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uestion 1
What types of changes are NOT usually included within the scope of change management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is B.
A change request is a formal communication seeking an alteration to one or more configuration items (CIs). Services, SLAs and
computers are examples of CIs. A business strategy is not normally a CI and would be out of scope for change management.
Question 2
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of service operation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. Each of these are a purpose of service operation except for option A, undertaking testing to ensure services are
designed to meet business needs. Option A is part of service transition.
Question 3
What does the term IT operations control refer to?
A.
B.
C.
A set of tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT infrastructure and
applications
D.
A service desk monitoring the status of the infrastructure when operators are not
available
Feedback :
Correct answer is B. IT operations control oversees the execution and monitoring of the operational activities and events in the IT
infrastructure.
Question 4
Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is C. Part of SACMs purpose is to maintain accurate information about assets, including the relationship between
assets.
Sample 1
Question 5
What is the RACI model used for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. RACI is a responsibility model used by ITIL to help define roles and responsibilities.
Question 6
Which of the following is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?
A.
B.
A written agreement between the IT service provider and their customer(s) defining
key targets and responsibilities of both parties
C.
An agreement between two service providers about the levels of service required
by the customer
D.
An agreement between a third party service desk and the IT customer about fix
and response times
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. A is the OLA, B is the definition of an SLA, C doesnt correspond to an ITIL definition, D involves a third party and is
a contract.
Question 7
What is the MAIN purpose of availability management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. A is a supporting element of availability management, not a main purpose. B relates to service level management.
Availability management does not offer guarantees as identified in C. D is the main purpose of availability management: - to ensure
that the level of availability delivered in all IT services meets the agreed availability needs of the business.
Question 8
Which of the following does service transition provide guidance on?
1. Introducing new services
2. Decommissioning services
3. Transfer of services between service providers
You choose --->
A.
B.
1 and 2 only
2 only
Sample 1
C.
D.
1 and 3 only
Feedback :
Correct answer is C. All three are in scope for service transition as all three involve major change.
Question 9
Which one of the following is NOT a stage of the service lifecycle?
A.
B.
Service optimization
Service transition
C.
D.
Service design
Service strategy
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. Service optimization is the correct answer
Question 10
Which one of the following statements about a configuration management system (CMS) is CORRECT?
A.
The CMS should not contain corporate data about customers and users
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. A: a CMS can contain corporate data about users / customers such as location or department. B and C: there may
be more than one CMDB but they will be part of a single CMS. D is correct as a CMS still helps to control and report on the
infrastructure when IT services are outsourced.
Question 11
What are the three sub-processes of capacity management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. Book answer...business, service and component capacity management are the three sub-processes
Question 12
Which of the following would be stored in the definitive media library (DML)?
1. Copies of purchased software
Sample 1
2. Copies of internally developed software
3. Relevant license documentation
4. The change schedule
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. The DML contains master copies of all controlled software in an organization along with licence documents or
information. The change schedule would not be included.
Question 13
Which process is responsible for reviewing operational level agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?
A.
B.
Supplier management
Service level management
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is B. Service level management has responsibility for negotiating and agreeing OLAs.
Question 14
Which role should ensure that process documentation is current and available?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. Book answer. A process owner should ensure process documentation is current and available.
Question 15
Which of the following does the release and deployment management process address?
1. Defining and agreeing release and deployment plans
2. Ensuring release packages can be tracked
3. Authorizing changes to support the process
You choose --->
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
C.
D.
1 and 3 only
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. The two correct answers (1 and 2) are included in release and deployment objectives. Option 3 is addressed by
change management.
Sample 1
Question 16
Which of the following are characteristics of every process?
1. It is measurable
2. It delivers a specific result
3. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
A.
1 and 3 only
B.
C.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. Measurability, delivery of specific results, and delivery of results to a customer or stakeholder are all characteristics
of a process.
Question 17
Which of the following are key ITIL characteristics that contribute to its success?
1. It is vendor-neutral
2. It is non-prescriptive
3. It is best practice
4. It is a standard
A.
B.
3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is B. Option 4 is incorrect, ITIL is not a standard: ISO/IEC 20000 would be an example of a standard. ITIL is vendorneutral, non-prescriptive, and provides a best practice framework.
Question 18
Who should be granted access to the information security policy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is C. In most cases the policies should be widely available to all customers and users and referenced in SLAs, OLAs
and UCs.
Question 19
Which of the following are valid elements of a service design package (SDP)?
1. Agreed and documented business requirements
2. A plan for transition of the service
3. Requirements for new or changed processes
4. Metrics to measure the service
A.
B.
1 only
2 and 3 only
Sample 1
You choose --->
C.
1, 2 and 4 only
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. All of the elements identified are included in the service design package passed to service transition.
Question 20
Which of the following are examples of tools that might support the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?
1. A tool to store definitive versions of software
2. A workflow tool for managing changes
3. An automated software distribution tool
4. Testing and validation tools
A.
B.
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is C. 1 would be used to support a DML. 2 helps change management. 3 is a release and deployment tool. 4 can help
with testing and validation. They all support service transition.
Question 21
Which of the following statements about problem management is/are CORRECT?
1. It ensures that all resolutions or workarounds that require a change to a configuration item (CI) are submitted through
change management
2. It provides management information about the cost of resolving and preventing problems
A.
1 only
B.
C.
2 only
Both of the above
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is C. Book answer. They are both valid roles for problem management.
Question 22
What is the purpose of the request fulfilment process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. Request fulfillment is the process responsible for dealing with service requests from the users. All requests (B) is
too wide a scope for the process. Change management looks after change requests (C). Service level management is responsible for
D.
Sample 1
Question 23
Which statement about value creation through services is CORRECT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. D is incorrect; customer preferences drive value perception. C is incorrect; delivering on customer outcomes is
vital. B is incorrect; the value of a service can be financial but other factors are also relevant. A is correct; customer perception is a vital
element in defining how much a customer values a service.
Question 24
Which one of the following statements about internal and external customers is MOST correct?
A.
B.
C.
You choose --->
D.
External customers should receive better customer service because they pay for
their IT services
Internal customers should receive better customer service because they pay
employee salaries
The best customer service should be given to the customer that pays the most
money
Internal and external customers should receive the level of customer service that
has been agreed
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. D is the correct response. Both internal and external customers should be provided with the agreed level of
service, and with the same level of customer service.
Question 25
Which one of the following should IT services deliver to customers?
A.
Capabilities
B.
C.
Cost
Risk
D.
Value
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. A service is a means of delivering value to customers. IT needs capabilities to deliver services. Cost and risk are
what IT helps to manage.
Question 26
Which one of the following activities is part of the service level management (SLM) process?
Feedback :
A.
B.
C.
D.
Training service desk staff how to deal with customer complaints about service
Sample 1
Correct answer is C. C is correct: monitoring the SLAs and performance against them is a vital part of the service level management
process. A - designing the CMS is a service asset and configuration management activity. B technology metrics are likely to be
created within capacity management or other design processes. D training the service desk is a service desk role.
Question 27
Which one of the following BEST summarizes the purpose of event management?
A.
The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate
control action
B.
The ability to detect events, restore normal service as soon as possible and
minimize the adverse impact on business operations
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. A - the ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action is provided by
event management. B includes some incident management responsibilities. C is a technical management task. D is likely to be shared
between availability management and service level management.
Question 28
Which one of the following should a service catalogue contain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Asset information
Details of all operational services
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. The service catalogue should contain details of all operational services.
Question 29
What does "Warranty of a service" mean?
A.
B.
C.
D.
All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and
security
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. A is part of the definition of utility. B is unrealistic. C could be feasible as a warranty statement from another
industry but is not the definition of warranty as used by ITIL. D is a good summary of warranty as defined by ITIL.
Question 30
Which is the first activity of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
A.
Sample 1
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. The improvement approach begins with embracing the vision by understanding the high-level business objectives.
Question 31
Which one of the following is a benefit of using an incident model?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is C. Incident models are designed to provide reusable steps that can be used to restore service after known incident
types.
Question 32
Which one of the following is the CORRECT sequence of activities for handling an incident?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. The correct order is given in the diagram in the incident management process, and in the subsections of 4.2.5.
Question 33
Which service lifecycle stage ensures that measurement methods will provide the required metrics for new or changed
services?
You choose --->
A.
Service design
B.
C.
Service operation
Service strategy
D.
Service delivery
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. Measurements and metrics should be included in the design for a new or changed service.
Question 34
Which of the following processes are concerned with managing risks to services?
1. IT service continuity management
2. Information security management
Sample 1
3. Service catalogue management
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. IT service continuity management carries out risk assessment as part of defining the requirements and strategy.
Information security also needs to analyze security risks before taking action to mitigate them. Service catalogue management does not
carry out these assessments.
Question 35
Which one of the following is NOT a type of metric described in continual service improvement (CSI)?
A.
Process metrics
B.
C.
Service metrics
Personnel metrics
D.
Technology metrics
Feedback :
Correct answer is C. Personnel metrics are not one of the three types of metrics described in CSI
Question 36
Which statement about the relationship between the configuration management system (CMS) and the service
knowledge management system (SKMS) is CORRECT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is B. A is the wrong way round. C is incorrect as the SKMS contains more information than the CMS. D is incorrect as
the CMS is part of the SKMS.
Question 37
What is the role of the emergency change advisory board (ECAB)?
A.
To assist the change manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during
particularly volatile business periods
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is C. The emergency change advisory board (ECAB) provides assistance in the authorization of emergency changes.
Sample 1
Question 38
Which of the following statements about the service desk is/are CORRECT?
1. The service desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its users for all operational
issues
2. The service desk should be the owner of the problem management process
A.
2 only
B.
C.
1 only
Both of the above
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is B. The service desk should be the single point of contact for IT users on a day-by-day basis. The service desk
manager may also be the incident management process owner but would not normally be the owner of problem management.
Question 39
Which one of the following is the CORRECT list of the "four Ps" of service design?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. Book answer: people, processes, products (services, technology and tools) and partners (suppliers, manufacturers
and vendors).
Question 40
Which one of the following represents the BEST course of action to take when a problem workaround is found?
A.
B.
The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented
within it
C.
The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented
on all related incident records
D.
The problem record is closed and details of the workaround are documented in a
request for change (RFC)
Feedback :
Correct answer is B. A is incorrect; the problem record must remain open as it hasn't yet been resolved. B is correct to document the
workaround on the problem record, not on each Incident record [C], nor on an RFC [D].
Sample 2
Question 1
Input from which processes could be considered by service level management when negotiating service level
agreements (SLA)?
Sample 1
You choose --->
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. Representatives of all of the other processes need to be consulted for their opinion on what targets can be
realistically achieved.
Question 2
Which one of the following statements about a standard change is INCORRECT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. Standard changes would not normally need to be implemented as soon as was possible, whereas emergency
changes would.
Question 3
Which of the following statements about the service desk are CORRECT?
1. It provides a single point of contact between the service provider and users
2. It manages incidents and service requests
3. It is a service management process
4. Service desk staff try to restore service as quickly as possible
You choose --->
A.
B.
C.
1, 2, and 4 only
2 and 4 only
D.
2 and 3 only
Feedback :
Correct answer is B. The service desk is a function and not a process.
Question 4
Which of the following statements about functions are CORRECT?
1. They may include tools
2. They are groups that use resources to carry out one or more activities
3. One person or group may perform multiple functions
4. They are more costly to implement compared to processes
A.
1, 2 and 3 only
B.
C.
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. Functions are not described as being more costly than processes and this would depend on the function or
process being considered.
Sample 1
Question 5
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the activities carried out by facilities management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to
maintain the infrastructure
Feedback :
Correct answer is C. Facilities management refers to the management of the physical IT environment, typically a data centre or
computer rooms.
Question 6
Which process would assist with the identification and resolution of any incidents and problems associated with service
or component performance?
You choose --->
A.
B.
Capacity management
Supplier management
C.
D.
Technology management
Change management
Feedback :
Correct answer is A. Performance issues are within the scope of capacity management.
Question 7
Which one of the following statements about the known error database (KEDB) is MOST correct?
A.
You choose --->
B.
C.
D.
The KEDB is the same database as the service knowledge management system
(SKMS)
The KEDB should be used during the incident diagnosis phase to try to speed up
the resolution process
Care should be taken to avoid duplication of records in the KEDB. This can be
done by giving access to as many technicians as possible to create new records
Access to the KEDB should be limited to the service desk
Feedback :
Correct answer is B. A The KEDB is part of the SKMS, NOT the same thing. B is correct. C Duplication should be avoided but by
RESTRICTING access. D Yes, the service desk should use it but they are NOT the only ones.
Question 8
Which of the following statements about key performance indicators (KPIs) and metrics are CORRECT?
1. Service metrics measure the end-to-end service
2. Each KPI should relate to a critical success factor
3. Metrics can be used to identify improvement opportunities
4. KPIs can be both qualitative and quantitative
A.
1 only
B.
2 and 3 only
Sample 1
You choose --->
C.
1, 2 and 4 only
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. Each statement is a summary of the book content.
Question 9
Which one of the following maintains relationships between all service components?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is C. The configuration management system (CMS) is responsible via its various data sources (CMDBs, etc) for
maintaining these relationships.
Question 10
Should a customer's request for a new service ALWAYS be fulfilled?
A.
B.
Yes - if they are an external customer as they are paying for the service
No - if they are an internal customer as they are not always paying for the service
C.
No - it is the responsibility of the service provider to carry out due diligence before
requests are fulfilled
D.
Yes - the service provider should ensure that all requests for new services are
fulfilled
Feedback :
Correct answer is C .The service provider should ensure due diligence is carried out against the customer's requirements, irrespective
of whether they are internal or external customers.
Question 11
Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
1. Problem management can support the service desk by providing known errors to speed up incident resolution
2. Problem management is the only source of information to service level management about the impact of changes
You choose --->
A.
B.
1 only
2 only
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A .Problem management is the source of known errors but change and service asset and configuration management
are likely to be other sources of information about the impact of changes.
Question 12
A failure has occurred on a system and is detected by a monitoring tool. This system supports a live IT service. When
should an incident be raised?
Sample 1
A.
B.
An incident should not be raised if the technicians have seen this before and have
a workaround
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D .A There do not need to be discernable impacts to the user for an incident to be raised. B even if a workaround
is available it needs to be recorded to measure any on-going impact of the incident. C - All incidents must be recorded. D Correct, in
order to prevent loss of service or to restore service as soon as possible.
Question 13
Which of the following could be considered stakeholders in a service management project?
1. Users
2. Customers
3. Suppliers
4. Functions
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
C.
3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D .D is the correct response. Stakeholders can be both internal and external entities. An example of a function as a
stakeholder could be the service desk, technical management or application management functions.
Question 14
Which of the following activities does service asset and configuration management ensure are performed?
1. Configuration items (CIs) are identified
2. CIs are baselined
3. Changes to CIs are controlled
You choose --->
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
Feedback :
Correct answer is A .All activities are part of the scope of service asset and configuration management.
Question 15
Which of the following aspects of service design should be considered when designing a service solution?
1. Measurement methods and metrics
2. Management information systems and tools
3. Technology architectures
4. The processes required
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
C.
2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
D.
Sample 1
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. All of these items are aspects of service design.
Question 16
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT for ALL processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is B. A Process design would involve allocation of activities to functions but not their definition. B Correct
processes deliver results or they would not be worthwhile. C Not ALL processes are carried out by external providers. D Is a
description of a function.
Question 17
Which process is primarily responsible for packaging, building, testing and deploying services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is B .All are activities performed by release and deployment management.
Question 18
Which one of the following is the BEST example of a workaround?
A.
B.
You choose --->
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A .A is a good example of a workaround which is not a permanent solution but which overcomes the original incident.
B is a lucky incident resolution and unlikely to be repeatable. C does not allow the user to continue with their original task. D is an
incident under investigation.
Question 19
Which of the following areas can be helped by technology?
1. Request management
2. Service catalogue management
3. Detection and monitoring
4. Design and modelling
Sample 1
A.
1, 2 and 3 only
B.
C.
1, 3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. All four areas can be assisted by technology.
Question 20
Which one of the following is the CORRECT list of stages in the Deming Cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D. The four key stages of the cycle are Plan, Do, Check and Act.
Question 21
Which two processes will be involved the MOST in negotiating and agreeing contracts for the provision of recovery
capability to support continuity plans?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D .ITSC provides the subject matter expertise and supplier management provides the contract negotiation and
selection process. SLM also has a role in underpinning contracts but is not as significant in this respect as the other two processes.
Question 22
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incident model?
A.
The template that defines the incident logging form used for reporting incidents
B.
C.
A type of incident involving a standard (or model) type of configuration item (CI)
A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of
incident
An incident that is easy to solve
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is C .C matches the description of an incident model.
Question 23
What roles are defined in the RACI model?
A.
Sample 1
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A .Roles are Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed.
Question 24
Which stage of the service lifecycle decides what services should be offered and to whom they will be offered?
A.
B.
C.
Service operation
Service design
D.
Service strategy
Feedback :
Correct answer is D .Deciding what services should be offered and to whom is an integral part of service strategy.
Question 25
Which of the following does continual service improvement (CSI) provide guidance on?
1. How to improve process efficiency and effectiveness
2. How to improve services
3. Improvement of all stages of the service lifecycle
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
C.
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D .1. CSI looks for ways to improve process effectiveness and efficiency, as well as cost effectiveness. 2. CSI
identifies and implements improvements to IT services 3. CSI improvement activities support each lifecycle stage: service strategy,
service design, service transition, service operation, and CSI itself.
Question 26
Which of the following is a type of service level agreement (SLA) described in the ITIL service design publication?
A.
B.
Priority-based SLA
Technology-based SLA
C.
D.
Location-based SLA
Customer-based SLA
Feedback :
Correct answer is D .Priority-based, technology-based and location-based SLAs are not discussed in service design.
Question 27
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?
Sample 1
A.
You choose --->
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is B .A and C may cause an event to be generated. D is a meeting. B closely matches the definition of an event in
service operation.
Question 28
Which one of the following is the MOST appropriate stakeholder to define the value of a service?
A.
Customers
B.
C.
IT Senior management
Financial management for IT services
D.
Suppliers
Feedback :
Correct answer is A .Value is viewed as the level to which the service meets customer's expectations and therefore they make the
ultimate decision on whether the service will drive value.
Question 29
Which of the following should be treated as an incident?
1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
3. A network component fails but the user is not aware of any disruption to service
4. A user contacts the service desk about the slow performance of an application
You choose --->
A.
B.
C.
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A .An incident is an unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service or a failure of
a CI that has not yet impacted an IT service. The inability to access an IT service as agreed is an unplanned interruption from the
users perspective.
Question 30
Which one of the following statements about a change model is CORRECT?
A.
B.
C.
A change model defines the steps that should be taken to handle a particular type
of change
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is C .A A change model can be used for emergency changes. B Change models would not routinely be created
when significant changes are made. C is correct. D Escalation procedures can be included in a change model.
Sample 1
Question 31
The CSI approach uses a number of techniques. Which one of the following techniques would BEST help a business
understand "where are we now?"?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is C .Understanding "where are we now" requires a business to create a baseline.
Question 32
Which service operation processes are missing from the following list?
1. Incident management
2. Problem management
3. Access management
4. ?
5. ?
You choose --->
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A .All of the service operation processes are covered by the syllabus. The correct answer is A, B is a process and a
function, C is a function and a process, D are processes in service transition and service design.
Question 33
Which stage of the service lifecycle provides a framework for evaluating service capabilities and risk profiles before new
or changed services are deployed?
A.
Service strategy
B.
C.
D.
Service operation
Feedback :
Correct answer is C .Service transition is responsible for this as part of the deployment of new services.
Question 34
Which of the following activities should a service owner undertake?
1. Representing a specific service across the organization
2. Updating the configuration management system (CMS) after a change
3. Helping to identify service improvements
4. Representing a specific service in change advisory board (CAB) meetings
A.
B.
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
Sample 1
You choose --->
C.
1, 2 and 3 only
D.
1, 3 and 4 only
Feedback :
Correct answer is D .1, 3 and 4 are all responsibilities of the service owner role. Option 2 is the responsibility of the configuration
librarian/administrator.
Question 35
Which one of the following is NOT a purpose or objective of availability management?
A.
B.
C.
To ensure that service availability matches the agreed needs of the business
To assess the impact of changes on the availability plan
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D .D is the responsibility of IT service continuity management.
Question 36
Which one of the following is a CORRECT description of the "four Ps" of service design?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D .1 The four Ps are not a process. 2 Has some merit but only addresses two of the four areas. 3 The four Ps
are not a checklist or set of questions.
Question 37
Which one of the following BEST describes a major problem review?
A.
B.
A major problem review is run as part of the change advisory board (CAby the
change manager. It is conducted after the request for change (RFC) to resolve the
problem has been accepted
A major problem review is facilitated by the service desk manager so that lessons
can be learned after a major problem has been resolved
Facilitated by the problem manager, the review is conducted so that lessons can
be learned from the major problem, and to provide training and awareness for
support staff
C.
You choose --->
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D .D is the book answer. A is the right role but it is not about apportioning blame. B is incorrect. C is plausible but is
facilitated by the wrong role.
Sample 1
Question 38
Which one of the following statements about supplier management is INCORRECT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is A .All are objectives of the supplier management process, except A which is undertaken by service level
management.
Question 39
Which one of the following is a primary purpose of business relationship management?
A.
B.
C.
Maximizing contract value and operational efficiency of the services that are
delivered
D.
Feedback :
Correct answer is D .To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet these needs...
Question 40
Which one of the following statements is an objective of the design coordination process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To monitor and improve the performance of the service design lifecycle stage
Feedback :
Correct answer is D .D is the correct answer. C is the purpose of service catalogue management. B is an objective of service level
management. A is an objective of availability management.
ITIL1
Full feedback
Sample 1
1. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT for ALL processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is B.
A Process design would involve allocation of activities to functions but not their definition. B Correct processes deliver results or
they would not be worthwhile. C Not ALL processes are carried out by external providers. D Is a description of a function.
Suppliers
4.
Functions
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
C.
3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
D is the correct response. Stakeholders can be both internal and external entities. An example of a function as a stakeholder could be
the service desk, technical management or application management functions.
3. Which of the following are key ITIL characteristics that contribute to its success?
1. It is vendor-neutral
2. It is non-prescriptive
3.
It is best practice
4.
It is a standard
A.
B.
3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is B.
Option 4 is incorrect, ITIL is not a standard: ISO/IEC 20000 would be an example of a standard. ITIL is vendor-neutral, non-prescriptive,
and provides a best practice framework.
Sample 1
A.
B.
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
C.
D.
2 and 3 only
All of the above
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
Measurability, delivery of specific results, and delivery of results to a customer or stakeholder are all characteristics of a process.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is C.
Introduction - Decision levels.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
RACI is a responsibility model used by ITIL to help define roles and responsibilities.
A.
B.
Yes - if they are an external customer as they are paying for the service
No - if they are an internal customer as they are not always paying for the service
C.
No - it is the responsibility of the service provider to carry out due diligence before
requests are fulfilled
D.
Yes - the service provider should ensure that all requests for new services are
fulfilled
Feedback :
The correct answer is C.
The service provider should ensure due diligence is carried out against the customer's requirements, irrespective of whether they are
internal or external customers.
Sample 1
8. Which one of the following statements about internal and external customers is MOST correct?
A.
B.
C.
You choose --->
D.
External customers should receive better customer service because they pay for
their IT services
Internal customers should receive better customer service because they pay
employee salaries
The best customer service should be given to the customer that pays the most
money
Internal and external customers should receive the level of customer service that
has been agreed
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
D is the correct response. Both internal and external customers should be provided with the agreed level of service, and with the same
level of customer service.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is C.
Introduction - Characteristics of a process.
10. Which one of the following is NOT a stage of the service lifecycle?
A.
B.
Service optimization
Service transition
C.
D.
Service design
Service strategy
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
Service optimization is the correct answer.
Strategy process
Full feedback
Sample 1
1. Which of the following areas can be helped by technology?
1. Request management
2. Service catalogue management
3.
4.
A.
B.
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
C.
D.
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
All four areas can be assisted by technology.
A.
B.
C.
Maximizing contract value and operational efficiency of the services that are
delivered
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet these needs...
3. Which one of the following is the MOST appropriate stakeholder to define the value of a service?
A.
Customers
B.
C.
IT Senior management
Financial management for IT services
D.
Suppliers
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
Value is viewed as the level to which the service meets customer's expectations and therefore they make the ultimate decision on
whether the service will drive value.
Retired services
4.
Service catalog
A.
1 and 4
Sample 1
You choose --->
B.
C.
1, 2, 3
2, 3, 4
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is C.
Service Assets are documented in the Asset Management System. How this is managed is documented in the Service Transition
Publication under the Service Asset and Configuration Management Process
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
D is incorrect; customer preferences drive value perception. C is incorrect; delivering on customer outcomes is vital. B is incorrect; the
value of a service can be financial but other factors are also relevant. A is correct; customer perception is a vital element in defining how
much a customer values a service.
6. Which stage of the service lifecycle decides what services should be offered and to whom they will be offered?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service design
Service strategy
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
Deciding what services should be offered and to whom is an integral part of service strategy.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is B.
Understanding patterns of Business Activity is one of the major activities in Demand Management
Sample 1
8. Which best summarizes the main activities of the Service Strategy Process?
A.
C.
Define the Market, Develop Offerings, Develop Strategic Assets, Prepare for
Execution
Analyze the Market, Assess current capabilities, Document the gap, Develop the
Business Case
Demand Management, Financial Management, Service Portfolio Management
D.
B.
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
The Service Strategy process is also called Strategy Generation - consists of these four main activities and is supported by 3 other
processes - Demand Management, Finance Management and Service Portfolio Management
A.
B.
C.
You choose --->
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
A is part of the definition of utility. B is unrealistic. C could be feasible as a warranty statement from another industry but is not the
definition of warranty as used by ITIL. D is a good summary of warranty as defined by ITIL.
A.
Capabilities
B.
C.
Cost
Risk
D.
Value
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
A service is a means of delivering value to customers. IT needs capabilities to deliver services. Cost and risk are what IT helps to
manage.
Paper 3
Full feedback
Sample 1
1. Which of the following areas can be helped by technology?
1. Request management
2. Service catalogue management
3.
4.
A.
B.
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
C.
D.
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
All four areas can be assisted by technology.
A.
B.
C.
Maximizing contract value and operational efficiency of the services that are
delivered
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet these needs...
3. Which one of the following is the MOST appropriate stakeholder to define the value of a service?
A.
Customers
B.
C.
IT Senior management
Financial management for IT services
D.
Suppliers
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
Value is viewed as the level to which the service meets customer's expectations and therefore they make the ultimate decision on
whether the service will drive value.
Retired services
4.
Service catalog
A.
1 and 4
Sample 1
You choose --->
B.
C.
1, 2, 3
2, 3, 4
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is C.
Service Assets are documented in the Asset Management System. How this is managed is documented in the Service Transition
Publication under the Service Asset and Configuration Management Process
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
D is incorrect; customer preferences drive value perception. C is incorrect; delivering on customer outcomes is vital. B is incorrect; the
value of a service can be financial but other factors are also relevant. A is correct; customer perception is a vital element in defining how
much a customer values a service.
6. Which stage of the service lifecycle decides what services should be offered and to whom they will be offered?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service design
Service strategy
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
Deciding what services should be offered and to whom is an integral part of service strategy.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is B.
Understanding patterns of Business Activity is one of the major activities in Demand Management
Sample 1
8. Which best summarizes the main activities of the Service Strategy Process?
A.
C.
Define the Market, Develop Offerings, Develop Strategic Assets, Prepare for
Execution
Analyze the Market, Assess current capabilities, Document the gap, Develop the
Business Case
Demand Management, Financial Management, Service Portfolio Management
D.
B.
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
The Service Strategy process is also called Strategy Generation - consists of these four main activities and is supported by 3 other
processes - Demand Management, Finance Management and Service Portfolio Management
A.
B.
C.
You choose --->
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
A is part of the definition of utility. B is unrealistic. C could be feasible as a warranty statement from another industry but is not the
definition of warranty as used by ITIL. D is a good summary of warranty as defined by ITIL.
A.
Capabilities
B.
C.
Cost
Risk
D.
Value
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
A service is a means of delivering value to customers. IT needs capabilities to deliver services. Cost and risk are what IT helps to
manage.
Paper 4
1. Which one of the following statements about a configuration management system (CMS) is CORRECT?
Sample 1
A.
The CMS should not contain corporate data about customers and users
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
A: a CMS can contain corporate data about users / customers such as location or department. B and C: there may be more than one
CMDB but they will be part of a single CMS. D is correct as a CMS still helps to control and report on the infrastructure when IT services
are outsourced.
A.
B.
1 and 2 only
2 only
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is C.
All three are in scope for service transition as all three involve major change.
3. Which of the following does the release and deployment management process address?
1. Defining and agreeing release and deployment plans
2. Ensuring release packages can be tracked
3.
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
C.
D.
1 and 3 only
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
The two correct answers (1 and 2) are included in release and deployment objectives. Option 3 is addressed by change management.
4. Which of the following would be stored in the definitive media library (DML)?
1. Copies of purchased software
2. Copies of internally developed software
3.
4.
A.
B.
C.
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
D.
1, 2 and 3 only
Sample 1
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
The DML contains master copies of all controlled software in an organization along with licence documents or information. The
change schedule would not be included.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is C.
A A change model can be used for emergency changes. B Change models would not routinely be created when significant changes
are made. C is correct. D Escalation procedures can be included in a change model.
6. Which of the following activities does service asset and configuration management ensure are performed?
1. Configuration items (CIs) are identified
2. CIs are baselined
3.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
All activities are part of the scope of service asset and configuration management.
7. Which process is primarily responsible for packaging, building, testing and deploying services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is B.
All are activities performed by release and deployment management.
8. What types of changes are NOT usually included within the scope of change management?
Sample 1
You choose --->
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is B.
A change request is a formal communication seeking an alteration to one or more configuration items (CIs). Services, SLAs and
computers are examples of CIs. A business strategy is not normally a CI and would be out of scope for change management.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
Standard changes would not normally need to be implemented as soon as was possible, whereas emergency changes would.
10. What is the role of the emergency change advisory board (ECAB)?
A.
To assist the change manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during
particularly volatile business periods
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is C.
The emergency change advisory board (ECAB) provides assistance in the authorization of emergency changes.
Paper 5
1. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
1. Problem management can support the service desk by providing known errors to speed up incident resolution
2.
Problem management is the only source of information to service level management about the impact of
change
A.
1 only
B.
C.
2 only
Both of the above
D.
Sample 1
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
Problem management is the source of known errors but change and service asset and configuration management are likely to be other
sources of information about the impact of changes.
2. Which service operation processes are missing from the following list?
1. Incident management
2. Problem management
3.
Access management
4.
5.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
All of the service operation processes are covered by the syllabus. The correct answer is A, B is a process and a function, C is a
function and a process, D are processes in service transition and service design.
A network component fails but the user is not aware of any disruption to service
4.
A user contacts the service desk about the slow performance of an application
A.
B.
C.
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
An incident is an unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service or a failure of a CI that has not yet
impacted an IT service. The inability to access an IT service as agreed is an unplanned interruption from the users perspective.
4. A failure has occurred on a system and is detected by a monitoring tool. This system supports a live IT service. When
should an incident be raised?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sample 1
A There do not need to be discernable impacts to the user for an incident to be raised. B even if a workaround is available it needs
to be recorded to measure any on-going impact of the incident. C - All incidents must be recorded. D Correct, in order to prevent loss
of service or to restore service as soon as possible.
5. Which of the following statements about the service desk is/are CORRECT?
1. The service desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its users for all
operational issues
2.
The service desk should be the owner of the problem management process
A.
2 only
B.
C.
1 only
Both of the above
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is B.
The service desk should be the single point of contact for IT users on a day-by-day basis. The service desk manager may also be the
incident management process owner but would not normally be the owner of problem management.
6. Which of the following statements about the service desk are CORRECT?
1. It provides a single point of contact between the service provider and users
2. It manages incidents and service requests
3.
4.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
Feedback :
The correct answer is B.
The service desk is a function and not a process.
It provides management information about the cost of resolving and preventing problems
A.
1 only
B.
C.
2 only
Both of the above
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is C.
Book answer. They are both valid roles for problem management.
Sample 1
8. What is the purpose of the request fulfilment process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
Request fulfillment is the process responsible for dealing with service requests from the users. All requests (B) is too wide a scope for
the process. Change management looks after change requests (C). Service level management is responsible for D.
9. Which one of the following is the CORRECT sequence of activities for handling an incident?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
The correct order is given in the diagram in the incident management process, and in the subsections of 4.2.5.
10. Which one of the following statements about the known error database (KEDB) is MOST correct?
A.
You choose --->
B.
C.
D.
The KEDB is the same database as the service knowledge management system
(SKMS)
The KEDB should be used during the incident diagnosis phase to try to speed up
the resolution process
Care should be taken to avoid duplication of records in the KEDB. This can be
done by giving access to as many technicians as possible to create new records
Access to the KEDB should be limited to the service desk
Feedback :
The correct answer is B.
A The KEDB is part of the SKMS, NOT the same thing. B is correct. C Duplication should be avoided but by RESTRICTING access.
D Yes, the service desk should use it but they are NOT the only ones.
Paper 6
Sample 1
1. Which of the following does continual service improvement (CSI) provide guidance on?
1. How to improve process efficiency and effectiveness
2. How to improve services
3.
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
C.
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
1. CSI looks for ways to improve process effectiveness and efficiency, as well as cost effectiveness. 2. CSI identifies and implements
improvements to IT services 3. CSI improvement activities support each lifecycle stage: service strategy, service design, service
transition, service operation, and CSI itself.
2. Why do we measure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
CSI - Why do we measure
4.
A.
4 only
B.
C.
1 and 2
3 and 4
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is B.
CSI - Responsibilities of the Service Owner
4. Which of the following statements about key performance indicators (KPIs) and metrics are CORRECT?
1. Service metrics measure the end-to-end service
2. Each KPI should relate to a critical success factor
Sample 1
3.
4.
A.
B.
1 only
2 and 3 only
C.
D.
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
Each statement is a summary of the book content.
5. Which one of the following is NOT a type of metric described in continual service improvement (CSI)?
A.
B.
Process metrics
Service metrics
C.
D.
Personnel metrics
Technology metrics
Feedback :
The correct answer is C.
Personnel metrics are not one of the three types of metrics described in CSI
Continual Service Improvement also aims to improve process effectiveness, efficiency and cost effectiveness of
the IT processes through the whole lifecycle.
A.
B.
1 only
3 only
C.
D.
2 and 3
All the above
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
CSI - Goals and objectives of CSI
7. Which is the first activity of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is A.
The improvement approach begins with embracing the vision by understanding the high-level business objectives.
Sample 1
8. The CSI approach uses a number of techniques. Which one of the following techniques would BEST help a business
understand "where are we now?"?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is C.
Understanding "where are we now" requires a business to create a baseline.
Establish a baseline for all levels for future comparisons of services carried out
A.
2 only
B.
C.
1 and 3
2 and 3
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is B.
CSI - the CSI Model
10. Which one of the following is the CORRECT list of stages in the Deming Cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback :
The correct answer is D.
The four key stages of the cycle are Plan, Do, Check and Act.