ELECTRICAL MULTI_CHOICE

1.

The purpose of spill valve is to control the cabin:(a) Air temperature.

(b) Differential pressure.
(c) Mass of air. *

2.

Temperature limits are placed on the cabin ventilation system to:(a) Control the temperature within the limits of 60o to 800 F.
(b) Prevent damage to the ventilation system.*
(c) Allow the system to operate in cold climates.

3.

Which cabin ventilation requires heat to be added:(a) Engine air bleed supply.
(b) Compressor supplies.
(c) Ram air supply. *

4.

The air cycle machine (air conditioning pack) uses:(a) Ram air for cooling.*
(b) Engine compressor air for cooling.
(c) Compressor air for cooling

5.

The temperature control valve control the:(a) Air temperature entering the ACM.
(b) Amount of engine air bleed.
(c) Air temperature leaving the ACM.*

6.

Pressurization of a public transport aircraft is required as a result of the:(a) Lack of oxygen above 10,000 ft.*
(b) Lack of nitrogen above 10,000 ft.
(c) Reduction in temperature in the troposphere.

7.

when the pressure in an aircraft cabin is greater than ambient, the differential
pressure is:(a) positive.*
(b) negative.
(c) At its maximum.

8.

The outflow valve is normally controlled by the:(a) Mass flow controller.

(b) Duct pressure relief valve.
(c) Pressure controller.*

9.

An increase in cabin height will cause the cabin pressure to:(a) Decrease.*
(b) Increase.
(c) Remain consistent.

10. As a pressurized aircraft descends from cruising altitude, the cabin height:(a) Decrease.*
(b) Increase.
(c) Remain constant.
11. When a pressurization check is being C/O on an aircraft on the ground, the cabin
altimeter will:(a) Blow airport altitude.*
(b) Above airport altitude.
(c) Airport altitude.
12. Pack valve is control by:(a) Pneumatic.
(b) Electrical.*
(c) Manual.
13. Pack trip/overheat light will illuminate:(a) Open circuit.
(b) Shout circuit.*
(c) No air flow.
14. Air condition in auto-control on the aircraft:(a) Sensor resistance reduces when temperature increases.
(b) Sensor resistance increase when temperature increase.*
15. If pilot report that the bleed air duct over-temp light remains on when bleed air
valve is in close position, it caused by:(a) Sensor opens circuit.
(b) Air duct leak.
(c) Sensor short circuit.*
16. If the ACM outlet temp indicator pointer read full scale high, it caused by:(a) Open circuit of ACM outlet temp sensor.*
(b) Shot circuit of ACM outlet temp sensor.
(c) Air leak.
17. The pack Trip light cannot be reset during on ground, if:(a) TBV out of ground positioning.*
(b) Air leak.
(c) Open circuit of pack discharge temp-sensor.
18. If pack temperature demand signal is reducing, the compressor discharge
temperature:(a) Increase.
(b) Decrease.*
(c) No change.
19. Increasing a cell plate area will:(a) Increase the voltage.
(b) Increase the current.
(c) Increase the capacity.*

20. To obtain a supply of 24v 60AH, cannot two:(a) 24v 30AH batteries in series.
(b) 12v 30AH batteries in series.
(c) 24v 30AH batteries in parallel.*
21. The normal voltage of charged lead acid cell is:(a) 1.8v.
(b) 2.0v
(c) 2.2v.*
22. The relative density of a discharged lead acid cell is:(a) 1.260.
(b) 1.200.
(c) 1.150. * (If charged lead cell is 1.260.)
23. As a lead acid cell discharges its relative density:(a) Increase.
(b) Decreases. *
(c) Remains constant.
24. The vent in a lead acid cell is:(a) Leak proof. * ( unconformable )
(b) Sealed.
(c) Completely open.
25. The electrolyte in a lead acid cell is:(a) Sulphuric acid.
(b) A solution of sulphuric acid. *
(c) Bicarbonate of soda.
26. The nominal voltage of a Ni /Cd cell is:(a) 2.2v.
(b) 2.0v.
(c) 1.2v. *
27. The relative density of the electrolyte in a Ni/Cd cell during the charge cycle:(a) Increase.
(b) Does not change. *
(c) Decrease.
28. To determine the true charge state of a Ni/Cd cell:(a) A measured discharge test is C/O. *
(b) The voltage on load is checked.
(c) Its temperature must be checked.
29. Ni/Cd batteries are used in preference to load acid batteries because they have:(a) Higher capacity.
(b) Consistent voltage during discharge.*
(c) More voltage per cell.

30. The electrolyte in a Ni/Cd cell is a solution of:(a) Potassium hydroxide. *

(b) Chromic acetic.
(c) Nickel hydroxide.
31. The Ni/Cd cell cap:(a) Is the fully open type.
(b) Prevent the air contaminating the electrolyte. *
(c) Uses the same principle as the lead acid cell- cap.
32. Dur4ing the discharge cycle of a Ni/Cd cell the electrolyte level:(a) Rises.
(b) Does not change.
(c) Fall. *
33. The discharged voltage of a Ni/Cd cell is:(a) 1.8v.
(b) 1.2v
(c) 1.0v. *
34. The RD of the electrolyte in Ni/Cd cell is:(a) 1.30.
(b) 1.20.
(c) stated in manufacture instructions. *
35. Thermal runaway occurs:(a) During the discharge cycle.
(b) During the charge cycle. *
(c) Only on old batteries.
36. One method of preventing thermal runaway is to:(a) Use unless number of cells in a battery.
(b) Control the charging current. *
(c) Increase the electrolyte level.
37. A sign of thermal runaway is:(a) High loss of electrolyte from cell. *
(b) High voltage.
(c) Low cell temperature.
38. The Ni/Cd cell gas barrier can be damaged by:(a) Overcharging current charging. *
(b) Using constant current charging.
(c) Leaving it in a discharged state.
39. Temperature correction for RD is:(a) +0.003 for every 4o below 15oC.
(b) +0.003 for every 4o above 15oC. *
(c) +0.003 for every 2.5oC above 15oC.
40. Spilt Ni/Cd electrolyte is neutralized by:-

(a)
(b)
(c)

Bicarbonate of soda.
Boric acid. *
Caustic potash.

41. A battery rated at 15AH at the 1-hour rate on capacity check is discharged at 15
amps, and takes 54 min to discharge. The capacity is:(a) 54% *
(b) 90%
(c) 111%
42. When mixing L/A (lead acid ) electrolyte always add:(a) Acid to H2O. *
(b) H2O to acid.
(c) Either a. or b. provided that it is done slowly.
43. Ampere hour is a function of:(a) Amps X volts.
(b) Amps X min.
(c) Amps X hour. *
44. To Measure the RD of an electrolyte use a:(a) Thermometer.
(b) Hydrometer. *
(c) Manometer.
45. The LEAK TESTER is used on:(a) Ni/Cd battery.
(b) Lead Acid. *
(c) Both.
46. The battery capacity test is done by monitoring:(a) The discharge characteristic. *
(b) The charge characteristic.
(c) Both.
47. Prior to charging a lead acid battery the cell vent plugs are:(a) Removed from the battery.
(b) Unscrewed but left in the vent hole. *
(c) Not unscrewed, they have gas holes.
48. If, during the charge of a lead acid battery the current was NOT adjusted it:(a) Decrease. *
(b) Increase.
(c) Remain constant.
49. On completion of a capacity test the battery is:(a) Given an insulation test.
(b) Prepared for service.
(c) Charged. *
50. The purpose of a battery insulation test is to determine the insulation between:-

(a)
(b)
(c)

Positive and negative terminals.

Metal plate and the metal case of battery.
Electrolyte and metal plate. *

51. A lead acid battery is stored in:(a) A fully charged condition. *

(b) A discharged condition.
(c) Either charged or discharged condition.
52. A Ni/Cd battery is stored in:(a) A fully charged condition.
(b) A discharged condition. *
(c) Either charged or discharged condition.
53. The white powder in a Ni/Cd battery is an indication of:(a) Undercharging.
(b) Overcharging. *
(c) Normal for this type of battery.
54. The type of voltmeter used in the Ni/Cd battery workshop is a:(a) Moving coil voltmeter
(b) Moving iron voltmeter.
(c) Digital voltmeter. *
55. The Ni/Cd cell shorting circuit is connected during the:(a) Discharge when the cell reaches zero volts. *
(b) Charge when the cell voltage is below 1.0 volts.
(c) Capacity test when the cell voltage reaches 1.0 volts.
56. The Ni/Cd cell will gas furiously during:(a) Overcharge. *
(b) Charge.
(c) Discharge.
57. During a capacity check a Ni/Cd battery fails to reach 80% capacity:(a) The battery is rejected for further A/C service.
(b) A voltage recovery check is C/O.
(c) A cell balancing cycle is C/O. *
58. Ni/Cd battery stored ready for service are:(a) Recharged every three months.
(b) Trickle charged. *
(c) Deep discharged.
59. The A/C battery is:(a) Only charged in the battery workshop.
(b) Charged on the A/C using D.C. power. *
(c) Charged on the A/C using AC power.
60. An A/C 24v L/A battery voltage is 22 volts and the battery:(a) Can be charged using ground power.

(b)
(c)

Can be charged using main generator power.

Must be changed. *

61. During the battery load check the voltage will be expected to:(a) Fall slightly. *
(b) Rise slightly.
(c) Remain constant.
62. A/C batteries are:(a) Never connected in parallel.
(b) May be connected in parallel on some A/C. *
(c) Always connected in series.
63. The battery venting system is t:(a) Cooling the battery. *
(b) Carry the gases out of the A/C.
(c) Supply the battery with O2.
64. The battery electrolyte level check is C/O:(a) In situ on A/C.
(b) Never on the A/C. *
(c) Either on or off the A/C.
65. The life of an A/C battery is:(a) 3 months.
(b) 2 years.
(c) Until it fails its capacity test. *
66. In the event of failure of the generation system the battery will maintain essential
services for:(a) Thirty-min max.
(b) Thirty min minim. *
(c) The duration of the flight.
67. High temperature to be undercharged.
(a) Cause the battery to be undercharged.
(b) Cause the battery to be overcharged. *
(c) Have no effect on the charging.
68. On the A/C the L/A battery is normally charged with:(a) Constant current.
(b) Constant voltage. *
(c) Pulsed current.
69. When the battery voltage is higher than the battery charger voltage: (a) The battery will discharge through the charger.
(b) The charger will charge the battery.
(c) No current will flow between the charger and the battery. *
70. The Ni/Cd battery:(a) is a direct replacement for an UA battery.

(b)
(c)

can only replace an L/A battery if it has the same capacity.

requires an approved modification to replace an UA battery.*

71. When cleaning the cell links on an Ni/Cd battery a

(a) wire brush should be used.
(b) bristle brush should be used. *
(c) Solvent should be used.
72. The battery charger normally charges the battery with:(a) a constant current *
(b) a constant voltage.
(c) either a constant voltage or current.
73. The Ni/Cd battery capacity test is CIO:(a) every 3 months
(b) only when the battery fails to maintains its charge.
(c) at the periods stated in the AMS. *
74. The AIC d. c. generator voltage is controlled using the: (a) speed of the generator.
(b) field strength. *
(c) armature current.
75. Prior to start the engine the contacts of the vibrating contacts type voltage
regulator are: (a) closed. *
(b) open.
(c) vibrating.
76. prior to starting the engine the carbon pile of the carbon pile voltage regulator is:(a) fully compressed. *
(b) half compressed.
(c) released.
77. The carbon pile in the carbon pile voltage regulator is connected in (a) parallel
(b) parallel.
(c) series with the generator field. *
78. The transistor voltage regulator operates vats:(a) pulse control. *
(b) variable load current.
(c) vibrating contacts.
79. The ballast resistor in the carbon pile voltage regulator is selected to: (a) stabilizes the voltage during transient conditions.
(b) oppose any movement of the carbon pile.
(c) set the correct ampere-turns in the voltage coil. *
80. The D.C. generator main contractor is welded closed. The fault indication is:(a) the generator failure warning light illuminates.

(b)
(c)

the generator Annette reading is high.

the A/C engine continues to rotate when shut down. *

81. The d, c. generator switch directly controls the: (a) generator field.
(b) generator contractor. *
(c) generator warning light
82. The differential cutout contacts are closed using the
(a) voltage coil only. *
(b) current coil only.
(c) both.
83. The indication of a short circuit in the remote ammeter shunt is that the
(a) generator fails to come on line.
(b) generator failure warning light remains on.
(c) generator operates normally and the ammeter reads zero. *
84. With a rising generator voltage in a D.C. generation system the:(a) under-volt relay(pilot relay) closes before the differential relay. *
(b) differential relay closed before the under-volt replay.
(c) under-volt relay and the differential relay operate independently.
85. In a D.C. generation system the differential cut-out contacts are closed using:(a) the differential coil only. *
(b) the series coil only.
(c) both the differential and series coils.
86. In a D.C. generation system, when reversed current flow is first sensed, the initial
action is for the
87. In our D.C. generation system the over volt condition is sensed by monitoring the
(a) voltage. (b) of the field. *
(c) of the generator output.
(d) difference between the generator and the main bus bar.
88. An over volt condition in a D.C. generation system will:(a) open the generator contractor, the high voltage is now isolated from the
main bus bar.
(b) open the generator contractor and the under volt relay.
(c) de-excite the generator. *
89. The D.C. generator differential cut-out coil senses, the difference of voltage
between the generator output and the main bus bar only when the: (a) generator contractor is closed.
(b) generator contractor is open.
(c) under volt relay is closed. *
90. The D.C. generator failure warning light remains illuminated while the generator
(a) voltage is 28 volts. A probable cause could be that -

(b)
(c)

the generator field is open circuit. The under volt relay has failed to close.
*
an over voltage condition has been sensed.

91. The equalizing coil in the carbon pile voltage regulator:

(a) is connected in series with the carbon pile.
(b) is connected in series with the voltage coil.
(c) modifies the effect of the voltage-sensing coil. *
92. Load sharing in a D.C. generation system is achieved by changing the:(a) generator field circuit resistance. *
(b) generator's compensating winding resistance.
(c) current flow through the voltage sensing coils.
93. Equalization in a D.C. generation system equalizes the generators' outputs in
terms of (a) power. *
(b) voltage.
(c) current.
94. The voltage used to circulate the equalizing current is approximately:
(a) 2.0 volts.
(b) 0.75 volts
(c) 0.05 volts. *
95. In a parallel D.C. generation system with only one generator on line, the number
of generators connected to the star point is:(a) none.
(b) one. *
(c) all.
96. D.C. generators are rated by:(a) HP (Horse Power)
(b) W (Watts) *
(c) kVA (kilo Volts Amps)
97. The rotational speed of the D.C. generator is:(a) related to the engine speed. *
(b) Relevant to the aircraft speed.
(c) Almost constant at any engine or aircraft speed.
98. With
by: (a)
(b)
(c)

a vibrating contact type voltage regulator, overload protection is achieved

limiting the field current. *
reducing the applied loads.
increasing the frequency of the voltage regulator contacts.

99. The POR in a generation system is the point of connection for the.(a) generator positive connection
(b) voltage regulator voltage coil. *
(c) main bus bar to generator output.

100. Flashing the field of a D.C. generator is only carried out with the generator:(a) on line.
(b) off line. *
(c) stationary.
101. The equalizing circuit is required for:(a) single generation system.
(b) multi generation systems. *
(c) both single and multi generation systems.
102. If compound D.C. generators are operated in parallel they must:(a) all rotate at the same speed.
(b) use an equalizing or load sharing loop. *
(c) all use the same voltage regulator.
103. The expected speed range of a D.C. generator is(a) 1000 to 2000 r.p.m.
(b) 5000 to 9000 r.p.m. *
(c) 18000 to 2000 r.p.m.
104. With the voltage regulator in sited:(a) voltage trimming may be C/0. *
(b) a damage carbon pile may be changed
(c) the core gap may be adjusted.
105. The equalizing coil in the carbon pile voltage regulator:(a) is connected in series with the carbon pile.
(b) is connected in series with the voltage coil.
(c) modifies the effect of the voltage coil. *
106. The ballast resistor adjustment in the carbon pile voltage regulator is used to:(a) set the correct ampere turns in the voltage coil. *
(b) compensate for the remote trimmer resistor.
(c) stabilize the voltage control.
107. Prior
be: (a)
(b)
(c)

to making in situ trimming adjustments to a voltage regulator it must first

allow to cool down.
at normal operating temperature. *
removed from the AIC.

108. The differential cutout closed using the(a) differential coil . *

(b) series coil.
(c) both.
109. The differential cutout opens using the (a) differential coil.
(b) series coil. *
(c) both.

110. When level compound d.c. generators are operated in parallel they must all:(a) rotate in the same direction and at the same speed.
(b) use the same voltage regulator.
(c) use an equalizing or load sharing loop. *
111. During load sharing adjustments on a D.C. generation system:(a) the A/C 's ammeters are used.
(b) the A/C 's voltage is used.
(c) a first grade voltage is used. *
112. Load sharing adjustments are C/0 on a d. c. generation system with: (a) .one generator at a time on load. *
(b) all generators at once on load.
(c) all generators at once off load.
113. The minimum insulation resistance you would accept for a 28v d.c. generator is(a) 0.2 M ohm. *
(b) 5 M ohm
(c) 2,0 K ohm.
114. In a d. c . generation system, the normal range of the voltage trimmer is: (a) 10 volts.
(b) 6 volts.
(c) 3 volts. *
115. Soldered particles are found in a D.C. generator during routine maintenance:(a) blow out the particles using clean dry compressed air.
(b) C/0 a function CKD of the system.
(c) change the generator. *
116. On a D.C. generation system voltage adjustment is C/0 with(a) one generator at a time off load. *
(b) one generator at a time on load.
(c) all generators on load.
117. On a D.C. generation system load sharing is CKD:(a) one generator at a time off load.
(b) one generator at a time on load.
(c) all generators on load. *
118. An open circuit voltage coil in a carbon pile voltage regulator will cause the
voltage initially to: (a) decrease to 2 volts.
(b) remain at a constant 28 volts.
(c) increase into an over volt condition. *
119. The ground power unit should be connected: (a) with the A/C ground power switch selected on.
(b) with the unit already switched on.
(c) the full length of cable away from the A/C. *

120. In the standard d. c. ground power plug the small pin prevents: (a) reverse polarity being connected to the A/C.
(b) arcing of the main pins. *
(c) the simultaneous connection of the external power and the main battery to
the same bus bar.
121. Prior to disconnecting the external power from the A/C.
(a) always switch on the main battery.
(b) ensure that the main battery is fully charged.
(c) switch the external power off. *
122. The ground power interlock circuit prevents:(a) the main battery being charged by the external power. *
(b) over charging of the main battery.
(c) the A/C moving with the ground power still connected to the A/C.
123. The A/C circuit that does not have to be protected against reversed polarity is
the(a) battery charging circuit.
(b) lighting circuits.
(c) electrical starting system. *
124. In a D.C. motor the armature current flow is:(a) d. c.
(b) a. c. *
(c) constant direction but varying amplitude.
125. In a D.C. motor reversing the field connections and the air nature(commentator)
connections the motor Val:(a) rotate in the original direction. *
(b) rotate in the opposite direction at a slower speed.
(c) rotate in the opposite direction at a faster speed.
126. The purpose of a commentator in a d. c. motor is to: (a) prevent the armature current reversing.
(b) reverse the armature current. *
(c) reduce reactive sparking.
127. Which of the following is a correct statement(a) effective volts = back E.M.F - apply volts.
(b) effective volts = apply volts - back E.M.F. *
(c) effective volts = back E.M.F.+ apply volts.
128. In a D.C. motor the N4NA position is normally: (a) in line with the GNA.
(b) in the direction of rotation.
(c) against the direction of rotation. *
129. Reactive sparking in a d. c. motor will occur if the brushes are positioned on: (a) the GNA. *

(b)
(c)

the MNA.
on either the MNA or the GNA.

130. Decreasing the armature current in a D.C. motor will:(a) increase the speed.
(b) decrease the speed. *
(c) not change the speed.
131. Copper losses in a d. c. motor are caused by. (a) high magnetic reluctance circuit.
(b) high resistance field vending. *
(c) copper bearings.
132. To obtain an induced emf.(a) only the conductor is moved in a magnetic field.
(b) only the magnetic field is moved across a stationary conductor.
(c) the conductor and the magnetic field are moved relative to each other. *
133. The rotational speed of a basic D.C. generator is increased, the output volts will:(a) remain constant.
(b) decrease.
(c) increase. *
134. Fleming 's left hand rule is used with:(a) generators.
(b) motor. *
(c) both.
135. Decreasing the field current of a D.C., generator will: (a) decrease the output voltage. *
(b) decrease the rotational speed.
(c) increase the rotational speed.
136. The purpose of the commentator in a degeneration is to:(a) reduce reactive sparking.
(b) convert the D.C. supply to a rotating a.c. current.
(c) convert the generated a.c. to a rectified D.C. supply. *
137. The electrical load on a D.C. generator is increased to maintain the original
rotational speed the prime mover's torque will:(a) increase. *
(b) decrease.
(c) remain constant
138. In a D.C. generator with armature reaction the MNA moves:(a) against the direction of rotation.
(b) with the direction of rotation. *
(c) with the GNA(as in the d. c. motor
139. Increasing the number of armature conductors in a D.C. generator will:(a) produce a sine wave form output.

(b)
(c)

increase the induced emf *

reduce the output voltage.

140. Compensating windings in either a d.c. motor or D.C.- generator early!(a) field current.
(b) armature current. *
(c) load current.
141. In a D.C. machine eddy currents occur in:(a) the armature only.
(b) the field pole pieces only.
(c) in both of them. *
142. One method used to reduce eddy currents is to use:(a) interpoles.
(b) compensating windings.
(c) laminated construction. *
143. Each commutator segment in a D.C. machine has. (a) one coil connection.
(b) two cod connections. *
(c) three coil connections.
144. During rotating the armature windings in a d. c. machine remain in place due to: (a) centrifugal force.
(b) a wedge and strapping around the armature. *
(c) the field's magnetic strength.
145. A brush spring 's purpose is to
(a) make electrical contact with the brush.
(b) make electrical contact with the commutator.
(c) maintain the brush in electrical contact with the commutator. *
146. The brush in a D.C. machine:(a) never wear down as they are constructed of carbon.
(b) will wear down with service. *
(c) are constructed of the same material as the commutator.
147. The lap wound armature is used for (a) low current circuits.
(b) high current circuits. *
(c) high voltage circuits.
148. A lap wound 8 main pole D.C. machine requires a mins of(a) two brushes.
(b) four brushes.
(c) eight brushes. *
149. The wave wound armature is used for:(a) high current circuits.
(b) high voltage circuits. *

(c)

low voltage circuits.

150. A wave wound 8 main poles D.C., machine requires a Nina of (a) 2 brushes.
(b) 4 brushes.
(c) 8 brushes.
151. A 4 poles D.C. machine turns one revolution, this is equivalent to moving:(a) 1 pole pitch.
(b) 2 pole pitches.
(c) 4 pole pitches. *
152. In a D.C. machine the polarity of an interlope is the same polarity as:(a) the last main pole in a D.C. motor.
(b) the last main pole in a d. c. generator.
(c) the next main pole in a d. c. motor and generator. .*
153. compensating windings in d.c. machines are located on the:(a) armature.
(b) main pole pieces. *
(c) interlope pieces.
154. In an A/C generator, the highest temperature due to copper losses will occur:(a) in the armature. *
(b) in the field.
(c) equal in both.
155. D.C. machine that are continuously rated:(a) may be operated continually with the required cooling. *
(b) may only be operated for short periods.
(c) are only used for emergency conditions.
156. Armature torque is proportional to:(a) armature current only.
(b) field strength only.
(c) armature and field strength. *
157. Rotational speed of a D.C. motor is proportional to:(a) armature current only.
(b) field current.
(c) both. *
158. Increasing the voltage applied to the armature causes the rotational speed to:(a) increase. *
(b) decrease.
(c) remain the same, only the torque changes.
159. Reversing the supply to a permanent magnet field motor will cause it to:(a) reverse its rotation. *
(b) continue to rotate in the same direction.
(c) stop rotating.

160. Rotational speed of a D.C. motor may be controlled by:(a) the field resistance only.
(b) the armature resistance only.
(c) either the field resistance or the armature resistance. *
161. The D.C. shunt motor has (a) high armature resistance
(b) low starting torque. *
(c) a wide range of speed.
162. To decrease the rotational speed of a d.c shunt motor, the:(a) field resistance is decreased. *
(b) field resistance is increased.
(c) armature current is increased.
163. Increasing the load on a permanent magnet generator will:(a) reduce the terminal voltage by a large amount.
(b) reduce the terminal voltage by a small amount. *
(c) increase the terminal voltage by a small amount.
164. The separately excited generator voltage is:(a) independent of rotational speed.
(b) controlled by the load.
(c) controlled by the separate supply. *
165. The series wound generator 's terminal voltage will: (a) increase with an increase in load. *
(b) decrease with an increase in load.
(c) decrease with a decrease in rotational speed.
166. The shunt wound generator is normally started:(a) off load. *
(b) on load.
(c) either off or on load.
167. The shunt wound generator is controlled by a variable resistance in.(a) series with the armature.
(b) series with the field. *
(c) parallel with the armature.
168. In a cumulative compound wound generator the
(a) series and shunt fields oppose each other.
(b) series and shunt fields assist each other. *
(c) voltage falls suddenly with an increase in load.
169. Which generators are mainly used on AIC.:(a) series.
(b) shunt. *
(c) compound.

170. Increasing the speed of an A/C generator results in an automatic:(a) field circuit resistance increase. *
(b) field circuit resistance decrease.
(c) armature circuit resistance decrease.
171. In the shunt generator the field is supplied by: (a) a separate supply.
(b) the armature. *
(c) the load.
172. The shunt generator 's voltage falls on load due to the: (a) high resistance of the field.
(b) low resistance of the armature.
(c) armature voltage drop. *
173. The min. brush length is measured on (a) the longest side. *
(b) the shortest side.
(c) either the longest or shortest side.
174. A D.C. machine commutator is cleaned using:(a) paraffin.
(b) an abrasive material.
(c) lead free petroleum, *
175. The expected brush spring tension on a 6kw D.C. generator would be:(a) 28 kg - 36 kg,
(b) 28g-36g.
(c) 28oz - 36oz. *
176. Excessive brush spark is caused by:(a) positioning the brushes on the MNA.
(b) low brush spring tension. *
(c) the fitting of interpoles.
177. Running a D.C. generator on NO LOAD for long periods will cause:(a) little effect on the performance.
(b) excessive commutator sparking.
(c) the commutator to glaze over. *
178. The insulation check is carried out with the machine: (a) hot. *
(b) cold
(c) either hot or cold.
179. The min. insulation value allowed on a 28v D.C. machine is:(a) 2.0 M ohm.
(b) 0,2 M ohm.
(c) M ohm. *
180. An actuator is an electromechanical device comprising of -

(a)
(b)
(c)

a split field series winding a brake and is controlled by limit switches. *

a series d.c motor controlled by a brake.
an electromagnetic solenoid controlled by limit switches.

181. While an actuator is traveling the position of the limit switches are: (a) open switch is closed and closed switch is open.
(b) open switch is closed and closed switch is closed.
(c) open switch is open and closed switch is closed.
182. If an actuator brake coil is open circuit, the actuator will: (a) run at a reduced speed.
(b) over run the limit switches.
(c) not running. *
183. An A/C electrical actuator motor can be:(a) only a d. c. motor.
(b) only an a. c. motor.
(c) either a d. c. or an a. c. motor. *
184. To reverse a d. c. motor's rotation: (a) the supply is reversed.
(b) the field or the armature current is reversed. *
(c) both the field and the armature current is reversed.
185. The frequency of a synchronous alternator is always:(a) directly proportional to the rotational speed. *
(b) greater than the rotational speed.
(c) less than the rotational speed.
186. Which type of alternator is usually used in an A/C system: (a) induction type alternator.
(b) rotating field type alternator. *
(c) rotating armature type alternator.
187. With a rotating field type alternator the slip rings carry the:(a) field current. *
(b) a.c. output current.
(c) rectified a.c. output current.
188. Decreasing the field current in an alternator YAII:(a) decrease the output voltage. *
(b) increase the output voltage.
(c) increase the frequency.
189. An alternator has two pairs of rotating poles, if the output frequency is 400Hz,the
rotational speed is:(a) 120 r.p.m.
(b) 1200 r.p.m.
(c) 12000 r. p. m, *
190. A resistive load on alternator value -

(a)
(b)
(c)

reduce the output frequency. *

increase the output frequency.
increase the output voltage.

191. An inductive load on an alternator will (a) reduce the terminal voltage, *
(b) increase the terminal voltage.
(c) reduce the output frequency.
192. A starter rotating field applied to:(a) only synchronous motors.
(b) only induction motors.
(c) both. *
193. The expression SLIP applied to (a) only synchronous motors.
(b) only induction motors. *
(c) both.
194. Which type of motor does not employ a squirrel cage rotor for normal running:(a) synchronous motor. *
(b) induction motor.
(c) split phase induction motor.
195. To improve the starting torque of an a.c. inductive motor the,(a) rotor resistance is decreased.
(b) rotor power factor is increased. *
(c) rotor inductance is increased,
196. A single phase is disconnected from a three phase a.c. motor while running. It
will: (a) stop immediately.
(b) continue to run but fail to start from a stationary condition. *
(c) running at half speed.
197. In a synchronous motor the rotor is:(a) excited by D.C. *
(b) excited by a. c.
(c) self excited.
198. The different between synchronous speed and rotor speed is expressed:(a) in revolutions per minute.
(b) in hertz.
(c) as a percentage. *
199. Single phase induction motors (a) run at synchronous speed.
(b) required a starter circuit,
(c) are as efficient as a 20-induction motor. *
200. 200, A 3 0 motor with star point earth can have its direction of rotation reversed

by reversing any: (a) two connections.

(b) phase connection and the earth connection.
(c) two phase connections. *
201. An induction motor. (a) is in effect an a. c. generator in which a. c. is applied to the rotor.
(b) Is in effect an a.c. generator in which a.c. is applied to the rotor and stator.
(c) does not have its rotor connected to any external source of power. *
202. The difference between synchronous speed and rotor speed is called
(a) differential speed.
(b) loss .
(c) slip. *
203. In a synchronous a.c. motor the rotor is (a) energized by D.C. *
(b) energized by a.c.
(c) self excited and is not energized at all.
204. The terminal voltage of an a. c. generator decreases with an increase of resistive
load, this mainly due to the rotor: (a) reaction and reactance.
(b) reaction and resistance.
(c) reactance and resistance. *
205. Increasing the rotational speed of an a.c generator YAH:(a) decrease the output current.
(b) decrease the output voltage.
(c) increase the output frequency. *
206. The normal method of controlling an a.c. generator's voltage is to control the
generator's:(a) rotational speed.
(b) D.C. exciter current. *
(c) exciter current.
207. A basic a.c. synchronous motor.(a) cannot be self starting. *
(b) will always maintain a small amount of slip.
(c) cannot stall once at normal running speed.
208. Increasing the rotor resistance of an a.c. induction motor will (a) decrease the normal running speed. *
(b) increase the normal running speed.
(c) increase the normal running torque.
209. The brushless a.c. generator sues diodes mounted in the:(a) stator.
(b) rotor. *
(c) terminal connector box.

210. An a. c. generator's cooling utilizes: (a) oil.

(b) air .
(c) either oil or air. *
211. The use of laminations in the construction of electrical machines reduces the:
a.
weight.
b.
output,
c.
losses. *
212. The salient pole rotor is used in (a) the induction motor.
(b) The hystersis motor.
(c) The synchronous a.c. generator. *
213. A squirrel cage rotor will be found in (a) an induction motor. *
(b) a synchronous motor.
(c) a hystersis motor.
214. A three-phase induction motor will not start, it only growls when switched on. A
probable fault is (a) reversed connected on the stator.
(b) reversed connections on the rotor.
(c) a stator phase is open circuit. *
215. A constant frequency a. c. generator is driven directly by the: (a) engine.
(b) auxiliary gear box.
(c) constant speed drives unit. *
216. A C. S. D. or normal attached with (a) self locking bolts.
(b) a quick attach detach ring. *
(c) self locking screws.
217. An I.D.G. consists of (a) only gearing to supply a constant output.
(b) constant output speed and an a.c. generator. *
(c) an a.c. generator.
218. An APU a. c. generator system: (a) uses an identical CSD to the main engine CSD.
(b) uses a different type of CSD to the main engine CSD.
(c) does NOT use a CSD. *
219. One of the advantages of using a mechanical hydraulic CSD against a pure
hydraulic transmission CSD is that it: (a) achieves less heat generation. *
(b) achieves a higher output speed.

(c)

utilizes the accessory gear box oil.

220. The CSD/IDG governor speed control screw: (a) cannot be adjusted in situ.
(b) adjusts the generator's frequency. *
(c) adjusts the oil flow rate.
221. The electrical trim control fitted to a CSD speed governor is used to adjust the:(a) overspeed control.
(b) output speed.
(c) output torque. *
222. The temperature sensor fitted to the oil line prior to the external oil cooler senses:
(a) oil IN temperature.
(b) oil OUT temperature. *
(c) oil RISE temperature.
223. The CSD disconnect action can be reset:(a) in flight with engine at idle speed.
(b) on the ground with the engine at ground idle speed.
(c) on the ground with the engine stationary. *
224. During an insulation test on a 200 volts a.c. generator, the MIN. resistance is (a) 3M ohms. *
(b) 5M ohms.
(c) 5.OM ohms.
225. IN the a.c. brush type generator:(a) slip rings are used. *
(b) a commutator is used.
(c) nether slip ring nor a commentator is used.
226. In the a.c. brushless type generator the diodes are (a) mounted on the stator.
(b) mounted on the rotor. *
(c) connected in parallel with the output windings.
227. The output of an a. c. generator's permanent magnet generator(PMG) is used
within the generator control unit for (a) voltage sensing.
(b) differential protection.
(c) exciter field current. *
228. The a.c. generator's power is rated:(a) in kilowatts with a power factor.
(b) as a product of voltage and current with a power factor. *
(c) as a power factor.
229. In an a. c. parallel power system the NORMAL flight state of the bus tie
breakers.
(a) open.

(b)
(c)

closed.
closed only if there is a fault.

230. In an a. c. non-parallel power system the NORMAL flight state of the bus tie
breakers is:(a) open. *
(b) closed.
(c) open only if there is a fault.
231. Which of the following can be compatible for parallel purposes:(a) An APU generator and external power.
(b) A main generator and external power.
(c) An APU generator and main generator. *
232. In an a.c. power system, the power for the 28v D.C. buses is normally provided:(a) the A/C battery.
(b) a separate d.c generator. *
(c) transformer.
233. If the A/C generators are operating, ground power: (a) must not be parallel with the generator. *
(b) must not higher voltage than A/C voltage.
(c) must be able to shut down the generator.
234. An advantage of a star connected generation system over a delta system is that:(a) there are two potentials that can be used. *
(b) line voltage equals phase voltage. *
(c) a balanced load is guaranteed.
235. Current in an inductive circuit YAII:(a) increase with a decrease in frequency. *
(b) decrease with a decrease in frequency.
(c) be unaffected by frequency changes.
236. The CICR directly controls the (a) GCB.
(b) BTB.
(c) exciter field. *
237. Tripping the GCR will:(a) trip the GCB only.
(b) de-excite the generator only.
(c) both (a) and (b). *
238. Using a pulsed vadth voltage regulation system with an increase in generator
voltage the: (a) pulse vadth increases.
(b) pulse vadth decreases. *
(c) pulse frequency increases.
239. In a voltage regulation system the current compounding principle is.-

(a)
(b)
(c)

to reduce the total exciter field proportionally to the load current.

to increase the total exciter field proportionally to the load current. *
to increase the generator voltage proportionally to the load current.

240. The initials GCU stand for (a) generator circuit unit.
(b) generator control unit, *
(c) generator calibrator.
241. In a constant frequency a. c. system, the reactive load sharing is achieved by
regulating the:
(a) generator excitation. *
(b) generator drive torque,
(c) generator speed.
241. The magnetic trim coil of a CSD can modify the generator drive torque when the
generator is operating:(a) in parallel on the tie bus bar. *
(b) independently on its own bus bar.
(c) while the APU generator is supplying the bus bar.
242. Loss of the load controller signal to an IDG speed governor trim head would:(a) immediately cause the IDG to overspeed.
(b) automatically shut the IDG down.
(c) cause the IDG to revert to the basic governor setting.*
243. In a parallel a.c. generation systern, load sharing is for(a) real load only.
(b) reactive load only.
(c) real load and reactive load. *
244. The current in the active and reactive load sharing loops is:(a) D.C.
(b) a.c. *
(c) a pulsating d. c.
245. In a parallel a.c. generation system, the real load sharing is achieved by
controlling the (a) Generator Drive torque. *
(b) Generator Drive speed.
(c) Generator Excitation current.
246. The speed trim solenoid on a C SD is used to trim its speed: (a) when the generator is in a non-parallel operation.
(b) when the generator is in a parallel operation. *
(c) for the generator's reactive load sharing loop.
247. The load controller is used in the:(a) real load sharing loop. *
(b) reactive load sharing loop.
(c) voltage control circuit.

248. A mutual reactor is used in the: (a) speed trim circuit.

(b) real load sharing loop.
(c) reactive load sharing loop. *
249. The real load sharing loop between two generators is only active when both (a) GCBs are closed and BTBs are tripped.
(b) CrCBs are closed and BTBs are closed. *
(c) CiCBs are tripped and BTBs are closed.
250. A mutual reactor's output is mainly dependent on the generator's: (a) reactive load current. *
(b) active load current.
(c) exciter field current.
251. In an a. c. power system load shedding circuits are found: (a) only in parallel bus bar system.
(b) only in split bus bar system.
(c) in both parallel and split bus bar systems. *
252. After all generators have failed, the a.c. standby bus bar:(a) is shed.
(b) is NOT shed. *
(c) remains powered from the battery.
253. Load shedding will auto-reset if a generator:(a) is selected OFF and then ON again. *
(b) is overloaded.
(c) differential protection operates.
254. The initials ELCU stand for:(a) electrical load control unit. *
(b) electrical load circuit unit.
(c) electrical load circuit breaker unit.
255. Electrical load shedding can be:(a) orgy automatically operated.
(b) only manually.
(c) either automatic or manual. *
256. After an over volt condition in an a.c. generation system the GCB:(a) resets after the fault is removed.
(b) remains closed, the GCR is tripped.
(c) remains tripped. *
257. Over excitation protection applied to:(a) non-parallel a.c. generation systems only.
(b) parallel a.c. generation systems only. *
(c) either a non-parallel or a parallel a.c. generation system.

258. The GCU over frequency protection fails to operate for a faulty CSD speed
govenor, The result is (a) the generator overheats and bums out.
(b) the GCB trips due to high frequency.
(c) the CSD mechanically goes into the under speed mode. *
259. Differential protection monitors for:(a) feeder cable faults. *
(b) differences between generator voltages.
(c) differences between generator currents.
260. To operate a circuit with a current transformer secondary disconnected: (a) only half normal load current may be used.
(b) the circuit cannot be used.
(c) the secondary winding must be short circuited. *
261. the reactive load KVA is measured by the product of..(a) B phase current and B phase voltage.
(b) B line current and B phase voltage.
(c) B line current and A-C line voltage. *
262. The APU generator can normally be:(a) connected in parallel with the ground power.
(b) connected in parallel with the main generators.
(c) used during flight as a back up supply. *
263. The external ground power can be used for
(a) all normal services. *
(b) only the ground handling bus bar services.
(c) only emergency bus bar services.
264. The a.c. ground power is.(a) single phase a.c.
(b) two phase a. c.
(c) three phase a.c. *
265. When the ground power voltage is high the BPCU will: (a) open the EPC. *
(b) trim the applied voltage down.
(c) signal the ground power unit to lower voltage.
266. An illuminated ground power AVAIL light indicates that the: (a) EPC is open.
(b) EPC is closed.
(c) frequency is within limits. *
267. A rotary inverter is:(a) a D.C. motor driving an a.c. generator. *
(b) an a.c. motor driving a D.C. generator.
(c) an a.c. motor driving an a.c. generator.

268. Normally a static inverter is used to supply the vital a.c. bus bar:(a) under normal conditions,
(b) when battery voltage fails to 14v
(c) in an emergency. *
269. The output of a static inverter is
(a) only single phase.
(b) only three phase.
(c) either single or three phase. *
270. The voltage of a rotary inverter is high which action is C/0.
(a) C/0 in situ adjustment of voltage. *
(b) Replace inverter.
(c) C/0 our in situ adjustment of frequency.
271. The rotary inverter uses a.(a) d. Shunt motor.
(b) D.C. series motor.
(c) D.C. compound motor. *
272. the cooling of inverters applies to,
(a) Rotary inverters only.
(b) Static inverters only.
(c) Both static and rotary inverters.*
273. In a rotary inverters, a.c. voltage is controlled by:(a) a D.C. motor shunt field.
(b) an a.c. generator field. *
(c) the speed of the a.c. generator.
274. the a.c. output of static inverter is.(a) sinusoidal.
(b) not sinusoidal. *
(c) a square wave.
275. the purpose of the oscillator in a static inverter is to:(a) shape the a.c. output waveform.
(b) control the a.c. frequency. *
(c) prevent radio interference.
276. The electrical control panel is mounted:(a) in the main electrical equipment areanext to the GCUS.
(b) as close to the main generator as possible.
(c) on the flight deck. *
277. LRU stands for. (a) line repairable unit.
(b) line replaceable unit.
(c) line routable unit.
278. Which of the following is a passive fault: -

(a)
(b)
(c)

over voltage. *
under voltage
under speed,

279. The CSD or IDG speed governor setting is:(a) adjusted with engine stationary. *
(b) adjusted with engine running.
(c) not allowed to be adjusted in situ.
280. Identify which C SD to change after a frequency check: (a) number 1 CSD gives 385 Hz.
(b) number 2 CSD gives 398 Hz.
(c) number 3 CSD gives 425 Hz. *
281. The TRU converts (a) d. c. power to a. c. power.
(b) a.c. powerto D.C. powers. *
(c) c. voltage to d. c. current.
282. With an increase in load the TRU output voltage will: (a) decrease. *
(b) increase.
(c) remain constant.
283. TRU cooling is mainly required for the (a) diodes. *
(b) transformers.
(c) overheat state.
284. The a.c. supply to a TRU is normally:(a) D.C.
(b) Single-phase a.c.
(c) three phase a.c. *
285. The diodes in a TRU are connected in parallel: (a) never.
(b) to reduce the d. c. ripple.
(c) to reduce the heating effect. *
286. The British standard A/C, 3 inverter ground points:(a) A
(b) B *
(c) C
287. Smoke detectors are normally fitted in the:(a) passenger cabin.
(b) flight deck.
(c) toilet. *
288. A smoke warning is cleared: (a) automatic-ally when the smoke clears.

(b)
(c)

by the crew operating the smoke test.

by the crew operating RESET. *

289. In the double cell smoke detector the moving coil relay is power by the:(a) Photoelectric cell.
(b) detector power supply.
(c) standby power battery. *
290. In the double cell smoke detector an open circuit projector lamp is indicated by: (a) a continuous smoke.
(b) a fail to test. *
(c) a fail to latch after test.
291. In the single cell smoke detector an open circuit projector lamp is indicated by:(a) a continuous smoke warning.
(b) a fail to test.
(c) a fail to latch after test. *
292. A visual smoke indicator: (a) acts as an automatic smoke detector.
(b) does not act as automatic smoke detector. *
(c) is located in the cargo compartment.
293. When the smoke detector switch is operated it:(a) Short-circuit the projector lamp.
(b) activates the detecting cell. *
(c) raises the voltage of the projector lamp.
294. The fire warning light remains illuminated when the test switch is released. This
Indicates:(a) a broken element.
(b) low insulation of the element. *
(c) a normal system operation.
295. Another name for a continuous fire detector element is:(a) fire zone.
(b) fire wire. *
(c) differential expansion switch.
296. The fire warning is cancelled by: (a) operating the test switch to reset.
(b) resetting the fire control handle.
(c) the reduction of the fire wire temperature. *
297. With the capacitate type detector, an increase in temperature causes the
claimants capacitance to: (a) increase. *
(b) decrease.
(c) remain the same.
298. The outer connector of a fire detector element is normally:-

(a)
(b)
(c)

28v or 115v above earth potential.

at earth potential. *
insulation from earth.

299. A section of element is cut of the loop. Under fire conditions the system is most
likely to give: (a) no fire warning.
(b) a fire warning but at a high temperature. *
(c) a fire warning but at a lower temperature.
300. When connecting a fire wire element to a connector a new sealing washer is
fitted: (a) every time, *
(b) only if original is damaged.
(c) only if a new element is fitted.
301. A dual headed fire extinguisher will discharge only after(a) two engine fire control handles have been operated.
(b) both cartridges have been fired.
(c) either cartridge has been fired. *
302. During an emergency the battery voltage is reduced to 16 v, the extinguisher
cartridge:(a) will not fire.
(b) will fire if ambient temperature is low.
(c) will fire. *
303. The engine fire extinguishing is supplied to the power plant using:(a) gravity.
(b) gas pressure. *
(c) small engine pumps.
304. The physical size of a fire extinguisher is related to the:(a) weight of A/C.
(b) volume around the power plant, *
(c) size of the engine.
305. Directional flow valves are used to ensure that the extinguishing:(a) is directed to the correct engine.
(b) is preventing from entering a discharged extinguisher. *
(c) does not reverse its flow.
306. The purpose of the flight deck discharge indicator is to indicate that(a) the fire control switch has been operated.
(b) the fire extinguisher has discharged. *
(c) an overheat condition exists adjacent to the extinguisher.
307. The least toxic extingishant is:(a) MB
(b) BCF. *
(c) BTM.

308. The resistance and continuity of a cartridge is tested using:(a) safety ohmmeter. *
(b) insulation tester.
(c) lamp and battery.
309. The cartridge insulation test is carried out by connecting the tester (a) between connection.
(b) to any connection and cartridge body.
(c) to all pins and cartridge body. *
310. The indication that an extinguisher pressure relief has operated is.(a) pressure relief indicator changes color *
(b) discharge indicating pin protrudes on extinguisher head.
(c) the extinguisher changes color.
311. When a cartridge is life expired, the:(a) cartridge only is replaced. *
(b) cartridge and head are replaced.
(c) cartridge, head and extinguisher are replaced.
(BTM) - Bromotrifluoro methane,semi-toxic,sometimes used for cargo system.
(BM)- Methyl Bronijde, very toxic.
Hydraulic brake fire usually used dry power.
CO2 Fire extinguisher usually put out electrical fire only.
Crash Switches:
1/. Inertia switch: Operates when an excessive deceleration is felt in the longitudinal
axis of A/C.
2/. Frangible switch The glass is shattered the switch contact close. These switches are
located in the lower fuselage and on the underside of engine niceties.
312. An electric motor for a flap or a landing gear required the motor to: (a) rotate in only one direction.
(b) rotate at different speeds.
(c) rotate in either direction. *
313. A motor brake is applied when the motor:(a) is switched on.
(b) is switched off.
(c) applies excessive torque. *
314. A motor clutch is opened when (a) the motor is switched on.
(b) the motor is switched off. *
(c) rotational speed is reduced.
315. An electric motor is protected against sudden loads by: (a) a mechanical torque limiter. *

(b)
(c)

an engage clutch.
a brake.

316. Damage to the system and motor can caused by:(a) an open circuit brake coil.
(b) an open circuit clutch coil.
(c) incorrectly set limit switches. *
317. The electrical hydraulic selector command signal is:(a) phase sensitive a.c.
(b) polarity sensitive D.C. *
(c) variable frequency a.c,
318. The power to move the output of an electrical hydraulic selector is obtained from
(a) a d. c. torque motor.
(b) an a.c. torque motor.
(c) a hydraulic system. *
319. When flap asymmetry is detected the flaps are: (a) driven to the full UP position.
(b) driven to the full DOWN position.
(c) locked in their present position. *
320. Spoiler panel are situated on the:(a) upper surface of the wing. *
(b) lower surface of the wing.
(c) ailerons.
321. Speedbrakes operate with:(a) aileron control wheel selection.
(b) flap selection.
(c) speedbrake selector lever. *
322. Take off warning is initiated by the pilot selecting:(a) take off thrust. *
(b) take off flap selection.
(c) parking brake off.
323. Flap load relief normally operates as a function of (a) A/C height.
(b) A/C speed. *
(c) throttle position.
324. Failure of fuel booster pumps: (a) will prevent the engine operating.
(b) can reduce engine performance at altitude. *
(c) has no effect on engine performance.
325. When one single thermal trip switch operates in an a.c. fuel booster pump, the
pump will-

(a)
(b)
(c)

fail to start. *
start but run at reduced speed.
start and operate normally.

326. A fuel booster pump can be replaced:(a) only by draining all the fuel from the tank.
(b) only by draining the pump canister or collector box of fuel. *
(c) without draining any fuel.
327. It is normal to measure in situ fuel booster pump current math:(a) d. c. pumps only. *
(b) a.c. pumps only.
(c) both D.C. and a.c. pumps
328. A fuel jettison system is fitted to: (a) all public transport A/C
(b) all civil A/C.
(c) A/C where the max. landing weight is less than the max. take off weight. *
329. The engine fire control handle also operates the electrical LP fuel actuator and
moves it to the: (a) open position only.
(b) shut position only.
(c) shut and open position. *
330. After selecting an EDP off with the engine running, the engine: (a) should be closed down.
(b) can continue to be run. *
(c) is automatically closed down.
331. Electrically driven hydraulic pumps can be used for:(a) emergency purposes only.
(b) emergency and normal purposes. *
(c) standby brakes only.
332. The hydraulic system overheat switch is located in the:(a) inlet to the EDP.
(b) case drain from the EDP.
(c) fluid reservoir. *
333. Hydraulic system pressure is monitored at:(a) the outlet from the EDP.
(b) the outlet from the reservoir.
(c) neither (a) nor(b) position. *
334. With no hydraulic pumps operating the system pressure indicates 60 psi. This is: (a) normal if there is air pressure in the reservoir or accumlator. *
(b) incorrect, there is a fault in the system.
(c) residual pressure from when the engine was shut down.
EDP depressurizing solenoid is energized when the engine fire handle is operated.

Or EDP can be selected OFF from the FLT deck by energizing the depressurizing
solenoid on the EDP.
335. The switch that required a control card or module is the: (a) micro switch.
(b) reed proximity switch.
(c) inductive proximity switch. *
336. The pilot normally applies the wheel brakes:(a) via the auto-brake system.
(b) via the anti-skid system. *
(c) via both the auto-brake and anti-skid systems.
337. On a retractable undercarriage, a red illuminated lamp can indicate that the gear is
selected. (a) down and all gear is locked down.
(b) up and all gears are locked down. *
(c) up and all gears are locked up.
338. When engaged the U/C selector lock prevents normal selection from:(a) down selection to the up selection. *
(b) up selection to the down selection.
(c) either selection up or down.
339. The anti-skid system: (a) increase the braking pressure.
(b) reduces the braking pressure. *
(c) automatically applies the brakes after the A/C landing.
340. If the anti-skid system fails, the: (a) auto-brake system will compensate for wheel skid.
(b) auto-brake system cannot operate. *
(c) pilot cannot apply the brake.
341. When engine starter BLOWOUT is selected, the engine will:(a) give a slower start
(b) give a faster start.
(c) not start. *
342. A D.C. starter motor is primarily:(a) a series machine on either piston or jet engines, *
(b) a shunt machine on either piston or jet engines,
(c) a shunt machine on piston engines.
343. To limit the starting current of an engine starter motor a resistance is placed:(a) in series with the motor annature, *
(b) in parallel with the motor armature.
(c) in parallel with the motor field.
344. On a reciprocating engine the starter motor disengages from the engine when the
engine: -

(a)
(b)
(c)

reaches self-sustaining speed.

fires. *
reaches ground idle speed.

345. During a normal start on a turbine engine, the starter motor is disengaged by:(a) manually selecting master switch OFF, *
(b) automatically selecting master switch OFF c advancing the throttle.
346. An A/C auxiliary power unit engine is normally started by using: (a) an electric starter motor. *
(b) an air turbine starter motor.
(c) either of the above starter motors.
347. Which type of A/C engine does not use an HEIU (a) an auxiliary power unit.
(b) a gas turbine engine.
(c) a reciprocating engine. *
348. In a dual output HEIU the output level is changed by:(a) switching the LT inputs. *
(b) switching the HT outputs.
(c) varying the input voltage.
349. An AIC gas turbine engine has: (a) one FIEIU.
(b) two FIEIU. *
(c) four HEIU.
350. The output of a high energy ignition unit is rated in: (a) watts.
(b) volts.
(c) Joules *
351. Which selection does not use the FIE1Us:(a) ground start.
(b) air start.
(c) blowout. *
352. The engine HP fuel control valve is located in the
(a) throttle system.
(b) AIC fuel system.
(c) engine fuel system. *
353. A fuel valve position indicator indicates the position of the:(a) selection of fuel switch only.
(b) selection of fuel switch and fire handle.
(c) valve. *
354. le the engine temperature/speed limiting system is trimming, the throttle: (a) is also moving.
(b) remains stationary. *

(c)

must also be manually adjusted.

355. The temperature limiting system monitors the engine:(a) oil temperature.
(b) air bleed temperature.
(c) turbine temperature. *
356. To reduce the risk of an engine surging the bleed valves are sequentially opened
as the: (a) engine increases speed.
(b) engine decreases speed. *
(c) throttle is advanced.
357. Low engine torque switch is used to initiate:(a) automatic propeller feathering.
(b) automatic propeller coarsening. *
(c) propeller fine pitch selection.
358. The oil for propeller control is taken from the:(a) hydraulic system.
(b) propeller oil system.
(c) engine lubrication system. *
359. The propeller below stop light illuminates when the(a) feathering pump is running.
(b) propeller blade angle is below flight fine stop. *
(c) propeller blade angle is below ground fine stop.
360. The propeller lock withdrawal solenoid is only used: (a) during flight
(b) while on the ground *
(c) to feather
361. To unfetter a propeller during flight:(a) engine oil pressure is used.
(b) an electric feathering pump is used. *
(c) propeller windsailing is used.
362. The formation of ice on an A/C could increase the: (a) stability.
(b) skin fiction. *
(c) streamline flow.
363. Ice detectors are switched on:(a) prior to flight. *
(b) when icing conditions are expected.
(c) to prevent ice forming on the A/C.
364. An ice detector heater is switched on (a) prior to ice forming.
(b) as ice is forming.

(c)

c after ice has formed. *

365. The serrated rotor ice detector rotates (a) in either direction.
(b) in one direction only. *
(c) only when ice is present.
366. An anti-icing system:(a) ensures that ice melts as it forms. *
(b) allow ice to form before removing it.
(c) detects when ice forms.
367. Airframe thermal anti-icing uses:(a) a temperature control system. *
(b) cycle areas, electrically heated.
(c) expanding rubber boots.
368. A cyclic switch is used in the:(a) thermal de-icing system.
(b) electrical de-icing system. *
(c) fluid de-icing system.
369. propeller de-icing uses(a) electrical or fluid system. *
(b) a thermal system.
(c) a pneumatic system.
370. A turbine propeller de-icing system is selected to fast with outside air
temperature- *
(a) +10'c to -6'c.
(b) +6' c to - 1 0'c.
(c) below -6'c.
371. Electrical airframe de-icing is normally selected ON: (a) in flight only.
(b) prior to starting engines.
(c) in flight and takeoff. *
372. Electrical windscreen heating is used to prevent the formation of ice and:(a) improve the impact resistance. *
(b) clear the screen of rain.
(c) allow good vision in the air.
373. Pilot head heaters are switched off..
(a) while airborne.
(b) on the ground .
(c) on the ground and with engine stationary. *
374. A pilot head heater insulation check is C/0 with the pilot head: (a) hot.
(b) cold.

(c)

first hot and then cold. *

375. Water pipe heaters are:(a) high watts.

(b) low watts. *
(c) used to supply hot water.
376. In an electrical motor operated windscreen wiper system the motor:(a) reverses direction on each stroke.
(b) rotates in one direction. *
(c) is only used to park the wiper.
377. For an open circuit windscreen heating sensing element, the normal action is to:(a) replace the screen.
(b) replace the sensing element.
(c) connect the spare element in its place. *
378. Selecting the master dim switch to dim causes the warning light: (a) resistance to double.
(b) current to reduce by half
(c) voltage to reduce by half *
379. Operating a central warning system cancel button will cancel(a) both the alert and caution.
(b) the alert only.
(c) the caution. *
380. To ensure both filaments are operating in a double filament warning light operate
the:(a) alert/caution cancel button.
(b) master lights test. *
(c) lights dim switch.
381. The mute switch in a CWS system will:(a) only inhibit the caution messages.
(b) only inhibit the alert messages.
(c) inhibit both caution and alert messages. *
382. A latched switch can have
(a) only one warning light. *
(b) two warning lights.
(c) three warning lights.
383. The ECAM and EICAS systems use(a) a master warning display panel.
(b) a central warning display panel
(c) CRTs for display of messages. *
384. Navigation lights are required on all A/C.
(a) over 5,700 kg.
(b) flying at night. *

(c)

but not gliders.

385. Anti-collision lights are required on all A/C.

(a) over 5,700 kg.*
(b) flying at night.
(c) and free balloons.
386. Landing lights are:(a) only used in flight.
(b) only used on the ground.
(c) air cooled by the airflow. *
387. The purpose of illuminating the wing leading edge at night is to
(a) allow flight crew to inspect visually for ice formation. *
(b) ensure A/C can be seen by other A/C.
(c) assist in taxying at night.
388. Emergency lighting is switched on prior to: (a) take off.
(b) an emergency evacuation. *
(c) switching ground power off
389. A passenger service multiplex system uses:(a) serial data link.*
(b) radio pulsed data.
(c) multiple connections between each seat and each passenger service panel.
390. Reverse warning light on: (a) transit to reverse position.
(b) T/R at unlock position.*
(c) T/R at lock position.
391. After a genuine fire:- *
(a) fire loop should be replace.
(b) fire loop can be reuse.
392. On A/C circuit which is most likely to be use 200y a.c.:(a) windscreen heater. *
(b) standby compass.
(c) hydraulic pump.
393. Non-magnetic type sensor: (a) mechanical neutral.
(b) reactive a.c. bridge.*
394. FLY by wire can certify by:(a) physically 2 X categories.
(b) Function check requires X,A,C for first part. A & C for the secondary part.
395. A Transformer N1 : N2 is 10 : 1 and N2 is 5, N1 ? :(a) 50

(b)
(c)

250
500