Your name

Score: ____
35

Student ID #
Discussion Time: 9am

10am

11am 12pm

Biology 5A (Summer, 2012)

August 14, 2012
Midterm Examination #2
Version A
You may NOT talk, pass notes, or have any books, notes, calculators, earphones, or electronic communications
devices near you during the examination.
Write your name, student ID# and discussion time on this examination copy. Follow the instructions for the
Scantron form as shown on the screen in the lecture room during the exam, being sure to fill in the correct version
number (shown above) on the form as well.
When you finish, please check that your Scantron form is correctly marked and is consistent with your answers on
this examination copy.
For each question, choose only ONE answer that is the BEST of all the choices. When you are done, slide the
Scantron form under the first page, and turn both in together.
The academic misconduct policy is clearly stated in the Biology 5LA laboratory manual, and should be rigorously
adopted. There is a zero-tolerance policy for academic misconduct.

This exam was given to 119 students in summer of 2012. The average score was 17/35 (48%)
with a range of 4/35 (11%) to 31/35 (89%). The key is below:
Q#
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

D
B
A
D
E
C
D
E
B
D

Q#
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20

D
B
D
E
C
D
A
E
C
B

Q#
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30

A
B
D
D
A
C
A
E
C
B

Q#
31
32
33
34
35

B
E
B
E
D

1) A U-shaped tube has a semi-permeable membrane between the two halves. The membrane is permeable only to
water. At the beginning of an experiment, the solution on side 'X' consists of 50mL of 0.05M glucose and 0.05M
maltose, while the solution on side 'Y' consists of 50mL 0.15M glucose. After the system reaches equilibrium:
A) The water level stays the same on both sides.
B) The water level on side X is higher.
C) Nothing moves across the membrane.
D) The water level on side Y is higher.
E) Maltose has diffused from side X to side Y.
2) After the experiment above reaches equilibrium, 0.1mL of a solution containing the enzyme maltase are added to each
side of the tube. Maltase hydrolyzes maltose into two glucose monomers. After the system reaches equilibrium again:
I. The water level on side Y will be higher than on side X.
II. The water level on both sides would be the same.
III. The temperature of the system increases.
A) II only.

B) II and III.

C) I only.

D) III only.

E) I and III.

3) Cells are removed from a developing mouse embryo and placed in a growth medium. After several minutes, the mouse
cells shrink. We could conclude that:
A) Solutes are at a higher concentration outside the cells.
B) The pH of the medium must be lower outside the cells.
C) The cells are in an isotonic environment.
D) Active transport of solute is occurring in the cells.
E) The growth medium is hypotonic to the cells.
4) Sucrose is imported into yeast cells using the energy from a proton gradient: As a proton moves into the cell, a sucrose
molecule is imported. The protein that does this is best called a(n):
A) ATPase.
B) channel protein.
C) peripheral membrane protein.
D) cotransporter.
E) proton pump.
5) If a cell needs to make its membranes more fluid at a lower temperature, which of the following would work?
I. Removing double bonds in its phospholipids.
II. Adding more cis double bonds to its phospholipids.
III. Adding more cholesterol to the membranes.
IV. Removing cholesterol from its membranes.
A) II and IV.

B) II only.

C) I and IV.

D) I and III.

E) II and III.

6) A membrane system is seen inside a eukaryotic cell as shown here. It has cisternae but is not connected to any other
organelles or membranes. Which of the following would be found inside this membrane system?
A) The DNA that stores genetic information for the cell.
B) Ribosomes synthesizing proteins for export.
C) Enzymes that modify carbohydrates on proteins.
D) Enzymes of the citric acid cycle.
E) Enzymes that detoxify drugs and poisons.
7) Lysosomes are normally formed by:
A) Endocytosis from outside the cell by phagocytosis.
B) Receptor-mediated endocytosis.
C) Pinocytosis of hydrolytic enzymes from outside the cell.
D) Budding off from the Golgi apparatus.
E) Exocytosis of the mitochondria.

8) Which of the following would not be found in plant cells?

A) Central vacuole.
B) Endoplasmic reticulum.
C) Chloroplast.
D) Mitochondria.
E) All of the above are found in plant cells.
9) Chloroplasts and mitochondria have all of the following in common, except:
A) They make their own ribosomes.
B) They are part of the endomembrane system.
C) They have their own DNA.
D) They are able to make ATP by chemiosmosis.
E) They have both inner and outer membranes.
10) The nuclear lamina is composed of:
A) The inner membrane of the nucleus.
B) Microfilaments of actin polymers.
C) Microtubule fibers.
D) Intermediate filament proteins.
E) Nuclear pore proteins.
11) A reaction profile is shown at right. The reaction could correspond to:
A) The overall reactions of glycolysis.
B) The overall reactions of the citric acid cycle.
C) Breaking a protein down into its amino acids.
D) Building starch from monomers.
E) A spontaneous reaction.
12) For the profile shown above, which of the following is correct?
A) The height of #3 indicates the change in entropy.
B) An enzyme would make #1 smaller.
C) The G of the reaction is shown by #3.
D) A catalyst would make #2 larger.
E) The energy of activation (EA) is shown by #2.
13) PFK, the enzyme that catalyzes the third step of glycolysis, is inhibited by high levels of ATP. The ATP binds to a part of
PFK that is different than where the substrate binds. This causes PFK to not be able to bind the substrate. This type of
regulation could be called:
I. feedback inhibition.
A) II only.

II. allosteric regulation.

B) I, II, III

III. competitive inhibition.

C) II, III only.

D) I , II only.

E) III only.

14) Living organisms do not violate the second law of thermodynamics because:
A) Organisms exist above absolute zero.
B) Entropy in the universe is always increasing.
C) Cells and tissues are "closed" systems.
D) Energy can be neither created nor destroyed.
E) Living systems never reach equilibrium.
15) In the presence of oxygen, most of the energy originally stored in glucose is used to make ATP by:
A) the Calvin Cycle in the plant thylakoid.
B) Photosystem II in the membranes of the chloroplast.
C) a membrane protein in the mitochondria.
D) glycolysis inside the cytosol of cells.
E) the electron transport chain inside an organelle.
16) A yeast cell is growing in glucose in the absence of oxygen. Which of the following would not be produced?
A) pyruvate.
B) ATP.
C) ethanol.
D) FADH2.
E) CO2.

17) Under anaerobic conditions, which of the following would cause a yeast cell to make more ATP?
A) Lowering the pH of the mitochondria intermembrane space.
B) Adding fatty acids to the cytoplasm.
C) Reducing the availability of NAD+.
D) Adding protons to the mitochondrial matrix.
E) Increasing the concentration of pyruvate in the cytosol.
18) Drugs containing cyanide inhibit cytochrome c oxidase, the last enzyme in the mitochondrial electron transport chain.
What is the effect of cyanide poisoning on cellular respiration?
A) ATP production by the cell will stop.
B) All NADH in the mitochondria will become oxidized to NAD+.
C) Fermentation cannot occur, so lactic acid cannot be made.
D) Glucose cannot be oxidized to make pyruvate.
E) Oxygen cannot be reduced to make water.
19) The purpose of pyruvate oxidation is to:
A) make citric acid that can be used in the mitochondrial matrix.
B) generate precursors that can be used to make sugars.
C) split pyruvate into a two-carbon compound + CO2.
D) recycle NAD+ so that glycolysis can keep going.
E) produce ATP from ADP + Pi.
20) All of the following are products of the light reactions in photosynthesis except:
A) ATP.
B) H2O.
C) O2.
D) NADPH.
E) All of the above are products of the light reactions.
21) Which is correct about photosystems?
A) Electrons from chlorophyll transfer to a primary electron acceptor.
B) As electrons move from one pigment to another, protons are pumped.
C) Photosystem I can transfer electrons directly to NADP+.
D) The light-harvesting complex uses light energy to make ATP from ADP + Pi.
E) In the reaction-center complex, NADPH is oxidized to replenish lost electrons.
22) During the Calvin cycle:
A) NADP+ is reduced when larger organic molecules are made.
B) Electrons from NADPH are used to reduce organic molecules.
C) ATP is generated by addition of CO2 to RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate).
D) Electrons originally in Acetyl-CoA get transferred to electron carriers.
E) RuBisCo will make a 3-carbon compound from 3 x CO2.
23) Electron transport chains (ETCs) are used to make ATP in both chloroplasts and mitochondria. Which of the following is
correct?
A) In mitochondria, protons are pumped across a membrane, but in chloroplasts, electrons are pumped.
B) In the mitochondria, electrons from the ETC end up in ATP.
C) The mitochondrial ETC is in an inner membrane, but the chloroplast ETC is in the outer membrane.
D) In chloroplast ETCs, the electrons originally come from water.
E) In chloroplasts, electrons end up in water after the ETC, but in mitochondria, they end up in oxygen.
24) A dried piece of wood is mostly cellulose. Where did most of the dried wood's mass come from?
A) Organic nutrients in soil.
B) Photons in light from the sun.
C) Electrons in water.
D) Gas in the atmosphere.
E) Sugars made by bacteria.
25) In the Meselson-Stahl experiment proving that DNA replication is semiconservative:
A) Parental strands of DNA had a higher density than new DNA.
B) Proteins were labeled with a radioactive isotope.
C) One round of replication was enough to show DNA replication was semiconservative.
D) DNase treatment was used to degrade newly synthesized DNA.
E) An isotope of nitrogen (15N) was used to detect DNA by radioactive decay.
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26) In the Hershey-Chase experiment using bacteriophage T2:

A) DNA was labeled with radioactive nitrogen.
B) The entire T2 bacteriophage entered the E. coli cytoplasm.
C) Cell pellets contained radioactivity only when DNA was labeled.
D) Proteins were labeled using phosphorus (32P).
E) Electron microscope images proved that DNA enters the E. coli.
27) The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is an artificial way of replicating DNA many times. Cells use helicase when they
replicate DNA. In PCR, the role of helicase is accomplished instead by:
A) Heating the reaction to 95C for several minutes.
B) Using DNA primers instead of RNA primers.
C) Cooling the reaction to allow primers to base pair with the template.
D) Using Thermus aquaticus (Taq) DNA polymerase.
E) Helicase is not needed because there are no Okazaki fragments in PCR.
28) An E. coli cell is replicating its DNA when it is treated with a drug that blocks the 5'-to-3' exonuclease of DNA
polymerase. What will happen?
A) Many more errors in DNA replication will be made, but replication will be completed.
B) There will be large single-stranded gaps in the DNA.
C) Leading and lagging strand synthesis will immediately stop.
D) Okazaki fragments consisting only of DNA will remain in the DNA.
E) Okazaki fragments consisting of DNA+RNA will remain in the DNA.
29) Which of these describes the correct order of events in the synthesis of Primase in yeast cells?
A) gene exported to cytoplasm -> transcription -> translation in rough ER -> Golgi
B) transcription of DNA in nucleus -> translocation of ribosome to rough ER -> transport vesicle
C) mRNA exported from nucleus -> translation of mRNA in cytosol -> protein goes through nuclear pore
D) translation of DNA in nucleus -> mRNA transcribed by ribosome -> protein folds in transport vesicle
E) mRNA goes into nucleus -> protein assembled in nucleolus -> export to cytoplasm
30) Eukaryotic cells are grown for many generations in nonradioactive precursors. The cells are then transferred to
radioactive precursors just before S phase, so that newly synthesized DNA strands become labeled. Shown below is
one of the cell's chromosomes during the next metaphase. Where is the radioactivity found (in black)?

31) In the DNA of a bacterium, 40% of the bases are either A or T (i.e., [%A + %T] = 40%). What percentage of the bases are
Cytosine?
A) 40%
B) 30%
C) 20%
D) 10%
E) 60%
32) Mice have 2n=40 chromosomes in their somatic cells. The number of chromosomes in a mouse sperm cell and a
mouse skin cell are, respectively:
A) 10, 40.
B) 40, 40.
C) 4, 4.
D) 2, 4.
E) 20, 40.
33) Which of the diagrams below shows a cell in a species with 2n=2 undergoing the first metaphase of meiosis?

34) A cell that is 2n=16 undergoes two divisions by mitosis to produce four cells. The number of chromosomes in each of
the four cells is:
A) 8.
B) 32.
C) 4.
D) 2.
E) 16.
35) Which of the following is correct about meiosis?
A) After Telophase II, every nucleus contains two of every chromosome, one from each parent.
B) Crossing over occurs in Prophase II.
C) Just before Prophase II, the DNA undergoes replication.
D) The second division results in n -> n.
E) Centromeres will divide in Metaphase I.
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