 320 J
c. 240 J
b. 310 J
d. 180 J
______13. An object weighing 75 N is dropped from the top of a building and falls
a distance of 28 m to the ground. How much work does gravity do on
the object from the time it is dropped to the time it hits the ground?
a. zero
c. 2100 J
b. 75 J
d. 4625 J
the statement.
14. A quantity that measures the rate at which work is done is called
____________________.
15. Power is calculated by dividing work by ____________________.
16. Horsepower is the common unit of power in rating engines. However, the
official SI unit of power is the ____________________.

17. A __________________________ is defined as a machine made up of more
than one simple machine.
18. The formula for calculating kinetic energy can be written as
__________________________.
19. The stored energy resulting from the relative positions of objects in a system
is called ____________________.
44
Work and Energy
Name
Class
Date

20. The sum of the kinetic and potential energy of large-scale objects in a system
is called __________________________.
21. The source of the energy when dynamite explodes is ____________________
energy.
22. The source of the suns energy is ____________________.
23. A(n) ____________________ system exchanges energy with the outside.
24. The ratio of useful work output to work input is a measure of
____________________.
25. Where does energy go when it seems to disappear?
45
Work and Energy
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
Work and Energy
______ 1. Which of the following processes requires the most work?

a. A 10 kg weight rests on a table.
b. A person holds a 1 kg weight still with outstretched arms.
c. A person lifts a 1 kg weight 1 m off the floor.
d. A 10 kg ball is rolled across the floor at a constant speed for a distance of 10 m.
______ 2. A man pushes a crate along a factory floor by exerting a force of 55 N.
If the crate moves a distance of 4.0 m, how much work does the man
perform?
a. 165 N
c. zero
b. 220 N
d. 145 J
______ 3. What are the units of power?
a. watts
b. horsepower
c. joules per second

d. all of the above
______ 4. Which of the following is not a simple machine?

a. a lever
c. a screw
b. a pair of scissors
d. a wheel and axle
______ 5. Which of the following is an example of a wheel and axle?
a. a block and tackle
c. a screwdriver
b. a pulley
d. a nutcracker
______ 6. Which of the following is not in the inclined plane family?
a. a wedge
c. a ramp
b. a screw
d. a wheel and axle
______ 7. Which of the following statements about work and energy is not true?
a. When work is done, energy is transferred or transformed.
b. Energy may be defined as the ability to do work.
c. Work and energy are always equal.
d. Work and energy have the same units.
______ 8. Gravitational potential energy depends on the
a. the mass of the object.
c. the acceleration due to gravity.
b. the height of the object.
d. All of the above
46
Work and Energy
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. A medicine ball has a mass of 5 kg and is thrown with a speed of
2 m/s. What is its kinetic energy?
a. 100 J
b. 2000 J
c. 10 J
d. 500 J
______10. The kind of energy associated with atomic bonds is
a. nuclear energy.
c. chemical energy.
b. light energy.
d. kinetic energy.
______11. A pendulum is swinging back and forth and has a kinetic energy of
400 J at a particular point in its path. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Both the kinetic and potential energy are decreasing.
b. The minimum kinetic energy is zero.
c. When the kinetic energy is zero, the potential energy will be 400 J
greater.
d. The potential energy increases when the kinetic energy decreases.
______12. The brakes on a car exert a frictional force of 6000 N in getting the car
to stop. If the work done by the brakes is 120 000 J in coming to a
stop, how many meters did the car travel after the driver applied the
brakes?
a. 6 m
c. 12 m
b. 20 m
d. 40 m
______13. An object has a kinetic energy of 810 J after falling a certain distance.
If the mass of the object is 20 kg, what is the speed of the object at this
time?
a. 10 m/s
c. 8 m/s
b. 9 m/s
d. 7 m/s
the statement.
14. A quantity that measures the effects of a force acting over a distance is called
____________________.
15. A quantity that measures how much a machine multiplies force or distance is
called ___________________.
16. All levers have a rigid arm that turns around a point called the
____________________.
17. A(n) ____________________ is an inclined plane wrapped around a cylinder.
18. The ability to do work is a definition of ____________________.
47
Work and Energy
Name
Class
Date

19. The energy of a moving object due to its motion is called
____________________.
20. Energy that lies at the level of atoms and does not affect motion on a large
scale is sometimes called ____________________ energy.

21. When a system exchanges energy with the environment outside the system, it
is called a(n) ____________________ system.

22. Energy is transferred as ____________________ when mechanical energy
decreases and temperature increases.
23. The process that transforms light energy into chemical energy in plants is
called ____________________.
24. Three children exhaust themselves trying to push a large rock that doesnt
budge. Have they done any work? Why?
25. How does a pendulum show the relationship between gravitational potential
energy and kinetic energy?
48
Work and Energy
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
______ 1. What is 37.0 degrees Celsius on the Fahrenheit scale?

a. 98.6F
c. 92.0F
b. 87.0F
d. 102.0F
______ 2. As the kinetic energy of the molecules in a substance increases, the
a. temperature of the substance increases.
b. temperature of the substance decreases.
c. potential energy of the substance changes.
d. temperature remains the same.
______ 3. The transfer of energy as heat caused by the collision of molecules is
called
a. convection.
c. contact.
b. conduction.
d. radiation.
______ 4. In an air conditioner, a substance that easily evaporates and condenses
is used to transfer energy from a room to the air outside. When the
substance evaporates,
a. it absorbs energy as heat from the surrounding air.
b. it transfers energy as heat to the surrounding air.
c. energy is transferred by conduction.
d. energy is transferred by convection.
______ 5. The temperature of a substance increases by 3 K when 1635 J is added
to a 2 kg quantity of the substance. What is the specific heat of the
substance?
a. 242 J/kg K
c. 300 J/kg K
b. 272 J/kg K
d. 817 J/kg K

SPECIFIC HEATS AT 25C

Substance
c (J/kg K)
Substance
c (J/kg K)
Water (liquid)
4186
Copper
385
Steam
1870
Gold
129
Ammonia (gas)
2060
Iron
449
Ethanol (liquid)
2440
Mercury
140
Aluminum
897
Lead
129
Carbon (graphite)
709
Silver
234
27
Heat and Temperature
Name
Class
Date

______ 6. Using the table, determine which substance can absorb the most
energy in a temperature increase of 1 K.
a. liquid water
c. gold
b. aluminum
d. lead
______ 7. The temperature of 1.5 kg of ethanol is 37C. What will the final temperature be if 80 000 J of energy as heat is added to the ethanol?
a. 22C
c. 59C
b. 51C
d. 67C
______ 8. Energy from the sun reaches Earth by
a. conduction and radiation.
c. conduction and convection.
b. radiation only.
d. conduction only.
______ 9. Convection currents rise in air because
a. hot air rises and cold air remains stagnant.
b. cool air descends and hot air rises.
c. the molecules in hot air move faster.
d. hot air has less friction.
Label each true statement with a T and each false statement with an F. If a statement is false, replace the underlined term to make the statment true. Write your
response in the space provided.
______10. A degree on the Fahrenheit scale is a bigger unit than a degree on the
Celsius scale. ____________________
______11. Energy is transferred as heat from a substance at high temperature to
a substance at low temperature. ____________________
______12. A hot object emits less radiation than a cool object.
____________________
______13. An active solar heating system needs sunlight and electricity as
sources of energy. ____________________
______14. When a refrigerant evaporates it adds energy as heat to its
surroundings. ____________________
the statement.
15. A(n) __________________________ is a device for measuring temperature.

28
42
Name
Class
Date

16. The energy transferred between the particles of two objects because of the
temperature difference between the two objects is called
____________________.
17. The transfer of energy by the movement of fluids with different temperatures
is called ____________________.
18. The transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves is called
____________________.
19. A(n) ____________________ is a material through which energy can be easily
transferred as heat.
20. Why do substances expand when energy is added to them as heat?
29
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
______ 1. What is 175C on the Kelvin scale?

a. 76 K
c. 98 K
b. 89 K
d. 448 K
______ 2. Temperature is
a. associated with the sensation of hot and cold.
b. proportional to the average kinetic energy of molecules.
c. measured with thermometers.
d. All of the above
______ 3. The transfer of energy by the movement of fluids or gases with different temperatures is called
a. convection.
c. contact.
b. conduction.
d. radiation.
______ 4. Which method of energy transfer does not involve movement of matter?
a. convection
c. radiation
b. conduction
______ 5. Which of the following substances is the best conductor of transferring
energy as heat?
a. carbon dioxide gas
c. iron
b. water
d. rubber
SPECIFIC HEATS AT 25C
Substance
c (J/kg K)
Substance
c (J/kg K)
Water (liquid)
4186
Copper
385
Steam
1870
Gold
129
Ammonia (gas)
2060
Iron
449
Ethanol (liquid)
2440
Mercury
140
Aluminum
897
Lead
129
Carbon (graphite)
709
Silver
234
______ 6. Which substance has a specific heat approximately 10 times greater

than the specific heat of silver?
a. water
c. carbon
b. ethanol
d. mercury
30
Name
Class
Date

______ 7. 10.0 kg of a substance underwent a 3.0 K change in temperature when
11 500 J of energy as heat was added to the substance. What is the
substance?
a. gold
c. copper
b. water
d. aluminum
______ 8. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Energy as heat is transferred from a lower temperature to a higher
temperature.
b. Energy as heat is transferred from a higher temperature to a lower
temperature.
c. The amount of heat in a closed system is a constant.
d. Energy as heat transferred into an object is determined by the
amount of work done on the object.
______ 9. How much heat energy will cause the temperature of 7.0 kg of carbon
to increase its temperature by 15 K? The specific heat of iron is
449 J/kg K.
a. 6.8 104 J
c. 7.0 104 J
b. 4.7 104 J
d. 3.0 104 J
Label each true statement with a T and each false statement with an F. If a statement is false, replace the underlined term to make the statment true. Write your
______10. On the Fahrenheit scale water freezes at 32F. ____________________

______11. Radiation is the only method of energy transfer that can take place in a
vacuum. ____________________
______12. An example of an internal combustion engine is a diesel engine.
____________________
______13. Some of the energy generated as heat by a heating system is wasted.
____________________
______14. When a refrigerant condenses, it gives up energy as heat to its
surroundings. ____________________
15. ____________________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy of all the

particles within an object.
31
Name
Class
Date

16. __________________________ is the temperature at which an objects energy
is minimal.
17. __________________________ transfers heat energy between particles as they
collide within a substance or between two objects in contact.
18. Radio waves, infrared radiation, visible light, ultraviolet rays, and X rays are
forms of __________________________ .
19. A(n) __________________________ is a material that is a poor energy conductor.
20. How can work increase the temperature of a substance?
32
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Waves
______ 1. Water waves

a. transport energy and water.
c. transport water but not energy.
b. transport energy but not water. d. are not mechanical waves.
______ 2. The medium seismic waves travel through is
a. a vacuum.
c. air.
b. rocks and other materials
d. energy.
inside Earth.
______ 3. Sound waves are
a. transverse waves.
b. longitudinal waves.
c. circular waves.
d. polarized waves.
______ 4. The amplitude of the wave in the diagram is

a. 6 m.
c. 0.5 m.
b. 3 m.
d. 1 m.
______ 5. A wave has a period of 0.25 seconds. The frequency of this wave is
a. 25 seconds.
c. 4 hertz.
b. 0.25 hertz.
d. 2 hertz.
______ 6. A child is sending pulses down a stretched rope at a rate of 2 pulses
per second. The distance between the pulses is 5 meters. What is the
speed of the wave?
a. 5 m/s
c. 2 Hz
b. 10 m/s
d. 2.5 m/s
______ 7. The frequency of a sound wave determines
a. the pitch of the sound.
c. how fast the sound travels.
b. how loud the sound is.
d. the magnitude of the compression.
19
Waves
Name
Class
Date

______ 8. A wavefront is
a. the first part of a wave.
b. a surface made up of all the points on a wave that have the same
energy.
c. a line connecting a crest and a trough.
d. the initial disturbance of the medium.
______ 9. The difference between visible light and X rays is that
a. the amplitude of visible light is greater.
b. the speed of X rays is greater.
c. they travel through a different medium.
d. the frequency of X rays is greater.
______10. A wave x meters long has a speed of y meters per second. The frequency of the wave is
a. x/y.
c. y x.
b. y/x.
d. y x.
Label each true statement with a T, and each false statement with an F. If a statement is false, replace the underlined term to make the statement true. Write your
______11. The greater the frequency of the wave in a particular medium, the
greater the wavelength of the wave. ____________________

______12. Radio waves are an example of mechanical waves.
____________________
______13. Light waves are examples of transverse waves.____________________
______14. The energy of a mechanical wave depends on the frequency of the
wave. ____________________
______15. As the period of a wave increases, the frequency increases.
____________________
______16. When a wave reflects from a fixed boundary, the only change in the
wave is the direction of travel. ____________________

______ 17. Two waves cannot occupy the same space at the same time.
____________________
20
Waves
Name
Class
Date

______18. If two tuning forks of different frequencies are struck at the same
time, you will hear beats as the result of constructive interference
followed by destructive interference. ____________________

the statement.
19. The matter through which a wave travels is called the ____________________.
20. A wave that causes the particles of the medium to vibrate perpendicularly to
the direction the wave travels is called a(n) ____________________.

21. The lowest point of a wave is called the ____________________.
22. The ____________________ is the time required for one complete wave oscillation to occur.
23. The change in the direction of a wave when the wave encounters an obstacle
or opening is called ____________________.

24. In ____________________, waves combine so that the resulting wave is bigger
than the largest of the original waves.
25. What causes the colorful swirls in soap bubbles?
21
Waves
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
Waves
______ 1. Sound waves

a. require a medium.
b. are unrelated to vibrations.
c. are not mechanical waves.

d. can travel in a vacuum.
______ 2. Light waves

a. require a medium.
b. cannot travel through solids.
c. cannot travel through liquids.

d. are electromagnetic waves.
______ 3. Light waves are

a. transverse waves.
b. longitudinal waves.
c. rotating waves.
d. circular waves.
______ 4. The wavelength of the wave in the diagram is

a. 6.0 m.
c. 3 m.
b. 1.5 m.
d. 0.75 m.
______ 5. A man is standing on the shore of a beach, up to his knees in water.
Every 5 seconds a wave breaks on him. What is the period of the
wave?
a. 12 waves per minute
c. 5 seconds
b. 5 hertz
d. 0.2 hertz
______ 6. A train of waves is moving at a speed of 30 m/s. The frequency of the
waves is 10 Hz. What is the wavelength?
a. 300 m
c. 3 m
b. 30 m
d. 0.1 m
______ 7. How loud a sound is depends on
a. the wavelength of the sound.
b. the pitch of the sound.
c. the amplitude of the waves.

d. the medium.
22
Waves
Name
Class
Date

______ 8. A ______________ is a good mathematical model for representing
transverse waves.
a. tangent curve
c. exponential curve
b. sine curve
d. parabolic curve
______ 9. The color of light is determined by ______________ of the light waves.
a. the medium
c. the frequency
b. the speed
d. the amplitude
______10. A wave with a frequency of 0.5 Hz and a speed of 10 m/s has a wavelength of
a. 50 m.
c. 20 m.
b. 0.5 m.
d. 0.2 m.
Label each true statement with a T, and each false statement with an F. If a statement is false, replace the underlined term to make the statement true. Write your
______11. A wave transports energy but not matter. __________________
______12. Light waves require a medium in which to travel. __________________

______13. Sound waves are examples of longitudinal waves. __________________
______14. As the frequency of sound waves increases, the wavelength of the
sound waves decreases. __________________

______15. The color of visible light depends on the wavelength of the light.
__________________
______16. When two waves are in the same place at the same time, they combine
to produce a single wave. __________________

______ 17. Nodes in a standing wave are the result of constructive interference.
__________________
______18. When light passes from air to glass, the light may change direction due
to reflection. __________________
23
Waves
Name
Class
Date

the statement.
19. A(n) ____________________ is defined as a wave that requires a medium.

20. A wave that causes the particles of the medium to vibrate parallel to the
direction the wave travels is called a(n) ____________________.

21. The highest point of a wave is called the ____________________.
22. The ____________________ is the greatest distance that particles in a medium
move from their normal position when a wave passes.
23. The bouncing back of a wave as it meets a surface or boundary is called
____________________.
24. In ____________________, waves combine so that the resulting wave is
smaller than the largest of the original waves.
25. How does the amplitude of a transverse wave differ from the amplitude of a
longitudinal wave?
24
Waves
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Sound and Light
______ 1. The intensity of a sound describes

a. its speed.
b. its loudness at a particular distance.
c. the distance and medium through which it travels.
d. the medium through which it travels.
______ 2. Resonance refers to an effect in which the
a. vibration of one object causes another object to vibrate at natural
frequencies.
b. intensity of a sound decreases over time.
c. pitch of a note is compared to a pure tone.
d. vibration of a string or column of air causes a standing wave at a
natural frequency.
______ 3. The particle model of light explains how light can
a. travel through empty space without a medium.
b. refract when it passes through a lens.
c. be reflected off a mirror.
d. diffract when it passes through a normal opening.
______ 4. The amount of energy in a photon of light is proportional to the
a. medium through which it travels.
b. shape of the light wave it creates.
c. speed of the corresponding light wave.
d. frequency of the corresponding light wave.
______ 5. When light rays reflect off a rough surface, they
a. scatter in many different directions.
b. converge toward the normal.
c. diverge away from the normal.
d. decrease their speed and change their angle.
______ 6. An orange looks orange because it
a. reflects orange light and absorbs other colors.
b. absorbs orange light and reflects other colors.
c. reflects red and yellow light only.
d. absorbs red and yellow light only.
15
Sound and Light
Name
Class
Date

______ 7. When light moves from a material in which its speed is higher to a
material in which its speed is lower, it is
a. bent toward the normal.
c. reflected off the boundary.
b. bent away from the normal.
d. changed into a virtual image.
______ 8. Light that enters one end of a fiber optic cable reaches the other end
by means of
a. dispersion.
c. repeated intensification.
b. magnification.
d. total internal reflection.
______ 9. Which structure within the eye is responsible for the largest percentage of refraction of light?
a. retina
c. lens
b. cornea
d. iris
______10. White light breaks up into different colors when it passes through a
prism because of
a. differences in wave speed.
c. reflection.
b. total internal dispersion.
d. droplets in the air.
the statement.
11. The greater the ____________________ of a sound wave, the louder the sound.
12. Resonance occurs when the vibration of one object causes another object to
vibrate at a(n) ____________________.

13. The three small bones in your middle ear are the ___________________, the
____________________, and the ____________________.

14. In the particle model of light, individual packets of light are called
____________________.
15. The energy of light is proportional to the ____________________ of the
corresponding ____________________.
16. The theoretical line perpendicular to the surface where a light ray hits a
mirror is called the ____________________.

17. In a(n) ____________________ image, light rays really exist at the point where
the image appears.
16
Sound and Light
Name
Class
Date

18. White light actually contains all the visible wavelengths of the
____________________.
19. If a light moves from a material in which its speed is lower to one in which its
speed is higher, the ray is bent away from the ____________________.

20. What does it mean to say that light can be modeled as both a wave and particle? Explain the implications for scientific theory.
17
Sound and Light
Name
Class
Assessment
Date
TEST B
Chapter Test
Sound and Light
______ 1. The pitch of a sound is most closely related to the

a. frequency of vibrations.
b. distance from the sound source.
c. medium through which the sound travels.
d. intensity of the sound.
______ 2. The unique sound quality of a clarinet or a violin is caused by the
a. forced vibrations that occur at natural frequencies.
b. length of standing waves in the fundamental frequency.
c. relative intensity of different harmonics in each note.
d. relative number of harmonics.
______ 3. Which property of light is not explained by the wave model of light?
a. Light produces interference patterns.
b. Light is diffracted when it passes through a narrow opening.
c. Blue light can knock electrons off a plate but red light cannot.
d. Light reflects when it meets a mirror, but it refracts when it passes
through a lens.
______ 4. The rate at which light energy flows through a given area of space is
referred to as its
a. speed.
c. intensity.
b. wavelength.
d. energy.
______ 5. The law of reflection states that when light rays reflect off a surface
the angle of incidence
a. is one-half the angle of reflection.
b. equals the angle of reflection.
c. is twice the angle of reflection.
d. equals the angle of refraction.
______ 6. An image that results from light rays that only appear to be at a certain
location is called
a. an apparent image.
c. an objective image.
b. a real image.
d. a virtual image.
18
Sound and Light
Name
Class
Date

______ 7. You look at a red tulip, with green leaves, under green light. What
would you see?
a. a green flower with green leaves
b. a black flower with green leaves
c. a yellow flower with black leaves
d. a black flower with black leaves
______ 8. A virtual image caused by reflection of light in the atmosphere is
called
a. a prism.
c. a mirror.
b. a lens.
d. a mirage.
______ 9. Which statement about a diverging lens is correct?
a. It bends light inward and can create either a virtual or a real image.
b. It bends light inward and can only create a real image.
c. It bends light outward and can create either a virtual or a real
image.
d. It bends light outward and can only create a virtual image.
______10. The effect in which white light separates into different colors is called
a. magnification.
c. reflection.
b. refraction.
d. dispersion.
the statement.
11. In a gas, such as air, an increase in temperature results in a(n)
____________________ in the speed of sound.

12. In your inner ear, different parts of the ____________________ vibrate at
different natural frequencies.

13. Sound waves with frequencies higher than 20 000 Hz are referred to as
____________________ waves.
14. The two most common models of light describe it as a wave or as a stream of
____________________.
15. All possible kinds of light, at all energies, frequencies, and wavelengths, make
up the ____________________.
16. Reflection of light in random directions is called ____________________
reflection.
19
Sound and Light
Name
Class
Date

17. The image that you see in a mirror that results from the apparent path of light
rays is called a(n) ____________________ image.

18. An object looks red if it ____________________ red light and
____________________ all other colors.

19. Light may bend when it changes mediums because ____________________ is
different in each medium.

20. Describe two different forms of electromagnetic radiation and explain their
use in technology.
20
Sound and Light
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phase that best completes
______ 1. There is a repulsive force between two charged objects when

a. their charges are of unlike sign.
b. they have the same number of protons.
c. their charges are of like sign.
d. they have the same number of electrons.
______ 2. Electric force varies depending on the
a. charge and distance between charged objects.
b. charge and mass of charged objects.
c. height and mass of charged objects.
d. mass and distance between charged objects.
______ 3. Batteries typically have
a. two positive terminals.
c. one positive and one negative

terminal.
d. no terminals.
b. two negative terminals.
______ 4. An electric current is produced when charges are accelerated by an

electric field to move to a position of potential energy that is
a. higher.
c. equal.
b. lower.
d. infinite.
______ 5. Resistance is caused by
a. internal friction.
b. electron charge.
c. proton charge.
d. kinetic energy.
______ 6. The SI unit of resistance is the

a. volt.
b. ampere.
c. ohm.
d. joule.
______ 7. What is the potential difference across a resistor that dissipates 5.00 W
of power and has a current of 5.0 A?
a. 1.0 V
c. 125 V
b. 4.00 V
d. 0.20 V
______ 8. There is a potential difference of 12 V across a resistor with 0.25 A of
current in it. The resistance of the resistor is
a. 48 .
c. 12 .
b. 24 .
d. 0.021 .
______ 9. A resistor has a resistance of 280 . How much current is in the resistor if there is a potential difference of 120 V across the resistor?
a. 160 A
c. 0.12 A
b. 0.43 A
d. 2.3 A
23
Electricity
Name
Class
Date

______10. What happens to the resistance of a superconductor when its temperature drops below the critical temperature?
a. Resistance increases.
c. Resistance drops to zero.
b. Resistance doubles.
d. Resistance is reduced by onehalf.
______11. If a lamp is measured to have a resistance of 120 when it operates at
a power of 1.00 102 W, what is the potential difference across the
lamp?
a. 110 V
c. 0.913 V
b. 120 V
d. 220 V
______12. A microwave draws 5.0 A when it is connected to a 120-V outlet. If
electrical energy cost $0.090/kW h, what is the cost of running the
microwave for exactly 6 hours?
a. $2.70
c. $0.72
b. $1.60
d. $0.32
______13. What happens to the overall resistance of a circuit when too many
appliances are connected across a 120-V outlet?
a. Resistance is increased.
c. Resistance is decreased.
b. Resistance remains the same. d. Resistance is zero.
14. What is charging by friction?
15. In the figure shown above, why do only half of the lines originating from the
positive charge terminate on the negative charge?
24
Electricity
Name
Class
Date

16. What determines the electrical potential energy of a charge?
17. A resistor has a resistance of 1.8 . How much current is in the resistor if
there is a potential difference of 3.0 V across the resistor?
18. Which bulb(s) will have a current in the schematic diagram above?
19. Does the schematic diagram above represent a series or parallel circuit?
20. Does the wiring in your house use series or parallel circuits? Explain.
25
Electricity
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
______ 1. There is an attractive force between two charged objects when

a. their charges are of unlike sign.
b. they have the same number of protons.
c. their charges are of like sign.
d. they have the same number of electrons.
______ 2. When there is an equal amount of positive and negative charges on an
object, the object is
a. positively charged.
c. neutral.
b. negatively charged.
d. supercharged.
______ 3. The electric force between charged objects is
a. attractive only.
c. either attractive or repulsive.
b. repulsive only.
d. neither attractive nor repulsive.
______ 4. Every charged particle produces
a. a negative charge.
b. a positive charge.
c. a magnetic field.
d. an electric field.
______ 5. When compared to a 2 charge, there are

a. an equal number of field lines pointing inward toward a 4 charge.
b. twice as many field lines pointing inward toward a 4 charge.
c. twice as many field lines pointing outward from a 4 charge.
d. half as many field lines pointing outward from a 4 charge.
______ 6. Potential difference is measured in
a. amperes.
c. coulombs.
b. volts.
d. joules.
______ 7. Current is the rate at which charges move through a(n)
a. conductor.
c. voltage.
b. insulator.
d. joule.
______ 8. A flashlight bulb with a potential difference of 4.5 V across its filament
has a power output of 8.0 W. How much current is in the bulb filament?
a. 3.7 A
c. 0.23 A
b. 1.8 A
d. 0.56 A
______ 9. A 13- resistor has 0.050 A of current in it. What is the potential difference across the resistor?
a. 6.5 V
c. 0.065 V
b. 0.65 V
d. 0.0065 V
26
Electricity
Name
Class
Date

______10. A set of electric trains are powered by a 9-V battery. What is the resistance of the trains if they draw 3.0 A of current?
a. 3
c. 27
b. 0.03
d. 2.7
______11. An electric toaster has a power rating of 1100 W at 110 V. What is the
resistance of the heating coil?
a. 7.5
c. 10
b. 9.0
d. 11
______12. A color television draws about 2.5 A when it is connected to a 120-V
outlet. Assuming electrical energy costs $0.060 per kW h, what is the
cost of running the television for exactly 8 hours?
a. $1.44
c. $0.14
b. $0.03
d. $0.30
______13. A device that protects a circuit from current overload is called a(n)
a. resistor.
c. circuit breaker.
b. capacitor.
d. closed circuit.
14. What is charging by contact?
15. How does the electric force between two charged objects depend on distance?
16. A 180- resistor has 0.10 A of current in it. What is the potential difference
across the resistor?
17. What is resistance in a conductor?
27
Electricity
Name
Class
Date
18. Is a current flowing in the schematic diagram above? Explain your answer.
19. Does the schematic diagram above represent a series or parallel circuit?
20. You can pick up static electricity by walking on a wool rug in leather-soled
shoes. Explain why you are then negatively charged and what happens when
you grab for a metal object such as a doorknob.
28
Electricity
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Magnetism
______ 1. The north pole of one magnet will be

a. attracted to the north pole of another magnet.
b. repelled by the center of another magnet.
c. repelled by the north pole of another magnet.
d. repelled by the south pole of another magnet.
______ 2. The magnetism of a piece of magnetized iron can be weakened by
a. heating the iron and hammering it.
b. putting it near a piece of unmagnetized iron.
c. bending the iron.
______ 3. Which of the compass needle orientations in the figure above might
correctly describe the magnets field at that point?
a. a
c. c
b. b
d. d
______ 4. What instrument is used to trace the direction of a magnetic field?
a. lodestone
c. compass
b. limestone
d. needle
______ 5. What material was used to make the first compass?
a. lodestone
c. iron
b. limestone
d. steel
______ 6. Magnetic fields are produced by
a. electric charges.
b. electric currents.
c. gravitational force.
d. water currents.
______ 7. Which orientation characterizes the magnetic domains in an unmagnetized piece of iron?
a. parallel to the magnetic axis
c. random
b. antiparallel to the magnetic
d. perpendicular to the magnetic
axis
axis
11
Magnetism
Name
Class
Date

______ 8. A device that converts electric energy into mechanical energy is a(n)
a. generator.
c. commutator.
b. electric motor.
d. transformer.
______ 9. In an AC generator, the magnitude of the current produced
a. depends on the orientation of the loop in a magnetic field.
b. is zero when the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field.
c. varies with time.
d. All of the above
______10. Light travels as
a. electrical waves.
b. magnetic waves.
c. electromagnetic waves.
d. electrochemical waves.
______11. A transformer changes

a. both the amperage and the voltage of an electric current.
b. the voltage of an electric current.
c. the amperage of an electric current.
d. the resistance of an electric current.
Read each question or statement and write your response in the space provided.
12. Will the magnets in the figure above attract or repel each other?
13. A bar magnet is suspended and allowed to rotate freely. If the magnetic field
of Earth is considered to be equivalent to that of a large bar magnet, which
pole of the suspended magnet would point toward the Geographic North Pole
of Earth? ____________________________________________________________
14. What causes the magnetic properties of bar magnets? _____________________
15. What is a galvanometer? ______________________________________________
16. What is a generator? __________________________________________________
12
Magnetism
Name
Class
Date

17. In addition to running water, what are three other sources of mechanical
energy used by generators to generate electrical energy? __________________
18. How are electric and magnetic field waves oriented relative to each other in
an electromagnetic wave? _____________________________________________
19. What is the relationship between voltage across the secondary coil of a trans-
former and the number of loops it has? __________________________________
20. Compare and contrast Earths magnetic poles with its geographic poles.
13
Magnetism
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
Magnetism
______ 1. Like magnetic poles always

a. repel each other.
b. attract each other.
c. point toward the south pole.

d. point toward the north pole.
______ 2. An example of a naturally occurring magnetic rock is

a. lodestone.
c. limestone.
b. soapstone.
d. peastone.
______ 3. The strength of the magnetic field of a magnet
a. decreases as distance from the magnet decreases.
b. decreases as distance from the magnet increases.
c. increases as distance from the magnet increases.
d. remains the same at any distance from a magnet.
______ 4. A compass needle naturally points toward
a. the geographic North Pole.
b. the S pole of a magnet.
c. Earths North Magnetic Pole.
d. All of the above
______ 5. Earths magnetic poles are located in
a. Canada and Australia.
b. Canada and Alaska.
c. Canada and Antarctica.
d. the same positions as the geographic poles.
______ 6. A magnetic field around a current-carrying wire forms
a. lines tangent to the wire.
c. lines parallel to the wire.
b. lines perpendicular to the
d. concentric circles around the
wire.
wire.
______ 7. The strength of the magnetic field of a solenoid can be increased by
a. decreasing the number of loops on the solenoid.
b. decreasing the current in the solenoid.
c. increasing the number of loops on the solenoid.
d. increasing the resistance of the solenoid.
14
Magnetism
Name
Class
Date

______ 8. In a magnetized substance, the domains
a. are randomly distributed.
c. cancel each other.
b. line up more uniformly in
d. can never be reoriented.
one direction.
______ 9. An electric motor and a generator are similar in that both
a. use electricity.
c. transform energy.
b. produce mechanical energy.
d. create energy.
______10. In an AC generator, when charges experience the most rapid change in
magnetic force,
a. the current is positive
c. the current is zero.
b. the current is negative.
d. the current increases.
______11. Both electric and magnetic fields in an electromagnetic wave are
a. perpendicular to the direction that the wave travels.
b. parallel to the direction that the wave travels.
c. opposite the direction that the wave travels.
d. tangential to the direction that the wave travels.
______12. Transformers can
a. increase voltage.
c. neither increase nor decrease

voltage.
d. increase or decrease voltage.
b. decrease voltage.
13. Will the magnets in the figure above attract or repel each other? ____________
14. How does a compass indicate direction? ________________________________
15. What are two ways to increase the strength of the magnetic field of a
solenoid? ____________________________________________________________
16. How are the domains oriented inside an unmagnetized piece of iron?
15
Magnetism
Name
Class
Date

17. How are generators different from electric motors? _______________________
18. What is the most common source of mechanical energy used in commercial
power plants? _______________________________________________________
19. What does a step-down transformer on a power line near your home do?
20. Describe how to find the direction of the magnetic field produced by a
current.
16
Magnetism
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
______ 1. A signal is a sign that represents

a. information.
b. questions.
c. symbols.
d. dots and dashes.
______ 2. Language is an example of a

a. signal.
b. script.
c. symbol.
d. code.
______ 3. A digital signal is

a. a signal that can be interpreted as a sequence of digits.
b. based on the binary number system.
c. composed of discrete fixed values.
d. All of the above
______ 4. One disadvantage of analog signals is that they
a. can be sent quickly.
b. can be turned on and off frequently.
c. get distorted after several transmissions.
d. can transmit a lot of information in a short time.
______ 5. Microwaves are used for sending telecommunication signals in
a. fiber-optic networks.
c. underground cables.
b. wire-cable networks.
d. atmospheric transmission.
______ 6. During a telephone call, the incoming electrical signals are converted
to sound waves by the
a. electret microphone.
c. hand set.
b. fiber optics.
d. speaker cone.
______ 7. Telephone messages are sent by
a. physical transmission only.
b. atmospheric transmission only.
c. both physical and atmospheric transmissions.
______ 8. The antenna of your radio receiver works as a
a. transmitter.
c. transceiver.
b. transducer.
d. translocator.
______ 9. By the year 2006, all television signals will be broadcast
a. visually.
c. using radio waves.
b. using soundwaves.
d. digitally.
18
Communication Technology
Name
Class
Date

______10. A computer keyboard is an example of a(n)
a. input device.
c. storage device.
b. output device.
d. processing device.
______11. A computer modem is
a. an input device.
b. an output device.
c. both an input and output device.

d. neither an input nor an output
device.
______12. Computers process binary data in groups of

a. eight bits.
c. ten bits.
b. eight bytes.
d. ten bytes.
______13. When a computer is first turned on, the first program executed by the
computer is the
a. word processing system.
c. control system.
b. operating system.
d. experimental system.
14. A joystick is a(n) ____________________ device.

15. When you change the channel of your television set, you are tuning it to
another _________________________.
16. Sound waves be converted to ______________________________ in order to
broadcast a radio transmission.
17. What does a transducer do? ____________________________________________
18. What is the structural composition of optical fibers? ______________________
19. For the microwave signals to be sent from one tower to another, how must
the towers be placed in relationship to each other? _______________________
20. What is a satellite footprint? ___________________________________________

21. What is the function of a shadow mask in a color television? _______________
19
Name
Class
Date

22. What does an AND gate do? ___________________________________________
23. What is the relationship between bits and bytes? _________________________
24. What does software provide? __________________________________________
25. How is music read from a compact disc?
20
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
______ 1. A code is
a. a special kind of signal.
b. the meaning of a signal.
c. a change in a signal.
d. unrelated to signals.
______ 2. To send sound using electricity, the first step is to

a. send the electrical signal along a wire.
b. convert the electrical signal into sound.
c. convert the sound into electric current.
d. broadcast the sound through an amplifier.
______ 3. An analog signal
a. never varies.
b. varies continuously within a
range.
c. only shows a single reading.

d. uses a single flashing light.
______ 4. Each binary digit is called a

a. bit.
b. byte.
c. state.
d. code.
______ 5. Microwaves are a form of

a. electric waves.
b. mechanical waves.
c. sound waves.
d. electromagnetic waves.
______ 6. When you talk on the telephone, the sound waves of your voice are
converted to an electrical signal by a(n)
a. conductor.
c. transducer.
b. insulator.
d. receiver.
______ 7. The transfer of information by means of electromagnetic waves
through space is called
a. atmospheric transmission.
c. atmospheric conduction.
b. atmospheric radiation.
d. atmospheric convection.
______ 8. For radio broadcast, sound signals are converted to
a. ultraviolet waves.
c. visible light waves.
b. infrared waves.
d. electromagnetic waves.
______ 9. The smallest piece of electronically produced picture is called a
a. bit.
c. ray.
b. byte.
d. pixel.
21
Name
Class
Date

______10. Which of the following is not a computer input device?
a. a keyboard
c. a scanner
b. a mouse
d. a printer
______11. A computer monitor is an example of a(n)
a. input device.
c. storage device.
b. output device.
d. processing device.
______12. All input devices provide data to the computer in the form of a(n)
a. radio signal.
c. binary code.
b. atmospheric signal.
d. Morse code.
______13. All the physical components of a computer are called
a. hardware.
c. hard drive.
b. software.
d. floppy drive.
14. What is the relationship between signals and codes? ______________________
15. Identify one advantage of using optical fibers instead of metal wires.
16. How does a microwave relay tower transmit signals?
17. How do satellites rely on solar power?
18. What is a carrier? ____________________________________________________
19. Why is there a greater geographic range associated with AM stations than
with FM stations? ____________________________________________________
20. What are the three primary colors of light associated with color picture tubes?
22
Name
Class
Date

21. What are the four basic functions of a computer? _________________________
22. What is a logic gate? ___________________________________________________

23. What does read-only memory do on a computer? _________________________
24. What do the transistors on a memory chip do? ___________________________
25. Describe how a microphone and speaker work together to produce amplified
sound.
23
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
The Solar System
______ 1. All of the planets in our solar system

a. give off their own light.
b. appear in the same position nightly.
c. have thick atmospheres.
d. orbit the sun.
______ 2. The solar system is held together by
a. gravitational forces.
c. angular momentum.
b. inertia.
d. electrostatic forces.
______ 3. During a solar eclipse
a. the moon blocks out the sun.
b. the sun blocks out the moon.
c. the moon blocks out Earth.

d. Earth blocks out the sun.
______ 4. As the moon waxes, people on Earth can see ____________ of the illuminated portion of the moon.
a. all
c. more
b. none
d. less
______ 5. Mercury is characterized by
a. a thick atmosphere.
b. large volumes of water.
c. very extreme temperatures.

d. high atmospheric pressure.
______ 6. The Great Red Spot is believed to be a giant storm in the atmosphere
of
a. Mars.
c. Saturn.
b. Jupiter.
d. Neptune.
______ 7. Terrestrial planets have similar
a. atmospheres.
b. lifeforms.
c. compositions.
d. satellites.
______ 8. Kepler showed that the orbits of the planets are

a. circular.
c. spherical.
b. elliptical.
______ 9. Aristotle believed that planets orbit the
a. sun.
c. moon.
b. Earth.
d. stars.
16
The Solar System
Name
Class
Date

______10. Planets may have been formed out of material orbiting the early sun
through the process of
a. solidification.
c. accretion.
b. sedimentation.
d. radiation.
11. Gas giants are known for their _____________________ and
_____________________.
12. _____________________ is credited with describing the orbits of the planets as
elliptical.
13. According to rock dating, the solar system is approximately
_____________________ years old.

14. Models of the solar system with Earth at the center are called
_____________________ models.
15. Earths tides are mainly a result of the _____________________.
16. Name two other factors that affect tides.
17. What are asteroids and where are they located?
18. What characteristics of Earth permit it to sustain life?
19. Describe the current model for how the moon was formed.
20. Explain how the nebular model accounts for the differences between the
terrestrial and gas giant planets.
17
The Solar System
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
The Solar System
______ 1. There are ____________ planets that orbit the sun.

a. seven.
c. nine.
b. eight.
d. ten.
______ 2. Gravity keeps planets from
a. crashing into the sun.
b. losing their atmospheres.
c. flying off into space.

______ 3. During a lunar eclipse

a. the moon blocks out the sun.
b. the sun blocks out the moon.
c. the moon blocks out Earth.

d. Earth blocks out the sun.
______ 4. Which of the following is not an inner planet?

a. Venus
c. Jupiter
b. Mars
d. Earth
______ 5. ____________ allows Earth to sustain life.
a. An abundance of liquid water
c. The moons craters
b. An oxygen-rich atmosphere
d. both (a) and (b)
______ 6. The inner planets are separated from the outer planets by
a. the Oort cloud.
c. the Milky Way.
b. an asteroid belt.
d. the moons orbit.
______ 7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of gas giants?
a. thick, gaseous atmospheres
c. ring structures
b. many satellites
d. rocky surfaces
______ 8. The moon orbits Earth at a distance of about ____________ kilometers.
a. 4000
c. 400 000
b. 40 000
d. 4000 000
______ 9. The solar system is approximately ____________ years old.
a. 6000
c. 4.6 billion
b. 230 million
d. 15 billion
______10. The nebular model explains why the planets
a. are bunched together.
c. have irregular orbits.
b. have ring structures.
d. differ in composition.
18
The Solar System
Name
Class
Date

11. The astronomer _____________________ first proposed that Earth and the
other planets orbit the sun.
12. Other than the sun and the moon, the brightest object in the night sky is often
a _____________________.
13. The largest planet in the solar system without rings is
_____________________.
14. The planet _____________________ was discovered in 1930 by Clyde
Tombaugh.
15. The most widely accepted model of the solar system is the
_____________________.
16. The Kuiper belt is located _____________________.
17. Models of the solar system with the sun at the center are called
_____________________ models.
18. How does the moon cause tides on Earth?
19. Describe the nebular model.
20. Describe the current model for the moons formation, and contrast it with
previous models.
19
The Solar System
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
The Universe
______ 1. Not including the sun, the closest stars to Earth are
a. 4.3 light-years away.
c. 430 light-years away.
b. 43 light-years away.
d. 4300 light-years away.
______ 2. The Milky Way galaxy contains interstellar matter that may
a. form new galaxies.
c. form new universes.
b. form new stars.
d. form new constellations.
______ 3. Elliptical galaxies often appear reddish due to an abundance of
a. old stars.
c. young stars.
b. black holes.
d. white dwarfs.
______ 4. Our galaxy is classified as a(n)
a. irregular galaxy.
b. elliptical galaxy.
c. spherical galaxy.
d. spiral galaxy.
______ 5. Who first proposed that the universe is expanding?

a. Darwin
c. Copernicus
b. Kepler
d. Hubble
______ 6. A stars apparent brightness is dependent upon
a. temperature.
c. size.
b. distance from Earth.
d. All of the above
______ 7. The sun is
a. an unusually hot star.
b. a very cool star.
c. a typical star.
______ 8. Energy is released in stars as a result of

a. fission reactions.
c. endothermic reactions.
b. fusion reactions.
d. biochemical reactions.
______ 9. Most of the stars in the Milky Way will end their lives as
a. white dwarfs.
c. supernovas.
b. black holes.
d. red giants.
______10. Quasars are among the strongest sources of ____________ in the
universe.
a. light
c. gamma rays
b. x-rays
15
The Universe
Name
Class
Date

______11. The universe is made up of mostly
a. dark matter.
c. stars.
b. interstellar matter.
d. empty space.
12. What is a light-year? __________________________________________________
13. How are irregular galaxies different from spiral and elliptical galaxies?
14. What evidence was discovered in 1965 that supports the big bang theory?
15. What information can be derived from the color of a star?
16. What is the primary instrument used to gather information about stars?
17. What conditions, common to most stars including our sun, appear to be
necessary in order for fusion reactions to take place?
18. What is a supernova? _________________________________________________
19. How does the mass of the universe affect the models of its eventual future?
20. What determines whether a star becomes a white dwarf or a black hole?
16
The Universe
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
The Universe
______ 1. A light-year is a unit of

a. time.
b. distance.
c. mass.
d. density.
______ 2. Our solar system is inside the

a. Alpha Centauri galaxy.
b. Betelgeuse galaxy.
c. Milky Way galaxy.

d. Andromeda galaxy.
______ 3. Spiral galaxies often appear bluish due to an abundance of

a. old stars.
c. young stars.
b. black holes.
d. white dwarfs.
______ 4. Galaxies are classified based on their
a. shape.
c. stars.
b. color.
d. age.
______ 5. An observation of the red shift of galaxies suggests that the universe is
a. expanding.
c. reversing.
b. contracting.
d. stagnant.
______ 6. The surface temperature of a star can be estimated based on the stars
a. size.
c. age.
b. color.
d. mass.
______ 7. An astronomer observes four stars, each of which is a different color.
Of these stars, the ____________ star is the hottest.
a. red
c. yellow
b. blue
d. green
______ 8. In stars, energy is produced primarily as hydrogen atoms are combined to form
a. helium atoms.
c. oxygen atoms.
b. carbon atoms.
d. nitrogen atoms.
______ 9. A star is born when
a. gas and dust collapse inward.
b. nuclear fusion starts in the core.
c. the fusion of hydrogen slows down.
d. the core becomes carbon and oxygen.
17
The Universe
Name
Class
Date

______10. Quasars were named for their
a. absorption of radiation.
b. generation of radiation.
c. resemblance to galaxies.
d. resemblance to stars.
11. Define universe. _____________________________________________________
12. What are some physical characteristics of elliptical galaxies? _______________
13. What is the big bang theory? ___________________________________________
14. What are two properties that are used to characterize a star?
15. How do we gather information about distant stars? _______________________
16. What is a fusion reaction? _____________________________________________
17. What is a planetary nebula? ____________________________________________
18. Prior to the work of Copernicus in 1543, what did a model of the universe
look like? ____________________________________________________________
19. What are the three models of the eventual fate of the universe based on?
20. Describe the birth of a star.
18
The Universe
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Planet Earth
______ 1. The continental crust is deepest beneath

a. oceans.
c. valleys.
b. mountains.
d. rivers.
______ 2. About 80 percent of Earths volume is made up of
a. crust.
c. inner core.
b. mantle.
d. outer core.
______ 3. Which of these does not support the theory of plate tectonics?
a. Some continental coastlines fit together.
b. Similar fossils are found on separate continents.
c. Older rocks are found further apart in Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
d. Earths core is solid.
______ 4. A geologic feature of divergent plate boundaries in oceanic crust is the
formation of
a. trenches.
c. U-shaped valleys.
b. fossils
d. faults.
______ 5. A zone where oceanic crust dives beneath continental crust is called a
zone of
a. subduction.
c. reduction.
b. divergence.
d. rifting.
______ 6. Earthquakes occur mostly
a. in the middle of continents.
b. in the asthenosphere.
c. at plate boundaries.
d. at the edges of the continents.
______ 7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of S waves?

a. travel slower than P waves
b. cannot be detected in locations more than 105 from an earthquakes epicenter
c. travel through solids and liquids
______ 8. The minimum number of seismograph stations necessary to determine
the location of an earthquakes epicenter is
a. one.
c. three.
b. two.
d. four.
20
Planet Earth
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. A cinder cone is caused by
a. converging plates.
b. diverging plates.
c. large amounts of gas trapped

in the magma.
d. vents.
______10. A mineral
a. has a chemical formula.
b. occurs naturally.
c. has a characteristic internal

structure.
d. All of the above
______11. Which of the following is not a rock?

a. granite
c. marble
b. shale
d. diamond
______12. Fossils are only found in which type of rock?
a. igneous
c. oxidized
b. metamorphic
d. sedimentary
______13. Igneous rock forms from
a. weathered rock particles.
b. evaporation of water.
c. magma.
______14. Sedimentary rocks are named according to

a. the type of minerals they contain.
b. where they were formed.
c. when they were formed.
d. the size of the fragments they contain.
______15. The rock type formed as bits of other rocks are cemented together is
a. igneous.
c. sedimentary.
b. metamorphic.
d. magma.
______16. The principle of superposition is used to
a. determine the absolute age of rocks.
b. determine how rocks are formed.
c. determine the relative age of rocks.
d. determine how rocks are changed.
______ 17. Which of these is an example of physical weathering?

a. oxidation of minerals
c. cave formation
b. frost wedging
d. acid rain
______18. Underground limestone caves form
a. from cooling and solidification of magma below the surface.
b. from the compacting and cementing of weathered rock fragments.
c. when oxidation decomposes the minerals in the rock.
d. when the calcite is dissolved by carbonic acid in rainwater.
21
Planet Earth
Name
Class
Date

19. Using your knowledge of temperature and pressure, explain why the inner
core of Earth is solid.
20. How does the presence of differently oriented magnetic bands of oceanic
rock support the theory of plate tectonics?
21. What is the relationship between the focus of an earthquake and its epicenter?
22. How are volcanoes created at the Mid-Atlantic Ridge?
23. Describe the process of leaching.
24. Define erosion.
25. In an earthquake-prone area, which earth material igneous rock or sedimentary rock would be better for constructing buildings? Explain your answer.
22
Planet Earth
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
Planet Earth
______ 1. Oceanic crust is

a. thicker and less dense than continental crust.
b. thinner and less dense than continental crust.
c. thicker and more dense than continental crust.
d. thinner and more dense than continental crust.
______ 2. Earths inner core is
a. hot and solid.
b. hot and liquid.
c. cool and solid.

d. cool and liquid.
______ 3. Young rocks near the center of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge suggest that
a. Earths magnetic field reverses every 200 000 years.
b. the rocks originated from the Earths core.
c. the crust is moving away from the ridge.
d. All of the above
______ 4. A divergent boundary occurs where two plates
a. move toward each other.
c. move past each other.
b. move away from each other.
d. move over each other.
______ 5. The breakage of rocks along a fault line releases energy in the form of
a. electromagnetic waves.
c. heat.
b. seismic waves.
d. light.
______ 6. Waves that cause the most damage during an earthquake are
a. surface waves.
c. S waves.
b. P waves.
d. ocean waves.
______ 7. Scientists can calculate the distance from the seismograph station to
the focus using
a. the difference in arrival times of P and surface waves.
b. the difference in arrival times of P and S waves.
c. the difference in arrival times of S and surface waves.
______ 8. Composite volcanoes are made up of
a. many layers of cinders and lava.
b. many layers of lava rich in magnesium and iron.
c. many layers of cinders.
d. many layers of metamorphic rock.
23
Planet Earth
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. Which of the following is not a rock type?
a. igneous
c. cubic
b. sedimentary
d. metamorphic
______10. Sedimentary rocks are the only rocks that can potentially contain
a. fossils.
c. fractures.
b. minerals.
d. faults.
______11. Igneous rocks that have mineral crystals easily seen with the unaided
eye formed
a. extrusively.
c. under water.
b. intrusively.
d. from lava.
______12. Rocks that are changed by heat and pressure will form
a. sedimentary rocks.
c. igneous rocks.
b. metamorphic rocks.
d. magma.
______13. The type of rock formed as molten rock cools and hardens is
a. igneous.
c. sedimentary.
b. metamorphic.
d. magma.
______14. Radioactive isotopes are used to
a. determine the absolute age of rocks.
b. determine the relative age of rocks.
c. determine how rocks are formed.
d. determine how rocks are changed.
______15. Which of these is not involved in the formation of underground caves?
a. calcite dissolving in carbonic acid
b. carbonic acid forming calcium bicarbonate
c. oxides of iron
d. acidic water seeping into the ground
______16. The process by which water transports minerals to a new location is
called
a. acid rain.
c. leaching.
b. frost wedging.
d. oxidation.
______ 17. The process in which sediment is laid down is called
a. erosion.
c. weathering.
b. deposition.
d. cementation.
______18. Carbonic acid dissolved in water is a
a. physical weathering agent.
c. biological weathering agent.
b. chemical weathering agent.
d. mechanical weathering agent.
24
Planet Earth
Name
Class
Date

19. What observations led Alfred Wegener to develop the theory of continental
drift?
20. What is subduction and at which type of plate boundary does it occur?
21. What is one cause of earthquakes?
22. Why are volcanoes common around the edges of the Pacific Ocean?
23. Explain why fossils are not found in metamorphic rock.
24. What is chemical weathering?
25. The Himalayas are a mountain range in India that continues to increase in
both width and height. Describe the type of plate boundary found in this
region and explain the reason behind the formation of the mountain range.
25
Planet Earth
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
The Atmosphere
______ 1. As distance from Earths surface increases, the temperature of the

stratosphere
a. decreases.
c. remains the same.
b. increases.
______ 2. The region where electrically charged ions are formed as a result of
the absorption of solar energy is called the
a. troposphere.
c. ionosphere.
b. lithosphere.
d. exosphere.
______ 3. Oxygen was introduced into the atmosphere as a byproduct of
a. respiration.
c. dehydration.
b. photosynthesis.
d. osmosis.
______ 4. In the oxygencarbon dioxide cycle,
a. animals produce oxygen used by plants for photosynthesis.
b. animals produce oxygen used by plants for respiration.
c. animals produce carbon dioxide used by plants for photosynthesis.
d. animals produce carbon dioxide used by plants for respiration.
______ 5. Greenhouse gases are added to the atmosphere through
a. forest fires.
c. radiation.
b. photosynthesis.
d. absorption.
______ 6. On Earth, water exists as
a. a solid.
b. a liquid.
c. a gas.
d. All of the above
______ 7. As temperature increases, the possible total humidity

a. increases.
c. increases and then decreases.
b. decreases.
d. remains the same.
______ 8. The clouds that occur at the highest altitude are usually
a. cirrus.
c. cumulus.
b. stratus.
d. nimbus.
______ 9. The direction in which the wind moves is influenced by
a. the pressure gradient.
c. Both (a) and (b)
b. Earths rotation.
15
The Atmosphere
Name
Class
Date

______10. The general geographic location of a large low-pressure system is
a. the North Pole.
c. the tropics.
b. the South Pole.
d. 30 degrees latitude.
______11. High winds and strong thunderstorms are characteristic of an
approaching strong
a. warm front.
c. stationary front.
b. cold front.
d. occluded front.
______12. Tornadoes commonly occur in which of the following regions of the
United States?
a. Midwest
c. Northeast
b. Northwest
d. Southeast
______13. Which cloud type is typically associated with thunderstorms?
a. cirrostratus
c. cumulonimbus
b. altocumulus
d. cirrocumulus
______14. Unlike climate, weather
a. changes from day to day.
b. is the average weather of a region.
c. is the weather conditions over many years.
d. Both (b) and (c)
______15. The climate of a region is defined by which two variables?
a. temperature and elevation
c. moisture and topography
b. elevation and topography
d. temperature and moisture
16. ____________________ and ____________________ are the two main gases in

the atmosphere.
17. ____________________ is the molecular formula of ozone.
18. The beginnings of a tornado are called ____________________.
19. What produces a temperature inversion? _________________________________
20. Where do scientists believe the first gases that created the atmosphere came
from? _______________________________________________________________
16
The Atmosphere
Name
Class
Date

21. What is meant by the greenhouse effect? _______________________________
22. List the three main types of clouds. _____________________________________
23. What are the general atmospheric conditions behind a warm front?
24. In the northern hemisphere, the warmest months of the year are June, July,
and August. During what season is Earth closest to the sun? ________________
25. Describe the formation of a tornado.
17
The Atmosphere
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
The Atmosphere
______ 1. The boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere is called the
a. thermopause.
c. stratopause.
b. mesopause.
d. tropopause.
______ 2. The ozone layer is located in the
a. troposphere.
b. stratosphere.
c. mesosphere.
d. thermosphere.
______ 3. Which of the following gases was not believed to be present on Earth
at the time of its formation 4.4 billion years ago?
a. oxygen
c. water
b. nitrogen
d. methane
______ 4. A waste product of respiration in animals that is used by plants to
carry out photosynthesis is
a. carbon dioxide.
c. calcium carbonate.
b. carbon monoxide.
d. sodium bicarbonate.
______ 5. In the last 100 years, which of the following have added excess carbon
dioxide to the atmosphere?
a. power plants
c. cars
b. machinery
d. all of the above
______ 6. With the input of solar energy, water changes from a liquid to a gas
during the process of
a. condensation.
c. evaporation.
b. precipitation.
d. neutralization.
______ 7. Warm, moist air will have
a. high humidity and low dew point.
b. low humidity and high dew point.
c. high humidity and high dew point.
d. low humidity and low dew point.
______ 8. Sheet-shaped clouds are called
a. cirrus.
b. stratus.
c. cumulus.
d. nimbus.
______ 9. Air becomes wind as it flows from

a. low pressure to low pressure.
c. low pressure to high pressure.
b. high pressure to high pressure. d. high pressure to low pressure.
18
The Atmosphere
Name
Class
Date

______10. Warm air rises because of its
a. low density.
b. high density.
c. lack of density.
d. lack of pressure.
______11. The leading edge of a cold air mass that overtakes a region formally
occupied by a warm air mass is called a
a. warm front.
c. stationary front.
b. cold front.
d. occluded front.
______12. The energy that powers a hurricane is derived from
a. a stationary front.
c. funnel clouds.
b. condensation of water vapor.
d. sublimation of water.
______13. Hurricanes rotate counter-clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere
because of the
a. Doppler effect.
c. tilt of the Earth.
b. Coriolis effect.
d. greenhouse effect.
______14. The climate of a region or location is affected by
a. latitude.
c. season.
b. elevation.
d. All of the above
______15. Historically, global climate
a. has always been the same.
b. has varied slightly over time.
c. has varied greatly over time.

16. How does the temperature of the troposphere change as altitude increases?
17.Where is the ozone layer located and what does it do? ____________________
18. Which organisms were the first to add oxygen to the atmosphere? ___________
19. How do plants and animals rely on each other to maintain the atmospheric
oxygen and carbon dioxide content? ____________________________________
19
The Atmosphere
Name
Class
Date

20. What is the relationship between the greenhouse effect and global warming?
21. Which cloud type is associated with thunderstorms? _______________________

22. What are the general atmospheric conditions behind a cold front? ___________
23. What is a tornado? ___________________________________________________
24. Earths location within its orbit is not solely responsible for the seasons. What
is a contributing factor to the reason for the seasons? _____________________
25. Describe the three phases of the water cycle.
20
The Atmosphere
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST A
Chapter Test
Using Natural Resources
______ 1. Groups of plants and animals that are adapted to similar conditions
form a(n)
a. population.
c. community.
b. ecosystem.
d. organism.
______ 2. In a balanced ecosystem with predators and prey, if the number of
prey decreases
a. the number of predators will decrease.
b. new predators will move into the area.
c. there will be no change in the ecosystem.
d. the ecosystem will be ruined.
______ 3. An example of a short-term ecological change is
a. a volcanic eruption.
c. change in seasons.
b. a large and devastating
d. global temperature change.
forest fire.
______ 4. Which of the following is not a renewable resource?
a. sunlight
c. water
b. wind
d. natural gas
______ 5. Fossil fuels include
a. uranium.
b. wood and charcoal.
c. coal, natural gas, and oil.

d. hydrogen, oxygen, and acetylene.
______ 6. Which of the following statements about wind energy is not true?
a. Wind energy is a nonrenewable energy resource.
b. Wind energy is used to sail ships.
c. Wind energy is not reliable.
d. Windmills are currently being used to provide energy.
______ 7. Fossil fuels come from
a. living plants and animals.
b. atomic reactions.
c. soil.
d. remains of dead organisms.
______ 8. Which of the following equations describes the reaction for burning
methane?
a. 2CH4 : C2H6 H2
c. C 2H2 : CH4
b. CH4 2O2 : CO2 2H2O
d. 6CH4 6O2 : C6H12O6 6H2O
15
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. Nitrogen oxides in car exhaust react with sunlight to produce
a. acid rain.
c. nitrogen fixing.
b. photochemical smog.
d. the greenhouse effect.
______10. Which of the following is not an air pollutant?
a. carbon monoxide
c. sulfur dioxide
b. carbon dioxide
d. particulate matter
the statement.
11. When there are enough resources for every living thing in an ecosystem, the
ecosystem is ____________________.
12. ____________________________ is generated using moving water.
13. Solar cells convert sunlight into ____________________________.
14. ____________________ energy involves the fission of nuclei.
15. Gasoline, paint thinner, and lighter fluid release
____________________________ into the atmosphere.

16. ____________________ results from the release of oxides of sulfur and nitrogen into the air.
17. ____________________ is the increase in the amount of nutrients, such as
nitrates, in an environment.
18. Breaking down discarded material for reuse in other products is called
____________________________.
19. The replacement of one community by another at one location over a period
of time is called ____________________________.

20. Explain the difference between a community and a population.
16
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
TEST B
Chapter Test
______ 1. Which of the following statements about ecosystems is not true?

a. Ecosystems include living and nonliving things.
b. Temperature and climate are not part of an ecosystem.
c. An ecosystem can be as small as a rain puddle.
d. Sunlight, air, and water can be parts of an ecosystem.
______ 2. An ecosystem is balanced when
a. energy does not enter or leave the ecosystem.
b. there are an equal number of plants and animals.
c. there is plenty of rain.
d. there are enough resources for every living thing.
______ 3. A forest destroyed by a fire will gradually become a complex ecosystem with a wide variety of plants and animals in a process called
a. regeneration.
c. succession.
b. evolution.
d. development.
______ 4. Nonrenewable resources are
a. resources that are used faster than they can be replaced.
b. very expensive resources.
c. energy from the sun.
d. rare earth elements.
______ 5. Which of the following is not considered an alternative source of energy?
a. energy from the sun
c. hydropower
b. wind energy
d. natural gas
______ 6. Which of the following statements about geothermal energy is not true?
a. It is not a practical source of energy.
b. It is an important source of energy in volcanically active areas.
c. It works best when the magma pool is near the surface of Earth.
d. It is a renewable source of energy.
______ 7. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?
a. oil
c. coal
b. natural gas
d. hydrogen
______ 8. Carbon dioxide is called a greenhouse gas because
a. it is used inside of greenhouses.
b. plants need carbon dioxide to grow.
c. it helps keep our planet warmer than outer space.
d. it is produced when wood or fossil fuels are burned.
17
Name
Class
Date

______ 9. Which of the following is not a pollutant caused by burning fossil fuels?
a. carbon monoxide
c. nitrogen oxides
b. nitrate ions
d. volatile organic compounds
______10. Nonpolluting sources of energy include
a. coal, oil, and natural gas.
c. alcohol and acetylene.
b. nuclear energy.
d. wind, solar, and hydroelectric
power.
the statement.
11. Groups of animals and plants that are adapted to similar conditions form a
____________________________.
12. There can be several ____________________________ in an ecosystem.
13. When fossil fuels are burned they form water and ____________________ and
release energy.
14. ____________________ energy is drawn from heated water within Earths crust.
15. Pollutants such as smoke, dust, and acid droplets are called
____________________.
16. An increase in Earths temperature due to an increase in greenhouse gases is
called ____________________________.
17. ____________________ comes from petroleum refineries, smelters, paper
mills, and coal-burning power plants.
18. Trash and garbage can be disposed of legally at a ____________________.
19. The pesticide ____________________ was banned in the United States due to
its harmful effects on the environment.
20. Explain the difference between a short-term and long-term change in the
ecosystem.
18
TEACHER RESOURCE PAGE
Chapter Tests
20. Scientists often need to express data
using numbers that are very small or

very large. Scientific notation, which
eliminates a lot of zeroes and
expresses numbers in terms of powers
of 10, helps them do this effectively.
TEST A (5 POINTS PER ITEM)

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
d
c
b
d
c
c
d
a
d
b
b
a
c
model
variable
derived units
9.234 104
5.678 1010
four
Suppose you were measuring a room.
You might measure the length at
3.452389 m. This is a very precise
measurement. However, if you wrote
down the numbers incorrectly and the
actual length was 4.452389, your measurement would not be accurate.
Standardized Test Practice

1.
2.
3.
4.
A
A
D
D
TEST B (5 POINTS PER ITEM)

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
b
c
d
a
b
b
d
d
a
precise
technology
critical
telescopes
hypothesis
base units
giganitrogen
4.65 107
five
125
Quizzes
REAL WORLD APPLICATIONS:

CHOOSING MATERIALS FOR
BICYCLE FRAMES
SECTION: WHAT IS MATTER?

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1. Weight, cost, resistance to rust,
strength, elasticity
2. Plastic is light and inexpensive, but it
is not strong enough to hold up well in

crashes, and as a result is not a good
choice for a bicycle frame.
3. If a material is not strong enough or
too brittle, crashes would be much
more dangerous for the rider.
4. Titanium would be a better choice,
because speed is probably more
important than cost for one of the
countrys top racers.
b
d
c
d
b
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
b
b
d
a
c
SECTION: PROPERTIES OF MATTER

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
c
a
c
b
b
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
a
b
d
c
b
SECTION: CHANGES OF MATTER

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

GLASSMAKING
1. Sodium carbonate lowers the melting
point of silicon dioxide. This means it

is easier to melt silicon dioxide and
thus less expensive to make glass.
2. Calcium carbonate makes glass insoluble in water. This makes it possible to
make objects that carry water, such as
pitchers and vases, out of glass.
3. Adding substances can change the
color of glass, or make the glass heatresistant.
a
a
d
a
c
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
c
d
d
d
b
Chapter Tests
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
20.
SCIENCE AND THE CONSUMER: IS

DRY CLEANING DANGEROUS?
1. dizziness, headaches, skin irritation,
loss of consciousness, liver and kidney

damage, cancer
2. Advantage no hazardous chemicals
Disadvantage does not work with all
fabrics
3. No. The article states the hazards of
exposure to dry cleaning chemicals
without suitable precautions being
taken.
b
11. c
b
12. b
d
13. properties
c
14. oxygen
c
15. Cl2
c
16. miscible
d
17. reactive
b
18. less dense
d
19. physical
b
Density affects how heavy something is,
as well as whether something floats in a
particular liquid. Boats float because the
air inside the vessel is less dense than
the water the vessel sits in. Cream can
be separated from milk because it is less
dense than milk and floats to the top.
Pretest
1.
2.
3.
7.
c
d
b
a. 5 103 g
c. 6.7 102 L
e. 8.9 104 m
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
4. a
5. a
6. a
b. 2.34 104 s
d. 3.2 102 C
a
c
b
b
a
b
d
b
a
elements
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
physical
atom
two
heterogeneous
density
composition
chemical
mixture
reactive
80
Matter

20. In a chemical change, substances react
together to produce new substances.

For example, rusting of iron is a chemical change. Oxygen in the air reacts
with the iron to produce iron oxide, a
new substance.

1. D
2. B
3. A
4. C
81
Matter
SCIENCE AND THE CONSUMER:

REFRIGERANTS
3. a
4. a
5. d
1. The body is cooled by using excess
body heat to evaporate perspiration

from the skin.
2. When a refrigerant concenses in the
coils of a refrigerator, heat is given off
into the air around the refrigerator.
3. Evaporation requires an input of heat.
When perspiration evaporates, heat is
removed from skin. When a refrigerant
in a refrigerator evaporates, heat is
removed from the inside of the refigerator.
Chapter Tests
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
20.
Pretest
1. a
2. All matter is made up of particles that
3.
4.
5.
6.
are always in motion. The higher the

temperature, the faster the particles
move. Heavier particles move slower
than lighter particles.
Freezing, melting, evaporating, condensing, sublimating
d
Viscosity is the resistance of a fluid to
flow.
Boyles law relates the pressure of a
gas to its volume. Charless law relates
the temperature of a gas to its volume.
Gay-Lussacs law relates gas pressure
to temperature.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
20.
SECTION: MATTER AND ENERGY

d
c
b
d
b
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
d
b
d
a
c
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
a
d
a
b
b
SECTION: FLUIDS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
d
b
a
a
b
b
11. kinetic
c
12. upward
b
13. greater than
d
14. pressure
c
15. increases
a
16. fill
c
17. volume
d
18. pressure
d
19. increases
a
When matter changes state, the number of particles stays the same so mass
is conserved. Changes of state result
in equal amounts of energy released or
absorbed during opposing processes.
When water changes to steam, the
energy absorbed is the same as the
energy released when steam condenses.
Quizzes
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
8. d
9. a
10. b
d
11. temperature/size
a
12. cannot
d
13. solid
b
14. plasma
b
15. weight
c
16. equally
a
17. temperature
d
18. temperature
b
19. decreases
c
Gases have no definite shape or volume and expand to completely fill
their container, gases are compressible, gases have a low density, gases
have more empty space between their
particles than solids and liquids.

1. C
2. B
3. A
4. B
SECTION: BEHAVIOR OF GASES

1. b
2. d
6. c
7. a
80
States of Matter
Chapter Tests

1. d
2. c
1. c
3. c
2. b
4. c
3. a
5. b
4. a
6. b
5. d
7. c
6. c
8. c
7. c
9. a
8. a
10. b
9. b
11. a
10. d
12. d
11. b
13. d
12. c
14. b
13. d
15. Democritus
14. c
16. nucleus
15. divided
17. electron
16. positive
18. periodic law
17. planets
19. ion/cation
18. protons
20. 20
19. reactive
21. alkali metals
20. number; masses
22. halogens
21. transition metals
23. Avogadros constant
22. 18
24. 0.500
23. mole
25. Atoms have an equal number of pro-
24. 419
tons, which each have a charge of 1,

and electrons, which each have a
charge of 1. The positive and negative charges cancel.
25. Bohrs model views the atom as a
miniature solar system, with electrons

representing planets and the nucleus
representing the sun. According to this
model, the position of each electron
can be accurately determined at any
point in time. In the modern model,
the orbiting electrons are like the
blades of a rotating fan, which move
so quickly that their position at any
given time cannot be determined with
certainty.

1.
2.
3.
4.
D
B
C
A
101
SECTION: ORGANIC AND

BIOCHEMICAL COMPOUNDS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11. nucleus; electron

12.
O
d
b
a
c
d
b
c
b
c
a
H
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Chapter Tests
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
a
a
a
b
d
d
a
d
d
d
c
chemical formula
sodium ions; chloride ions
structural
metal
metallic; electrons
cadmium(II) bromide
empirical
Polymers
Ionic bonds are formed by the transfer
of electrons between two atoms.
Covalent bonds are formed when
atoms share electrons. Metallic bonds
form between metal atoms.
share
covalent; pairs
ions
chromium(III) hydroxide
Ni2O3
molecular
protein
Quartz, silicon dioxide, is made of silicon and oxygen atoms bonded
together in a strong network structure,
making it rigid and giving it a high
boiling and a high melting point.
Similarly, the ions in solid ionic compounds, such as sodium chloride, are
locked into rigid structures, causing
their melting points to be very high.

1.
2.
3.
4.
A
C
D
B

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
b
d
b
c
b
c
b
d
d
a
78
Chapter Tests
4. b
5. c

1. c
2. a
6. b
3. a
8. a
4. d
9. d
5. c
10. d
6. c
11. a
7. b
12. c
8. b
13. c
9. c
14. light; heat
10. c
15. rearranged
11. b
16. endothermic
12. b
17. oxygen
13. b
18. electrons; redox OR reduction/oxida-
7. c
tion
14. chemical reaction
19. 2; 2
15. atoms
16. exothermic
20. 2
17. decomposition
21. 1 : 2 : 1 : 1
18. reduced
22. increase; increase or decrease;
decrease
19. 2
20. 8; 4
23. forward; reverse
21. 1 : 1 : 2
24. absorbs energy as heat
22. increase; increase or decrease;
25. Because the mole ratio is derived from
the balanced equation, if a scientist

knows the equation that describes a
reaction, and the atomic weights of
the substances involved, he or she can
determine the amount of each substance needed.
decrease
23. time; rate
24. less gas
25. The subscripts represent the number
of atoms of each element in each

chemical formula if you change the
subscripts, you change the compounds
the formulas are describing.

1.
2.
3.
4.

1. d
2. b
D
A
C
B
3. a
93
Chemical Reactions
Chapter Tests
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
d
b
d
a
c
c
a
d
d
d
heterogeneous
homogeneous
immiscible liquid
diffuse
dissolve
polar
more, one another
less
solubility
increases
water
nonpolar
0.652 M
0.325 mol CaCl2
A suspension is a mixture of largesized particles in a liquid. The particles
quickly settle out when the mixture is
allowed to stand. An emulsion is a
mixture of two or more liquids evenly
spread throughout one another. They
do not separate.
a
b
d
b
d
a
c
a
colloid
smaller
evaporation; boiling
solubility
surface area
universal solvent
greater
lowers
more
nonpolar
Tyndall effect
solution
0.373 M
0.48 mol HCl
Miscible liquids are usually separated
by distillation, a process that depends
on the two liquids having different
boiling points. If the boiling points of
the liquids are similar, distillation cannot separate them.

1.
2.
3.
4.
C
D
B
D
1. c
2. c
75
Solutions
Chapter Tests
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
b
d
d
a
c
b
b
c
c
d
base
10
blue, red
ionic compounds
base
completely
neutralizes
tenderize
neutralization
water, oil (Accept also: oil, water)
equivalence point
electrolyte
carboxylate group
H3O Cl K OH : K Cl
2H2O
25. Solutions of strong acids and strong
bases form as many hydronium ions
and hydroxide ions as possible. The
large number of ions in solution readily conduct electricity, making strong
acids and bases also strong electrolytes. Solutions of weak acids and
weak bases do not produce many
hydronium and hydroxide ions, so
there are few ions in solution to conduct electricity. These solutions are
weak electrolytes.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
1,000
water
water
Antacids
ionizes to form hydroxide ions, dissociates into hydroxide ions and metal
ions
hydronium ions
spectator ions
7
soap scum
hydrocarbon chain
viruses and bacteria
Indicators
H3O NO3 Na OH : Na
NO3 2H2O
The final pH of a solution depends
on the amounts of acids and bases
that are combined and also whether
the acid and base are strong or weak.
If a strong acid reacts with an equal
amount of a weak base, the neutralization reaction will produce an
acidic solution. If a strong base
reacts with an equal amount of weak
acid, the resulting solution will be
basic.

1.
2.
3.
4.
D
C
A
C

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
a
d
a
b
a
d
a
c
d
b
hydronium
86

6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
a
c
b
d
a
Chapter Tests
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
b
a
a
c
a
b
b
b
a
d
b
d
c
the alpha particle
a beta particle
the half-life
neutrons
a strong nuclear force
fission
stars
mass
electrons
half-life
uranium-235
Neutrons, which are not charged,
decay to form a proton and an electron. The electron, which is negatively
charged, is then ejected from the
nucleus as a beta particle.
2
one-eighth
strong nuclear force
the attractions
E mc2
fusion
energy
background radiation
less
hydrogen
According to the theory of relativity,
energy (E) is equal to mass (m) times
the speed of light squared (c2 ). The
value of c is constant and is very large
(3.0 108 m/s), and when it is squared
it becomes 9.0 1016 J. This huge
number times even a small mass will
result in a large amount of energy.

1.
2.
3.
4.
D
D
A
A

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
d
c
c
a
d
b
d
c
a
b
c
b
c
alpha particles, helium nuclei
76
Nuclear Changes
Quizzes

DESIGNING RACE CARS
SECTION: MEASURING MOTION
1. smoothness of the surfaces, shape

2. A newly polished car will move more
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
easily because its surface will produce

less friction with particles in air.
3. A race car shaped like a rocket will
move faster because it will encounter
less air resistance than a car shaped
like a box.

HIKING IN YELLOWSTONE
1. (2.5 mi)(1 h/3 mi) (350 ft)(1 h/2000 ft)
0.83 h 0.175 h 1.0 h
2. (5.5 mi)(1 h/3 mi)(3400 ft)(1 h/2000 ft)
1.8 h 1.7 h 3.5 h
3. (2 mi)(1 h/3 mi)(1300 ft)(1 h/2000 ft)
0.66 hr 0.65 hr 1.3 h
b
a
a
b
d
c
d
c
a
b
SECTION: ACCELERATION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Pretest
1. c
2. a. acceleration
b. distance
c. speed
d. distance
e. acceleration
f. speed
g. acceleration
h. distance
3. d
4. d
5. b
6. 53 mi/h
7. Answers may vary. Sample answer:
d
c
b
d
a
b
b
a
a
c
SECTION: MOTION AND FORCE

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Harmful friction occurs when engine

parts rub together and wear out.
Helpful friction occurs when sand is
sprinkled on icy roads to allow cars to
drive on them without sliding.
c
a
d
b
c
d
a
a
d
b
83
Motion
Chapter Tests
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
b
b
a
c
a
d
b
d
c
a
average speed
direction
slope of the line
lubricant
displacement
dependent
slowing down
net force
greater
kinetic friction
11 s
40 km/h (2 significant figures)
2.0 m/s2
26 m/s
The car is traveling in a circular
motion and is therefore constantly
changing direction. An object accelerates when it changes speed, direction,
or both.
d
d
a
c
c
constant
velocity
reference point or frame of reference
instantaneous speed
constant
straight
static
close-fitting clothing
force
v
15 m/s north
9m
2.77 m/s2
0.472 s
Both involve a change over time.
However, velocity is the rate of change
of the objects displacement, whereas
acceleration is the rate of change of
the objects velocity.

1.
2.
3.
4.
C
D
A
A

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
c
d
d
c
b
84
Motion
Chapter Tests

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
a
b
a
c
c
a
b
d
c
b
toward the center of Earth
the maximum velocity reached by a
falling object, occurring when resistance of the medium is equal to the
force due to gravity.
equal, opposite
forward
seat belt or air bag
increases
projectile
first law
the same
a=Fm
c
d
d
c
c
c
d
a
d
d
mass, acceleration
only the force of gravity
9.8 m/s2
terminal
unbalanced force
a seat belt
forward, free fall
moving
smaller
1.2 102 m/s2

1.
2.
3.
4.
C
D
A
A
91
Forces
Quizzes
25. When energy seems to disappear, it is
actually being converted into other

forms of energy that cannot be
observed directly such as chemical,
nuclear, potential, or kinetic energy.
SECTION: WORK, POWER, AND

MACHINES
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
b
d
a
b
b
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
d
d
c
a
a
SECTION: SIMPLE MACHINES

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
c
b
c
d
a
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
b
c
b
d
a
SECTION: WHAT IS ENERGY?

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
d
d
c
a
b
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
b
d
c
a
b
SECTION: CONSERVATION OF
ENERGY
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a
d
c
b
c
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
a
b
c
b
d
Chapter Tests
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
c
8. c
d
9. b
d
10. b
d
11. c
a
12. d
c
13. c
c
power
time
watt
compound machine
KE = 1/2 mv2
potential energy
mechanical energy
chemical
nuclear fusion
open system
efficiency

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
c
8. d
b
9. b
d
10. c
b
11. a
c
12. b
d
13. b
c
work
mechanical advantage
fulcrum
screw
energy
kinetic energy
nonmechanical
open system
heat
photosynthesis
Work is defined as force times distance. If the rock has not moved any
distance, no work has been done.
25. When a pendulum swings back and
forth, it goes from having zero kinetic
energy at the top of its path to having
a maximum amount of kinetic energy
at the bottom of its path. At the same
time, it goes from having a maximum
amount of gravitational potential
energy to having a minimum amount
of gravitational potential energy.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. C
120
Work and Energy
Chapter Tests
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
a
a
b
a
b
a
c
b
b
F, smaller
T
F, more
T
F, removes
thermometer
heat
convection
radiation
conductor
Substances and objects are made of
particles that are bound together and
yet vibrate back and forth. When heat
energy is added, the movement of the
particles increases. The greater the
movement, the more the substance
will expand.
c
c
b
c
b
b
F, 32F
T
T
T
T
Temperature
Absolute zero
Conduction
electromagnetic waves
insulator
One way is by exerting a force against
friction, as you do when you rub your
hands together to keep them warm on
a cold day. If the force does nothing
but overcome friction, all of the work
done is converted into heat energy.

1.
2.
3.
4.
A
B
D
A

1. c
2. d
3. a
95
Chapter Tests
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
b
b
b
c
c
b
a
b
d
b
F, period
F, electromagnetic
T
F, amplitude
F, decreases
F, free
F, can
T
medium
transverse wave
trough
period
refraction
constructive interference
The interference of light waves causes
the swirls. Some waves bounce
directly off the outer surface of the
bubble, while some waves travel
through the bubble, then bounce off
the inner surface of the bubble. The
constructive and destructive interference of these different sets of light
waves produce different
colors.
T
T
F, destructive
F, refraction
mechanical wave
longitudinal wave
crest
amplitude
reflection
destructive interference
For a transverse wave, the motion of
the particles of the medium is perpendicular to the direction the energy of
the wave travels in. The amplitude
refers to the maximum distance the
particles move. In longitudinal waves,
the motion of the particles is in the
same direction as the direction the
energy of the wave moves in. This generates areas of rarefaction and compression, or areas of high particle
density and areas of low particle density. The amplitude of a longitudinal
wave generally refers to differences in
density or pressure.

1.
2.
3.
4.
D
C
C
D

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
a
d
a
b
c
c
c
b
c
c
T
F, dont require
T
T
77
Waves
Chapter Tests
5. b
6. d
7. b
1. b
8. d
2. a
9. d
3. a
10. d
4. d
11. increase
5. a
12. basilar membrane (or cochlea)
6. a
13. ultrasound
7. a
14. particles
8. d
15. electromagnetic spectrum
9. b
16. diffuse
10. a
17. virtual
11. amplitude (or intensity)
18. reflects; absorbs
12. natural frequency
19. the speed of light
13. hammer; anvil; stirrup
20. Answers will vary. X rays, with high
14. photons
energy and short wavelengths, are

used to produce images of the bodys
interior; infrared, with wavelengths
longer than red light, can be used to
keep food warm; microwaves, with
still longer wavelengths, can be used
for cooking and for communication;
radio waves, with the longest wavelengths, can be used in communication
and radar.
15. frequency; light wave

16.normal
17. real
18. electromagnetic spectrum
19. normal
20. Scientific theories are successful to
the extent that they explain observations. Some observations are best
explained by a wave model of light.
Other observations are best explained
by a particle model. Therefore, both
models are currently accepted as correct and light is considered to have a
dual nature.

1.
2.
3.
4.
C
B
D
A
1. a
2. c
3. c
4. c
77
Sound and Light
Chapter Tests

1. a
2. c
1. c
3. c
2. a
4. d
3. c
5. c
4. b
6. b
5. a
7. a
6. c
8. b
7. b
9. b
8. a
10. a
9. b
11. d
10. c
12. c
11. a
13. c
12. d
14. When a negatively charged object
13. c
touches a neutral object, electrons can

flow into the neutral object, making it
negatively charged. When a positively
charged object touches a neutral
object, electrons can flow into the positively charged object, causing the neutral object to become positively
charged.
14. When two materials are rubbed
together, electrons can be transferred

from one material to the other. The
material that gets the electrons
becomes negatively charged and the
material that loses the electrons
becomes positively charged.
15. Because the positive charge is twice
15. The electric force between two
as great as the negative charge.
objects is inversely proportional to the

square of the distance between the
objects. This means if the distance
doubles, the force decreases by a factor of 4.
16. The electrical potential energy of a
charge is determined by the position

of the charge relative to the position
of all other electrical charges.
17. 1.7 A
16. 18 V
18. Only the first light bulb will light. The
17. Resistance is internal friction that
other two bulbs are beyond the open

switch and, therefore, will not receive
current.
slows the movement of electrons in a

conductor.
18. No, because the switch is open, so
19. series circuit
there is not a closed-loop path for the

electrons to follow.
20. Parallel circuits; otherwise everything
would have to be on for anything to be

on. There may be series circuits within
the system, however. For example,
lights that can be operated from
switches at either entrance to a room
or wall sockets that work only when a
switch is in the on position use series
circuits.
19. parallel circuit

20. You have been negatively charged by
friction because you have picked up

electrons from the rug. As you reach
for a metal object, electrons will move
from your body to the object because
of their difference in electrical potential energy, and you will experience a
mild shock.
88
Electricity

15. A galvanometer measures the amount
due to the resistance in the light bulb.

The battery increases the energy of
the charges as they move through the
battery.
of current in a circuit.
16. A generator is a device that uses elec-
tromagnetic induction to convert

mechanical energy to electrical energy.
17. Answers may vary, but should include
at least three of the following: burning
coal, nuclear fission, wind, hot water
from geysers (geothermal), solar
power.
18. Electric and magnetic fields are oriented at 90 degrees relative to each
other in an electromagnetic wave.
19. The voltage across the secondary coil
of a transformer is proportional to the
number of loops it has.
Quizzes
SECTION: MAGNETS AND MAGNETIC
FIELDS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
d
a
c
b
d
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
b
a
b
d
a
SECTION: MAGNETISM FROM

ELECTRIC CURRENTS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
c
a
a
b
d
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
a
b
d
a
b
20. Earths magnetic poles are not in the
same positions as the geographic

poles. Also, Earths magnetic field
points from the geographic South Pole
to the geographic North Pole. The
magnetic pole in Antarctica is actually
a magnetic N pole and the magnetic
pole in northern Canada is actually a
magnetic S pole.
SECTION: ELECTRIC CURRENTS

FROM MAGNETISM
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
b
c
b
a
d
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
e
a
f
b
c
Chapter Tests
1. c
7. c
2. a
8. b
3. a
9. d
4. c
10. c
5. a
11. b
1. a
7. c
2. a
8. b
3. b
9. c
4. d
10. d
5. c
11. a
6. d
12. d
13. The magnets will attract each other.

14. A compass aligns with Earths mag-
netic field just as iron filings align with

the field of a bar magnet. The N pole
of the compass points toward Earths
Geographic North Pole.
6. b
12. The magnets will repel each other.
15. Increasing the current and inserting an
13. The north (N) pole would point
iron core will both increase the magnetic field strength of a solenoid.
toward the Geographic North Pole of

Earth.
16. The domains are randomly oriented in
14. In the material that a bar magnet is
an unmagnetized piece of iron.
composed of, the magnetic fields of

the electrons do not all cancel, so each
atom has its own magnetic field. The
domains in the bar magnet are aligned
more in a common direction.
17. Generators convert mechanical energy
to electrical energy, whereas electric

motors convert electric energy to
mechanical energy.
69
Magnetism
Chapter Tests
14. Signals are signs that represent infor-
mation such as a command, a direction, or a warning. Codes assign

meaning to the signals.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
a
8. b
d
9. d
d
10. a
c
11. c
d
12. a
d
13. b
c
input
frequency
electromagnetic waves
A transducer converts a signal from
one form to another.
An optical fiber is a hair-thin transparent strand of glass or plastic.
For the microwave signals to be sent
from one tower to the next, each
tower must be almost visible from the
top of the other.
The satellite footprint is the maximum
area of land covered by a transmitting
antenna of a communications satellite.
The shadow mask is a screen with
holes that directs the beam of color,
causing it to strike only the phosphor
dot that glows the correct color.
An AND gate closes the circuit and
allows current to pass only when both
inputs are in the on position.
A bit is represented as 1 or 0. A byte is
a group of eight bits.
15. Optical fibers are lighter and smaller
than metal wires. Even so, optical

fibers can carry significantly more
conversations than metal wires can.
16. A tower picks up a signal transmitted
by another tower, amplifies it, and

retransmits the signal to the next
tower.
17. Solar power is used to generate elec-
tricity in satellites.
18. A carrier is a continuous wave that
can be modulated to send a signal.

19. FM stations rely on a line-of-sight
transmission. The lower frequencies of

AM stations are not limited to line-ofsight transmission but can follow the
curvature of the Earth. Radio waves at
AM frequencies can also be reflected
by charged particles in the upper
atmosphere to locations hundreds or
even thousands of miles away.
20. red, blue, and green
21. input, output, processing, and storage
22. A logic gate is an electronic switch
that opens and closes circuits within

the computer.
23. It is for long-term storage of operating
instructions.
24. Software provides instructions to
24. The transistors on a memory chip
carry out desired tasks.
function as two-position switches,

allowing the computer to operate as a
binary machine.
25. A laser beam shines on the disc. The
detector receives light reflected from

the smooth areas of the disc. The
reflected light represents the music
written as a binary code on the disc.
This digital information is converted
into sound through the speaker.
25. The sound waves move into a micro-
phone, where they are converted to an

electric signal. The signal travels
through a wire in the form of an electric current. In the speaker, the electric signal is amplified and converted
back into sound.

1. b
2. c
8. d
9. d
3. b
10. d
4. a
11. b
5. d
12. c
6. c
13. a

1. B
2. C
3. B
4. A
7. a
80
REAL WORLD APPLICATIONS: DEEP

SPACE 1
SECTION: THE INNER AND OUTER

PLANETS
1. An asteroid is a chunk of rock. A
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
comet is a mixture of ice and dust.

2. Braille was shaped like a dumbbell 1.3
miles long by 0.6 miles wide.

Measurements showed that in about
4000 years its orbit would take it
across the orbit of Earth. The comet
Borrelly is the darkest object in the
solar system. The 5 mile by 2.5 mile
potato-shaped nucleus of the comet
only reflects 3% of the sunlight that
strikes it.
SECTION: FORMATION OF THE

SOLAR SYSTEM
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

WEATHER SATELLITES
1. It keeps the satellite stationary over a
given place on Earth.

2. More satellites than 3 would be
needed to monitor the entire surface

of earth.
Pretest
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
c
c
b
b
a
phases
9
thick gaseous atmospherees, many
satellites, and rings.
9. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune,
Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury, Pluto.
b
b
b
c
b
d
c
d
a
c
Chapter Tests
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
d
a
a
c
c
b
c
b
b
c
satellites, rings
Kepler
4.6 billion
geocentric
moon
Earths landscape and the sun.
Rocks in space that orbit around the
sun between the orbits of Mars and
Jupiter.
18. Earths hydrosphere and atmosphere
help maintain the conditions necessary to sustain life.
Quizzes
SECTION: SUN, EARTH, AND MOON
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
i
d
f
j
c
g
b
a
h
e
a
d
c
c
b
d
d
a
d
c
61
The Solar System

19. A large body struck the young Earth,
ejecting material along with parts of

space object formed moon.
20. The planets near the sun lost their
lighter material, leaving behind their
lighter material. The colder gas and
dust in the outer part of the disc
joined easily to become gas giants.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
c
c
d
c
d
b
d
c
c
d
Copernicus
a planet
Earth
Pluto
Nebular model
beyond Neptune
heliocentric
The moon exerts a gravitational force
on Earth, pulling on the land and
water nearest the moon.
19. The nebular model describes how the
solar system formed from condensing
gas and dust.
20. The current model of the formation of
the moon holds that the moon was
formed from a collision between early
Earth and a large object. Previous
models hold that Earths gravity captured the moon, and that the moon
and Earth were formed at the same
time.

1.
2.
3.
4.
B
D
B
D
62
The Solar System
SECTION: THE MILKY WAY AND

OTHER GALAXIES
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
15. Each color is associated with a spe-
a
d
c
a
c
b
c
a
d
b
16.
17.
18.
SECTION: ORIGINS OF THE

UNIVERSE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
19.
f
d
h
c
j
a
i
b
e
g
20.
Chapter Tests
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
a
b
a
d
d
d
c
b
a
b
d
A light-year is the distance that light
can travel in one year.
13. Whereas both spiral and elliptical
galaxies have well-defined shapes and
structures, irregular galaxies do not.
14. If the beginning of the universe had
happened as outlined in the big bang
theory, then remnants of the explosion
should exist as radiation at microwave
wavelengths. Scientists believe that
they found these remnants when they
detected cosmic background radiation in 1965.
cific temperature. Therefore, the surface temperature of a star can be

estimated using color.
The telescope is the primary instrument used to gather information about
stars.
Nuclear fusion occurs under conditions of extremely high temperature
and pressure.
A supernova is a violent explosion that
occurs when the core of a very large
star has turned completely to iron.
The models of the universes eventual
fate are directly dependent on the universes mass.
Whether a star forms a white dwarf or
a black hole depends on the mass of
the dying star. Once the supply of
hydrogen atoms in their cores has
been converted to helium, small and
medium-sized stars will convert
helium into carbon and oxygen. A carbon/oxygen core leads to the eventual
production of a white dwarf. However,
due to high core temperatures in large
stars, they can produce elements as
heavy as iron. When the core is
entirely iron, the star explodes in a
supernova. If the mass of the stars
core after a supernova is greater than
three times that of the sun, the core
collapses, forming a black hole.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
b
c
c
a
a
b
b
a
b
d
The universe is defined as everything
physical that exists in space and time,
including all matter and energy that
exists, now, in the past, and in the
future.
12. Elliptical galaxies are egg-shaped
galaxies without spiral arms or interstellar gas and dust. They usually con-
51
The Universe
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
tain many older stars, so they often

have a reddish tint.
The big bang theory is a scientific theory describing the origin of the universe in a gigantic explosion sometime
between 10 and 20 billion years ago.
Two defining properties used to characterize a star are color and brightness. Also, composition, and the fact
that stars are driven by nuclear fusion
reactions.
We gather information about stars
using the light that is produced by
each star.
A fusion reaction is a nuclear reaction
in which two lighter nuclei combine to
form a heavier nucleus.
A planetary nebula is a glowing cloud
or ring of gas produced as a dying
average-sized star expands outward
from its core.
Old maps of the universe show the
sun, moon, and planets orbiting Earth
in perfect circles.
The three models are all based on different possibilities for the universes
mass.
A star begins to form when a cloud of
gas and dust collapses inward as a
result of gravitational forces. When the
temperature at the center of the cloud
reaches approximately 15 million
Kelvins, electrons are stripped from
hydrogen atoms, leaving positively
charged protons. At these very high
temperatures, protons can fuse to
form helium atoms. Once nuclear
fusion begins in the cloud, a star is
born.

1.
2.
3.
4.
A
C
B
A
52
The Universe
Chapter Tests
Because sedimentary rock is formed

as the result of compaction and
cementation of preexisting rock particles, sedimentary rock isnt as rigid
and doesnt have the same strength as
igneous rock. As magma cools and
solidifies, the materials crystallize,
forming igneous rock. Igneous rock
forms a stronger, more stable base on
which to build. The mineral cement
that holds rock particles together in
sedimentary rock can be shaken loose
and broken in an earthquake.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
b
b
d
a
a
c
b
c
c
d
d
d
c
d
c
c
b
d
The high temperature of the interior of
Earth would normally be a liquid, however, due to very high pressure, particles that would normally be in a liquid
state are forced into a solid state.
The different orientations of magnetic
bands of oceanic rock is a measurement of relative age. The closer to the
oceanic ridge the rocks are, the
younger they appear.
The focus of an earthquake is the location within the lithosphere where seismic energy is released when slippage
first occurs along a fault line. The epicenter is the location on Earths surface directly above the focus.
The Mid-Atlantic Ridge represents a
zone of plate divergence. As the plates
move away from each other, magma
rises up to fill the gap, creating the
volcanic mountains that form the
ridges around a central rift valley.
Leaching is the process by which
water dissolves minerals, then carries
them to a new location.
Erosion is the removal and transportation of weathered and nonweathered
materials by running water, wind,
waves, ice, underground water, and
gravity.
The rock with the most solid structure
will be the best choice for construction in an earthquake-prone area.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
d
a
d
b
b
a
b
a
c
a
b
b
a
a
c
c
b
b
The coasts of several continents
looked as if they would fit together,
and similar animal fossils found on
separate continents.
Subduction occurs at convergent plate
boundaries. During subduction, denser
plates are forced down into the mantle
as less dense crust rides over the top.
Rocks moving past each other at plate
boundaries.
As the Pacific plate is subducted
under surrounding plates, the Pacific
plate is forced into the mantle, where
the rock melts and rises to the surface,
creating volcanoes.
The process of forming metamorphic
rock destroys all fossils originally
inside the rock.
Chemical weathering is the breakdown of rocks by changing their
chemical compositions.
81
Planet Earth

25. The formation of the Himalayas is
caused by the tectonic collision in a

zone of convergence between the
plate containing Asia and the plate
containing India. The rocks in the
region of the collision are made up of
relatively low density continental
crust. Because of their relatively low
density, as India continues to push
into Asia, the rocks continue to pile
up, causing the mountains in the
region to increase in height.

1.
2.
3.
4.
B
B
A
C
82
Planet Earth

3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
rise if average temperatures increased.

The height of the tropopause would
fall if average temperatures decreased.
INTEGRATING TECHNOLOGY:
DOPPLER WEATHER RADAR
1. Radar works by sending radio waves
out from an antenna. When the waves

hit an object, they are deflected back
to a receiving antenna, where they are
amplified and transformed into an
image that illustrates the location of
the object.
2. The Doppler effect is an apparent
change in the frequency of a wave
when the source of the wave is moving in relation to the observer.
3. Doppler weather radar is better for
forecasting because it gives forecasters information about the velocity and
direction of winds. This information
can help forecasters recognize dangerous weather phenomena.
a
a
c
d
d
b
c
a
SECTION: WATER AND WIND

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
b
a
c
a
c
a
b
d
d
a
SECTION: WEATHER AND CLIMATE

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

UNDERSTANDING THUNDERSTORMS
1. 49 000F
2. Because light travels faster than
sound, you see lightning before you

hear thunder.
3. The lightning is about 1.6 kilometers,
or 1 mile, away.
a
c
c
d
b
d
b
c
d
a
Chapter Tests
Pretest

1. b
1. a. radiation b. convection
c. conduction d. convection
2. on top of the mountain because the
2. c
3. b
air is less dense at the top of the

mountain, more heat will be lost
3. d
4. The speed of light is much greater
than the speed of sound.
5. Oxygen gas and ozone are different
compounds, and different compounds
have different chemical and physical
properties.
4. c
5. a
6. d
7. a
8. a
9. c
10. c
11. b
Quizzes
12. a
SECTION: CHARACTERISTICS OF THE

ATMOSPHERE
13. c
14. a
1. d
2. b
15. d
69
The Atmosphere

16. nitrogen and oxygen.
12. b
17. O3
13. b
18. funnel clouds
14. d
19. A temperature inversion is produced
15. c
when cool air is trapped by warm air

concentrating pollutants at ground
level.
16. The troposphere gets cooler with
increasing altitude.
17. The ozone layer is located within the
20. During the process of outgassing, vol-
stratosphere. This layer acts like a

blanket that absorbs incoming solar
radiation.
canic eruptions emitted the gases that

founded the primitive atmosphere.
21. The greenhouse effect is caused by
18. bacteria
Earths radiated heat that is absorbed

by CO2 and H2O in the atmosphere,
prohibiting the heat from radiating
back out into space.
19. Carbon dioxide-producing animals bal-
ance oxygen producing plants creating

the carbon dioxide-oxygen cycle that
keeps the gases from these sources in
equilibrium.
22. The three main types of clouds are cir-
rus, stratus, and cumulus.
20. An increase in global temperatures as
23. The air behind a warm front is warm
a result of the greenhouse effect is

called global warming. As more and
more heat becomes trapped within our
atmosphere, the overall temperature
of Earth is expected to increase.
and moist.
24. Earth is closest to the sun during the
winter season in the Northern

Hemisphere.
25. Tornadoes are high-speed rotating
21. cumulonimbus
winds that extend downward from

thunderclouds. Tornadoes form along
the front between air masses with distinctly different temperature and moisture characteristics on either side of
the front. Cold, dry air is very dense
and sinks. As cold dry air encounters
warm, moist, rising air from the south,
the warm air is forced to rise faster. As
the warm air rises, it may begin to
spin, potentially becoming a strong,
rotating thunderstorm that can spawn
a tornado.
22. The air behind a cold front is cool and
dry.
23. Tornadoes are high-speed, rotating
winds that extend downward from

thunderclouds.
24. Earths tilt affects the seasons.
25. Energy from the sun causes liquid
water to escape into the atmosphere

through evaporation forming water
vapor. As temperature decreases with
increasing altitude, the air cools and
condenses, forming water droplets of
liquid water. With the addition of more
water vapor and under the right
atmospheric conditions, droplets
become larger, eventually becoming
too heavy to remain suspended in the
air, and they fall as precipitation.

1. d
2. b
3. a
4. a
5. d
6. c
1.
2.
3.
4.
7. c
8. b
9. d
C
A
A
D
10. a
11. b
70
The Atmosphere
Quizzes
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
SECTION: ORGANISMS AND THEIR

ENVIRONMENT
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
d
c
c
a
d
b
e
a
d
c
SECTION: ENERGY AND RESOURCES

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
c
d
a
c
b
d
a
d
d
c

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
SECTION: POLLUTION AND

RECYCLING
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
c
d
a
a
b
c
d
c
a
b
Chapter Tests
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
b
balanced
Hydroelectric power
electricity
Nuclear energy
volatile organic compounds
Acid rain
Eutrophication
recycling
succession
A community is all the plants and animals living in one area within an
ecosystem. A population is the group
of identical organisms living in a community.
c
a
c
d
c
a
d
b
b
b
d
c
a
d
a
d
c
b
d
community
communities
carbon dioxide
Geothermal energy
particulate matter
global warming
Sulfur dioxide
landfill
DDT
Short-term changes are usually easily
reversed. Examples are the migration
of birds and hibernation of animals
during winter. Volcanic eruptions and
forest fires produce long-term
changes.

1.
2.
3.
4.
B
C
D
C
69

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Physical Science

Chapter Tests with Answer Keys

______ 1. The main branches of natural science are

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Holt Science Spectrum

Chapter Test continued

______ 6. Maria is 123 centimeters tall. Her height in meters is

14. A mathematical representation of an object or event is a

Holt Science Spectrum

Chapter Test continued

as volume, speed, and pressure, are called ____________________

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Holt Science Spectrum

______ 1. The two main branches of science are

Holt Science Spectrum

Chapter Test continued

10. A ____________________ measurement is one that is as exact as possible.

Gases in the Atmosphere

17. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is ____________________.

20. Explain why scientists use scientific notation.

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Holt Science Spectrum

______ 1. Matter can be defined as anything that

Holt Science Spectrum

Chapter Test continued

13. A molecule is the smallest unit of a substance that retains the

_________________________ of that substance.

(Cl) atoms, is _________________________.

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Holt Science Spectrum

Holt Science Spectrum

Chapter Test continued

10. Aluminum, oxygen, and carbon are examples of _________________________.

mixture because the substances do not dissolve.

_________________________ change has occurred.

they are not chemically combined.

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Holt Science Spectrum

______ 1. Temperature is a measure of the average ____________ energy of the

c. has no definite volume.

______ 9. Charless law relates the volume of a gas to its

Holt Science Spectrum

Chapter Test continued

11. The ____________________ theory of matter states that matter is made of

particles whose speed is dependent on their temperature and size.

immersed in or floating on a fluid.

____________________ of equal intensity to all parts of the fluid.

when its speed _________________________.

20. How do the two conservation laws apply to changes of state?

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Holt Science Spectrum

______ 1. The kinetic theory helps to visualize the differences between

Holt Science Spectrum

Chapter Test continued

speed is dependent on their ____________________.

equal to the ____________________ of the volume of fluid that the object

fluid will be transmitted ____________________ to all parts of the fluid.

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Holt Science Spectrum

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Holt Science Spectrum

Atoms and the Periodic Table

1. Temperature is a measure of the average ______ energy of the

and at the same .