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# Essential University Physics, 3e (Wolfson)

## Chapter 38 Nuclear Physics

38.1 Conceptual Questions
1) Consider two different isotopes of the same neutral element. Which statements about these
isotopes are true? (There may be more than one correct choice.)
A) Both isotopes contain the same number of neutrons.
B) Both isotopes contain the same number of protons.
C) Both isotopes contain the same number of nucleons.
D) Both isotopes contain the same number of orbital electrons.
E) The sum of the protons and neutrons is the same for both isotopes.
Var: 1

## X. Which of the following

A) The isotope has 25 nucleons.
B) The isotope has 25 protons.
C) The isotope has 25 neutrons.
D) The isotope has 15 orbital electrons.
E) The isotope has 15 protons.
F) The isotope has 10 neutrons.
Var: 1

3) Which of the following statements about the atomic nucleus is correct? (There may be more
than one correct choice.)
A) Large nuclei are denser than light nuclei.
B) All nuclei have nearly the same density.
C) The nucleus is held together more by the electrical force than by the gravitational force.
D) A nucleus containing 20 nucleons will have approximately twice the radius as a nucleus
containing 10 nucleons.
E) As the number of nucleons increases the binding energy per nucleon always increases.
Var: 1

4) For a

## A) 41, 52, 93.

B) 41, 52, 52.
C) 41, 52, 41.
D) 41, 52, 0.
E) 52, 41, 0.
Var: 1
1

5) The iron nucleus has the greatest binding energy of any nucleus.
A) True
B) False
Var: 1

6) Going from medium mass nuclei to heavy nuclei, the average binding energy per nucleon
A) decreases.
B) behaves randomly with no clear pattern.
C) does not change.
D) increases.
E) doubles.
Var: 1

## 7) Heavier stable nuclei tend to have

A) half as many protons as neutrons.
B) the same number of neutrons and protons.
C) more neutrons than protons.
D) no clear trend in the relative number of neutrons and protons.
E) more protons than neutrons.
Var: 1

8) Which of the following statements about the strong nuclear force are correct? (There may be
more than one correct choice.)
A) It acts equally on protons and neutrons but not on electrons.
B) It acts equally on protons, neutrons, and electrons.
C) It has a much longer range than the electric force.
D) It keeps electrons in their orbits around the nucleus.
E) Because of its very short range, there is a limit to how large the nucleus can be.
Var: 1

9) If a nucleus decays by - decay to a daughter nucleus, which of the following statements about
this decay are correct? (There may be more than one correct choice.)
A) The daughter nucleus has more protons than the original nucleus.
B) The daughter nucleus has more neutrons than the original nucleus.
C) The daughter nucleus has the same number of nucleons as the original nucleus.
D) The daughter nucleus has fewer protons than the original nucleus.
E) The daughter nucleus has fewer neutrons than the original nucleus.
Var: 1

2

10) If a nucleus decays by alpha decay to a daughter nucleus, which of the following statements
A) The daughter nucleus has more protons than the original nucleus.
B) The daughter nucleus has more neutrons than the original nucleus.
C) The daughter nucleus has the same number of nucleons as the original nucleus.
D) The daughter nucleus has fewer protons than the original nucleus.
E) The daughter nucleus has fewer neutrons than the original nucleus.
Var: 1

11) If a nucleus decays by gamma decay to a daughter nucleus, which of the following
A) The daughter nucleus has more protons than the original nucleus.
B) The daughter nucleus has more neutrons than the original nucleus.
C) The daughter nucleus has the same number of nucleons as the original nucleus.
D) The daughter nucleus has fewer protons than the original nucleus.
E) The daughter nucleus has fewer neutrons than the original nucleus.
Var: 1

12) If a nucleus decays by + decay to a daughter nucleus, which of the following statements
A) The daughter nucleus has more protons than the original nucleus.
B) The daughter nucleus has more neutrons than the original nucleus.
C) The daughter nucleus has the same number of nucleons as the original nucleus.
D) The daughter nucleus has fewer protons than the original nucleus.
E) The daughter nucleus has fewer neutrons than the original nucleus.
Var: 1

13) Which of the following statements about + decay are correct? (There may be more than one
correct choice.) During + decay
A) an orbital electron is captured by the nucleus.
B) a proton is emitted from the nucleus.
C) a neutron in the nucleus decays to a proton and an electron.
D) a proton in the nucleus decays to a positron and a neutron.
E) the atomic number Z of the isotope increases by one unit but the atomic weight A remains
unchanged.
Var: 1

3

14) A radioactive isotope decays by - emission with a half-life of 1.0 min. During the first 1.0
min, a particular sample emits 1000 - particles. During the next 1.0 min, the number of particles this sample will emit will be closest to
A) 250.
B) 500.
C) 1000.
D) 1500.
E) 2000.
Var: 1

## 15) A radioisotope has a half-life of at a temperature of 150 K. If its temperature is increased to

300 K, what will its half-life be?
A) 4
B) 2
C)
D) /2
E) /4
Var: 1

16) The decay rate of an isotope is initially R0, but after one half-life has gone by, the rate is
R0/2. At the end of the NEXT half-life, what will the decay rate be?
A) 0
B) R0/16
C) R0/e
D) R0/4
E) R0/e2
Var: 1

17) The half-life of cobalt-60 is 5.3 years, while that of strontium-90 is 28 years. Suppose you
have a sample of each, such that they initially contain equal numbers of atoms of these nuclides.
How will the activities (number of decays per second) of the samples compare?
A) The activity of the cobalt-60 sample will be greater.
C) The activities will be equal.
D) The activity of the strontium-90 sample will be greater.
Var: 1

4

18) The half-life of cobalt-60 is 5.3 years, while that of strontium-90 is 28 years. Suppose that
samples of cobalt-60 and strontium-90 are such that they initially have the same activity (number
of decays per second). What is true about the initial numbers of cobalt-60 and strontium-90
nuclei in these samples?
A) There are more strontium-90 than cobalt-60 nuclei.
B) There are equal numbers of cobalt-60 and strontium-90 nuclei.
C) There are more cobalt-60 than strontium-90 nuclei.
D) It is not possible to compare numbers of nuclei without knowing the masses of the samples.
Var: 1

19) A radioactive nuclide of atomic number Z emits an electron, then the daughter nuclide emits
a gamma ray. What is the atomic number of the resulting nuclide after both processes?
A) Z + 1
B) Z - 1
C) Z - 2
D) Z - 3
E) Z + 2
Var: 1

20) Modern nuclear bomb tests have created an extra high level of 14C in our atmosphere.
Will their dates be too young, too old, or still correct? If correct they are correct, why?
A) too young
B) too old
C) correct, because 14C from bomb tests is different from that produced naturally
D) correct, because modern biological materials do not gather 14C from bomb tests
Var: 1

21) Which of the following descriptions best describes the process by which energy is released in
a conventional nuclear reactor?
A) The radiation given off by a naturally radioactive substance, uranium, is collected and used to
make steam.
B) Uranium is reacted with oxygen in a combustion process that releases large amounts of
C) Deuterium and tritium are joined together to form helium.
D) Uranium, when bombarded by neutrons, splits into fragments and releases two or three
neutrons, and these neutrons in turn strike more uranium nuclei that split, thereby setting off a
chain reaction that releases energy.
E) A uranium nucleus is energized to an excited state by neutron irradiation, and it then decays
by emitting beta rays and gamma rays that heat water and create steam.
Var: 1

5

22) The primary source of the energy radiated by a star, such as the sun, is
A) beta decay.
B) alpha decay.
C) fission reactions involving uranium.
D) fusion reactions in which hydrogen is fused to form helium.
E) fusion reactions in which helium is fused to form iron.
Var: 1

23) A fusion reaction releases energy because the binding energy of the resulting nucleus
A) is greater than the binding energy of the original nuclei.
B) is equal to the binding energy of the original nuclei.
C) is less than the binding energy of the original nuclei.
D) is released in the process.
E) is absorbed in the process.
Var: 1

24) How does the mass of the products of a nuclear fusion reaction compare to the mass of the
original elements?
A) The mass of the products is greater than the mass of the original elements.
B) The mass of the products is less than the mass of the original elements.
C) The mass of the products is equal to the mass of the original elements.
D) The mass of the products is unrelated to the mass of the original elements.
Var: 1

25) In massive stars, three helium nuclei fuse together, forming a carbon nucleus. This reaction
heats the core of the star. The net mass of the three helium nuclei must therefore be
A) higher than that of the carbon nucleus.
B) less than that of the carbon nucleus.
C) the same as that of the carbon nucleus since mass is always conserved.
D) the same as that of the carbon nucleus since energy is always conserved.
Var: 1

6

38.2 Problems
1) A certain nucleus containing 8 protons and 7 neutrons has a radius R. Which of the following
values would be closest to the expected value of the radius of a nucleus having 51 protons and 69
neutrons?
A) 1.85R
B) 2.00R
C) 2.14R
D) 6.38R
E) 8.00R
Var: 1

2) A certain nucleus containing 8 protons and 7 neutrons has a density . Which of the following
values would be closest to the expected value of the density of a nucleus having 51 protons and
69 neutrons?
A) 1.00
B) 1.85
C) 2.00
D) 2.14
E) 8.00
Var: 1

3) What would be the expected radius of a nucleus having 82 protons and 125 neutrons?
A) 5.2 fm
B) 5.9 fm
C) 6.0 fm
D) 7.1 fm
E) 17 fm
Var: 1

## 4) What would be the expected radius of the nucleus of

Sr?

A) 4.0 fm
B) 1.2 fm
C) 5.4 fm
D) 0.11 pm
E) 0.54 pm
Var: 1

7

5) If a nucleus had a diameter of 8.0 fm, what would be its expected mass, in atomic mass units?
A) 7 u
B) 296 u
C) 37 u
D) 64 u
E) 128 u
Var: 1

6) Two identical nuclei of mass 18 u are made to unite to make a single nucleus of mass 36 u.
What is the radius of the result of this fusion?
A) 4.0 fm
B) 6.3 fm
C) 4.5 fm
D) 7.2 fm
Var: 1

## 7) The following masses are known:

n (neutron) 1.008665 u
H

1.007825 u

Fe 56.935399 u

A) 500 MeV
B) 550 MeV
C) 610 MeV
D) 660 MeV
E) 710 MeV
Var: 12

8

## H, has a mass of 2.014102 u; a neutral hydrogen atom has a

mass of 1.007825 u; a neutron has a mass of 1.008665 u; and a proton has a mass of 1.007277 u.
What is the binding energy of the H nucleus? (1 u = 931.494 MeV/c2)
A) 1.1 MeV
B) 1.7 MeV
C) 2.2 MeV
D) 2.9 MeV
E) 3.4 MeV
Var: 1

## Al atom has a mass of

26.981539 u; a neutral hydrogen atom has a mass of 1.007825 u; a neutron has a mass of
1.008665 u; and a proton has a mass of 1.007277 u. (1 u = 931.494 MeV/c2)
A) 8.3 MeV
B) 6.7 MeV
C) 5.4 MeV
D) 3.4 MeV
E) 2.8 MeV
Var: 1

10) Uranium-238 decays into thorium-234 plus an alpha particle. How much energy is released
in this process? 1 u = 931.494 MeV/c2, and the relevant mass values are
He: 4.002603 u
Th:

234.043583 u

U: 238.050786 u
A) 4.28 MeV
B) 3.76 MeV
C) 3.18 MeV
D) 2.89 MeV
E) 5.05 MeV
Var: 1

9

11) Radium-226 decays into radon-222 plus an alpha particle. How much energy is released in
this process? 1 u = 931.494 MeV/c2, and the relevant mass values are
He: 4.002603 u
Rn:

222.017570 u

Ra:226.025402 u
A) 4.24 MeV
B) 3.76 MeV
C) 4.87 MeV
D) 5.05 MeV
E) 5.39 MeV
Var: 1

12) Plutonium-239 decays into uranium-235 plus an alpha particle. The energy released in the
process is 5.24 MeV. Given the following mass values
He: 4.002603 u
U: 235.043924 u
what is the mass of

## Pu in atomic mass units? (1 u = 931.494 MeV/c2)

A) 239.05215 u
B) 239.02775 u
C) 239.00189 u
D) 238.99919 u
E) 238.98884 u
Var: 1

10

13) A stationary plutonium-239 nucleus decays into a uranium-235 nucleus plus an alpha
particle. The energy released in the process is 5.24 MeV. Given the following mass values
He: 4.002603 u
U: 235.043924 u
what is the kinetic energy of the

## U nucleus? (1 u =931.494 MeV/c2)

A) 0.0829 MeV
B) 0.0837 MeV
C) 0.0852 MeV
D) 0.0863 MeV
E) 0.0877 MeV
Var: 1

14) The carbon in your body was formed in nuclear reactions in long-dead stars. How much
energy was released when three 4He nuclei combined to make 12C? The mass of 4He is
4.002603 u, the mass of 12C is 12.0000 u, and 1 u = 931.494 MeV/c2.
A) 7.274 MeV
B) 3716 MeV
C) 8.424 MeV
D) 2.106 MeV
Var: 1

15) How much energy is released when 1.40 g of 3H have decayed to 3He? The mass of 3He is
3.016029 u, the mass of 3H is 3.016049 u, and 1 u = 931.494 MeV/c2.
A) 830 J
B) 11,900 J
C) 7970 J
D) 71,700 J
E) 23,900 J
Var: 1

11

16) The set of nuclear reactions that power our sun can be summarized a 4p+ 4He+2 + 2e+.
The masses of the particles involved are 938.272 MeV/c2 (proton, p+), 3727.38 MeV/c2 (alpha
particle, 4He+2), and 0.511 MeV/c2 (positron, e+). How much energy is released by each set of
these reactions?
A) 24.69 MeV
B) 28.3 MeV
C) 2790 MeV
D) 279 MeV
Var: 1

17) A sphere made of a radioactive isotope initially has a mass of 6.88 kg. The half-life of this
isotope is 1.34 h, and it decays by - emission. At the end of 2.68 h, what is the mass of this
sphere?
A) 6.88 kg
B) 3.44 kg
C) 1.72 kg
D) 2.53 kg
Var: 1

18) A radioactive atom has 98 protons and 249 nucleons. If it undergoes alpha decay, what are
the number of protons and nucleons, respectively, in the daughter nucleus?
A) 100, 245
B) 94, 247
C) 96, 245
D) 96, 247
E) 100, 249
Var: 1

12

19) Scandium,

Sc, decays by emitting a positron. What is the nuclide that is the product of the

decay?
A)

Sc

B)

Sc

C)

Ca

D)

Ca

E)

Sc

Var: 1

## C with respect to alpha, +, and - decay is to be determined. Do not

consider the possibility of decay by electron capture. The following atomic masses are known:
He: 4.002603 u
Be: 7.016928 u
B: 11.009305 u
C: 11.011433 u
N: 11.026742 u

The

C nuclide is

## A) not subject to alpha, +, or - decay.

B) subject to alpha decay only.
C) subject to + decay only.
D) subject to - decay only.
E) subject to + or - decay, but not to alpha decay.
Var: 1
13

## Sc with respect to alpha, +, and - decay is to be determined. Do not

consider the possibility of decay by electron capture. The following atomic masses are known:
He: 4.002603 u
K: 42.960717 u
Ca: 46.954543 u
Sc 46.952409 u
Ti: 46.951764 u
The

Sc nuclide is

## A) not subject to alpha, +, or - decay.

B) subject to alpha decay only.
C) subject to + decay only.
D) subject to - decay only.
E) subject to + or - decay, but not to alpha decay.
Var: 1

14

## Fe with respect to alpha, +, and - decay is to be determined. Do not

consider the possibility of decay by electron capture. The following atomic masses are known:
He: 4.002603 u
Cr: 51.944768 u
Mn: 55.938907 u
Fe: 55.934939 u
Co: 55.939841 u
The

Fe nuclide is

## A) not subject to alpha, +, or - decay.

B) subject to alpha decay only.
C) subject to +decay only.
D) subject to - decay only.
E) subject to + or - decay, but not to alpha decay.
Var: 1

23) A certain substance has a half-life of 5.0 hours. How many nuclei of the substance are
required to give an initial activity of 6.0 Ci? 1 Ci = 3.7
Bq.
A) 5.8
B) 8.5
C) 6.3
D) 3.2
E) 2.4
Var: 5

15

24) What mass of 14C (having a half-life of 5730 years) do you need to provide a decay rate of
(1 u = 1.6605 10-27 kg)
A) 1.70 10-12 kg
B) 5.38 10-19 kg
C) 3.84 10-20 kg
D) 8.68 10-13 kg
Var: 50+

25) How many days are required for a radioactive sample, with a half-life of 5.7 d and an initial
activity of 1.07 105 Bq, to decay to an activity of 100 Bq?
A) 57 d
B) 46 d
C) 68 d
D) 39 d
Var: 41

## 26) A hospital patient has been given some

(half-life = 8.04 d) which decays at 4.2 times the
acceptable level for exposure to the general public. How long must the patient wait for the decay
rate to reach the acceptable level? Assume that the material merely decays and is not excreted by
the body.
A) 17 d
B) 12 d
C) 8.0 d
D) 7.2 d
Var: 31

27) The material used in certain nuclear bombs is 239Pu, which has a half-life of about 20,000
years. How long must we wait for a buried stockpile of this substance to decay to 4.0% of its
original 239Pu mass?
A) 93,000 y
B) 64,000 y
C) 45,000 y
D) 800 y
Var: 1

16

28) An air sample is contaminated with 15O, which has a half-life of 2.03 min. One possible way
to minimize its hazard is to pass it through a long pipe to allow it to decay inside the pipe until it
can be safely released into the atmosphere. If the oxygen moves at a speed of 1.1 m/s in the pipe,
how long must the pipe be for the sample to have decayed to 3.0% of its original activity just as
it leaves the pipe?
A) 680 m
B) 8.0 m
C) 7.0 m
D) 2.0 m
Var: 1

29) Rutherfordium-261 has a half-life of 1.08 min. How long will it take for a sample of
rutherfordium to lose one-third of its nuclei?
A) 1.02 min
B) 1.62 min
C) 0.632 min
D) 2.70 min
E) 3.24 min
Var: 1

30) A radioactive sample has a half-life of 10 min. What fraction of the sample is left after 40
min?
A) 1/2
B) 1/4
C) 1/8
D) 1/16
E) 1/32
Var: 3

## 31) Fermium-253 has a half-life of 3.00 d. A sample of fermium contains 7.37

long will it take for there to be only 3.36
A) 2.75 d
B) 9.80 d
C) 13.4 d
D) 15.7 d
E) 58.6 d

## fermium nuclei in this sample?

Var: 5

17

nuclei. How

32) In a laboratory accident a work area is contaminated with radioactive material. Health
physicists monitor the area during a 30-day period and, after correcting for the background rate,
obtain the data shown in the table.
Time (days)
Counts/min

0
1000

2
899

6
727

11
557

19
364

30
202

The accident occurred at t = 0. They determine that it will not be safe for workers to enter the
area until the radioactivity level has dropped to 133 counts per minute. Of the choices listed
below, which one is the earliest time that workers could safely return?
A) 38 days
B) 44 days
C) 50 days
D) 32 days
E) 24 days
Var: 1

33) The unstable isotope 234Th decays by emission with a half-life of 24.5 days. The initial
decay rate of the sample was 9.9 1013 Bq. (1 u = 1.6605 x 10-27 kg)
(a) What mass of 234Th was initially present?
(b) What is the decay rate after 68 days?
Answer: (a) 0.12 g (b) 1.4 x 1013 Bq
Var: 1

34) An isotope of Tc having a half-life of 6.0 h is used in bone scans. If a certain amount of this
Tc is injected into the body, how long does it take for its initial decay rate to decrease BY 99%?
A) 0.060 h
B) 3.3 h
C) 33 h
D) 40 h
E) slightly more than a month
Var: 1

35) The radioactivity due to carbon-14 measured in a piece of a wood from an ancient site was
found to produce 20 counts per minute from a given sample, whereas the same amount of carbon
from a piece of living wood produced 160 counts per minute. The half-life of carbon-14, a beta
emitter, is 5730 y. The age of the artifact is closest to
A) 5700 y
B) 12,000 y
C) 15,000 y
D) 17,000 y
E) 23,000 y
Var: 1
18

36) Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5730 y. A sample of wood has been recovered by an
archaeologist. The sample is sent to a laboratory, where it is determined that the activity of the
sample is 0.144 Bq/g. By comparing this activity with the activity of living organic matter, 0.230
Bq/g, the scientist determines how old the wood sample is, or more precisely, when the tree that
the sample came from died. How old is the sample of wood?
A) 3870 y
B) 4250 y
C) 4590 y
D) 2630 y
E) 2940 y
Var: 1

37) Living matter has 1.3 10-10 % of its carbon in the form of 14C which has a half-life of
5730 y. A mammoth bone has a 300-g sample of carbon separated from it, and the sample is
found to have an activity of 20 decays per second. How old is the bone?
A) 15,000 y
B) 10,900 y
C) 11,500 y
D) 7600 y
E) 6400 y
Var: 1

## 38) An archaeologist finds the 14C in a sample of

of material to be decaying at 107 counts
per second. A modern 1.00-g sample of the same material decays at 151 counts per second. The
half-life of 14C is 5730 y. How old is the sample?
A) 12,200 y
B) 8460 y
C) 25,100 y
D) 12,600 y
Var: 16

## 39) An ancient rock is found to contain 40Ar gas, indicating that

of the 40K in the rock has
decayed since the rock solidified. Any argon would have boiled out of liquid rock. The half-life
of 40K is 1.25 billion years. How long ago did the rock solidify?
A) 2.6 billion years
B) 0.50 billion years
C) 1.8 billion years
D) 0.30 billion years
Var: 30

19

40) Today, the uranium found on Earth contains 0.720% 235U (with a half-life of 0.700 billion
years) and 99.28% 238U (with a half-life of 4.50 billion years). At a time 2.20 billion years ago,
what percent of the uranium on Earth was 238U (assuming that no other uranium isotopes were
present)?
A) 95.6%
B) 2.18%
C) 6.29%
D) 8.68%
E) 4.53%
Var: 1

## B + He H + X, which of the following is the missing

nuclear product X?
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Var: 1

## 42) In the nuclear reaction

n+

U X + 2e-

n is a neutron and e- is an electron, and the neutrinos have not been shown. Determine the
atomic mass and atomic number of the missing nuclear product X, and write X in the standard
form. It is NOT necessary to identify which atom X is.
Answer: A = 239, Z = 94,

Var: 1

20

## 43) For the missing product X in the nuclear reaction

neutron +

O X + alpha particle

determine the atomic mass and atomic number of X, and write X in the standard form. It is NOT
necessary to identify which atom X is.
Answer: A = 13, Z = 6,

Var: 1

## 44) For the missing product X in the reaction

neutron +

Ba + X + 3 neutrons

determine the atomic mass and atomic number of X, and write X in the standard form. It is NOT
necessary to identify which atom X is.
Answer: A = 92, Z = 36,

Var: 1

## 45) A proton strikes an

O nucleus producing

## F and another particle. What is the other

particle?
A) a neutron
B) an alpha particle
C) a - particle
D) a + particle
E) a gamma ray
Var: 1

## 46) How much energy is released in the total fission of

of
The average energy per
fission is 200.0 MeV. (1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2 = 1.6605 10-27 kg, 1 eV = 1.60 10-19 J)
A) 1.6 1011 J
B) 3.9 1013 J
C) 1.6 105 J
D) 3.9 1010 J
Var: 6

21

47) An excited

U*

Ba +

Kr

## The following atomic masses are known:

Kr: 91.926270 u
Ba:143.922845 u
U*:

236.045563 u

What is the reaction energy, in MeV, for this process? (1 u = 1.6605 10-27 kg = 931.5 MeV/c2)
A) 150 MeV
B) 160 MeV
C) 170 MeV
D) 180 MeV
E) 190 MeV
Var: 1

22

48) An excited

U*

Ba +

Kr

## The following atomic masses are known:

Kr: 91.926270 u
Ba:143.922845 u
U*:

236.045563 u

Assume, at a given instant, that the two fission fragments are spherical, just barely in contact,
and carry spherically symmetric charge distributions. At that instant, what is the electrostatic
interaction energy of the two fragments, in MeV? (1 u = 1.6605 10-27 kg = 931.5 MeV/c2,
1/40 = 9.0 109 N * m2/C2)
A) 230 MeV
B) 240 MeV
C) 250 MeV
D) 260 MeV
E) 270 MeV
Var: 1

U + neutron

Ba +

## Kr + x neutrons, what is the number x

of neutrons produced?
A) 0
B) 4
C) 1
D) 3
E) 2
Var: 1

23

50) When a neutron (n) collides with a uranium-235 nucleus it can induce a variety of fission
reactions. One such reaction is

U+n

Xe +

## in this reaction, given the following mass values:

Xe:

139.921620 u

Sr : 93.915367 u
U: 235.043924 u
n:
1.008665 u
(1 u = 931.494 MeV/c2)
A) 185 MeV
B) 202 MeV
C) 32.6 MeV
D) 65.7 MeV
E) 98.6 MeV
Var: 1

51) If a 2.0-MeV neutron released in a fission reaction loses half of its energy in each moderator
collision, how many collisions are needed to reduce its energy to (1/25) eV?
A) 6
B) 18
C) 26
D) 30
E) 4
Var: 1

52) Calculate the amount of energy that is released in the fusion reaction 2H + 2H 4He, given
the masses:
2H:
2.014102 u
4He: 4.002603 u
(1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2)
A) 24 MeV
B) 18 MeV
C) 13 MeV
D) 12 MeV
E) 36 MeV
Var: 1

24

53) The reaction 2H + 2H ? 3H + 1H releases 4.03 MeV of energy. If 1.0 kg of deuterium were
to go through this reaction, how much energy would be produced? (1 eV = 1.60 10-19 J,
mdeuterium = 2.012 u, 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2 = 1.6605 10-27 kg)
A) 9.7 107 J
B) 9.7 1013 J
C) 1.9 107 J
D) 1.9 1014 J
E) 1.9 1011 J
Var: 1

54) Two deuterium nuclei, H, fuse to produce a tritium nucleus, H, and a hydrogen nucleus. A
neutral deuterium atom has a mass of 2.014102 u; a neutral tritium atom has a mass of 3.016049
u; a neutral hydrogen atom has a mass of 1.007825 u; a neutron has a mass of 1.008665 u; and a
proton has a mass of 1.007276 u. How much energy is released in the process? (1 u = 931.494
MeV/c2)
A) 3.03 MeV
B) 3.53 MeV
C) 4.03 MeV
D) 4.53 MeV
E) 6.58 MeV
Var: 1

25

H+ H+ H

He + H + n

H:

2.01410 u

He: 4.00260 u
H,

1.00783 u

n:

1.008665 u

Var: 1

## H, and a neutron. A neutral

deuterium atom has a mass of 2.014102 u; a neutral helium atom has a mass of 3.016030 u; a
neutral hydrogen atom has a mass of 1.007825 u; a neutron has a mass of 1.008665 u; and a
proton has a mass of 1.007276 u. How much energy is released in the process? (1 u = 931.494
MeV/c2)
A) 3.27 MeV
B) 3.57 MeV
C) 4.00 MeV
D) 4.50 MeV
E) 5.68 MeV
Var: 1

26

57) A 70-kg laboratory technician absorbs 2.9 mJ of 0.50-MeV gamma rays in a workday. How
many gamma-ray photons does the technician absorb in a workday?
A) 3.6 1010
B) 3.6 109
C) 3.6 108
D) 1.0 109
E) 1.0 108
Var: 1

58) The radioactive nuclei 60Co is widely used in medical applications. It undergoes beta decay,
and the total energy of the decay process is 2.82 MeV per decay event. The half-life of this
nucleus is 272 days. Suppose that a patient is given a dose of 6.9 Ci of 60Co. If all of this
material decayed while in the patient's body, what would be the total energy deposited there? (1
Ci = 3.70 1010 decays/s)
A) 11 J
B) 8.6 GJ
C) 3.9 J
D) 24 J
E) 4.15 MJ