1.

______ is the maximum sideband suppression value

using filter system.
A. 50 dB
B. 60 dB
C. 40 dB
D. 30 dB

9. The process of impressing intelligence on the carrier is

called
A. modulation
B. detection
C. mixing
D. impression

2. _______ determines
components in FM.
A. carrier frequency
B. modulation frequency
C. modulation index
D. deviation ratio

10. ______ is an electronic instrument used to show both

the carrier and the sidebands of a modulated signal in the
frequency domain.
A. spectrum analyzer
B. oscilloscope
C. digital counter
D. frequency counter

the

number

of

sideband

3. One of the following transmits only one sideband.

A. H3E
B. R3E
C. A3E
D. B8E
4. What produces the sidebands on FM?
A. signal amplitude
B. carrier harmonics
C. baseband frequency
D. broadband frequency
5. Which test instrument displays the carrier and the
sidebands amplitude with frequency to frequency?
A. oscilloscope
B. spectrum analyzer
C. frequency analyzer
D. amplitude analyzer
6. Mixer is also known as a ________.
A. modulator
B. suppressor
C. converter
D. beater
7. Which one of the following emission transmits the lower
sideband and half of the upper sideband?
A. A5C
B. J3E
C. A3J
D. A3H
8. An FM receives signal ______.
A. vary in amplitude with modulation
B. vary in frequency with modulation
C. vary in frequency and amplitude with wideband
modulation
D. is not immune to noise

11. What part of the carrier is varied by the intelligence

during modulation in an AM system?
A. phase
B. frequency
C. amplitude
D. both a and c
12. The difference between the RF carrier and the
modulating signal frequencies is called the
A. USB
B. LSB
C. Sideband
D. Carrier frequency
13. What stage in a radio transmitter isolates the oscillator
from the load?
A. Oscillator
B. Buffer
C. Separator
D. Mixer
14. The frequency of the unmodulated carrier in FM system
is
A. modulating frequency
B. center frequency
C. carrier frequency
D. deviation frequency
15. The ratio of maximum deviation to the maximum
modulating frequency is called
A. carrier swing
B. deviation ratio
C. modulation factor
D. modulation index
16. A carrier signal has
A. constant amplitude

B. a frequency of 20 kHz and above

C. a varying amplitude
D. the information content
17. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125 V and the
unmodulated carrier value is 85 V. What is the modulation
index?
A. 0.47
B. 0.68
C. 0.32
D. 1.47
18. An 891 kHz carrier having an amplitude of 80 V is
modulated by a 4.5 kHz audio signal having an amplitude of
45 V. The modulation factor is
A. 0.56
B. 0.65
C. 1.78
D. 1.25
19. What is the modulation index of an FM signal having a
carrier swing of 75 kHz when the modulating signal has
frequency of 3 kHz?
A. 25
B. 12.5
C. 0.04
D. 0.08
20. In a FM system, if modulation index is doubled by
having the modulating frequency, what will be the effect on
the maximum deviation?
A. No effect
B. Maximum deviation doubles
C. Decreases by
D. Increases by
21. Which of the following is considered as an indirect
method of generating FM?
A. Reactance modulator
B. Balanced modulator
C. Varactor diode modulator
D. Armstrong system
22. To generate an SSB or DSB signal one must use a
circuit known as
A. filter modulator
B. ring modulator
C. balanced modulator
D. reactance modulator
23. Which is the first radio receiver?
A. TRF receiver
B. Superheterodyne receiver

C. Crystal radio receiver

D. Heterodyne receiver
24. An interfering signal with a frequency equal to the
received signal plus twice the IF is called
A. image frequency
B. center frequency
C. rest frequency
D. interference frequency
25. Double sideband full carrier emission type
A. A3J
B. H3E
C. R3A
D. A3E
26. Single sideband reduced carrier emission type
A. H3E
B. R3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
27. A single sideband suppressed carrier emission type.
A. H3E
B. R3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
28. Independent sideband emission type
A. H3E
B. R3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
29. Vestigial sideband emission type
A. C3F
B. J3E
C. R3E
D. B8E
30. Single sideband full carrier emission type.
A. R3E
B. H3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
31. Phase modulation emission type.
A. F3E
B. F3C
C. F3F
D. G3E
32. Which one is not an advantage of SSB over AM?
A. Power saving

B. Requires half the bandwidth

C. Wider area of reception
D. Better fidelity

C. 100 %
D. 80 %

33. The advantage of a high level modulated AM transmitter

is
A. Less audio power required
B. Better fidelity
C. Higher value of operating power
D. Less distortion

41. In FM, the Carsons Rule states that the bandwidth is

equal to twice the sum of the modulating frequency and
______.
A. Carrier signal
B. Modulating signal
C. Frequency deviation
D. Image frequency

34. The advantage of a low-level modulated AM transmitter

is
A. Less audio power required
B. Better fidelity
C. Higher value of operating power
D. Less distortion

42. What is the carrier swing of an FM transmitter when

modified by 75%?
A. 53.2 kHz
B. 48 kHz
C. 56.25 kHz
D. 112.5 kHz

35. _____ is the bad effect caused by overmodulation in

AM transmission.
A. Increase in noise
B. Deviation in the operating frequency
C. Interface to other radio services
D. Decrease in the output power

43. The modulation system inherently more resistant to

noise
A. Single sideband suppressed carrier
B. Frequency modulation
C. Pulse-position modulation
D. Amplitude shift keying

36. Which characteristic of a radio receiver refers to its

ability to reject an unwanted signal?
A. Sensitivity
B. Selectivity
C. Fidelity
D. Quality

44. Subcarriers that are arranged so that the channels

occupying adjacent frequency bands with some frequency
space between them is known as
A. Guard bands
B. AM bands
C. Band gap
D. Void band

37. What type of emission is frequency modulation?

A. F3E
B. G3E
C. A3E
D. B3E
38. AM transmission power increases with ________.
A. Frequency
B. Source
C. Load
D. Modulation
39. _______ locks the FM receiver to a stronger signal.
A. Hall effect
B. Capture effect
C. Image frequency
D. Homing
40. What is the highest percentage of modulation for AM?
A. 50 %
B. 75 %

45. Modulation of an RF amplifier carrier results in

A. Multiple channels
B. Smaller antennas
C. Directional propagation
D. All of the above
46. A process which occurs in the transmitter
A. Mixing
B. Modulation
C. Heterodyning
D. Demodulation
47. A process which occurs in the receiver
A. Beating
B. Modulation
C. Mixing
D. Demodulation
48. One part of the transmitter that protects the crystal
oscillator from pulling.

A. Buffer amplifier
B. Modulator
C. Power amplifier
D. Antenna coupler
49. What aspect of the carrier is changed by modulation?
A. Frequency
B. Phase
C. Amplitude
D. Depends on the type of modulation
50. The amplitude of a sine wave which is modulated by a
musical program will
A. Be complex
B. Contain fundamental frequencies
C. Contain harmonic frequencies
D. All of the above
ANSWER
1. 50 dB
2. modulation index
3. H3E
4. baseband frequency
5. spectrum analyzer
6. converter
7. A3H
8. Vary in frequency with modulation
9. Modulation
10. spectrum analyzer
11. amplitude
12. LSB
13. Buffer
14. Center frequency
15. Deviation ratio
16. a frequency of 20 kHz and above
17. 1.47
18. 0.56
19. 12.5
20. No effect
21. Armstrong system
22. balanced modulator
23. Crystal radio receiver
24. image frequency
25. A3E
26. R3E
27. J3E
28. B8E
29. C3F
30. H3E
31. G3E
32. Better fidelity
33. Higher value of operating power
34. Less audio power required
35. Interface to other radio services
36. Selectivity
37. F3E
38. Modulation
39. Capture effect

40. 100 %
41. Frequency deviation
42. 112.5 kHz
43. Frequency modulation
44. Guard bands
45. All of the above
46. Modulation
47. Demodulation
48. Buffer amplifier
49. Depends on the type of modulation
50. All of the above

51. What will be the result of the gain level being too high
for signals entering the modulator?
A. Receiver noise
B. Excessive volume of receiver output
C. Oscillator disturbances
D. Distortion and splatter
52. Amplitude modulation causes the amount of transmitter
power to
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. Double
53. When a carrier is modulated 100%, the total power
increases by what percentage over that of the carrier
alone?
A. 25 %
B. 50 %
C. 75 %
D. 100 %
54. When the amplitude of the modulating voltage is
increased for AM, the antenna current will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. Decrease exponentially

A. sq. root of 3
B. sq. root of 2
C. 2
D. 3
57. A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by a 2500Hz tone. One
frequency component of the modulated signal is
A. 1200 Hz
B. 5000 Hz
C. 1002.5 kHz
D. 2500 Hz
58. A 1200 kHz carrier is amplitude-modulated by two tones
of 500 Hz and 700 Hz. Which one is a frequency
component of the modulated wave?
A. 1195 kHz
B. 1199.3 kHz
C. 1199.7 kHz
D. 1205 kHz
59. Identify a modulation method, or methods in use for a
common-emitter configuration
A. Base modulation
B. Emitter modulation
C. Collector modulation
D. Both A and C
60. The RF signal injected into a balanced modulator is
10MHz and the modulating frequency is 1 kHz. Which
frequency, or frequencies, will not appear in the output?
A. 9.999 MHz
B. 10 MHz
C. 10.0001 MHz
D. Both A and B
61. Unwanted sidebands in SSB equipment can be
suppressed by one or more of the following methods.
A. Phasing method
B. Filter method
C. Decoder method
D. Both A and B

55. An increase in transmitter power from 25W to 30W will

cause the antenna current to increase from 700mA to
A. 800 mA
B. 750 mA
C. 767 mA
D. 840 mA

62. Envelope detection is concerned with the process of

A. Mixing
B. Heterodyning
C. Modulation
D. Rectification

56. A second modulating tone having the same amplitude

but a different frequency is added to the first at the input to
the modulator. The modulation index will be increased by a
factor of

63. Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will result in

A. Distortion
B. Phase reversal
C. Reduced sensitivity

D. Amplitude damage
64. Product detection requires the process of
A. Rectification
B. Heterodyning
C. Decoding
D. Phase shifting

D. All of these
72. A device whose capacitance is deliberately made to be
a function of the applied voltage
A. Varactor diode
B. UJT
C. SAW
D. Variable capacitor

65. A sine wave which is coherent with carrier has identical

A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Phase angle
D. Both B and C

73. A reactance modulator is one method of obtaining

A. Indirect FM
B. Direct FM
C. Demodulation
D. Low frequency filtering

66. Frequency modulation and phase modulation are

collectively referred to as
A. Stereo
B. Angle modulation
C. High fidelity modulation
D. FCC modulation

74. A device, now available in IC form, is useful for direct

FM and as one element in the phse-locked loop.
A. AFC
B. AGC
C. VCO
D. LPF

67. In FM, the change in carrier frequency is proportional to

what attribute of the modulating signal?
A. Angle
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. Tone
68. A louder sound, when generating the modulating
waveform for FM, will cause a greater
A. Carrier amplitude
B. Angle amplitude
C. Distortion at the receiver
D. Frequency deviation
69. If a positive change in modulation signal level of 200
mW will cause a positive frequency deviation of 10 kHz,
what will be the frequency deviation for a negative change
of 10 mV in the level of the modulating signals?
A. 0
B. -5 kHz
C. +5 kHz
D. +0 kHz
70. A particular 15 kHz modulation tone results in a peak
frequency deviation of 75 kHz. What is the modulation
index?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 75
D. 3
71. A 15 kHz sine wave frequency modulates an 88 MHz
carrier. A sideband frequency will be found at
A. 87.970 MHz
B. 87.985 MHz
C. 88.015 MHz

75. _____ is a frequency change process, whereby the

phase deviation and frequency deviation are multiplied by
some fixed constant.
A. Translation
B. Multiplication
C. Division
D. Addition
76. A circuit that has the function of demodulating the
frequency-modulated signal.
A. AFC
B. Envelope detector
C. Decoder
D. Foster-Seeley discriminator
77. The ratio detector is superior to the slope detector
because
A. It is less sensitive to phase modulation
B. It is less sensitive to noise spikes
C. It is less sensitive to interference causing AM
D. Both B and C
78. One implementation of a pulse averaging discriminator
is
A. A free-running multivibrator
B. A crystal-controlled oscillator
C. A quartz crystal filter
D. A triggered multivibrator
79. A 10% increase in the frequency of a constant-width
pulse train should cause what change in its average value?
A. 10 %
B. 1 %
C. +1 %
D. +10 %

80. Two different signals can be coherent if they

A. Have the same amplitude
B. Are both sine waves of different frequencies
C. Originate in the same physical equipment
simultaneously
D. Have the same frequency
81. A quadrature detector requires that
A. Four gates bee provided
B. The inputs are coherent
C. The inputs are incoherent
D. The inputs are identical
82. In a phase-locked loop, the VCO is the abbreviation for
A. Variable coherent output
B. VHF communication oscillator
C. Voltage-controlled oscillator
D. Vien-count oscillator (neutralized)
83. Identify an advantage, or advantages of a properly
designed FM system.
A. Relative immunity to atmospheric noise (lightning)
B. Reduced bandwidth required
C. No noise of any kind
D. The noise figure is inversely proportional to the
modulation index
84. The output of a balanced modulator
A. LSB and USB
B. LSB
C. USB
D. Carrier
85. If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from
0 to 1, the transmitted power is
A. Unchanged
B. Halved
C. Doubled
D. Increased by 50%
86. Which of the following is not a baseband signal of
modulation?
A. Audio signal
B. Video signal
C. RF carrier
D. Binary coded pulses
87. If the unmodulated level peak carrier amplitude is
doubled in an AM signal, the perfect modulation is
________.
A. 20
B. 50
C. 100
D. 200
88. Balanced modulator circuit when inserted in the
equivalent suppresses the ___________
A. Carrier
B. Upper sideband
C. Lower sideband

D. Baseband signal
89. The carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is
suppressed, the percentage power saving is __.
A. 100 %
B. 50 %
C. 83 %
D. 66.66 %
90. If the modulation index if an AM wave is doubled, the
antenna current is also doubled, the AM system being used
is
A. H3E
B. J3E
C. C3F
D. A3E
91. 100% modulation in AM means a corresponding
increase in total power by _______.
A. 100 %
B. 50 %
C. 75 %
D. 25 %
92. A single-tone amplitude modulated wave has _______.
A. 2 components
B. 3 components
C. 4 components
D. 2n + 1 components
93. A carrier signal has ________.
A. Constant peak amplitude
B. Frequency range of 20 20,000 Hz
C. A varying amplitude
D. The information
94. The modulating system is _________ if the modulating
frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and
the modulating voltage remains constant.
A. Amplitude modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Frequency modulation
D. Pulse modulation
95. What is the modulation index of an FM signal if its
modulating frequency is doubled?
A. No effect
B. Twice the original index
C. Four times the original index
D. One-half the original index
96. An AM transmitter is rated 1000 W at 100% modulation.
How much power required for the carrier?
A. 1000 W

B. 666.6 W
C. 333.3 W
D. 866.6 W
97. Standard way of designating AM
A. A3E
B. B3E
C. AHE
D. C3F
98. _____ is the circuit used to detect frequency modulated
signal.
A. Discriminator
B. Modulator
C. Modem
D. Detector
99. _____ is an information signal that is sent directly
without modulating any carrier.
A. C-band
B. Q-band
C. Baseband
D. Broadband
100. Both frequency and phase modulation utilize ______
modulation.
A. Digital
B. Phase
C. Amplitude
D. Angle
ANSWER
51. Distortion and splatter
52. Increase
53. 50 %
54. Increase
55. 767 mA
56. sq. root of 2
57. 1002.5 kHz
58. 1199.3 kHz
59. Both A and C
60. 10 MHz
61. Both A and B
62. Rectification
63. Distortion
64. Heterodyning
65. Both B and C
66. Angle modulation
67. Amplitude
68. Frequency deviation
69. -5 kHz
70. 5
71. All of these
72. Varactor diode
73. Direct FM
74. VCO
75. Multiplication

76. Foster-Seeley discriminator

77. Both B and C
78. A triggered multivibrator
79. +10 %
80. Have the same frequency
81. The inputs are coherent
82. Voltage-controlled oscillator
83. Relative immunity to atmospheric noise (lightning)
84. LSB and USB
85. Increased by 50%
86. RF carrier
87. 100
88. Carrier
89. 66.66 %
90. J3E
91. 50 %
92. 3 components
93. Constant peak amplitude
94. Frequency modulation
95. One-half the original index
96. 666.6 W
97. A3E
98. Discriminator
99. Baseband
100. Angle

(1) The first symbol indicates the type of modulation on the

transmitter carrier.
AAmplitude modulation, double sideband with identical
information on each sideband.
FFrequency modulation.
GPhase modulation.
JSingle sideband with suppressed carrier.
PUnmodulated pulse.
WCases not covered above, in which an emission
consists

of

the

main

carrier

modulated,

either

simultaneously or in a pre-established sequence, in a

combination of two or more of the following modes:
amplitude, angle, pulse.
(2) The second symbol indicates the type of signal
modulating the transmitter carrier.
0No modulation.
1Digital modulation, no subcarrier.
2Digital modulation, modulated subcarrier.
3Analog modulation.

(3) The third symbol indicates the type of transmitted

(i) For telemetry operations, when specifically authorized

information.

under this part, only A1D, A2D, F1D, or F2D emissions will

ATelegraphy for aural reception.

be authorized.

BTelegraphy for machine reception.

(j) For call box operations that may be authorized in

CFacsimile.

accordance with 90.241, only A1A, A1D, A2B, A2D, F1B,

DData, telemetry, and telecommand.

F1D, F2B, F2D, G1B, G1D, G2B, G2D, F3E or G3E

EVoice.

emissions will be authorized.

NNo transmitted information.

(k) For radiolocation operations as may be authorized in

WCombination of the above.

accordance with subpart F, unless otherwise provided for

(b) Authorizations to use A3E, F3E, or G3E emission also

any type of emission may be authorized upon a satisfactory

include the use of emissions for tone signals or signaling

showing of need.

devices whose sole functions are to establish and to

(l) For stations in the Public Safety and Industrial/Business

maintain communications, to provide automatic station

Pools utilizing digital voice modulation, in either the

identification, and for operations in the Public Safety Pool,

scrambled or unscrambled mode, F1E or G1E emission will

to activate emergency warning devices used solely for the

be authorized. Authorization to use digital voice emissions

purpose of advising the general public or emergency

is construed to include the use of F1D, F2D, G1D, or G2D

personnel of an impending emergency situation.

emission subject to the provisions of 90.233.

(c) The use of F3E or G3E emission in these services will

(m) For narrowband operations in a 3.6 kHz maximum

be authorized only on frequencies above 25 MHz.

authorized bandwith, any modulation type may be used

(d) Except for Traveler's Information stations in the Public

which complies with the emission limitations of 90.209.

Safety Pool authorized in accordance with 90.242, only

(n) Other emissions. Requests for emissions other than

J3E emission will be authorized for telephony systems on

those listed in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section will

frequencies below 25 MHz.

be considered on a case-by-case basis to ensure that the

(e) For non-voice paging operations, only A1A, A1D, A2B,

requested emission will not cause more interference than

A2D, F1B, F1D, F2B, F2D, G1B, G1D, G2B, or G2D

other currently permitted emissions.

emissions will be authorized.

(f) For radioteleprinter operations that may be authorized in
accordance with 90.237, only F1B, F2B, G1B or G2B
emissions will be authorize above 25 MHz, and A1B or A2B
emissions below 25 MHz.
(g) For radiofacsimile operations that may be authorized in
accordance with 90.237, only F3C or G3C emissions will
be authorized above 25 MHz, and A3C emissions below 25
MHz.
(h) [Reserved]

101. It is the width of frequencies within the spectrum

occupied by a signal and used by the signal for conveying
information.
A. Band
B. Bandwidth
C. Electronic spectrum
D. Frequency band
102. Which transmit only one sideband?
A. H3E
B. C3F
C. A3E
D. B8E
103. ______ is kind of modulation in which the modulated
wave is always present.
A. Carrier modulation
B. Continuous modulation
C. Log-periodic modulation
D. Square-wave modulation
104. A type of modulation in which no signal is present
between pulses.
A. Pulse modulation
B. FSK
C. QAM

D. PAM
105. What describes the amount of amplitude change
present in an AM waveform?
A. Percent modulation
B. Modulation constant
C. Envelope of modulation
D. Coefficient of modulation
106. _______ is a form of amplitude distortion introduced
when the positive and negative alternations in the AM
modulated signals are not equal.
A. Envelope distortion
B. Spurious emission
C. Carrier shift
D. Johnson noise
107. What is the advantage of phase modulation over direct
FM frequency modulation?
A. Multipliers can be used
B. The deviation is smaller
C. Simplicity and practicality
D. The oscillator is crystal-controlled
108. If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no other
changes, this is known as
A. Frequency multiplication
B. Sideband movement
C. Baseband reorientation
D. Frequency translation
109. A device which is capable of causing frequency
translation
A. High-Q tank circuit
B. Balanced modulator
C. Low-Q tank circuit
D. IF strip
110. If the frequency of each component in a signal
spectrum is increased by the same fixed amount, this
known as
A. Modulation
B. Frequency translation
C. Up conversion
D. Both B and C
111. A particular amplifier is designed to be a frequency
doubler. If the input signal frequency is 15.4 MHz, a circuit
in the output will be tuned to
A. 7.7 MHz
B. 15.4 MHz
C. 30.8 MHz
D. 61.6 MHz
112. A sine wave of 293 MHz is phase-modulated to
achieve a maximum phase deviation of 0.2 radian. After
passing through a frequency tripler, the maximum phase
deviation will be
A. 0.2 radian
B. 0.3 radian
C. 0.4 radian

D. 0.6 radian
113. Any device to be used as a frequency multiplier must
be
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Linear
D. Nonlinear
114. A particular amplifier circuit used for frequency
doubling.
A. Push-push
B. Push-pull
C. Pull-push
D. Pull-pull
115. Frequency division is useful in the implementation of a
A. AM demodulator
B. Frequency synthesizer
C. AGC circuit
D. FM demodulator
116. Frequency division by 12 will require how many flipflops in the counter?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 12
117. Identify an electronic device, not specifically designed
for the purpose, which can be used as a phase detector.
A. Wien bridge
B. Colpitts oscillator
C. Balanced modulator
D. Butterworth filter
118. A particular frequency synthesizer contains only a
single crystal. What words describe this synthesizer?
A. Crystal modulated
B. Inexact
C. Indirect
D. Deficient
119. A recognizable feature of a CW transmitter is
A. Keyed transmitter
B. Power amplification
C. Frequency generation
D. All of these
120. The term pulling refers to
A. The change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading
B. One half-cycle operation of a push-pull amplifier
C. Loading on the transmitter caused by the antenna
connection
D. Reduction of the power supply terminal voltage as the
transmitter is keyed.
121. When frequency modulation is achieved by initial
phase modulation, this is called
A. Angular modulation
B. Direct FM
C. Indirect FM

D. Indirect synthesis
122. A disadvantage of direct FM is the need for
A. AGC
B. AFC
C. A frequency synthesizer
D. Phase modulation
123. Direct FM can be achieved by
A. A reactance tube modulator
B. A varactor diode
C. And AGC circuit
D. Both A and B
124. A receiver in which all RF amplifier stages require
manual tuning to the desired RF is called
A. Superheterodyne
B. Autodyne
C. TRF
D. AFC
125. Why is it often necessary to precede the demodulator
by amplifier stages in a receiver?
A. To improve fidelity
B. To reduce receiver noise
C. To eliminate image response
D. Weak antenna signals
126. A serious disadvantage of the TRF receiver.
A. Bandwidth variations over the tuning range
B. The weight and cost
C. The requirements for a closely regulated power supply
D. The requirements for a half-wave antenna
127. Identify which is not a part of a super heterodyne
receiver.
A. Local oscillator
B. Modulator
C. IF amplifier
D. Demodulator
128. Which major element will not be found in every
superheterodyne receiver?
A. RF amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier
129. Which major element of a superheterodyne receiver
must be nonlinear?
A. R-F amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier
130. The change of the modulated carrier frequency from
the original RF to the IF of the super heterodyne receiver is
known as
A. Frequency multiplication
B. Frequency allocation
C. Frequency substitution
D. Frequency translation

131. The key to achieving receiver sensitivity is the

reduction of
A. Image response
B. Mixer harmonic products
C. Spurious frequency response
D. Internal noise
132. Which of the following receiver design objectives is not
impossible?
A. Elimination of galactic noise
B. Elimination of atmospheric noise
C. Elimination of man-made noise
D. Reduction of receiver internal noise
133. In comparing the S/N ratio for the input to the receiver
with the S/N ratio for the output, the latter is
A. Smaller
B. The same
C. Greater
D. Infinite
134. The characteristic of a receiver that specifies the selfgenerated noise.
A. Noise immunity
B. Noise factor
C. Noise figure
D. Noise margin
135. An FM receiver with an I-F of 10.7 MHz is tuned to
98.7 MHz. What is the numerical value of the image
frequency?
A. 77.3 MHz
B. 88.0 MHz
C. 109.4 MHz
D. 120.1 MHz
136. A source of RF interference exists at 109.9 MHz. For
which frequency in the FM broadcast band will this be the
image frequency?
A. 21.4 MHz
B. 88.5 MHz
C. 99.2 MHz
D. 110.7 MHz
137. The ratio of the super heterodyne receiver response at
the desired carrier frequency to that at the image frequency
is called
A. The sensitivity
B. The selectivity
C. The image frequency
D. The image rejection ratio
138. The core of an IF transformer usually contains
A. Teflon
B. Computer nylon
C. Powdered iron
D. Laminated steel
139. Shape factor is a measure of
A. Bandwidth
B. Skirt steepness

C. Coupling coefficient
D. Critical coupling
140. _______ is the function which tends to maintain the
sound volume level of a voice receiver nearly constant for a
large signal strength range.
A. Squelch
B. Muting
C. AGC
D. AFC
141. The function which tends to silence the receiver in the
absence of transmitted carrier.
A. Squelch
B. Muting
C. AGC
D. AFC
142. What device is incorporated in a communications
receiver to reduce impulse noise?
A. Front-end processor
B. Squelch circuit
C. AGC
D. Noise blanker
143. What type of signal in which a receiver selectivity of
2.4 kHz in the I-F circuitry is optimum?
A. FM voice
B. Double-sideband AM voice
C. FSK data
D. SBB voice
144. If the input to a detector stage is an amplitudemodulated (A3E) IF signal then the output from the stage is
A. A lower frequency carrier
B. The audio voice information
C. A Morse-code signal
D. The upper or lower set of sidebands
145. In a capacitive type, reactance-tube modulator
connected across an oscillator tuned circuit, a more
negative voltage on the grid of the reactance tube will
cause
A. An increase of the oscillator frequency
B. An decrease of oscillator frequency
C. An increase of the reactance-tube capacitance
D. An increase of the reactance tube ac plate current
146. The limiting condition for sensitivity in a
communications receiver is
A. The noise floor of the receiver
B. Power supply output ripple
C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion
D. The input impedance to the detector
147. When a communications receiver is tuned to a strong
signal, the AGC bias is measured and found to be zero.
The fault cannot be caused by a/an
A. Defective IF stage
B. Defective local oscillator
C. Defective RF stage

D. Open circuit in the AGCs filter capacitor

148. The term used to refer to the condition where the
signals from a very strong station are superimposed on
other signals being received
A. Cross-modulation interference
B. Intermodulation interference
C. Receiver quieting
D. Capture effect
149. The limiter stage of an FM receiver
A. Behaves as a low-pass filter
B. Limits the amplitude of the IF signal to the required level
C. Behaves as a high-pass filter
D. Behaves as a bandstop filter
150. Motorboating (low-frequency oscillations) in an
amplifier can be stopped by
A. Grounding the screen grid
B. Connecting a capacitor between the B+ and lead ground
C. By passing the screen grid resistor with a 0.1 F
capacitor
D. Grounding the plate
151. An effect in which, the modulation of an unwanted
signal is transferred to the desired carrier.
A. Crossmodulation
B. Intermodulation
C. Modulation mixing
D. Image-channel interference
152. Leads should be kept as short as possible in radio
circuit so that
A. Skin effect is reduced
B. There is less hysteresis effect
C. There is less dielectric loss
D. Stray coupling is minimized
153. The number of voice transmissions that can be packed
into
a
given
frequency
band
for
amplitudecompandored single-sideband systems over conventional
FM-phone systems.
A. 2
B. 18
C. 16
D. 4
154. Neutralization of an RF amplifier stage can be
necessary in order to
A. Increase the amplifiers gain
B. Prevent the generation of spurious oscillations
C. Reduce the amplifiers gain
D. Reduce the level of the output harmonics
155. The ability of a communications receiver to perform
well in the presence of strong signals outside the band of
interest is indicated by what parameter?
A. Blocking dynamic range
B. Noise figure
C. Signal-to-noise ratio

D. Audio output
156. Stages that are common to both AM and FM receivers
A. Tuner, local oscillator, detector, AF amplifier
B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF amplifier, AF amplifier
C. Local oscillator, RF amplifier, frequency discriminator,
detector
D. Tuner, IF amplifier, detector, AF amp
157. Occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter
bandwidth is used in the IF stage of a receiver
A. Filter ringing
B. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
C. Output-offset overshoot
D. Cross-modulation distortion
158. What stage mainly determines a communication
receivers sensitivity?
A. IF amplifier
B. Mixer stage
C. Detector stage
D. RF amplifier
159. What is the main advantage of FM over AM?
A. Better signal-to-noise-ratio
B. Narrower bandwidth
C. Greater propagation range
D. Total freedom from adjacent-channel interference
160. An amplitude modulation created in an amplifier before
the final RF stage.
A. Low-level modulation
B. High-level modulation
C. Direct modulation
D. Indirect modulation
161. Receiver desensitizing can be reduced by
A. Increasing the transmitter audio gain
B. Decreasing the receiver squelch gain
C. Increasing the receiver bandwidth
D. Ensuring good RF shielding between the transmitter
162. In a narrow-band FM system, the deviation ratio is
commonly one and the highest audio frequency is generally
limited to
A. 300 Hz
B. 10,000 Hz
C. 3,000 Hz
D. 7,500 Hz
163. A type of emission is produced when an amplitude
modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal
A. A3F
B. F3F
C. A3C
D. F3C
164. Where is the noise generated which primarily
determines the signal to noise ratio in a VHF (150 MHz)
marine band receiver?
A. In the detector
B. In the atmosphere

C. In the ionosphere
D. In the receiver front end
165. Cross-modulation in a receiver can be reduced by
A. Installing a filter at the receiver
B. Using a filter at the receiver
C. Increasing the receivers RF gain while decreasing the
AF
D. Adjusting the pass-band tuning
166. What is the emission designation for FM telephony?
A. F3E
B. G3E
C. J3E
D. H3E
167. What is the cause of receiver desensitizing?
A. The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency
B. Audio gain adjusted too low
C. Squelch gain adjusted too high
D. Squelch gain adjusted too low
168. In a phase-modulated signal (indirect FM), the
frequency deviation is directly proportional to the
A. Carrier amplitude only
B. Amplitude of the modulating tone and frequency of the
carrier
C. Carrier frequency only
D. Modulating signal amplitude only
169. An RF stage precedes the mixer stage in a
superheterodyne receiver. One advantage of including this
RF stage is
A. Better selectivity
B. Better rejection ratio
C. Greater sensitivity
D. Improved signal-to-noise-ratio
170. Two factors that determine the sensitivity of a receiver.
A. Dynamic range and third-order intercept
B. Cost and availability
C. Bandwidth and noise figure
D. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range
171. What is an undesirable effect of using too-wide a filter
bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
A. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
B. Output-offset overshoot
C. Thermal-noise distortion
D. Filter ringing
172. A system containing a limiter stage, a discriminator,
and a de-emphasis circuit?
A. Direct FM transmitter
B. Indirect FM transmitter
C. Single sideband AM receiver
D. FM receiver
173. The limiter stage of an FM receiver
A. Prevents any amplitude modulation of the IF signal
B. Limits the amount of frequency deviation in the IF signal
C. Limits the overall bandwidth of the IF stages

D. Corrects any deviation in carrier frequency

174. High selectivity occurs when the degree of coupling
between a receivers RF stages is
A. Tight
B. Loose
C. Critical
D. Adjusted for maximum power transfer
175. A carrier is phase modulated by a test tone. If the
amplitude and the frequency of the tone are both doubled,
the amount of the deviation is
A. Doubled
B. Unchanged
C. Halved
D. Multiplied by four
176. The degree of selectivity desirable in the IF circuitry of
a single-sideband receiver.
A. 1 kHz
B. 2.4 kHz
C. 4.2 kHz
D. 4.8 kHz
177. The component most apt to break down in the radio
circuit is the
A. Crystal
B. Resistor
C. Transformer
D. Diode
178. The base in an RF amplifier is grounded in order to
A. Avoid the requirement of neutralizing the stage
B. Raise the input impedance
C. Lower the output impedance
D. Obtain maximum power output
179. The AM detector performs two basic functions in the
receiver.
A. Rectifies and filters
B. Amplifiers and filters
C. Buffer and amplifier
D. Buffer and detector
180. A varactor diode can be used in a/an
A. Direct FM modulator circuit
B. AFC circuit in a direct FM transmitter
C. Phase-modulator circuit
D. All of these
181. Receiver interference is not reduced by including a/an
A. Crystal filter
B. Insulating enclosures around the receiver
C. Wave trap
D. RF stage
182. What is the emission C3F?
A. RTTY
B. SSB
C. Television
D. Modulated CW
183. What is the approximate dc input power to a class AB

RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier

transmitter when the PEP output is 500 W?
A. Approximately 1000 W
B. Approximately 800 W
C. Approximately 250 W
D. Approximately 600 W
184. Which of the following stages in an FM receiver is
responsible for drastically reducing the effect of static noise
during the reception of a signal
A. De-emphasis circuit
B. Mixer stage
C. Squelch circuit
D. Limiter stage
185. The letters SSSC stands for
A. Single sideband, single carrier
B. Suppressed sideband, single channel
C. Suppressed sideband, single carrier
D. Single sideband, suppressed carrier
186. For many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP-toaverage power during a modulation peak in a singlesideband phone signal?
A. Approximately 1.0 to 1
B. Approximately 25 to 1
C. Approximately 100 to 1
D. Approximately 2.5 to 1
187. In most mixers, the oscillator frequency is ______ than
the carrier frequency of the input signal.
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. The same
D. 10 kHz above
188. Features of a transmitters buffer stage include
A. High stage
B. Harmonic generation
C. Improvement in frequency stability of the oscillator
D. Low input impedance
189. Type of emission produced when an amplitude
modulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal
A. F3F
B. A3C
C. F3C
D. A3F
190. A network is
A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four
capacitors
B. A power incidence network
C. An antenna matching network that is isolated from
ground
D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors
191. How is G3E FM-phone signals produced?
A. A network consisting modulator on the audio amplifier
B. With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier
C. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator

D. With a balanced modulator on the oscillator

192. A way of eliminating auto interference to radio
reception
A. Installing resistive spark plugs
B. Installing capacitive spark plugs
C. Installing resistors in series with the spark plugs
D. Installing two copper-braid ground strips
193. The carrier in an AM transmitter is the
A. Transmitters output signal when the modulation is
present
B. Transmitters output signal when the modulation is zero
C. Output signal from the crystal oscillator
D. RMS value of the AM signal
194. What stage feeds the discriminator of an FM receiver?
A. Local oscillator
B. Mixer stage
C. Final IF amplifier, which also acts as a limiter stage
D. Buffer
195. In an FM receiver, the stage that has the IF signal is
input and the audio signal output.
A. Limiter
B. Audio amplifier
C. IF amplifier
D. Discriminator
196. What is capture effect?
A. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM
receiver
B. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated
signal
C. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM
receiver
D. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated
signal
197. A double-sideband phone signal can be generated by
A. Feeding a phase-modulated signal into a low-pass filter
B. Modulating the plate voltage of a class-C amplifier
C. Using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
D. Detuning a Hartley oscillator
198. Pre-emphasis is used in FM transmitters to improve
the signal-to-noise ratio of
A. High modulating frequencies
B. Low modulating frequencies
C. All modulating frequencies
D. Frequencies carrier
199. The result of cross-modulation is that
A. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the
desired signal
B. A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals
C. Of receiver quieting
D. Of inverting sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier
200. Which of the following contains de-emphasis circuit?
A. FM transmitter
B. FM receiver

C. VHF transmitter
D. VHF receiver
101. Bandwidth
102. H3E
103. Continuous modulation
104. Pulse modulation
105. Coefficient of modulation
106. Carrier shift
107. The oscillator is crystal-controlled
108. Frequency translation
109. Balanced modulator
110. Both B and C
111. 30.8 MHz
112. 0.6 radian
113. Nonlinear
114. Push-push
115. Frequency synthesizer
116. 4
117. Balanced modulator
118. Indirect
119. All of these
120. The change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading
121. Indirect FM
122.
123. Both A and B
124. TRF
125. Weak antenna signals
126. Bandwidth variations over the tuning range
127. Modulator
128. RF amplifier
129. Mixer
130. Frequency translation
131. Internal noise
132. Reduction of receiver internal noise
133. Smaller
134. Noise figure
135. 120.1 MHz
136. 88.5 MHz
137. The image rejection ratio
138. Powdered iron
139. Skirt steepness
140. AGC
141. Squelch
142. Noise blanker
143. SBB voice
144. The audio voice information
145. An increase of the oscillator frequency
146. The noise floor of the receiver
147. Open circuit in the AGCs filter capacitor
148. Cross-modulation interference
149. Limits the amplitude of the IF signal to the required level
150. Connecting a capacitor between the B+ and lead ground
151. Crossmodulation
152. Stray coupling is minimized
153. 4
154. Prevent the generation of spurious oscillations
155. Blocking dynamic range
156. RF amplifier, mixer, IF amplifier, AF amplifier
157. Filter ringing

158. IF amplifier
159. Better signal-to-noise-ratio
160. Low-level modulation
161. Ensuring good RF shielding between the transmitter
162. 3,000 Hz
163. A3C
164. In the receiver front end
165. Installing a filter at the receiver
166. F3E
167. The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency
168. Amplitude of the modulating tone and frequency of the carrier
169. Better rejection ratio
170. Bandwidth and noise figure
171. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
172. FM receiver
173. Prevents any amplitude modulation of the IF signal
174. Loose
175. Multiplied by four
176. 2.4 kHz
177. Resistor
178. Avoid the requirement of neutralizing the stage
179. Rectifies and filters
180. All of these
181. Insulating enclosures around the receiver
182. Television
183. Approximately 1000 W
184. Limiter stage
185. Single sideband, suppressed carrier
186. Approximately 2.5 to 1
187. Higher
188. Improvement in frequency stability of the oscillator
189. A3F
190. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors
191. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator
192. Installing resistive spark plugs
193. Transmitters output signal when the modulation is zero
194. Final IF amplifier, which also acts as a limiter stage
195. Discriminator
196. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal
197. Modulating the plate voltage of a class-C amplifier
198. High modulating frequencies
199. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired
signal
200. FM receiver

201. What is emission F3F?

A. AM
B. Facsimile
C. Television
D. RTTY
202. What type of emission is produced when a frequency
modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal?
A. F3C
B. A3C
C. F3F
D. A3F
203. Two AM transmitting antennas are close together. As a
result the two modulated signals are mixed in the final RF

stage of both transmitters. What is the resultant effect on

other station?
A. Harmonic interference
B. Intermodulation interference
C. Spurious interference
D. Crossmodulation interference
204. The term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain
caused by the signal of a nearby station transmitter in the
same frequency band?
A. Quieting
B. Cross-modulation interference
C. Squelch gain rollback
D. Desensitizing
205. What is the bandwidth occupied by the carrier, both
sidebands and harmonics?
A. Authorized bandwidth
B. Bandwidth of emission and occupied bandwidth
C. Operating bandwidth
D. All of these
206. A class-C RF amplifier is collector amplitude
modulated and its average dc level collector current does
not change. This means
A. A normal condition
B. Excessive drive to the base
C. Insufficient drive to the base
D. Insufficient audio modulation
207. What determines the percentage modulation of an FM
transmitter?
A. Amplitude of the carrier
B. Modulating frequency
C. Carrier frequency
D. Amplitude of the modulating signal
208. Deviation ratio of an FM transmitter is the ratio of the
A. Maximum frequency swing to the highest modulating
frequency
B. Operating frequency of the assigned frequency
C. Frequency swing to the modulating frequency
D. Highest modulating frequency to the minimum frequency
209. The main purpose of the beat frequency oscillator
(BFO) is to generate
A. A 1 kHz not for Morse reception
B. Aid in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals
C. An output, whose frequency differs from the IF by 1 kHz
D. A signal, whose frequency is the same as intermediate
frequency
210. Normally, a linear class BRF power amplifier operates
with a bias approximately equal to
A. Twice cut-off
B. Ten times cut-off value
C. 50% of cut-off value
D. Projected cut-off
211. The purpose why an RF amplifier is operated under
linear class-B conditions (as opposed to class-C) is to

A. Generate only even harmonics

B. Generate only odd harmonics
C. Increase the efficiency
D. Amplify of an AM signal
212. The term used to refer to the condition where the
signal from a very strong station are superimposed on other
signal being received.
A. Cross-modulation interference
B. Intermodulation distortion
C. Receiver quieting
D. Capture effect
213. _________ is the amplitude of the maximum negative
excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope.
A. Peak-to-peak voltage
B. Inverse peak positive voltage
C. RMS voltage
D. Peak negative voltage
214. The type of emission that suffer most from selective
fading.
A. CW and SSB
B. SSB and TV
C. FM and double sideband AM
D. SSTV and CW
215. In an FM-phone signal, ________ is the ratio between
the actual frequency deviation to the maximum frequency
deviation.
A. FM compressibility
B. Modulating index
C. Percentage of modulation
D. Quieting index
216. _______ is used to refer to the reception blockage of
one FM-phone signal by another FM-phone signal.
A. Capture effect
B. Desensitization
C. Cross-modulation interference
D. Frequency discrimination
217. A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF circuitry is
optimum for what type of signals?
A. SSB voice
B. Facsimile
C. FM
D. Double-sideband AM
218. If the envelope of modulation is constant in amplitude
this means
A. Zero beat
B. Under-modulation
C. Zero-modulation
D. Over-modulation
219. What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM with a
modulation factor of 12.5 and a modulating frequency of 10
kHz?
A. 20 kHz
B. 270 kHz

C. 250 kHz
D. 45 kHz
220. Amplitude modulation is the same as
A. Linear mixing
B. Analog multiplication
C. Signal summation
D. Multiplexing
221. The negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a/an
_______ on a diode modulator.
A. Tuned circuit
B. Transformer
C. Capacitor
D. Inductor
222. One of the following can produce AM.
A. Having the carrier vary a resistance
B. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance
C. Varying the carrier frequency
D. Varying the gain of an amplifier
223. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude
with the modulating signal by passing it through an
attenuator network is the principle of
A. Rectification
B. Amplification
C. Variable resistance
D. Absorption
224. Which component is used to produce AM at very high
frequencies?
A. Varactor diode
B. Thermistor
C. Cavity resonator
D. PIN diode
225. A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48 V.
What is the peak-to-peak amplitude of the modulating
signal for 100 percent modulation?
A. 24 V
B. 48 V
C. 96 V
D. 120 V
226. What circuit recovers the original modulating
information from an AM signal?
A. Modulator
B. Demodulator
C. Mixer
D. Crystal set
227. What is the most commonly used amplitude
demodulator?
A. Envelope detector
B. Balanced modulator
C. Mixer
D. Crystal set
228. What circuit generates the upper and lower sidebands
and suppresses the carrier?
A. Amplitude modulator

B. Diode detector
C. Class C amplifier
D. Balanced modulator
229. _________ is a widely used balanced modulator.
A. Diode bridge circuit
B. Full-wave bridge rectifier
C. Lattice modulator
D. Balanced bridge modulator
230. In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like
A. Variable resistors
B. Switches
C. Rectifiers
D. Variable capacitors
231. The output of a balanced modulator is
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. DSB
232. The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC
balanced modulator is a
A. Differential amplifier
B. Rectifier
C. Bridge
D. Constant current source
233. The most commonly used filter in SSB generators
uses
A. LC networks
B. Mechanical resonators
C. Crystals
D. RC networks and op amps
234. In the phasing method of SSB generation, one
sideband is canceled out due to
A. Phase shifting
B. Sharp selectivity
C. Carrier suppression
D. Phase inversion
235. A balanced modulator used to demodulate a SSB
signal is call a/an
A. Transponder
B. Product detector
C. Converter
D. Remodulator
236. Frequency translation is done with a circuit called a
A. Summer
B. Multiplier
C. Divider
D. Mixer
237. Mixing for frequency conversion is the same as
A. Rectification
B. AM
C. Linear summing
D. Filtering

238. Which of the following is not a major advantage of FM

over AM?
A. Greater efficiency
B. Noise immunity
C. Capture effect
D. Lower complexity and cost
239. The primary disadvantage of FM is its
A. Higher cost and complexity
B. Excessive use of spectrum space
C. Noise susceptibility
D. Lower efficiency
240. Noise is primarily
A. High-frequency spikes
B. Lowe-frequency variations
C. Random level shifts
D. Random frequency variations
241. The receiver circuit that rids FM of noise is the
A. Modulator
B. Demodulator
C. Limiter
D. Low-pass filter
242. The AM signals generated at a low level may only be
amplified by what type of amplifier?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. All of the above
243. SSB means
A. Single sideband with suppressed carrier
B. Single sideband with carrier
C. Double sideband with no carrier
D. Single sideband with reduced carrier
244. A circuit used to select the desired output from a mixer
A. Transformer
B. Resonant circuit
C. Filter
D. Phase-shift circuit
245. What is the output of a balanced modulator?
A. AM
B. DSB
C. SSB
D. ISB
246. The acronym SSSC refer to
A. Suppressed sideband, single carrier
B. Suppressed sideband, suppressed carrier
C. Single sideband, suppressed carrier
D. Single sideband, single carrier
247. Which process occurs in the receiver?
A. Demodulation
B. Reception
C. Modulation
D. Recreation
248. What is usually used to demodulate SSB or CW

signal?
A. PLL
B. BFO
C. Ratio detector
D. All of these
249. Which of the following is the most widely used
amplitude modulator
A. Diode detector
B. PLL circuit
C. VCO
D. All of these
250. Which of the following is the most widely used
balanced modulator
A. Full-wave bridge circuit
B. Balanced bridge modulator
C. Lattice modulator
D. None of these
251. A method that applied the modulated wave to the
vertical deflection circuit of the oscilloscope and the
modulating signal to the horizontal deflection circuit.
a. Trapezoidal method
b. Circular method
c. Square method
d. Any method
252. The heart of all methods of single-sideband
modulation and demodulation
a. Modulator
b. Balanced modulator
c. Modulation
d. demodulation
253. If the frequency and phase are parameters of carrier
angle, which is a function of time, the general term
___________-cover both.
a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. Phase modulation
d. Angle modulation
254. In FM radio communication system, narrow-band
(NBFM) is used rather than wideband (WBFM), because it,
a. Improves signal to noise ration
b. Reduces interchannel interference
c. Provides maximum coverage for a given amount of
power
d. All of the above
255. Radio transmitter basically consists of two principal
parts, one reproducing a carrier frequency and one for
__________.
a. IF Frequency
b. RF Frequency
c. Modulating Frequency
d. Power
256. Is a measure of its ability to maintain as nearly a fixed
frequency as possible over as long as time interval as

possible.
a. Receiver Noise Factor
b. Selectivity
c. Sensitivity
d. Frequency stability
257. Is the effect of two-transmitter when they are in close
proximity. This results into the sum and difference
frequencies of two carriers.
a. Intermodulation effect
b. Intermodulation interference
c. Intermodulation product
d. intermodulation
258. _________ is a continuous frequency capable of being
modulated or impressed with a second information carrying
signal.
a. Carrier frequency
b. Center frequency
c. IF frequency
d. RF frequency
259. The varactor diode used in FM may be represented by
the approximate equivalent circuit of the _____ in series
with a ________.
a. Diode, capacitor
b. Diode, resistor
c. Capacitor, resistor
d. Any of these
260. The name varactor comes from variable _________.
a. Resistor
b. Capacitor
c. Diode
d. reactor
261. 75 microseconds pre-emphasis time is used in
__________.
a. FM
b. AM
c. TV
d. None of these
262. Recovers the modulating voltage from the frequency
modulation by utilizing the phase angle shift between
primary and secondary voltages of tuned oscillators.
a. Direct method
b. Indirect method
c. Foster-Seeley discriminator
d. Slope detector
263. Is used in FM receivers to lock onto the received
signal and stabilized receptions.
a. Automatic Gain Control
b. Automatic Frequency Control
c. Muscle Control
d. Automatic Frequency Gain Control
264. Are amplifier circuits that are used to eliminate
amplitude modulation and amplitude-modulated noise from
received FM Signals before detection.

a. Demodulators
b. Diode detector
c. Amplitude limiters
d. None of these
265. If the total sideband power is 12.5% of the total
radiated power, find the modulation index.
a. 50 percent
b. 53.4 percent
c. 26.2 percent
d. 32.3 percent
266. Carriers are spaced at 20 kHz, beginning at 100 kHz.
Each carrier is modulated by a signal with a 5 kHz
bandwidth. Is there interference from the sideband?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. Secret
267. For an unmodulated carrier of 150 V and a modulated
peak value of 230 V. What is the modulation index
a. 0.35
b. 0.533
c. 0.652
d. 0.42
268. New frequencies outside the regular AM spectrum are
called ___________.
a. Distortion
b. Interference
c. Splatter
d. Harmonic
269. A DSB-SC has a total power of 350 watts with 100%
modulation suppresses 50% of the carrier, and the
suppressed carrier power goes to the sidebands. How
much power is in the sidebands?
a. 116.67 W
b. 233.33 W
c. 175 W
d. 350 W
270. A DSB-SC system must suppress the carrier by 30 dB
from its original value of 30 W. What value must the carrier
be reduced?
a. 30000 W
b. 0.03 W
c. 300 W
d. 0.003 W
271. ___________, which further amplifies the signal and
has the bandwidth and passband shaping appropriate for
the received signal.
a. RF stage
b. Mixer and local oscillator stage
c. IF stage
d. AF stage
272. In FM, a bandwidth estimate 98 percent level of
Bessel functions

a. Approximate bandwidth
b. Narrow-band Bandwidth
c. Carsons rule
d. Wideband bandwidth
273. The complete series of stages for reproducing the FM
signal with the desired carrier and deviation is the _______.
a. Modulator
b. Exciter
c. IF stage
d. RF stage
274. Is the ability of FM system to provide low-noise,
high fidelity music background/broadcast..
a. Monophonic
b. Stereophonic
c. Stereonic
d. SCA
275. It make use of the shape of IF filter frequency
response roll-off versus frequency.
a. Foster Seeley
b. Slope detector
c. Diode detector
d. Quadrature detector
276. In AM, modulation index is a number lying between
____ and 1.
a. 2
b. 5
c. 0
d. 3
277. This form of modulation is also known as independent
sideband emission.
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
278. An attenuated carrier is reinserted into the SSB signal
to facilitate receiver tuning and demodulation.
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
279. Standard AM used for broadcasting
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
280. Single sideband, suppressed carrier in which the
carrier is suppressed by at least 45 dB in the transmitter.
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
281. The shift in the carrier frequency from the resting point
compared to the amplitude of the modulating signal is

called _______.
a. Index
b. Deviation ratio
c. Carrier frequency
d. Deviation frequency
282. In FM, the amplitude of the modulated frequency wave
remains ___________ at all times.
a. Varying
b. Dependent
c. Constant
d. variable
283. An AM has a maximum span of 30 V, what is the
required minimum span to attain 100% modulation?
a. 30 V
b. 20 V
c. 0 V
d. None of these
284. DZMM having a carrier frequency of 630 kHz is
modulated by 2.6 kHz audio signal having an amplitude of
37.5 V. What is the amplitude voltage of 630 kHz carrier
frequency at 0.35 modulation index?
a. 57.6 V
b. 107.14 V
c. 206.5 V
d. 86.2 V
285. If the sideband power is 50% of the carrier power,
what is the modulation index?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 100%
286. If the increase power is 180 watts at 1
kW unmodulated output power the modulation index is
_________.
a. 75%
b. 60%
c. 50%
d. 25%
287. In AM, if the unmodulated power carrier is 10 kW, and
the total power is 15 kW, what is the upper sideband power
at 100% modulation index?
a. 25 kW
b. 2 kW
c. 2.5 kW
d. 4 kW
288. If the input resistance of the base station of AM
broadcast produced 20 kW carrier power, at what
modulation index should the antenna rise at 108.63 A?
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. 80%
289. ________ used a phase detector to compare the

phase and frequency of the received signal to the VCO

output.
a. PIL
b. PAL
c. PLL
d. PLI
290. A filter with a roll-off of 6 dB/kHz is used as a slope
detector. The input signal varies with +3 kHz deviation from
center carrier frequency. How many dB down is the output
at full deviation?
a. 9 dB
b. -18 dB
c. 18 dB
d. -9 dB
291. A receiver limiter requires a 20 mV signal for quieting
operation. The voltage gain between the RF input and the
limiter is 57.7 dB, what is the input at the antenna terminal
assuming equal resistance?
a. 75.6 mV
b. 26.67 uV
c. 52.3 uV
d. 49.6 uV
292. A 1-MHz carrier is modulated with a resulting 100
Hz deviation. It undergoes x36 multiplication, followed by
mixing with a 34.5 MHz signal and re-multiplication by 72.
What is the final carrier and deviations?
a. 5076 MHz, 2592 MHz
b. 2592 MHz, 259.2 kHz
c. 2592MHz, 5076 MHz
d. 259.2 MHz, 108 kHz
293. For standard commercial broadcast FM, the deviation
ratio is ________.
a. 15
b. 75
c. 5
d. 10
294. A system has 150 kHz of bandwidth available for 10
kHz modulation signal. What is the approximate deviation
to be used?
a. 35 kHz
b. 65 kHz
c. 25 kHz
d. 15 kHz
295. An FM has a deviation of 100 kHz and a modulating
frequency of 15 kHz, what happen to m if the deviation
triples?
a. 6.66
b. 2.22
c. 4.12
d. 0.20
296. A receiver for a signal at 100 MHz uses a 10.7 MHz IF
and low tracking. What is the image frequency?
a. 89.3 MHz

b. 78.6 MHz
c. 52.5 MHz
d. 35.2 MHz
297. What is the change in resonant frequency of the actual
varactor capacitance value differs by -5% (0.05) of the
nominal value?
a. 2.06
b. 3.02
c. 1.03
d. 5.06
298. An oscillator resonate at 1 MHz with a nominal 100 pF
capacitor and 0.25 mH inductor, what s the resonant
frequency of the actual capacitor value is +20% of the
nominal value?
a. 1.006 MHz
b. 0.9188 MHz
c. 3.625 MHz
d. 2.00123 MHz
299. Front end is also called _________.
a. IF stage
b. AF stage
c. RF stage
d. None of these
300. Undesired signal on the other side of the local
oscillator output will have the same difference frequency
and pass into the IF amplifier.
a. Carrier frequency
b. Sum frequency
c. Difference frequency
d. Image frequency
201. Television
202. F3C
203. Intermodulation interference
204. Desensitizing
205. Bandwidth of emission and occupied bandwidth
206. A normal condition
207. Amplitude of the modulating signal
208. Maximum frequency swing to the highest modulating
frequency
209. An output, whose frequency differs from the IF by 1 kHz
210. Projected cut-off
211. Amplify of an AM signal
212. Cross-modulation interference
213. Peak negative voltage
214. FM and double sideband AM
215. Percentage of modulation
216. Capture effect
217. Double-sideband AM
218. Zero-modulation
219. 270 kHz
220. Linear mixing
221. The tuned circuit
222. Having the carrier vary a resistance
223. Variable resistance
224. PIN diode
225. 96 V

226. Demodulator
227. Envelope detector
228. Balanced modulator
229. Lattice modulator
230. Switches
231. DSB
232. Differential amplifier
233. Crystals
234. Phase shifting
235. Product detector
236. Mixer
237. Linear summing
238. Lower complexity and cost
239. Excessive use of spectrum space
240. High-frequency spikes
241. Limiter
242. Class C
243. Single sideband with suppressed carrier
244. Filter
245. DSB
246. Single sideband, suppressed carrier
247. Demodulation
248. BFO
249. Diode detector
250. Lattice modulator
251. Trapezoidal method
252. Balanced modulator
253. Angle modulation
254. All of the above
255. Modulating Frequency
256. Frequency stability
257. Intermodulation interference
258. Carrier frequency
259. Capacitor, resistor
260. reactor
261. FM
262. Foster-Seeley discriminator
263. Automatic Frequency Control
264. Amplitude limiters
265. 53.4 percent
266. No
267. 0.533
268. Splatter
269. 233.33 W
270. 0.03 W
271. IF stage
272. Carsons rule
273. Exciter
274. Stereophonic
275. Slope detector
276. 0
277. B8E
278. R3E
279. A3E
280. H3E
281. Deviation ratio
282. Constant
283. 0 V
284. 107.14 V
285. 100%

286. 60%
287. 2.5 kW
288. 60%
289. PLL
290. 18 dB
291. 26.67 uV
292. 2592 MHz, 259.2 kHz
293. 5
294. 65 kHz
295. 0.20
296. 78.6 MHz
297. 1.03
298. 0.9188 MHz
299. RF stage
300. Image frequency

301. One of the following refers to an output of a balanced

modulator
a. SSB
b. ISB
c. AM
d. DSB
302. Which of the following components is used to produce
AM at very high frequencies?
a. Cavity resonator
b. PIN diode
c. Varactor
d. Thermistor
303. A third symbol emission which represent
data transmission including telemetry, and telecommand
a. B
b. D
c. C
d. N
304. In an AM wave, useful power is carried by
a. None of these
b. Sidebands
c. Both the sidebands and the carrier
d. Carrier
305. Determine the modulation index of an standard FM
broadcast having a hypothetical maximum carrier frequency
deviation of 12 kHz and a maximum modulating frequency
pf 4kHz.
a. 9
b. 6
c. 3
d. 4
306. The process by which the intelligence signals normally
at
lower
frequency
are
removed
from
the transmission frequency after it is received in the
receiver station.
a. Detection
b. Demodulation
c. Amplification
d. Modulation
307. What is meant by the term modulation?

a. The squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise

ratio is reached
b. Carrier rejection through phase nulling
c. A linear amplification mode
d. A mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a
carrier
308. What is a balanced modulator?
a. An FM modulator that produces balance deviation
b. A modulator that produces a DSBSC signal
c. A modulator that produces a SSBSC signal
d. A modulator that produces a full carrier signal
309. What is a reactance modulator?
a. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance
to produce FM signals
b. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance
to produce AM signals
c. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance
to produce FM signals
d. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance
to produce AM signals
310. How can an SSB phone signal be generated?
a. By dividing product detector with a DSB signal
b. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
c. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
d. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
311. How can a DSB phone signal be generated?
a. By feeding a phase modulated signal into a low pass
filter
b. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
c. By detuning a Hartley oscillator
d. By modulating the plate voltage of a class C amplifier
312.
First
symbol
in
the
designation
of
radio signals emission which refers to use of an
unmodulated carrier.
a. J
b. N
c. H
d. A
313. One of the following is a communications filter
generally used in the transceiver of a single sideband
generator.
a. Lowpass filter
b. Crystal filter
c. Bandpass filter
d. Mechanical filter
314. What is the modulation index for an AM signal having
Vmax and Vmin of 2.6 and 0.29, respectively?
a. 0.799
b. 0.111
c. 0.894
d. 0.639
315. What is the bandwidth of an AM signal modulated by a
15-kHz intelligence signal?

a. 7.5 kHz
b. 15 kHz
c. 30 kHz
d. 60 kHz
316. If a transmitter supplies 10 kW to the antenna when it
is unmodulated, determine the total radiated power when it
is modulated at 30%
a. 10.45 watts
b. 10750 watts
c. 11.5 kilowatts
d. 10450 watts
317. Which of the following waveform characteristics
determines the wavelength of a sine wave?
a. Phase
b. Amplitude
c. Period
d. Phase angle
318. In the F3E signal, what is the term for the ratio
between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and
the modulating frequency?
a. FM compressibility
b. Quieting index
c. Modulation index
d. Percentage of modulation
319. Which frequency band is the standard AM radio
broadcast?
a. HF
b. UHF
c. MF
d. VHF
320. The letter-designation B8E is a form of modulation
also known as
a. Pilot carrier system
b. Independent sideband emission
c. Lincompex
d. Vestigial sideband transmission
321. What are the two general categories of methods for
generating emission F3E?
a. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with
reactance modulator on the oscillator
b. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a
balanced modulator on the oscillator
c. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a
balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
d. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a
reactance modulator on the final amplifier
322. 100% modulation in AM means a corresponding
increase in total power by ____.
a. 25%
b. 75%
c. 100%
d. 50%
323. How does the SSB transmitter output power normally

expressed?
a. Average power
b. In terms of peak envelope power
c. In terms of peak-to-peak power
d. Peak power
324. Determine from the following the common use of DSB
in broadcast and telecommunications
a. Satellite communication
b. FM/TV stereo
c. Two-way communications
d. Telephone systems
325. What is the source of sidebands in frequency
modulation?
a. Oscillator
b. Baseband frequency
c. Mixer
d. Carrier harmonics
326. What is the source of sidebands in frequency
modulated voice?
a. A3F
b. A3J
c. F3E
d. J3E
327. The third symbol in the designation of radio emission
under the ITU refers to
a. Type of modulation of the main carrier
b. Nature of signals
c. Type of information to be transmitted
d. Nature of multiplexing
328. An AM transmission of 3 kW is 100% modulated. If it is
transmitted as an SSB signal, what would be the total
power transmitted?
a. 500 W
b. 1000 W
c. 1500 W
d. 2000 W
329. This circuit has the function of demodulating the
frequency-modulated signal. It is a
a. Automatic gain control
b. Automatic frequency control
c. Envelope detector
d. Foster-Seeley discriminator
330. Calculate the power in one sideband of an AM signal
whose carrier power is 50 watts. The unmodulated current
is 2 A while the modulated current is 2.4 A.
a. 22 W
b. 33 W
c. 11 W
d. 44 W
331. The method of generating FM used by broadcasting
station is
a. Direct
b. All of these

c. Indirect
d. Insertion
332. Deviation ratio of an FM transmitter is the ratio of the
a. Maximum frequency swing to the highest modulating
frequency
b. Operating frequency of the assigned frequency
c. Frequency swing to the modulating frequency
d. Highest modulating frequency to the minimum frequency
333. An AM transmitter is modulated by two sine waves at
1.5 kHz and 2.5 kHz with modulations of 20 percent and 80
percent respectively. Calculate the effective modulation
index.
a. 0.7776
b. 0.6
c. 0.8246
d. 1.0
334. A DSBSC system must suppress the carrier by 50 dB
for its original value of 10 W. To what value must the carrier
be reduced?
a. 1 milliwatt
b. 10 microwatts
c. 0.10 milliwatts
d. 0.01 microwatts
335. Which circuit in the AM transmitter does the frequency
translation?
a. Synthesizer
b. Modulator
c. Mixer
d. Booster
336. A phase modulator has Kp= 2 rad/V. What RMS
voltage of a sine wave would cause a peak phase deviation
of 30 degrees?
a. 0.158 V
b. 0.185 V
c. 0.518 V
d. 0.815 V
337. In a phase-locked loop, VCO stands for
a. Variable capacitor oscillator
b. Varactor-capacitor oscillator
c. Voltage-controlled oscillator
d. VHF control oscillator
338. Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will result in
a. Distortion
b. Diagonal clipping
c. Phase reversal
d. Amplitude damage
339. An AM transmitter supplies a 10 kW of carrier power to
a 50 ohm load. It operates at a carrier frequency of 1.2 MHz
and is 85% modulated by a 3 MHz sine wave. Calculate the
RMS voltage of the signal.
a. 825 W
b. 262. 61 V
c. 1166.7 V

d. 825 V
340. What will be the total sideband power of the AM
transmitting station whose carrier power is 1200W and a
modulation of 95%?
a. 270.75 W
b. 900 watts
c. 1.8 kW
d. 542 W
341. Which among the following is capable of generating
frequency conversion?
a. Balanced modulator
b. Low-Q LC Circuit
c. Transmitter
d. Circulator
342. The most commonly used AM demodulator
a. Envelope detector
b. PLL
c. Mixer
d. Balanced modulator
343. Which is a disadvantage of direct FM generation?
a. The need for an AFC circuit
b. The need for an AGC circuit
c. Two balanced modulators are used
d. The use of Class A amplifier which is very inefficient
344. Frequency division is useful in the implementation of
a/an
a. AM demodulator
b. Frequency synthesizer
c. AGC circuit
d. FM demodulator
345. A particular synthesizer which contains only a single
crystal is
a. Direct
b. Crystal-modulated
c. Indirect
d. Exact
346. Type of emission most affected by selective fading
a. FM and DSB AM
b. SSB and TV
c. CCTV and CW
d. CW and SSB
347. Which major element will not be found in every
superheterodyne receiver?
a. RF amplifier
b. IF amplifier
c. LO
d. Mixer
348. A system uses a deviation of 100 kHz and a
modulating frequency of 15 kHz. What is the approximate
bandwidth?
a. 115 kHz
b. 230 kHz
c. 170 kHz

d. 340 kHz
349. A quadrature detector requires that
a. The inputs are coherent
b. Four gates are provided
c. The inputs are in phase
d. The inputs are similar
350. What is the power in one sideband of an AM signal
whose carrier power is 300 W, with 80 percent modulation?
a. 396 W
b. Zero
c. 48 W
d. 96 W
351. Determine the resonant frequency of a
series combination of a 0.001 microfarad capacitor and a 2
milihenry inductor.
a. 112.5 kHz
b. 35.59 kHz
c. 1125.4 MHz
d. 3.26 MHz
352. Which of the following is not a typical part of every
radio transmitter?
a. Carrier oscillator
b. Driver amplifier
c. Mixer
d. Final power amplifier
353. What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance
of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
a. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance
b. Approximately equal to XL
c. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
d. Approximately equal to XC
354. What are the three major oscillator circuits often used
in radio equipment?
a. Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback
b. Colpitts, Hartley, and Taft
c. Taft, Hartley, and Pierce
d. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce
355. How is a positive feedback coupled to the input in a
Hartley oscillator?
a. Through a neutralizing capacitor
b. Through a capacitive divider
c. Through a link coupling
d. Through a tapped coil
356. How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a
Colpitts oscillator?
a. Through a tapped coil
b. Trough link coupling
c. Through a capacitive divider
d. Through a neutralizing capacitor
357. How is a positive feedback coupled to the input in a
Pierce oscillator?
a. Through a tapped coil
b. Trough link coupling

c. Through a capacitive divider

d. Through a neutralizing capacitor
358. Which of the three major oscillator circuits used in
radio equipment utilizes a quartz crystal?
a. Negative feedback
b. Hartley
c. Colpitts
d. Pierce
359. What is the piezoelectric effect?
a. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a
voltage
b. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of
a magnetic field
c. The generation of electrical energy by the application of
light
d. Reversed conduction states when pn-junction is exposed
to light
360. What is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator?
a. It is easy to neutralize
b. It doesnt require an LC tank circuit
c. It can be tuned over a wide range
d. It has high output power
361. Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a
VFO?
a. Pierce
b. Colpitts
c. Hartley
d. Negative feedback
362. Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in
a VFO?
a. The frequency is a linear function of the load impedance
b. It can be used with or without crystal lock-in
c. It is stable
d. It has high output power
363. How is the efficiency of a power amplifier determined?
a. Efficiency = (RF power out / dc power in) x 100%
b. Efficiency = (RF power in / RF power out) x 100%
c. Efficiency = (RF power in / dc power in) x 100%
d. Efficiency = (dc power in / RF power in) x 100%
364. For reasonably efficient operation of a transistor
amplifier, what should be the load resistance be with 12
volts at the collector and a 5 watts power output?
a. 100.3 ohms
b. 14.4 ohms
c. 10.3 ohms
d. 144 ohms
365. What order of Q is required by a tank circuit sufficient
to reduce harmonics to an acceptable level?
a. Approximately 120
b. Approximately 12
c. Approximately 1200
d. Approximately 1.2
366. What is the flywheel effect?

a. The continued motion of a radio wave through space

when the transmitter is turned off
b. The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC circuit
c. The use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter rectified
AC
d. The transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by
several hops through the ionosphere
367. How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a
power amplifier?
a. By tuning for maximum SWR
b. By tuning for maximum power output
c. By neutralization
d. By tuning the output
368. If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no other
changes, this is known as
a. Frequency multiplication
b. Sideband movement
c. Baseband orientation
d. Frequency translation
369. A device which is capable of causing frequency
translation
a. High-Q tank circuit
b. Balanced modulator
c. Low-Q tank circuit
d. IF strip
370. If the frequency of each component in a signal
spectrum is increased by the same fixed amount, this is
known as
a. Up conversion
b. Demodulation
c. Frequency translation
d. Both a and c
371. A particular amplifier is designed to be a frequency
doubler. If the input signal frequency is 15.4 MHz, a circuit
in the output will be tuned to
a. 7.7 MHz
b. 15.4 MHz
c. 30.8 MHz
d. 61.6 MHz
372. Any device to be used as a frequency multiplier must
be
a. Active
b. Passive
c. Linear
d. Nonlinear
373. A particular amplifier circuit used for frequency
coupling is known as
a. Push-push
b. Push-pull
c. Pull-push
d. Pull-pull
374. Frequency division is useful in the implementation of a
a. AM demodulation

b. Frequency synthesizer
c. FM demodulator
d. AGC circuit
375. Indirect frequency synthesizers will include
a. phase-locked loop
b. voltage-controlled oscillators
c. multiple bank crystals
d. both A and B
376. A particular frequency synthesizer contains only a
single crystal. What words describe this synthesizer?
a. Crystal modulated
b. Inexact
c. Indirect
d. Deficient
377. A recognizable feature of a CW transmitter is
a. Keyed transmitter
b. Power amplification
c. Frequency generation
d. All of the above
378. The term pulling refers to
a. The change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading
b. One-half cycle operation of a push-pull amplifier
c. Loading on the transmitter caused by the antenna
connection
d. Reduction of the power supply terminal voltage as the
transmitter is keyed
379. An AM broadcast transmitter in the multi-kilowatt
operating range will have what form of final amplifier?
a. Solid-state devices
b. Vacuum tubes
c. Travelling wave tubes
d. Both a and b
380. In a broadcast station, the AGC is referred to as
a. Automatic gain control limiter
b. Compression amplifier
c. Loudness controller
d. All of the above
381. Class C amplifiers are not used in which type of
transmitter?
a. AM
b. SSB
c. CW
d. FM
382. A circuit that isolates the carrier oscillator from load
changes is called a
a. Final amplifier
b. Driver amplifier
c. Linear amplifier
d. Buffer amplifier
383. Bias for class c amplifier produced by an input RC
network is known as
a. Signal bias
b. Self-bias

c. Fixed external bias

d. Threshold bias
384. Collector current in a class C amplifier is
a. Sine wave
b. Half-sine wave
c. Pulse
d. Square wave
385. Neutralizing is the process of
a. Cancelling the effect of internal device capacitance
b. Bypassing undesired alternating current
c. Reducing gain
d. Eliminating harmonics
386. In an AM transmitter, a clipper circuit eliminates
a. Harmonics
b. Splatter
c. Over-deviation
d. Excessive gain
387. The final power amplifier in an FM transmitter usually
operates class
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
388. A transistor RF power amplifier can be tuned for
a. Minimum IC in the next stage
b. Zero signal in the next stage
c. Minimum IC in the same stage
d. Maximum IC in the same stage
389. The purpose of a balanced modulator circuit is to
eliminate the
a. Carrier
b. Upper sideband
c. Lower sideband
d. Baseband signal
390. A frequency multiplier circuit
a. Operates class A
b. Is tuned to a harmonic of the input signal
c. Needs parasitic oscillations
d. Is usually pulse modulated
391. An IF transformer of a radio receiver operates at 456
kHz. The primary circuit has a Q of 50 and the secondary
has a Q of 40. Find the bandwidth using the optimum
coupling factor.
a. 10.192 kHz
b. 15.288 kHz
c. 152.88 kHz
d. 101.92 kHz
392. A varactor has a maximum capacitance of 80pF and is
used in a tuned circuit with a 100 microhenry inductor. Find
the tuning voltage necessary for the circuit to resonate at
twice its resonant frequency with no tuning voltage applied.
a. 5 V
b. 2.5 V

c. 7.5 V
d. 4.25 V
393. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free-running
frequency of 14 MHz. As the frequency of the reference
input is gradually raised from zero, the loop locks at 12
MHz and comes out of lock again at 18 MHz. Calculate the
capture range.
a. 4 MHz
b. 2 MHz
c. 12 MHz
d. 8 MHz
394. If the frequency fed to the pre-amplifier of a basic
transmitter with multipliers is composed of a pair of triplers
and a doubler is 198 MHz, what frequency should the
oscillator operate?
a. 11 MHz
b. 33 MHz
c. 22 MHz
d. 66 MHz
395. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free running
frequency of 14 MHz. As the frequency of the reference
input is gradually raised from zero, the loop locks at 12
MHZ and comes out of lock again at 18 MHz. Calculate the
lock range.
a. 4 MHz
b. 2 MHz
c. 12 MHz
d. 8 MHz
396. A crystal oscillator is accurate within 0.0005%. How far
off frequency could its output be at 37 MHz?
a. 135 Hz
b. 150 Hz
c. 185 Hz
d. 224 Hz
397. A transmitter has a carrier power output of 10 W at an
efficiency of 80%. How much power must be supplied by
the modulating amplifier for 100% modulation?
a. 6.25 W
b. 7.14 W
c. 12.5 W
d. 14.3 W
398. A transmitter operates from a 16 V supply, with a
collector current of 2 A. The modulation transformer has a
turns ratio of 4:1. What is the load impedance seen by the
audio amplifier?
a. 96 ohms
b. 128 ohms
c. 6 ohms
d. 8 ohms
399. A collector-modulated class C amplifier has a carrier
output power of 150 W and an efficiency of 80%. Calculate
the transistor power dissipation with 100% modulation.
a. 93. 75 W

b. 120 W
c. 64 W
d. 56. 25 W
400. An AM transmitter is required to produce 20 W of
carrier power when operating from a 25 V supply. What is
the required load impedance as seen from the collector?
a. 15.625 ohms
b. 22.5 ohms
c. 11.25 ohms
d. 31.25 ohms
401. What is receiver desensitizing?
a. A burst of noise when the squelch is set to low
b. A burst of noise when the squelch is set to high
c. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong
signal on a nearby frequency
d. A reduction in receiver sensitivity is turned down
402. What is the term used to refer to the reduction of
receiver gain caused by the signals of a nearby station
transmitting in the same frequency band?
a. Desensitizing
b. Quieting
c. Cross-modulation interference
d. Squelch gain roll back
403. What is the term used to refer to a reduction in
receiver
sensitivity
caused
by
unwanted
highlevel adjacent channel signals?
a. Intermodulation distortion
b. Quieting
c. Desensitizing
d. Overloading
404. How can receiver desensitizing be reduced?
a. Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and
receiver
b. Increase the transmitter audio gain
c. Decrease the receiver squelch gain
d. Increase the receiver bandwidth
405. What is cross-modulation interference?
a. Interference between two transmitters of different
modulation types
b. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver
preamp
c. Decrease the receiver squelch gain
d. Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition
to the desired signal
406. What is the term used to refer to the condition where
the signals from a very strong station are super imposed on
the other signals being received?
a. Intermodulation distortion
b. Cross-modulation interference
c. Receiver quieting
d. Capture effect
407. How can cross-modulation in a receiver be reduced?
a. By installing a filter at the receiver

b. By using a better antenna

c. By increasing the receivers RF gain while decreasing the
AF gain
d. By adjusting the passband tuning
408. What is the result of cross-modulation?
a. Decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals
b. Receiver quieting
c. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the
desired signal
d. Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier
409. What is the capture effect?
a. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM
receiver
b. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM
receiver
c. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated
signal
d. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated
signal
410. What is a product detector?
a. A detector that provides local oscillator for input to the
mixer
b.
A
detector
that
amplifies
and
narrows
the bandpass frequencies
c. A detector that uses mixing process with a locally
generated carrier
d. A detector used to detect cross-modulation products
411. What is the term used to refer to the reception
blockage of one FM-phone signal?
a. Desensitization
b. Cross-modulation interference
c. Capture effect
d. Frequency discrimination
412. What is the process of detection?
a. The process of masking out the intelligence on a
received carrier to make an S-meter operational
b. The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF
signal
c. The modulation of a carrier
d. The mixing of noise with the received signal
413. What is the principle of detection in a diode detector?
a. Rectification and filtering of RF
b. Breakdown of the Zener voltage
c. Mixing with the noise in the transition region of the diode
d. The change of reactance in the diode with respect to
frequency
414. How are FM phone signals detected?
a. By a balanced modulator
b. By a frequency discriminator
c. By a product detector
d. By a phase splitter
415. What is the mixing process?
a. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase

comparison
b. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase
differentiation
c. Distortion caused by aural propagation
d. The combination of the two signals to produce sum and
difference frequencies
416. What is a frequency discriminator?
a. A circuit for detecting FM signals
b. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
c. An automatic band switching circuit
d. An FM generator
417. What are the principal frequencies which appear at the
output of a mixer circuit?
a. Two and four times the original frequency
b. The sum, difference and square root of the input
frequencies
c. The original frequencies and the sum and difference
frequencies
d. 1.414 and 0.707 times the frequency
418. What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount
of signal energy reaches the mixer circuit?
a. Spurious mixer products are generated
b. Mixer blanking occurs
c. Automatic limiting occurs
d. A beat frequency is generated
419. How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier
stage of a receiver?
a. As much as possible short of self oscillation
b. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise
generated in the first mixer
c. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of
the first mixer stage
d. It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage
420. Why should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver only
have sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome
noise generated in the first mixer stage?
a. To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from
being generated
b. To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal
c. To prevent generation of spurious mixer products
d. To prevent bleed-trough of the local oscillator
421. What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a
receiver?
a. To provide most of the receiver gain
b. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC
c. To improve the receivers noise figure
d. To develop the AGC voltage
422. What is an IF amplifier stage?
a. A fixed-tuned passband amplifier
b. A receiver demodulator
c. A receiver filter
d. A buffer oscillator
423. What factors should be considered when selecting an

intermediate frequency?
a. A cross-modulation distortion and interference
b. Interference to other services
c. Image rejection and selectivity
d. Noise figure and distortion
424. What is the primary purpose of the first IF amplifier
stage in a receiver?
a. A noise figure performance
b. Tune out cross-modulation distortion
c. Dynamic response
d. Selectivity
425. What is the primary purpose of the final IF amplifier
stage in a receiver?
a. Dynamic response
b. Gain
c. Noise figure performance
d. Bypass undesired signals
426. Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its
noise figure?
a. The audio stage
b. The IF stage
c. The RF stage
d. The local oscillator
427. What is meant by the term noise figure in a
communications receiver?
a. The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna
b. The relative strength of a strength of a received signal 3
kHz removed from the carrier frequency
c. The level of noise generated in the front end and
succeeding stages of a receiver
d. The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at
frequencies close to the desired one
428. The ability of a communications receiver to perform
well in the presence of strong signals outside the band of
interest is indicated by what parameter?
a. Noise figure
b. Blocking dynamic range
c. Signal-to-noise ratio
d. Audio output
429. What type problems are caused by poor dynamic
range in a communications receiver?
a. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and
desensitization from strong adjacent signals
b. Oscillator instability requiring frequent returning, and loss
of ability to recover the opposite sideband should it be
transmitted
c. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient
audio power to operate the speaker
d. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but
the strongest signal received signals
430. What is the term for the ratio between the largest
tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum discernible
signal?

a. Intermodulation distortion
b. Noise floor
c. Noise figure
d. Dynamic range
431. What occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter
bandwidth is used in the IF stage of a receiver?
a. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
b. Output-offset overshoot
c. Cross-modulation distortion
d. Filter ringing
432. How can selectivity be achieved in the front and
circuitry of a communications receiver?
a. By using an audio filter
b. By using a pre-selector
c. By using an additional RF amplifier stage
d. By using an additional IF amplifier stage
433. How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF
section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal?
a. Filter bandwidth should be slightly greater than the
received signal bandwidth
b. Filter bandwidth should be approximately half the
received signal bandwidth
c. Filter bandwidth should be approximately two times the
received signal bandwidth
d. Filter bandwidth should be approximately four times the
received signal bandwidth
434. How can receiver selectivity be achieved in the IF
circuitry of a communications receiver?
a. Incorporate a means of varying the supply voltage to the
local oscillator circuitry
b. Replace the standard JFET mixer with a bipolar
transistor followed by a capacitor of the proper value
c. Remove AGC action from the IF stage and confine it to
the audio stage only
d. Incorporate a high-Q filter
435. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.6 microvolts and a
blocking dynamic range of 60 dB. What is the strongest
signal that can be present along with a 0.6 microvolt signal
without blocking taking place
a. 600 millivolts
b. 600 microvolts
c. 300 millivolts
d. 300 mircovolts
436. An AM receiver is tuned to broadcast station at 600
kHz. Calculate the image rejection in dB assuming that the
input filter consists of one tuned circuit with a Q of 40?
a. 19.28 dB
b. 39.65 dB
c. 38.57 dB
d. 19.83 dB
437. A receiver has two uncoupled tuned circuits before the
mixer, each with a Q of 75. The signal frequency is 100.1
MHz. The IF is 10.7 Mhz. The local oscillator uses high-side

injection. Calculate the image rejection ratio.

a. 23.69 dB
b. 58.66 dB
c. 29.33 dB
d. 11.84 dB
438. What oscillator frequency is needed to heterodyne 626
kHz up to 3.58 MHz?
a. 2.954 MHz
b. 4.832 MHz
c. 4.210 MHz
d. 2.328 MHz
439. What is the undesirable effect of using too wide a filter
bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
a. Output-offset overshoot
b. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
c. Thermal noise distortion
d. Filter ringing
440. What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a
communications receiver?
a. the noise floor of the receiver
b. the power supply output ripple
c. the two-tone intermodulation distorting
d. the input impedance to the detector
441. What parameter must be selected when designing an
audio filter using an op-amp?
a. Bandwidth characteristics
b. Desired current gain
c. Temperature coefficient
d. Output-offset overshoot
442. What two factors determine the sensitivity of a
receiver?
a. Dynamic range and third-order intercept
b. Cost and availability
c. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range
d. Bandwidth and noise figure
443. How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be
prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
a. Restrict both gain and Q
b. Restrict gain, but increase Q
c. Restrict Q but increase gain
d. Increase both gain and Q
444. What is meant by the dynamic range of a
communications receiver?
a. The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest
frequency to which the receiver can be tuned
b. The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the
receiver referenced to one milliwatt
c. The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and
the largest tolerable signal without causing audible
distortion products
d. The difference between the lowest frequency signal
detectable without moving the tuning knob
445. Where is the noise which primarily determines the

signal-to-noise ratio in a VHF (150 MHz) marine band

receiver generated?
a. In the receiver front end
b. Man-made noise
c. In the atmosphere
d. In the ionosphere
446. An AM receiver uses a diode detector for
demodulation. This enables it satisfactorily to receive
a. Single-sideband, suppressed carrier (J3E)
b. Single-sideband, reduced carrier (R3E)
c. ISB(B8E)
d. Single-sideband, full carrier (H3E)
447. Three-point tracking is achieved with
a. Variable selectivity
b. The padder capacitor
c. Double spotting
d. Double conversion
448. A receiver has poor IF selectivity. It will therefore also
have poor
a. Blocking
b. Double-spotting
c. Diversity reception
d. Sensitivity
449. If a FET is used as the first AF amplifier in a transistor
receiver, this will have the effect of
a. Gain variation over the frequency coverage range
b. Insufficient gain and selectivity
c. Inadequate selectivity at high frequencies
d. Instability
450. The image frequency of a superheterodyne receiver
a. Is created within the receiver itself
b. Is due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection
c. Is not rejected by the IF tuned circuits
d. Is independent of the frequency to which receiver is
tuned
451. The process of impressing a low frequency
information signals onto a high-frequency carrier signal is
called _____.
a. demodulation
b. oscillation
c. modulation
d. amplification
452. A silicon varactor diode exhibits a capacitance of
200pF at zero bias. If it is in parallel with a 60pF capacitor and a 200-uH inductor, calculate the range of
resonant frequency as the diode varies through a reverse
bias of 3 to 15V.
a. 679 kHz to 2.13 MHz
b. 966 kHz to 1.15 MHz
c. 355 kHz to 3.12 MHz
d. 143 kHz to 4.53 MHz
453. A process where the received signal is transformed

into its original form.

a. demodulation
b. damping
c. amplification
d. oscillation
454. It is the process of changing the amplitude of a relative
high frequency carrier signal in proportion with the
instantaneous value of the modulating signal.
a. frequency modulation
b. digital modulation
c. phase modulation
d. analog modulation
455. Most of the power in an AM signal is in the
a. carrier
b. upper sideband
c. lower sideband
d. modulating signal
456. Amplitude modulation is the same as
a. linear mixing
b. analog multiplexing
c. signal summation
d. multiplexing
457. The shape of the amplitude-modulated wave is called
______.
a. sidebands
b. modulating signal
c. envelope
d. carrier signal
458. In a diode modulator, the negative half of the AM wave
is supplied by
a. tuned circuit
b. transformer
c. capacitor
d. inductor
459. It is a term used to describe the amount of amplitude
change present in an AM waveform.
a. coefficient of modulation
b. modulation index
c. depth of modulation
d. any of these
460. When the modulation index in an AM wave is greater
than one it will cause _______.
a. buck-shot
b. splatter
c. overmodulation
d. any of these
461. The ideal value of modulation index in AM.
a. 1
b. 0
c. 100
d. infinity
462. When the amplitude of the information in an AM
modulator is equal to zero, what is the value of the

modulation index?
a. 1
b. 0
c. 100
d. infinity
463. Amplitude modulation can be produced by
a. having the carrier vary a resistance
b. having the modulating signal vary a capacitance
c. varying the carrier frequency
d. varying the gain of the amplifier
464. When the modulation index is equal to zero, the total
transmitted power is equal to ________.
a. one of the sidebands
b. carrier
c. double sidebands
d. an AM wave
465. When the modulation takes place prior to the output
element of the final stage of the transmitter, prior to the
collector of the output transistor in a transistorized
transmitter, this is called ______.
a. high-level modulation
b. low-level modulation
c. zero-modulation
d. constant modulation
466. A circuit that monitors the received signal level and
sends a signal back to the RF and IF amplifiers to adjust
their gain automatically.
a. automatic phase control
b. automatic gain control
c. automatic frequency control
d. automatic volume control
467. When the modulation takes place in the final element
of the final stage where the carrier signal is at its maximum
amplitude, it is called _____.
a. constant modulation
b. zero-modulation
c. low-level modulation
d. high-level modulation
468. If a superheterodyne receiver is tuned to a desired
signal at 1000kHz and its conversion (local) oscillator is
operating at 1300kHz, what would be the frequency of an
incoming signal that would possibly cause image
reception?
a. 1600 kHz
b. 2300 kHz
c. 1250 kHz
d. 3420 kHz
469. When modulation requires a much higher amplitude
modulating signal to achieve a reasonable percent
modulation, this is called
a. high-level modulation
b. low-level modulation
c. zero-modulation

d. constant modulation
470. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude
with the modulating signal by passing it through an
attenuator work on principle of
a. rectification
b. resonance
c. variable resistance
d. absorption
471. A circuit which function is to raise the amplitude of the
source signal to a usable level while producing minimum
nonlinear distortion adding as little thermal noise as
possible.
a. power amplifier
b. non-linear amplifier
c. buffer amplifier
d. preamplifier
472. A circuit that has a low-gain, high-input impedance
linear amplifier which is used to isolate the oscillator from
the high-power amplifiers.
a. power amplifier
b. bandpass filter
c. signal driver
d. buffer amplifier
473. With high-level transmitters, which of the following is
not a primary function of the modulator circuit?
a. it provides the capacity necessary for modulation to
occur
b. it serves as a final amplifier
c. it serves as a frequency up-converter
d. it serves as a mixer
474. It is a form of amplitude distortion introduced
when positive and negative alternations in the AM
modulated signal are not equal.
a. phase shift
b. carrier shift
c. amplitude variations
d. frequency shift
475. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine
waves with modulation indices of 0.3 and 0.4, the total
modulation index
a. is 1
b. cannot be calculated unless the phase relations are
known
c. is 0.5
d. is 0.7
476. The component used to produce AM AT very high
frequencies is a
a. varactor
b. thermistor
c. cavity resonator
d. PIN diode
477. It is also known as upward modulation
a. carrier shift

b. amplitude variations
c. frequency shift
d. phase shift
478. Also known as downward modulation
a. carrier shift
b. amplitude variations
c. frequency shift
d. phase shift
479. It is a form of amplitude modulation where signals from
two separate information sources modulate the same
carrier frequency at the same time without interfering with
each other.
a. QPSK
b. QUAM
c. PSK
d. FSK
480. A receiver has a dynamic range of 81 dB. It has
0.55nW sensitivity. Determine the maximum allowable input
signal.
a. 59 mW
b. 69 mW
c. 79 mW
d. 88 mW
481. The information sources modulate the same carrier
after it has been separated into two carrier signals are at 90
degrees out of phase with each other.
a. QPSK
b. QUAM
c. PSK
d. FSK
482. Demodulating quadrature AM signal requires a carrier
recovery circuit to reproduce the original carrier frequency
and phase and two balanced modulators to actually
demodulate the signals. This is called ________.
a. asynchronous detection
b. quadrature demodulation
c. synchronous detection
d. quadrature detection
483. Quadrature amplitude modulation is also known as
________.
a. phase division multiplexing
b. phase division modulation
c. phase amplitude multiplexing
d. phase angle modulation
484. Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage
or power amplitude is known as
a. high-level modulation
b. low-level modulation
c. collector modulation
d. minimum modulation
485. It is the first stage of the receiver and is therefore often
called the receiver front end.
a. mixer

b. RF section
c. local oscillator
d. IF stage
486. In an SSB transmitter, one is most likely to find a
a. class C audio amplifier
b. tuned modulator
c. class B RF amplifier
d. class A RF output amplifier
487. The section of the receiver than down-converts the
received RF frequencies to intermediate frequencies.
a. RF section
b. local oscillator
c. power amplifier
d. mixer
488. The circuit that demodulates the AM wave and
converts it to the original information signal.
a. power amplifier
b. local oscillator
c. detector
d. IF section
489. A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48 V.
The peak-to-peak amplitude of the modulating signal for
100 percent modulation is
a. 24 V
b. 48 V
c. 96 V
d. 120 V
490. What signals might feed into an FM broadcast station
audio control console?
a. microphones
b. turntables
c. remote lines
d. any of these
491. The noise reduction ratio achieved by reducing the
bandwidth is called
a. dynamic range
b. noise figure
c. bandwidth efficiency
d. bandwidth improvement
492. It is the minimum RF signal level that can be detected
at the input to the receiver and still produce a usable
demodulated information signal.
a. selectivity
b. sensitivity
c. Q-factor
d. bandwidth
493. For ideal AM, which of the following is true
a. m = 0
b. m = 1
c. m < 1
d. m > 1
494. Why are limiters used in FM receivers?
a. provide better noise performance

b. clip noise peaks

c. prevent overdrive of discriminators
d. any of these
495. Why are limiters used in FM transmitters?
a. clip noise peaks
b. prevent overdrive of discriminators
c. prevent overdeviation
d. any of these
496. It is defined as the difference in decibels between the
minimum input level necessary to discern the signal and the
input level that will overdrive the receiver and produce
distortion.
a. dynamic range
b. noise figure
c. bandwidth efficiency
d. bandwidth improvement
497. It is the input power range over which the receiver is
useful.
a. dynamic range
b. noise figure
c. bandwidth efficiency
d. bandwidth improvement
498. It is defined as the output power when the RF amplifier
response is 1-dB less than the ideal linear gain response.
a. 1-dB compression point
b. 1-dB threshold point
c. 1-dB shoot-off point
d. 1-dB pinch-off point
499. It is the measure of the ability of a communications
system to produce, at the output of the receiver, an exact
replica of the original source information.
a. sensitivity
b. threshold
c. selectivity
d. fidelity
500. A SSB signal generated around a 200-kHz carrier.
Before filtering, the upper and lower sidebands are
separated by 200 Hz. Calculate the filter Q required to
obtain 40-dB suppression.
a. 1500
b. 1900
c. 2500
d. 2000
301. DSB
302. PIN diode
303. D
304. Sidebands
305. 3
306. Demodulation
307. mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a carrier
308. A modulator that produces a DSBSC signal
309. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to
produce FM signals
310. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter

311. By modulating the plate voltage of a class C amplifier

312. N
313. Mechanical filter
314. 0.799
315. 30 kHz
316. 10450 watts
317. Period
318. Modulation index
319. MF
320. Independent sideband emission
321. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with
reactance modulator on the oscillator
322. 50%
323. In terms of peak envelope power
324. FM/TV stereo
325. Baseband frequency
326. F3E
327. Type of information to be transmitted
328. 500 W
329. Foster-Seeley discriminator
330. 11 W
331. Indirect
332. Maximum frequency swing to the highest modulating
frequency
333. 0.8246
334. 0.10 milliwatts
335. Mixer
336. 0.185 V
337. Voltage-controlled oscillator
338. Distortion
339. 825 V
340. 542 W
341. Balanced modulator
342. Envelope detector
343. The need for an AFC circuit
344. Frequency synthesizer
345. Indirect
346. FM and DSB AM
347. RF amplifier
348. 230 kHz
349. The inputs are coherent
350. 48 W
351. 112.5 kHz
352. Mixer
353. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance
354. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce
355. Through a tapped coil
356. Through a capacitive divider
357. Through a neutralizing capacitor
358. Colpitts
359. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a
voltage
360. It doesnt require an LC tank circuit
361. Colpitts
362. It is stable
363. Efficiency = (RF power out / dc power in) x 100%
364. 14.4 ohms
365. Approximately 12
366. The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC circuit
367. By neutralization

368. Frequency translation

369. Balanced modulator
370. Both a and c
371. 30.8 MHz
372. Nonlinear
373. Push-push
374. Frequency synthesizer
375. both A and B
376. Indirect
377. All of the above
378. The change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading
379. Both a and b
380. All of the above
381. SSB
382. Buffer amplifier
383. Signal bias
384. Pulse
385. Cancelling the effect of internal device capacitance
386. Splatter
387. Class C
388. Minimum IC in the same stage
389. Carrier
390. Is tuned to a harmonic of the input signal
391. 15.288 kHz
392. 7.5 V
393. 4 MHz
394. 11 MHz
395. 8 MHz
396. 185 Hz
397. 6.25 W
398. 128 ohms
399. 56. 25 W
400. 15.625 ohms
401. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal
on a nearby frequency
402. Desensitizing
403. Quieting
404. Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and
receiver
405. Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to
the desired signal
406. Cross-modulation interference
407. By installing a filter at the receiver
408. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired
signal
409. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal
410. A detector that uses mixing process with a locally generated
carrier
411. Capture effect
412. The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal
413. Rectification and filtering of RF
414. By a frequency discriminator
415. The combination of the two signals to produce sum and
difference frequencies
416. A circuit for detecting FM signals
417. The original frequencies and the sum and difference
frequencies
418. Spurious mixer products are generated
419. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise
generated in the first mixer

420. To prevent generation of spurious mixer products

421. To improve the receivers noise figure
422. A fixed-tuned passband amplifier
423. A cross-modulation distortion and interference
424. Selectivity
425. Gain
426. The RF stage
427. The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding
stages of a receiver
428. Blocking dynamic range
429. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization
from strong adjacent signals
430. Dynamic range
431. Filter ringing
432. By using a pre-selector
433. Filter bandwidth should be slightly greater than the received
signal bandwidth
434. Incorporate a high-Q filter
435. 600 microvolts
436. 38.57 dB
437. 29.33 dB
438. 2.954 MHz
439. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
440. the noise floor of the receiver
441. Bandwidth characteristics
442. Bandwidth and noise figure
443. Restrict both gain and Q
444. The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the
largest tolerable signal without causing audible distortion products
445. In the receiver front end
446. Single-sideband, full carrier (H3E)
447. The padder capacitor
448. Blocking
449. Insufficient gain and selectivity
450. Is not rejected by the IF tuned circuits
451. modulation
452. 966 kHz to 1.15 MHz
453. demodulation
454. analog modulation
455. carrier
456. linear mixing
457. envelope
458. tuned circuit
459. any of these
460. any of these
461. 1
462. 0
463. varying the gain of the amplifier
464. carrier
465. low-level modulation
466. automatic gain control
467. high-level modulation
468. 1600 kHz
469. high-level modulation
470. variable resistance
471. preamplifier
472. buffer amplifier
473. it serves as a mixer
474. carrier shift
475. is 0.5

476. PIN diode

477. carrier shift
478. carrier shift
479. QUAM
480. 69 mW
481. QUAM
482. quadrature detection
483. phase division multiplexing
484. low-level modulation
485. RF section

486. class A RF output amplifier

487. mixer
488. detector
489. 96 V
490. any of these
491. bandwidth improvement
492. sensitivity
493. m = 1
494. any of these
495. prevent overdeviation

496. dynamic range

497. dynamic range
498. 1-dB compression point
499. fidelity
500. 2500