UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS

Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

1. Kochs week bacillus

A. Haemophilus influenza
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Heamophilus aegyptis
D. Mycobacterium leprae
2. Also called intermittent sterilization and is simply pasteurization done for 3 times with a period or gap
A. Modified pasteurization
C. Antisepsis
B. Tyndallization
D. Fractional disinfection
3. Discovered sulfanilamide, a forerunner of the sulphonamides
A. Waksman
C. Lister
B. Domagk
D. Semmelweiss
4. Introduced Phenol coefficient
A. Waksman
C. Lister
B. Domagk
D. Semmelweiss
5. Disproved abiogenesis using the swan-neck experiment and he is also the Father of Immunology
A. Paul Erhlich
C. Edward Jenner
B. Joseph Lister
D. Louis Pasteur
6. Completeness of an autoclave process is measure by the following methods, except;
A. Special tapes
C. Heat sensors
B. Biological markers
D. Thermocouples
For numbers 7-9;
2 batches Amoxicillin 125mg/ 5ml made under different production set-ups were compared in terms of its
sedimentation volume
Unsettled height
Settled height
BATCH 1
20cm
17cm
BATCH 2
20cm
15cm
7. What is the sedimentation volume of Batch 1?
A. 0.85
C. 0.75
B. 0.80
D. 0.70
8. What is the sedimentation volume of Batch 2?
A. 0.85
C. 0.75
B. 0.80
D. 0.70
9. Which batch is better?
A. Batch 1
C. Cant be determined
B. Batch 2
D. Neither
10. The totality of characteristics or features of a product that bear on its capacity to satisfy stated or implied needs.
A. Quality
C. Limits
B. Monograph
D. Certificate of Analysis
11. Which of the following is a chemical method for identity test?
A. Specific gravity
C. Optical rotation
B. Refractive index
D. Visible reactions
12. Uses a paddle type of accessory
A. Type 1
C. Type 3
B. Type 2
D. Type 4
13. A media used for sterility tests
A. Trypsin Soya Broth
C. BOTH
B. Fluid Thioglycollate
D. NOTA
14. Assay method of Vitamin E employs which of the following?
A. HPLC
C. Spectrophotometry
B. Fluorometry
D. GC

UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS

Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

15. Maximum number of rabbits to be used in the pyrogen test

A. 3
C. 6
B. 5
D. 8
16. All are forms of microbial control using radiation, except;
A. Gamma rays
C. Alpha rays
B. UV rays
D. Beta rays
17. Heavy metals are also used to control microbial growth; Cu is commonly used as what?
A. Algicide
C. Anti-protozoan
B. Fungicide
D. Antivirus
18. A prototype of anti-staphylococcal penicillin but is off marketed due to cases of thrombocytopenia.
A. Nafcillin
C. Cloxacillin
B. Methicilin
D. Oxacillin
19. All are non-beta-lactam cell wall inhibitor, except;
A. PZA
C. INH
B. Vancomycin
D. Bacitracin
20. Loefflers syndrome is caused by
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Strongyloides stercolralis
B. Trichuris trichuria
D. Ancylastoma duodenale
21. The East and West African sleeping disease is carried by what vector?
A. Phlebotomous sandfly
C. Kissing Bug
B. Tse-tse fly
D. Reduvid bug
22. Visceral leischmaniasis affects the following organ, except;
A. Liver
C. Spleen
B. Lungs
D. Heart
23. Acceptance limit for new formulations in friability tests?
A. NMT 1%
C. NMT 0.8%
B. NLT 1%
D. NLT 0.8%
24. Examination for possible presence of bacterial endotoxin gives what positive result?
A. Gel clot formation
C. Blue coloration
B. No bacterial growth
D. Green-metallic sheen
For numbers 25-26;
Paracetamol 500mg/tab
Intial weight: 7 grams
Final weight: 6.92grams
25. What is the % friability?
A. 2.14%
C. 1.24%
B. 21.4%
D. 1.14%
26. What is the disposition of the batch?
A. Passed
C. Retest
B. Failed
D. Cant be determined
27. Maximum weight a balance can measure
A. Capacity
C. Accuracy
B. Sensitivity
D. Precision
28. Which of the following is not an analytical balance?
A. Ohaus
C. Sartorius
B. Anscale
D. Mettler
29. Which of the following biuret can be used for both acidic and basic solution?
A. Geissler Biuret
C. Teflon valve Biuret
B. Mohr Biuret
D. PET valve Biuret

UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS

Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

30. All are type of pipet, except;

A. Ostwald-Folin pipet
D. Serological pipet
B. Syringe pipet
E. NOTA
C. Volumetric pipet
31. Mostly vector transmitted except for Coxiella sp., highly resistant to sulphonamides and is commonly identified
using the Weil-Felix test.
A. Chlamydia
C. Rickettsiae
B. Mycobacteria
D. Bacteroides
32. All are unique features or virulence factors of Yersinia pestis, except;
A. F factor
C. Y Factor
B. V & W factor
D. A and B
33. Malta fever that is caused by contact with goats is probably caused by which species?
A. Brucella melitensis
C. Brucella abortus
B. Bruccella canis
D. Brucella suis
34. Causes rice-watery stool
A. Vibrio cholera
C. Helicobacter pylori
B. Vibrio parahemolyticus
D. Campylobacter jejuni
35. All are part of the triple therapy indicated for H. pylori associated peptic ulcer, except;
A. Metronidazole
C. Chloramphenicol
B. Amoxicillin
D. Sucralfate
36. P. aeruginosa is a highly resistant g(-) bacilli, which can cause wound and eye infection and URTI infection. P.
aeruginosa, produces a distinct pigment known as what?
A. Chrysarobin
C. Pyoverdin
B. Pyroverdin
D. Xanthorybin
37. Travellers disease is caused by
A. ETEC
C. EIEC
B. EHEC
D. EAEC
38. A bacterium which normally causes zoonotic diseases of dogs and cats.
A. Bartonnella henslae
C. Brucella canis
B. Pasteurella multicoda
D. Francisella tularensis
39. A 56-year old patiend arrives in the ER complaining of continuous cough distinct gasping for air feeling and a
whoop sound afterwards. This patient is most probably infected with which bacterium?
A. Bordatella pertussis
C. Bordetella pertussis
B. Legionella pneumophilla
D. Legionella pneumophillae
40. Which of the following is not a causative agent of atypical pneumonia?
A. Legionella
C. Chlamydia
B. Mycoplasma
D. Haemophilus
41. An example of atypical Mycobacterium which has a characteristic photochromogen, which allows it to be seen
only in light.
A. M. kansasii
C. M. bovis
B. M. scrofelacium
D. M. ulcerans
42. Which of the following is under the spotted fever group of Rickettsial species and causes the Queensland tick
fever?
A. R. ricketsii
C. R. akari
B. R. australis
D. R. tsutsugamushi
43. Which of the following endoparasites is not treated with metronidazole?
A. Giardia lamblia
C. Isosopora belli
B. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Cryptosporidium parvum

UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS

Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

44. A culture of vaginal secretion was positive for motile, flagellated organism and the patient presents with watery
and frotty vaginal secretion with a disntinct burning feeling when urinating, this is an infection of what
endoparasite?
A. Trichomonas
C. Naegliria
B. Toxoplasma
D. Isosopora
45. Most oxygen tolerant Clostridium sp. possesses lecithinase as its primary virulence factor. It can cause
myonecrosis and is positively identified by Naglers test.
A. C. dificile
C. C. perfringens
B. C. botulinum
D. C. tetani
46. Appears as Chinese character colonies
A. Corynebacterium diptheriae
C. Erysipelothrix rhusopiathiae
B. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Actinomyces isareli
For numbers 47-53; Dissolution time of 2 batches of tablets of Paracetamol
BATCH 1
BATCH 2
TABLET 1
481
417
TABLET 2
479
430
TABLET 3
487
444
TABLET 4
494
436
TABLET 5
510
428
TABLET 6
511
422
47. Average dissolution of BATCH 1
A. 8.23 secs
C. 8.27 secs
B. 7.16 secs
D. 7.20 secs
48. Average dissolution of BATCH 2
A. 8.23 secs
C. 8.27 secs
B. 7.16 secs
D. 7.20 secs
49. First dissolution in Batch 1 happens after what time?
A. 7.99 secs
C. 8.00 secs
B. 7.98 secs
D. 8.01 secs
50. The last tablet to dissolve in Batch 2, dissolves after how many seconds?
A. 7.38 secs
C. 7.40 secs
B. 7.39 secs
D. 7.41 secs
51. Disposition for Batch 1
A. Failed
C. Passed
B. Retest
D. Cant determined
52. Disposition for Batch 2
A. Cant be determined
C. Retest
B. Passed
D. Failed
53. Which batch is theoretically expected to exert its effect faster?
A. Batch 1
C. BOTH
B. Batch 2
D. NOTA
54. Most commonly found in fried rice and only in amounts of 106g/g stool it is considered as an infection.
A. B. cereus
C. B. subtilis
B. B. aureus
D. B. anthacis
55. Lancet-shape diplococci
A. Strep. pneumoniae
C. Staph. aureus
B. Strep. viridans
D. Staph. epidermidis
56. A group B beta-hemolytic streptococcus and is a member of the normal vaginal flora
A. Strep. viridans
C. Strep. aggalactiae
B. Strep. pyogenes
D. Strep. pneumoniae

UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS

Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

57. All are differentiating characteristic of Bacillus sp. from Clostridium sp., except;
A. Bacillus are anaerobic
C. Bacillus may have central spore
B. Bacillus are non-motile
D. Bacillus may have terminal spore
58. Characterized by yellow crusted lesions and is caused by Strep. pyogenes infection.
A. Endocarditis
C. Scarlet fever
B. Impetigo
D. Strep throat
59. Which agar is useful in differentiating the different groups of Streptococcus?
A. BAP
C. McConkey
B. CAP
D. SSA
60. All are adsorptive indicators, except;
A. DCF
C. Eosin Y
B. TEE
D. Pp
61. The following standard solutions are used in what type of assay method?
BONUS
A. Gravimetric method
C. Volumetric method
B. Precipitimetric method
D. Iodometry
62. EDTA is
A. Ethionaminediaminotetraacetic acid
C. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
B. Ethyldinitrotetraacetic acid
D. Ethylenediaminotetraacetoacetic acid
63. Which of the following toxin is present in Streptococcus sp.?
A. Streptolysin G
C. Streptolysin O
B. Streptolysin A
D. Streptolysin B
64. False about Endotoxins, except;
A. Released by lysis
C. Examples of which are botulism and tetanus
B. May be present in g(+) or g (-) organism
D. Susceptible to heat
65. True about Exotoxins, except;
A. Released by lysis
C.Examples of which are botulism and tetanus
B. May be present in g(+) or g (-) organism
D.Susceptible to heat
66. Tetraphenolphtalein ethylestes is
A. TEE indicator
C. TPP indicator
B. TPE indicator
D. TPEE indicator
67. Iodine is, except;
BONUS
A. Halogen
D. B only
B. Oxidizing agent
E. B & C
C. Reducing agent
68. When a oxidizing agent is made to liberate an equivalent amount of Iodine w/c is titrated w/ Sodium thiosulfate
solution
A. Iodimetry
C. Either
B. Iodometry
D. Neither
69. Official method of water content determination in USP
A. Titrimetric method
C. Dew point method
B. Azeotropic method
D. Gravimetric method
70. Components of Karl-Fischer reagent, except;
A. Iodine
C. Ethanol
B. Sulfur dioxide
D. Pyridine
71. Components of spore stain, except;
A. Carbolfuschin
C. Methylene blue
B. Malachite green
D. Acid-alcohol

UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS

Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

72. Special stains for spirochetes includes the following except;

A. Silver stain
C. Gold stain
B. Giemsa stain
D. Wright stain
73. Gram (+) rods, except;
A. Nocardia
C. Listeria
B. Bacillus
D. Mycobacterium
74. Gram (-) cocci, except;
A. Strepcoccus
C. Moraxella
B. Veilonella
D. Neisseria
75. All are thin-walled organisms, except;
A. Borelia
C. Mycoplasma
B. Leptospira
D. Treponema
76. Method of water determination that is official in the NF
A. Toluene Method
C. Gravimetric Method
B. Titrimetric Method
D. Dew Point Method
For numbers 77-78,
A sample of Digitalis was assay using the Azeotropic method; it was found out that a 75g sample contains 3.5ml
of water.
77. Compute for the %Water in the sample
A. 4.66%
C. 4.70%
B. 4.68%
D. 5.00%
78. Disposition for the %Water of the sample
A. Passed
C. Re-assay
B. Failed
D. Cant be determined
79. All are example of non-volatile ether soluble extractives, except;
A. Resins
C. Coloring matter
B. Fixed oil
D. Crude fiber
80. Which of the following has an iodine value of >120?
A. Linseed
C. Almond
B. Cottonseed
D. Sesame
81. Animal fats would have an Iodine value of what?
A. >120
C. =101-119
B. <100
D. <90
82. Assay method for aldehydes which is used when the amount of aldehyde is very small
A. Hydroxylamine method
C. Sodium bisulfate method
B. Hydralazine method
D. Sodium thiosulfate method
83. All are double-stranded virus, except;
A. Reovirus
C. Orbivirus
B. Rotavirus
D. Hantavirus
84. Quantitative method for the determination of nitrogen in chemical substances.
A. Jedahl method
C. Kjedhal method
B. Kjeldahl method
D. Keldahl method
85. Hardness tester that makes use of hand pliers as aid
A. Pfizer test
C. Strong-Cobb
B. Stokes-Monsato
D. Erweka
86. The Phlebovirus that infects sandflies and causes Rift valley fever is from what family of virus?
A. Bunyavirus
C. Filovirus
B. Togavirus
D. Arenavirus
87. SSPE or subsclerosing pan encephalitis is a chronic CNS complication of measles. Measles is caused by what
virus?

UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS

Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

A. Paramyxovirus
B. Myxovirus

C. Morbilivirus
D. Hantavirus

88. All are positive sense virus, except;

A. Picornavirus
C. Retrovirus
B. Coronavirus
D. Rhabdovirus
89. All are naked RNA virus, except;
A. Reovirus
C. Calicivirus
B. Paramyxovirus
D. Picornavirus
90. Treatment for PCP in HIV infected patients.
A. Metronidazole
C. Clotrimoxazole
B. TMP-SMX
D. Caspofungin
91. Causative agent of South American blastomycosis
A. Paracoccidiodes brasilensis
C. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Blastomyces dermatiditis
D. Cryptococcus neoformans
92. Capsulated fungi
A. Paracoccidiodes brasilensis
C. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Blastomyces dermatiditis
D. Cryptococcus neoformans
93. Ringworm infection of the groin
A. Tinea pedis
C. Tinea manum
B. Tinea cruris
D. Tinea capitis
94. LAL is taken from
A. Horseking Crab
C. Horseshoe Crab
B. Sawhorse Crab
D. Pacific King Crab
95. DOC for pseudomembranous colitis
A. Clindamycin
C. Metronidazole
B. Vancomycin
D. Dalfopristin
96. DOC for asymptomatic amoebiasis
A. Paramomycin
C. Diloxanide furoate
B. Iodoquinol
D. Metronidazole
97. 3TC is a NRTI drug used for HIV treatment. 3TC is which of the following?
A. Lamivudine
C. Zalcitabine
B. Stavudine
D. Tenofovir
98. Remedy treatment for the emergence of VRSA and VRSE
A. Clindamycin
C. Streptogramins
B. Sulfonamides
D. Carbepenems
99. Aztreonam is a
A. Tetracycline
C. Monobactam
B. Macrolide
D. Carbepenems
100. Regarded as the safest of all aminoglycosides
A. Neomycin
C. Amikacin
B. Tobramycin
D. Netilmicin