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1. (Apr 1997) If a voltage is equal to twice its original value, what is its
corresponding change in dB?
a)
3 dB
b)
9 dB
c)
10 dB
d)
6 dB
2. What is the power saving when the carrier is suppressed in a regular AM si
gnal modulated to an index of 100%?
a)
33.3%
b)
16.7%
c)
100%
d)
66.7 %
3. (Apr 1997) The most common unit of noise measurement in white noise testin
g..
a)
dBw
b)
NPR
c)
dBm
d)
dBk
4. Determine the equivalent noise bandwidth for a single RC low-pass filter i
f R=20 kohms and C= 0.1 uF
a)
250 Hz
b)
200 Hz
c)
125 Hz
d)
500 Hz
5. What portion of the TV signal is used to synchronize the video information
on the recording tape?
a)
the vertical deflection coil
b)
the vertical sync
c)
the horizontal sync
d)
the raster lines
6. What circuit is used to create vestigial transmission?
a)
Diplexer
b)
HPF
c)
LPF
d)
Duplexer
7. What do you call the combining circuit used in TV?
a)
Matrix
b)
Synthesizer
c)
Multiplier
d)
Adder
8. A decibel notation relative to a reference noise level.
a)
dBa
b)
dBpwp
c)
dBrn
d)
dBf
9. What is the major problem with a very-high-frequency oscillator?
a)
Low sensitivity
b)
Poor frequency stability
c)
No power stability
d)
Poor image rejection
10. What BC service must used directional antennas?
a)
International broadcasting
b)
TV BC
c)
FM BC
d)
AM BC
11. Where is telemetering used in BC stations?

a)
At the receiver
b)
Within the transmitter
c)
Remote position to transmitter
d)
At the studio
12. When do BC stations make equipment tests?
a)
experimental period
b)
night time
c)
day time
d)
Sunday only
13. What is the waveform of sweep voltage?
a)
Sawtooth
b)
Rectangular wave
c)
Spikes
d)
Square wave
14. (Nov 1997) Two resistor, 20 kohms and 50 kohms are at ambient temperature.
Calculate for a bandwidth equal to 100 kHz, the thermal noise voltage for the t
wo resistors connected in parallel.
a)
4278 uV
b)
0.4782 uV
c)
4.78 uV
d)
47.8 uV
15. What is the required accuracy of BC station meters?
a)
10%
b)
5%
c)
2%
d)
1%
16. It is the liberation of electrons by thermionic means, used as the princip
al source of electron emission in microwave vacuum tube devices.
a)
Edison Effect
b)
Miller Effect
c)
Bunching
d)
Secondary Effect
17. Keyed AGC is AGC that:
a)
Is used in color TV receivers so that the transmitted color has
no effect on the AGC
b)
Is used in TV receivers so that transmitted picture brightness d
oes not affect the AGC
c)
Works only with Morse code. Is activated when keyed by the trans
mitting signal
18. What percentage of the primary colors used in color TV are needed to produ
ce the brightest white?
a)
30% red, 59% green, 11% blue
b)
33% red, 33% green, 33% blue
c)
58% red, 20% green, 22% blue
d)
50% red, 28% green, 22% blue
19. Where is a color burst found?
a)
Front porch
b)
Synch pulse
c)
Blanking pulse
d)
Back porch
20. The velocity at which energy is transported by a wave of nearly constant f
requency.
a)
Phase velocity
b)
Average velocity
c)
Group velocity
d)
Linear velocity
21. It is the ___ that tunes the receiver to different stations.
a)
RF Amplifier
b)
IF Amplifier
c)
Detector

d)
Local Oscillator
22. (Nov 1997) The Tendency for the sound energy to spread.
a)
Refraction
b)
Rarefaction
c)
Reflection
d)
Diffraction
23. The value(s) associated with sine waves of voltages are:
a)
Instantaneous
b)
Average
c)
Maximum
d)
All of the above
24. (Nov 1996) ____ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a g
iven direction through a cross sectional area of 1 sq. m.. at right angle to the
direction.
a)
Pressure variation
b)
Loudness
c)
Sound intensity
d)
Sound pressure
25. (Apr 1997) Reference noise temperature.
a)
250C
b)
300C
c)
290 K
d)
700F
26. What is usually transmitted by facsimile?
a)
Bits
b)
Voice
c)
Pictures
d)
Video signal
27. What is the main difference between an AF amplifier and an RF amplifier?
a)
The selectivity
b)
The range of frequencies that they amplify
c)
The stability
d)
The amplification factor
28. In AM, increasing the amplitude of the modulating signal, the amount of po
wer in the information part of the transmitted signal is _____ relative to the p
ower used for the carrier.
a)
Decreased
b)
Constant
c)
Varying
d)
Increased
29. An unmodulated carrier is 300 VP-P. Calculate %m when its maximum p-p valu
e reaches 400 V.
a)
33.3%
b)
66.67%
c)
100%
d)
83.3%
30. What information must be contained in a TV signal?
a)
All of these
b)
Sound
c)
Synchronizing signal
d)
Video
31. In a TV picture tube, what is the purpose of the large tube voltage?
a)
create huge magnetic field
b)
produce good quality of picture
c)
repels electrons away from tube
d)
attracts electrons towards face of tube
32. How many ground radials should a ?/4 vertical AM broadcast antenna use?
a)
24 or more
20
b)
5
c)
3 10

d)
1
33. The power in FM _____ as the modulation index increases.
a)
Remain constant
b)
Increases
c)
Fluctuates
d)
Decreases
34. How many electron beans actually leave the electron gun of a single-gun co
lor CRT?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
1
35. The audible pitch refers to
a)
amplitude
b)
purity
c)
frequency
d)
harmonics
36. (Mar 1996) what is the purpose of a beat frequency oscillator (BFO)?
a)
Aids in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals
b)
Generates an output, whose frequency differs from that of the in
termediate frequency by 1 kHz
c)
Generates a signal, whose frequency is the same as that of the i
ntermediate frequency
d)
Generates a 1 kHz tone to Morse reception
37. It is the representation of a waveform in such a way that its amplitude is
displayed as a function of frequency.
a)
OTDR
b)
Frequency Domain
c)
Time Domain
d)
Wave Shape
38. In communications systems, demodulation ______.
a)
Is opposite of modulation
b)
Is performed at the transmitting station
c)
Rectifies modulated signal
d)
Removes sidebands
39. A major disadvantage of the vacuum tube is its need for a _____ to give en
ergy to the electrons.
a)
Voltage source
b)
Limiter
c)
Heater
d)
Line equalizer
40. (Nov 1998) What is the major cause of atmospheric or static noise?
a)
meteor showers
b)
sunspot
c)
thunderstorm
d)
airplanes
41. Which of the following is not a major component of a color TV receiver?
a)
color demodulator circuit
b)
sync analyzer
c)
color signal amplifier
d)
color reference oscillator
42. (Nov 1997) Operating method in which the transmission is made alternately
in each direction of a telecommunication channel.
a)
Semi-duplex operation
b)
Duplex operation
c)
Simplex operation
d)
Half duplex operation
43. (Nov 1996) What is the maximum color TV bandwidth?
a)
1.0 MHz
b)
0.5 MHz

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.
60%?

c)
1.6 MHz
d)
1.3 MHz
What is the process where some of the medium through which it impinges?
a)
reflection
b)
absorption
c)
diffraction
d)
refraction
What is the horizontal resolution of a broadcast TV receiver?
a)
30 lines
b)
339 lines
c)
500 lines
d)
428 lines
In what classes are SSB linear amplifiers operated?
a)
D
b)
B or C
c)
A or AB
d)
C or D
The power of thermal noise is ___ of resistance.
a)
dependent
b)
equal
c)
a function
d)
independent
What is the frequency swing of an FM broadcast transmitter when modulated

a)
60 kHz
b)
75 kHz
c)
45 kHz
d)
35 kHz
49. (Nov 1996) Which determines the number of sideband components in FM?
a)
Modulation frequency
b)
All of these
c)
Carrier frequency
d)
Modulation index
50. (Mar 1996) What is the main purpose of a communications system?
a)
For modulation
b)
None of these
c)
To provide an acceptable replica of the information at the desig
nation
d)
To have a frequency assignment
51. What section of a TV receiver determines the bandwidth and produces the si
gnal gain?
a)
RF Amplifier
b)
Local oscillator
c)
IF Amplifier
d)
Mixer
52. In a TV receiver, what is the horizontal sync frequency?
a)
525 Hz
b)
30 Hz
c)
60 Hz
d)
15,750 Hz
53. What is the greatest possible modulation value without distortion?
a)
50%
b)
100%
c)
99.9%
d)
66.67%
54. During 100% modulation, what percentage of the average output power is in
the sidebands?
a)
16.67%
b)
100%
c)
33.3%

d)
66.67%
55. What causes audio signals to be distorted in a receiver?
a)
Interference
b)
Harmonics
c)
Amplitude
d)
Gain
56. In 1877, _____ invented a method of making a permanent record of sound wit
h his invention of the phonograph.
a)
Bell
b)
Marconi
c)
Edison
d)
Morse
57. Any periodic function is represented by the sum of a number of sinusoidal
variations of different amplitudes, frequencies, and phases.
a)
Nyquist Theorem
b)
Fourier s Theorem
c)
Hartley s Theorem
d)
Huygen s Theorem
58. What is the seventh harmonic of 360 kHz?
a)
1260 kHz
b)
5040 kHz
c)
2520 kHz
d)
7000 kHz
59. (Nov 1998) Determine from the following radio frequency that falls under t
he Very High Frequency band of the radio spectrum.
a)
235.5 MHz
b)
144.50 GHz
c)
450.00 MHz
d)
345.00 MHz
60. Which of the following is not a type of log used in BC stations?
a)
Program
b)
Maintenance
c)
Operating
d)
Period
61. How many AM stations can be accommodated in a 150-kHz bandwidth if the hig
hest modulating frequency is 10 kHz?
a)
14
b)
10
c)
7
d)
15
62. What is the lowest number of sections required by communications receiver?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
4
d)
2
63. What radio frequencies are most affected by lightning or static waves?
a)
VHF
b)
VLF
c)
SHF
d)
UHF
64. This noise increases with bias current level and is inversely proportional
to the square of frequency.
a)
thermal noise
b)
burst noise
c)
flicker
d)
shot noise
65. (Apr 1998) Refers to an emission designation for facsimile.
a)
A3C and F3C
b)
R3E and A3E
c)
J3E and F4E

d)
A3J and A4E
66. The noise figure of a system is 12 and its input signal-to-noise ratio is
60. What is the output signal-to-noise ratio?
a)
0.2
b)
5
c)
72
d)
720
67. When diode is used as a detector in the simple AM radio, what happens to t
he waveform of the carrier?
a)
It is filtered.
b)
It is rectified.
c)
It is amplified.
d)
It is modulated.
68. What distinguishes one electromagnetic wave form another?
a)
Phase
b)
Frequency
c)
Amplitude
d)
Energy
69. What is the advantage of using a high IF?
a)
improve S/N ratio
b)
better image rejection
c)
better quality of music
d)
high gain
70. (Nov 1998) In radio regulation. The first symbol in the designation of rad
io emission is _____.
a)
Bandwidth
b)
Type of modulation of the main carrier
c)
Type of information to be transmitted
d)
Nature of signal(s)
71. A suppressed-carrier synchronous detector requires:
a)
The presence of a reinserted carrier that has a frequency close
to the original carrier.
b)
The presence of a reinserted carrier of exactly the same frequen
cy and phase as the original.
c)
A BFO that is at the exact frequency difference between the orig
inal carrier and modulating frequency.
d)
A BFO that is near the frequency difference between the original
carrier and modulating frequency.
72. (Nov 1996) Which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV chann
els (2 to 13)?
a)
High-pass filter
b)
Band-pass filter
c)
Low-pass filter
d)
Band-reject filter
73. Most of the communications receiver is in the form of ___type.
a)
Single-ended
b)
Super heterodyne
c)
High-level
d)
TRF
74. What does AFC mean?
a)
All Filipino Conference
b)
Audio Frequency Camera
c)
Automatic Frequency Control
d)
Anti Firing Countermeasure
75. In FM, what produces the sidebands?
a)
Modulating signal
b)
RF signal
c)
Carrier signal
d)
Carrier and its harmonics
76. What is the amount of power lost in a device due to its presence in the pa

th of energy flow?
a)
Gain
b)
Insertion loss
c)
Phase shift
d)
Wave attenuation
77. A device used for abating the noise accompanying the flow of gas through a
pipe.
a)
Acoustic Filter
b)
Helmholtz Resonator
c)
Muffler
d)
Acoustic Chamber
78. (Nov 1997) Atmospheric noise is less severe at frequencies above
a)
audio level
b)
1 GHz
c)
30 MHz
d)
10 GHz
79. How many watts are represented by 40 dBw?
a)
40 W
b)
1000 W
c)
40000 W
d)
10000 W
80. The input power to a 50-O receiver is 200 pW. Determine the receiver gain
required to produce 3 dBm at the detector.
a)
40 dB
b)
20 dB
c)
70 dB
d)
7 dB
81. It refers to the sending, receiving and processing of information by elect
ronic means.
a)
Broadcasting
b)
Telephony
c)
Telemetry
d)
Communications
82. What is the allowable bandwidth of commercial AM radio in the United State
s?
a)
10 MHz
b)
15 kHz
c)
30 kHz
d)
10 kHz
83. For an FM transmitter, the initial carrier frequency is 8 MHz with a frequ
ency deviation of 1 kHz. If the total frequency multiplication of the transmitte
r is 12, determine the final; frequency deviation.
a)
8 MHz
b)
12 kHz
c)
120 kHz
d)
1 kHz
84. The circuit that performs the suppression of the carrier signal.
a)
LPF
b)
Carrier synthesizer
c)
Pre-emphasis
d)
Balanced modulator
85. Which of the following services use crystal local oscillators?
a)
AM
b)
Aircraft
c)
Shortwave listener
d)
FM
86. Which type of microphone has a high Z output?
a)
Ribbon
b)
Crystal
c)
Dynamic

d)
Carbon
87. What determines the rate of frequency swing for an FM broadcast transmitte
r?
a)
Carrier frequency
b)
Modulation frequency
c)
Modulation amplitude
d)
Carrier amplitude
88. (Nov 1997) A good example of a pilot tone system used in commercial freque
ncy modulation stations.
a)
Frequency modulation
b)
Stereo multiplexing
c)
FDM
d)
Time division
89. How many mixers are in an SSB receiver?
a)
2
b)
1
c)
4
d)
3
90. (Nov 1998) Which of the following is referred to as a radio emission witho
ut sidebands?
a)
Data
b)
Analog
c)
Carrier
d)
Voice
91. The modulation index of an AM wave is changes from 0 to 1. The transmitter
power is?
a)
Increased by 50%
b)
Halved
c)
Doubled
d)
Unchanged
92. What produces the dark spots on fax receiving paper?
a)
Burning due to electric current flow between helix wire and blad
e
b)
Excessive heat
c)
High current
d)
Low impedance
93. Determine the open-circuit noise voltage in 1Hz of bandwidth at 290 K for
a diode biased at 1 mA.
a)
654 pV
b)
465 pV
c)
56 pV
d)
65 pV
94. What electrical device inside a communication receiver selects one station
and rejects all others?
a)
Local Oscillator
b)
Tuner
c)
Detector
d)
AGC
95. A method of generating SSB signal; that utilizes only one balanced modulat
or circuit.
a)
Third method
b)
Weaver method
c)
Filter method
d)
Phase-Shift method
96. What is the interference due to single tone or complex periodic waveforms?
a)
Insertion
b)
Harmonic Distortion
c)
Inter-modulation Distortion
d)
Tone interference
97. What is another term meaning downward modulation ?

a)
Distortion Modulation
b)
Harmonic Modulation
c)
Negative Carrier Shift
d)
Positive Carrier Shift
98. _____ frequencies are exact multiples of the fundamental frequency.
a)
Modulation
b)
Distortion
c)
Radio
d)
Harmonic
99. (Apr 1997) Sound intensity level is_____.
a)
10 log I / I ref
b)
30 log I / ref
c)
20 log I / ref
d)
10 log I / ref / I
100. A 2-kW RF carrier is sinusoidally modulated 100% . Haw much power is in on
e sideband?
a)
2000 W
b)
250 W
c)
500 W
d)
125 W
101. Complex number, equal to the ratio of a complex pressure amplitude to the
complex amplitude of the volume velocity
a)
Acoustic Impendance
b)
Acoustic Pressure
c)
Acoustic Intensity
d)
Air Elasticity
102. A double conversion receiver uses a first IF of 10.7 MHz and a second of 4
55 kHz, both with high tracking. If a signal is received at 50 MHz, what signal/
s will go into the second mixer?
a)
110.7 MHz
b)
10.7 MHz
c)
All of the above
d)
39.3 MHz
103. What is a hybrid transmitter?
a)
Part semiconductor, part vacuum tube
b)
\part metal, part liquid
c)
Combination of metal and plastic
d)
Multiple transmitter
104. Which of the following is not commonly used in the LO?
a)
Colpitts
b)
Hartley
c)
Crystal
d)
Armstrong
105. What factor determines the modulation index of an FM transmission?
a)
Carrier phase
b)
Modulating signal frequency
c)
Carrier frequency
d)
Carrier amplitude
106. Pilot carrier transmission, means
a)
Only one sideband is transmitted
b)
One sideband and carrier are transmitted
c)
Two sidebands as well as a trace of carrier are transmitted
d)
Only two sidebands are transmitted
107. What is the frequency for the pilot subcarrier for commercial stereo FM?
a)
67.5 kHz
b)
38 kHz
c)
19 kHz
d)
20 kHz
108. (Nov 1997) Noise caused by the thermal agitation of electrons in resistanc
e.

a)
Johnson s Noise
b)
ALL of these
c)
White Noise
d)
Thermal Noise
109. What is the aspect ratio in commercial TV receivers?
a)
2:3
b)
4:3
c)
3:4
d)
16:9
110. What is the meaning of kinescope?
a)
Color CRT
b)
Wide screen CRT
c)
Enhanced CRT
d)
TV picture tube
111. What is the coupling used in Stoneman transmission bridge?
a)
Inductive
b)
A combination of the above
c)
Resistive
d)
Capacitive
112. He was the one who developed the mathematical solution to a complex repeti
tive waveform.
a)
Y. Uda
b)
J. Fourier
c)
Carson
d)
P.H Smith
113. Which of the following is not normally tested in a transmitter?
a)
Amplitude
b)
Modulation
c)
Frequency
d)
Power
114. In what type of transmitters is balanced modulators used?
a)
F3E
b)
A3E
c)
PM
d)
SSB
115. Does the video transmitter at a TV BC station employ FM or AM?
a)
AM
b)
both AM and FM
c)
FM
d)
PM
116. (Nov 1998) In modulation technique, which of the following is referred to
audible pitch?
a)
Harmonic
b)
Amplitude
c)
Width
d)
Frequency
117. What is the main feature of DSB transmission?
a)
Carrier is suppressed
b)
Narrow bandwidth
c)
High reliability
d)
High voltage
118. Connecting a headset directly across the tuner in a simple AM radio receiv
er:
a)
Produces sound in the headset.
b)
Will not work until a battery is added.
c)
Will burn out the tuner.
d)
Will not produce sound in the headset.
119. What constitutes the input to an AM transmitter?
a)
RF oscillator and/or audio amplifier
b)
Buffer and IF amplifier

c)
Mixer and amplifier
d)
Mixer and local oscillator
120. The rms antenna current of a radio transmitter is 10 A when unmodulated, r
ising to 12 A when the carrier is sinusoidally modulated. What is the modulation
factor?
a)
0.83
b)
1
c)
0.67
d)
0..94
121. (Mar 1996) One-hundred twenty bars of pressure variation is equal to
a)
120 dBSPL
b)
115.56 dBSPL
c)
57.78 dBSPL
d)
41.58 dBSPL
122. An adjustable resonant cavity calibrated if frequency and which undergoes
some power absorption at resonance.
a)
Frequency Meter
b)
Ferrite isolator
c)
Cavity Resonator
d)
Auto Coupler
123. What type of second detector is used for AM?
a)
PLL
b)
Lattice
c)
Ratio
d)
Diode
124. A receiver has a dynamic range of 81 dB. It has 0.55 nW sensitivity. What
is the maximum allowable input signal?
a)
5.01 W
b)
0.0692 W
c)
5.01 uW
d)
15 uW
125. What type of device can be used in balanced modulators?
a)
RF, IF
b)
AF, RF
c)
AF, PF
d)
AF, IF
126. (Nov 1998) Which band does channel 14 of the television channel belongs?
a)
EHF band
b)
Low VHF band
c)
High VHF band
d)
UHF band
127. An earth station receiver has a signal of 4 x 10-12 W across 50 O input. W
hat is the signal level in microvolts?
a)
328
b)
1000
c)
1.6
d)
14.14
128. What does VOX mean?
a)
Very onward circuit
b)
Voice onward transmission
c)
Voice-operated transmission
d)
Very oxford transmitter
129. (Apr 1997) What is the local oscillator frequency range in commercial AM b
roadcast if IF is equal to 455 kHz?
a)
0 to 1600kHz
b)
0 to 455 kHz
c)
955 to 2055 kHz
d)
540 to 1600 kHz
130. (Nov 1996) What is the type of emission used by the standard AM radio broa
dcast?

a)
A
b)
D
c)
F
d)
C
131. What class of bias should produce least harmonics?
a)
Class B
b)
Class D
c)
Class C
d)
Class A
132. A super heterodyne is tuned to 2738 kHz. The IF is 475 kHz. What is the im
age frequency?
a)
4385 kHz
b)
3688 kHz
c)
4.5 kHz
d)
3.09 MHz
133. Which of the following is not a major difference between FM and AM receive
rs?
a)
AGC
b)
IF frequency
c)
deemphasis
d)
Limiter
134. What is the circuit that changes modulated RF to AF?
a)
Demodulator
b)
Synthesizer
c)
Modem
d)
Modulator
135. What is the standard intermediate frequency for FM radio?
a)
455 kHz
b)
10.7 kHz
c)
112 kHz
d)
4..5 kHz
136. The process of impressing information signals to a high frequency carrier
is called _____.
a)
modulation
b)
scrambling
c)
multiplexing
d)
detection
137. Which of the following is not contained in TV tuner?
a)
Duplexer
b)
VHF oscillator
c)
VHF mixer
d)
VHF RF amplifier
138. The local FM stereo rock station is at 96.5 MHz. What must be the local os
cillator frequency?
a)
107.2 MHz
b)
112.5 MHz
c)
93.9 MHz
d)
105.9 MHz
139. Which of the following FM detectors is not used in mobile?
a)
Quadrature
b)
Ratio
c)
Discriminator
d)
Balanced Detector
140. What does aspect ratio mean?
a)
Ratio of the screen height to its width
b)
Ratio of the screen width to its height
c)
Ratio of the screen diagonal to its height
d)
Ratio of the screen diagonal to its width
141. If two signals are in quadrature, what is their phase relation?
a)
0

b)
90
c)
45
d)
180
142. Which of the following must not be included?
a)
galactic noise
b)
cosmic noise
c)
solar noise
d)
atmospheric noise
143. In free-space, the phase velocity of a TEM wave is _____ the group velocit
y.
a)
Less than
b)
None of the above
c)
Greater than
d)
Equal to
144. Receiver ___ is a gauge of the receiver s capacity to receive weak signals.
a)
Gain Factor
b)
Selectivity
c)
Sensitivity
d)
Dynamic Range
145. What type of circuit reduces even-order harmonics?
a)
Demodulator
b)
Armstrong circuit
c)
Push-Pull
d)
Class A
146. If the second-harmonic amplitude is 2V and the fundamental is 10V, then th
e second-harmonic distortion is ___.
a)
2
b)
40%
c)
4
d)
20%
147. What is a device such as the microphone and the headset sometimes called?
a)
Transmission Medium
b)
Reproducer
c)
Converter
d)
Receiver
148. An FM signal has a frequency deviation of 2000 Hz caused by modulating sig
nal of 500 Hz. What is the modulation index?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
8
149. (Apr 1998) Best describes as an amplifier used in radio telephony.
a)
Class C
b)
Class A
c)
Magnifier
d)
Class B
150. What frequencies are considered to be in the AF range?
a)
300 Hz 3000 kHz
b)
50 Hz
50 kHz
c)
15 Hz 10 kHz
d)
20 Hz 20 kHz
151. What is meant by amplitude modulation?
a)
The carrier sign is varied
b)
The carrier frequency is varied
c)
The carrier phase is varied
d)
The carrier amplitude is varied
152. What is the device designed to display the signal state of many lines simu
ltaneously?
a)
OTDR
b)
Spectrum analyzer

c)
Oscilloscope
d)
Logic analyzer
153. (Nov 1996) Which stands for dB relative level?
a)
dBa
b)
dBr
c)
dBm
d)
dBm
154. What is the function of an FM limiter?
a)
to remove amplitude variation
b)
to provide image rejection
c)
to eliminate interference
d)
to increase stability
155. A 1500-kHz carrier and 2 kHz intelligence signal are combined in anon-line
r device. What component is present at the output?
a)
all of the above
b)
1500 kHz
c)
1492 kHz
d)
1502 kHz
156. A ______ is a resonant circuit tuned to reject an undesired signal by redu
cing the gain at the trap frequency.
a)
HPF
b)
LPF
c)
Wave trap
d)
LC tank
157. Find the noise voltage for a 1-kohms resistor at 170C tuned by an LC circuit
with a BW of 1 MHz.
a)
15 uV
b)
15.01 uV
c)
5.01 uV
d)
50 uV
158. Determine the open-circuit noise voltage in 1 Hz of bandwidth at 290 K for
a 26 ohms resistor.
a)
45 pV
b)
65 pV
c)
145 pV
d)
645 pV
159. A device which can perform the function of both a transmitter and a receiv
er.
a)
Repeater
b)
Buffer
c)
Relay
d)
Transceiver
160. Which of the following limits the performance of a communication system?
a)
Accessibility
b)
Reliability
c)
Cost
d)
Bandwidth
161. What is the circuit that automatically holds the level or strength of a si
gnal at a predetermined level used to compensate for variations due to fading?
a)
AGC
b)
Discriminator
c)
AFC
d)
Limiter
162. Where is the single-button microphone used most?
a)
Paging system
b)
Broadcast Studio
c)
Intercom
d)
Telephone
163. (Mar 1996) Which of the following pulse modulation systems is analog?
a)
Delta

b)
Differential PCM
c)
PWM
d)
PCM
164. What is the channel width of an AM BC station?
a)
5 kHz
b)
50 kHz
c)
10 kHz
d)
20 kHz
165. The type of device noise, which is important at high frequencies, is ___ n
oise.
a)
shot
b)
Johnson
c)
flicker
d)
Transit-time
166. What is the meaning of the acronym WDM?
a)
Wap distributed mode
b)
Wavelength division multiplexing
c)
Wireless data monitoring
d)
Wide distribution media
167. The maximum swing of the sound carrier in TV system is ______.
a)
15 kHz
b)
10 kHz
c)
25 kHz
d)
75 kHz
168. (Nov 1997) Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at frequencies from
a)
0 to 20 kHz
b)
Above 2 GHz
c)
8 to 1.43 GHz
d)
5 to 8 GHz
169. (Apr 1998) With which emission type is the capture-effect most pronounced?
a)
SSB
b)
CW
c)
FM
d)
AM
170. (Apr 1998) A form of single sideband emission where the degree of carrier
suppression enables the carrier to be reconstituted and be used for demodulation
.
a)
Full carrier single sideband emission
b)
Double sideband emission
c)
Reduced carrier single sideband emission
d)
Half carrier single sideband emission
171. The purpose of the balances modulator circuits is to eliminate the _____.
a)
Sidebands
b)
Distortion
c)
Noise
d)
Carrier
172. The total transmitted power for an AM signal is 1200 W at 100% modulation.
What is the power for each sideband?
a)
1200 W
b)
1000 W
c)
100 W
d)
200 W
173. (Apr 1997) Which transmit only sideband?
a)
H3E
b)
11BE
c)
A3E
d)
3AJ
174. What is the sound carrier for channel 10?
a)
193.25 MHz
b)
192 MHz

c)
196.83 MHz
d)
197.75 MHz
175. For an AM signal modulated to a depth of 100% by a pure tone, the power is
_____ the power of unmodulated carrier.
a)
3 / 2 times
b)
Same as
c)
twice as
d)
less than
176. What method can be used to invert speech?
a)
Frequency multiplier
b)
Inverter
c)
AGC
d)
Frequency translation
177. Which produces greater interference, overmodulated positive or negative pe
aks?
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
c)
neither
d)
either
178. What is another name for AF volume control?
a)
AMC
b)
ARC
c)
AFC
d)
Gain
179. What is the percent modulation of an AM wave that has a power content of 1
2 kW in each sideband when modulated by a single tone?
a)
66%
b)
75%
c)
82%
d)
30%
180. How many horizontal lines are used to develop a TV raster?
a)
615
b)
525
c)
750
d)
15750
181. (Nov 1997) In the designation of bandwidth and emission, what letter in th
e symbol represents a double-sideband of modulation?
a)
H
b)
C
c)
B
d)
A
182. A relatively rigid extended surface surrounding an acoustic source.
a)
Screen
b)
Dash Board
c)
Panel Board
d)
Baffle
183. What is the highest video frequency set by the FCC for commercial TV?
a)
5.5 MHz
b)
6 MHz
c)
4.2 MHz
d)
15 kHz
184. What do you call a heterodyne frequency changer?
a)
Mixer
b)
Frequency synthesizer
c)
Frequency translator
d)
Modulator
185. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is halved. The noise power
generated is
a)
doubled
b)
halved

c)
unchanged
d)
quadrupled
186. What does ANSI mean?
a)
American non stop information
b)
American national standards institute
c)
Auxiliary non station identifier
d)
Auxiliary net system interconnection
187. A radio transmitter is rated as having a frequency accuracy of 0.2 parts pe
r million. What is the maximum frequency error at 150 MHz?
a)
150 Hz
b)
20 Hz
c)
7.5 Hz
d)
30 Hz
188. Quantization noise is produced in
a)
All pulse modulation system
b)
All modulation system
c)
PCM
d)
FSK
189. What is the amount of carrier swing necessary to produce an 80% modulation
for the audio portion of the TV band?
a)
20 kHz
b)
40 kHz
c)
25 kHz
d)
50 kHz
190. (Nov 1997) Which of the following falls under the high frequency band of t
he radio spectrum?
a)
150.50 MHz
b)
2.4555 MHz
c)
8.2345 MHz
d)
35.535 MHz
191. (Mar 1996) What is the primary advantage of DSBSC in AM?
a)
No transmitter power is wasted in the carrier
b)
All of these
c)
It is simpler to transmit and receive than the standard AM
d)
Reduce bandwidth over standard AM
192. A subcarrier has a (n) _____ frequency than the main carrier.
a)
Higher
b)
Lower
c)
Equal
d)
Good
193. How often must remote control instrumentals be calibrated?
a)
Monthly
b)
Daily
c)
Yearly
d)
Weekly
194. In SSB transmission, which sideband can be eliminated?
a)
Upper only
b)
Depends upon the use
c)
Either
d)
Lower only
195. What percent of the radiated power is in the sidebands with 50% sinusoidal
modulation (AM)?
a)
20%
b)
16.67%
c)
11%
d)
33%
196. (Apr 1998) If a transmitter supplies 8 kW to the antenna when it is unmodu
lated, determine the total radiated power when modulated at 30%.
a)
20 kW
b)
5 kW

c)
8..36 kW
d)
15 kW
197. The SI unit of magnetic field intensity is
a)
Volt/meter
b)
Ampere
c)
Ampere/square meter
d)
Ampere/meter
198. What is the picture carrier frequency for channel 7?
a)
175.25 MHz
b)
179.75 MHz
c)
174 MHz
d)
178.83 MHz
199. (Nov 1997) What is the effect in over modulated amplitude modulated radio
broadcasting transmission?
a)
Higher audio signal
b)
Interference to adjacent channel
c)
Increase noise
d)
Higher fidelity
200. (Nov 1997) Modulation in which the modulated wave is always present.
a)
Log-periodic modulation
b)
Continues modulation
c)
Front-end
d)
Carrier modulation
201. The color phasor has what phase for the I signal?
a)
90
b)
57
c)
180
d)
37
202. Amplitude distortion results from _____ amplification.
a)
Nonlinear
b)
Direct
c)
Indirect
d)
Linear
203. A mirror that reflects one color but passes all other are called ____.
a)
Convex
b)
Dichroic
c)
Concave
d)
Monochroic
204. A function y = f(t) is even if it has perfect symmetry about the _____.
a)
x-axis
b)
w-axis
c)
z-axis
d)
y-axis
205. An amplifier with NF= 6 dB has (S/N), of 25 dB. What is the output S/N?
a)
6 dB
b)
25 dB
c)
19 dB
d)
31 dB
206. What stage in an AM transmitter creates its own sine wave?
a)
Amplifier
b)
Oscillator
c)
Modulator
d)
Buffer
207. (Nov 1998) In amplitude modulation technique the unmodulated carrier is re
ferred as having _____.
a)
over modulated
b)
0% modulation
c)
100% modulation
d)
50% modulated
208. What is the approximate efficiency of a class B linear RF AM amplifier?

a)
90%
b)
50%
c)
12%
d)
35%
209. Which is better, an NF of 20 or 10 dB?
a)
10 dB
b)
Neither
c)
Either
d)
20 dB
210. (Mar 1996) In the phase shift method, how many circuits must be balanced?
a)
4
b)
1
c)
None of these
d)
2
211. A 100-V carrier is amplitude modulated by a 1-kHz sine wave. What is the s
ide-frequency amplitude when m=0.75?
a)
100 V
b)
37.5 V
c)
18.75 V
d)
75 V
212. The major difference between FM and PM
a)
All of the above
b)
Lies in the poorer audio response of phase modulation index
c)
Is too great to make the two system compatible
d)
Lies in the different definition of modulation index
213. Which subcarrier leads by 90 in TV system?
a)
R
b)
Y
c)
Q
d)
I
214. In an FM receiver, the circuit that keeps the receiver tuned exactly to th
e desired station is ___.
a)
Limiter
b)
AGC
c)
Discriminator
d)
AFC
215. (Apr 1998) What is the period of a wave?
a)
The number of degrees in tone cycle
b)
The time required to complete one cycle
c)
The number of zero crossing in one cycle
d)
The amplitude of the wave
216. A radio receiver is called ___ if the local oscillator frequency is made e
qual to the wanted RF signal frequency.
a)
Up-conversion
b)
homodyne
c)
Single-conversion
d)
TRF
217. How guardbands are allocated in commercial FM stations?
a)
15 kHz modulation
b)
75 kHz deviation
c)
25 kHz on either side of the transmitting signal
d)
50 kHz on each side of the carrier
218. Any waveform that is not symmetrical in area about the time axis has a (n)
_____ component.
a)
DC
b)
FC
c)
RC
d)
AC
219. What type of field does a Faraday shield stop?
a)
Common

b)
Magnetostatic
c)
Array
d)
Electrostatic
220. In a low-level modulation system, the type of amplifier that follows the m
odulated stage should be a _____.
a)
Harmonic generator
b)
Any of the above
c)
Class C amplifier
d)
Linear amplifier
221. What is the name of the operation that uses an antenna changeover switch?
a)
Crossover
b)
Duplex
c)
Switching
d)
Simplex
222. What is the letter-number designation for an FM facsimile?
a)
C3C
b)
A3E
c)
F3E
d)
F3C
223. What is the power in each sideband for an AM signal with 80%modulation and
a total power of 2500 W?
a)
250 W
b)
303 W
c)
400 W
d)
500 W
224. (Apr 1998) Type of modulation used in TV broadcast visual transmitter.
a)
SSBFC
b)
Pulse modulation
c)
Vestigial sideband
d)
DSBFC
225. When the modulating frequency is halved, the modulation index is doubled a
nd the modulating voltage remains constant. The type of modulation is
a)
PM
b)
FM
c)
AM
d)
PCM
226. Compute the noise figure of a receiving system with a noise temperature of
2000C.
a)
24 dB
b)
2.4 dB
c)
42 dB
d)
4.2 dB
227. What formula determines sideband power in AM emissions?
a)
Pc(m2/5)
b)
Pc(m2/4)
c)
Pc(m2/3)
d)
Pc(m2/2)
1312 kHz AM broad
228. (Nov 1996) The maximum power suggested by the KBP on 919
cast station I Metro Manila is
a)
15 kW
b)
5 kW
c)
20 kW
d)
10 kW
229. Which came first, the invention of the telephone or the invention of the p
honograph?
a)
neither
b)
either
c)
phonograph
d)
telephone
230. In TV system. A picture signals are transmitted by

a)
PCM
b)
AM
c)
PM
d)
FM
231. (Apr 1998) In television broadband vivid strong color are often referred a
s ____.
a)
hue
b)
luminance
c)
chrominance
d)
saturation
232. A mixer is tuned to 2000 kHz and the local oscillator is on 1300 kHz. What
frequency would cause an image?
a)
600 kHz
b)
1100 kHz
c)
3300 kHz
d)
700 kHz
233. What kind of system relays has remote readings?
a)
Data gathering
b)
Broadcasting
c)
Telemetering
d)
Telecast
234. What is an application for vestigial sideband transmission?
a)
FDM
b)
AM Broadcast
c)
Telephony
d)
TV Broadcast
235. (Nov 1996) Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal per
cycle over a specified total frequency band.
a)
Thermal noise
b)
Gaussian noise
c)
All of these
d)
White noise
236. What is the ratio of maximum deviation allowed to the modulating frequency
being used called?
a)
Percent Modulation
b)
Deviation ratio
c)
Modulation Sideband
d)
Modulation Index
237. What determine the bandwidth of a transmitted AM signal?
a)
The maximum modulation amplitude
b)
The lowest frequency component of the intelligence
c)
The highest frequency component of the modulating signal
d)
The lowest modulation amplitude
238. High-frequency distortion occurs when the _____ harmonic components of a d
igital square wave are lost.
a)
High frequency
b)
Low frequency
c)
Sub
d)
Cut-off frequency
239. What type of wave trap is connected in series with a line?
a)
Parallel
b)
Series
c)
Synchronous
d)
Asynchronous
240. An AM transmission of 1000 W is fully modulated. Calculate the power trans
mitted as a SSB signal.
a)
1000 W
b)
167 W
c)
333 W
d)
667 W

241. Which of the following is not a type of external noise?

a)
Pink Noise
b)
Solar Noise
c)
Galactic Noise
d)
Atmospheric Noise
242. In a 5-kW AM transmitter high-level modulation is used. What is the value
of the audio signal power needed for 100 percent modulation?
a)
50 kW
b)
2.5 kW
c)
15 kW
d)
5 kW
243. Which of the following is not an advantage of vestigial sideband transmiss
ion?
a)
Reduces power requirements
b)
Reduces transmission bandwidth
c)
Easy to detect the carrier
d)
Simple receiver circuitry
244. What is the BFO in SSB receiver called?
a)
Backward Oscillator
b)
Frequency Oscillator
c)
Local Oscillator
d)
Carrier Oscillator
245. Which of the following is not a requirement for a color TV signal?
a)
compatibility with B/W receivers
b)
within 6 MHz bandwidth
c)
good raster reproduction
d)
simulate a width variety of colors
246. The rms antenna current for an AM transmitter increases by 15% over the un
modulated value when sinusoidal modulation is applied. Find the daepth of modula
tion.
a)
0..8
b)
0.6
c)
.05
d)
0..75
247. What is the maximum power that ca be contained in the sideband without dis
tortion?
a)
66.67%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
16.67%
248. What circuit accompanies a mixer?
a)
IF Amplifier
b)
Detector
c)
LO
d)
RF Amplifier
249. For an FM signal
a)
The carrier frequency cannot disappear
b)
The total number of sidebands depends on the modulation frequenc
y the carrier frequency
c)
The amplitude of any sideband depends on the modulation index
d)
The carrier frequency disappears when the modulation index is la
rge
250. (Apr 1997) Unit of noise power of psophometer
a)
dBmo
b)
dBm
c)
dBa
d)
pWp
251. (Nov 1996) Both frequency and phase modulation utilizes _____ modulation.
a)
angle
b)
Digital

c)
Phase
d)
AM and Fm
252. (Nov 1996) What is the equivalent output of a circuit in dBm , if it has a
n output of 10 watts?
a)
10 dBm
b)
40 dBm
c)
20 dBm
d)
30 dBm
253. (Nov 1998) The third symbol radio emission which represent telephone trans
mission including sound broadcasting.
a)
C
b)
W
c)
E
d)
F
254. The term angular velocity as applied to electronic system refers to the nu
mber of:
a)
Degrees subtracted from the radians
b)
Degrees averaged together
c)
Radian per second a voltage vector rotates
d)
None of these
255. Which is not true about modulation
a)
Transmission over longer distances
b)
More practical antenna
c)
Multiple transmission
d)
Narrower bandwidth
256. (Apr 1997) Tendency of sound energy to spread.
a)
Reflection
b)
Rarefaction
c)
Diffraction
d)
Refraction
257. Which of the following is not an advantage of FM over AM?
a)
Better noise immunity is provided
b)
Less modulating power is required
c)
The transmitted power is mote useful
d)
Lower bandwidth is required
258. What will the normal AM receiver detect from an unmodulated RF AC wave?
a)
Nothing
b)
noise
c)
AF signal
d)
Carrier
259. What is an advantage of series modulation?
a)
High gain and selectivity
b)
Capable of generating high power
c)
Low noise and interference
d)
Capable of modulating very high frequencies
260. (Apr 1998) What is a frequency discriminator?
a)
An automatic bandswitching circuit
b)
An FM generator
c)
A circuit for detecting FM signals
d)
A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signal
261. What is the required time constant for an FM broadcast preemphasis and dee
mphasis network?
a)
100 s
b)
75 s
c)
50 s
d)
25 s
262. Where is a degaussing coil in a TV set?
a)
at the tuner
b)
around the IF amp
c)
inside the CRT

d)
around the tube face
263. What type of microphone has the lowest power output?
a)
Dynamic
b)
Carbon
c)
Ribbon
d)
Condenser
264. The device that prevents aural RF from entering the video transmitter and
vice versa is called____.
a)
duplexer
b)
tuner
c)
coupler
d)
diplexer
265. A duplexer is used to
a)
Connect a receiver and a transmitter to the same antenna
b)
Feed more than one transmitter from a single antenna
c)
Connect two t6ransmitter to the same antenna
d)
Feed more than one receiver from a single antenna
266. What is the result of overmodulation of an FM emission?
a)
Excessive bandwidth distortion
b)
Lower frequency
c)
Higher power
d)
distortion
267. (Apr 1997) What particular circuit gets rids of FM noise?
a)
Phase Shifter
b)
Limiter
c)
LPF
d)
HPF
268. (Apr 1997) Lowest frequency produced by musical instrument.
a)
Midrange
b)
Period
c)
Fundamental
d)
Harmonic
269. What TV signal are amplified by the video IF amplifier?
a)
Sound carriers
b)
Sound the picture carriers
c)
Sync pulse
d)
Color burst
270. What is the small amount of the signal applied to the input port that leak
s through to the output port?
a)
Insertion loss
b)
Feedthrough loss
c)
Reflection loss
d)
Regenerative loss
271. What is gained by operating an oscillator on some subharmonic of the trans
mission frequency?
a)
High sensitivity
b)
Frequency stability
c)
Good selectivity
d)
Frequency sensitivity
272. Which of the following is not an application of PLL?
a)
AM Discriminator
b)
FSK decoder
c)
FM demodulators
d)
Frequency Synthesizers
273. A carrier wave is amplitude modulated by two sine waves of different frequ
encies with modulation indices of 0.3 and 0.4. What is the overall modulation in
dex?
a)
0.2
b)
0.7
c)
0.5

d)
0.1
274. Which of the following is not associated with transistors?
a)
shot noise
b)
transit-time
c)
jitter
d)
flicker noise
275. The bandwidth in _____ depends on the number of significant sidebands.
a)
Delta Modulation
b)
FCM
c)
Frequency Modulation
d)
QAM
276. What is reduced by rounding off square-wave emissions?
a)
energy
b)
Amplitude
c)
Phase
d)
Bandwidth
277. Calculate the modulating frequency that causes an FM signal to have a band
width of 50 kHz when its frequency deviation is 15 kHz.
a)
20 kHz
b)
40 kHz
c)
50 kHz
d)
10 kHz
278. What major principle prevents the TV viewer from observing flicker?
a)
scanning
b)
light reflections
c)
persistence of the picture tube and human eye
d)
drowsiness
279. In a transmitted AM wave, state where the information is contained?
a)
Sidebands
b)
Modulating signal
c)
Carrier
d)
Envelope
280. (Mar 1996) After the IF stages have been aligned, the next state to align
in FM receiver is
a)
local oscillator
b)
limiter stage
c)
Mixer stage
d)
RF Amplifier
281. (Apr 1997) The random and unpredictable electric signal from natural cause
s, both internal and external to the system is known as ___.
a)
attenuation
b)
noise
c)
distortion
d)
interference
282. Is the information used to represent a TV picture transmitted at the same
time?
a)
None of the above
b)
No
c)
Sometimes
d)
Yes
283. What broadcast station use vertical antennas on flat ground?
a)
AM
b)
TV
c)
Shortwave
d)
FM
284. (Apr 1997) What is the reference frequency of CCITT psophometric noise mea
surement?
a)
1000 Hz
b)
1500 Hz
c)
800 Hz

d)
3400 Hz
285. (Apr 1998) Quantity that do not change when a beam of light enters one med
ium to another.
a)
Frequency
b)
Wavelength
c)
Speed
d)
Direction
286. Which of the following do not require a tuner?
a)
Communications Satellite Receiver
b)
CB receiver
c)
TV receiver
d)
None of these
287. What is the power saving in J3E system at 100% modulation?
a)
100%
b)
66.67%
c)
33.3%
d)
83.3%
288. How much time is allocated for horizontal retrace?
a)
63.5 s
b)
7.5 s
c)
76 s
d)
10.2 s
289. What is the noise figure of an ideal amplifier?
a)
unity
b)
zero
c)
infinity
d)
100
290. With _____, the modulation envelope is an expression of the amplitude and
frequency of the modulation signal.
a)
PM
b)
AM
c)
FM
d)
PCM
291. (Apr 1997) The sound power level of a jet plane flying at a height of 1 km
is 160 dB (ref = 10-12 W). What is the maximum sound pressure level on the grou
nd directly below the plane assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equality i
n all directions?
a)
79.1 dB
b)
59.1 dB
c)
89.1 dB
d)
69.1 dB
292. (Apr 1997) The final amplifier of either FM or AM transmitter operates as
a)
Class C
b)
Class D
c)
Class A
d)
Class B
293. What is the magnitude of the frequency component at seven times the fundam
ental frequency for a square wave amplitude 1 V?
a)
0.2
b)
0.7
c)
0.14
d)
0.18
294. It is the ability of a radio receiver to receive weak signal.
a)
sensitivity
b)
stability
c)
fidelity
d)
selectivity
295. How often should BC stations be identified?
a)
every ten minutes
b)
at least once an hour

c)
every thirty minutes
d)
at least once a day
296. What part of a super heterodyne is responsible for the band pass of the re
ceiver?
a)
RF Amplifier
b)
IF Amplifier
c)
Detector
d)
LO
297. (Apr 1997) channels 2, 4 and 5 are known as
a)
high band VHF
b)
low band VHF
c)
low band UHF
d)
mid band UHF
298. (April 1997) Industrial noise frequency is between ___.
a)
0 to 10 kHz
b)
200 to 3000 MHz
c)
15 to 160 MHz
d)
20 GH
299. What is the wavelength for a frequency of 1 million hertz?
a)
3 km
b)
30 km
c)
30 m
d)
300 m
300. What holds the horizontal oscillator on frequency?
a)
AFC
b)
ECL
c)
ALC
d)
AGC
301. What devise is used to determine phase difference between two broadcast an
tennas?
a)
FSM
b)
Frequency monitor
c)
Phase monitor
d)
OTDR
302. (Apr 1998) How does a SSB transmitter output power normally expressed?
a)
Average power
b)
In term of peak envelope power
c)
Peak power
d)
In term of peak-to-peak power
303. The super heterodyne circuit uses local oscillator to ___ with the RF sign
al of the station and convert the carrier to the intermediate frequency.
a)
beat
b)
heterodyne
c)
mix
d)
all of the above
304. What is the percent modulation of a signal in the FM broadcast band at 92
MHz with 20 kHz frequency deviation?
a)
72%
b)
60%
c)
27%
d)
12%
305. When the loop in a PLL is locked, what is the difference in frequency dete
cted by the phase detector?
a)
450
b)
1800
c)
900
d)
00
306. What does the acronym VIR mean?
a)
Video Interval Recording
b)
Video Interface Relay

c)
Vertical Interface Relay
d)
Vertical Interval Reference
307. The pre-emphasis network in Europe has a time constant of ___..
a)
150 us
b)
75 us
c)
100 us
d)
300 us
308. A system uses a deviation of 100 kHz and a modulating frequency of 15 kHz.
What is the approximate bandwidth?
a)
215 kHz
b)
200 kHz
c)
230 kHz
d)
115 kHz
309. (Nov 1998) What is the first symbol of radio signal emission having an amp
litude modulated main carrier, double sideband?
a)
C
b)
A
c)
H
d)
B
310. Noise is most problematic at the___.
a)
transmitter
b)
source
c)
communication channel
d)
receiver
311. What characteristic of the sound wave determines its pitch?
a)
harmonics
b)
amplitude
c)
frequency
d)
phase
312. Another name for burst noise
a)
popcorn noise
b)
pink noise
c)
flicker
d)
shot noise
313. What is the S/N at the output of an amplifier whose NF=10 dB and the input
S/N=25 dB?
a)
25 dB
b)
15 dB
c)
10 dB
d)
35 dB
314. An AM signal displayed on an oscilloscope has a maximum span of 5 V and a
minimum of 1 V. What is the modulation index?
a)
20%
b)
80%
c)
120%
d)
67%
315. What are the le7tter-number designations of carrier and one SB?
a)
H3E
b)
A3E
c)
J3E
d)
F3E
316. What is the noise current for a diode with a forward bias of 1 mA over a 1
MHz bandwidth?
a)
9.15 nA
b)
179 nA
c)
17.9 nA
d)
91.5 uA
317. Two 4? speakers connected in series have a total impedance of ____.
a)
2?
b)
4?

c)
6?
d)
8?
318. In FM for a given frequency deviation, the modulation index varies _____ w
ith the modulating frequency.
a)
Inversely
b)
Independently
c)
Directly
d)
Equally
319. (Nov 1998) Refers to the first symbol in an emission designation with an a
mplitude modulated main carrier represented by letter A.
a)
Independent sideband
b)
Double sideband full carrier
c)
Double sideband
d)
Single sideband suppressed carrier
320. What is the most common application of carbon microphone?
a)
TV transmitter
b)
FM radio
c)
Am radio
d)
telephone
321. What is the signal, usually of random character, which is always present i
n a communications system?
a)
sideband
b)
spur
c)
interference
d)
noise
322. It is the interference of a signal from one channel into another channel.
a)
Spur
b)
Crosstalk
c)
Inter-modulation distortion
d)
Sideband splatter
323. Basically, what would be added to a TRF to produce a super heterodyne?
a)
All of the above
b)
Mixer stage
c)
IF stage
d)
Local Oscillator
324. Most household radio receiver uses ___ detector.
a)
asynchronous
b)
synchronous
c)
phase
d)
envelope
325. What is the maximum power output of a CB A3E emission?
a)
4 W
b)
3 kW
c)
10 kW
d)
10 W
326. What would be produce by weak blue, weak green, and weak red signals on a
color CRT?
a)
Weak white
b)
White
c)
Black
d)
Gray
327. What stage in a super heterodyne is aligned first?
a)
RF Amplifier
b)
Mixer
c)
Second Detector
d)
IF Amplifier
328. For an unmodulated carrier of 1000V and a modulated peak value of 1800 V,
what is the modulation index?
a)
0..8
b)
0.9

c)
0.5
d)
0.7
329. The total power content of an AM signal is 600 W. What is the percentage m
odulation if each sideband contains 100 W?
a)
33.3%
b)
66.7%
c)
83.3%
d)
100%
330. For an FM signal in the 88-108-MHz broadcast band with a frequency deviati
on of 15 kHz, determine the percent modulation.
a)
20%
b)
80%
c)
40%
d)
60%
331. (Nov 1997) Background noise is the same as the following except
a)
gaussian noise
b)
white noise
c)
thermal noise
d)
impulse noise
332. What id the purpose of a conversion frequency oscillator?
a)
To provide good selectivity
b)
To increase stability
c)
To produce the IF
d)
To provide a conversion frequency
333. (Mar 1996) Cross modulation on a receiver is eliminated at the
a)
Mixer stage
b)
RF stage
c)
Detector stage
d)
IF stage
334. What determines the purity of received colors?
a)
Y and I amplitudes
b)
Y amplitudes
c)
Q and Y amplitudes
d)
Q and I amplitudes
335. An indirect method of generating FM is
a)
Reactance transistor modulator
b)
Armstrong modulator
c)
Varactor diode modulator
d)
Reactance tube modulator
336. In single-gun color CRT, what electron beam travels straight through the t
ube?
a)
red
b)
blue
c)
yellow
d)
green
337. When an operator wishes to indicate that he has received all of the last t
ransmission, he will transmit the word _____.
a)
Over
b)
Ok
c)
Out
d)
Roger
338. (Apr 1997) Modulation means
a)
varying of information
b)
varying of some parameters of a carrier such as its amplitude to
transmit information
c)
utilization of a single transmission channels to carry multiple
signals
d)
transmit pulse in DC form on a copper wire
339. An FM signal with modulation index m is applied to a frequency tripler. Th
e modulation index at the output is _____.

a)
0
b)
m
c)
m / 2
d)
3m
340. (Apr 1997) 100% modulation inn AM means a corresponding increase in total
power by _____.
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
341. What is the main function of a balanced modulator?
a)
Limit noise picked by a receiver
b)
Suppress carrier signal in order to create a SSB or DSB
c)
Produce 100% modulation
d)
Produce balanced modulation of a carrier wave
342. What service uses HF CW communications?
a)
Telephony
b)
Police
c)
Satellite System
d)
Broadcasting
343. The all-encompassing noise associated with a give environment, being usual
ly composite of sounds from many sources near and far.
a)
Relative Noise
b)
Ambient Noise
c)
Average Noise
d)
Nominal Room
344. (Apr 1998) Which of the following refers to a double side band full carrie
r?
a)
F3
b)
A3E
c)
A3J
d)
R3A
345. What are the two emission designations of a TV transmission?
a)
J3E, C3F
b)
A3E, ISB
c)
B8e, C3F
d)
F3E, C3F
346. It is the representation of a complex waveform in such a way that the sinu
soidal components are displayed as a function of time.
a)
Wave Representation
b)
Frequency Domain
c)
Time Domain
d)
TDR
347. What are the frequency limits of the AM BC band?
1605 kHz
a)
535
b)
500 1600 kHz
c)
88 108 MHz
d)
300
3000 kHz
348. In Phase Modulation (PM), the modulation index represents ______.
a)
The maximum phase shift
b)
The total number of sidebands
c)
The ratio of the modulation amplifier to the carrier amplitude
d)
The maximum frequency deviation
349. A DSB-SC system must suppress the carrier by 50 dB from its original value
of 10 W. To what value must the carrier be reduced?
a)
0.1 W
b)
0.0001 W
c)
0.01W
d)
0.001 W
350. (Nov 1998) A third symbol emission which represent television. (0 correct

answers)
a)
A
b)
D
c)
F
d)
C
351. An 88-MHz carrier is modulated by an audio tone that caused a frequency de
viation of 15 kHz. What is the carrier swing of this FM signal?
a)
15 kHz
b)
60 kHz
c)
45 kHz
d)
30 kHz
352. Normally, for how long must logs be kept for the FCC?
a)
1 year
b)
1 week
c)
1 month
d)
2 years
353. What is the reason for using pre-emphasis?
a)
increase selectivity
b)
to increase noise figure
c)
reduce noise reception
d)
reduce S/N ratio
354. A type of device noise whose intensity decreases with frequency.
a)
popcorn noise
b)
thermal noise
c)
shot noise
d)
flicker
355. (Mar 1996) The _____ filter attenuates signals but passes frequencies belo
w and above the band.
a)
High pass
b)
Band stop
c)
Low pass
d)
Band pass
356. The antenna current of an AM transmitter is 6.2 A when unmodulated and ris
es to 6.7 A when modulated. What is the %m?
a)
42.8%
b)
57.9%
c)
67%
d)
51%
357. Treble sound corresponds to
a)
Mid- frequencies
b)
High frequencies
c)
Low frequencies
d)
Radio frequencies
358. What is an NO RY?
a)
Normally open relay
b)
Non organic relay
c)
Normally ready
d)
Non operational relay
359. What determines the maximum number of vertical picture element?
a)
Number of pixel
b)
Number of fields per second
c)
Number of lines on the screen
d)
Number of frames per second
360. When did the first transatlantic radio communications take place?
a)
1901
b)
1888
c)
1876
d)
1942
361. Where is ISB primarily used?
a)
Telephone and Telegraph Communications

b)
Radar
c)
FM Broadcast
d)
Telemetry
362. It describe the acoustic energy flowing per unit area and per unit time.
a)
Acoustic Intensity
b)
Sound Absorption
c)
Sound Reflection
d)
Acoustic Pressure
363. How many oscillators does black and white TV receiver contain?
a)
3
b)
1
c)
4
d)
2
364. Which of the following items need not be checked with receivers?
a)
Squelch
b)
Sensitivity
c)
Distortion
d)
Gain
365. In an AM transmitter, after the modulation stage, _____ amplifier cannot b
e used.
a)
Class B
b)
Class A
c)
Class C
d)
Linear
366. (Mar1996) The equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 25 K. What
is the noise figure?
a)
1..86
b)
1.086
c)
0.1086
d)
10.86
367. (Nov 1998) The extremely high frequency (EHF) band is in the radio spectru
m range of _____.
a)
3 to 30 MHz
b)
30 to 300 GHz
c)
3 to 30 GHz
d)
30 to 300 kHz
368. (Nov 1997) An antenna that can only receive a television signal?
a)
Isotropic antenna
b)
Yagi antenna
c)
Reference Anenna
d)
TVRO
369. What is the disadvantage slope detection of FM?
a)
low noise reduction
b)
complexity
c)
no noise discrimination
d)
high level of noise
370. (Nov 1998) Frequencies above _____ kHz, are referred to as the radio frequ
encies.
a)
2
b)
20
c)
10
d)
100
371. For _____ percent modulation in AM, the modulation envelope has a peak val
ue double the unmodulated carrier level.
a)
83.3
b)
100
c)
50
d)
66.67
372. What happens to noise when you increase the bandwidth of an amplifier?
a)
Remain constant

b)
it decreases
c)
fluctuates
d)
it increases
373. (Apr 1998) Term in communication which is referred, to send out in all dire
ction .
a)
Transmit
b)
Broadcast
c)
Media
d)
Announce
374. What form of energy is contained in a sound?
a)
elastic
b)
kinetic
c)
electromagnetic
d)
acoustic
375. To make the headset reproduce the original modulating signal, the metal di
sk mask:
a)
Have a source of energy from a battery.
b)
Move in step with the frequency of the received carrier.
c)
Move in step with the changes in amplitude of the received carri
er.
d)
Vibrate fast enough to keep up with the high frequency radio wav
e.
376. What is the power requirement for international BC stations?
a)
50 kW
b)
15 W
c)
5 kW
d)
100 W
377. (Apr 1998) What is emission C3F?
a)
Modulated CW
b)
Television
c)
Facsimile
d)
RTTY
378. What information other than the sound has to be transmitted in TV transmis
sion?
a)
synchronizing signals
b)
visual signal
c)
all of the above
d)
blanking pulses
379. (Nov 1997) Nominal voice channel
a)
20 to 20 kHz
b)
4 kHz
c)
3 to 3 kHz
d)
16 to 16 kHz
380. What is the following is not a product of overmodulation?
a)
Image
b)
Spurious signal
c)
Splatter
d)
Buckshot
381. What kind of crystal is used in oscillators?
a)
Salt
b)
Carborundum
c)
Quartz
d)
Galena
382. What is the relative permittivity of air?
a)
1.26 x 10-6
b)
20
c)
8..853 x 10-12
d)
1
383. What is the deviation ratio for commercial FM?
a)
10

b)
1
c)
5
d)
2
384. What produces splatter in an AM transmission?
a)
overmodulation
b)
Clipping
c)
Flickering
d)
Harmonics
385. What is the carrier power transmitted on a 75-O antenna if mf=2 and Vc (un
modulated) is 2 kVpk?
a)
1.29 kW
b)
10 kW
c)
9 kW
d)
12.9 kW
386. What is the shape of a trapezoidal pattern at 100% modulation?
a)
Square
b)
Triangle
c)
Circle
d)
Rectangle
387. Who is in overall control of a TV production?
a)
producer
b)
actor
c)
manager
d)
director
388. What is the purpose of AFC in an FM receiver?
a)
to stabilize the gain
b)
to increase the sensitivity
c)
to provide good selectivity
d)
to help maintain a steady local oscillator frequency
389. What AF range is required of the aural transmitter of a TV BC station?
2 kHz
a)
20 Hz
b)
20 Hz 20 kHz
c)
50 Hz 15,000 Hz
d)
5 50 kHz
390. In FM, what determines bandwidth?
a)
Carrier frequency
b)
Modulation phase
c)
Modulation index
d)
Carrier power
391. Which of the following is not a continuous wave modulation?
a)
PCM
b)
FM
c)
PM
d)
AM
392. (Nov 1996) A loudspeaker cabinet has an internal volume of 5,184 in (84,950
cm). If has a port area on the on the baffle of 50 in (323cm) and the thickness of
0.75 in (19mm). What is the Helmholtz resonance, in hertz, of this loudspeaker
enclosure?
a)
250 Hz
b)
245 Hz
c)
240 Hz
d)
255 Hz
393. To what feature of the modulating tone is FM deviation proportional?
a)
Amplitude
b)
Frequency
c)
Harmonics
d)
Phase
394. If a broadcast station is transmitting but not modulating, what is heard i
n a receiver tuned to its frequency?
a)
Audio only

b)
Nothing
c)
Hiss
d)
Carrier only
395. (Mar 1996) In an FM receiver, which circuit removes amplitude variations?
a)
Mixer
b)
Discriminator
c)
Exciter
d)
Limiter
396. What pattern of modulation must used when neutralizing an operating transm
itter?
a)
100% or over
b)
10 %
c)
80%
d)
50%
397. What is a radio carrier?
a)
A higher frequency signal
b)
A lower frequency signal
c)
A lower amplitude signal
d)
A higher amplitude signal
398. What device can be used to make a modulated envelope visible?
a)
Calibrator
b)
Spectrum Analyzer
c)
Synthesizer
d)
Oscilloscope
399. What happens in standard AM transmission when no modulating signal is bein
g transmitted?
a)
There is no signal.
b)
There are no sidebands.
c)
There are several sidebands.
d)
There are two carriers
400. (Nov 1996) Which symbol indicates that only one sideband is transmitted?
a)
A3E
b)
H3E
c)
C3F
d)
B8E
401. Calculate the thermal noise delivered to a system with a bandwidth of 1 Hz
operating at 170C.
a)
4 x 10-12 W
b)
2.1 x 10-14 W
c)
4 x 10-21 W
d)
1.2 x 10-14 W
402. When voltages are out-of-phase, the total voltage can be found by adding:
a)
Vectorially
b)
Arithmetically
c)
Peak values
d)
Average values
403. The three kind of demodulators for AM are:
a)
frequency, phase and amplitude
b)
a and c but not b
c)
simple, suppressed carrier, and single sideband
d)
simple, medium, and complex
404. What is the frequency of the VCR control signal?
a)
30 Hz
b)
15750 Hz
c)
60 Hz
d)
15625 Hz
405. (Apr 1998) An instrument for recording waveforms of audio frequency.
a)
Radioscope
b)
Phonoscope
c)
Audioscope

d)
Oscilloscope
406. Which stages in a broadcast transmitter are normally class C?
a)
modulated amplifier
b)
AF amplifier
c)
buffer amplifier
d)
oscillator
407. (Nov 1997) A method of expressing the amplitude of complex non-periodic si
gnals such as speech.
a)
Pitch
b)
Wavelength
c)
Frequency
d)
Volume
408. (Nov 1997) An AM transmitter is rated 100 W at 100% modulation. How much p
ower is required for the carrier?
a)
33.33 W
b)
66.66 W
c)
83.33 W
d)
100 W
409. A type of microphone which has a permanent magnet
a)
ribbon
b)
carbon
c)
crystal
d)
electret
410. What happens to the spectrum of a repetitive pulse as the pulse width decr
eases?
a)
More harmonics of the same phase
b)
Remain constant
c)
Less harmonics of the same phase
d)
decreases
411. How many times more bandwidth does the UHF band have than VHF band?
a)
1
b)
1000
c)
100
d)
10
412. What is the major advantage of FM over AM?
a)
Simple circuits
b)
High frequency
c)
Less noise
d)
No interference
413. (Apr 1997) _____ used to measure speech volume.
a)
Volume meter
b)
Audio frequency meter
c)
Volume unit meter
d)
Speech meter
414. The term wolfe number refers to the front-end circuit of a VHF TV super he
terodyne receiver?
a)
X-rays
b)
11-year sunspot cycle
c)
27-year solar cycle
d)
Ultraviolet Radiation
415. (Nov 1998) What connects the front-end circuit of a VHF TV super heterodyn
e receiver?
a)
Local oscillator, mixer and RF amplifier
b)
RF amplifier, Band pass filter and mixer
c)
Mixer, RF amplifier and AFC
d)
Local oscillator, AGC and antenna
416. (Nov 1997) The third symbol in the designation of radio emission under the
IYU rules refers to
a)
nature of signal(s)modulating the main carrier
b)
type of information to be transmitted

c)
bandwidth
d)
type of modulation of the main carrier
417. (Nov 1996) Speaker is a device that ____.
a)
none of these
b)
convert current variations into sound waves
c)
convert sound waves into current and voltage
d)
convert electrical energy to mechanical energy
418. (Apr 1998) Considered as the main source of an internal noise.
a)
Temperature change
b)
Thermal agitation
c)
Device imperfection
d)
Flicker
419. The signal which is superimposed on a high-frequency sine wave is called _
____.
a)
Information
b)
Sideband
c)
Carrier
d)
Square wave
420. FM has a major disadvantage of _____.
a)
High voltage
b)
Greater coverage
c)
Low efficiency
d)
Greater bandwidth
421. The range of frequencies represented in a signal.
a)
Guardband
b)
Bandwidth
c)
Crisp
d)
Beamwidth
422. (Nov 1997) The first symbol in the designation of radio emission under the
ITU rules refers to
a)
nature of signal(s) modulating the main carrier
b)
type of information to be transmitted
c)
type of modulation of the main carrier
d)
bandwidth
423. The entire range of _____ of electromagnetic radiation is called the frequ
ency spectrum.
a)
Phases
b)
Frequencies
c)
Amplitudes
d)
Energies
424. (Mar 1996) Three audio waves with 100, 200 and 300 volts amplitude respect
ively, simultaneously modulate a 450 volts carrier. What is the total percent of
modulation of the Am wave?
a)
115.5%
b)
50%
c)
69%
d)
83%
425. What is the blanking level for negative transmission?
a)
75%
b)
66.6%
c)
12.5%
d)
50%
426. Sound is a wave motion of varying air____.
a)
Pressure
b)
Density
c)
Resistance
d)
Viscosity
427. How many cathodes are there in a shadow-mask tube?
a)
1
b)
3

c)
4
d)
2
428. What is the color subcarrier for channel 5?
a)
76 MHz
b)
80.83 MHz
c)
76.25 MHz
d)
81.75 MHz
429. (Nov 1996)Multiplexing in a time division multiplexer occurs based upon
a)
The priority assigned to a connected device
b)
The position of a frame within a group of frames
c)
The positioning of data within a frame
d)
The activity of a connected device
430. (Apr 1998) A carrier signal has _____.
a)
Frequency range 20-20000 Hz
b)
The information
c)
A varying amplitude
d)
Constant peak amplitude
431. What sweep frequency could be used on a scope to stop an envelope pattern
of 600-Hz modulation?
a)
150 Hz
b)
600 Hz
c)
1200 Hz
d)
300 Hz
432. Name a periodic waveform that consists of only odd harmonics.
a)
Square wave
b)
Cosine wave
c)
Spikes
d)
Sine wave
433. Is SSB, voice compression is better in the AF or Rf section?
a)
SB
b)
Intermediate
c)
RF
d)
AF
434. A microwave antenna at an earth station has Tant=25 K. If the receiver has
Tr=290 K (3 dB NF), then the resultant equivalent system noise temperature is _
__.
a)
290 K
b)
25 K
c)
300 K
d)
315 K
435. A modulation technique commonly used for low-cost digitization of voice si
gnals.
a)
F3
b)
A0
c)
A5C
d)
A3
436. For a 75-MHz FM carrier modulated by 5-kHZ audio tone that causes a freque
ncy deviation of 15 kHz, determine the FM signal bandwidth.
a)
200 kHz
b)
100 kHz
c)
40 kHz
d)
80 kHz
437. What is the source of wheel static?
a)
Brakes
b)
Oscillations
c)
Piston
d)
Wheel
438. In AM, maximum desirable output of a transmitter is obtained when its modu
lation is _____%.
a)
100

b)
less than 100
c)
greater than 100
d)
50
439. (Nov 1997) A single sideband emission in which the degree of carrier suppr
ession enables the carrier to be reconstituted and to be used for demodulation.
a)
Full carrier single band emission
b)
Standard single sideband emission
c)
Reduce carrier single sideband emission
d)
Half carrier single sideband emission
440. The big breakthrough in electric communications came with the invention of
the _____ in 1844.
a)
Transistor
b)
Phonograph
c)
Telephone
d)
Telegraph
441. The circuit used for producing a double sideband suppressed carrier type o
f AM signal is called _____.
a)
Mixer
b)
AGC
c)
PLL
d)
Balances modulator
442. For an IF frequency of 455 kHz, what must be the LO frequency when receivi
ng a 580 kHz transmission?
a)
3.51 MHz
b)
1.035 MHz
c)
1035 MHz
d)
351 kHz
443. When a carrier is frequency-modulated, what is developed on both sides car
rier?
a)
Envelope
b)
Noise
c)
sidebands
d)
Carrier
444. (Mar 1996) Power is always _____.
a)
All of these
b)
A definite amount of energy
c)
The rate at which energy is used
d)
Expressed in watts
445. Amplitude limiting in the IF section eliminates _____ interference from th
e FM signal.
a)
AM
b)
Broadband
c)
PM
d)
FM
446. A type of information signal which is made up of rapid and unpredictable v
ariations in amplitude and frequency.
a)
speech
b)
pulses
c)
bits
d)
digital
447. The audio is reconstructed from the radio wave by:
a)
The action of a filter capacitor connected across the headset
b)
The action of the headset
c)
None of the above.
d)
Having the audio removed from the carrier
448. The modulated carrier power in FM
a)
Is independent of modulating signal power
b)
Increases with modulating signal power
c)
Decreases with modulating signal power
d)
All of the above

449. (Nov 1996) The unit of pitch.

a)
Decibel
b)
Mel
c)
Phon
d)
Sone
450. (Apr 1997) If you have an available number of power amplifiers with a gain
of 100 each, how many such amplifiers do you need to cascade to give an overall
gain of 60 dB?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
451. (Mar 1996) A car horn outdoors, produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB
at ft away. At this distance, what is the sound power in watt?
a)
1.2 W
b)
0.12 W
c)
12 W
d)
0.012 W
452. (Nov 1998) What do you call the service area of a standard AM broadcast wh
ere fading is allowed but no objectionable co-channel interference?
a)
Experimental
b)
Secondary
c)
Primary
d)
Tertiary
453. What might cause a 120-MHz aircraft transmission to be received on an FM b
roadcast band receiver with a 10.7-MHz IF?
a)
97.2 MHz
b)
99.3 MHz
c)
96.3 MHz
d)
98.6 MHz
454. (Nov 1996) The output of a balanced modulator is _____.
a)
LSB
b)
Carrier
c)
USB
d)
LSB and USB
455. Determine the noise power delivered to a receiver input at 300 K and noise
bandwidth of 20 kHz.
a)
131dBm
b)
-130.8 dBm
c)
-120 dBm
d)
-25 dBm
456. If a 7-A carrier is modulated 100% by a sinusoidal tone, how much does the
antenna current increase?
a)
66.7%
b)
33.3%
c)
22.5%
d)
44.8%
457. What is the main disadvantage of a single-tube transmitted?
a)
Low gain
b)
High attenuation
c)
Frequency instability
d)
High resistivity
458. (Mar 1996) In AM, the carrier carries _____ intelligence.
a)
Difference
b)
Same
c)
No
d)
Distorted
459. A system has 150 kHz of bandwidth available for a 10-kHz modulating signal
. What is the approximate deviation?
a)
75 kHz

b)
65 kHz
c)
70 kHz
d)
100 kHz
460. What source of noise is related to system temperature?
a)
shot noise
b)
thermal noise
c)
pink noise
d)
burst noise
461. What was the first BC PM system called?
a)
Armstrong
b)
Fourier
c)
Wienbridge
d)
Weaver
462. Modulating two waves of the same frequency but with _____.
a)
45
b)
180
c)
90
d)
360
463. Which of the following is not an advantage of SSB over AM?
a)
Less spectrum
b)
None of these
c)
Power saving
d)
Simple receiver circuit
464. What is the main problem in receiving a suppressed carrier transmission or
a single sideband transmission?
a)
The selectivity of the receiver must be good.
b)
There must be three detectors.
c)
The gain of the amplifier must be high
d)
The receiver needs to reinsert the missing carrier.
465. Who hears high audio frequency best?
a)
all of the above
b)
old people
c)
young people
d)
40 years old
466. What determines the selectivity of a receiver?
a)
the bandwidth of the tuned circuits
b)
the gain of the amplifier
c)
the power handling capability
d)
the frequency stability
467. The information carrying capacity of a signal is _____ to its bandwidth.
a)
Inversely proportional
b)
Directly proportional
c)
Not related
d)
Equal
468. (Mar 1996) What is the difference between phase and frequency modulation?
a)
Lies in poorer audio response of phase modulation
b)
Lies in the different definitions of the modulation index
c)
Is purely theoretical because they are the same in practice
d)
Os too great to make two systems compatible
469. (Mar 1996) The letter-number designation B8E is a form of modulation also
known as _____.
a)
Pilot-carrier system
b)
Vestigial sideband transmission
c)
Lincompex
d)
Independent sideband emission
470. In what way would a program may be received at BC stations?
a)
Radio Relay
b)
All of the above
c)
Telephone Lines
d)
Satellite

471. What does an FM detector do?

a)
to convert phase changes to frequency changes
b)
to increase the frequency change
c)
to convert frequency changes to amplitude changes
d)
to extract amplitude variations
472. What is the major requirement of the oscillators used in an SSB receiver?
a)
Goof feedback
b)
High frequency
c)
stability
d)
Selectivity
473. (Nov 1997) A large speaker having diameter (15 cm. and above)
a)
Coaxial speaker
b)
Triaxial speaker
c)
Tweeter
d)
Woofer
474. The typical output voltage from a magnetic microphone is
a)
5 mV
b)
10 mV
c)
1 mV
d)
50 mV
475. What is the major advantage of a super heterodyne receiver?
a)
good image rejection
b)
excellent selectivity and sensitivity
c)
high amplification factor
d)
inexpensive
476. Compute the modulation index of an FM signal with a carrier swing of 10 kH
z when the modulating signal is 5 kHz.
a)
4
b)
2
c)
0.5
d)
1
477. Determine the power saving in percent when the carrier is suppressed in an
AM signal modulated to 80%
a)
75.8%
b)
66.7%
c)
80%
d)
100%
478. What is the letter symbol for the luminance signal?
a)
Q
b)
Y
c)
R
d)
I
479. Which of the following is an advantage of PM over FM?
a)
Requires a complex circuitry
b)
A need for several modulators
c)
Requires a simpler transmitter
d)
One amplifier is required
480. (Apr 1998) The signal to noise ratio that is required for a satisfactory t
elevision reception.
a)
20 dB
b)
10 dB
c)
40 dB
d)
30 dB
481. The PM signal produces by an FM circuit is called
a)
Indirect FM
b)
Indirect PM
c)
Direct PM
d)
Direct FM
482. A diode detector:
a)
Converts AC into pulsating DC.

b)
Detects the modulating signal.
c)
Does all of the above.
d)
Allows current to flow in one direction only.
483. (Nov 1998) What is meant by the term deviation ratio?
a)
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the avera
ge audio modulating frequency
b)
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulatin
g frequency
c)
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the high
est audio modulation frequency
d)
The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrie
r frequency
484. (Mar 1996) The signal in a channel is measured to be 23 dB while noise in
the same channel is measured to be 9 dB. The signal to noise ratio therefore is
____.
a)
23/9
b)
9/23
c)
14-dB
d)
32-dB
485. What type of coupling discriminates against harmonic transmission
a)
Inductive
b)
Capacitive
c)
Direct
d)
Transformer
486. He was the one who developed the wireless telegraph.
a)
Marconi
b)
Armstrong
c)
Edison
d)
Bell
487. What is the oldest and simplest form of multiplexing?
a)
Time-division multiplexing
b)
Hybrid-division multiplexing
c)
Space-division multiplexing
d)
Frequency-division multiplexing
488. The parameter of a high-frequency carrier that may be varied by a low-freq
uency intelligence signal is _____.
a)
Phase
b)
All of the above
c)
Frequency
d)
Amplitude
489. What is an ideal pulse?
a)
A low duty cycle
b)
A perfect square wave with zero rise time
c)
A high amplitude
d)
A very short duration
490. To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, what system m
ust be used?
a)
ISB emission
b)
Vestigial sideband system
c)
Pilot carrier system
d)
Lincomplex
491. (Apr 1998) Term for transmission of printed picture by radio.
a)
ACSSB
b)
Television
c)
Facsimile
d)
Xerography
492. What other term is essentially synonymous with beating?
a)
Filtering
b)
Scrambling
c)
Suppressing

d)
Heterodyning
493. Which of the following is used in microwave ovens?
a)
BWO
b)
Magnetron
c)
Klystron
d)
TWT
494. (Nov 1996) The wavelength of light has no role in
a)
Resolving power
b)
Diffraction
c)
Polarization
d)
Interference
495. A SSB transmitter drives 121 V peak into a 50-O antenna. What is the PEP?
a)
146W
b)
292 W
c)
73 W
d)
121 W
496. (Apr 1998) The final power amplifier in an FM y=transmitter usually operat
es class _____.
a)
AB
b)
C
c)
A
d)
B
497. (Mar 1996) If the percentage of modulation of an AM amplifier is 88% and t
he modulation signal is 1 volt, the carrier has an amplitude of _____.
a)
0.12 volt
b)
0.88 volt
c)
1.88 volts
d)
1.14 volts
498. In Frequency Modulation ______.
a)
The amplitude of the carrier according to the amplitude of the m
odulating signal
b)
The frequency of carrier varies according to the phase of the mo
dulating signal
c)
The frequency of carrier varies according to the amplitude of th
e modulating signal
d)
The frequency of carrier varies according to the frequency of th
e modulating signal
499. Which is not a method of generating single sideband signal?
a)
Filter
b)
Weaver
c)
Phase-shift
d)
Balanced modulator
500. If the 500-Hz modulation of a 1-MHz carrier has 3rd harmonic distortion, w
hat is the emission bandwidth?
a)
1 MHz
b)
1 kHz
c)
3 kHz
d)
1500 Hz
501. What is the bandwidth of a narrowband FM signal generates by a 2 kHz audio
signal a 110-MHz FM carrier?
a)
4 kHz
b)
1 kHz
c)
2 kHz
d)
5 kHz
502. (Nov 1996) Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast?
a)
VHF
b)
HF
c)
UHF
d)
MF
503. An SSB contains 30 kW. The power content of the carrier is _____ kW.

a)
10
b)
0
c)
20
d)
30
504. What determines the station that will be selected by a tuner?
a)
The sensitivity of the tuner
b)
The bandwidth of the amplifier
c)
The resonant frequency of the tuner
d)
The selectivity of the IF
505. What is the frequency of the color burst?
a)
3.58 MHz
b)
60 Hz
c)
6 MHz
d)
30 Hz
506. What factor(s) determine the modulation index of an FM signal?
a)
Amplitude of the carrier
b)
A and b are true
c)
Frequency deviation
d)
Frequency of the modulation signal
507. The noise power generated by a resistor depends upon
a)
none of the above
b)
its resistance value
c)
both a and b
d)
its operating temperature
508. (Nov 1996) When was the UHF channels (14-83) of television were added?
a)
1852
b)
1952
c)
1947
d)
1904
509. If an FM transmitter has two doublers and one tripler, what is the carrier
swing when the oscillator deviates 2 kHz?
a)
24 kHz
b)
48 kHz
c)
36 kHz
d)
2 kHz
510. What is the result if a balanced modulator is not perfectly balanced?
a)
SB filtered
b)
Carrier transmitted
c)
Low sideband transmitted
d)
Both sideband transmitted
511. FM system is superior to AM because
a)
It has wider bandwidth
b)
It eliminates most of amplitude variation noise
c)
It is at VHR band
d)
It produces more rock music
512. (Mar 1996) Atmospheric condition is controlled by
a)
Temperature
b)
All of these
c)
Pressure
d)
Humidity
513. What does ALC mean?
a)
All Local Circuits
b)
Automatic Link Circuit
c)
Asynchronous Link Control
d)
Automatic Level Control
Your chosen subject is: Electronics Engineering
Only 851 questions remaining in this category. Please answer the following 851 q
uestions and then press the Submit button below!
1. The minimum negative VGK to force the plate current to be zero in vacuum t

ubes.
a)
Cutoff bias
b)
0 V
c)
Threshold voltage
d)
Pinch
off voltage
2. What is the most positive voltage out of a negative clamper whose input is
10 peak - to - peak sinusoidal voltages?
a)
5V
b)
10V
c)
3V
d)
0V
3. Which of the following does not have a base terminal?
a)
UJT
b)
SCR
c)
Pnp
d)
Npn
4. Tetrodes and pentodes are usually rated by their ___________.
a)

b)
rp
c)
gm
d)
voltage gain
5. Given that the lower cutoff frequency is 10 Hz and the higher cutoff frequ
ency is 1 kHz. Calculate the center frequency f0.
a)
100 Hz
b)
1 kHz
c)
1.5 kHz
d)
1005 Hz
6. Filter that exhibits an extremely fast roll-off rate. Filter that is chara
cterized by a relatively flat passband and slow roll-off rate.
a)
Butterworth
b)
Chebyshev
c)
Notch
d)
Elliptic
7. What FET terminal corresponds to Emitter of BJT?
a)
Source
b)
Drain
c)
Anode
d)
Gate
8. It is the biasing of the BJT at room temperature with no voltage applied.
a)
Zero bias
b)
Unbias
c)
Base bias
d)
VDB
9. Material usually used as gate of MOS for IC.
a)
Gold
b)
Platinum
c)
Poly-silicon
d)
Mono-crystalline silicon
10. A circuit whose output is the continuous summation of a signal over a peri
od of time.
a)
Integrator
b)
Differentiator
c)
Schmitt trigger
d)
Level detector
11. To limit the current during starting, a __________ is inserted with the ar
mature circuit.
a)
Resistor in parallel
b)
Inductor in parallel
c)
Capacitor in series
d)
Resistor in series

12. This happens when a free electron returns to the valence shell. (0 correct
answers)
a)
Recombination
b)
Hole
c)
Ionization
d)
Lifetime
13. When the ohmmeter is connected with its positive terminal to the base of a
n npn transistor and its negative terminal to the emitter, what is the most prob
able value that will be displayed?
a)
10k ?
b)
100k ?
c)
1k ?
d)
0?
14. What is the residual magnetism?
a)
The flux density, which exist in the iron core when the magnetic
field intensity is at its maximum value.
b)
The external magnetic field when the current is flowing through
the exciting coil.
c)
The flux density, which exist in the iron core when the magnetic
field intensity reduced to zero.
d)
The flux density when the magnetic core is saturated.
15. Kind of AC-motor, light load high speed or high speed or high load low spe
ed.
a)
Universal motor
b)
Squirrel cage motor
c)
Split case motor
d)
Synchronous motor
16. Which of the following is a good practice in replacing capacitors in volta
ge multipliers?
a)
Reversing the capacitor polarity
b)
Using a smaller value capacitor but with higher voltage rating
c)
The replacement capacitors must have the same or higher voltage
ratings than the originals
d)
Using a smaller value capacitor but with lower voltage rating
17. Common - base (CB) amplifier has ___________ compared to common - emitter
(CE) and common - collector (CC) amplifier.
a)
A larger current gain
b)
A higher input resistance
c)
A larger voltage gain
d)
A lower input resistance
18. Which of the following is not a popular biasing technique for vacuum tubes
?
a)
VDB
b)
Self bias
c)
Grid-leak bias
d)
Fixed bias
19. Which is a common use for point contact diode?
a)
As an RF detector
b)
As a constant voltage source
c)
As a high voltage rectifier
d)
As a constant current source
20. An FET can act as an excellent buffer amplifier because __________.
a)
It has a low input impedance and a high output impedance
b)
Smaller size, longer life, and lower efficiency
c)
It has a very high voltage gain and a low noise level
d)
It has a high input impedance and a low output impedance
21. Type of clipper that has an output when the diode is forward biased.
a)
Rectifier
b)
Series clipper
c)
Forward clipper

d)
Positive clipper
22. In order to have the best efficiency and stability, where on the loadline
should a solid state power amplifier be operated?
a)
Just power below the saturation point
b)
At 1.414 times the saturation point
c)
Just above the saturation point
d)
At the saturation point
23. A 33 k ? resistor connected in series with a parallel combination made up
of a 56 k ? resistor and a 7.8 k ? resistor. What is the total combined resistan
ce of these three resistors?
a)
63,769 ?
b)
39,067 ?
c)
95,800 ?
d)
49,069 ?
24. is a thin polished slice of a semiconductor crystal on which integrated ci
rcuit can be fabricated often in duplicate, for cutting into individual dice.
a)
Indium
b)
Gallium
c)
Wafer
d)
Silicon
25. What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence?
a)
Inductive bias
b)
Reverse bias
c)
Forward bias
d)
Zero bias
26. What is the majority in an N channel?
a)
Protons
b)
Holes
c)
Neutrons
d)
Electrons
27. Which of the following biasing techniques is designed only for certain tub
es?
a)
Grid-leak bias
b)
Self-bias
c)
Fixed bias
d)
Emitter feedback
28. ___________ is the property of the material which opposes creation of magn
etic flux.
a)
Conductance
b)
Reluctance
c)
Resistance
d)
Permeance
29. What elements possess four valence electrons?
a)
Semi-insulators
b)
Conductors
c)
Semi conductors
d)
Insulators
30. In semiconductor physics, it is another word for impure.
a)
Alloy
b)
Extrinsic
c)
Mixture
d)
Molecule
31. Which of the following can be used as a square to spikes wave converter?
a)
Integrator
b)
Differentiator
c)
Level detector
d)
Schmitt trigger
32. The four basic circuit blocks that make up a power supply are ___________.
a)
Rectifier, clamper, filter, regulator
b)
Transformer, clipper, filter, regulator

c)
Transformer, rectifier, filter, regulator
d)
Transformer, rectifier, inverter, regulator
33. The rate at which dc power dissipation must be decreased per 0C rise above
a specified temperature.
a)
Power derating factor
b)
Coefficient of power
c)
Power dissipation rate
d)
Power density
34. Portion of an FET which serves as the path for current.
a)
Source
b)
Channel
c)
Drain
d)
Gate
35. The factor by which current increases from the base of a transistor to its
emitter.
a)
?
b)
a
c)

d)
?
36. A high-speed diode with very small junction capacitance.
a)
Schottky
b)
Germanium diode
c)
Tunnel
d)
Silicon diode
37. A filter having a single continuous transmission band with neither the upp
er nor the lower cut-off frequencies being zero or infinite is called
a)
Band-pass filter
b)
Band-rejection filter
c)
Longitudinal suppression filter
d)
High-pass filter
38. The load resistance should be ______ the plate resistance for the least di
storted output voltage of a triode.
a)
Equal to
b)
2/3 of
c)
Twice or thrice of
d)
Ten times
39. Semiconductor which is considered to be low power of small signal usually have
power dissipation ratings of _____________.
a)
Exactly 1 watt
b)
1 watt or less
c)
10 watt or less
d)
5 watt or less
40. What is the circuit fusing rating of the 2N682-92 series of SCR?
a)
1A2s
b)
56 A
c)
93 A2s
d)
10 A
41. Which is not true for both complementary-symmetry amplifier and standard p
ush - poll amplifier?
a)
Uses two transistors
b)
Usually operating in Class B
c)
The emitters of the two transistors are connected together
d)
One npn and one pnp used
42. Portion of the n-type material which became a part of the depletion region
is actually _______.
a)
Neutral
b)
Negative
c)
One coulomb
d)
Positive
43. Which of the following is a one way conductor?

a)
Triac
b)
Diode
c)
Silicon
d)
Semiconductor
44. The decibel gain in cascaded amplifiers equals the __________.
a)
Difference of individual gains
b)
Product of individual gains
c)
Sum of individual gains
d)
Sum of voltage and current gains
45. The voltage across the collector terminal of a BJT is equal to the summati
on of the dc voltage supply around the collector-emitter loop. The BJT what mode
of operation?
a)
Common emitter
b)
Common base
c)
Saturation
d)
Cut-off
46. In half-wave rectifier, if a resistance equal to the load resistance is co
nnected in parallel with the diode then __________________.
a)
Output voltage will remain unchanged
b)
Output voltage would be halved
c)
Output voltage would be doubled
d)
Circuit will stop rectifying
47. What are the two terminals of a DIAC?
a)
Collector and emitter
b)
MT1 and MT2
c)
Anode and cathode
d)
Anode1 and anode2
48. At cutoff frequency, the voltage gain is equal to
a)
0.707 V
b)
?Vmax/2
c)
0.707 ?Vmax
d)
?Vmax / v2
49. Find the current that flows through the filament of a 400 watts flat iron
connected to a 220 volt power line.
a)
500 mA
b)
5 mA
c)
50 mA
d)
5 A
50. Process by which a magnetic substance becomes a magnet when it is placed n
ear a magnet.
a)
Electromagnetic induction
b)
Magnetic reflection
c)
Influx of density
d)
Magnet induction
51. IC production method to prevent unwanted interaction between elements with
in a chip.
a)
Evaporation
b)
Isolation
c)
Diffusion
d)
Cathode sputtering
52. A two-pole, one-phase motor has __________field poles.
a)
2
b)
4
c)
8
d)
6
53. _____________ is the region in a transistor that is heavily doped.
a)
Collector
b)
Emitter
c)
Base
d)
Ground

54. What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?

a)
Collector, base and emitter
b)
Anode 1, anode 2 and anode 3
c)
Anode, cathode and gate
d)
MT1, MT2 and gate
55. Distortion at the upper end of the load line.
a)
Saturation clipping
b)
Cutoff clipping
c)
Compliance clipping
d)
Upper end noise
56. The region in an electronic transistor that is lightly doped and very thin
is referred to the __________.
a)
Emitter
b)
Base
c)
Collector-base
d)
Collector
57. Minimum anode to cathode voltage to the Shockley on.
a)
Forward breakover voltage
b)
Holding voltage
c)
Breakdown voltage
d)
Trigger
58. PNP transistor has the following arrangement ____________.
a)
P-type base, N-type emitter, P-type collector
b)
P-type emitter, N-type collector, P-type base
c)
P-type emitter, N-type base, P-type collector
d)
P-type collector, N-type base, P-type emitter
59. Solve for flux density (in gauss) for a magnetic flux of 5,000 Mx through
a perpendicular area of 2 cm x 5 cm.
a)
50 G
b)
10,000 G
c)
500 G
d)
5,000 G
60. The plate resistance of a tetrode is in the range of _________.
a)
100?
b)
1k?
c)
100k? - 1M?
d)
50k? - 100k?
61. What is the peak reverse voltage of 1N4007?
a)
50V
b)
600V
c)
400V
d)
1000V
62. Two low pass filter sections each has a roll-off rate of -6 dB/octave. If
they are connected in cascade, what will be the overall roll-off rate?
a)
-6 dB/octave
b)
36 dB/octave
c)
6 dB/octave
d)
-12dB/octave
63. Which is not an advantage of an integrated circuit rectifier?
a)
Less cost
b)
It does not need any heat sink
c)
It is more compact thus space is save
d)
Easier to trouble shoot
64. The following losses are called variable losses except.
a)
Iron loss
b)
Armature copper loss
c)
Interpole winding loss
d)
Series field loss
65. Which grid should be held at almost the same voltage as the plate?
a)
Suppressor

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.
dent?

b)
Control
c)
Screen
d)
Filament
The bigger the diameter of a wire, the ________is its resistance.
a)
Lesser
b)
Stable
c)
Higher
d)
Unstable
Which is also called one
shot multivibrator?
a)
Bistable
b)
Monostable
c)
Astable
d)
Zerostable
Another name for photo-SCR.
a)
LED
b)
LASER
c)
LASCR
d)
Photosensitive
What is another name for base bias?
a)
Fixed bias
b)
Beta bias
c)
Gate bias
d)
Emitter bias
What phenomenon in electronics does an avalanche breakdown primarily depen

a)
Ionization
b)
Doping
c)
Collision
d)
Recombination
71. How do you describe materials whose permeabilities are a little greater th
an that of free space?
a)
Non-magnetic
b)
Paramagnetic
c)
Ferromagnetic
d)
Diamagnetic
72. The suppressor grid is usually connected to the _________.
a)
screen grid
b)
positive voltage
c)
anode
d)
cathode
73. Which has the highest noise?
a)
Pentode
b)
Tetrode
c)
Triode
d)
Diode
74. What do you call the natural resistance of the forward-biased diode?
a)
Bulk resistance
b)
Intrinsic resistance
c)
Equivalent resistance
d)
Bias resistance
75. Which of the transistor configuration is used in the output circuit of the
op-amp to provide a low output impedance?
a)
CE
b)
CC
c)
CG
d)
CB
76. Frequency wherein the power gain is one-half of the maximum possible power
gain for the given amplifier.
a)
Beamwidth
b)
Bandwidth

c)
Center frequency
d)
Cutoff frequency
77. What happens to the output resistance of an amplifier employing current-sh
unt feedback?
a)
Equals infinity
b)
It remains the same
c)
It is decreased
d)
It is increased
78. Color whose wavelength ranges from 400 to 455 nm.
a)
White
b)
Red
c)
Violet
d)
Black
79. Which is not a trivalent atom?
a)
In
b)
Al
c)
Bi
d)
B
80. A representation of a circuit that shows how that circuit looks to an ac s
ource.
a)
Model
b)
Reactance
c)
Ac equivalent circuit
d)
Impedance
81. The current needed to operate a soldering iron which has a rating of 600 w
atts at 110 volts is
a)
18,200 A
b)
5.455 A
c)
0.182 A
d)
66,000 A
82. Bias that causes a pn junction to have a high resistance.
a)
Reverse
b)
Forward
c)
Cutoff
d)
Maximum resistance
83. Ohms law refers to ________________.
a)
Current varies directly as the voltage and inversely as the resi
stance
b)
Power is directly proportional to resistance and inversely as th
e current squared
c)
Power is directly proportional to both voltage squared and the r
esistance
d)
Current is directly proportional to both voltage and resistance
84. Rate of transition from pass band to stop band or vice versa.
a)
Transition rate
b)
Band rate
c)
Roll-off rate
d)
Decay rate
85. _____________is the unit of reluctance.
a)
Maxwells
b)
At/Wb
c)
Weber
d)
Gauss
86. What is the unit of magnetic of magnetic flux in SI system?
a)
Weber
b)
Maxwell
c)
Tesla
d)
Gauss
87. Refers to a form of dc motor generator with common field coil for both mot
or and generator.

a)
Synchronous motor
b)
Dyna-motor
c)
Motor-generator
d)
Polyphase-motor
88. What is the peak-to-peak voltage out of the positive clamper whose input i
s a 10V peak-to-peak sinusoidal voltage?
a)
10V
b)
3V
c)
5V
d)
0V
89. Ability of a material to conduct magnetic flux through it refers to
a)
Conductivity
b)
Permeability
c)
Permittivity
d)
Reluctivity
90. A coil placed on a wave wound armature for mechanical balance.
a)
Dummy coil
b)
Compensating coil
c)
Demagnetizing coil
d)
Auxiliary coil
91. What is the feedback component of an RC op-amp integrator?
a)
Conductor
b)
Capacitor
c)
Inductor
d)
Resistor
92. Which is the best storage aid for the MOSFETs?
a)
Refrigerator
b)
Plastic
c)
Aluminium foil
d)
Styrofoam
93. A circuit that receives a single input signal and produces two signals tha
t are 180o out of phase with each other.
a)
Inverter
b)
Totem pole
c)
CE
d)
Phase splitter
94. What is the range of audio frequency?
a)
10 to 2,000 Hz
b)
10 to 10,000 Hz
c)
3 to 30 kHz
d)
16 to 20,000 Hz
95. It is the maximum permissible value of dc forward current for a diode.
a)
Allowable current
b)
Average forward current
c)
Dc current
d)
Peak current
96. What is the effect in terms of bandwidth when the Q of a single-tune stage
is doubled?
a)
Halved
b)
Four times
c)
Doubled
d)
The same
97. Circuit that is used to produce a DC output voltage that is some integral
multiple of the peak of the AC input voltage.
a)
Differentiator
b)
Integrator
c)
Restorer
d)
Multiplier
98. Which of the following circuit converts an input wave form to rectangular
wave?

a)
Amplifier
b)
Differentiator
c)
Schmitt trigger
d)
Integrator
99. How many diodes will you use to have a basic half-wave rectifier?
a)
Four
b)
Three
c)
One
d)
Two
100. A MOSFET amplifier circuit which is composed of a self-biased CS amplifier
in series with a voltage divider biased CG amplifier.
a)
CMOS
b)
PMOS
c)
Cascade
d)
NMOS
101. Which of the following is the unit of electric field?
a)
Newton/Coulomb
b)
Volts
c)
Gilbert
d)
Ampere/meter
102. Which should be the first step taken in diode circuit analysis?
a)
Replace the diode with its equivalent circuit
b)
Determine the state of the diode
c)
Determine the voltage polarity across the diode
d)
Calculate the current through the diode
103. The condition that product of the feedback fraction and the open-loop gain
should be 1 for oscillation is known as _____________.
a)
Negative feedback
b)
Osci requirement
c)
Positive feedback
d)
Barkhausen criterion
104. It consists of elements inseparably associated and formed on or within a s
ingle substrate.
a)
Microsoft
b)
Integrated circuit
c)
Module
d)
Micro circuit
105. A triac behaves like two
a)
Diodes in series
b)
Inverse parallel connected SCRs with common gate
c)
Four-layer diodes in parallel
d)
Four-layer in parallel
106. PN junction acts as a one way valve for electrons because ________.
a)
When electrons are pump from P to N, free electrons and holes ar
e force apart leaving no way for electrons to cross the junction
b)
Electrons tend to follow the direction of the diode
c)
There is a little mechanical switch inside a diode
d)
The circuit in which the diode is used, only attempts to pump el
ectrons in one diode.
107. This type electrical machine is used for varying the input voltage into a
higher or a lower potential without changing the power transferred.
a)
Motor
b)
Generator
c)
Transformer
d)
Alternator
108. What JFET operating system corresponds to Cutoff of BJT? (0 correct answer
s)
a)
Cutoff
b)
Saturation
c)
Breakdown

d)
Ohmic
109. Which of the following best describes an intrinsic semi conductor?
a)
It is monocrystalline
b)
The concentration of holes and free electrons are equal
c)
It is only composed of only one kind of element
d)
There is no hole and free electron
110. It is a program written in a language understandable by human.
a)
Object program
b)
Language
c)
Source program
d)
Database
111. An MV209 varactor has nominal capacitance of 1 pf. What will be its capaci
tance at 75 oC?
a)
1.025pf
b)
2pf
c)
1pf
d)
1.015pf
112. It includes the guaranteed operating characteristics of the device.
a)
Quiescent point
b)
Q point
c)
Maximum rating
d)
Electrical characteristics
113. What do you call an electromagnet with its core in a form of magnetic ring
?
a)
Toroid
b)
Motor
c)
Paraboloid
d)
Solenoid
114. __________ is a pn junction semiconductor device that emits non coherent o
ptical radiation when biased in the forward direction, as a result of a recombin
ation effect.
a)
Optical cavity
b)
JUGPET
c)
LASER
d)
LED
115. The suppressor grid suppresses ____________.
a)
Resistance
b)
Inductance
c)
Transconductance
d)
Secondary emission
116. Which of the following bipolar digital IC families is the fastest?
a)
I2L
b)
DTL
c)
ECL
d)
TTL
117. Another name for trivalent atoms.
a)
Intrinsic
b)
Pentagon structure
c)
Acceptor
d)
Donor
118. The filter in the output of a power supply is a ________.
a)
Band pass filter
b)
Band reject filter
c)
Low pass filter
d)
High pass filter
119. How many turns are needed to produce a magnetizing force of 5000 A.t. for
a coil of 50 amperes?
a)
100 turns
b)
500 turns
c)
1,000 turns

d)
5,000 turns
120. What is the typical efficiency of RC-Coupled class A amplifier?
a)
78.54%
b)
25%
c)
10%
d)
50%
121. It is the same as ac.
a)
a
b)
hfe
c)
dc
d)
hFE
122. The total resistance of a two similar wire conductors connected in paralle
l is ___________.
a)
Double the resistance of one wire
b)
One half the resistance of one wire
c)
Same resistance of one wire
d)
Resistance of one wire multiplied by 4
123. Which of the BJT amplifier configuration has the highest power gain?
a)
CC
b)
CE
c)
CB
d)
Emitter follower
124. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of _______
_____.
a)
Electron current in the emitter
b)
Electron current in the collector
c)
Donor ion current
d)
Hole current in the emitter
125. Which of the following statements is false?
a)
Maximum voltage appears across an open circuit
b)
Carbon resistors can be internally shorted
c)
A forward biased varactor diode has the same forward characteris
tics as a standard rectifier diode
d)
Temperature has little effect on the capacitance rating of most
varactors
126. In a high-fidelity system, the pair of filter, which separate audio freque
ncy band signals into two separate groups, one of which is fed to the tweeter an
d the other to the woofer, is called
a)
Matching transformer
b)
Bridge network
c)
Equalizer
d)
Crossover network
127. Which is not true for a schottky diode?
a)
It uses a metal instead of the p-type material
b)
It has only one pn junction
c)
Low junction capacitance
d)
High switching speed
128. Which is not an invention by Lee De Forest? (0 correct answers)
a)
Alternating current transmitter
b)
Triode
c)
Electrolytic radio detector
d)
Photocopier
129. What is the output voltage of the 7805 regulator?
a)
15 volts
b)
19 volts
c)
7 volts
d)
5 volts
130. Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than DC?
a)
Because of skin effect
b)
Current at radio frequency

c)
Because of the insulation conducts
d)
Because of the Heisenberg effect
131. The lagging of the magnetic flux density to the variation in the magnetizi
ng force applied is called ___________.
a)
Thevenin s
b)
Magnetization
c)
KCL
d)
Hysteresis
132. This model characterizes the diode as a simple that is either closed or op
en.
a)
Second approximation
b)
Ideal
c)
Third approximation
d)
Complete
133. A high-power MOSFET that has a short channel and heavily doped n-type regi
on.
a)
NMOS
b)
PMOS
c)
CMOS
d)
LDMOS
134. Which of the following semiconductor device has nearly the same characteri
stics as the thyratron?
a)
SCR
b)
TRIAC
c)
Schockley
d)
Schottky
135. Minimum VDS at which ID become constant when VGS is zero.
a)
Cutoff
b)
Pinchoff
c)
turn-on voltage
d)
Saturation
136. Find the filter capacitor that will provide 2.5% ripple filtered voltage h
aving a load of 120 mA, full-wave rectified voltage of 36V dc and 60Hz supply.
a)
3117 microfarads
b)
311.7 microfarads
c)
320.7 microfarads
d)
3207 microfarads
137. Find the equivalent of 10 Oersted (Oe)
a)
10 Gb/cm
b)
1 Gb/cm
c)
100 Gb/cm
d)
1 Gb/cm
138. What is the lagging effect between the magnetizing force applied and the f
lux density?
a)
Reluctance
b)
Hysteresis
c)
Permeance
d)
Eddy Current
139. A filter that uses amplifier such as transistor and op-amp as one of its c
omponents.
a)
Active
b)
Passive
c)
LFP
d)
BPF
140. What do you call the phenomenon whereby substance attracts pieces of iron?
a)
Magnetism
b)
Electromagnetism
c)
Permeability
d)
Naturalism
141. It is a digital IC characterize by 100,000 gates or more.

a)
ULSI
b)
MSI
c)
SLSI
d)
VLSI
142. Which top shape of the LED gives the narrowest radiation pattern?
a)
Shallow chip spherical dome
b)
Diffused dome
c)
Aspherical dome
d)
Deep chip spherical dome
143. Amplifier of low level signals that provides an output that is an accurate
multiple of difference between two input signals.
a)
Level detector
b)
Instrumentation amplifiers
c)
Integrator
d)
Schmitt trigger
144. _________ is an orderly pattern of combined silicon atoms.
a)
Crystal
b)
Valence orbit
c)
Covalent bond
d)
Semiconductor
145. The power dissipated in the winding due to their resistance is called ____
______.
a)
Iron loss
b)
Eddy-current loss
c)
Hysteresis loss
d)
Copper loss
146. ____________refers to a constant-K filter.
a)
A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design ban
dwidth
b)
A filter whose product of the series and shunt element impedance
is a constant for all frequencies.
c)
A filter whose velocity factor is constant over a wide range of
frequencies
d)
A filter that uses Boltzmann constant
147. __________is the characteristics of an oscillator that enables it to susta
in oscillation after removal of the control stimulus.
a)
Forced oscillation
b)
Momentum
c)
Fly-wheel effect
d)
Damping
148. It is the reduction in the quantity of emission by the cathode as a result
of contamination due to gas trapped in the tube.
a)
Cutoff
b)
Saturation
c)
Cathode poisoning
d)
Amplification
149. What is another name for clamper?
a)
Slicer
b)
Limiter
c)
Clipper
d)
Dc restorer
150. What term in electronics is used to express how fast an energy is consumed
?
a)
Load
b)
Volt
c)
Power
d)
Conductance
151. What is the distinguishing feature of a class C amplifier?
a)
Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal
cycle

b)
Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360 de
grees of the input signal cycle
c)
Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cy
cle
d)
Output is present for the entire signal cycle
152. What is the range of voltage rating available in zener diode?
a)
1.2 volts to 7 volts
b)
1.2 volts to 5.6 volts
c)
3 volts to 2000 volts
d)
2.4 volts to 200 volts
153. Which scheme in identifying the terminals of the LED is incorrect?
a)
One of the leads maybe flattened and the flattened lead is usual
ly the cathode
b)
One lead may be electroplated and the plated side is usually the
cathode.
c)
One side of the case may be flattened and the lead closest to th
e flattened side is usually the cathode.
d)
The leads may have different lengths and the longer of the two l
eads is usually the anode
154. ___________is the air space between poles of magnet.
a)
Free zone
b)
Free space
c)
Vacuum
d)
Air gap
155. The circulation of current on the cross-section of the core is called ____
_______.
a)
Secondary current
b)
Primary current
c)
Eddy current
d)
Hysteresis current
156. As you increase the doping level of a crystal diode its voltage ________.
a)
Destabilizes
b)
Stabilizes
c)
Increases
d)
Decreases
157. Which are the three terminals of bipolar transistor?
a)
Cathode, plate and grid
b)
Base, collector and emitter
c)
Input, output and ground
d)
Gate, source and sink
158. ___________is the progressive decay with time in the amplitude of the free
oscillation in a circuit.
a)
Decrement
b)
Damping
c)
Dancing
d)
Pulse decay time
159. The op-amp operation where similar signal appear at both inverting and non
inverting inputs?
a)
Differential mode
b)
Double ended
c)
Common mode
d)
Single ended
160. Which material has more free electrons?
a)
Conductor
b)
Dielectric
c)
Insulators
d)
Mica
161. Which is the wrong statement about a reverse biased ideal diode?
a)
The diode will not pass current
b)
The diode will have infinite resistance

c)
d)

It will allow small amount of leakage current

The diode will drop the entire applied voltage across its termin

als
162. Pin 5 of 555 timers.
a)
discharge
b)
Threshold
c)
Vcc
d)
control voltage
163. Which type of network offers the greatest transformation ratio?
a)
L-network
b)
Pi-network
c)
Constant-M
d)
Constant-K
164. An electronic semiconductor behaves as _________ at absolute zero temperat
ure.
a)
A super conductor
b)
A variable resistor
c)
A conductor
d)
An insulator
165. The general term for integral multiples of a given frequency.
a)
Octave
b)
Decade
c)
Multiplier
d)
Harmonic
166. Term used for resonance in an electrical circuit.
a)
The lowest frequency that will pass current
b)
The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive rea
ctance
c)
The highest frequency that will pass current
d)
The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum
167. Triodes are usually rated by their __________. (0 correct answers)
a)
gm
b)
voltage gain
c)

d)
rp
168. What appropriate diode model is used for mathematical circuit analysis?
a)
Ideal
b)
Complete
c)
First approximation
d)
Practical
169. What is the pi-network?
a)
A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two i
nductor and one capacitor
b)
A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacito
rs
c)
A power incidence network.
d)
An antenna matching network that is isolated form ground
170. The name of a pure semiconductor material that has an equal number of elec
trons and holes.
a)
Intrinsic
type
b)
N
c)
P type
d)
Pure type
171. Ratio of the voltage gain of an op-amp for differential signals to its vol
tage gain for common mode signals.
a)
Closed loop gain
b)
Common mode gain
c)
Differential gain
d)
Common mode rejection ratio
172. Balancing inputs used to balance an op-amp.

a)
Inverting inputs
b)
Non- inverting inputs
c)
Offset null
d)
Supply
173. Which of the following solid state devices work in the phenomenon avalanch
e breakdown?
a)
Triac
b)
All of the above
c)
Unijunction
d)
Schottky diode
174. A positive-shunt positive-biased clipper has a bias voltage of 3V. If the
input voltage is 5 Vpk sinusoid, calculate the maximum and minimum voltage respe
ctively out of this clipper circuit.
a)
5V, 3V
b)
0V, -5V
c)
3V, - 5V
d)
3V, 0V
175. _________ is a gaseous tube which uses a pool of liquid mercury as its cat
hode.
a)
Phanotron
b)
Ignitron
c)
Klystron
d)
Thyratron
176. An oscillator in which a piezoelectric crystal is connected in a tank circ
uit between the input and output.
a)
Pierce
b)
Colpitts
c)
Armstrong
d)
Clapp
177. It is the rating indicating the maximum collector current when the BJT is
in cutoff.
a)
Collector cutoff current
b)
Saturation collector current
c)
Leakage current
d)
Saturated cutoff current
178. At this operating mode, further increase in base current will not increase
the collector current.
a)
Forward active
b)
Reverse active
c)
Cut-off
d)
Saturation
179. It is a type of transformer whose secondary voltage is equal to the primar
y voltage and used to isolate electrically the power supply from the AC power li
ne thus protecting the power supply and the technician who is working on it.
a)
Isolation transformer
b)
Step-down transformer
c)
Autotransformer
d)
Step-up transformer
180. It is the opposition of an electron tube to produce a variation in the pla
te current in response to a variation in the plate to cathode voltage.
a)
Gain
b)
Transconductance
c)
Amplification factor
d)
Plate resistance
181. The collector curve of the BJT relates the values of ___________.
a)
IB, IC, and VCE
b)
IB, IC, and IE
c)
ID, VDS, and VGS
d)
IB, IC, and VBE
182. An encoder is an MSI (medium scale integration) circuit that

a)
Provides a storage of a certain number of binary bits
b)
Provides an output that corresponds to which of a set of input l
ine is true
c)
Provides for delivery one of two more inputs to an output
d)
Selects a given output based on binary input code
183. What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing voltage - s
eries feedback?
a)
Equals infinity
b)
It is decreased
c)
It remains the same
d)
It is increased
184. The prefix SN refers to what IC manufacturer?
a)
Silicon General
b)
National Semiconductor
c)
Texas Instrument
d)
Signetics
185. Which of the following does not refer to electric energy?
a)
Volt-Coulomb
b)
Volt-Ampere
c)
Watt second
d)
Joule
186. Distortion at the lower end of the load line.
a)
Compliance clipping
b)
Cutoff clipping
c)
Lower end noise
d)
Saturation clipping
187. A separately packed circuit element with its own external connections is c
alled a ____________ component.
a)
Passive
b)
Active
c)
Integrated
d)
Discrete
188. Which statement is wrong regarding a class B amplifier?
a)
placed at the input stage
b)
crossover distortion
c)
Two transistors alternately conducting at different alternations
d)
?MAX = 78.54%
189. It is specialized test equipment that can be used easily to obtain the hFE
of a BJT.
a)
Logic analyzer
b)
Transistor checker
c)
Oscilloscope
d)
Ohmmeter
190. Grid added to the VT amplifier to minimize the control-grid to plate capac
itance.
a)
Suppressor
b)
Control
c)
Gate
d)
Screen
191. The term cut-off for a transistor refers to _________.
a)
The transistor is at its operating point
b)
There is no base current
c)
No current flow from emitter to collector
d)
Maximum current flow from emitter to collector
192. How do you stop conduction during which SCR is also conducting?
a)
Interrupt anode current
b)
Increase cathode voltage
c)
Remove voltage gate
d)
Reduce gate current
193. An amplifier class in which a transistor is conducting for half of the inp

ut cycle.
a)
AB
b)
C
c)
B
d)
A
194. The induced emf in a single loop of wire is directly proportional to _____
______.
a)
d?/dt
b)
d?(t)dt
c)
d?/dt
d)
Magnetic flux (?)
195. Magnetic core are usually laminated due to the following except
a)
Decrease core loss
b)
Decrease manufacturing cost
c)
Decrease equivalent core resistance
d)
Increase efficiency
196. What is another term for magnetic lines of force?
a)
lodestone
b)
Flux
c)
Armature
d)
magnetic pole
197. One of the following amplifier characteristic refers to that of a common base (CB) as compared to common - emitter (CE) and common - collector (CC) ampl
ifiers.
a)
Has larger voltage gain
b)
Has lower input resistance
c)
Has higher input resistance
d)
Has large current gain
198. High Audio frequencies usually handled by a tweeter in a sound system.
a)
Alto
b)
Treble
c)
Tone
d)
Bass
199. What do you call and amplifier which has an output current flowing during
the whole input current cycle?
a)
Class C amplifier
b)
Class A amplifier
c)
Class AB amplifier
d)
Class B amplifier
200. Failure of the electron tube resulting from continuing deterioration of it
s electrical characteristics.
a)
Blasted failure
b)
Wear-out failure
c)
Early failure
d)
Catastrophic failure
201. Which is the wrong statement about a forward biased ideal diode?
a)
The diode will have no voltage drop across its terminals
b)
The diode will have no resistance
c)
The diode will have no control over the current through it
d)
It has voltage drop equal to the barrier potential of the diode
202. When resistors are connected in series, what happens?
a)
The effective resistance is decreased
b)
The effective resistance is increased
c)
The tolerance is decreased
d)
Nothing
203. An oscillator that uses the charge / discharge characteristics of a capaci
tor or inductor to produce an oscillating output.
a)
Phase shift
b)
Crystal
c)
Bistable

d)
Relaxation oscillator
204. Which statement is wrong regarding a class C amplifier?
a)
Conduction angle less than 180o
b)
?MAX = 100%
c)
Minimal noise
d)
Biased way below cutoff
205. The condition under which there is no power loss due to reflection at a so
urce/load junction owing to the fact that the load impedance is matched to the s
ource impedance.
a)
Half power point
b)
Alignment
c)
Maximum power
d)
Resonance
206. It is the measure of effectiveness of the control grid in the controlling
the plate current.
a)
Amplification factor
b)
Plate resistance
c)
Gain
d)
Transconductance
207. This breakdown occurs because of the collision of electrons caused by exce
ssive reverse voltage.
a)
Zener
b)
Avalanche
c)
Surge
d)
Overvoltage
208. Which transistor configuration has the highest input resistance?
a)
Common base
b)
Common emitter
c)
Common transistor
d)
Common collector
209. A fuse in series with the primary winding of the transformer limits the pr
imary current to 3A. If the transformer turns ratio 1:5, what is the maximum per
missible value of secondary current?
a)
5A
b)
15A
c)
600mA
d)
3A
210. Which is not true regarding a gas filled tube?
a)
Its control grid loses its control over the plate current once i
t is turned on
b)
It can be used as an amplifier
c)
They handle higher current
d)
Its terminals are larger than their equivalent for VT
211. Which device can be modelled by a diode and two resistors?
a)
UJT
b)
SCR
c)
BJT
d)
DIAC
212. What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L=2 H and C=30 pF are in s
eries?
a)
2.65 kHz
b)
2.65 MHz
c)
20.5 kHz
d)
20.5 MHz
213. Which is not an advantage of CMOS over TTL logic family?
a)
Lower power dissipation
b)
Greater packing density
c)
Lower propagation delay
d)
Greater fan out
214. When the ohmmeter is connected with its negative terminal to the base of a

n npn transistor and its negative terminal to the emitter, what is the most prob
able value that will be displayed?
a)
0?
b)
100k ?
c)
10k ?
d)
1k ?
215. Flow of carriers in response to an applied electric field. (0 correct answ
ers)
a)
Breakdown
b)
Diffusion
c)
Avalanche
d)
Drift
216. To determine the constant losses of a dynamo, it must be run as a motor at
_____ and rated speed.
a)
No load
b)
Full-load
c)
Half-load
d)
Twice of full load
217. _________ is a device used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic
field.
a)
Capacitor
b)
Inductor
c)
Battery
d)
Transformer
218. What element possesses four valence electrons? (0 correct answers)
a)
Sodium
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Neon
d)
Germanium
219. Bias used to reduce the resistance of the pn junction.
a)
Emitter feedback bias
b)
Reduction bias
c)
Reverse bias
d)
Forward bias
220. What is the voltage across a reverse biased diode in series with a 10 V dc
source and 1 k? resistor?
a)
0.7V
b)
0V
c)
0.3V
d)
10V
221. Another name for band reject filter.
a)
Tuned circuit
b)
Stop Band
c)
Notch
d)
BPF
222. ____________is used to determine the amount of core loss in a transformer.
It is also known as no-load test
a)
Open-circuit test
b)
Paraffin test
c)
Blocked-rotor test
d)
Short-circuit test
223. What technique below is used to increase the gain in linear ICs?
a)
Use of high resistance transistor
b)
Use of transistor with wide base
c)
Use of transistor with narrow bases
d)
Resistor ratio design
224. The flow of electron in a NPN transistor when used in electronic circuit i
s from _________.
a)
Collector to emitter
b)
Base to emitter

c)
Emitter to collector
d)
Collector to base
225. The base SI unit of luminous intensity is ____________.
a)
Lux
b)
Lambert
c)
Lumen
d)
Candela
226. The loss of electrical energy in counter balancing the residual magnetism
in each cycle is called _______________.
a)
Eddy current loss
b)
Hysteresis loss
c)
Copper loss
d)
Leakage loss
227. Another name for Eccles
Jordan multivibrator.
a)
Zerostable
b)
Astable
c)
Bistable
d)
Monostable
228. Power source that converts desired electricity to the other.
a)
Power collectors
b)
Voltage regulators
c)
Motor set
d)
Motor-generators set
229. Separately excited motors have similar torque and speed regulation charact
eristics as that of __________motors.
a)
Shunt-wound
b)
Compound-wound
c)
Series-wound
d)
Permanent-magnet
230. The base resistance RE as seen by the emitter circuit is
a)
RB /(+1)
b)
/ RB
c)
(+1) RB
d)
aRB
231. In order to simplify a circuit, in analysis and computation the diode is n
ormally assumed as ________.
a)
Ideal
b)
Zero
c)
Infinity
d)
Imaginary
232. A series RC that is connected in parallel with an SCR to eliminate false t
riggering.
a)
Snubber
b)
Eliminator
c)
Crowbar
d)
Varistor
233. A __________network is a two-port circuit made up of a repeated L, T, Pi o
r H networks.
a)
Lattice
b)
Hybrid
c)
Hierarchy
d)
Ladder
234. A DIAC is equivalent to inverse parallel combination of ______________.
a)
SCR
b)
Schottky
c)
Shockley
d)
BJT
235. Which of the following is not another name for a varactor diode?
a)
Junction controlled capacitance
b)
Varicap

c)
Tuning diode
d)
Epicap
236. The selective etching of SiO2 layer to expose portions of the silicon surf
ace for doping.
a)
Photolithography
b)
Annealing
c)
Diffusion
d)
Ion implantation
237. A BJT configuration that has no voltage gain but has current and power gai
ns.
a)
CB
b)
CC
c)
CE
d)
CS
238. This is produced when sufficient energy is added to a valence electron and
forces it to jump from the valence band to the conduction band.
a)
N type
b)
Depletion region
c)
P type
d)
Hole
239. The primary and secondary winding of ______________ are both electrically
and magnetically connected.
a)
Distribution transformer
b)
Autotransformer
c)
Current transformer
d)
Potential transformer
240. _________ are electrons at the outer shell.
a)
Conductor electrons
b)
Outside shell electrons
c)
Valence electrons
d)
Inside the shell electrons
241. The only producer of carriers in an intrinsic semiconductor.
a)
Pentavalent atom
b)
Doping
c)
Trivalent atom
d)
Thermal energy
242. What is rotor angle movement per step if there are 72 steps per revolution
for a given stepper motor?
a)
30o
b)
1..5o
c)
5o
d)
7.5o
243. ____________is the air space between poles of magnet..
a)
Air gap
b)
Free zone
c)
Vacuum
d)
Free space
244. Find the Thevenin s impedance equivalent across R2 of a linear close circuit
having 10 volt supply in series with two resistors (R1=50 ? and R2=200 ?)
a)
4 k ?
b)
4 ?
c)
400 ?
d)
40 ?
245. Thyratrons in industrial electronics refer to _______.
a)
A gas-filled diode
b)
A gas-filled triode
c)
A vacuum tube
d)
An electronic triode
246. The maximum rate of increase in anode to cathode voltage that will cause f
alse triggering.

a)
Slew rate
b)
Valley voltage
c)
Roll-off rate
d)
Critical rise rating
247. Which one is the paramagnetic material?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Copper
c)
Bismuth
d)
Carbon
248. In a PLL, it is the act of gain control of a signal.
a)
Capture
b)
Gain
c)
Track
d)
Lock
249. How many pins do a 555 timer have?
a)
12
b)
6
c)
10
d)
8
250. What condition does resonance occurs in an electrical circuit?
a)
When the inductive and capacitive reactances are equal
b)
When the square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive
reactances equal to the resonant frequency
c)
When the square root of the product of the capacitive and induct
ive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency
d)
When power factor is at minimum
251. Amount of light per unit area received by a photodetector.
a)
Efficiency
b)
Light intensity
c)
Conductivity
d)
Steradian
252. The power dissipation factor of a zener diode is 500mW and the derating fa
ctor is 3.33mW / 0C above 50 0C. What is maximum dc power dissipation for the de
vice at 80 0C?
a)
400mW
b)
600mW
c)
300mW
d)
500mW
253. Type of the feedback employed in amplifiers.
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
c)
Zero
d)
Capacitive
254. Another name for band gap energy.
a)
Built-in potential
b)
Energy gap
c)
Barrier potential
d)
Conduction energy
255. An electronic device draws 300 watts from its 24-volt power source. Find t
he effective resistance.
a)
19.20 ?
b)
1.92 ?
c)
12.50 ?
d)
1.25 ?
256. Which of the following is not a valid expression of ohm s law?
a)
R=E/I
b)
I=E/R
c)
R=E/R
d)
R=PI
257. Another name for TRIAC.

a)
Bi-directional SCR
b)
Solid state triode
c)
Bi-directional DIAC
d)
Bi-directional triode thyristor
258. This zener diode model is used mainly for predicting the response of the d
iode to a change in circuit current.
a)
Exact
b)
Practical
c)
Ideal
d)
Hybrid
259. Grain-oriented steel is used in this type of core construction.
a)
Distributed type
b)
Shell type
c)
Core type
d)
Wound-core type
260. Diamonds are made of _________.
a)
Germanium
b)
Carbon
c)
Silicon
d)
Gold
261. What are the only ratings that differentiate the diodes in the 1N400X seri
es from each other?
a)
Operating temperature range
b)
Reverse voltage ratings
c)
Average rectified forward current
d)
Maximum instantaneous forward voltage drop
262. The power dissipated across the resistance in an AC circuit
a)
Real power
b)
Reactive power
c)
Apparent power
d)
True power
263. What is the rotor angle movement per step if there are 240 steps per revol
ution for a given stepper rotor.
a)
7.5o
b)
30o
c)
5o
d)
1.5o
264. Listing of all the significant parameters and operating characteristics of
a device.
a)
Menu bar
b)
Devices listing
c)
Parameter list
d)
Specification sheet
265. A TRIAC is equivalent to inverse parallel combination of
a)
BJT
b)
Schottky
c)
SCR
d)
Shockley
266. The process of inducing an emf in a loop of wire is called________.
a)
Photoelectric effect
b)
Electromagnetic induction
c)
Conduction
d)
Electrostatic charging
267. What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillatio
n?
a)
Junction diode
b)
Zener diode
c)
Tunnel diode
d)
Point contact diode
268. Which of the following is not an essential parts of an oscillator?

a)
A resistor IC combination circuit.
b)
Regenerative feedback circuit.
c)
Resonant circuit consists of inductance and capacitance.
d)
Source of energy that supply the losses in tank circuit.
269. The term used to describe the process whereby two transistors with positiv
e feedback are used to simulate the action of the thyristor.
a)
Switching
b)
Arcing
c)
Latching
d)
Damping
270. Pin 3 of 555 timers..
a)
trigger
b)
Reset
c)
Output
d)
Ground
271. A circuit whose output is proportional to the rate of change of the input
voltage.
a)
Differentiator
b)
Schmitt trigger
c)
Level detector
d)
Integrator
272. It s the range of frequency a circuit allows to pass through
a)
Band pass
b)
Pass band
c)
Band stop
d)
Stop band
273. Group of magnetically aligned atoms.
a)
Range
b)
Crystal
c)
Domain
d)
Lattice
274. What happens to the output resistance of an amplifier employing voltage series feedback?
a)
It remains the same
b)
Equals infinity
c)
It is decreased
d)
It is increased
275. Meaning of the term transition region with regard to a transistor.
a)
The area of maximum N-type charge
b)
The area of maximum P-type charge
c)
An area of low charge density around the P-N junction
d)
The point where wire leads are connected to the P-or-N type mate
rial
276. How does junction diode rated? (0 correct answers)
a)
Maximum forward current and capacitance
b)
Maximum forward current and PIV
c)
Maximum reverse current and capacitance
d)
Maximum reverse current and PIV
277. The best way to control the speed of an AC induction motor is by varying t
he _____________.
a)
Supply voltage
b)
Supply frequency
c)
Both supply voltage and frequency simultaneously
d)
Series resistance of the field
278. The input terminal when a VT is used as an amplifier. (0 correct answers)
a)
Gate
b)
Suppressor grid
c)
Screen grid
d)
Control grid
279. What is the most stable type of biasing?

a)
Current feedback
b)
Voltage feedback
c)
Voltage divider
d)
Fixed bias
280. Portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that includes infrared, visible an
d ultraviolet light.
a)
Light color spectrum
b)
Optical electromagnetic spectrum
c)
Color spectrum
d)
Visible electromagnetic spectrum
281. A varactor diode with a high capacitance ratio can be used in _________.
a)
Coarse tuning
b)
Fine tuning
c)
Phase tuning
d)
Tuning fork
282. A transistor in which n-type and p-type materials are used is called _____
___.
a)
TTL
b)
Unijunction
c)
FET
d)
Bipolar
283. What are the minority carriers for a Si bar doped with gallium? (0 correct
answers)
a)
Holes
b)
Neutrons
c)
Protons
d)
Free electrons
284. ________ is the physical motion resulting from the forces of magnetic fiel
ds.
a)
Torque action
b)
Repulsion
c)
Rotation
d)
Motor action
285. For the same peak secondary winding voltage, which will differ for half-wa
ve and full-wave center - tapped rectifiers?
a)
Peak output voltage
b)
Output average voltage
c)
PIV
d)
The condition angle of each diode
286. Which of the following can be used as a square wave to triangular wave con
verter?
a)
Differentiator
b)
Schmitt trigger
c)
Level detector
d)
Integrator
287. Other factors remaining constant, what would be the effect on the current
flow in the current flow in a given circuit if the applied potential were double
d?
a)
It would be reduced by
b)
It would increase four times
c)
It would double
d)
It would remain the same
288. For BJT, the BE junction is reverse biased and the BC forward biased. The
BJT is in what operating mode?
a)
Saturation
b)
Forward active
c)
Reverse active
d)
Cut-off
289. Filter that is characterized by ripple at the passband and fast roll-off r
ate.

a)
Butterworth
b)
Chebyshev
c)
Notch
d)
Elliptic
290. What is the approximate value of thermal voltage at room temperature?
a)
0 V
b)
18.97 mV
c)
1 V
d)
26 mV
291. What is the ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier?
a)
0.48
b)
0.5
c)
0.25
d)
1.21
292. A vacuum tube that has a high gas content is called _________.
a)
Hard tube
b)
LT
c)
VT
d)
Soft tube
293. What happens to the output resistance of an amplifier employing voltage-sh
unt feedback?
a)
Equals infinity
b)
It remains the same
c)
It is decreased
d)
It is increased
294. A _________ is a junction field effect transistor with a schottky barrier
instead of a normal semiconductor junction.
a)
Mesfet
b)
Jugfet
c)
Bifet
d)
Mosfet
295. How much is the resistance of germanium slag 10 cm long and cross sectiona
l area of 1 squared cm?
a)
550 ohm
b)
5.5 kohm
c)
550 kohm
d)
55 kohm
296. Another name for second approximation model
a)
Complete
b)
Practical
c)
Two component
d)
Ideal
297. ___________refers to a function of a decade counter digital IC.
a)
Adding two decimal numbers
b)
Producing 10 output pulses for every 1 input pulse
c)
Producing one output for every 10 input pulses
d)
Decoding a decimal number for display on seven-segment
298. Which of the following oscillators employs crystal?
a)
Armstrong oscillator
b)
Pierce oscillator
c)
Hartley oscillator
d)
Colpitts oscillator
299. The lower and higher cutoff frequencies are 10 Hz and 1000 Hz respectively
. What is the value of the quality factor?
a)
1005
b)
10
c)
0.1
d)
1.015
300. Which of the following does not result into high amplification factor for
triode?

a)
High transconductance
b)
Low plate resistance
c)
Closely spaced grid wires
d)
Grid wires closer to the cathode
301. Find the flux density in gauss having a flux of 20,000 Mx through a perpen
dicular area of 2 cm squared.
a)
40,000 G
b)
20,000 G
c)
10,000 G
d)
22,000 G
302. A heptode tube has how many grids?
a)
7
b)
5
c)
1
d)
3
303. Which is the most commonly used BJT amplifier configuration?
a)
CS
b)
CC
c)
CB
d)
CE
304. ____________ is the term used to express the ratio of change in the DC col
lector current to a change in base current in a bipolar transistor.
a)
Beta
b)
Gamma
c)
Alpha
d)
Delta
305. Change in frequency by a factor of 10.
a)
Decade
b)
Octave
c)
Fascade
d)
Octane
306. ________ capability is analogous to permeance.
a)
Admittance
b)
Conductance
c)
Resistance
d)
Reluctance
307. It is a sudden current and voltage spike that has a small duration.
a)
Vrms
b)
Vdc
c)
Peak voltage
d)
Transient
308. What happens in the resistance of copper wire when its temperature is rais
ed?
a)
Decreased
b)
Steady
c)
Increased
d)
Zero
309. A program that translates instructions written in assembly language into m
achine code.
a)
Compiler
b)
Translator
c)
Assembler
d)
Interpreter
310. Which is the advantage of using fast fuses rather than a crowbar in protec
ting electron tubes from arcing?
a)
Highest cost
b)
Fast fuse is faster-acting than crowbar
c)
Fast fuse should be replaced after each fault
d)
Lower cost
311. A term that is used to describe a component that is partly shorted.

a)
Active
b)
Leaky
c)
Semisaturated
d)
Partially shorted
312. It is the factor by which the capacitance of the varactor changes from one
specified value of reverse voltage to another.
a)
Capacitance factor
b)
Capacitance ratio
c)
Reactance factor
d)
Variance factor
313. _________ for a transistor to be cut-off.
a)
There is no base current
b)
No current flows from emitter to collector
c)
Maximum current flows from emitter to collector
d)
The transistor is at its operating point
314. _______ is an excess property of P-type semiconductor.
a)
Neutron
b)
Electron
c)
Proton
d)
Hole
315. A line representing all the possible values of Ic and Vce.
a)
Small load line
b)
AC loadline
c)
Collector curve
d)
DC loadline
316. What is the term called magnetic field?
a)
Current flow through space around a permanent magnet
b)
The force between the plates of charge capacitor
c)
A force set up when current flows through a conductor
d)
The force that drives current through a resistor
317. Which statement is wrong regarding A741 when its supply voltage is increase
s?
a)
Maximum voltage swing will increase
b)
Open-loop voltage gain will increase
c)
Large variation in the input offset current
d)
Increase power consumption
318. An external voltage applied to a junction reduces its barrier and aid curr
ent to flow through the junction.
a)
Junction bias
b)
External bias
c)
Forward bias
d)
Reverse bias
319. The _________ grid is an electron tube is where the input signal is usuall
y applied.
a)
Bias
b)
Screen
c)
Control
d)
Suppression
320. For the highest fidelity amplification using triode the load resistance sh
ould be __________.
a)
1 M ?
b)
100 ?
c)
2 to 3 times of the plate resistance
d)
Equal to the plate resistance
321. What is the value of a resistor with colors from left : orange, blue, gold
and silver?
a)
3.4 ? %
b)
36 ? 10 %
c)
3.6 ? 10 %
d)
34 ? 10 %

322. In order to obtain the best temperature stability, what should be the oper
ating voltage of the reference diode in linear voltage regulator?
a)
Approximately 3.0 volts
b)
Approximately 2.0 volts
c)
Approximately 10.0 volts
d)
Approximately 6.0 volts
323. What do call the flux that does not follow the intended patch in magnetic
circuit?
a)
Linked flux
b)
Leakage factor
c)
Lost flux
d)
Leakage flux
324. Which of the following oscillator has a sine-wave output?
a)
LC
b)
Bistable
c)
Astable
d)
Relaxation
325. Process of zeroing the output of the op-amp when both of the inputs are gr
ounded.
a)
Grounding
b)
Offsetting
c)
Stabilizing
d)
Balancing
326. General term for devices made from semiconductor materials.
a)
Solid state devices
b)
Vacuum tube devices
c)
Silicon devices
d)
Gaseous tube devices
327. It is the metal strip that removes residual gas from an electron tube.
a)
Getter
b)
Sipper
c)
Microstrip
d)
Remover
328. What is the peak-to-peak voltage out of the positive series clipper if the
peak of the positive series clipper if the peak of the sinusoidal input voltage
is 5V?
a)
5V
b)
8V
c)
0V
d)
3V
329. Brushes in a dynamo are commonly made up of ______________.
a)
graphite
b)
Steel
c)
copper
d)
Tin
330. Find, which type network, provides the greatest harmonic suppression.
a)
Pi-network
b)
Inverse Pi-network
c)
L-network
d)
Pi-L-network
331. Pin 2 of 555 timers.
a)
Output
b)
Reset
c)
Ground
d)
trigger
332. What JFET operating region corresponds to Active region of BJT?
a)
Cutoff
b)
Saturation
c)
Breakdown
d)
Ohmic

333. What is the ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier?

a)
1.21
b)
0.25
c)
0.48
d)
0.5
334. Another name for free
running multivibrator.
a)
Monostable
b)
Astable
c)
Bistable
d)
Zerostable
335. What is the voltage regulation when the full load voltage is the same as n
o-load voltage assuming a perfect voltage source?
a)
0%
b)
10%
c)
1%
d)
100%
336. An IC constructed entirely on a single silicon chip.
a)
Thin-film
b)
Monolithic
c)
Hybrid
d)
Thick-film
337. The particles that make up the lattice in ionic crystal.
a)
Ions
b)
Electrons
c)
Molecules
d)
Neutrons
338. What type of circuit whose parameters are constant which do not change wit
h voltage or current?
a)
Lumped circuit
b)
Tuned circuit
c)
Reactive circuit
d)
Linear circuit
339. The type of bias used where only moderate changes in ambient temperature a
re expected.
a)
Limited bias
b)
Fixed-bias
c)
Self-bias
d)
Combination bias
340. The polarity of induced emf is such that it produces a current whose own m
agnetic field opposes the change in magnetic flux that caused the induced emf is
a statement of ___________.
a)
Lenz s Law
b)
Fleming s Rule
c)
Coulomb s Law
d)
Kirchhoff s Law
341. Which of the amplifiers has the highest input impedance?
a)
CC
b)
CE
c)
JFET
d)
MOSFET
342. __________is called the magnetic flux density produced within, due to its
own induced magnetism.
a)
Electronic field intensity
b)
Magnetic field intensity
c)
Intensity of magnetization
d)
Electromagnetic field intensity
343. The forward current rating of LED is in what typical range?
a)
2mA to 50mA
b)
200A to 50mA
c)
100A to 100mA

d)
1mA to 100mA
344. FET is a unipolar device because ___________.
a)
There is only one current direction
b)
It needs only one supply
c)
It has only one terminal
d)
Its conduction is due only to one type of charge carrier
345. ___________ is the property of magnetic materials which retain magnetism a
fter magnetizing force is withdrawn.
a)
Conductivity
b)
Resistivity
c)
Retentivity
d)
Reluctivity
346. A given silicon diode has a saturation current of 1A at 25 oC. What is the
value of the saturation current at 50 oC?
a)
0 A
b)
1 A
c)
5.66 A
d)
2.83 A
347. What is the maximum efficiency of a half-wave rectifier?
a)
50%
b)
81.2%
c)
10%
d)
40.6%
348. It is the maximum allowable peak or dc reverse voltage that will not turn
on a transient suppressor.
a)
Turn-off voltage
b)
Peak reverse voltage
c)
Maximum reverse stand - off voltage
d)
Peak inverse voltage
349. A high power, low frequency diode is normally _________ than a low power,
high frequency diode.
a)
Larger
b)
Smoother
c)
Heavier
d)
Smaller
350. Tesla, the SI unit for magnetic flux density is also defined as
a)
Maxwell/m2
b)
Lines/m2
c)
Gauss
d)
Weber/m2
351. The arrow in the schematic symbol for a diode points which way?
a)
Towards the anode
b)
Towards magnetic North
c)
In the direction of the current flow
d)
Towards the cathode
352. Process of repairing the ruptured crystal structure caused by ion implanta
tion by heating.
a)
Photolithography
b)
Diffusion
c)
Czochralski technique
d)
Annealing
353. The starting current of a dc motor is larger than its full-load current be
cause the counter emf is ________________.
a)
Larger than the applied voltage
b)
Zero
c)
The same as the applied voltage
d)
Less than the applied voltage
354. General term for objects blocking the passage of light.
a)
Translucent
b)
Trap

c)
Transparent
d)
Opaque
355. Which of the following semiconductor devices has nearly the same character
istics as the VR tube?
a)
Tunnel
b)
SCR
c)
DIAC
d)
Zener diode
356. It is a constant current regulator which is used to maintain a constant in
put current to a circuit.
a)
Voltage regulator
b)
Series current regulator
c)
Power supply
d)
Shunt current regulator
357. In the BJT schematic symbol, the arrow ____________________________.
a)
Points from n-type to p-type
b)
Points from north to south
c)
Points from p-type to n-type
d)
Points from south to north
358. A hole is electrically _________.
a)
Proton
b)
Neutral
c)
Negative
d)
Positive
359. A discrete particle of light.
a)
Phon
b)
Photon
c)
Son
d)
Font
360. The band of frequencies that human eye can detect.
a)
Infrared band
b)
Ultraviolet band
c)
C band
d)
Visible band
361. The rotating part of a dynamo is commonly called a (n) __________.
a)
Yoke
b)
Brushes
c)
Armature
d)
Commutator
362. It is the voltage applied to a pn junction to obtain a desired mode of ope
ration
a)
Battery
b)
Bias
c)
Signal
d)
Electric field
363. At the present time, what types of electronic devices dominate the field o
f electronics? (0 correct answers)
a)
GaAs
b)
Plasma
c)
Vacuum tube
d)
Semiconductor
364. When a switch is closed it has a total resistance of
a)
Infinity
b)
Zero
c)
1000 ? at room temperature
d)
Unstable
365. One of the electronic semiconductor devices known as diac, function as
a)
Three terminal bi-directional switch
b)
Four terminal multi-directional switch
c)
Two terminal unidirectional switch

d)
Two terminal bi-directional switch
366. It is the condition in vacuum tube amplifiers wherein any further positive
increase in the control grid voltage does not cause any increase in the plate c
urrent.
a)
Ohmic
b)
Saturation
c)
Cutoff
d)
Hyperactive
367. What is the law that determines polarity of an induced voltage?
a)
Thevenin s law
b)
Len s law
c)
Faraday s law
d)
Norton s law
368. It is a measure of the ability of an oscillator to maintain a constant fre
quency and amplitude.
a)
Stability
b)
Figure of merit
c)
Quality factor
d)
Sensitivity
369. What will be the output of the differential amplifier who s input is 1mV for
both inverting and non inverting input?
a)
2mV
b)
0 V
c)
1mV
d)
1V
370. Calculate the output current of a Wilson current source given that IREF=10
mA and is 50.
a)
500mA
b)
2mA
c)
9.61mA
d)
9.99mA
371. A JFET biasing technique that uses a source resistance to establish a reve
rse bias at the gate-source junction.
a)
Drain bias
b)
Self - bias
c)
Gate bias
d)
Source bias
372. The magnitude of the core loss is directly proportional to ___________. (n
=no. of laminations)
a)
1/n
b)
1/n2
c)
N
d)
N2
373. What is the maximum efficiency of a full-wave center-tapped rectifier
a)
40.6%
b)
81.2%
c)
50%
d)
10%
374. Electromotive force can be induced in a coil using the following method ex
cept
a)
Moving the magnetic field source and coil with the same velocity
b)
Varying the magnitude of the magnetic field
c)
Moving the magnetic field source towards the coil
d)
Moving the magnetic field source away from the coil
375. Reducing the plate and screen-grid voltages of an amplifier will ______ th
e control - grid cut-off voltage..
a)
Stay stable
b)
Unstable
c)
Decrease
d)
Increase

376. The ability of a tuned circuit to maintain oscillation.

a)
Flywheel effect
b)
Barkhausen effect
c)
Edison effect
d)
Tuned effect
377. The main reason for the variation of amplifier gain with frequency is ____
_____.
a)
The logarithmic increase in its output
b)
The presence of capacitance both external and internal
c)
Due to interstage transformer
d)
The Miller effect
378. Specification of an Op-amp which describe how fast the output voltage of a
n Op-Amp changes no matter how fast the input voltage changes.
a)
Bias rate
b)
Frequency response
c)
Slew rate
d)
Input bias current
379. Pin 4 of 555 timers.
a)
Ground
b)
trigger
c)
Output
d)
Reset
380. Which coupling method is usually used in IC?
a)
RC Coupling
b)
Inductive coupling
c)
Direct Coupling
d)
Transformer coupling
381. _________ is a linear electronic voltage regulator.
a)
A regulator in which the pass transistor switches from the off sta
te to the on state.
b)
A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is vari
ed in direct proportion to the voltage of load current
c)
A regulator in which the control is switch on or off, with the d
uty cycle proportional to the line or load condition.
d)
A regulator that has ramp voltage as its output
382. A dynamo using a permanent magnet in producing a magnetic flux.
a)
Alternator
b)
Magneto
c)
Relay
d)
Amplidyne
383. Silicon diodes are used in a two-diode full-wave rectifier circuit to supp
ly a load of 12 volts DC. Assuming ideal diodes and the load resistance is 12 oh
ms; compute the efficiency of the rectifier in percentage.
a)
81.2
b)
75
c)
95.7
d)
5.8
384. What is the average forward current of 1N4001?
a)
1A
b)
2A
c)
4A
d)
3A
385. Which of the following refers to the point where the intensity of magic li
nes of force is maximum?
a)
Great circle
b)
North pole
c)
Weak pole
d)
Magnetic pole
386. What is the most important specification for semiconductor diode?
a)
Reverse resistance

b)
Forward resistance
c)
Current capacity
d)
Peak inverse voltage
387. The development of monocrystalline structure by controlled cooling of a mo
lten material.
a)
Crystal growth
b)
Molding
c)
Crystallization
d)
Conversion
388. An amplifier that uses an incompletely bypassed emitter resistance to stab
ilize the gain of the amplifier with temperature variation.
a)
Swamped amplifier
b)
Unbypassed amplifier
c)
Voltage divider
d)
Class A
389. Parallel cells have the same voltage as one cell but have ___________.
a)
Unstable resistance
b)
More current capacity
c)
Fluctuating power output
d)
Less current capacity
390. A ______________winding is made by advancing the next coil from the first
bar to the second bar.
a)
Chorded
b)
Random-wound
c)
Progressive
d)
Retrogressive
391. Calculate the output current of a two-transistor current source given that
IREF=10mA and is 50.
a)
500mA
b)
10mA
c)
2mA
d)
9.1mA
392. Which of the following crystals is not commonly used as oscillator?
a)
Quartz
b)
Tourmaline
c)
Rochelle salt
d)
Carbon
393. It is the ability of some material to convert electrical energy to mechani
cal energy and vice versa.
a)
Piezoelectrictricity
b)
Conductivity
c)
Coercitivity
d)
Magnetostrictivity
394. Type of the feedback employed in oscillator.
a)
Positive
b)
Capacitive
c)
Negative
d)
Zero
395. Which is not proper reason why silicon is preferred over germanium?
a)
Silicon is more tolerant of heat
b)
Germanium oxide is water soluble, making it more difficult to pr
ocess than silicon.
c)
Germanium produces more leakage current than does silicon for a
given temperature
d)
Germanium is bulky than silicon
396. Find the Thevenin s impedance equivalent across R2 of a linear close circuit
having 10 V supply with two resistors (R1=100 ? and R2=200 ?).
a)
6.666 k ?
b)
6.66 ?
c)
66.6?

d)
666?
397. What is the process by which AC is converted to pulsating DC?
a)
Rectification
b)
Clipping
c)
Filtering
d)
Charging
398. It is a type of diode limiter that converts an AC input varying in amplitu
de to a varying dc level.
a)
AM detector
b)
FM detector
c)
Varistor
d)
Limiter
399. General term for objects allowing the passage of light.
a)
Opaque
b)
Trap
c)
Transparent
d)
Translucent
400. Which of the following statements regarding the closed-loop gain of an opamp is false?
a)
It is equal to one if the feedback path is a short circuit
b)
It is always less than the open-loop gain
c)
It can be greater than the open-loop gain
d)
It depends upon the feedback component
401. Type of clipper that has an output when the diode is reverse biased.
a)
Rectifier
b)
Negative clipper
c)
Shunt clipper
d)
Reverse clipper
402. Another name for pentavalent atoms.
a)
Intrinsic
b)
Acceptor
c)
Pentagon structure
d)
Donor
403. If you need to have a zener voltage that is as close to the rated zener vo
ltage as possible, you need to design the circuit to have a zener current value
equal to this.
a)
Zener test current
b)
Maximum zener current
c)
Minimum zener current
d)
Regulated current
404. A Quartz crystal is made up of what kind of material?
a)
SiO2
b)
Ceramic
c)
Lead
d)
Carbon
405. An inductor opposes
a)
Both increase and decrease in current
b)
A decrease in current
c)
An increase in current
d)
An increase in voltage
406. A crystal with its major flat surfaces cut so that they are perpendicular
to a mechanical axis of the original quartz crystal is called __________.
cut crystal
a)
A Z
b)
A Y cut crystal
c)
An X cut crystal
d)
An XY
cut crystal
407. Find the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit which has a resonant c
ircuit which has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95.
a)
58.7 kHz
b)
18.9 kHz

c)
189 Hz
d)
1.89 kHz
408. The plate resistance of a triode is in the range of __________.
a)
100?
b)
50k? - 100k?
c)
100k? - 1M?
d)
10k?
409. When you demagnetize properly by applying an AC field and then gradually r
educed it to zero, it is called
a)
Gaussing
b)
Damping
c)
Decaying
d)
Degaussing
410. It is the doping process wherein impurity ions are given high energy, acce
lerated, driven through the wafer and embedded in the crystal.
a)
Czochralski technique
b)
Photolithography
c)
Ion implantation
d)
Diffusion
411. What term in electronics is used to express how fast energy is consumed?
a)
Volt
b)
Power
c)
Load
d)
Conductance
412. Absolute zero temperature is _______.
a)
0 K
b)
All of the above
273.16 oC
c)
d)
459.16 oF
413. Roll-off rate equal to 6 dB/ octave.
a)
20 dB/decade
b)
10 dB/decade
c)
6 dB/decade
d)
30 dB/decade
414. In the electron tube construction, it is the electrode that encloses other
electrodes.
a)
Anode
b)
Screen
c)
Cathode
d)
Grid
415. What are the three terminals of a UJT?
a)
Base 1, base 2 and emitter
b)
MT1 and MT2 and gate
c)
Anode, cathode and gate
d)
Anode 1, anode 2 and anode 3
416. ____________is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy in
an electrostatic field.
a)
Coulomb
b)
Joules
c)
Volts
d)
Watts
417. Among the values given, which could be the most probable value of an intri
nsic standoff ratio?
a)
0.7
b)
0.1
c)
0.4
d)
0.3
418. Range for power dissipation ratings of zener diodes.
a)
1pW to 5W
b)
500mW to 50W

c)
25mW to 1000W
d)
1mW to 1W
419. Another name for voltage divider bias.
a)
Universal bias
b)
Fixed bias
c)
Double resistor bias
d)
Feedback bias
420. How do you determine if a diode is defective?
a)
Very low current
b)
Diode resistance is very low or very high on either direction
c)
High current
d)
High voltage
421. What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in
an electrostatic field?
a)
Joules
b)
Watts
c)
Volts
d)
Coulombs
422. Determine the equivalent work of 166 watt-second.
a)
16.6 Joules
b)
166 Joules
c)
10 Joules
d)
100 Joules
423. Which does not identify the cathode lead of the LED?
a)
It has a flattened lead
b)
It is nearest to the orange band
c)
It is nearest to the flat side of the case
d)
It has a shorter lead
424. Is a layer of insulating medium that separates the plates of a capacitor.
a)
Diaelectric
b)
Space
c)
Insulator
d)
Core
425. Another name for crowbar.
a)
Scare bar
b)
C bar
c)
Ace bar
d)
Energy diverter
426. The overall gain of an amplifier in cascade is _________.
a)
100% the sum
b)
The sum
c)
The product
d)
The average of each
427. It is the grid added to the tetrode to minimize secondary emission.
a)
Control grid
b)
Screen grid
c)
Cathode
d)
Suppressor grid
428. __________ is a low frequency oscillation which sometimes occurs under fau
lt condition in electron tube circuits (0 correct answers)
a)
Glitch
b)
Ping pong
c)
Motor boating
d)
Jitter
429. Which of the following results to the highest plate current? (0 correct an
swers)
a)
Less than cutoff bias
b)
Positive grid bias
c)
More than cutoff bias
d)
Cutoff bias

430. A variation of Colpitts oscillator which employs a small capacitance in ad

dition to the two capacitors to reduce the effect of stray capacitance.
a)
Armstrong oscillator
b)
Clap
c)
Hartley oscillator
d)
Wien-bridge oscillator
431. A circuit that is used to increase the strength of and AC signal.
a)
Rectifier
b)
Transformer
c)
Attenuator
d)
Amplifier
432. Given that IB = 10A, hFE(max) = 200, and hFE(min) = 100. Calculate the prob
able value of the collector current.
a)
1.5mA
b)
1..41mA
c)
1mA
d)
2mA
433. Which of the following is not a linear IC?
a)
Flip-flop
b)
Op-amp
c)
Voltage regulator
d)
VCO
434. An amplifier class in which the transistor is conducting for the entire in
put cycle.
a)
B
b)
AB
c)
C
d)
A
435. Diode characteristic curve relates _____________.
a)
ID and time
b)
ID and VD
c)
IC and VCE
d)
VD and time
436. In MOS devices, the oxide is usually _________.
a)
MnO
b)
SiO2
c)
H2O
d)
SiO
437. Find the power across the resistor of 5 ? delivered from a battery of an i
nternal resistance of 3 ? and a constant emf of 4 V.
a)
1.25 W
b)
120 W
c)
60 W
d)
100 W
438. It is the fading of oscillation.
a)
Lowering
b)
Damping
c)
Vanishing
d)
Lossing
439. A four-element solid state device that combines the characteristics of a b
oth diodes and transistors.
a)
Varactor
b)
Tunnel diode
c)
Zener diode
d)
SCR
440. What is the typical slew rate of Fairchild 741 op-amp?
a)
1 V/s
b)
3.333V/s
c)
0.5 V/s
d)
10V/s

441. A circuit that protects a sensitive circuit from a sudden increase in supp
ly voltage.
a)
Snubber
b)
Eliminator
c)
Varistor
d)
Crowbar
442. What do you call the quantity of magnetism retained by a magnetic material
after the withdrawal of a magnetizing force?
a)
Residual magnetism
b)
Coercitivity
c)
Left over magnetism
d)
Hysteresis
443. Square-loop materials are called as such because of the shape o their hyst
eresis loop. They are used in switching circuits and as a storage element becaus
e of their bistable characteristics. _____________ is one of the example of squa
re loop material.
a)
Steel
b)
Alnico
c)
Perminvar
d)
Ferrite
444. The band of frequencies in which the wavelength is too long to be detected
by the human eye.
a)
Infrared band
b)
Ultraviolet band
c)
C band
d)
Visible band
445. Bias wherein there is a moderate flow of plate current.
a)
Less than cutoff bias
b)
More than cutoff bias
c)
Positive grid bias
d)
Cutoff bias
446. Which of the following is a characteristic of cascaded amplifier?
a)
Double each amplifiers gain
b)
Increased overall gain
c)
Total gain is decreased
d)
Each amplifiers gain is increased
447. The area of a conductor whose diameter is 0.001 in. is equal to
a)
One angstrong
b)
One circular mil
c)
One micron
d)
One steradian
448. What is the law whereby the attraction or repulsion between two magnetic p
oles is directly proportional to their strength?
a)
Coulomb s Law
b)
Norton s Law
c)
Newton s Law
d)
Coulombs First Law
449. How can electrical current be induced with a coil and magnet.
a)
Placing the coil parallel to the magnet field
b)
Moving either the magnet or the coil
c)
Placing the coil at right angles with the magnetic field
d)
Holding the coil and the magnet perfectly stationary
450. What type of material is formed when trivalent material is doped with sili
con or germanium?
a)
P type
b)
PN type
c)
N type
d)
N & P type
451. A two-pole, three-phase motor has _______field poles.
a)
4

452.
ugh a

453.

454.

455.
s.

b)
6
c)
8
d)
2
Unit of energy equal to the energy acquired by an electron in passing thro
potential difference of 1V.
a)
Conduction band energy
b)
Electronvolt
c)
Joule
d)
Energy gap
Which is not the common cause of the diode failure?
a)
Component age
b)
Excessive input frequency
c)
Surpassing the peak reverse voltage
d)
Excessive current
Which of the basic op-amp circuit require no feedback?
a)
Comparator
b)
Differentiator
c)
Summer
d)
Integrator
It is a dc supply that offers both positive and negative dc output voltage

a)
Positive-Negative supply
b)
AF generator
c)
Dual-polarity power supply
d)
Inverse parallel battery
456. At what aspect do standard zener and transient suppressor differs?
a)
Connection on the circuit
b)
Electronic symbol
c)
Surge handling capability
d)
Region of operation
457. Which of the following cannot be used to make a magnet?
a)
Iron
b)
Carbon
c)
Cobalt
d)
Lodestone
458. It is a circuit that shifts the input waveform either all above or all bel
ow a specified dc level.
a)
Clipper
b)
Multiplier
c)
Level shifter
d)
Limiter
459. What is the feedback component of an RC op-amp differentiator?
a)
Inductor
b)
Capacitor
c)
Conductor
d)
Resistor
460. Capacitor usually placed at eh base circuit to enable the BJT to switch ra
pidly between cutoff and saturation.
a)
Coupling capacitor
b)
Source capacitor
c)
Speed-up capacitor
d)
Bypass capacitor
461. A CMOS with parallel PMOS and complementary series NMOS is equivalent to l
ogical.
a)
NOR gate
b)
AND gate
c)
OR gate
d)
Nand gate
462. Oscillator that employs a transformer in parallel with a capacitor.
a)
Hartley oscillator

b)
Clapp
c)
Armstrong oscillator
d)
Colpitts oscillator
463. It is the current source used for very low current applications.
a)
2-transistor current source
b)
Wilson current source
c)
3-transistor current source
d)
Widlar current source
464. What do you call the maximum reverse bias voltage that a diode will be exp
osed to in a rectifier?
a)
Paramount voltage
b)
Peak Reverse Voltage
c)
Breakdown voltage
d)
Peak Inverse Voltage
465. An NPN and PNP equivalent circuit of Shockley diode.
a)
Latch
b)
Push-pull
c)
Hybrid pi
d)
Giacolleto
466. A transformer consist of the following
a)
An inductance and resistance
b)
A parallel resonant circuit
c)
A capacitor and an inductor
d)
Two coils wound on a common core
467. It is a diode whose central material is made up of intrinsic silicon sandw
iched by P and N type materials.
a)
Zener
b)
PIN
c)
Schottky
d)
Tunnel
468. Which is not the true statement regarding the step-recovery diode?
a)
It s typical switching time is in the low picoseconds range
b)
It is an ultrafast diode
c)
It is not a semiconductor device
d)
Its end are more heavily doped than its region near the junction
469. Filter that is characterized by a relatively flat passband and slow roll-o
ff rate.
a)
Butterworth
b)
Notch
c)
Chebyshev
d)
Elliptic
470. Another name for voltage amplifier.
a)
Power amp
b)
Preamp
c)
CB
d)
CE
471. The reason for the thin layer of varnish over the copper coil pattern is t
o prevent
a)
Oxidation
b)
Dioxide
c)
Flux
d)
Corrosion
472. In a system with MOS devices, the main bus loading factor is likely to be
________.
a)
Resistive
b)
Current
c)
static charge
d)
Capacitive
473. To determine the equivalent winding resistance and reactance, __________ i
s commonly performed on a transformer.

a)
Short-circuit test
b)
Paraffin test
c)
Open-circuit test
d)
Blocked rotor test
474. What happens to the resistance of copper wire when its temperature is rais
ed?
a)
Increase
b)
Steady
c)
Zero
d)
Decrease
475. The duration of time between electron-hole pair generation and recombinati
on..
a)
Lifetime
b)
Propagation delay
c)
Generation time
d)
Accessing time
476. Intergrowth between two different semiconductor layers.
a)
Ingot
b)
Wafer
c)
Resistor
d)
Epitaxy
477. ______________ is a type of linear voltage used in application where the l
oad on the unregulated voltage source must be kept constant.
a)
A shunt regulator
b)
A constant current source
c)
A series regulator
d)
A shunt current source
478. Which will increase with an increase in reverse bias? (0 correct answers)
a)
Surface-leakage current
b)
Temperature
c)
Doping level
d)
Saturation current
479. What is the total resistance of two equal valued resistors in series?
a)
The sum of their reciprocal
b)
The different of both
c)
The product of both
d)
Twice as one
480. What is the power output of a 100- VT amplifier having a load resistance of
10k?, plate resistance of 5k? and an input of 1 VRMS?
a)
1W
b)
0.44W
c)
0.66W
d)
0.66W
481. The base of transistor serves as a purpose to what element of the FET?
a)
Ground
b)
Source
c)
Gate
d)
Substrate
482. Which of the following exhibits the best piezoelectric activity?
a)
Quartz
b)
Rochelle salt
c)
Carbon
d)
Tourmaline
483. Which of the following statements is correct?
a)
Transistor has two terminals
b)
Open resistor ha small resistance
c)
Typical power rating of a carbon-composition resistor range from
0.125 W to 2 W
d)
Potentiometer has two terminals.
484. Which statement is wrong regarding a class A amplifier?

a)
placed at the output stage
b)
output with little distortion
c)
Conduction angle of 360o
d)
?MAX = 25%
485. A big metallic object that helps to cool transistors and usually attached
to the collector.
a)
Leads
b)
Transformer
c)
Heat sink
d)
Bleeder resistor
486. As the frequency of the ac source increases, the core loss ____________.
a)
remains the same
b)
decreases
c)
approaches zero
d)
increases
487. What is the process of designing more than 100 gates on a single chip?
a)
MSI
b)
SLSI
c)
LSI
d)
SSI
488. A display made up of segments that either reflect or do not reflect ambien
t light.
a)
Seven segment display
b)
Liquid crystal display
c)
Common anode display
d)
Common cathode display
489. What is the controlling parameter for JFET?
a)
IB
b)
ID
c)
IG
d)
VGS
490. The maximum zener voltage of 1N980 and 1N980A respectively are _______ and
________ if both have rated VZ of 62V.
a)
62.8V, 61.5V
b)
63V, 64V
c)
68.2V, 65.1V
d)
61.5V, 62.8V
491. Signal generators are classified according to frequency which are either a
f or r
f generators, a
f generators are referred to as ___________.
a)
Audio oscillators
b)
Signal oscillators
c)
Frequency oscillators
d)
Hartley oscillators
492. An audible tone generated by combining two different frequencies in a nonl
inear circuit or as sound waves in air is called _____________.
a)
Dead beat
b)
Side tone
c)
Beat tone
d)
Heterodyne
493. The following are some of the common applications of transformer on low-po
wer electronics and control circuits except.
a)
Biasing
b)
Impedance matching
c)
Isolation incompatible circuit
d)
Maximum power transfer
494. Find the total force producing magnetic flux of a circuit having 40 V appl
ied across a relay coil with 80 turns on a 2? resistance.
a)
1600 At
b)
160.0 At
c)
16,000 At

d)
16.0 At
495. Low Audio frequencies usually handled by a woofer in a sound system.
a)
Bass
b)
Tone
c)
Treble
d)
Alto
496. What JFET operating region corresponds to Saturation of BJT?
a)
Saturation
b)
Cutoff
c)
Breakdown
d)
Ohmic
497. Type of diode that is made of metal whisker touching a very small semicond
uctor die.
a)
A junction diode
b)
Zener diode
c)
Varactor diode
d)
Point contact diode
498. A varactor diode with a low capacitance ratio can be used in _________.
a)
Phase tuning
b)
Tuning fork
c)
Fine tuning
d)
Coarse tuning
499. The bulk resistance of the pn junction is typically ________ ?.
a)
25
b)
2.5
c)
100
d)
250
500. In this type of armature core arrangement, the conductors are placed in th
e slots on the surface of the core.
a)
Drum type
b)
Gramme-ring type
c)
Disk type
d)
Shell type
501. If the gain of an amplifier without feedback is 10 and with negative feedb
ack is 8, then the feedback fraction is
a)
0.9
b)
0.8
c)
0.025
d)
0.225
502. What is the atomic number of germanium?
a)
6
b)
32
c)
4
d)
14
503. Is a data manipulated by a computer program
a)
Language
b)
Source program
c)
Data base
d)
Object program
504. A graph which shows the relationship between the armature generated emf an
d the field excitation in terms of field current.
a)
Regulation curve
b)
Hysteresis curve
c)
Load curve
d)
Magnetization curve
505. What are the three terminals of an SCR?
a)
Anode1, anode2 and anode3
b)
Anode, cathode and gate
c)
Collector, base and emitter
d)
MT1, MT2 and gate

506. It is the ability of a regulator to maintain a constant output voltage reg

ardless of variation in the load current.
a)
Line regulation
b)
Loadline regulation
c)
Permittivity
d)
Load regulation
507. What happens if the grid is made more positive than the saturation point?
a)
The tube elements might be damaged
b)
The tube stops conducting
c)
No other amplification takes place
d)
Electrons are drawn to the grid and do not reach the plate
508. It consists of a single coil rotated in a magnetic field and produces an A
C voltage.
a)
Commutator
b)
Armature
c)
Elementary generator
d)
Field winding
509. The basic difference between feedbacks in biasing amplifier circuit is ___
______.
a)
Biasing circuit may employ positive feedback while amplifier cir
cuits use negative feedback.
b)
In biasing circuits AC negative feedback is provided while ampli
fiers employ DC negative feedback
c)
Biasing circuit have high input impedance while amplifier circui
ts have low output impedance
d)
In biasing circuits DC negative feedback is provided while ampli
fiers employ AC negative feedback
510. Voltage that is present at the output of an operational amplifier with its
two inputs grounded.
a)
Input offset voltage
b)
Output offset voltage
c)
Common mode signal
d)
Ground voltage
511. This type of magnetic core is usually made up anL-shaped laminations.
a)
Shell type
b)
Cylindrical type
c)
Core type
d)
Wound-core type
512. An n-type semiconductor layer has a sheet resistance of 100 ?/square and c
onductivity of 3000 S/m. What is the thickness of the layer?
a)
3.3m
b)
10 m
c)
30 m
d)
1m
513. _________ has a unit of electronvolt (eV). (0 correct answers)
a)
Energy
b)
Charge
c)
Potential difference
d)
Current
514. The band of frequencies in which the wavelength is too short to be detecte
d by the human eye.
a)
Infrared band
b)
Ultraviolet band
c)
C band
d)
Visible band
515. Find the value of voltage regulation having a dc voltage of 67 V without l
oad with full load current drawn the output drops to 42 V.
a)
32.5%
b)
15.9%
c)
62.6%

d)
59.5%
516. Why are tetrodes and pentodes rated in gm and not in ?
a)
Their inventors rated them in gm
b)
The dc voltage applied to the screen grid can control their ampl
ification factor thus is varying
c)
They have no
d)
No, they are rated in
517. Electrical classification of materials having 5 to 8 valence electrons.
a)
Insulator
b)
Compound
c)
Conductor
d)
Semiconductor
518. Find the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit, which has a
resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218
a)
47.3 kHz
b)
606 kHz
c)
58.7 kHz
d)
16.5 kHz
519. The region between the peak and valley voltage of the characteristic curve
of a tunnel diode.
a)
constant current region
b)
Active region
c)
Negative resistance region
d)
Steep slope region
520. A filter that allows frequencies in between the two cutoff frequencies to
pass through and reach the output.
a)
BPF
b)
HPF
c)
BRP
d)
LPF
521. An advantage of full-wave rectifier over half-wave rectifier.
a)
The tube will conduct during both halves of the input cycle
b)
The ripple frequency is lower
c)
Each diode can cool-off during half of each input cycle
d)
Output voltage is lower with more ripple
522. Resistors with high value usually have lower wattage ratings because of __
__________.
a)
Bigger size
b)
Lower current
c)
Hugh current
d)
Varying current
523. When a logic circuit rejects an unwanted signal, this is termed as _______
__.
a)
Propagation delay
b)
Power consumption
c)
Noise margin
d)
Logic levels
524. What physical will a two parallel wires and with the same direction of cur
rent flowing over them?
a)
Maintain position
b)
Attract each other
c)
Repel each other
d)
No physical effect
525. Steel is hard to magnetize because of its __________________.
a)
High density
b)
Low permeability
c)
High retentivity
d)
High permeability
526. Digital ICs are mostly __________.
a)
Thick-film

b)
Monolithic
c)
Thin-film
d)
Hybrid
527. Breakdown mechanism occurring at higher values of reverse voltage.
a)
Zener
b)
Surge
c)
Overvoltage
d)
Avalanche
528. What is the flux density in gauss (G) having a flux of 12,000 Mx through a
perpendicular area of 6cm2?
a)
72000 G
b)
200 G
c)
72 G
d)
2000 G
529. Method used in producing thick film components.
a)
Epitaxial
b)
Diffusion
c)
Screening
d)
Evaporation
530. Which of the following is the least expensive?
a)
Diamond
b)
Tourmaline
c)
Quartz
d)
Rochelle salt
531. Which is not true regarding a MOSFET?
a)
Drain current can be greater than IDSS
b)
Gate current is always zero
c)
Also called IGFET
d)
It is a special kind of JFET
532. _________ refers to the majority carrier in an N-type semiconductor. (0 co
rrect answers)
a)
Hole
b)
Positive ion
c)
Electron
d)
Negative ion
533. How many nodes are needed to completely analyze a circuit according to kir
choff s law?
a)
Two
b)
One less than the total number of nodes in the circuit
c)
One
d)
All nodes in the circuit
534. The reverse current flowing through a photodiode with no light input.
a)
Light current
b)
Saturation current
c)
Dark current
d)
Leakage current
535. The source of mechanical power to turn the rotors of alternators, large an
d small, AC and DC.
a)
Primer
b)
Prime mover
c)
Prime contractor
d)
Prime user
536. An oscillator that employs 3 RC sections to produce a 180o feedback phase
shift.
a)
Wien bridge oscillator
b)
Hartley oscillator
c)
RC phase shift oscillator
d)
Colpitts oscillator
537. __________ refers to circuits with 10 to 100 integrated circuits.
a)
Monolithic

b)
IC
c)
SSI
d)
MSI
538. Another name for linear IC.
a)
CMOS
b)
Analog IC
c)
TTL
d)
Digital IC
539. Flow of carriers due to uneven concentration.
a)
Breakdown
b)
Avalanche
c)
Drift
d)
Diffusion
540. What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing current-shu
nt feedback?
a)
Equals infinity
b)
It remains the same
c)
It is increased
d)
It is decreased
541. The term fully saturated for a transistor refers to __________.
a)
The collector current at its minimum value
b)
The collector current at its maximum value
c)
The transistor alpha at its maximum value
d)
The transistor beta at its maximum value
542. Happens when the plate is sufficiently positive to attract all the space c
harge electrons.
a)
Hi fi amplication
b)
Cutoff
c)
Grid leak
d)
Plate current saturation
543. __________ is the term used to express the ratio change in dc collector to
a change in base current in a bipolar transistor.
a)
Beta
b)
Alpha
c)
Gamma
d)
Delta
544. In semiconductor technology, the characteristic of a transistor in cut-off
refers to a condition when __________.
a)
Maximum current flows from emitter to collector
b)
There is no base current
c)
No current flows from emitter to collector
d)
The transistor is at its operating point
545. __________ is a unipolar semiconductor device which the current is carried
by the majority carriers only.
a)
Electronics Engineering
b)
Zener Diode
c)
Point contact transistor
d)
Junction transistor
546. Find the magnetomotive force of a circuit having 10 V across a relay, 50 t
urns of 2..5 ? resistance.
a)
2000 At
b)
20,000 At
c)
20 At
d)
200At
547. Calculate the CMRR of a voltage follower whose common mode gain is 0.005.
a)
-45dB
b)
1
c)
0.005
d)
200
548. It is the same as dc.

a)
hFE
b)
hfe
c)
ac
d)
a
549. Type of motor where the field windings are connected in series with the ar
mature coil and the field strength varies with changes in
a)
Load motors
b)
Series motors
c)
Compound motors
d)
Shunt motors
550. ________ is the most influential factor in the switching speed of saturate
d bipolar transistor.
a)
Collector current
b)
Hfe
c)
Base current
d)
Charge storage
551. A three-terminal, unidirectional thyristor.
a)
DIAC
b)
Shockley
c)
TRIAC
d)
SCR
552. Color whose wavelength from 620 to 700 nm.
a)
Red
b)
Black
c)
White
d)
Violet
553. How much voltage regulation does commercial power supply have?
a)
10%
b)
Within 1%
c)
15% and above
d)
10% and above
554. What is the ideal voltage regulation of a power supply?
a)
1%
b)
50%
c)
100%
d)
0%
555. Among the common emitter h-parameters, which is the smallest?
a)
hie
b)
hre
c)
hfe
d)
hce
556. Which is the most stable biasing technique with variation?
a)
Emitter feedback bias
b)
Collector feedback bias
c)
Base bias
d)
Voltage divider bias
557. Which is not an advantage of a BJT over MOS?
a)
Lower power dissipation
b)
Higher gain
c)
High output drive current
d)
Lower noise low
558. A BJT that has an hfe of 100 has an hfb of _________.
a)
-101
b)
100
c)
Zero
d)
Infinity
559. Which f the following is the probable output if all inputs of a TTL gate a
re binary one?
a)
Binary zero
b)
Binary one

c)
Indeterminate
d)
Determinable
560. At Zero bias, the drain current for D-MOSFET is
a)
Maximum
b)
0mA
c)
IDSS
d)
10mA
561. It is the biasing technique that is primarily used in switching circuits
a)
Emitter feedback bias
b)
VDB
c)
Collector feedback bias
d)
Base bias
562. Electron tube equivalent to solid state SCR.
a)
VTVM
b)
Thyratron
c)
Triode
d)
CRT
563. The voltage at which the device suddenly turns on or off.
a)
Bias voltage
b)
Knee voltage
c)
Trigger
d)
Holding voltage
564. An amplifier class in which the transistor is biased way below cutoff and
usually employs a tuned circuit.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
AC
565. The plate resistance of a pentode is in the range of ___________.
a)
100?
b)
100k?-1M?
c)
50k?-100k?
d)
1k?
566. The magnetic flux through the loop of wire is maximum when the angle betwe
en the magnetic lines of force and the normal line drawn perpendicular to the ar
ea inside the loop is ___________apart.
a)
45o
b)
0o
c)
90o
d)
60o
567. Which top shape of the LED gives the widest radiation pattern?
a)
Shallow chip spherical dome
b)
Diffused dome
c)
Deep chip spherical dome
d)
Aspherical dome
568. A CMOS with series PMOS and complementary parallel NMOS is equivalent to l
ogical
a)
AND gate
b)
NOR gate
c)
Nand gate
d)
OR gate
569. A type of multivibrator that has no stable state.
a)
Astable
b)
Bistable
c)
Monostable
d)
Zerostable
570. Color whose wavelength from 455 to 490 nm.
a)
Orange
b)
Violet
c)
Red

d)
Blue
571. A mode of operation for Depletion-type MOSFET to increase the size of the
channel.
a)
On mode
b)
Positive mode
c)
Depletion mode
d)
Enhancement mode
572. How much power does an electronic equipment consume, assuming a 5.50 A cur
rent flowing and a 120 Volt power source.
a)
60 Watts
b)
66 Watts
c)
125.5 Watts
d)
660 Watts
573. A negative-shunt positive-biased clipper has a bias voltage of 3V. If the
input voltage is 5 Vpk sinusoid, calculate the maximum and minimum voltage respe
ctively out of this clipper circuit.
a)
0V, -5V
b)
5V, 3V
c)
3V, -5V
d)
3V, 0V
574. Which of the following diodes are used in the manufacture of ICs to decrea
se the propagation delay time?
a)
Tunnel
b)
Schottky
c)
Zener
d)
Fast switching diode regulator
575. IC s whose components are passive elements either resistors or capacitors.
a)
Film IC
b)
Hybrid IC
c)
Monolithic IC
d)
Substrate
576. Circuits that generates non
sinusoid waveform that is designed to have one
, two or no stable output state.
a)
Multivibrator
b)
Rectifier
c)
Clipper
d)
Converter
577. The conductance of a circuit having three 10 ? resistors in parallel is
a)
0.333 S
b)
0.30
c)
30 S
d)
3.33 S
578. ______________ is a type of linear regulator used in applications requirin
g efficient utilization of primary power source.
a)
A shunt current source
b)
A shunt regulator
c)
A constant current source
d)
A series regulator
579. What is the gain of a VT triode amplifier having a of 100 and a load resis
tance equal to the plate resistance?
a)
1
b)
200
c)
100
d)
50
580. Electron tube from where the name thyristor was derived.
a)
Varistor
b)
Triode
c)
Thyrector
d)
Thyratron
581. A positive-shunt positive-biased clipper has bias voltage of 3V. If the in

put voltage is 5 Vpk sinusoid, what is the peak-to-peak voltage out of this clip
per.
a)
8V
b)
3V
c)
5V
d)
0V
582. When the power supply is first turned on, the output is all right but afte
r a few minutes, the dc output voltage drops to 0 and then the fuse blows. Which
of the following could be the probable reason for this?
a)
Open load resistance
b)
Shorted secondary winding of the transformer
c)
Leaky filter capacitor
d)
Shorted primary winding of the transformer
583. Which is the wrong statement about a transformer?
a)
It can step-up and step-down voltage
b)
It is an amplifier
c)
It can step-up and step-down current
d)
It is an important part of the power supply circuit
584. Comparator with hysteresis.
a)
Schmitt trigger
b)
Window comparator
c)
Level detector
d)
Voltage follower
585. Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion?
a)
Class AB
b)
Class C
c)
Class A
d)
Class B
586. Which statement is wrong regarding screen grid?
a)
Increases amplification
b)
Increases plate current
c)
Reduces the control grid to plate capacitance
d)
Reduces plate resistance
587. An LC oscillator that employs a tapped capacitor in parallel with an induc
tor.
a)
Clapp
b)
Colpitts oscillator
c)
Armstrong oscillator
d)
Hartley oscillator
588. What is the peak reverse voltage of 1N4001?
a)
200V
b)
25V
c)
100V
d)
50V
589. Is the factor by which the open loop gain will decrease if feedback is app
lied?
a)
Sacrifice factor
b)
CMRR
c)
Attenuation factor
d)
Feedback fraction
590. A point in the characteristic curve of a diode where the current suddenly
rises.
a)
Trigger voltage
b)
Peak voltage
c)
Valley voltage
d)
Knee voltage
591. Two heaters A and B are in parallel across a supply voltage V. heater A pr
oduces 500 kcal in 10 min., the resistance of A is 10 ?, what is the resistance
of B?
a)
3.5 ?

b)
2.5 ?
c)
0.14 ?
d)
4.5 ?
592. Which is not another name for schottky diode?
a)
Schottky barrier diode
b)
Surface-barrier diode
c)
Hot carrier diode
d)
Esaki diode
593. A diode rating that specifies the maximum possible power dissipation of th
e forward biased diode.
a)
Maximum power
b)
Feasible power
c)
Forward power dissipation
d)
Power rating
594. It is the maximum permissible reverse voltage for the diode.
a)
Maximum voltage
b)
Peak reverse voltage
c)
Barrier voltage
d)
Tolerable voltage
595. This core construction is usually made up of E an I-shaped laminations.
a)
Shell type
b)
Cylindrical type
c)
Core type
d)
Wound core type
596. Solve the collector current, if the base current is 200mA and the current
gain is 20.
a)
10 A
b)
4 A
c)
1 A
d)
40 A
597. What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing voltage - s
hunt feedback?
a)
It is decreased
b)
It remains the same
c)
Equals infinity
d)
It is increased
598. The op-amp input that causes a phase inversion when used as a signal input
?
a)
Non inverting input
b)
Inverting input
Vee
c)
d)
VCC
599. Pin 6 of 555 timers.
a)
Threshold
b)
Vcc
c)
control voltage
d)
discharge
600. What does the second strip of an electronic resistor color code represents
?
a)
Second digit value
b)
Tolerance
c)
Temperature
d)
Multiplier
601. This type of winding connection is formed by taking the leads of the first
coil and connecting them to commutator bars
a)
Wave winding
b)
Frog-leg winding
c)
Lap winding
d)
Series winding
602. The minimum VGS that turns an E-MOSFET.

a)
Threshold voltage
b)
26mV
c)
Trigger
d)
0V
603. Which is not an application of clipper?
a)
Circuit transient protection
b)
Oscillator
c)
Detection
d)
Changing the shape of the waveform
604. What happens to the output resistance of an amplifier employing current-se
ries feedback?
a)
It is decreased
b)
Equals infinity
c)
It remains the same
d)
It is increased
605. What are the two terminals of a Shockley?
a)
Anode and cathode
b)
Anode 1 and anode 2
c)
Collector and emitter
d)
MT1 and MT2
606. The h- parameter ho is a ________.
a)
Conductance
b)
Reverse voltage gain
c)
Resistance
d)
Forward current gain
607. In which of the following statements is a pn junction not conducting?
a)
The arrow of the diode symbol points to the more positive of the
diode potentials
b)
The arrow of the diode symbol points to the more negative of the
diode potentials
c)
The voltage differential between the anode and the cathode excee
ds the barrier voltage
d)
The anode voltage is far more positive than the cathode
608. It is the representation of a system that contains one or more of the char
acteristics of that system.
a)
H parameters
b)
Model
c)
Representative
d)
Ideal
609. _________ is the output of a half-wave rectifier.
a)
Square wave signal
b)
Half-wave rectified signal
c)
Sinusoidal signal
d)
100% AC signal
610. He devised the phasor analysis and derived an empirical formula for hyster
esis loss.
a)
Nikola Tesla
b)
Heinrich Hertz
c)
Charles Proteus Steinmetz
d)
Michael Faraday
611. It lowers the undesirable affect in VT operation caused by energy fed from
the output of a tube into the input circuit.
a)
Suppressor grid
b)
Anode
c)
Control grid
d)
Screen grid
612. Which of the following is not a correct reason why glass is used as envelo
pe of most receiving tubes?
a)
Glass has longer tube life
b)
Glass is readily available

c)
Glass is easy to form
d)
Glass is cheap
613. How many terminals does hexode have?
a)
6
b)
7
c)
8
d)
3
614. Which is the usual way to turn on as SCR?
a)
Applying negative gate current
b)
Applying base current
c)
Exceeding forward breakover voltage
d)
Applying positive gate current
615. Special type of MOSFET designed to handle large amount of drain currents.
a)
VMOS
b)
CMOS
c)
NMOS
d)
PMOS
616. It is the component that is used to provide a discharge path for the capac
itor in a voltage multiplier if the load opens.
a)
Tuned circuit
b)
Discharging path
c)
Bleeder resistor
d)
Inductive path
617. Another name for common collector.
a)
Collector divider
b)
Collector follower
c)
Emitter follower
d)
Base follower
618. Which is the main advantage of a power supply over a battery?
a)
Less current
b)
Cheaper
c)
Less ripple
d)
More portable
619. The PIV is across a diode when it is ______________.
a)
On
b)
Forward biased
c)
Reverse biased
d)
Unbiased
620. Premature failure of the electron tube long before its statistical life ex
pectancy.
a)
Early failure
b)
Blasted failure
c)
Catastrophic failure
d)
Wear-out failure
621. A good material conductor should have ________.
a)
10
b)
1
c)
12
d)
3.5
622. What happens to the conductivity of the semiconductor when temperature inc
reases?
a)
Decreases
b)
Increases
c)
Cannot be predicted
d)
Remains the same
collector transistor oscillator has a reso
623. The resonant circuit of a tuned
nant frequency of 5 MHz. If the value of capacitance is increased by 50%, calcul
ate the new resonant frequency.
a)
11.25 MHz
b)
2.6 MHz

c)
4..08 MHz
d)
3.33 MHz
624. Rust in electrical (wire) connection will result to __________.
a)
Inductance
b)
Voltage
c)
Resistance
d)
Conductance
625. The following denotes the transformation ratio (a) of an ideal transformer
except
a)
IP/IS
b)
NP/NS
c)
VP/VS
d)
v(ZP/ZS)
626. What is the critical rise rating of 2N682 series SCRs?
a)
3 V / s
b)
30 V / s
c)
40 V / s
d)
300 V /
627. A circuit that is used to vary the conduction angle through a load.
a)
Snubber
b)
Crowbar
c)
Phase controller
d)
Varistor
628. For normal operation, the varactor is _______________.
a)
Forward biased
b)
Unbiased
c)
Reverse active
d)
Reverse biased
629. The current of an electric circuit is analogous to ____________parameter o
f a magnetic circuit.
a)
Mmf
b)
Flux
c)
Reluctivity
d)
Flux density
630. Term for the phenomena which occur in an electrical circuit when the induc
tive reactance balances with the capacitive reactance.
a)
High Q
b)
Reactive quiescence
c)
Reactive equilibrium
d)
Resonance
631. What is the grid voltage required to produce zero plate current in a triod
e whose amplification factor is 25 and plate voltage is 200 V.
a)
5000 V
b)
8 V
c)
10 V
d)
500 V
632. If the zener voltage is known, the maximum allowable zener current can be
computed if ________ is given.
a)
Zener resistance
b)
Voltage regulation
c)
Dc power dissipation rating
d)
Zener power derating factor
633. When an SCR is triggered or on conduction, its electrical characteristics
are similar to what other solid-state device (as measured between its cathode an
d anode)? (0 correct answers)
a)
The varactor diode
b)
The hot-carrier diode
c)
The junction diode
d)
The tunnel diode
634. Which of the statement is not true about the emitter bias?

a)
VCEQ and ICEQ are not affected by variation in
b)
It has no base current
c)
The base is grounded
d)
It needs a dual polarity power supply
635. What do you call the force that sets up for tends to set up magnetic flux
in a magnetic circuit?
a)
Potential difference
b)
Electromotive force
c)
Dynamic force
d)
Magnetomotive force
636. What is the feedback element of a differentiator?
a)
RC network
b)
Inductor
c)
Resistor
d)
Capacitor
637. Which is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?
a)
A negative resistance region
b)
A very high PIV
c)
A high forward current rating
d)
A high forward resistance
638. Current carried by each of two long parallel conductors is doubled, if the
ir separation is also doubled, the force between them would
a)
Increase two-fold
b)
Increase four-fold
c)
Remain the same
d)
Become half
639. The maximum value of ID for JFET.
a)
Imax
b)
IDSS
c)
100 A
d)
10mA
640. This effect becomes significant when the operating frequency of the vacuum
tube is increased.
a)
Transmit time
b)
Edison
c)
Seebeck
d)
Ohm
641. Line representing all the dc operating points of the BJT.
a)
Collector curve
b)
DC loadline
c)
Operating line
d)
AC loadline
642. It is the ability of a voltage regulator to maintain a constant dc output
voltage regardless of variations in rectifier output.
a)
Regulation constant
b)
Load regulation
c)
Line regulation
d)
Efficiency
643. Electrical classification of materials having 4 valence electrons.
a)
Compound
b)
Conductor
c)
Semiconductor
d)
Insulator
644. It describes the dc operating characteristics of the BJT in either saturat
ion or active.
a)
Active mode characteristics
b)
Saturation characteristics
c)
On characteristics
d)
Off characteristics
645. What is the basic unit for measuring current flow?

a)
Volt
b)
Coulomb
c)
Atomic weight
d)
Ampere
646. Capacitor used to establish an ac ground at a specific point in a circuit.
a)
Electrolytic
b)
Choke
c)
Coupling
d)
Bypass
647. This breakdown occurs due to the intense electric field at the junction as
a result of heavily doped sides of the pn junction.
a)
Avalanche
b)
Overvoltage
c)
Zener
d)
Surge
648. _____________ is a major characteristic of an IC.
a)
Complication
b)
Size
c)
Speed
d)
Power consumption
649. A dc voltage supply is measured at 50 volts and drops to 45 V when the loa
d is connected. What is the value of voltage regulation ?
a)
50%
b)
50%
c)
5%
d)
11.11%
650. Which of the following refers to the gain of a circuit?
a)
The difference between the input voltage and the output voltage
of a circuit.
b)
The total increase in output quality over the input quantity of
an amplifier.
c)
The ratio of the output quantity to input quantity of an amplifi
er.
d)
Input quality of an amplifier divided by the output quantity.
651. A motor that rotates in small angular steps that is obtained electromagnet
ically.
a)
Squirrel cage motor
b)
Angular motor
c)
Three phase motor
d)
Stepper motor
652. Calculate the output current of a three-transistor current source given th
at IREF=10mA and is 50.
a)
2mA
b)
9.61mA
c)
9.99mA
d)
500mA
653. An op-amp whose voltage gain is 1.
a)
Source follower
b)
Common base
c)
Emitter follower
d)
Voltage follower
654. Another name for vacuum tube triode.
a)
Fleming valve
b)
Detector
c)
Thyratron
d)
Audion
655. Which of the BJT amplifier configuration can be used as a buffer?
a)
CS
b)
CB
c)
CC

d)
CE
656. Another name of sacrifice factor.
a)
Feedback factor
b)
Loss factor
c)
Feedback fraction
d)
Multiplier
657. He discovered the process of electromagnetic induction and gave a theoreti
cal description regarding this
a)
Charles Coulomb
b)
James Clerk Maxwell
c)
Nikola Tesla
d)
Michael Faraday
658. Device that increases power content from an input signal.
a)
Oscillator
b)
Transformer
c)
Attenuator
d)
Amplifier
659. ___________ is the voltage applied in direct current circuit having a powe
r of 36 watts and a total resistance of 4 ?.
a)
24 V
b)
9 V
c)
6 V
d)
12 V
660. It is a low distortion, tunable, high purity sine wave generator for frequ
encies of 5 Hz to 500 kHz.
a)
RC phase shift oscillator
b)
Hartley oscillator
c)
Colpitts oscillator
d)
Wien bridge oscillator
661. Which of the following circuits is the least probable building block of an
op-amp?
a)
Level source
b)
Current source
c)
Differential amplifier
d)
Tuned circuit
662. Transformers can be connected in parallel, provided that they must be
a)
The same transformation ratio
b)
The same kVA rating
c)
The same brand name
d)
Insulated properly
663. For how much time can 2N682 handle a surge current of 50 A?
a)
37.2 ms
b)
93 ms
c)
5 ms
d)
1.86 ms
664. Distortion occurring in class B amplifier because of the cutoff bias of th
e transistors.
a)
Motorboating
b)
Clipping
c)
Clamping
d)
Crossover distortion
665. A biasing technique wherein the collector voltage will directly effect the
base voltage
a)
VDB
b)
Collector bias
c)
Emitter feedback bias
d)
Collector feedback bias
666. Find the voltage regulation of a generator when full-load voltage is 110V
and no - load voltage is 120V.
a)
1%

b)
10%
c)
90.9%
d)
9.09%
667. What is the cause of a minimum Q on a single-tuned LC circuit?
a)
Decreased capacitance
b)
Decreased series resistor
c)
Decreased shunt resistor
d)
Increased shunt resistor
668. An electron tube having a high degree of vacuum.
a)
TWT
b)
Gaseous tube
c)
Hard tube
d)
Soft tube
669. A two-terminal, bidirectional thyristor.
a)
Diode
b)
DIAC
c)
TRIAC
d)
Shockley
670. A two-terminal, unidirectional thyristor.
a)
Diode
b)
TRIAC
c)
DIAC
d)
Shockley
671. What is the maximum frequency that can be inputted to a A741 op-amp without
distortion if the peak output voltage is 5 V?
a)
15.915 kHz
b)
12.45 kHz
c)
1mHz
d)
1000kHz
672. The emitter resistance RE as seen by the base circuit is ______________.
a)
/ RE
b)
( +1 ) RE
c)
RE
d)
aRE
673. It is the term for the phenomenon wherein the current and voltage are inve
rsely proportional.
a)
Negative resistance
b)
Negative I-V
c)
Reverse ohm s law phenomenon
d)
Inverse current voltage
674. How does an ohmmeter behave if its positive lead is connected to the catho
de of a diode while negative to anode?
a)
Has very low resistance
b)
Has unstable resistance
c)
Has decreasing resistance
d)
Has infinite high resistance
675. What is the diode capacitance temperature coefficient of MV209 series vara
ctors?
a)
300ppm/oC
b)
200ppm/oC
c)
100ppm/oC
d)
157ppm/oC
676. The fading of oscillation for an oscillator will happen when _____________
.
a)
A < 1
b)
A = 2
c)
A = 1
d)
A > 1
677. What FET terminal corresponds to Collector of BJT?
a)
Source

b)
anode
c)
gate
d)
Drain
678. What does Si magnetic flux refers?
a)
Weber
b)
Maxwell
c)
Flux
d)
Lines
679. A BJT that has an hfe of 100 has an hfc of ____________.
a)
Zero
b)
-101
c)
Infinity
d)
100
680. ___________ refers to the term, remote sensing with regard to a linear vol
tage regulator..
a)
The error amplifier compares the input voltage to the reference
voltage
b)
Sensing is accomplished by wireless inductive loops
c)
The feedback connection to the error amplifier is made directly
to the load
d)
The load connection is made outside the feedback loop
681. Why is it that there is always no gate current for JFET?
a)
The gate source junction should always be reverse biased for pro
per operation
b)
The gate is insulated with SiO2
c)
The gate is always shorted to ground
d)
The current is transformed to light
682. The h - parameter hi is a ________.
a)
Conductance
b)
Reverse voltage gain
c)
Resistance
d)
Forward current gain
683. A rotating machine for converting mechanical energy into electrical energy
or vice versa
a)
Motor
b)
Dynamo
c)
Transformer
d)
Generator
684. What term applies to the use of two or more generators to supply a common
load?
a)
Parallel operation
b)
Series operation
c)
Cascaded operation
d)
On-line operation
685. It is usually an op-amp with no feedback and used to compare two voltages.
a)
Differential amplifier
b)
Comparator
c)
Open loop
d)
Voltage follower
686. A triac is a/an _________ equivalent of two SCRs.
a)
Series
b)
Parallel-series
c)
Inverse-parallel
d)
Parallel
687. Find the two stable operating conditions of an SCR.
a)
Forward conducting and reverse conducting
b)
Conducting and non-conducting
c)
Oscillating and quiescent
d)
NPN condition and PNP condition
688. A current caused by thermal activity in a reverse biased diode.

a)
Reverses saturation current
b)
Bias current
c)
Thermal current
d)
Surface leakage current
689. The energy of an oscillator can be sourced by __________.
a)
Inserting a resistor in the grid circuit
b)
Coupling a small coil close to the tube
c)
Capacitive or inductive coupling from tuned circuit
d)
Connecting capacitors across the supply
690. The force between two magnetic poles in relation to their pole strength is
__________.
a)
Inversely proportional
b)
Not related
c)
Directly proportional
d)
Independent
691. Which of the following company was first to develop an op-amp.
a)
Intel
b)
Fairchild
c)
ROHM
d)
Texas instrument
692. Thyratron is a ________.
a)
An semicon triode
b)
A gas filled diode
c)
A vacuum tube
d)
A gas-filled triode
693. The ratio of emitter to base 1 resistance to the interbase resistance of a
UJT.
a)
Aspect ratio
b)
Current gain
c)
Voltage gain
d)
Intrinsic standoff ratio
694. _________ is the thyristor which is fabricated as two complementary SCRs i
n parallel with common gate terminal..
a)
Electronics Engineering
b)
Bilateral SCR
c)
Triac
d)
Unijunction transistor
695. The power dissipated in the core due to hysteresis and eddy current losses
.
a)
Copper loss
b)
Winding loss
c)
Iron loss
d)
Friction loss
696. Ratio of variation in the op-amp voltage to the variation in the supply vo
ltage.
a)
Common mode rejection ratio
b)
Output offset voltage
c)
Power supply rejection ratio
d)
Differential voltage
697. The maximum forward surge current capability of an SCR.
a)
Peak surge current
b)
Circuit fusing rating
c)
Trigger
d)
Holding current
698. The most popular crystal growth process used in IC.
a)
Crystallization
b)
Metallization
c)
Czochralski technique
d)
Photolithography
699. _________ is commonly used as a core material because of its high permeabi

lity
a)
Ferrite
b)
Steel
c)
Permalloy
d)
Alnico
700. What is the property of the magnetic circuit that resists the establishmen
t of flux?
a)
Reluctance
b)
Permeance
c)
Inductance
d)
Mutual inductance
701. Another name for constant current diode.
a)
Line regulator
b)
Current regulator diode
c)
Load regulator
d)
Zener current diode
702. ___________is the quantity of magnetizing force needed to counter balance
the residual magnetism of a magnetic material.
a)
Retentivity
b)
Coercitivity
c)
Susceptivity
d)
Reluctivity
703. The difference in energy between the valence and conduction bands of a sem
iconductor is called
a)
Energy density
b)
Extrinsic photoeffect
c)
Conductivity
d)
Band gap
704. It is the maximum rate of change of the output voltage in response to an i
nput signal.
a)
Differential rate
b)
Roll off rate
c)
Slew rate
d)
Common mode rate
705. The anode of a semiconductor diode indicates a ________ charge during cond
uction.
a)
Neutral
b)
Either, depending on design
c)
Positive
d)
Negative
706. The first quadrant of the diode characteristic curve is where the diode ap
pears as
a)
High resistance
b)
Open switch
c)
Close switch
d)
High voltage
707. The time required for a signal to pass from one point to another.
a)
Duration
b)
Propagation delay
c)
Wave delay
d)
Accessing time
708. What is the atomic number of silicon?
a)
14
b)
4
c)
32
d)
6
709. The impedance in the study of electronics is represented by resistance and
____________.
a)
Inductance and capacitance
b)
Inductance

c)
Reactance
d)
Capacitance
710. Which is not true regarding a CMOS inverter?
a)
Increasing the input frequency, decreases the power dissipation
b)
Full logical zero and one levels are presented at the output
c)
For devices of similar dimensions PMOS is lower than NMOS
d)
Essentially no current flows for logic zero or logic one input
711. A diode is normally chosen that is capable of handling at least _______ ov
er the maximum calculated reverse voltage.
a)
20%
b)
5%
c)
10%
d)
3%
712. It is a capacitor placed in shunt with VCC to prevent its voltage to vary
in a common collector circuit.
a)
Collector bypass capacitor
b)
Coupling capacitor
c)
Source capacitor
d)
Varactor
713. ___________ is the factor that does not affect resistance.
a)
Mass
b)
Cross sectional area
c)
Resistivity
d)
Length
714. Find the current voltage from full-wave rectifier with 120 V peak rectifie
d voltage.
a)
60V
b)
7.639V
c)
76.39V
d)
6.0V
715. Which of the following does not have a control grid?
a)
Triode
b)
FET
c)
Tetrode
d)
Pentode
716. When a voltage of 100 V at 50 Hz is applied to a choking coil A, the curre
nt taken is 8A and the power is 120 W, when applied to coil B, the current is 10
A and the power is 120 W. What will be taken when 100 V is applied to the two co
ils connected in series?
a)
4737 W
b)
140 W
c)
1454 W
d)
70 W
717. Find the dielectric constant of air.
a)
Approximately 0
b)
Approximately 4
c)
Approximately 2
d)
Approximately 1
718. Another name for harmonic.
a)
Overtone
b)
Melody
c)
Fourier frequency
d)
Rhythm
719. The h - parameter hr is a ________.
a)
Forward current gain
b)
Conductance
c)
Resistance
d)
Reverse voltage gain
720. The term use to describe sudden reverse conduction of an electronic compon
ent cause by excess reverse voltage across the device.

721.

722.
peak

723.

724.
ange.

a)
Cut
off
b)
Saturation
c)
Revertion
d)
Avalanche
A graph of all the possible combinations of VGS and ID of an FET.
a)
Gate curve
b)
Drain curve
c)
Transconductance curve
d)
Beta curve
What is the peak-to-peak voltage out of the positive series clipper if the
of the sinusoidal input voltage is 5V? (0 correct answers)
a)
0V
b)
5V
c)
8V
d)
3V
The h-parameter hf is a ________.
a)
Forward current gain
b)
Reverse voltage gain
c)
Resistance
d)
Conductance
A special type of comparator that detects if the input voltage is out of r

a)
Schmitt trigger
b)
Level detector
c)
Window comparator
d)
Voltage follower
725. What is the lagging effect between the magnetizing force applied and the f
lux density?
a)
Eddy current
b)
Reluctance
c)
Permeance
d)
Hysteresis
726. Which is not true regarding UJT?
a)
It means unijunction transistor
b)
It has three terminals
c)
It is unipolar
d)
It exhibits negative resistance region
727. The minimum emitter to base 1 voltage to trigger the UJT.
a)
Trigger
b)
Breakdown voltage
c)
Forward breakdown voltage
d)
Peak voltage
728. Pin 1 of 555b timer.
a)
trigger
b)
Reset
c)
Output
d)
Ground
729. What does O in the VCBO, VCEO and VBEO ratings indicates?
a)
Output
b)
Overload
c)
Open
d)
Oscillator
730. An amplifier with an input resistance of 600 ohms has an input current of
500 microamperes. It delivers 100mA to a 1000-ohm load. Calculate the dB gain of
the amplifier.
a)
25.2 dB
b)
35.33 dB
c)
48.2 dB
d)
50.4 dB
731. Another name for collector bypass capacitor.

a)
Electrolytic capacitor
b)
Varactor
c)
Decoupling capacitor
d)
Source capacitor
732. Which of the VT devices is secondary emission a major problem?
a)
Tetrode
b)
Pentode
c)
Hexode
d)
Triode
733. Find the value of resistor with the following color codes : brown, white,
orange, red.
a)
190 k ? 10 %
b)
19 k ? 20 %
c)
19 k ? 2%
d)
1.9 k ? 10%
734. Which is not a characteristic of an ideal voltage amplifier?
a)
Infinite gain
b)
Infinite output resistance
c)
Infinite input resistance
d)
Zero propagation delay
735. Where do you classify hydrogen as a material?
a)
Paramagnetic
b)
Ferromagnetic
c)
Non-magnetic
d)
Diamagnetic
736. The minimum value of VGS that will cause the drain current to drop to zero
.
a)
Thermal voltage
b)
Gate-source cutoff voltage
c)
0 V
d)
26 mV
737. Find the ripple factor (kr) of sinusoidal signal with peak ripple of 4 vol
ts on an average of 30.
a)
0.940
b)
0.013
c)
0.094
d)
0.130
738. The ____________ the Q of a circuit, the narrower is its bandwidth.
a)
Lower
b)
Selective
c)
Broader
d)
Higher
739. DC operating point of a BJT when there is no signal.
a)
Q-point
b)
Dc point
c)
Midpoint
d)
Quiet point
740. Which of the following is the toughest?
a)
Carbon
b)
Rochelle salt
c)
Tourmaline
d)
Quartz
741. This type of winding connection is formed by placing the coil in slots a d
efinite pole pitch apart.
a)
Lap winding
b)
Wave winding
c)
Multiple finding
d)
Frog-leg winding
742. Pin 7 of 555 timers.
a)
discharge

b)
control voltage
c)
Vcc
d)
Threshold
743. Refers to a force of field that exists between ions where they either repe
l or attract each other.
a)
Diaelectric
b)
Electromotive
c)
Resisting Field
d)
Potential Field
744. General term for semiconductor devices primarily used as switches.
a)
Shockley
b)
Relay
c)
Thyristor
d)
Thyratron
745. A program that converts an instruments written in a high-level language in
to machine code.
a)
Translator
b)
Interpreter
c)
Assembler
d)
Compiler
746. What do you expect when you use two 20 ?, 1 watt resistor in parallel inst
ead of 10 k ?, 1 watt?
a)
Provide wider tolerance
b)
Provide less current
c)
Provide more power
d)
Provide lighter current
747. Another name for attenuation factor?
a)
dB
b)
feedback fraction
c)
Negative gain
d)
Loss
748. What was the first transistor developed by Shockley, Brattain, and Bardeen
on 1948?
a)
MESFET
b)
JFET
c)
BJT
d)
Point contact
749. Change in frequency by a factor of 2.
a)
Fascade
b)
Decade
c)
Octave
d)
Octane
750. Term used for an out-of-phase, non-productive power associated with induct
ors and capacitors.
a)
True power
b)
Effective power
c)
Reactive power
d)
Peak envelope power
751. The __________is an analog component that has two inputs, one inverting an
d the other non-inverting, and a single output terminal.
a)
Op amp
b)
Flip-flop
c)
Register
d)
Counter
752. What is responsible for the phenomenon when voltages across reactance in s
eries can often be larger than the voltage applied to them?
a)
Conductance
b)
Resistance
c)
Capacitance
d)
Resonance

753. A transistor acts as __________ when saturated.

a)
Variable resistance
b)
Very high resistance
c)
Very low resistance
d)
Open circuit
754. It is the time required for a BJT to come out of saturation.
a)
Fall time
b)
Rise time
c)
Storage time
d)
Saturation time
755. What are the minority carriers for a Si bar doped with antimony?
a)
Protons
b)
Holes
c)
Free electrons
d)
Neutrons
756. Circuit that is used to eliminate portion or portions of the input wavefor
m above or below a specified level.
a)
Clamper
b)
DC restorer
c)
Clipper
d)
Multiplier
757. Which of the following integrated circuits contains the most gates?
a)
LSI
b)
SSI
c)
MSI
d)
VLSI
758. Materials with permeabilities slightly less than that of free space referr
ed to as
a)
Paramagnetic
b)
Diamagnetic
c)
Non-magnetic
d)
Ferromagnetic
759. It is caused by the magnetic field, which is set up in the armature. It te
nds to oppose the rotation of the armature due to the attraction and repulsion f
orces between the armature field and the main field.
a)
Armature reaction
b)
Armature coupling
c)
Motor reaction
d)
Armature de-coupling
760. In applying the right hand rule by holding a conductor with your right han
d so that the thumb represents the current, the encircling fingers around the co
nductor represent ____________.
a)
Electronic field of force
b)
Electromagnetic field intensity
c)
Electric lines of force
d)
Magnetic lines of force
761. What is the net charge of an n-type material?
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
c)
Neutral
d)
Dependent upon temperature
762. The ratio of the feedback voltage to the output voltage.
a)
Attenuation factor
b)
Feedback voltage
c)
Gain
d)
Feed fraction
763. An LC circuit resonates at 2000 kHz
a)
1990 kHz, 2010 kHz
b)
1980 kHz, 2020 kHz
c)
1900 kHz, 2100 kHz

d)
1950 kHz, 2050 kHz
764. A varactor diode has Ct of 50 pf at 5V and a Cr of 2 for a Vr of 5 to 15 V
. What will be its capacitance at 15V?
a)
48 pf
b)
100 pf
c)
52 pf
d)
24 pf
765. Which of the following is not the most likely application of tunnel diode?
a)
Electronics Engineering
b)
Amplifier
c)
Rectifiers
d)
Modulators and demodulator
766. Which comparison of ordinary pn junction and PIN diode is not true?
a)
When forward biased the PIN diode is not conducting while the pn
junction is conducting
b)
The pn junction conduction starts at nearly 0V while the PIN dio
de starts conducting at 0.75V.
c)
The PIN diode has an intrinsic layer at the middle of P and N ty
pe while the pn junction only has the depletion region at the middle
d)
The pn junction diode has a definite turning point in the curve
while the PIN diode shows no definite knee voltage
767. It states that the plate current is proportional to the plate voltage rais
e to three-halves.
a)
Three-halves law
b)
Vacuum law
c)
Octet rule
d)
Child s law
768. Which are the three terminals of a TRIAC?
a)
Emitter, base 1 and base 2
b)
Gate, source and sink
c)
Gate, anode1 and anode2 ( this shld. Be gate, MT1 and MT2)
d)
Base, emitter and collector
769. What does an integrated digital circuit generally made of?
a)
Monolithic
b)
Thin-film
c)
Hybrid
d)
Plastic film
770. A biasing technique wherein the emitter voltage will directly effect the b
ase voltage
a)
VDB
b)
Collector bias
c)
Emitter feedback bias
d)
Emitter bias
771. Shows the magnitude of a quantity by the number of activated segments.
a)
Bar graph
b)
Dot matrix
c)
Graphic
d)
Bar display
772. Theorem that allows the feedback capacitors at the input and output
a)
De Morgan s Theorem
b)
Capacitor Theorem
c)
2-Port Theorem
d)
Miller s Theorem
773. What is the law whereby the force of attraction and repulsion between prop
ortional to the square of the distance between them?
a)
Newton s First Law
b)
Coulomb s Second Law
c)
Norton s law
d)
Newton s Second Law
774. If three amplifiers with a gain of 8 each are in cascade, how much is the

overall gain?
a)
8
b)
72
c)
24
d)
512
775. Transition region refers to ________ with regards to transistor.
a)
The point where wire leads are connected to the P or N type mate
rial
b)
An area of low charge density around PN junction
c)
The area of maximum P-type
d)
The area of maximum N-type charge
776. What is polarity of the 7905 regulator?
a)
Negative
b)
Zero
c)
Positive
d)
Neutral
777. A three-terminal, bidirectional thyristor.
a)
DIAC
b)
Shockley
c)
Diode
d)
TRIAC
778. The transformer is called a __________ if the primary voltage is greater t
han the secondary voltage
a)
Isolation transformer
b)
Autotransformer
c)
Step-up transformer
d)
Step-down transformer
779. The curve that illustrating the relationship between beta, collector curre
nt and temperature.
a)
Base curve
b)
Thermal curve
c)
Collector curve
d)
Beta curve
780. Color whose wavelength from 580 to 620 nm.
a)
Blue
b)
Yellow
c)
Green
d)
Orange
781. Which has the highest amplification factor?
a)
Tetrode
b)
Pentode
c)
Diode
d)
Triode
782. It is the voltage lying on the horizontal axis of the collector curve at w
hich the base currents will intersect if they are projected to the left.
a)
Early voltage
b)
Cut-off voltage
c)
Saturation voltage
d)
Thermal voltage
783. The maximum unclipped peak-to-peak output signal.
a)
Signal strength
b)
High fidelity signal
c)
rms
d)
Compliance
784. It is a type of Rom the contents of which can be erased by exposure to UV
radiation.
a)
EPROM
b)
EAPROM
c)
PROM
d)
EEPROM

785. When you increase the resistance in a circuit the flow of electrons will _
__________.
a)
Flow faster
b)
Be decreased
c)
Be stopped
d)
Be constant
786. A circuit that is used to connect a low
current output to a relatively hig
h current device.
a)
Driver
b)
Follower
c)
Buffer
d)
Router
787. Which terminal of the tetrode is nearest to its anode?
a)
Suppressor grid
b)
Cathode
c)
Control grid
d)
Screen grid
788. Which of the majority carrier in an N-type semiconductor?
a)
Positive ion
b)
Hole
c)
Negative ion
d)
Electron
789. It is composed of a series of energy levels containing the valence electro
ns.
a)
Forbidden band
b)
Valence band
c)
Conduction band
d)
Side band
790. What is the exact overall of a Darlington amplifier composed of 2 BJTs wit
h s of 100 and 200?
a)
200
b)
20,000
c)
300
d)
20,300
791. Which of the principal characteristic of a varactor diode?
a)
It has a negative region
b)
Its internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage
c)
It has a constant voltage under conditions of varying current
d)
It has a very high PIV
792. The screen grid is usually connected to
a)
Static positive voltage
b)
Control grid
c)
Ground
d)
5V
793. A bias that needs a dual polarity power supply and the base grounded.
a)
Voltage divider bias
b)
Emitter bias
c)
Base bias
d)
Common base
794. The typical lifetime of a hole is in the range of _______.
a)
ns
b)
s
c)
ms
d)
ps
795. Loop currents should be assumed to flow in which direction?
a)
Counter-clockwise
b)
Straight
c)
Either C or D arbitrarily selected
d)
Clockwise
796. The terminal voltage of a shunt-wound generator drops due to the following

reasons except
a)
Voltage drop due to shunt-field resistance
b)
Voltage drop due to weakened shunt-field
c)
Voltage drop due to armature reaction
d)
Voltage drop due to armature circuit resistance
797. What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing current - s
eries feedback?
a)
Equals infinity
b)
It remains the same
c)
It is decreased
d)
It is increased
798. It is a curve showing the relationship between IB and VBE.
a)
Base curve
b)
Beta curve
c)
Collector curve
d)
Emitter curve
799. The current in the secondary side o a step-up transformer is ___________th
e current on its primary side.
a)
Very large compared to
b)
The same as
c)
Larger than
d)
Smaller than
800. A half-wave rectifier circuit utilizing one half of an AC input cycle have
a ripple frequency in its output equivalent to _______.
a)
60 cps
b)
120 cps
c)
240 cps
d)
110 cps
801. Minimum anode current to hold a thyristor at conduction.
a)
Trigger
b)
Threshold voltage
c)
Holding current
d)
Maintaining current
802. It is a measure of the effectiveness of the control grid voltage relative
to the anode to cathode voltage in controlling the plate current.
a)
Transcondutance
b)
Plate resistance
c)
Amplification factor
d)
Gain
803. Relative to an ordinary rectifier diode, which is the correct statement re
garding an LED?
a)
It has a lower forward voltage and lower reverse breakdown volta
ge
b)
It has higher forward voltage and lower reverse breakdown voltag
e
c)
It has a higher forward voltage and higher reverse breakdown vol
tage
d)
It has a lower forward voltage and a higher reverse breakdown vo
ltage
804. What is the rotor angle movement per step if there are 48 steps per revolu
tion for a given stepper motor?
a)
1.50
b)
300
c)
50
d)
7.50
805. It is a kind of tuning circuit that is used to vary the value of the reson
ant frequency over a wide range of frequencies.
a)
Resonant circuit
b)
Fine tuning circuit
c)
Coarse tuning circuit

d)
Band whole circuit
806. Among the common emitter h-parameters, which is the largest?
a)
hie
b)
hfe
c)
hce
d)
hre
807. What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices that exhibit both m
etallic and non-metallic characteristics?
a)
Silicon and Germanium
b)
Galena and Bismuth
c)
Silicon and Gold
d)
Galena and Germanium
808. What do you call a oscillator circuit that uses a tapped coil in the tuned
circuit?
a)
Colpitts
b)
Pierce
c)
Ultraudion
d)
Hartley
809. How many Maxwells is 4000 lines of magnetic force?
a)
2000
b)
200
c)
4000
d)
400
810. What do you call a class of zener diodes that have extremely high surge handling capabilities?
a)
Diacs
b)
Power zeners
c)
Transient suppressors
d)
Special purpose zeners
811. Which is the best way to test if a zener diode is properly working?
a)
Both in circuit and out of circuit tests
b)
NSAT
c)
In circuit test
d)
Out of circuit test
812. What material possesses permeability s slightly less than that of free space
?
a)
Diamagnetic
b)
Paramagnetic
c)
Ferromagnetic
d)
Non-magnetic
813. A program written in machine language
a)
Database
b)
Source program
c)
Language
d)
Object program
814. Which configuration is best to use in matching low source resistance with
a high load resistance?
a)
CB
b)
CC
c)
CD
d)
CE
815. _________is the dc motor control senses.
a)
Resistance
b)
Counter emf
c)
Field voltage
d)
Armature
816. A VT triode having an amplification factor of 100 is considered to be
a)
Mid -
b)
High -
c)
Low power

d)
Low -
817. What FET terminal corresponds to base of BJT?
a)
Anode
b)
Source
c)
Gate
d)
Drain
818. How do zener diodes widely used?
a)
Power collectors
b)
Voltage regulators
c)
Variable resistors
d)
Current limiter
819. How much is the equivalent power in watts can a 3 horse power provide?
a)
1492 watts
b)
248.66 watts
c)
300 watts
d)
2238 watts
820. How many op-amps does a window comparator require?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
1
d)
3
821. Which is not an advantage of IC over discrete components?
a)
Small size
b)
It can handle excessive heat
c)
Low power
d)
Less weight
822. What should be the characteristics of current limiting resistor whose task
is to limit the amount of surge current in a power supply?
a)
Low resistance, low wattage
b)
Low resistance, high wattage
c)
High resistance, low wattage
d)
High resistance, high wattage
823. This armature construction is made by tightly rolling a thin strip of iron
sheet into a spiral coil.
a)
Drum type
b)
Gramme-ring type
c)
Disk type
d)
Shell type
824. One of the following characteristics of a resistive material which do not
change its resistive value with respect to time is its ____________.
a)
Fidelity
b)
Sensitivity
c)
Stability
d)
Selectivity
825. Special type of comparator that compares a voltage in input with a referen
ce voltage?
a)
Window comparator
b)
Level detector
c)
Voltage follower
d)
Schmitt trigger
826. The small value of direct current that flows when a semiconductor device h
as a reverse bias.
a)
Reverse current
b)
Bias current
c)
Current limit
d)
Surge current
827. By Mass Action Law, in an extrinsic semiconductor as the concentration of
the free concentration of holes?
a)
Decreases
b)
Remains the same

c)
Increases
d)
Cannot be determined
828. What is the oscillator of a radar receiver?
a)
Product detector
b)
Detector
c)
Klystron oscillator
d)
Hartley oscillator
829. Color whose wavelength from 550 to 580 nm.
a)
Yellow
b)
Orange
c)
Blue
d)
Green
830. What are the advantages in using an LED?
a)
Low power consumption and long life
b)
A current flows when he device is exposed to a light source
c)
High lumens per cm per cm and low power consumption
d)
High lumens per cm per cm and low voltage requirements
831. The speed of a dc-shunt motor can be slowed down under one of the conditio
ns below.
a)
Increased armature resistance
b)
Decreased field voltage
c)
Increased field voltage
d)
Increase armature voltage
832. Which is the correct way to turn-on a Shockley diode?
a)
Apply negative trigger
b)
Apply pulses to the gate
c)
Apply positive trigger
d)
Exceed forward breakover voltage
833. For UJT, it is the region between the peak and valley points.
a)
Active region
b)
Saturation
c)
Negative resistance region
d)
Trigger region
834. What determines the resonant frequency of a crystal?
a)
The size and thickness of the crystal material
b)
External components
c)
The hermitic seal
d)
The temperature of the crystal
835. An LC oscillator that employs a tapped inductor in parallel with a capacit
or.
a)
Colpitts oscillator
b)
Clapp
c)
Armstrong oscillator
d)
Hartley oscillator
836. The metal most often used in metallization process in IC fabrication.
a)
Gold
b)
Silver
c)
Aluminum
d)
Platinum
837. It is the high initial current in a power supply which happens because the
filter capacitor is initially uncharged.
a)
Leakage current
b)
Eddy current
c)
Surge current
d)
Trigger current
838. What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L =1 H and C is picoFarads
are in series?
a)
50.3 MHz
b)
50.3 MHz
c)
15.9 MHz

d)
15.9 MHz
839. The natural magnet refers to
a)
Steel
b)
Soft iron
c)
Magnesia
d)
Lodestone
840. Color whose wavelength from 490 to 550 nm.
a)
Yellow
b)
Blue
c)
Green
d)
Orange
841. Find the normal operating voltage and current of light emitting diode.
a)
1.7 volts and 20 mA
b)
60 volts and 20 mA
c)
5 volts and 50 mA
d)
0.7 volts and 60 mA
842. Electrical energy refers to ____________.
a)
Watt
b)
Volt-Ampere
c)
Volt-Coulomb
d)
Joules divided by time
843. Which of the following refers to a characteristic of a magnetic line of fo
rce?
a)
Stay stationary between the north and the south of a bar magnet
b)
Travels from south to north through the surrounding medium of a
bar magnet
c)
Travels back and forth between the north and south pole of a bar
magnet
d)
Travels from north to the south through the surrounding medium o
f a bar magnet
844. Indicates the amount of surge power that the transient suppressor can diss
ipate.
a)
Peak power dissipation rating
b)
Peak suppressor power
c)
Peak inverse voltage
d)
Surge power
845. It is defined as the opposition of a material to being magnetized
a)
Permeability
b)
Capacitance
c)
Resistance
d)
Reluctance
846. Electrical classification of materials having 1 to 3 valence electrons.
a)
Conductor
b)
Semiconductor
c)
Compound
d)
Insulator
847. What is the effect of light in a photodiode?
a)
Limits flow of current
b)
Forward current
c)
Reverse current
d)
Renders unstable current
848. A capacitor opposes
a)
Both increase and decrease in voltage
b)
In increase in current
c)
An increase in voltage
d)
A decrease in voltage
849. The objective of a capacitor is to
a)
Store AC current
b)
Block DC and pass AC current
c)
Block AC current

d)
Block AC and pass DC current
850. It is the remaining variation in the output of a power supply filter.
a)
Ripple
b)
Persistent voltage
c)
Offset voltage
d)
Residual voltage
851. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a power rectifier diod
e?
a)
It has relatively low forward voltage drop
b)
It has relatively high reverse current ratings
c)
It has relatively high forward current ratings
d)
It can handle much higher non-repetitive surge currents