1.

when an image demonstrates considerable differences

between the densities, the image is described as:
High Contrast
2. radiographic density refers to the:
overall blackness of the film
3. On a basic AP exam of the knee, the central ray should
be:
angled 5 degrees cephalad and centered to the inferior
margin of the patella
4. On a basic oblique of the foot, the______should be free
of superimposition.
Metatarsals
5. There are ______ tarsal bones in the foot.
7
6. When an image demonstrates only a few densities but
there are large differences between the adjacent
densities, the image is described as having:
Short scale contrast
7. What does it mean to say that radiographic film is
"duplitized"?
there is emulsion on both sides of the film
8. Flourescence is responsible for how much of the image
on the film?
99%
9. radiographic film is sensative to light, radiation, and all
of the following except:
odors
10. Which of the following conditions contribute to
increased recorded detail?
small focal spot size, long SID, and short OID
11. The cental ray on an AP lower leg is:
perpendicular to the center of the film entering the
midshaft of the tibia
12. In order to better visualize the joint space in the AP
projection of the knee, the central ray may be angled 5
degrees:
cephalic
13. This should be seen on the distal femur:
knee joint and distal 3/4 of the femur
14. The standard screen against which others are measured is:
100 RS
15. Which radiographic quality factor can be described as
misrepresentation of the size or shape of a structure?
distortion

16.

17. The 2 projections shown below the neck of the femur is

called:
18. greater and lesser trochanter
19.

20.Which part of an intensifying screen absorbs x-ray

energy and emits this energy in the form of light?
21. phosphor layer
22.

23. This screen is twice as fast as a 100 RS screen:

24. 200 RS
25.

26. Which of the following describe the characteristic curve

of a film with wide latitude and longer scale contrast?
27. a more horizontal and wide curve
28.

29. Which of the following is/are shape distortion?

30.elongation and foreshortening
31.

32. If a radiographic image appears blurred, which exposure

factor would be used to correct this problem?
33. decrease in exposure time (seconds)
34.

35. lateral to the cuneiform bone in the midfoot is the:

36. cuboid
37.

38.how often should screens be cleaned and inspected?

39. every 3 months
40.

41. the inverse square law governs the relationship between:

42. x ray beam intensity and distance
43.

44.the structures that should be seen in a basic toe should

include:
45. all of the above (entire digit, metatarsalphalangeal joint
spaces, distal half of the metatarsals)
46.

47. Long scale contrast is

48.many shades of gray
49.

50.on a lateral knee, the knee should be flexed about:

51. 20-30 degrees
52.

53. both the camp coventry and the holmblad method are
used to view what:
54. intercondylar fossa
55.

56. this projection provides an axial view of the patella:

57. settegast
58.

59. what is the relationship between film latitude and

contrast:
60.inversely proportional
61.

62. the heel bone is also called the

63. calcaneus
64.

65. digits 2-5 of the foot have how many bones each?
66.3
67.

68.in the lower leg AP and lateral views, these structures

should be seen:
69.tibia, fibula, both joints
70.

71. which of the following should you decrease to reduce

magnification?
72. OID
73.

74. the SID affects the:

75. intensity of the beam
76.

77. this is caused by random distribution of photons and

appears as grainy spots on the image:
78. quantum mottle
79.

80.which structures lies anterior to the distal femur?

81. patella
82.

83.the lateral bone of the lower leg is the:

84.fibula
85.

86.on the AP projection of the ankle which of these items

must be visible?
87. lateral malleolus and medial malleolus
88.

89.this is the "ankle bone":

90.talus

91.

92. the SID for most projections of the lower extremity is:
93. 40 inches
94.

95. the central ray on an AP foot is:

96.angled 10 degrees cephalic
97.

98.these meet to form the knee:

99.femoral condyles and the tibial plateau
100.

101.
short scale of contrast (high contrast) is produced
by:
102.
low kVp
103.

104.
the slope of the straight line portion of the
sensitometric curve indicates the film's:
105.
contrast and latitude
106.

107.
this lies anterior to the distal femur:
108.
patella
109.

110.
the steeper the straight line portion of a
characteristic curve for a particular film, the
111.
greater the film speed, higher the film contrast,
narrower the exposure latitude
112.

113.
the patella is a ____bone.
114.
sesamoid
115.

116.
contrast is usually controlled by:
117.
kVp
118.

119.
which of the following is true regarding the
correct positioning of the ankle for a lateral projection:
120.
the CR enters perpendicular to the medial
malleolus
121.

122.
intensifying screens are designed to:
123.
reduce the amount of exposure
124.

125.
what are the two primary types of distortion:
126.
size and shape
127.

128.
in the lateral projection of the knee, which of
these should not be seen:
129.
femoral neck
130.

131.
intercondylar eminences are also called
132.
tibial spines
133.

134.
the back of the cassettes has a layer of lead to
prevent:
135.
backscatter
136.

137.
the prominence that inserts into the acetabulum
is the ______of the femur.
138.
head
139.

140.
which of these is a function of the cassette:
141.
protect film from exposure to light, prevent film
from bending and scratching, hold and protect the
intensifying screen
142.

143.
contact test mesh is used to
144.
make sure that film/screen contact is adequate
145.

146.
what is meant by the term spectral emission?
147.
the color of light emitted by the screen phosphor
148.

149.
this is the term used to describe the "unsharp
edges" of the body part on the film:
150.
penumbra
151.

152.
when comparing two intensifying screens of the
same phosphor type, the screen with the smaller
phosphor crystals will:
153.
produce a radiographic image with more recorded
detail
154.

155.
a change from the small focal spot to the large
focal spot will result in:
156.
decreased recorded detail
157.

158.
which of the following may be caused by poor
film/screen contact?
159.
image blur
160.

161.
if the radiographic image is overexposed, which
of the following changes in exposure factors should be
used to correct the problem:
162.
decrease mAs
163.

164.
the intertarsal joints are what type of joints?
165.
gliding
166.

167.
this lies between the condyles of the femur,
posteriorly:
168.
intercondylar fossa
169.

170.
the OID is the:
171.
distance from the object to the film
172.

173.
if the OID can not be minimized by positioning,
magnification can be reduced by doing the following:
174.
increase SID and use small focal spot
175.

176.
density is controlled by:
177.
mAs
178.

179.
what would be the result of increasing the OID
from 2 inches to 4 inches?
180.
greater magnification
181.

182.
in the holmblad method, the angle between the
femur and the table should be:
183.
70 degrees
184.

185.
the central ray on a basic toe exam is
186.
perpendicular to the MP joint
187.

188.
the PA projection of the knee is usually done if
this is of particular interest
189.
patella
190.

191.
on a lateral distal femur the leg should be flexed
192.
30-45 degrees
193.

194.
the cental ray using the Sunrise view of the knee
is:
195.
angled so that the central ray passes between the
patella and the distal femur

196.

197.
for an AP of the foot the foot should be situated
so that
198.
the plantar surface of the foot is in contact with the
cassette
199.

200.
on a distal femur view the bottom of the film is
placed
201.
1-2 inches below the knee
202.

203.
in the holmblad method the angle between the
femur and the table should be
204.
70 degrees
205.

206.
at what temperature should radiographic film be
stored?
207.
50-70 degrees
208.

209.
if a films spectral sensitivity is not matched to a
screen's spectral emission what is the consequences:
210.
inappropriate matching of film and screen
increases the exposure required to produce an image, thus
unnecessarily increasing the patients exposure
211.

212.
what is the appropriate humidity for proper film
storage:
213.
30-50%
214.

215.
if an image were made using 500 mA, 0.1
seconds, and 75 kVp what would the mAs be for this
exposure:
216.
50 mAs
217.

218.
the bone that is proximal to the cuneiforms is the
219.
scaphoid
220.

221.
kilovoltage controls
222.
x ray penetration
223.

224.
when using a fast screen how would you reduce
quantom mottle:
225.
increase exposure time and increase mA
226.

227.
what is the knob like protuberance on the
anterior surface of the tibia near the proximal end of the
shaft.
228.
tibial tuberosity
229.

230.
the articular surface of each femoral condyle is
cushioned by a C shaped cartilage called the
231.
meniscus
232.

233.
the distance between the tube target and the IR is
termed:
234.
source image distance
235.

236.
what is the proper CR angle and direction for the
axial projection of the calcaneus when the ankle is
dorsiflexed so that the plantar surface of the foot is
perpendicular to the IR?
237.
40 degree cephalic
238.

239.
mAs equals
240.
mA x time
241.

242.
the apex of the patella is on the proximal end of
the patella.
243.
false
244.

245.
in a distal femur exam, the bucky should be used.
246.
true
247.

248.
the IR and film are the same thing.
249.
true
250.

251.
tissue density and radiographic density are
essentially the same thing
252.
false
253.

254.
film should not be laid flat in storage
255.
true
256.

257.
some people have a small sesamoid bone in the
back of their knee called the flabella
258.
true
259.

260.
the camp coventry method should always be done
with a bucky
261.
false
262.

263.
the bucky should never be used for a knee film.
264.
false
265.

266.
the retropatellar joint space can be seen on an AP
knee radiographic
267.
false
268.

269.
on the basic lower leg it is preferred to have both
joints visible
270.
true
271.

272.
the femur is the longest and heaviest bone in the
body
273.
true
274.

275.
a film that is too dark is said to be overexposed.
276.
true
277.

278.
the fibula is larger than the tibia
279.
false
280.

281.
the lesser trochanter is inferior to the greater
trochanter.
282.
true
283.

284.
for the axial view of the calcaneus the ankle must
be dorsiflexed as much as possible and held in position.
285.
true
286.

287.
what are the parts of the fixer?
288.
clearing agent, hardener, activator, preservative,
solvent
289.

290.
what does the clearing agent of the fixer do:
291.
dissolves undeveloped silver halide
292.

293.
what do the reducing agents of the developer do?
294.
reduces exposed silver halide to black metallic
silver
295.

296.
how should film be stored?
297.
vertically
298.

299.
how would you repair a light leak in the
darkroom
300.
replace filter
301.

302.
what should the repeat ratio for an experienced
operator be?
303.
4% or below
304.

305.
what does I AM EXPERT stand for
306.
identification, anatomy, markings, exposure,
processing, esthetic quality, radiation safety,
troubleshooting
307.

308.
what is the protocol for PA wrist
309.
PA, PA LATERAL OBLIQUE, LATERAL
310.

311.
what is the protocol for the PA hand
312.
PA, LATERAL OBLIQUE, LATERAL (FAN)
313.

314.
what is the protocol for the elbow
315.
AP, LATERAL, AP OBLIQUE MEDIAL
ROTATION, AP OBLIQUE LATERAL ROTATION
316.

317.
what is the protocol for the forearm
318.
AP, LATERAL
319.

320.
the coronal plane is parallel to the IR for the
lateral view of the wrist
321.
false
322.

323.
the stecher view is done to view what specific
anatomy:
324.
scaphoid
325.

326.
why would an AP projection of the wrist be done
in addition to the routine views
327.
to see the lunate and pisiform
328.

329.
what is another name for the tips of the fingers?
330.
ungual tufts
331.

332.
what is the protocol for a humerus
333.
AP, LATERAL
334.

335.
what is the temperature for the dryer
336.
110 degrees
337.

338.
for the lateral scapula what is the rotation of the
body
339.
45-60 degrees
340.

341.
describe RAO position
342.
facing the bucky and the right side is touching
343.

344.
what is seen on the AP pelvis
345.
proximal 4th of the femur and the pelvis
346.

347.
what cause chemical fog
348.
contaminated developer, developer too high, film
in developer too long (all these above)
349.

350.
developer temp in processor
351.
no more than 5 degrees
352.

353.
for involuntary motion
354.
decrease exposure time
355.

356.
structural mottle is caused by
357.
all of these: crystal thickness, crystal size, and
uneven crystal distributions
358.

359.
what type of joint is the knee
360.
hinge
361.

362.
on a AP hip the feet should be rotated
363.
15-20 degrees medially
364.

365.
all of the following factors will result in high
density except:
366.
large SID
367.

368.
which is not considered a rapid screen
369.
100 RS
370.

371.
using the holmblad method for tissue thickness of
the distal femur
372.
increase mAs by 50%
373.

374.
this is the rounded socket of the hip joint
375.
acetabulum
376.
in some states it is required to have a quality
control process for the film processor
377.
true