MATERNAL AND CHILD CARE NURSING

1. The clitoris is homologous to which of the following male structure?

A. Penis
B. Scrotum

C. Gubemaculus testis
D. Corpus cavernosa

2. In the male, the primary reason for testes to be descended is to

A. Rapidly squeeze sperm for their storage site into the urethra
B. Release an alkaline fluid that helps provide an environment favourable for sperm motility
and metabolism
C. Promote sexual arousal during intercourse
D. Maintain a temperature lower than that of the body to ensure spermatogenesis
3. The portion of the uterus that has a significant characteristic to stretch during vaginal birth is
the
A. Corpus
C. Cervix
B. Fundus
D. Internal os
th
4. Up until the end of the 7 week, what term is used to describe the product of conception?
A. Zygote
C. Fetus
B. Embryo
D. Conceptus
5. A client arrives at a prenatal clinic for the first prenatal assessment. The client tells a nurse
that the first day of her menstrual period was August 9, 2015. Using the Naegeles rule, the
nurse determines the estimated date of delivery as:
A. May 16, 2016
C. May 20, 2016
B. June 12, 2016
D. April 15, 2016
6. The LMP is August 9, what is the AOG if the date of consultation is November 24?
A. 14-15 weeks
C. 15-17 weeks
B. 15-16 weeks
D. 12 weeks
7. A nurse is collecting data during an admission assessment of a client who is pregnant with
twins. The client has a health 5-year old child and tells the nurse that she does not have a
history of any type of abortion or fetal demise. The nurse would document which gravida and
para status of the client?
A. Gravida III, Para II
C. Gravida I, Para I
B. Gravida II, Para II
D. Gravida II, Para I
8. A physician prescribed transvaginal ultrasonography for a woman in the first trimester of
pregnancy. The woman asked the nurse about the procedure. The nurse accurately provides
which of the following information to the client?
A. The procedure takes about 2 hours
B. Transmission gel is spread over the abdomen and transducer will be moved over the
abdomen to obtain the picture
C. It will be necessary to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water prior to the examination
D. The transvaginal probe encased in a disposable cover and coated with gel is inserted into
the vagina
9. A maternity client calls a clinic and tells a nurse that she is experiencing leg cramps and is
awakened by the cramps at night. To provide relief from the leg cramp, the nurse tells the
client to:
A. Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur
B. Dorsiflex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occur
C. Plantar flex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occur
D. Plantar flex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur

10.A clinic nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client regarding measures that will
assist in alleviating heartburn. Which statement if made by the client indicates an
understanding of the measure to alleviate heartburns?
A. I should lie down for an hour after eating
B. I should avoid between-meals snacks
C. I should substitute spices for cooking rather than using salt
D. I should avoid eating gas-producing foods and fatty foods
11.A non-stress test is prescribed for a pregnant client and the client asks the nurse about the
procedure. The nurse tells the client that
A. The test is an invasive procedure and requires that an informed consent be signed
B. The test will take 2 hours and will require close monitoring for 2 hours after the procedure
is completed
C. An ultrasound transducer that records fetal heart activity is secure over the abdomen
where the fetal heart is heard most clearly
D. The fetus is challenged or stressed by uterine contractions to obtain necessary information
12.A nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client who is scheduled for an amniocentesis.
The nurse tells the client that
A. A fever is suspected following the procedure because of the trauma in the abdomen
B. Strict bed rest is required following the procedure
C. An informed consent will need to be signed prior to the procedure
D. Hospitalization is necessary for 24 hours following the procedure
13.A multigravida tells the nurse that her husband has been expecting nausea and vomiting and
backaches that are similar to the patients discomfort during the pregnancy. The nurse should
explain to the patient that this is termed:
A. Neurosis
C. Mimicry
B. Psychosis
D. Couvades
E.
F.
SITUATION : Knowledge of the menstrual cycle is important in maternal health nursing. The
following questions pertains to the process of menstruation
14.Menarche occurs during the pubertal period, Which of the following occurs first in the
development of female sex characteristics?
A. Menarche
B. Accelerated Linear Growth

C. Breast development
D. Growth of pubic hair

15.Which gland is responsible for initiating the menstrual cycle?

A. Ovaries
B. Anterior Pituitary Gland

C. Posterior Pituitary Gland

D. Hypothalamus

16.The hormone that stimulates the ovaries to produce estrogen is

A. Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone
B. Luteinizing hormone

C. Luteinizing hormone releasing

hormone
D. Follicle stimulating hormone

17.Which hormone stimulates oocyte maturation?

A. Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone
B. Luteinizing hormone

C. Luteinizing hormone releasing

hormone
D. Follicle stimulating hormone

18.To correctly determine the day of ovulation, the nurse must

A. Deduct 14 days at the mid of the cycle

B. Subtract two weeks at cycle's end

C. Add 7 days from mid of the cycle

D. Add 14 days from the end of the cycle

19.In a 32 day menstrual cycle, ovulation usually occurs on the

A. 14th day after menstruation
B. 18th day after menstruation

C. 20th day after menstruation

D. 24th day after menstruation

20.The serum progesterone is lowest during what day of the menstrual cycle?
A. 3rd day
B. 13th day

C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle

21.How much blood is loss on the average during menstrual period?

A. Half cup (120cc)
B. 4 tablespoons (60cc)

C. 3 ounces (90cc)
D. 1/3 cup (80cc)

22.Menstruation occurs because of which following mechanism?

A. Increase level of estrogen and
progesterone
B. Degeneration of the corpus luteum

C. Increase vascularity of the

endothelium
D. Surge of hormone progesterone

23.If the menstrual cycle of a woman is 35 day cycle, she will approximately
A. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day
cycle
B. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 21th day
cycle
C. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day
cycle
D. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 14th day to the 30th day
cycle
24.
25.
SITUATION: Nurses should be aware of the different reproductive problems.
26.A factor in infertility maybe related to the PH of the vaginal canal. A medication that is
ordered to alter the vaginal PH is:
A. Estrogen therapy
B. Sulfur insufflations

of her
of her
of her
of her

C. Lactic acid douches

D. Na HCO3 Douches

27.A diagnostic test used to evaluate fertility is the postcoital test. It is best timed
A. 1 week after ovulation
B. Immediately after menses
C. Just before the next menstrual period

D. Within 1 to 2 days of presumed

ovulation

28.When is the fetal weight gain greatest?

A. 1st trimester
B. 2nd trimester
C. 3rd trimester

D. from 4th week up to 16th week of

pregnancy

29.The nurse is caring for a woman in labor. The woman is irritable, complains of nausea and
vomits and has heavier show. The membranes rupture. The nurse understands that this
indicates

A. The woman is in transition stage of labor

B. The woman is having a complication and the doctor should be notified
C. Labor is slowing down and the woman may need oxytocin
D. The woman is emotionally distraught and needs assistance in dealing with labor
30.
31.
SITUATION: Aling Julia, a 32 year old fish vendor from barangay malaybalay came to see
you at the prenatal clinic. She brought with her all her three children. Maye, 1 year 6 months;
Joy, 3 and Dan, 7 years old. She mentioned that she stopped taking oral contraceptives several
months ago and now suspects she is pregnant. She cannot remember her LMP.
32.Which of the following would be useful in calculating Aling Julia's EDC?
A. Appearance of linea negra
B. First FHT by fetoscope

C. Increase pulse rate

D. Presence of edema

33.Which hormone is necessary for a positive pregnancy test?

A. Progesterone
B. HCG

C. Estrogen
D. Placental Lactogen

34.With this pregnancy, Aling Julia is a

A. P3 G3
B. Primigravida

C. P3 G4
D. P0 G3

35. In explaining the development of her baby, you identified in chronological order of growth of
the fetus as it occurs in pregnancy as
A. Ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant
B. Zygote, ovum, embryo, fetus, infant

C. Ovum, zygote, embryo, fetus, infant

D. Zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant

36.When teaching Aling Julia about her pregnancy, you should include personal common
discomforts. Which of the following is an indication for prompt professional supervision?
A. Constipation and hemorrhoids
B. Backache

C. Facial edema
D. frequent urination

37.The best advise you can give to Aling Julia regarding prevention of varicosities is
A. Raise the legs while in upright position and put it against the wall several times a day
B. Lay flat for most hours of the day
C. Use garters with nylon stocking
D. Wear support hose
38.Placenta is the organ that provides exchange of nutrients and waste products between
mother and fetus. This develops by
A. First month
B. Third month

C. Fifth month
D. Seventh month

39.In evaluating the weight gain of Aling Julia, you know the minimum weight gain during
pregnancy is
A. 2 lbs/wk
B. 5 lbs/wk

C. 7 lbs/wk
D. 10 lbs/wk

40.This is use when rendering prenatal care in the rural health unit. It serves as a guide in
Identification of risk factors

A. Underfive clinic chart

B. Home based mother's record
C. Client list of mother under prenatal
care

D. Target list of woman under TT

vaccination

41.The schedule of prenatal visit in the RHU unit is

A. Once from 1st up to 8th month, weekly on the 9th month
B. Twice in 1st and second trimester, weekly on third trimester
C. Once in each trimester, more frequent for those at risk
D. Frequent as possible to determine the presence of FHT each week
42.
SITUATION: Katherine, a 32 year old primigravida at 39-40 weeks AOG was admitted to the
labor room due to hypogastric and lumbo-sacral pains. IE revealed a fully dilated, fully effaced
cervix. Station 0.
43. She is immediately transferred to the DR table. Which of the following conditions signify that
delivery is near?
44.I - A desire to defecate
45.II - Begins to bear down with uterine contraction
46.III - Perineum bulges
47.IV - Uterine contraction occur 2-3 minutes intervals at 50 seconds duration
A. I,II,III
C. I,III,IV
B. I,II,III,IV
D. II,III,IV
48.Artificial rupture of the membrane is done. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is the
priority?
A. High risk for infection related to membrane rupture
B. Potential for injury related to prolapse cord
C. Alteration in comfort related to increasing strength of uterine contraction
D. Anxiety related to unfamiliar procedure
49.Katherine complains of severe abdominal pain and back pain during contraction. Which two of
the following measures will be MOST effective in reducing pain?
50.I - Rubbing the back with a tennis ball
52.III-Imagery
51.II- Effleurage
53.IV-Breathing techniques
A. II,IV
C. I,IV
B. II,III
D. I,II
54.Lumbar epidural anesthesia is administered. Which of the following nursing responsibilities
should be done immediately following procedure?
A. Reposition from side to side
B. Administer oxygen

C. Increase IV fluid as indicated

D. Assess for maternal hypotension

E.
F.
SITUATION: Alpha, a 24 year old G4P3 at full term gestation is brought to the ER after a
gush of fluid passes through here vagina while doing her holiday shopping.
55. She is brought to the triage unit. The FHT is noted to be 114 bpm. Which of the following
actions should the nurse do first?
A. Monitor FHT ever 15 minutes
B. Administer oxygen inhalation

C. Ask the charge nurse to notify the

Obstetrician
D. Place her on the left lateral position

56.The nurse checks the perineum of alpha. Which of the following characteristic of the amniotic
fluid would cause an alarm to the nurse?

A. Greenish
B. Scantly

C. Colorless
D. Blood tinged

57.Alpha asks the nurse. "Why do I have to be on complete bed rest? I am not comfortable in this
position." Which of the following response of the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Keeping you on bed rest will prevent possible cord prolapse
B. Completed bed rest will prevent more amniotic fluid to escape
C. You need to save your energy so you will be strong enough to push later
D. Let us ask your obstetrician when she returns to check on you
58.Alpha wants to know how many fetal movements per hour is normal, the correct response is
A. Twice
B. Thrice

C. Four times
D. 10-12 times

59.Upon examination by the obstetrician, he charted that Alpha is in the early stage of labor.
Which of the following is true in this state?
A. Self-focused
B. Effacement is 100%

C. Last for 2 hours

D. Cervical dilation 1-3 cm

E.
SITUATION: Pillar is admitted to the hospital with the following signs: Contractions coming
every 10 minutes, lasting 30 seconds and causing little discomfort. Intact membranes without
any bloody show. Stable vital signs. FHR = 130bpm. Examination reveals cervix is 3 cm dilated
with vertex presenting at minus 1 station.
60.On the basis of the data provided above, You can conclude the pillar is in the
A. In false labor
B. In the active phase of labor

C. In the latent phase of labor

D. In the transitional phase of labor

61.Pitocin drip is started on Pilar. Possible side effects of pitocin administration include all of the
following except
A. Diuresis
B. Hypertension

C. Water intoxication
D. Cerebral hemorrhage

62.The normal range of FHR is approximately

A. 90 to 140 bpm
B. 120 to 160 bpm

C. 100 to 140 bpm

D. 140 to 180 bpm

63.A negative 1 [-1] station means that

A. Fetus is crowning
B. Fetus is floating

C. Fetus is engaged
D. Fetus is at the ischial spine

64.Which of the following is characteristics of false labor

A. Bloody show
B. Contraction that are regular and increase in frequency and duration
C. Contraction are felt in the back and radiates towards the abdomen
D. None of the above
65.Which sign would alert the nurse that Pillar is entering the second stage of labor?
A. Increase frequency and intensity of contraction
B. Perineum bulges and anal orifice dilates
C. Effacement of internal OS is 100%
D. Vulva encircles the largest diameter of presenting part
66.Nursing care during the second stage of labor should include

A.
B.
C.
D.

Careful evaluation of prenatal history

Coach breathing, Bear down with each contraction and encourage patient.
Shave the perineum
Administer enema to the patient

67.
68.
SITUATION: Baby G, a 6 hours old newborn is admitted to the NICU because of low APGAR
Score. His mother had a prolonged second stage of labor
69.Which of the following is the most important concept associated with all high risk newborn?
A. Support the high-risk newborn's cardiopulmonary adaptation by maintaining adequate
airway
B. Identify complications with early intervention in the high risk newborn to reduce morbidity
and mortality
C. Assess the high risk newborn for any physical complications that will assist the parent with
bonding
D. Support mother and significant others in their request toward adaptation to the high risk
newborn
70.Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in a newborn with birth asphyxia?
A. Hyperoxemia
B. Acidosis

C. Hypocapnia
D. Ketosis

71.When planning and implementing care for the newborn that has been successfully
resuscitated, which of the following would be important to assess?
A. Muscle flaccidity
B. Hypoglycemia

C. Decreased intracranial pressure

D. Spontaneous respiration

E.
F.
SITUATION : Baby boy perez was delivered spontaneously following a term pregnancy.
Apgar scores are 8 and 9 respectively. Routine procedures are carried out.
72.When is the APGAR Score taken?
A. Immediately after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
B. At 5 minutes after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
C. At 1 minute after birth and at 5 minutes after birth
D. Immediately after birth and at 5 minutes after birth
73.The best way to position a newborn during the first week of life is to lay him
A. Prone with head slightly elevated
B. On his back, flat
C. On his side with his head flat on bed

D. On his back with head slightly

elevated

74.Baby boy perez has large sebaceous glands on his nose, chin, and forehead. These are known
as
A. Milia
B. Lanugo

C. Hemangiomas
D. Mongolian spots

75.Baby boy perez must be carefully observed for the first 24 hours for
A. Respiratory distress
B. Duration of cry

C. Frequency of voiding
D. Range in body temperature

E.