Escolar Documentos
Profissional Documentos
Cultura Documentos
FAILED
It takes a lot of (3P)
PROPER PREPARATION, PERSPIRATION & PERSEVERANCE
What Do I Want in Life?
How much does this mean to me?
Am I willing to sacrifice something?
How determine am I to pursue my dream?
Remember:
ACE Technique
1. Analysis of the question
2. Comparison between the question and the choices
3. Eliminate or exclude the detractors .
Dont leave your common sense AT HOME!!!
Question:
The word forensic means _____.
Choices: Consisting of Key & Detractors.
a. forum
b. market place
C. public discussion
d. legal
The word Forensic was derived from the Latin word Forum which means a
market place, a place where people gather for purposes of public discussion.
What is a magnified photograph of small object obtained by attaching a camera
to the ocular of a compound microscope to show its minute details?
a. Photomicrography
b. Photomacrography
c. Photomicrograph
d. Photomacrograph
e. Microphotograph
N.B. the issue is the photograph and not the process
Sample Questions:
1. The word Criminology was originally derived from what word?
a. Criminologia
c. Italian
b. Criminologie
d. French
From What Italian word does the word Criminology was derived?
1885 (Italian) Criminologia
1887 (French) Criminologie
Who is the Italian Criminologist who used the term Criminologia.
2. What kind of prisoner is sentenced to serve 3 years and one day?
a. Municipal prisoner
c. City Prisoner
b. Provincial Prisoner
d. District Prisoner
e. Insular Prisoner
Municipal Prisoner = 1 day to 6 months.
11. Who is that new Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual use of
fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using his own thumb mark as a protection to
prevent tampering with the pay order he issued?
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
b. Capt James Parke
c. Gilbert Thompson
d. Dr. Henry P. De Forest
Dr. Henry P. De Forest =Utilized the first Municipal Civil use of fingerprint for
Criminal Registration.
Capt. James L. Parke = Advocate the first state and penal use of fingerprint adopted
in SingSing prison
Sgt. John Kenneth Ferrier = First fingerprint instructor at St. Louis Police Dept.
Missouri.
12. Who is the person known for being the U.S. public enemy number one, who
attempt to destroy his friction by applying a corrosive acid?
a. Robert James Pitts
c. Roscoe Pitts
b. John Dillenger
d. John Augustus
Robert James Pitts = used surgery to destroy his friction ridges. Known as the Man
without fingerprint. Also known by the name Roscoe Pitts.
13. What is the scientific study of the prints of the soles of the feet?
a. Poroscopy
c. Podoscopy
b. Chiroscopy
d. Dactyloscopy
Chiroscopy ( Greek word Cheir a hand, Skopien to examine) study of
the prints of the palms of the hand.
Podoscopy ( Greek word Podo the foot, and Skopien to the study of the
footprints.
Poroscopy (Greek word poros a pare, and Skopien to examine) study
of the arrangement of the sweat pores.
14. What is the science of fingerprint identification
a. Dactyloscopy
c. Dactylomancy
b. Dactylography d. Dactylo-analysis
Dactyloscopy (derived from the Latin words Dactyl = finger and Skopien
to study or examine) is the practical application of the science of fingerprints.
(Classification & Identification)
Dactylography is the scientific study of fingerprint as a means of
identification.
Dactylomancy is the scientific study of fingerprint for purposes of
personality interpretation.
15. The word finger was derived from the Latin word _________ which means finger.
a. dermis
c. digitus
b. dactyl
d. skopien
Dactyloscopy =derived from Latin word dactyl and skopien
Polydactyl = born with more than the regular number of fingers.
Macrodactyl = enlarged finger.
Microdactyl = reduced/small finger.
Ectodactyl = missing finger at birth.
Syndactyl = side fussion of the finger.
16. The principle in fingerprint study that states that fingerprint cannot be forged.
Fingerprint is a reliable and a positive means of identification.
a. principle of infallibility
b. principle of permanency
c. principle of individuality
d. Principle of Constancy
Notes: Permanency & constancy are just the same.
Dogmatic Principles of F.P. Identification
1. Individuality = based on Statistical probability that no two persons have the same
fingerprint. (1:64,000,000,000 Francis Galton).
2. Infallibility = reliable, positive, not easy to be forged.
3. Permanency/Constancy = F.P. is unchangeable. (Herman Welcker)
17. What is the main layer of the epidermis, which covers the surface on which
ridges are visible?
a. dermis
c. stratum corneoum
b. stratum mucusom
d. sanguinal stratum
Friction Skin/Papillary skin/ Epidermal skin
1. Epidermis =outer layer
2. Dermis =inner layer
Epidermis is divided into: stratum corneum and stratum mucosum.
Five (5) thin layers of the epidermis: Corneous, Transparent, Malphigian, granucar &
generating
18. Friction skin (Epidermal skin/ Papillary skin) may be damage permanently
when which of its layer was damage?
a. dermis
c. dermal papillae
b. epidermis
d. generating layer
19. How deep is the cut in order to produced permanent scar?
a. more than 1 cm
c. 1 m
b. more than 1mm
d. 1dm
2nd degree burn = might cause damage.
3rd degree burn = the most painful.
20. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots (called pores) in an inked finger
impression?
a. sweat pores
c. furrows
b. ridges
d. sweat duct
21. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the friction skin (found
between ridges).
a. pores
c. indentions
b. furrows d. duct
Component parts of Friction skin
1. Ridge Surface
a. Ridges = elevated portion/hill like/black-lines.
b. Furrows = depressed portion/canal-like/ white space.
2. Sweat Pores= tiny/small openings/ tiny white dots.
3. Sweat Duct = passage way of sweat.
4. Sweat Glands= the producer of sweat.
22. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there? (types)
a. three
b. two
c. eight
d. nine
***In fingerprint probe, there are three (3) groups of pattern they are Arch , Whorl &
Loops.
Three (3) Groups /Families
23. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side of the pattern and flow
to the other side with a rise in the center?
a. loop
c. tented arch
b. plain arch
d. exceptional arch
Arch (5%) = Two types (2): plain (A) and tented arch (T) --- (a) uptrust, (b) angle,
and (c) Incomplete loop type.
= no ridge count.
Loop (60%)= Two types :radial and ulnar loop.
= core, dellta, a sufficient recurve, at least 1 ridge count.
Whorl (35%)= Four types (4) plain whorl (W), central pocket loop whorl (C), double
loop whorl (D) and accidental whorl (X).
= two or more deltas and at least one circuiting ridge.
24. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust, or two of the three basic
characteristics of the loop?
a. Plain archc. central pocket loop
b. tented arch
d. accidental whorl
25. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should have _______ridge count.
a. 1
b. at least 1
c. 2
d. 3
26. What type of a pattern has two deltas in which at least one ridges makes a turn
through one complete circuit?
a. arch b. accidental whorl c. loop d. whorl
27. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or slanting ridges flows
towards the little finger?
a. loop
b. radial loop
c. ulnar loop
d. tented arch
Radial loop (radius bone) = towards the thumb.
Ulnar loop (ulna bone) = towards the little finger.
28. The diagonal sign / in the right hand is ________.
a. radial
c. tented
b. ulnar
d. plain loop
29. What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more deltas, one or more ridge
forming a complete circuitry and when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to
right delta it touches or cross the circuiting ridge/s considered as the most common
type of whorl.
a. plain whorl
c. central pocket loop whorl
b. double loop whorl
d. accidental whorl
Plain Whorl = lines from left to right delta cross/touch at least one circuiting ridge.
Central pocket loop whorl = lines from left to right delta does not cross/touch at
least one circuiting ridge.
Double loop whorl = two separate loop/shoulders.
****One of the elements of a double loop is the presence of two loop
formations is this correct? (a) no, (b) often times (c)Yes (d) none of these
Accidental whorl = combination of two patterns, except with plain arch.
30. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is not included in the
combination?
a. ulnar loop
b. plain whorl
c. tented arch
d. plain arch
31. The core and delta are also termed as __?
a. inner terminus c. outer terminus
b. focal point
d. pattern area
40. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving ridge which has spoiled the
inner line of flow from the inner delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found
in the second type of central pocket loop.
a. bar
c. uptrust
b. appendage
d. obstruction
Appendage is a short ridge found at the top or summit of a recurve.
Rod or Bar is a short of long ridge found inside the recurve and directed
towards the core or parallel to the recurve.
Uptrust = a horizontal ridge that makes a sufficient rise at the center.
41. Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced the line flow below the right
delta and there are three intervening ridge.
a. meeting whorl
c. outer whorl
b. inner whorl
d. central pocket loop whorl
Meeting whorl = there are two or less intervening ridge/s.
Inner whorl = with three (3) intervening ridge and the tracing flows above/inside
the right delta.
In ridge tracing, it is established by two focal points, that is from left delta to right
delta. Correct? (a)never (b) possible (c) yes (d) no
42. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other regular ridge which is not
included as a ridge count even if it has been cross by the imaginary line.
a. ending ridge
c. incipient ridge
b. intervening ridge
d. enclosure
43. What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and which resembles a fork
structure
a. divergence
c. convergence
b. bifurcation
d. enclosure
44. Ridge forms in the persons fingers and feet during its infants stage which
usually starts:
a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life
b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
d. 5th to 6th months before birth
3rd to 4th months of the fetus life or 5th to 6ht months before birth.
Epidermis = temporary destruction
Dermis = permanent destruction
cut of more than 1mm = permanent scar.
45. Is the process of counting the ridges which intervene between the delta
and core of a loop?
a. ridge tracing
c. ridge counting
b. ridge tracking
d. ridge summing
Ridge tracing = between tracing ridge and right delta.
Intervening ridge = ridges between tracing ridge and right delta.
Ridge count = ridges between delta and core.
46. What fingers are rolled towards the body in taking a rolled impression?
a. both little finger
c. both thumb finger
b. all finger except thumb d. both index finger
Types of fingerprint impression on the FP Card (ten prints of ----suspect)
Rolled impression = taken individually by rolling the finger from the tip to
the end of the first joint. Used for classification purposes.
2
4
6
8
10 (fingers)
16
8
0
0
0 = 24
16
8
4
0
0= 28
1
3
5
7
9 (fingers)
53. What patterns are included in the secondary division in deriving the small letter
category.
a. ulnar loop, plain arch and tented arch
3Tt
tT3t
T3t
T4t
Secondary div. = combination of Capital Letters (index fingers) and small
letters (from T, M, R, and L fingers = r,a,t).
55. What is the interpretation for a ridge count on the left index that reaches 8.
a. exceptional
c. radial loop
b. inner loop
d. outer loop
Sub-secondary = derived by ridge counting loop and ridge tracing whorl appearing
in the Index, Middle and Ring fingers.
Loops = Inner (I) or Outer (0)
Index (9), Middle (10), and Ring (13)
Whorls = Meeting (M), Inner (I), and Outer (O)
Arches = Dash (-)
56. In interpreting a loop pattern, what is the numerical value of S in the left hand?
a. 1 to 11
c. 1 to 17
b. 18 to 22
d. 12 to 16
Major Div. = derived from both thumb fingers.
Loops = R. C. = S, M, L
Whorls = R.T. = M,O,I
Arches = Dash (-)
57. In a loop pattern, when the number of the ridges on the left thumb is 17 or
more, it constitutes as:
a. exceptional
c. isolation
b. alteration
d. Conditional
** in major division, the right thumb is the numerator & the left thumb is the
denominator --- YES
58. In ridge counting a plain whorl or central pocket loop whorl in the little finger it
is derived by:
a. getting the ridge count of the top loop (double loop whorl)
b. treating it as ulnar loop
c. getting the least ridge count (accidental whorl)
d. getting the delta opposite each hand
59. What division in the classification formula is derived from both little finger and is
place at the extreme right of the classification formula.
a. key b. final c. major d. secondary
60. The key division is the division in the classification which is located at the
extreme left of the classification formula and it is taken by getting the ridge count of
_______?
a. loop pattern
c. first loop
b. first radial loop
d. first whorl
Key div = derived from the ridge count of the First Loop, EXCEPT the little finger.
= If there were no loops, get the ridge count of the First Whorl.
= Only numerator.
61. In case of a missing digits or an amputated finger, what will be the classification
of said missing finger?
a. The same as the corresponding digit of the other hand
b. Plain whorl with meeting tracing
c. Mutilated finger
d. None
One finger is missing/amputated = interpreted as the same as the
corresponding digit of the other hand.
Both are amputated or missing = plain whorl with meeting tracing.
If all fingers are missing/amputated the formula:
FPC = M 32 W MMM
M 32 W MMM
62. Prints found at the scene of the crime.
a. suspected prints
b. molded prints
c. latent prints
d. prints made by contamination with colored
substance.
63. Prints which were left in the place accidentally or unconsciously?
a. chance prints
c. fragmentary prints
b. smudge prints
d. latent prints
Latent prints
1. visible (molded prints or made by contamination with colored substance)
2. Invisible = made from sweat.
64. What method of developing latent prints in paper is best to be used being easy
to apply and less destructive to the paper.
a. iodine fuming
c. ninhydrin method
b. silver nitrate method d. dusting method
Dusting = traditional/simplest method of developing prints in the crime scene.
65. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve the contrast of a
latent fingerprint impression dusted with black powder on a green background?
a. yellow filter
c. red filter
b. green filter
d. blue filter
66. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve the contrast of
a latent fingerprint impression dusted with gray powder on a yellow
background?
a. yellow filter
b. green filter
c. red filter
d. violet filter
Opposite Colors:
Blue Orange
Green Red
Yellow Violet
67. The identification of two impression can be established primarily through:
a. formation of different types of pattern
b. formation of the two terminus
c. unexplained similarity of ridges
d. similarity of ridge characteristics in their relative positions
(a and b are used for classification)
*** If the fingerprint pattern are not identical, there is no basis for :
(a) Acceptable conclusion
comparison
(b) Subscription
d. authentic findings
68. Is a card used in recording and preserving developed latent print?
a. Chance prints
b. Semi-visible
c. Visible prints
d. Fragmentary
***In fingerprint probe, which of the following are key points of fingerprint search:
(a) desk table near the entrance & exit (b) safes appliance, (c) doors, windows,
panel, (d) all of these
79. Which is not a process of developing using the ninhydrin method?
a. Immersion
b. Spraying
c. Dusting
d. Brushing
80. Once the latent print has been visualized, it must be preserved by_______.
a. magenta
c. yellow
b. cyan
d. Green
Primary colors == Blue, Green and Red
Blue + Green = cyan
Green + Red = yellow
Blue + Red = magenta
Secondary = cyan, yellow and magenta
13. How many photographic rays are there?
a. three
b. five c. four
d. nine
14. What photographic rays have the longest wavelength?
a. infra-red
c.ultra-violet
b. visible rays
d. x-rays
X-ray (roentgen rays) = .01 to 30 millimicron.
Ultra-violet light (black light) =30 to 400 mill.
Visible light = 400 to 700 millimicron.
Infra-red (heat rays) = 700 to 1000 millimicron
15. Is a type of an artificial light which makes sympathetic inks visible?
a. ultra-violet
c. infra-red
b. transparent light
d. oblique light
16. What determine the amount of light a flash unit will yield at a given distance?
a. luminescence
b. wattage
c. guide number
d. light meter
Light meter = an accessory of a camera which measures the amount of reflected
light.
17. Laser light is also referred to as ______?
a. ultra-violet
c. visible
b. coherent
d. Heat
Concurrent = light that is scattered.
Light Amplified by stimulating emission of radiation. (LASER)
18. Hologram refers to a :
a. 1 dimensional image in a film.
b. 2- dimensional image in a film
c. 3 dimensional image in a film
d. 4 dimensional image in a film
3D image (length, height and width)
19. Sidelight photography is usually done to show ________in a questioned
document.
A. Stamped out writing
C. Watermarks
B. Faded writing
D. Erasures
Direct light = support photographing.
Oblique light = from one side at a very low angle.
Side light = from one side.
Transmitted light =from the back/bottom. Used for water markings examination.
20. Specifically, the camera is needed in photography to_________.
a. record the image
b. . Exclude all unwanted and unnecessary lights
c. makes the image visible
d. makes the image permanent
21. How many parts does a camera generally has, with all other parts treated as
accessories?
a. five
c. six
b. four
d. Three
22. What lens system of the camera reflects the light passing the lens and mirror
making the image possible to be viewed from the viewfinder.
a. pentaprism
c. condenser
b. shutter
d. filter
Condenser = is that part of the enlarger that ensures even illumination of
the light to the negative.
Filter = is a piece of plastic or glass used to subtract or control light passing
through it.
23. Is that part of the camera which controls the passage of light reaching the
sensitized material? It compared to the eyelid of the human eye.
a. lens
c. shutter
b. lens opening
d. film plane
24. Is that part of the camera which provides a means of determining the extent of
the area coverage of a given lens.
a. lens
c. view finder
b. shutter
d. pentaprism
25. Is a camera accessory designed to fix the camera focus and avoid its unusual
movement during the process of photographing?
a. cable release
c. stand
b. tripod
d. camera strap
Cable release = attached to the shutter release.
Tripod = a three-leg stand designed to fix the camera focus.
B-shutter = manually controlled shutter to allow more light to pass
through.
26. What problem is usually encountered by a photographer in using a flash unit?
a. neutral density
c. synchronization
b prospective
d. Parallax
Synchronization = timing between the shutter and the flash.
Parallax = omission of an object. Image viewed in the view finder is not exactly
produce in the photograph.
27. To readily determine the degree of magnification of a subject in a photograph
________ should be place beside the subject.
A. Ruler
C. rangefinder
B. Scale bed
D. Gray-scale
28. Why must the taking of photographs from an unusual camera position in crime
photography be avoided?
a. it distorts the focus
b. it distorts the perspective
c. it distorts the magnification
d. it distorts the texture
29. What type of a camera is ideal to police photography?
a. view finder type c. single lens reflex (SLR)
b. twin lens reflex (TLR) d. press/view camera
SLR = is an interchangeable lens type of camera.
View finder = simplest /cheapest
TLR = one lens for focusing/ one for forming.
View or Press = biggest and expensive.
Polaroid camera= camera with instant photograph.
30. What type of a film has the longest range of sensitivity in the electromagnetic
spectrum called?
a. orthochromatic film
c. blue-sensitive film
b. panchromatic film
d. infra-red film
Film = is a sheet of celluloid or glass coated with an emulsion of silver halides
suspended in gelatine which retains on invisible image when exposed to light.
Black & White Film =ortho or pan
Colored (negative typecolor or reversal -- chrome)
31. What emulsion speed indicator is express in an arithmetic form?
a. ISO
b. DIN
c. ASA
d. GNP
ASA American Standard Association
10, 20, 30 , 40 , 50, 100, 200, 400, 800, 1000
DIN - Deutche Industre Normen
3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, 33, 36
ISO = International Standard Organization.
32. Assuming all conditions will be the same, which film gives the finest of grains?
a. ASA 1000
b. ASA 100
c. ASA 200
d. ASA 400
Film speed/emulsion speed = the higher the number the more sensitive or faster
the film.
Finest grains = the lower the number the finer the grains.
33. In Police Photography, what is the ideal weight for enlarging paper?
a. double weight
c. medium weight
b. single weight
d. light weight
For ordinary photographing = single weight, #2, silver bromide, white and
glossy.
34. What photo paper is ideal to be used in a normal exposed film?
a. # 1
b. # 3
c. # 2
d. # 4
# 0 for extremely overexposed and # 1 for overexposed
# 3, #4 and #5 are for underexposed
35. What photo paper according to its chemical content is best suited for police
photography?
a. Chloride paper
c. Chloro-bromide
b. Bromide paper d. Iodide paper
Chloride paper = for contact printing.
Note: in the absence of bromide paper, chlorobromide will do.
36. A convex lens is capable of?
a. reducing the object
b. making the object appear hairy
c. enlarging the object
d. reducing the size of the picture
Convex = thicker at the center.
(positive/converging lens)
Concave = thinner at the center.
(negative/diverging lens)
37. Zoom lens is composed of?
a. Positive lens
c. negative lens
b. a and c
d. none
38. Is a lens defect which unable for the lens to focus both horizontal and vertical
lines in a plane at the same time
a. Coma
c. Distortion
b. Astigmatism
d. Chromatic aberration
Coma / lateral aberration = straight line becomes blurred.
Distortion = a defect not in blurredness but in shape. (barrel/pinchusion)
Chromatic aberration = defects in color.
39. What type of a lens is used in a simplest and cheapest type of a camera?
a. rapid rectillinear lens c. meniscus lens
b. anastigmat lens
d. achromatic lens
e. Apochromatic lens
Meniscus = no correction
Rapid rectillinear = corrected from distortion.
Anastigmat = corrected from astigmatism
Achromatic = corrected from chromatic aberration.
40. What kind of diaphragm opening should a photographer used in order to get a
wider depth of field?
a. wider
c. shorter
b. smaller
d. Longer
F-Number = focal length/diameter of the whole lens
f 2.8, f -4, f-5.6,
f-8, f-11,
f-16
The lower the F- number the bigger the lens opening.
41. What lens has a variable focal length?
a. wide angle lens c. telephotolens
b. normal focus lens
d. zoom lens
Wide angle/short focus = less than 35mm focal length. Increase the area
coverage but reduce the size of the object.
Normal/medium focus = based on human vision. (more than 35mm but not
more than two times the diagonal half of the negative).
Telephoto/long focus = reduced the area coverage but enlarged the size of
the object.
42. A type of a lens that would make an object to be exaggeratedly closes to the
photographer and is ideal in stake out surveillance photography.
a. short focus lens
c. telephoto lens
b. normal focus lens
d. wide angle lens
43. What is the range of distance from the nearest object to the farthest object that
is sharp
when the lens is set or focused at a particular distance?
a. focal length
c. depth of field
b. hyperfocal distance
d. Focusing
44. The determining factor of the size of an image as well as the area of coverage of
a given camera lens is the?
a. focal length
c. Diaphragm opening
b. hyper-focal distance d. Depth of field
Focal length = is the distance from the optic center of the lens to film plane
once the lens is focus in an infinite position.
Focal distance = distance from the camera lens to the nearest object.
Hyperfocal distance = the nearest distance between the optic center of the
lens to the nearest object that would give the maximum depth of field.
45. When one uses a Photographic filter in taking a photograph, he is actually
__________light rays or color from the light to reach the film.
a. adding
b. multiplying
c. subtracting
d.
Dividing
b. vignetting
d. Cropping
Cropping = omitting an object.
Burning in =additional exposure on the desired portion of a negative.
Vignetting = gradual fading of the image towards the side.
55. What is the functions of the boric acid and acetic acids in the fixer?
a. as preservative
c. as hardener
b. as neutralizer
d. as dissolving agent
Preservative = sodium sulfate
Neutralizer = acetic acid/boric acid
Hardener = potassium alum/potassium bromide.
56. The chemical that will dissolve all the unexposed and undeveloped silver halides
after
development is the?
a. acetic acid
c. hypo
b. sodium sulfate
d. potassium alum
57. What shutter speed will freeze a moving object?
c. Lens
d. view finder
60. It is the process of taking a magnified (enlarged) photograph of small
object obtained by attaching an extended tube lens to a camera.
a. Photomicrography
b. Photomacrography c. Microphotography
d.
Photomacrograph
61. Is a magnified photograph of small object obtained by attaching a camera
to the ocular of a compound microscope.
Photomicrography b. Microphotograph
c. Photomicrographd. Photomacrograph
Photomicrography and photomacrography are process.
Photomacrograph = is an enlarged photograph.
Microphotograph = is a reduced photograph. making big object small.
62. Is that part of the sensitized which is sensitive to light.
a. emulsion
b. Anti halation
c. base
d.
coating
Anti halation = designed to prevent further reflexes by absorbing excess
light.
63. Is that substance present in the emulsion surface of the film or photo
paper which is sensitive to light.
a. silver nitrate
b. silver halides
c. silver chloride
d. silver bromide
64. Taking photograph in back lighting will produce what image?
a. Good image
b. Bad image
c. fare image
d. better image
** what is required in front lighting**
65. What is meant by total take?
a. photograph the crime scene in all angles.
b. Photograph only important evidence.
c. Photograph the crime scene
d. Photograph the body of the crime.
In photography, to a mechanic it is a screw driver and to your photographer is
what?
a. handcuff b. firearm
c. filter
d. camera
Ballistics = science of the motion of projectile.
Derived from Greek word Ballo & Ballein, meaning to throw.
Forensic Ballistics
= it is the science of firearms identification by means of an ammunition fired
from them.
Ballistic engineer = people in police laboratory whose concern is weapons and
projectile. Usually referred to as Ballistician.
1. The word forensic means _______?
a. Forum
b. public discussion
c. market place
d. In connection with administration of justice
The word forensic was derived from the Latin word forum meaning a market
place, a place where people gathered for public discussion.
2. The person accredited as successful inventor of gun powder.
a. Horace smith
b. Alexander John Forsyth
c. Berthhold Schwartz
d. Col Calvin H. Goddard
Roger Bacon (1242 AD) wrote a literary article which turns out to be the original
formula of black powder.
Calvin H. Goddard = father of modern ballistics.
Horace Smith= founder of Smith and Wesson company.
3. It is the science of mobility of the projectile.
a. forensic ballistics
c. applied physics
b. ballistics
d. applied science
4. Is that branch of ballistics which treats of the motion of the projectile while it is in
its flight?
a. Interior
b. terminal
c. exterior
d. forensic
Interior = before leaving the gun muzzle/ Breech-muzzle.
Exterior = upon leaving the gun muzzle/ before reaching the target.
Terminal = upon reaching/hitting the target.
**In firearm identification, what is that branch of ballistics which deals with the
effects of the impact of the projectile to the target. Terminal ballistics.
*** Forensic ballistics also deals with the study of the motion of projectiles or bullets
in ? (a) flight (b) laboratory room (c) Danger of being adulterated (d) Rusty
condition
*** In firearms probe, there are only (4) possible findings Positive, negative,
insufficient & no determination.
5. Is a Greek word from which the word ballistics was derived which means to
throw
a. Ballistics
c. Ballein or ballo
b. Catapult
d. Ballista
Ballista = is a gigantic catapult (Roman war machine) designed to throw stone to
the enemy.
6. It refers to the motion of the projectile once it enters a rifled barrel of a gun.
a. Direct
c. Transnational
b. Rotatory
d. Twist
Direct = forward movement.
Rotatory = twist of the bullet either to the R or L.
Translational = change in the motion of the bullet.
7. What initiates the combustion of the gunpowder in a shell.
a. hammer
c. trigger
b. primer
d. flash hole
Trigger = release the hammer.
Hammer = push the firing pin.
Firing pin = hits the primer.
Primer = imparts ignition to the gun powder
Flash hole = where the primer imparts ignition to the gun powder.
8. Is the rearward reaction of the firearm in relation to the forward movement of the
bullet upon firing?
a. percussion action
c. back fire
b. recoil
d. ricochet
Percussion action = is the ignition of the priming mixture.
Jump = upward reaction of the gun.
9. Is the stillness or the steadiness of the bullet in flight? (Straight travel in flight)
a. key hole shot
c. yaw
b. ricochet
d. gyroscopic action
Recochet =bouncing of bullet as a result of not penetrating or hitting a hard object.
Yaw = unstable rotation motion of bullet.
Key hole shot = thumbling of bullet in flight hitting the target sideways.
10. The actual pattern or curve path of the bullet in flight.
a. curve
c. gyroscopic action
b. trajectory
d. drop of bullet
11. Is the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time, expressed in ft/sec?
a. muzzle velocity c. muzzle blast
b. velocity
d. Trajectory
Muzzle blast = noise or sound generated at the muzzle point.
Muzzle velocity = the speed at which the bullet leaves the muzzle.
12. It is the distance at which the gunner has the control of shot. Where the bullet
travel straight.
a. Maximum range c. Maximum effective range
b. Accurate range d. Effective range
Range = imaginary straight distance between muzzle and the target.
Effective range = distance where bullet is lethal.
Maximum effective range = farther distance where bullet is still lethal.
Maximum range= farthest possible distance of travel.
b. Roger Bacon
c. Bethold Schwartz
d. Veillie
Veillie = developed smokeless powder for rifle.
33. Primers are used for igniting the propellant charge by means of a blow
from the firing pin on the primer cup producing flames that passes through
the:
a. Anvil
c. Vent/ flash hole
b. Paper disc
d. Primer cup
Anvil = solid metallic support.
Paper disc= thin foil/animal skin which protect the priming mixture from moist.
Primer cup = gilding metal cup which holds the priming mixture.
34. Is a complete unfired unit consisting of bullet, primer, gun powder and shell:
a. ammunition
c. shotgun cartridge
b. cartridge
d. missile
Ammunition =loaded shell.
Shotgun cartridge = consists of pellet, gunpowder, primer, shell and wads.
35. Is that type of ammunition which does not have bullet used in film-making:
a. dummy
c. drill
b. blank
d. live
Kinds of ammunition
Dummy = fake used as model.
Blank = without bullet. Used in film making.
Drill = without gun powder. Used for training purpose such as practice loading and
unloading.
Live = the complete cartridge.
As used in firearm probe, there are four (4) classes of cartridge according to
type of firearms used and these are revolver, pistol cartridge, rifle cartridges and
what? shotgun
36. Is the type of cartridge with a rim diameter which is smaller than the diameter
of the body of the cartridge?
a. Belted type
c. Rimless
b. Rebated
d. Rimmed type
Rimmed type = Rim diameter is greater than the body diameter.
Rimless = Rim diameter is equal to the body diameter.
Belted = with protruding metal around its body. Used in high power gun such as
machine gun.
37. Is the type of cartridge in which is the priming mixture is not found at the
cavity rim of the cartridge case?
a. Pin fire
c. Center fire
b. Rimmed type
d. Rim fire
Pin-fire = with built in pin. (obsolete)
Rim-fire = priming mixture is located at the cavity rim.
Center fire = there is a primer cup located at the center.
38. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of:
a. .730
b. .729
c. .726 d. .724
Smallest shotgun caliber = .410 cal./gauge.
39. European made firearm are usually referred in millimeter in determining
calibers, when you talk of 9mm you are referring to?
a. .40 cal
c. .45 cal
b. .357 cal
d. .30 cal
40. A metallic or non-metallic cylindrical ball propel from a firearm.
a. bullet
b. slug
c. projectile d. missile
Projectile = metallic and non metallic ball propel from a firearm.
Bullet = projectile usually fired from small arms.
Slug =other term/police term for bullet.
Shot = also referred to as slug/commonly used in shotgun.
Missile = used for artillery.
41. A type of a bullet designed to be fired at night which emits a bright flame at its
base and usually colored red-tip.
a. armor piercing
c. tracer
b. incendiary
d. explosive
Armor piercing = used in light metallic target/harden metal core.
Incendiary = design to set fire upon impact (blue tip)
Explosive = design to fragment.
42. A type of a bullet made in order to inflict greater damage used by India.
(expanding bullet)
a. Dum-Dum
c. expanding bullet
b. baton round
d. explosive
e. mushroom bullet
Expanding bullet = hallow point & soft point also called mushroom bullet.
43. A bullet covered with thick coating of a copper alloy to prevent leading is known
as:
a. Plated bullet
c. Metal cased bullet
b. Jacketed bullet
d. Metal point bullet
In firearms identification, the outer covering of the bullet is? --- (a) silver (b) jacket
(c) ogive (d) copper.
44. Shots consisting of a small lead ball or pellets which are made by dropping with
the exception of the very largest sizes which are made by molding are known as:
a. Soft shots
c. Buck shots
b. Coated shots
d. Chilled shots
45. A miscellaneous type of bullet design as anti riot, basically made from rubber at
a larger caliber.
a. Discarding sabot
c. Baton Round
b. Flechette
d. Frangible
Discarding Sabot = design for greater velocity.
Flechette = a number of nail type or neddle-like projectile.
46. Is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical container which serves as the projector
for the propellant against moisture?
a. Bullet
c. Cartridge case
b. Primer
d. Paper disc
47. Is that part of the cartridge case which characterized by a cylindrical grooves
that prevents the bullet from being push down to the cartridge?
a. Crimp
c. Shoulder
b. Neck
d. Cannelure
Crimp = prevent loss/pull out.
48. A cylindrical groove around the body of a bullet which may contains lubricating
substances and which can be the basis in determining its manufacturer.
a. Body
c. ogive
b. Bullet crimp
d. bullet cannelure.
49. Black powder basically composed of:
a. 75% potassium chlorate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.
b. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.
c. 75% potassium chlorate, 10 % charcoal and 15 % sulfur.
d. 75% potassium nitrate, 10% charcoal and 15% sulfur.
50. A form of smokeless powder made from sticks or cords?
a. balistite
c. cordite
c. powder B
d. nitroglycerine
51. The dont MAC rule in collection of physical evidence stands for: Mutilate, Alter
and ____?
a. Cut
c. contaminate
b. Consume
d. conserve
52. Is the part of the cartridge case which holds the primer securely in a central
position and providing a solid support for the primer anvil?
a. Flash hole
c. Extractor groove
b. Primer pocket
d. Rim
Rim = limits the forward movement of the cartridge to the cylinder.
53. The caliber of a bullet is measured through?
a. Two opposite lands
b. Measuring the base diameter
c. using the caliper
d. using a micrometer
F/A caliber = bore diameter (distance between two opposite lands).
Bullet caliber = base diamter.
Shell caliber = neck/body diameter.
54. Is the helical groove mark found inside the bore of the barrel designed to impart
rotation motion of the bullet
a. lands
c. rifling
b. grooves
d. pitch of rifling
55. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right is fired from the
barrel of a firearm with identical class characteristics as that of:
a. Browning
c. Colt
b. Smith and Wesson
d. Steyer
62. The pitch of rifling (rate of twist) in the barrel of a firearm is called as____?
a. land
b. one complete revolution of bullet
c. groove
d. range
57. What instrument is used in measuring the pitch of rifling of a firearm?
a. calipher
c. tortion balance
b. helixometer
d. Chronograph
Caliper = measure caliber
Chronograph = measure velocity.
.
58. Fired Cartridge case/shell are usually mark at the _________?
a. outside near open mouth
b. side or body of the
shell
b. individual characteristics
c. exterior design
d. class characteristics
*** In firearm probe, if there is no powder residues or smudging found in
considerable distance, say more than twelve (12) inches is it correct?
*** in firearm identification, if the entrance wound is irreversible destruction of the
tissue on account of the expanded gases caused by a gunshot. What kind of firearm
is possibly used?-**** In firearms study, if the bore of a firearm has six (6) grooves, it has also same
number of lands correct?
*** in firearm probe, gunshot at a close distance is subjected to a paraffin test. It is
possible to give a positive result.
68. Is a condition in which two bullets or shells are examined and compared under
the comparison microscope at the same time, level and direction and magnification
and same image?
a. Pseudo match
c. Juxtaposition
b. false match
d. Sodo match
69. Is the process of obtaining a magnified photograph of a small object done by
attaching a camera to the ocular of a compound microscope?
a. Photomacrography
c. Photomicrography
b. Microphotography
d. Macrophotography
70. When the draws of the revolver is completed, the index finger should?
a. touch the outside of the trigger guard
b. grasp the stock
c. be straighten along the barrel
d. be inside the trigger guard
71 . What is the secret of good shooting form?
a. relaxed and natural position
b. keeping the thumb along the hammer
c. proper sighting of the target
d. firing slowly and carefully
72. Are small grooves, channels or ridges on the surface of the bullet due to the tool
marks or other irregularities in the interior surface of the bore?
a. Land marks
c. Groove marks
b. Striation
d. Accidental marks
73. Is an instrument used in determining the caliber of the bullet by getting a
equivalent weight?
a. Caliper
c. Micrometer
b. Torsion Balance d. Flat-form balance
74. Is a type of a powder used in modern cartridges being powerful?
a. Corrosive
c. Non-corrosive
b. Black
d. Smoke less
0 to 2 inches (contact firing) = singeing, smudging, tattooing, presence of nitrates.
2 to 6 inches = there is singeing, smudging, tattooing, presence of nitrates.
6 to 12 inches = smudging, tattooing and presence of nitrates.
12 to 36 inches = there is tattooing and presence of nitrates.
75. An optical instrument used or designed to make simultaneous comparison of
two specimens?
a. Comparison microscope
c. Chronograph
b. Micrometer
d. Shadowgraph
2. It serves as the focal points of all document examination and it is where the
document examiner relies as to the determination of the appropriate examination
and the extent of the problem involved.
a. Questioned document c. disputed document
b. Standard document
d. evidential document
Questioned document
Collected/procured
Document
Standard
Requested/dictated
Standards for comparison should be -- original
3. An autopsy report is an example of what kind of evidence?
a. documentary
c. experimental
b. testimonial
d. object/Real
4. Specimen of writing which was executed in the regular course of ones
activities.
a. requested
c. collected
b. executed at one time d. day to day standard
5. When document examiner as well as police are dealing with documents, the most
common problem they encountered are those concerning.
a. origin
c. authorship
b. counterfeit
d. content (alteration)
6. Refers to the study of ones handwriting in attempting to determine ones
personality.
a. Agraphia
c. graphology
b. Chromatography
d. handwriting identification
Agraphia = a kind of disease in the brain which makes the person unable to write.
Calligraphy = art of beautiful writing.
Cacography = bad writing.
7. Known Father of Questioned Document
a. Albert S. Osborn
c. John Augustus
b. Dr. Hans Gross
d. Ordway Hilton
8. Is the combination of the basic designs of letter and the writing
movement involved in the writing?
a. copy book form c. writing movement
b. system of writing
d. line quality
Copy book form = the illustration of the basic designs of letter/fundamental to the
writing system.
Angular & roundhand = basic system of writing.
Writing movement = refers to the mobility/motion of the pen.
9. Is the visible record of the written strokes resulting from a combination of
various factors associated to the motion of the pen. Is the overall quality of the
strokes.
a. movement
c. line quality
b. writing habits d. significant writing habits
Line quality is best shown using photomicrography.
Writing habits = any repeated elements of writing.
Significant writing habits = sufficiently unique and well-fixed.
Handwriting = visible effect.
Writing = visible result.
b. indention process
d. traced
37. As a rule, it is easier to determine whether or not a signature is forgery, but it is
very difficult on the other hand to established who committed the forgery because:
a. the forger might be a left handed
b. imitation is one of the most effective means to disguise ones handwriting
c. it might be a traced forgery
d. there should be no sufficient standard available
38. Philippine Paper bills are printed in what process.
a. Letter process
b. Intaglio process
c. Off-set process
d. Lithographic process
e. All of the above
*** In genuine Philippine banknote the image based on the same artwork as the bills
portrait ingrained in the note in the white space to the left of the portrait is-Watermark
39. Paper, which has been treated in such a way as to minimize the chances of a
successful forgery by erasure, whether mechanical or chemical, being carried
out on any document of which it forms the basis called.
a. Chemical paper
b. Safety paper
c. Tested paper
d. Polyethylene coated paper
40. . What is that indelible ink whose marking substance is composed of mixture of
aniline ink and graphite?
a. stencil
c. nut gall ink
b. printers ink
d. copy pencil
Carbon ink = oldest ink
Indian rubber = oldest eraser
Papyrus = Egyptian plant from which the word paper was derived.
41. What is the first step in the procurement of typewriting exemplars?
a. procurement of the suspected typewriter
b. acquisition of typewriting exemplars
c. study of the questioned typewriting
d. preparation of exemplars
*** can burned document still be a subject of examination to determine its author or
when it was written? (a) certainly yes (b) Never (c) definitely not (d) it depends.
** In Q.D. Exam. why do we need to identify the author or when it was written.
Exposure of false standard.
42. Is one of the most expensive instruments used for examination of documents
that would show three dimensional enlargements.
a. polarizing light c. stereoscopic microscope
b. infra-red gadget d. ultra-violet light
Handwriting slope measuring test plates = used to examine handwriting slant.
Typewriting measuring testplates = for typewriting examination.
Magnifying lens = basic tool which can solved almost 75% of document cases.
43. What is that type of signature which has been made in a particular date, time,
place and at a particular purpose of recording it.
a. model signature
c. evidential signature
b. standard signature d. guided signature
44. Is a light examination in which the source of illumination strikes the surface of
the paper from the back or at the bottom, usually designed in identification of
water
markings?
a. direct light
c. side light
b. oblique light
d. transmitted light
45. An illegible form of a writing which is characterized by partially visible
depression appearing underneath the original writing.
a. invisible writing c. indented writing
b. obliterated writing
d. contact writing
46. A type of conventional typewriter in which the characters are normally space 12
in one horizontal
a. pica
c. elite
b. proportional spacing machine
d. computer
47. Is a typeface defect in which the letters are printed to the right or left of its
proper position.
a. vertical mal alignment (Above and below)
b. twisted letter
c. horizontal mal alignment
d. off-its feet
Horizontal Mal. = Left or Right.
Vertical Mal. = Above or Below.
Off-its-feet = printing heavier in one side.
Twisted = leans to the left or right.
Rebound = double impression
Actual Breakage = damage to the outline of the type face design.
Clogged/ dirty type face.
48. What is that substance which is capable of bleaching an ink.
a. Sympathetic Ink c. Superimposing Ink
b. Ink Eradicator
d. Invisible ink
Sympathetic Ink or Invisible ink = inks with no readily visible strokes.
Superimposing ink = used for blotting or smearing over an original writing. (Used in
Obliteration)
49. Is the type of light examination best used in deciphering an obliterated
writing and charred document.
a. Ultra violet light
c. Infra-red light
b. transmitted light
d. x-ray
50. Is a type of an abnormality/defects in typewriter that can easily be corrected
by simply cleaning the machine or replacing the ribbon.
a. temporary defect
c. permanent defect
b. Clogged type face
d. actual breakage
Remington Model 1 (1874) = first commercial typewriter.
*** If a document is changed to spear language different in legal effect from that
which is originally spears. It is called?
(a) Deception
c. Fraudulation
b. Alteration
d. intercalation
In crimes against fraud especially, who are these expert charge of determining and
developing or revealing latent or hidden erasures alteration, intercalation and other
changes.
a. Document hacker
c. document expert
b. document holder
d. document custodian
In determining whether or not a particular document is genuine altered as through
the use of the following:
a. Ultra-violet & infra-red lights
b. Photograph with special filters
c. Transparency & sloping lights
d. All of these
When a document examination result say, forged document is genuine it is
considered what document?
a. Amalgamated
c. genuine
b. spurious
d. elongated
In questioned document, one of the examples of evidence signature is the?
a. standard
c. traced writings
b. procedure writings
d. forge marks
Existence of several movement impulse --- indicator of Forgery.
Polygraphy
= scientific method of detecting deception done with the aid of polygraph machine.
= also known as instrumental interrogation/ lie detector test.
It is not by itself accepted by the court but It is a tool or Investigative
lead.
Question: As polygraph examiner your primary purpose is to detect whether the
subject is indeed telling the truth or?
a. Lying b. insinuating c. denying d. cooperative
1. The word Polygraph was derived from What word?
a. Poly and Graph
c. Greek
b. Many writing chart
d. Latin
The word Polygraph was derived from the Greek word poly which means many or
several and graph meaning writing chart
2. The first man noted for the used of the word Polygraph
a. Thomas Jefferson
b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Galileo Galilee
d. Sir James Mackenzie
Polygraph = is a scientific instrument capable of recording changes of blood
pressure, pulse beat and respiration as indicative of emotional disturbances.
3. Is the person who devise an instrument that can record changes of blood
pressure, pulse beat and respiration simultaneously which he called the Bread
board Lie Detector.
a. Cesare Lombroso
b. John A. Larson
c. Sir James Mackenzie d. Leonarde Keeler
Pulselogim was invented by Galileo Galilee as 1st instrument used for measuring
pulse beat.
Bread Board lie detector is the first portable polygraph machine invented by John
Larson in 1921.
William Marston = utilized sphygmomanometer for detecting systolic blood
pressure and developed the discontinuous technique in questioning.
Sir James Mackenzie = is a heart specialist who described in two (2) British
Journal a machine which he called Ink Polygraph.
4. A person who makes a great improvement on the polygraph machine in the year
1926.
a. John A. Larson
c. John E. Reid
b. Richard O. Arthur
d. Leonarde Keeler
Richard D. Arthur = developed his own polygraph machine with two (2) galvanic
skin resistance.
John E. Reid = developed his Reid polygraph known for the addition of muscular
resistance. Later the machine was adopted by the company and named after it
Stoelting Polygraph.
5. An Australian Magistrate who described the work of investigator/detectives
as Search for Truth
b. The chair seat is directly attached to recording bellows in the machine to form
closed pneumatic systems.
c. Three additional recordings are made by this method
d. There is no need of using corrugated rubber tubing.
10. It is the act of deceiving usually accompanied by uttering falsehood?
a. lying
c. deception
b. Misleading
d. lie
11. Which of the following is true about Polygraph machine?
a. It is a machine that can diagnose subject.
b. It is capable of interpreting and drawing conclusion.
c. It is a lie detector machine.
d. It is a machine that detects physiological responses.
12. The polygraph machine should be _________ in relation to the credibility and
competence of the examiner?
a. Indirectly proportion c.Substitute to investigation
b.Supplementary to investigation d.Directly proportion
***In Polygraph testing, aside from the condition, credibility of the machine &
necessary preparations, the other important face to consider is the examiners?
a. professionalism
c. competence
b. idealism
d. integrity
**** Before conducting the polygraph test the machine to be used must be in
good --- Condition.
Polygraphy is an aid and never a substitute for investigation.
13. The following notions about polygraph machine are wrong, EXCEPT.
a. It rings a bell
b. It has a dial indicator
c. It flash a light
d. It is like an X-ray
14. Is the scientific basis of the polygraph test which states that the polygraph
machine is an instrument capable of making records of various human functioning
simultaneously in a chart paper.
a. mechanical leg basic premise
b. physiological leg basic premise
c. psychological leg basic premise
d. psycho motor leg basic premise
15. A type of deceit for the purpose of humor, when the falsehood is generally
understood, is often regarded as not immoral and is widely practiced by humorists
and comedians.
a. White lie
c. Jocose lie
b. Emergency lie
d. Malicious lie
White lie (officious)=where the lie is harmless, and there are circumstances where
there is an expectation to be less than totally honest through necessity or
pragmatism.
Emergency lie =is a strategic lie told when the truth may not be told because, for
example, harm to a third party would result.
16. A Hindu book of science and health which is considered one of the earliest
reference on detecting deception.
a. Ayur Vida
b. Dharmasatra of Gautama
c. Vasistra of Dharmasastra
d. Omerta
Dharmasastra of Gautama = explains the nature of lying.
Vasistra of Dharmasastra = justifies lying.
Omerta = Code of Silence (MAFIA)
17. Considered to be the ancient method of crime detection.
a. Methods of Ordeal
b. Trial by Combat
c. Boiling Water ordeal
d. The Ordeal of rice chewing
18. Which of the following is a major component of the polygraph machine?
a. Blood pressure cuff
b. Pen and inking system
c. keymograph
d. cardiosphygmograph
Major Components
1. Cardiosphygmograph = detects B.P. and P.B.
2. Galvanograph = detects skin resistance.
3. Pneumograph = detects breathing or respiration.
Major Section
1. Cardiosphygmograph
2. Galvanograph
3. Pneumograph
4. Keymograph = driving mechanism (6 12 inches)
5. Pen and Inking System = designed to make a permanent record of the
polygraph test.
19. Is that part of the pneumograph component which was attached to the body of
the subject with the usual length of 10 inches.
a. beaded chain
b. finger electrode plate
c. rubber convulated tube
d. blood pressure cuff
20. Is that section of the polygraph machine designed to run the paper at a regular
speed of 6 inches per minutes.
a. keymograph
c. pen and inking system
b. pnuemograph
d. galvanogaph
21. An attachment of the cardiosphygmograph which placed above the brachial
artery.
a. arm cuff
c. Wrist cuff
b. infant cuff
d. hand cuff
Wrist cuff = attached above the radial artery.
22. This is a galvanograph attachment section EXCEPT:
a. sets of electrodes
b. stretched band
c. electrodes jelly
d. rubber tube
23. The size of the galvanograph recording pen is ______?
a. 5 inches
c. 7 inches
b. 6 inches
d. 10 inches
5 inches = for pneumograph and cardiosphygmograph recording.
24. The polygraph chart rolled paper has an average length of?
a. 100 yards
c. 100 ft
b. 100 meters
d. 100 km
25. Is the sum total of the dissimulation which the child acquires from his
surrounding once he learn to go out and socialized with his neighborhood.
a. Personality
c. Heredity
b. Environment
d. Education
26. What should be the attitude of a polygraph examiner in confronting subject in a
polygraph test.
a. arrogant
c. authoritative
b. cordial but firm
d. antagonistic
PER-SON-AL-ITY = the sum total of H2E
Heredity = transmission of physical and mental traits of the parents to the offspring
upon conception.
Education = formal process of learning in an accredited/ recognized institution.
27. Generally speaking, all persons subjected to lie detector examination are all ___
and this creates a set of distortion.
a. Terrified
c. convenient
b. nervous
d. confident
28. When the subject is highly nervous, what should the examiner do?
a. reschedule the examination
b. prolong the period of the pre-test interview.
c. call for a doctor or request for an ambulance.
d. do not continue with the pre test and ask the subject for his available date
for reschedule.
29. Is a short horizontal line in a cardio tracing located at the middle of the diastolic
stem.
a. Dicrotic
c. Diastotic
b. Diastolic
d. Systolic
Systolic B.P = the upward blood pressure.
Diastolic B.P. = the downward blood pressure.
30. Is the normal rate of pulse beat of an adult subject in a polygraph test.
a. 60 65
c. 6- 12
b. 70 75
d. 13- 15
13- 15 cyclic rate of respiration.
31. In polygraph test Questions are usually answerable by:
a. yes
c. neither yes nor no
b. no
d. a or b
32. The following are disqualified to be subject of polygraph test, EXCEPT.
a. minor
c. nervous
b. imbecile
d. insane
33. What should be the mark placed on a chart paper at the start of the test?
a. X/60/1.5 A
C. XX/60/1.5 A
b. X/50/2.5 A
D. XXX/60/2.5 A
34. The investigator should avoid asking witnesses long complicated questions
because this will:
a. Give the witness a chance to formulate desired answer.
b. Enable him to ascertain the purpose of the interviewer.
c. Renders difficulty in obtaining the facts for conviction
d. Embarass him and cause him to answer he does not know
35. The best way to conduct a thorough interview is for the investigator to:
Irrelevant = not related to the facts in issue. Always answerable by yes and
design to established the norms of the subject.
Relevant = to establish specific response.
43. Is that type of questions given to determine information known or the subject
possess regarding the crime or the criminal or his whereabouts?
a. evidence connecting question
b. knowledge question
c. sacrifice questions
d. control questions
44. Is a type of test designed to overly responsive subject, consisting of questions
that are purely fictitious incident of a similar nature to the one that is under
investigation.
a. general question test c. peak of tension test
b. guilt complex test
d. silent answer test
General Question test = series of relevant and irrelevant answerable by either yes
or no.
Peak of tension test = there is only one relevant (that has bearing upon the
case) questions usually at the center and a series of irrelevant question (padding
question).
SAT= (silent answer test) no verbal response is required.
Guilt Complex test = used fictitious incident to overly responsive subject.
Yes test, No test, Card test, mixed test.
45. Is a force questioning of a person who is reluctant to give an information.
a. Interview
c. Confession
b. Interrogation
d. Admission
46. Is a self incriminating statement falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
a. Admission
c. Interview
b. Confession
d. Interrogation
Interview = simple questioning of victim or witnesses who are willing to give
information.
Interrogation = forceful/rigid/vigorous questioning.
47. Of the following which is a kind of polygraph machine?
a. Stoelting polygraph
c. keeler's polygraph
b. Laffayette polygraph
d. all of these
48. Is that part of the galvanograph component which converts electrical to
mechanical current:
a. Amplifier unit c. finger electrode assembly
b. resonance control d. sensitivity knob
49. In any interrogation the belief that man is fallible human being should not be
overlooked and therefore polygraph examiners are always subject to _________?
a. precision of diagnosis c. errors
b. certainty of interpretations
d. none of these
50. Refers to the brief confrontation between the subject and the polygraph
examiner done every after taking each chart.
a. initial interview
c. Pre-test interview
b. chart probing
d. post-test interview or
interrogation
*** In polygraph test, the respiratory tracing is found in the?
a. Bottom of the chart (Cardio tracing)
b. Top of the chart
a. benzidine test
c. takayama test
b. blood grouping/typing d. precipitin test
Bezidine = preliminary test for blood (deep blue)
Takayama = confirmatory test (micro-chemical)
8. This blood is characterized as bright scarlet in color, leaves the blood vessel with
pressure and high oxygen content.
a. Arterial blood
c. Venous blood
c. Menstrual blood d. Childs blood
9. A preliminary test in blood in a solution of 1 to 300,000 dilution is:
a. Benzidine
c. guiacum
b. Phenolphthalein
d. leucomalachine Green
Phenolphthalein = reddish pink result (1:80,000)
DNA
Blood sample required : 5 cc or 5 ml.
Cotton buds = 4 for blood and saliva.
Semen (3 cotton buds).
Plaster of Paris = common casting material. (7 Paris Plus & parts of water.)
10. Is the chemical substance found in all cells whose composition have been
passed on from parents to their children.
a. RNA
b. DNA
c. Genotype
d. Phenotype
11. How much blood sample is required for purposes of DNA testing?
a. 5 cc
b. 10 cc
c. 7 ccd. 15 cc
70. DNA is found in all nucleats cells of the body, it is regarded as the fingerprint of
life. What does it stands for.
a. Deonatural acide
c. dynamic natural antibody
b. deoxyribonucleic acid d. deocxyribonuclic acid
12. Gun powder residue maybe determined by?
a. Takayama test
c. paraffin test
b. Diphenylamine
d. Florence test
Nitrate = produced deep blue speaks
Nitrite = produced green speaks
13. What is the other name for cells clump?
a. overlapping
c. clumping
b. agglutinate
d. constipation
14. What kinds of skin is dry, and dead, peeled away from the surface skin?
a. slight skin
c. incipient ridge
b. burned skin
d. scarf skin
15. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of serial numbers? (Stainless
steel, lead, cast iron are examples).
a. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate
b. etching solution
c. colloidal magnesium
d. borax solution
Metallurgy = study of the micro-metallic composition of metals.
16. A mercury fulminate is as example of what explosive?
a. Low
c. high
b. primary
d. None
Kinds of Explosives:
1. Low Explosives (Propellants) =gun powders
2. High Explosives
a. Primary High = (Primers) designed to ignite.
b. Secondary High = designed to explode.
17. What causes the pink color of blood and tissue of a gunshot wound of entry?
a. Carbon monoxide
c. carbon dioxide
b. cellulose nitrite d. Hydrogen disulfide
Smokeless powder = nitrocellulose plus nitroglycerine.
18. The center core of a strand of the hair, which form the bulk of the fiber.
a. cuticle b. Cortex c. medulla d. Shalf
Parts of Hair: Root, Shaft & Tip.
19. The cuticle of the animal hair is:
a. rounded
c. oblong
b. serrated
d. circular
Human = rounded cuticle
20. It is the ratio between the width of the medulla and the width of the whole hair?
a. medulary index c. medula
b. medulary ratio
d. medula radius
21. There are two kinds of fiber natural and _____?
a. artificial
c. animal
b. plant
d. man-made
e. a and d
22. Which of the following test would distinguished an animal fiber from plant fiber?
a. bursting test
c. ignition test
b. solubility test
d. dissolving test
23. A type of test usually administered to determine soil?
a. Gas chromatography
b. Thin layer Chromatograhpy
c. Density Gradient Test
d. Mass Spectropotography
24. An adult has only ____bones
a. 200
b. 202
c. 204
d. 206
25. In the determination of the sex of the skeleton, the following bones must be
studied, except.
a. pelvis
c. sternum
b. skull
d. none of these
26. The following are methods of approximating the height of a person, except.
a. two times the length from the vertex of the skull to the coccyx.
b. Two times the length of one arm plus 12 inches for the clavicle and 1.5
inches for the sternum
c. The distance between the tips of the middle fingers of both hands with the
arms extended laterally.
d. None of these
27. It is a crack on the glass similar to a spoke of the wheel. It is a crack that
extends outward from the center.
a. radial crack
c. concentric crack
b. simple crack
d. circular crack
28. Legal medicine is that branch of medicine which deals with the application of
medical knowledge to the purpose of _____.
a. law and justice
b. determination of cause of death
b. Imhotep
d. Dr. Pedro Solis
Imhotep = builder of the first pyramid and was considered as the first or
earliest recorded medico-legal expert.
Antistius = Earliest known forensic pathologist or public surgeon who
performed the autopsy of Julius Ceasar, reporting that out of the 23 stab
wounds, only one penetrated the chest cavity between the first and second
rib which the proximate cause of Caesars death.
32 In 1858, who published the first textbook in legal medicine?
a. Dr. Rafael Genard y Mas
b. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles
c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
d. Dr. Mariano Lara
Manual de Medicina Domestica
33. A gait similar to that of a duck is?
a. paretic
c. spastic (without bending knee)
b. waddling d. cows (knock-knee)
34. On what months of the fetus life the Hair of eyebrow and eye-lashes begin to
appear?
a. 4th months
c. 3rd months
th
b. 5 months
d. 6th months
rd
3 = nails begins to appear.
4th = hair on the head starts to grow.
5th = Nails are distinct. Skin shows sebaceous secretion. Dental gum appears at the
mandible.
Growth
1. 3rd to 4th mos. = development of friction ridges.
2. 4th mos = growth of hair in the head.
3. 5th mos. = nails are distinct.
4. 6th mos = eyebrow and eye-lashes begin to appear.
5. Most active from 5 to 7 years and 13 to 16 years old.
6. Growth ceases at 25 years old.
7. Pubic hair = 13 years for female; 14 y/o male.
8. Mustache & Beard = 16 to 18 y/o
9. Breast = 13 to 14 y/o
10.Voices = 16 to 18 y/o
11.Pubic hair may turn gray at 30 y/o
12.Menstruation = 12 years (in tropical)
35. At what age the breast of a woman is usually starts to develop?
a. 11 to 12 y/o
c. 13 to 14 y/o
b. 16 to 18 y/o
d. 7 to 9 y/o
11 to 12 menstruation
16 to 18 = development of mustache and beard.
36. The sum total of all reaction of tissues or organs for which the activities of the
living cells are necessary.
a. physical reaction
c. chemical reaction
b. vital reaction
d. inflammation
37. It is a complete and persistent cessation of vital reactions such as respiration,
circulation and almost all brain functions.
a. death
c. apparent death
b. somatic death d. mollecular death
38. As a general rule, if there is no heart action for a period of ___death is regarded
as certain.
a. 5 minutes
c. 7 minutes
b. 6 minutes
d. 8 minutes
39. Which of the following is a more conclusive sign of death
a. cessation of respiration
b. cooling of the body
c. cessation of heart function and circulation
d. heating of the body
40. What test determines cessation of respiration?
a. Winslows test c. Diaphanus test
b. Magnus test
d. none of these
Magnus and Diaphanus test are test for circulation.
When the skin is pale & waxy looking it is a sign of lost of blood circulation --- YES
Death due to dehydration of the body means there is extreme lack of what? H20
41. A person who is considered dead if no rate of fall of body temperature is about
a. 10 - 15F
c. 15 20F
b. 20 25 F
d. 25 30 F
42. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early
putrefactive changes or some internal changes. It is usually observed in the first two
hours of death
a. post mortem caloricity c. algor mortis
b. heat stiffening
d. rigor mortis
43. It is a change of the color of the body after death when blood accumulates in
the dependent portion of the body.
a. Rigor mortis
c. livor mortis
b. algor mortis
d. none of the above
44. Molecular death is a kind of death where:
a. there is loss of life of the individual cells of the body
b. It occurs immediately after death
c. It is usually pronounced by the physician
d. There is a transient loss of vital functions of the body
45. If post-mortem rigidity would suggest approximate time of death, Cadaveric
spasm will suggest _____?
a. duration of death
c. age of the victim
b. cause of death
d. none of the above
46. Stage of muscular change, which occurs 3-6 hours after death characteristics by
stiffening of the muscles.
a. livor mortis
c. secondary flascidity
b. algor mortis
d. post-mortem rigidity
47. Post mortem lividity or livor mortes is a very good basis for determining the
a. time of death
b. relative position of the assailant
c. position maintained by the body after death
d. cause of death
48. The following are muscle changes after death except:
a. primary flascidity
c. rigor mortis
b. secondary flascidity
d. post-mortem lividity
49. Stages in blood changes where blood goes to the dependent portion of the body
but not yet solidify.
a. livor mortis
c. hypostatic lividity
b. diffusion lividity d. cadaveric spasm
50. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of the body, which is always to occur in case of
death. What is that condition characterized by spontaneous stiffening of certain
group of muscles.
a. heat stiffening
c. cold stiffening
b. livor mortis
d. cadaveric spasm
51. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the muscles and no longer
responds to mechanical or electrical stimulus due to dissolution of protein.
a.Primary flaccidity c. stage of secondary flaccidity
b. Post mortem rigidity
d. Putrefaction
e. Decomposition
52. Rigor mortis is very important in determining the approximate time of death for
it starts at about 2 to 6 hrs and completes at ______?
a. 36 hrs
b. 24 hrs
c. 12 hrs
d. 48 hrs
53. Refers to the stiffening of the muscles due to the solidification the body is
exposed to freezing temperature.
a. cold stiffening
c. froze stiffening
b. iced stiffening
d. none of these
54. The following are important of cadaveric lividity, EXCEPT.
a. sign of death
b. determines whether the position of the body has been changed
c. may indicate the cause of death
d. none of these
55. Moggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how
many days from death.
a
. l day
b. 2 days c. 3 days
d. 4 days
56. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how many hours after
death?
a. 24 hours b. 12 hours c. 36 hours d. 48 hours
57. Is the stiffening of certain group of muscles occurring at the moment of death,
usually
associated with violent death due to extreme nervous tension, or even
fatigue?
a.heat stiffening
c. cadaveric spasm
b. Rigor mortis
d. cold stiffening
58. Is the breaking down of the complex proteins into simpler component associated
with the evolution of foul smelling gases and accompanied by the change of color of
the body
a. putrefaction
c. maceration
b. auto digestion
d. saponification
59. What is a waxy substance derived from the body fat and is caused by hydrolysis
and hydrogenation of adipose tissue.
a. adipocere
c. saponification
b. lipo
d. none of these
60. It is a formation of a soft freoble brownish white greasy substance in the soft
tissues after death.
a. Mummification
c. Putrefaction
b. saponification
d. decomposition
61. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents
a. 2 3 hours
c. 4 5 hours
b. 3 4 hours
d. 5 6 hours
62. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged interval which allowed the
development of complications which becomes the cause of death.
a.
Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death
b.
Immediate or primary cause of death
c.
Cardio-respiratory arrest
a. Nocturnal death
63. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that death has occurred more than
24 hours hence are useful to approximate the time of death.
a. flies
b. earthworms
c. bees d. butterflies
64. EXCEPT one, the following are characteristics of cadaveric spasm
a. a natural phenomena which occur after death
b. appears immediately after death
c. involves only a group of muscles
d. all of these
65. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken by a trained physician.
a. Autopsy
c. medical examination
b. embalming
d. post-mortem
examination
66. Deaths due to injuries inflicted in the body by some forms of outside force.
a. violent death
c. sudden death
b. natural death
d. none of these
67. The elements of violent death are the following EXCEPT one.
a. That the victim at the time the injuries were inflicted was in normal health
b. That death maybe expected from physical injuries
c. That death ensued within a reasonable time
d. That death ensued from a lingering illness
68. Period of time wherein the body would b e completely skeletonized under
normal conditions in tropical countries
a. 1 month
c. 6 months
b. 3 months
d. 12 months
69. X and Y are husband and wife, X has a mistress, Miss W, to whom he has a son
(C ), a 2 years old baby. What kind of death is involved if X killed his illegitimate
child (C).
a. Homicidal death
c. Murder
b. Parricidal death
d. Infanticidal death
70. What if it is Y who killed (C)?
a. Homicidal deathc. Murder
b. Parricidal death d. Infanticidal death
71. The act or practice of killing or bringing about the death of a person who suffers
from incurable disease or condition.
a. Euthanasia
c. pathological death
b. suicide
d. none of these
72. The following judicial executions were exercised in the Philippines except.
a. judicial hanging
c. electrocution
b. musketry
d. lethal injection
73. Average time of decomposition for tropical countries such as Philippines
a. 12 24 hours
c. 36 48 hours
b. 24 48 hours
d. 48 72 hours
74. Pulverization of the body into ashes with the use of intense fire___
a. charring
c. exhumation
b. cremation
d. baking
75. Is a pathological classification of death which is characterized by increasing
dypsnea.
a. Coma
c. Syncope
b. Asphyxia
d. Somatic
76. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the instrument which caused it.
a. defense wound
b. self inflicted wound
c. patterned wound
d. mutilated wound
77. Wound produced by a butchers knife.
a. punctured wound
c. lacerated wound
b. hack wound
d. incised wound
78. What is the last stage in the toxicological examination?
a. qualification
c. quantification
b. multiplication
d. division
79. Person who is qualified to conduct toxicological examination?
a. Physician
c. forensic examiner
b. medico-legal
d. forensic pathologist
80. The following are indication of gunshot wound of entrance.
a. that the size is smaller than the exit
b. that the edge is inverted
c. that the shape is round or oval
d. that the edge is everted
e. a, b, and c only
81. Vital reaction is/are present on the following EXCEPT:
a. Ante Mortem injuries c. Stab wound over the body
b. fist blow over the body d. Post mortem injuries
82. It is a physical injury wherein the victim is ill treat or incapacitated for work or
require medical attendance for a period of one to 9 days.
a. slight physical
b. less serious physical injury
c. serious physical injury
d. mutilation
83. Stab wound is produced by
a. sharp edges and sharp pointed instrument
b. sharp edged instrument
c. blunt instrument
b. snow
d. Flower
THC- Tetrahydrocannabinol = the active component of marijuana responsible for its
hallucinogenic effect.
104. It is a type of virginity in which a woman has awareness and had sexual
indulgence but the hymen is considered in tact
a. Virgo Intacta
c. Moral Virginity
b. Demi Virgin
d. Physical Virginity
Moral virginity = innocent mind
Physical virginity (True Physical/ False Physical) = No actual experience.
Demi Virginity = had sexual experience but hymen is intact.
Virgo Intacta = raptured hymen but never gave birth.
105. Which of the following is a potential biological agent?
a. Viagra
c. Antrax
b. Hydrogen
d. Smallpox
Glass = supercooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity. Noncrystaline inorganic substance.
Silica = the most important constituent of glass.
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SEE YOU IN YOUR OATH-TAKING