Test Booklet Code

E
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Time : 3 hrs.

Answers & Solutions

for

M.M. : 360

JEE (MAIN)-2014
(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)
Important Instructions :
1.

The test is of 3 hours duration.

2.

The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

3.

There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four)
marks for each correct response.

4.

Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 3 for correct response of each
question. (one-fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.
No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer
sheet.

5.

There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly
as per instruction 4 above.

6.

Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2
of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

7.

No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

8.

The CODE for this Booklet is E. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is
the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report
the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

PARTA : PHYSICS
1.

The current voltage relation of diode is given by

I = (e1000V/T 1) mA, where the applied V is in volts
and the temperature T is in degree kelvin. If a
student makes an error measuring 0.01 V while
measuring the current of 5 mA at 300 K, what will
be the error in the value of current in mA?
(1) 0.2 mA
(2) 0.02 mA
(3) 0.5 mA
(4) 0.05 mA
Answer (1)
Sol. I = (e1000 V/T 1)mA
When I = 5 mA, e1000 V/T = 6 mA

u + 2 gh = u + gt

mR2

or T = ma

g
a=
2

4.

m a
mg
A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a
x3
. If the
6
coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height
above the ground at which the block can be placed
without slipping is

vertical cross-section given by y =

(1)

1
m
6

(2)

2
m
3

(3)

1
m
3

(4)

1
m
2

Answer (1)

u
g

Sol. tan =

dy x 2
=
dx
2

= tan

nu
=
g

0.5 =

x
2

x = 1
2

u + 2gH
A mass m is supported by a massless string wound
around a uniform hollow cylinder of mass m and
radius R. If the string does not slip on the cylinder,
with what acceleration will the mass fall on release?

At limiting equilibrium,

2 gH = n(n 2)u2
3.

(4) g

5g
6

TR=

Now, v = u + at

t=

(3)

g
2

mg T = ma

Speed on reaching ground = u2 + 2 gh

u + u2 + 2 gH

(2)

Sol. a = R

1000
dV
)
Also, dI = ( e
T
1000
= (6 mA)
(0.01)
300
= 0.2 mA
2. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown
vertically upwards with a speed u. The time taken
by the particle, to hit the ground, is n times that
taken by it to reach the highest point of its path. The
relation between H, u and n is:
(2) gH = (n 2)2u2
(1) 2gH = n2u2
(3) 2gH = nu2 (n 2)
(4) gH = (n 2)u2
Answer (3)

2g
3

Answer (2)

1000 V /T

Sol. Time taken to reach highest point is t1 =

(1)

Now, y =
5.

When a rubber-band is stretched by a distance x, it

exerts a restoring force of magnitude F = ax + bx2
where a and b are constants. The work done in
stretching the unstretched rubber-band by L is :
(1) aL2 + bL3

(2)

1 2
( aL + bL3 )
2

aL2 bL3
+
2
3

(4)

1 aL2 bL3
+
2 2
3

(3)

Answer (3)
(2)

1
6

Sol.

dW = F dl
2
3
bx 2 dx = aL + bL .
0
0
2
3
A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible string
of length l is suspended from a vertical support.
The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with an
angular speed rad/s about the vertical. About the
point of suspension

W=

6.

8.

ax dx +

The pressure that has to be applied to the ends of a

steel wire of length 10 cm to keep its length constant
when its temperature is raised by 100C is :
(For steel Young's modulus is 2 1011 Nm2 and
coefficient of thermal expansion is 1.1 105 K1)
(1) 2.2 108 Pa

(2) 2.2 109 Pa

(3) 2.2 107 Pa

(4) 2.2 106 Pa

Answer (1)

(1) Angular momentum is conserved

Sol. As length is constant,

(2) Angular momentum changes in magnitude but

not in direction

Strain =

(3) Angular momentum changes in direction but

not in magnitude

L
= Q
L

Now pressure = stress = Y strain

(4) Angular momentum changes both in direction

and magnitude

= 2 1011 1.1 105 100

= 2.2 108 Pa

Answer (3)
9.

Sol. = mg l sin . (Direction parallel to plane of

rotation of particle)

There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two

liquids which do not mix and of densities d1 and d2
are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends 90 angle
at centre. Radius joining their interface makes an
d1
angle with vertical. Ratio d is
2


as is perpendicular to L , direction of L changes
but magnitude remains same.
7.

Four particles, each of mass M and equidistant from

each other, move along a circle of radius R under
the action of their mutual gravitational attraction.
The speed of each particle is
(1)
(3)

GM
R

(2)

GM
(1 + 2 2 )
R

(4)

2 2

d1

GM
R

1 GM
(1 + 2 2 )
2 R

F
2

F
2

+ F =

2 GM 2
2( R 2 )

Mv 2
R

GM 2
4R

M
Mv 2
R

GM 1 1
+
= Mv 2

R 4
2

1 + sin
1 sin

(2)

1 + cos
1 cos

(3)

1 + tan
1 tan

(4)

1 + sin
1 cos

Sol. Equating pressure at A

d2 R sin

v=

R
F

F
F

(1)

Answer (3)

Answer (4)
Sol.

d2

Rcos

(Rcos Rsin)

d1

(Rcos + Rsin)d2g = (Rcos Rsin)d1g

Gm 2 + 4 1 Gm

=
1+ 2 2
R 4 2 2 R

(3)

d1 cos + sin 1 + tan

=
=
d2 cos sin 1 tan

10. On heating water, bubbles being formed at the

bottom of the vessel detatch and rise. Take the
bubbles to be spheres of radius R and making a
circular contact of radius r with the bottom of the
vessel. If r << R, and the surface tension of water is
T, value of r just before bubbles detatch is
(Density of water is w)

Answer (3)

100C

Sol.

Cu
B

Brass

Steel

0C

0C
Q = Q1 + Q2

0.92 4(100 T ) 0.26 4 (T 0) 0.12 4 T

=
+
46
13
12
200 2T = 2T + T

R
2r

T = 40C

2
(1) R

w g
3T

2
(2) R

w g
6T

2
(3) R

w g
T

2
(4) R

3w g
T

0.92 4 60
= 4.8 cal/s
46
12. One mole of diatomic ideal gas undergoes a cyclic
process ABC as shown in figure. The process BC is
adiabatic. The temperatures at A, B and C are 400 K,
800 K and 600 K respectively. Choose the correct
statement

Q=

Answer (No answer)

Sol. When the bubble gets detached,

Buoyant force = force due to surface tension

800 K

R
r
4

400 K
V
(1) The change in internal energy in whole cyclic
process is 250R

T dl

(2) The change in internal energy in the process CA

is 700R

r 4 3
= R w g
R 3

(3) The change in internal energy in the process AB

is 350R

T dl sin = 3 R w g
T 2 r
2
r =

(4) The change in internal energy in the process BC

is 500R

2 R 4 w g
3

2
r=R

600 K
C

Answer (4)

2 w g
3T

5R
T
2
For BC, T = 200 K

Sol. U = nCV T = 1

11. Three rods of copper, brass and steel are welded

together to form a Y-shaped structure. Area of crossseciton of each rod = 4 cm2. End of copper rod is
maintained at 100C whereas ends of brass and
steel are kept at 0C. Lengths of the copper, brass
and steel rods are 46, 13 and 12 cm respectively.
The rods are thermally insulated from surroundings
except at ends. Thermal conductivities of copper,
brass and steel are 0.92, 0.26 and 0.12 CGS units
respectively. Rate of heat flow through copper rod is

U = 500R
13. An open glass tube is immersed in mercury in such
a way that a length of 8 cm extends above the
mercury level. The open end of the tube is then
closed and sealed and the tube is raised vertically
up by additional 46 cm. What will be length of the
air column above mercury in the tube now?
(Atmospheric pressure = 76 cm of Hg)

(1) 1.2 cal/s

(2) 2.4 cal/s

(1) 16 cm

(2) 22 cm

(3) 4.8 cal/s

(4) 6.0 cal/s

(3) 38 cm

(4) 6 cm

(4)

15. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find

the number of possible natural oscillations of air
column in the pipe whose frequencies lie below
1250 Hz. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.

Answer (1)
Sol.

54 cm

8 cm

(54 x)
x

(1) 12

(2) 8

(3) 6

(4) 4

Answer (3)
Sol. f =
P + x = P0

2n 1 12.5

8 A 76 = (76 x) A (54 x)

Answer is 6.

x = 38


16. Assume that an electric field E = 30 x 2 i exists in
space. Then the potential difference VA VO, where
VO is the potential at the origin and VA the potential
at x = 2 m is

Length of air column = 54 38 = 16 cm.

14. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in a
straight line. In first s, after starting from rest it
travels a distance a, and in next s it travels 2a in
same direction then
(1) Amplitude of motion is 3a
(2) Time period of oscillations is 8

(3) 80 J

(4) 80 J

VA

Answer (4)

VO

Sol. As it starts from rest, we have

dV = 30 x 2 dx
0

VA VO = [10 x 3 ]02 = 80 J

x = Acost. At t = 0, x = A
when t = , x = A a

17. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two circular

plates separated by a distance 5 mm and with a
dielectric of dielectric constant 2.2 between them.
When the electric field in the dielectric is 3 104
V/m, the charge density of the positive plate will be
close to

when t = 2, x = A 3a
A a = Acos
A 3a = Acos2
As cos2 = 2cos2 1
2

A 3a
A a
= 2
1
A
A
A 3a 2 A2 + 2 a 2 4 Aa A2
=
A
A2

(1) 6 107 C/m2

(2) 3 107 C/m2

(3) 3 104 C/m2

(4) 6 104 C/m2

Answer (1)

K0
= K0 E

Sol. E =

A2 3aA = A2 + 2a2 4Aa

a2 = 2aA

= 2.2 8.85 1012 3 104 6 107 C/m2

A = 2a

18. In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W,

5 bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater of
1 kW. The voltage of the electric mains is 220 V. The
minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building
will be :

Now, A a = Acos
cos =

(2) 120 J

 
Sol. dV = E dx

(4) Time period of oscillations is 6

(1) 120 J

Answer (3)

(3) Amplitude of motion is 4a

(2 n 1) 340
1250
0.85 4

P = (76 x)

(2 n 1)v
1250
4L

1
2

=
T
3

T = 6
(5)

(1) 8 A

(2) 10 A

(3) 12 A

(4) 14 A

Answer (3)

Answer (3)

Sol. 15 40 + 5 100 + 5 80 + 1000 = V I

Sol. B = 0 n i

600 + 500 + 400 + 1000 = 220 I

B
= ni
0

2500
= 11.36
220
I = 12 A.
I=

3 10 3 =

19. A conductor lies along the z-axis at 1.5 z < 1.5 m

and carries a fixed current of 10.0 A in a z direction

4 0.2 x
a y T,
(see figure). For a field B = 3.0 10 e

I = 3 A.
21. In the circuit shown here, the point 'C' is kept
connected to point 'A' till the current flowing through
the circuit becomes constant. Afterward, suddenly,
point 'C' is disconnected from point 'A' and connected
to point 'B' at time t = 0. Ratio of the voltage across
resistance and the inductor at t = L/R will be equal
to

find the power required to move the conductor at

constant speed to x = 2.0 m, y = 0 m in 5 103 s.
Assume parallel motion along the x-axis
z
1.5
I

2.0

1.5

x
(1) 1.57 W

(2) 2.97 W

(3) 14.85 W

(4) 29.7 W
(1)

work
Sol. Average Power =
time

0 Fdx
2

2
9 103 e0.2 x
0

(4)

1 e
e

VR/VC = 1
4

0.2x

B = 3.0 10 e

Note : The sense of voltage drop has not been

defined. The answer could have been 1.

l=3m
z
I = 10 A

9 103
1 e0.4
=
0.2

22. During the propagation of electromagnetic waves in

a medium

= 9 103 (0.33)

(1) Electric energy density is double of the

magnetic energy density

= 2.97 103 J
(0.2) 5 103

(2) 1

Sol. Applying Kirchhoff's law in closed loop, VR VC = 0

dx

9 103 0.22
e
+ 1
=
0.2

2.97 103

Answer (3)

3.0 104 e0.2 x 10 3 dx

P=

e
1 e

(3) 1

C
B

Answer (2)

W =

NI
100 i
=
L
10 10 2

(2) Electric energy density is half of the magnetic

energy density

= 2.97 W

(3) Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic

energy density

20. The coercivity of a small magnet where the

ferromagnet gets demagnetized is 3 103 A m1.
The current required to be passed in a solenoid of
length 10 cm and number of turns 100, so that the
magnet gets demagnetized when inside the
solenoid, is
(1) 30 mA

(2) 60 mA

(3) 3 A

(4) 6 A

(4) Both electric and magnetic energy densities are

zero
Answer (3)
Sol. Energy is equally divided between electric and
magnetic field
(6)

25. Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light with

mutually perpendicular planes of polarization are
seen through a polaroid. From the position when the
beam A has maximum intensity (and beam B has
zero intensity), a rotation of polaroid through 30
makes the two beams appear equally bright. If the
initial intensities of the two beams are IA and IB
IA
respectively, then I equals
B

23. A thin convex lens made from crown glass =

2

has focal length f . When it is measured in two

different liquids having refractive indices

4
5
and ,
3
3

it has the focal lengths f 1 and f 2 respectively. The

correct relation between the focal lengths is
(1)

f1 = f2 < f

(2)

f 1 > f and f 2 becomes negative

(3)

f 2 > f and f 1 becomes negative

(4)

f 1 and f 2 both become negative

(1) 3
(2)

3
2

(3) 1
(4)

Answer (2)

1
3

Answer (4)

Sol. By Lens maker's formula

Sol. By law of Malus, I = I0cos2

1 3/2 1
1
=
1

f 1 4/3 R1 R2

Now, IA = IAcos230
IB = IBcos260

1
1 3/2
1
1

f 2 5/3 R1 R2

As IA = IB

1 3 1
1
= 1

f 2 R1 R2

f1 = 4f & f2 = 5f
24. A green light is incident from the water to the air water interface at the critical angle(). Select the
correct statement

3
1
= IB
4
4
IA 1
=
IB 3

IA

26. The radiation corresponding to 32 transition of

hydrogen atoms falls on a metal surface to produce
photoelectrons. These electrons are made to enter a
magnetic field of 3 104 T. If the radius of the
largest circular path followed by these electrons is
10.0 mm, the work function of the metal is close to

(1) The entire spectrum of visible light will come

out of the water at an angle of 90 to the normal
(2) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency
is less than that of green light will come out to
the air medium

(1) 1.8 eV

(3) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency

is more than that of green light will come out to
the air medium

(2) 1.1 eV

(4) The entire spectrum of visible light will come

out of the water at various angles to the normal

(4) 1.6 eV

(3) 0.8 eV

Answer (2)

Answer (2)
Sol. sin c =

Sol. r =

mv
qB

air
=

2m eV
eB

1 2m
V
B e

c Water
For greater wavelength (i.e. lesser frequency) is less
So, c would be more. So, they will not suffer
reflection and come out at angles less then 90.

V=
(7)

B2 r 2 e
= 0.8 V
2m

For transition between 3 to 2,

29. Match List-I (Electromagnetic wave type) with

List - II (Its association/application) and select the
correct option from the choices given below the lists :

1 1
E = 13.6
4 9

13.6 5
= 1.88 eV
36
Work function = 1.88 eV 0.8 eV
=

= 1.08 eV = 1.1 eV
27. Hydrogen (1H1), Deuterium (1H2), singly ionised
Helium (2He4)+ and doubly ionised lithium (3Li6)++
all have one electron around the nucleus. Consider
an electron transition from n = 2 to n = 1. If the wave
lengths of emitted radiation are 1, 2, 3 and 4
respectively then approximately which one of the
following is correct?

(a)

(i)

(b)

(ii)

(c)

(iii)

(d)

(iv)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (iv)

(iii)

(ii)

(i)

(2) (i)

(ii)

(iv)

(iii)

(3) 1 = 2 = 43 = 94

(3) (iii)

(ii)

(i)

(iv)

(4) 1 = 22 = 33 = 44

(4) (i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) 41 = 22 = 23 = 4
(2) 1 = 22 = 23 = 4

Answer (4)

Answer (3)

Sol. (a) Infrared rays are used to treat muscular strain

1
1
1
2
Sol. = RZ 2 2
n1 n

1
Z2

(b) Radiowaves are used for broadcasting

(c) X-rays are used to detect fracture of bones
(d) Ultraviolet rays are absorbed by ozone

for given n1 & n2

30. A student measured the length of a rod and wrote

it as 3.50 cm. Which instrument did he use to
measure it?

1 = 2 = 43 = 94

(1) A meter scale

28. The forward biased diode connection is

(1) +2 V

(2) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in

vernier scale matches with 9 division in main
scale and main scale has 10 divisions in 1 cm

2 V

(2) 3 V

3 V

(3) 2 V

(3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the

circular scale and pitch as 1 mm

4V

(4) 2 V

(4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the

circular scale and pitch as 1 mm

+2 V

Answer (2)

Answer (1)

Sol. As measured value is 3.50 cm, the least count must

be 0.01 cm = 0.1 mm

Sol.

For vernier scale with 1 MSD = 1 mm and

9 MSD = 10 VSD,

Least count = 1 MSD 1 VSD

For forward Bias, p-side must be at higher potential

than n-side.

= 0.1 mm
(8)

PARTB : CHEMISTRY
31. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the
valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is

1
(1) 5 , 0 , 0 , +
2

Answer (3)
Sol.

1
(2) 5 , 1, 0 , +
2

1
(3) 5 , 1, 1, +
2
Answer (1)

Cl

1
(4) 5 , 0 , 1, +
2

Cl

Cl
+

Cs

Sol. 37 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p65s1

Cl

So last electron enters 5s orbital

Cl

1
2
32. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der Waals
equation at low pressure can be written as
Hence n = 5, l = 0, ml = 0, ms =

(1) Z = 1 +

RT
Pb

(2) Z = 1

a
VRT

(3) Z = 1

Pb
RT

(4) Z = 1 +

Pb
RT

3a
2
34. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an organic
compound was digested by Kjeldahl method and the
M
evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of
10
sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required 20 mL
M
sodium hydroxide for complete
of
10
neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the
compound is
rCl + rCs+ =

PV
RT

(For one mole of real gas)

van der Waal equation
a
)(V b) = RT
V2
At low pressure
(P +

PV +

(4) 5%

NaOH

Normality Volume
N
60mL
5
N
20mL
10

(n geq )H2 SO 4 = (n geq )NaOH + (n geq )NH3

a
V

1 60
1
20

+ (n geq )NH3
5 1000 10 1000

PV
a
= 1
RT
VRT

6
1
=
+ (n geq )NH3
500 500

a
VRT

(n geq )NH3 =

33. CsCl crystallises in body centred cubic lattice. If a

is its edge length then which of the following
expressions is correct?
(1) rCs+ + rCl = 3a
(3) r + + r =
Cs
Cl

(3) 3%

H 2 SO 4

a
= RT
V

So, Z = 1

(2) 10%

Sol. As per question

V = RT

PV = RT

(1) 6%
Answer (2)

Vb V

P + 2
V

Cl

Cl

2rCl + 2rCs+ = 3 a

Answer (2)
Sol. Compressibility factor (Z) =

Cl

3
a
2

(2) rCs+ + rCl =

5
1
=
500 100

(n mol )N = (n mol )NH3 = (ngeq )NH3 =

3a
2

(Mass)N =

(4) rCs+ + rCl = 3a

14
= 0.14 g
100

Percentage of "N" =
(9)

1
100

0.14
100 = 10%
1.4

35. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is

50 . The specific conductance of the solution is
1.4 S m1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the
same electrolyte is 280 . The molar conductivity of
0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m2 mol1 is
(1) 5 104

(2) 5 103

(3) 5 103

(4) 5 102

Answer (1)
Sol. C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
Bomb calorimeter gives U of the reaction
So, as per question
U = 1364.47 kJ mol1

Answer (1)

ng = 1

Sol. For 0.2 M solution

H = U + ngRT

R = 50

= 1364.47

= 1.4 S m1 = 1.4 102 S cm1

=

1
1
=
cm
1.4 10 2

= 1366.93 kJ mol1
37. The equivalent conductance of NaCl at
concentration C and at infinite dilution are C and
, respectively. The correct relationship between C
and is given as

l
Now, R =
a

l R
= = 50 1.4 10 2
a
For 0.5 M solution
R = 280
=?

(Where the constant B is positive)

l
= 50 1.4 10 2
a

R =

(1) C = + (B)C

(2) C = (B)C

(3) C = (B) C

(4) C = + (B) C

Answer (3)
Sol. According to Debye Huckle onsager equation,

l
a

C = A C
Here A = B

1 1 l
=
R a

1 8.314 298
1000

1
50 1.4 10 2
280

C = B C

38. Consider separate solutions of 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq),

0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq), 0.250 M KBr(aq) and 0.125
M Na3PO 4(aq) at 25C. Which statement is true
about these solutions, assuming all salts to be strong
electrolytes?

1
70 10 2
280
= 2.5 103 S cm1

(1) They all have the same osmotic pressure.

1000
Now, m =
M

(2) 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq) has the highest osmotic

pressure.

2.5 10 3 1000
0.5
= 5 S cm2 mol1
= 5 104 S m2 mol1

(3) 0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) has the highest osmotic

pressure.

(4) 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq) has the highest osmotic

pressure.

36. For complete combustion of ethanol,

Answer (1)

C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l),

Sol. = i CRT

the amount of heat produced as measured in bomb

calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol1 at 25C. Assuming
ideality the enthalpy of combustion, cH, for the
reaction will be

C2 H5OH = 1 0.500 R T = 0.5 RT

(R = 8.314 kJ mol1)

KBr = 2 0.250 R T = 0.5 RT

(1) 1366.95 kJ

mol1

(3) 1460.50 kJ mol1

(2) 1361.95 kJ

Mg 3 (PO 4 )2 = 5 0.100 R T = 0.5 RT

mol1

Na3PO4 = 4 0.125 RT = 0.5 RT

(4) 1350.50 kJ mol1

(10)

1.2 103 = k [0.1]x[0.2]y

2.4 103 = k [0.2]x[0.1]y
Dividing equation (i) by (ii)

1
39. For the reaction SO 2(g ) + O 2(g )
SO 3(g) ,
2
x
if K P = K C(RT) where the symbols have usual
meaning then the value of x is (assuming ideality)
(2)

(1) 1

1
(3)
2
Answer (2)

1.2 10 3

1
2

1.2 10 3

1
1=
2

(4) 1

k[0.1]x [0.1]y
k[0.1]x [0.2]y

y=0

Now Dividing equation (i) by (iii)

1
Sol. SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)  SO 3 (g)
2

1.2 10 3

KP = KC(RT)x

2.4 10 3
1

x = n g = no. of gaseous moles in product

no. of gaseous moles in reactant

1
3 1

= 11+ = 1 =
2
2 2

Initial
Concentration

Initial
Concentration

Initial rate of
formation of C

(A)

(B)

(mol L1 s1 )

0.1 M

0.1 M

1.2 103

0.1 M

0.2 M

1.2 103

0.2 M

0.1 M

2.4 103

1 1
2 = 2

x=1

Hence

40. For the non-stoichiometre reaction 2A + B C + D,

the following kinetic data were obtained in three
separate experiments, all at 298 K.

k[0.1]x [0.1]y
k[0.2]x [0.1]y

d[C]
= k[A]1 [B]0 .
dt

41. Among the following oxoacids, the correct

decreasing order of acid strength is
(1) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(2) HClO4 > HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3
(3) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl
(4) HClO2 > HClO4 > HClO3 > HOCl
Answer (3)

 ClO 4 + H+
Sol. HClO 4 
 ClO 3 + H+
HClO 3 

The rate law for the formation of C is

(1)

dC
= k[A] [B]
dt

(2)

dC
= k[A]2 [B]
dt

 ClO 2 + H+
HClO 2 

(3)

dC
= k[A] [B]2
dt

(4)

dC
= k[A]
dt

 ClO + H+
HOCl 
Resonance produced conjugate base.

Answer (4)
Sol. 2A + B
C + D
Rate of Reaction =

1 d[A]
d[B]
=
2 dt
dt

(i)

Cl

d[C] d[D]
=
dt
dt

1.2

=k

Cl

Cl
O

(ClO3 )

...(i)
(11)

Cl

Cl
O

(ii)

Now from table,

[0.1]x[0.1]y

(ClO4 )

d[C]
= k[A]x [B]y
dt
103

Let rate of Reaction = k[A]x[B]y

Or,

...(ii)
...(iii)

Cl
O

O
O

Cl

(iii)

So energy order is

Cl

Cl

Red < Yellow < Green < Blue

O

The complex absorbs lower energy light lower will

be its strength. So order of ligand strength is

(ClO )

L1 < L3 < L2 < L4

(iv) ClO is not resonance stabilized.

44. Which one of the following properties is not shown

by NO?

As per resonance stability order of conjugate base is

ClO 4 > ClO 3 > ClO 2 > ClO

(1) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state

Hence acidic strength order is

(2) It is a neutral oxide

HClO 4 > HClO 3 > HClO 2 > HClO

(3) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen

dioxide

42. The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of

an aqueous solution of its salts is

(4) It's bond order is 2.5

(1) Ag

(2) Ca

Answer (1)

(3) Cu

(4) Cr

Sol. Nitric oxide is paramagnetic in the gaseous state as

it has one unpaired electron in its outermost shell.
The electronic configuration of NO is

Answer (2)
Sol. On electrolysis only in case of Ca2+ salt aqueous
solution H2 gas discharge at Cathode.

Case of Cr
At cathode :

Cr3+

2e

Cr


2NO 
 N2 O2

Case of Ag
At cathode :

However, it dimerises at low temperature to become

diamagnetic.

So, Cr is deposited.
Ag+

2
2
* 2 * 2 2
*
1s
1s
2 s 2 s 2 pz 2 px = 2 p y 2 px

Its bond order is 2.5 and it combines with O2 to give

nitrogen dioxide.

Ag

So, Ag is deposited.
45. In which of the following reactions H2O2 acts as a
reducing agent?

Case of Cu
At cathode :
Case of

Cu2+

2e

Cu

(a) H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e 2H2O

Ca2+

(b) H2O2 2e O2 + 2H+

1
At cathode : H2O + e H2 + OH
2

(c) H2O2 + 2e 2OH

(d) H2O2 + 2OH 2e O2 + 2H2O

43. The octahedral complex of a metal ion M3+ with four

monodentate ligands L 1, L 2 , L 3 and L 4 absorb
wavelengths in the region of red, green, yellow and
blue, respectively. The increasing order of ligand
strength of the four ligands is
(1) L4 < L3 < L2 < L1

(2) L1 < L3 < L2 < L4

(3) L3 < L2 < L4 < L1

(4) L1 < L2 < L4 < L3

(2) (c), (d)

(3) (a), (c)

(4) (b), (d)

Answer (4)
Sol. The reducing agent oxidises itself.
(a) H 2 O 21 + 2H + + 2e
2H 2 O 2

Answer (2)
Sol.

(1) (a), (b)

(b) H 2 O 21 2e
O 2 + 2H +
2

(c) H O 1 + 2e
2OH
2 2

(d) H 2 O 21 + 2OH 2e
O 2 + H2 O

O
The energy of red light is less than that of violet
light.

Note : Powers of 'O' are oxidation number of 'O' in

the compound.
(12)

But G3 = 2FE

46. The correct statement for the molecule, CsI3, is

(1) It is a covalent molecule

5.38F = 2FE

(2) It contains Cs+ and I 3 ions

E = 2.69 V

(3) It contains Cs3+ and I ions

As E value is negative reaction is non spontaneous.

(4) It contains Cs+, I and lattice I2 molecule

49. Which series of reactions correctly represents

chemical reactions related to iron and its
compound?

Answer (2)
Sol. It contains Cs+ and I3 ions.
47. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a
particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of
number of their molecule is
(1) 1 : 4

(2) 7 : 32

(3) 1 : 8

(4) 3 : 16

dil.H 2 SO 4
H 2 SO 4 ,O 2
(1) Fe
FeSO 4

heat
Fe 2 (SO 4 )3
Fe
O 2 ,heat
dil.H 2 SO 4
(2) Fe
FeO

heat
FeSO 4
Fe

Answer (2)

heat, air
Cl 2 ,heat
(3) Fe
FeCl 3

Sol. Let the mass of O2 = x

Zn
FeCl 2
Fe

Mass of N2 = 4x
Number of moles of O2 =

x
32

Number of moles of N2 =

4x
x
=
28
7

O 2 ,heat
CO,600C
(4) Fe
Fe 3 O 4

CO ,700C
FeO
Fe

Answer (4)
O2
Sol. Fe
Fe 3 O 4
Heat

x x
: = 7 : 32
Ratio =
32 7

This reaction is corresponding to the combustion of

Fe.

48. Given below are the half-cell reactions

Mn2+ + 2e Mn; E = 1.18 V

CO
CO
Fe 3 O 4
FeO
Fe
600C
700C

(Mn3+ + e Mn2+); E = + 1.51 V

These reactions correspond to the production of Fe

by reduction of Fe3O4 in blast furnace.

The E for 3 Mn2+ Mn + 2Mn3+ will be

(1) 2.69 V; the reaction will not occur

50. The equation which is balanced and represents the

correct product(s) is

(2) 2.69 V; the reaction will occur

(3) 0.33 V; the reaction will not occur

(1) Li2O + 2KCl 2LiCl + K2O

(4) 0.33 V; the reaction will occur

(2) [CoCl(NH3)5]+ + 5H+ Co2+ + 5NH4+ + Cl

excess NaOH

Answer (1)

(3) [Mg(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ + (EDTA) 4

[Mg(EDTA)]2+ + 6H2O

Sol. (1) Mn2+ + 2e Mn; E = 1.18V ;

(4) CuSO4 + 4KCN K2[Cu(CN)4] + K2SO4

G1 = 2F( 1.18) = 2.36F

Answer (2)

(2) Mn3+ + e Mn2+ ; E = +1.51 V;

Sol. The complex

G2 = F(1.51) = 1.51 F

[CoCl(NH3)5]+ decomposes under acidic medium, so

[CoCl(NH3)5]+ + 5H+ Co2+ + 5NH4+ + Cl.

(1) 2 (2)

51. In SN2 reactions, the correct order of reactivity for the

following compounds

3Mn2+ Mn + 2Mn3+ ;

CH3Cl, CH3CH2Cl, (CH3)2CHCl and (CH3)3CCl is

G3 = G1 2 G2

(1) CH3Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)3CCl

= [2.36 2(1.51)] F

(2) CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl

= (2.36 + 3.02) F

(3) CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl

= 5.38 F

(4) (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)3CCl

(13)

The major product C would be

Answer (2)
Sol. Rate of SN2 reaction depends on steric crowding of
alkyl halide. So order is

OCOCH3

CH3Cl > (CH3)CH2 Cl > (CH3)2CH Cl > (CH3)3CCl

OH

COOH

(1)

52. On heating an aliphatic primary amine with

chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide, the
organic compound formed is

COCH3

(2)

COCH3
OCOCH3

OH

(1) An alkanol

COOCH3

(3)

(2) An alkanediol

(4)

COOH

(3) An alkyl cyanide

Answer (1)

(4) An alkyl isocyanide

Answer (4)
CHCl /KOH

Sol.

3
R CH NC
Sol. R CH2 NH2
C 2 H 5 OH
2

53. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of

R CH2 OH R CHO is

OH

(1) KMnO4

(CH3CO)2O

O=C=O

H O
C
O

OH
COOH

(2) K2Cr2O7

COO

(B)

(3) CrO3

OCOCH3
COOH

(4) PCC (Pyridinium Chlorochromate)

Answer (4)
Sol. PCC is mild oxidising agent, it will convert

(C)

R CH 2 OH
R CHO

56. Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous

solution, which one has the smallest pKb value?

54. The major organic compound formed by the

reaction of 1, 1, 1-trichloroethane with silver powder
is

(1) (CH3)2NH
(2) CH3NH2

(1) Acetylene

(3) (CH3)3N

(2) Ethene

(4) C6H5NH2

(3) 2-Butyne

Answer (1)

(4) 2-Butene

Sol. Among C6H5NH2, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH,

(CH3)3N . C6H5NH2 is least basic due to resonance.

Answer (3)

Cl
Sol. 2ClCCH3

NH2
Ag

NH2

NH2

CH3C CCH3 + 6AgCl

Cl
1, 1, 1-trichloroethane
+

NH2

55. Sodium phenoxide when heated with CO2 under

pressure at 125C yields a product which on
acetylation produces C.

ONa

+ CO2

125
5 Atm

Out of (CH3)3N, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH . (CH3)2NH is

most basic due to +I effect and hydrogen bonding in
H2O.

Ac2O

NH2

C
(14)

CH3

+I effect

HOOC

COOH + HOCH2CH2OH

N
H3C

+I effect

CO

Acrylonitrile, Neoprene and Teflon are addition

polymers of acrylonitrile, isoprene and tetrafluoro
ethylene respectively.

57. For which of the following molecule significant

0?

59. Which one of the following bases is not present in

DNA?

CN

Cl

(1) Quinoline

(b)

(a)

Dacron

O
Hydrogen
bonding

CH2CH2O

(2) Adenine

Cl

CN

(3) Cytosine

OH

SH

(4) Thymine
Answer (1)

(c)

(d)

Sol. DNA contains ATGC bases

SH

OH

A Adenine

(1) Only (a)]

(2) (a) and (b)

T Thymine

(3) Only (c)

(4) (c) and (d)

G Guanine

Answer (4)

C Cytocine

Cl

So quinoline is not present.

CN

60. In the reaction,

Sol. (a)

(b)

Cl

CN

=0

LiAlH

the product C is

=0

(1) Acetaldehyde

(c)

(2) Acetylene
(3) Ethylene
(4) Acetyl chloride

(d)

PCl

Alc.KOH
5
4
CH 3 COOH
A
B
C,

Answer (3)

Sol. Ethylene

CH3COOH

58. Which one is classified as a condensation polymer?

(1) Dacron

(2) Neoprene

(3) Teflon

(4) Acrylonitrile

LiAlH4

CH3CH2OH

'A'

PCl5

CH3CH2Cl

Answer (1)

'B'

Alc. KOH

Sol. Dacron is polyester formed by condensation

polymerisation of terephthalic acid and ethylene
glycol.

CH2 = CH2
(15)

'C'

PARTC : MATHEMATICS
61. If X = {4n 3n 1 : n N} and Y = {9(n 1) : n N},
where N is the set of natural numbers, then X Y is
equal to
(1) X

(2) Y

(3) N

(4) Y X

63. If a R and the equation

3(x [x])2 + 2 (x [x]) + a2 = 0
(where [x] denotes the greatest integer x) has no
integral solution, then all possible values of a lie in
the interval

Answer (2)

(1) (2, 1)

Sol. X = {(1 + 3)n 3n 1, n N }

(2) (, 2) (2, )

= 32 ( n C 2 + nC 3 .3 + ... + 3n 2 ), n N }

(3) (1, 0) (0, 1)

= {Divisible by 9}

(4) (1, 2)

Y = {9(n 1), n N}

Answer (3)

= (All multiples of 9}

Sol. 3(x [x])2 + 2[x [x]) + a2 = 0

So, X Y

3 {x}2 2{x} a2 = 0

i.e., X Y = Y

a 0, 3 { x} 2 { x} = a2
3

62. If z is a complex number such that |z| 2, then

the minimum value of z +

1
2

a 2 = 3 { x}

5
2
3
5
(2) Is strictly greater than
but less than
2
2
5
(3) Is equal to
2
(4) Lies in the interval (1, 2)
(1) Is strictly greater than

1
1

3
3

0 { x} < 1 and

1
1 2
{ x} <
3
3 3

1
4

0 3 { x} <

3
3

Answer (4)
Sol.

1
1
1

3 { x} < 1

3
3
3

For non-integral solution

0 < a2 < 1 and a (1, 0) (0, 1)
Alternative
3{x}2 + 2{x} + a2 = 0

z+

1
2

1
2

So, | z|

Now, 3{x}2 + 2{x}

z+

2/3

1
1
z+
2
2

1
1
2
2
2

zmin.

to have no integral roots 0 < a2 < 1

3
=
2

a(1, 0) (0, 1)
(16)

64. Let and be the roots of equation

px2 + qx + r = 0, p 0. If p, q, r are in A.P. and
1 1
+ = 4 , then the value of | | is

(1)

34
9

(2)

2 13
9

(3)

61
9

(4)

2 17
9

Answer (1)

Sol.

1+ 1+ 1

1+ +

1 + 2 + 2

1+ +

1 + 2 + 2

1 + 3 + 3

1 + 2 + 2

1 + 3 + 3

1+ 4 + 4

1
=

2
1 1
1 1 2
1 1 1 1

Answer (2)

= [(1 )(1 )(1 )]2

Sol.

So, k = 1
p, q, r are in AP

2q = p + r

66. If A is an 3 3 non-singular matrix such that

...(i)

AA = AA and B = A1 A , then BB equals

1 1
Also + = 4

+
=4

p
=
= 4 q = 4r
r
p

(1) B1

(2) ( B1 )

(3) I + B

(4) I

Answer (4)
Sol. BB ' = ( A1 .A ')( A( A1 )')
...(ii)

= A1.A.A'.(A1)1
=

From (i)

{as AA' = A'A}

I(A1A)'

= I.I = I2 = I

2(4r) = p + r

67. If the coefficients of x3 and x4 in the expansion of

(1 + ax + bx2) (1 2x)18 in powers of x are both zero,
then (a, b) is equal to

p = 9r
q = 4r
r=r
Now | |= ( + )2 4

272

(1) 14,

272

(2) 16,

251

(3) 16,

251

(4) 14,

q 4r
=
p
p

=
=

q 2 4 pr

Answer (2)

| p|

Sol. (1 + ax + bx2) (1 2x)18

16r 2 + 36r 2
|9r |

(1 + ax + bx2)[18C0

18C (2x)
1

18C (2x)2
2

18C (2x)3
3

3
1 + f (1) 1 + f (2)
1 + f (1) 1 + f (2) 1 + f (3)
1 + f (2) 1 + f (3) 1 + f (4)

(3)

1
(4)

18 17 16
4 a + 18 17
.8 +
36b = 0
6
2

= 51 16 8 + a 36 17 36b = 0
= 34 16 + 51a 3b = 0
= 51a 3b = 34 16 = 544

= K(1 )2 (1 )2 ( )2, then K is equal to

(2) 1

.......]

Coeff. of x3 = 18C3.8 + a 4.18C2 2b 18 = 0

2 13
9
65. If , 0, and f(n) = n + n and

(1) 1

18C (2x)4
4

= 51a 3b = 544

... (i)

Only option number (2) satisfies the equation

number (i).
(17)

68. If (10)9 + 2(11)1 (10)8 + 3(11)2 (10)7+ ... + 10(11)9 =

k(10)9, then k is equal to
(1) 100
(3)

70.

(2) 110

121
10

(4)

441
100

2(11)(10)8

3(11)2(10)7+

...

Sol. lim

+10(11)9

(2)

(4) 1

sin( (1 sin 2 x )
x2

x 0

= lim sin

( sin 2 x )
x2

x 0

= lim sin

( sin 2 x )
x2

x 0

= lim sin
x 0

[ sin( ) = sin ]

( sin 2 x ) sin 2 x

( sin 2 x )
x2
2

sin x
= lim 1
=
x 0
x
71. If g is the inverse of a function f and f '( x ) =

k = 100

then g(x) is equal to

69. Three positive numbers form an increasing G.P. If

the middle term in this G.P. is doubled, the new
numbers are in A.P. Then the common ratio of the
G.P. is

2+ 3

x2

= lim

11 10

1
x
10
1110
= 109

11
10
1

10

x

= (1110 1010 ) 1110 = 10 10
10
x = 1011 = k109

(1) 2 3

sin( cos 2 x )

x 0

11

x 1 = 109 + 11(10)8 + 112(10)7 +... +119 1110

10

(1)

1 + { g( x )}

(3) 1 + x5

(2) 2 + 3

1
1 + x5

(2) 1 + {g(x)}5
(4) 5x 4

Answer (2)

(4) 3 + 2

Sol. f '( x ) =

Answer (2)
Sol. a, ar, ar2 G.P.

g '( x ) =

a, 2ar, ar2 A.P.

1
1 + x5

= f ( g( x )) = x

f '( g( x )) g '( x ) = 1

1
= 1 + ( g( x ))5
f '( g( x ))

72. If f and g are differentiable functions in [0, 1]

satisfying f(0) = 2 = g(1), g(0) = 0 and f(1) = 6, then
for some c ]0, 1[

2 2ar = a + ar2
4r = 1 + r2
r2 4r + 1 = 0
r=

is equal to

Answer (2)

11
x = 11108 + 2(11)2(10)7 +... + 9(11)9 + 1110
10

(3)

x2

x 0

(3)

Sol. 109 + 2(11)(10)8 + 3(11)2(10)7 +... + 10(11)9 = k(10)9

x=

sin( cos 2 x )

(1)

Answer (1)
109

lim

4 16 4
=2 3
2

(1) f (c) = g(c)

(2) f (c) = 2g(c)

(3) 2f (c) = g(c)

(4) 2f (c) = 3g(c)

Answer (2)
Sol. Using, mean value theorem

r =2+ 3

f '(c ) =

f (1) f (0)
=4
10

g '(c ) =

g(1) g(0)
=2
10

r = 2 3 is rejected
(r > 1)

G.P. is increasing.

so, f '(c ) = 2 g '(c )

(18)

73. If x = 1 and x = 2 are extreme points of

Answer (2)

f ( x ) = log|x|+x + x then

Sol.
(1) = 2, =

1
2

(2) = 2, =

1
2

(3) = 6, =

1
2

(4) = 6, =

1 + 4 sin 2

1
2

= 2 sin
0

x
x
4 sin dx
2
2
x 1

sin 2 = 2

x = x =
2 6
3
x 5
5
=
x=
3
2 6

x
1 dx
2

Answer (1)
Sol. f ( x ) = log|x|+x 2 + x
f ( x ) =

+ 2 x + 1 = 0 at x = 1, 2
x

/3

1 2 sin dx +
2

/3

2 sin 1 dx
2

/3

2 + 1 = 0

+ 2 = 1

...(i)

= x + 4 cos
2 0

+ 4 + 1 = 0
2

+ 8 = 2

...(ii)

6 = 3 =

1
2

= 4 34

1 x+

74. The integral 1 + x e x dx is equal to

x

(3) ( x 1) e x + x + c

3
3
+4
4 + 0 + 4
+
3
2
2
3

76. The area of the region described

A = {(x, y) : x2 + y2 1 and y2 1 x} is

=2

(1) ( x + 1) e x + x + c

+ 4 cos x
2

/3

(2) x e x + x + c

(1)

2 3

(2)

2
+
2 3

(3)

4
+
2 3

(4)

2 3

Answer (3)

(4) x e x + x + c

Sol.

Answer (4)

Sol. I =

x + 1
1
x

+ x1 2
e
x

= x.e
As

x+

1
x

1
x+ x
e
dx

+c
Shaded area

( xf '( x ) + f ( x ))dx = xf ( x ) + c

(1)2
=
+2
2

75. The integral

1 + 4 sin 2

x +y =1

x
x
4 sin dx equals
2
2

(1) 4 3 4

(2) 4 3 4

(3) 4

(4)

2
44 3
3

(19)

(1 x ) dx

2(1 x )3/2
( 1)
+
2
3/2

4
+ (0 ( 1))
2 3

4
+
2 3

by

77. Let the population of rabbits surviving at a time t be

governed by the differential equation

79. Let a, b, c and d be non-zero numbers. If the point of

intersection of the lines 4ax + 2ay + c = 0 and
5bx + 2by + d = 0 lies in the fourth quadrant and is
equidistant from the two axes then

dp(t ) 1
= p(t ) 200 . If p(0) = 100, then p(t) equals
dt
2

(1) 3bc 2ad = 0

(1) 600 500 et/2

(2) 400 300 et/2

(2) 3bc + 2ad = 0

(3) 400 300 et/2

(3) 2bc 3ad = 0

(4) 300 200 et/2

(4) 2bc + 3ad = 0

Answer (3)
Sol.

Answer (1)

dp(t ) 1
= p(t ) 200
dt
2

Sol. Let (, -) be the point of intersection

d( p(t ))

c
2a

and 5b 2b + d = 0 =

d
3b

= dt

p
(
t
)
200

p(t )

2 log
200 = t + c
2

t
e2k

p(t )
200 =
2
Using given condition p(t) = 400 300 et/2

(2) 2x 9y 11 = 0

(3) 4x 7y 11 = 0

(4) 2x + 9y + 7 = 0

3bc = 2ad

3bc 2ad = 0

Alternative method :
The point of intersection will be

78. Let PS be the median of the triangle with vertices

P(2, 2), Q(6, 1) and R (7, 3). The equation of the line
passing through (1, 1) and parallel to PS is
(1) 4x + 7y + 3 = 0

4a 2a + c = 0

y
1
x
=
=
2 ad 2 bc 4 ad 5bc 8 ab 10 ab

x=

2( ad bc )
2 ab

y=

5bc 4 ad
2 ab

Answer (4)
Sol.

P(2,2)

Point of intersection is in fourth quadrant so x

is positive and y is negative.
Also distance from axes is same

Q(6, 1)

So x = y ( distance from x-axis is y as y is

negative)

R(7,3)

S is mid-point of QR

7 +6 31
So S =
,

2
2
13
= , 1
2

(x, y)

21
2
=
13
9
2
2
2
Equation of line y (1) = ( x 1)
9

2( ad bc ) (5bc 4 ad )
=
2 ab
2 ab

Slope of PS =

2ad 2bc = 5bc + 4ad

3bc 2ad = 0

9y + 9 = 2x + 2 2x + 9y + 7 = 0
(20)

...(i)

If y > 0,
y2 + 2 2y = y2 + 1 + 2y
4y = 1

80. The locus of the foot of perpendicular drawn from

the centre of the ellipse x2 + 3y2 = 6 on any tangent
to it is
(1) (x2 + y2)2 = 6x2 + 2y2
(2)

(x2

y2)2

6x2

y=

2y2

If y < 0,
y2 + 2 2y = y2 + 1 2y
1 = 2 (Not possible)

(3) (x2 y2)2 = 6x2 + 2y2

(4) (x2 y2)2 = 6x2 2y2
Answer (1)
Sol. Here ellipse is

x2
a2

y2
b2

1
4
82. The slope of the line touching both the parabolas
y2 = 4x and x2 = 32y is

= 1 , where a2 = 6, b2 = 2

y=

(1)

1
8

Now, equation of any variable tangent is

y = mx a2 m2 + b 2

...(i)

...(ii)

Eliminating m, we get

1
(i)
m
Equation of tangent (2)
y = mx + 8m2 (ii)
(i) and (ii) are identical

( x 2 + y 2 )2 = a2 x 2 + b 2 y 2

y = mx +

( x 2 + y 2 )2 = 6 x 2 + 2 y 2

81. Let C be the circle with centre at (1, 1) and radius = 1.

If T is the circle centred at (0, y), passing through
origin and touching the circle C externally, then the
radius of T is equal to
(1)

(3)

1
2

(2)
3

1
= 8m2
m
1
m3 =
8

1
4

1
2

m=

3
2

(4)

2
3

(3)

So, equation of perpendicular line drawn from

centre to tangent is
x
m

(2)

1
3
(4)
2
2
Answer (3)
(1)
Sol. y2 = 4x
2
x = 32y
(2)
m be slope of common tangent
Equation of tangent (1)

where m is slope of the tangent

y=

1
4

Alternative method :
Let tangent to y 2 = 4x be

Answer (2)
Sol.

1
m
as this is also tangent to x 2 = 32 y

C
(0, y)

y = mx +

(1, 1)

32
=0
m
Since roots are equal
D=0
2
Solving x + 32mx +

C ( x 1)2 + ( y 1)2 = 1

2
(32) 4

Radius of T = |y|
T touches C externally
(0 1)2 + (y 1)2 = (1 + |y|)2
1 + y2 + 1 2y = 1 + y2 + 2|y|

3
m =

m=

(21)

4
32

1
2

32
=0
m

84. The angle between the lines whose direction

consines satisfy the equations l + m + n = 0 and
l2 = m2 + n2 is

83. The image of the line

x1 y3 z4
=
=
in the plane 2x y + z + 3 = 0
3
1
5
is the line

(1)

3
Answer (3)

x3 y+5 z2
=
=
(1)
3
1
5
(2)

(3)

(3)

(2)

(4)

Sol. l + m + n = 0

x3 y+5 z2
=
=
5
3
1

l2 = m2 + n2
Now, (m n)2 = m2 + n2

x+3 y5 z2
=
=
5
3
1

mn = 0
m = 0 or n = 0
If n = 0

If m = 0

x+3 y5 z+2
=
=
(4)
3
1
5

then l = n
l2

Answer (3)

m2

then l = m

n2

l2 + m2 + n2 = 1

=1

2m2 = 1

Gives
n=

A (1,3, 4)

Sol.

3i + j + k

2
m =

1
1
, 0,
=

2
2

Let m =

l=

3i + j + 5k

1
2

1
2

(l2, m2, n2)

1 1

,
,0
=
2 2

a1 b3 c4
=
=
=
2
1
1

a = 2 + 1

cos =

1
2

3

  

 2
85. If a b b c c a = [ a b c ] then is equal to

b=3

c=4+

P + 1, 3 , 4 +

2
2

2( + 1) 3 + 4 + + 3 = 0

2
2
2 + 2 3 +

n=0

(a, b, c)

m=

i.e. (l1, m1, n1)

1
2

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 3

Answer (2)
Sol. L.H.S.

+4+ +3 = 0
2
2

   
= ( a b ) [(b c ) (c a )]
      
 
= ( a b ) [(b c a )c (b c c )a ]
  
 

= ( a b ) [[b c a ]c ]
[ b c . c = 0]

3 + 6 = 0 = 2
a = 3, b = 5, c = 2

= [ a b c ] ( a b c ) = [ a b c ]2
     
[ a b b c c a ] = [ a b c ]2

So the equation of the required line is

x+3 y5 z2
=
=
3
1
5

So = 1
(22)

86. Let A and B be two events such that

1
1
1
P( A B) = , P( A B) =
and P( A) = , where
6
4
4
A stands for the complement of the event A. Then
the events A and B are
(1) Independent but not equally likely
(2) Independent and equally likely
(3) Mutually exclusive and independent
(4) Equally likely but not independent
Answer (1)

Answer (2)
1
k
k
Sol. f k ( x ) = (sin x + cos x )
k

1[
1
1 2 sin 2 x cos 2 x ] [ 1 3 sin 2 x cos 2 x ]
4
6

1 1
1
=
4 6
12
89. A bird is sitting on the top of a vertical pole 20 m
high and its elevation from a point O on the ground
is 45. It flies off horizontally straight away from the
point O. After one second, the elevation of the bird
from O is reduced to 30. Then the speed (in m/s)
of the bird is

1
1 5
P( A B) = 1 =
6
6 6
1
1 3
P( A) = P( A) = 1 =
4
4 4
P( A B) = P( A) + P( B) P( A B)

Sol. P( A B) =

5 3
1
= + P ( B)
6 4
4

(1) 20 2
(3) 40

1
3
P(A)
P(B) so they are not equally likely.

P( B) =

(1) 437

833
4
Answer (4)

(4) 833

(3)

2
=

20
y

t=1s
From figure tan 45 =

20
x

20
x+y

i.e., speed = 20( 3 1) m/s.

90. The statement ~(p ~q) is

4(1 + 2 + 3 + .... + 50 )
(51)2
50

(1) A tautology
(2) A fallacy

50 51 101
2
= 4
(51)
50 6

= 3434 2601
2
= 833

(3) Equivalent to p q
(4) Equivalent to ~ p q
Answer (3)
Sol. ~(p ~ q)
p
q
~q

1
k
k
88. Let f k ( x ) = (sin x + cos x ) where x R and k 1 .
k
Then f4(x) f6(x) equals

1
(1)
4
1
(3)
6

3 2

so, y = 20( 3 1)

2 2 + 4 2 + ... + 100 2 2 + 4 + ... + 100

50
50

(4)

20

45
30
x

xi2
( x )2
N

1
(2)
12
1
(4)
3

3 1

and tan 30 =

2 1

Sol.

P( A B) = P( A) P( B) so A & B are independent.

87. The variance of first 50 even natural numbers is

437
(2)
4

(
40 (

(2) 20

Answer (2)

3 1 1
Also P(A) P(B) = =
4 3 4
= P(A B)

Sol. Variance =

1
1
(sin 4 x + cos 4 x ) (sin 6 x + cos 6 x )
4
6

f 4 (x) f6 (x) =

p ~q

~ (p ~q)

Clearly equivalent to p q

  
(23)