Solved Paper 2014

Joint Entrance Examination

Time : 3 hrs

MM : 360

Instructions
1.

This test consists of 90 questions.

2.

There are three parts in the question paper A,B,C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 marks for correct
response.

3.

Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction 2 for correct response of each
question. 1/4 mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect response for an item in the answer sheet.

4.

There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instructions.

Physics
1. The current voltage relation of diode is

3. A mass m supported by a

given by I = ( e1000 V / T 1) mA, where the

applied voltage V is in volt and the
temperature T is in kelvin. If a student
makes an error measuring 0.01 V while
measuring the current of 5 mA at 300K,
what will be the error in the value of
current in mA?

massless string wound

around a uniform hollow m
cylinder of mass m and
radius R. If the string does
not slip on the cylinder,
with what acceleration will
the mass fall on release?

(a) 0.2 mA
(c) 0.5 mA

(a)

(b) 0.02 mA
(d) 0.05 mA

2. From a tower of height H, a particle is

2g
3

(b)

g
2

(c)

5g
6

(d) g

4. A block of mass m is placed on a surface

thrown vertically upwards with a speed u.

The time taken by the particle to hit the
ground, is n times that taken by it to reach
the highest point of its path. The relation
between H, u and n is

with a vertical cross-section given by

y = x 3 / 6. If the coefficient of friction is
0.5, the maximum height above the
ground at which the block can be placed
without slipping is

(a) 2 gH = n2u 2

(b) gH = (n 2 )2 u 2

(c) 2 gH = nu (n 2 )

(d) gH = (n 2 ) u

(a)

2 2

1
m
6

(b)

2
m
3

(c)

1
m
3

(d)

1
m
2

2 JEE Main Solved Papers

5. When a rubber band is stretched by a
distance x, it exerts a restoring force of
magnitude F = a x + bx 2 , where a and b are
constants. The work done in stretching the
unstretched rubber-band by L is
(a) a L2 + bL3
(c)

aL2
bL3
+
2
3

1 2
(aL + bL3 )
2
2
1 aL
bL3
(d)
+

2 2
3

(b)

6. A bob of mass m attached to an

inextensible string of length l is suspended
from a vertical support. The bob rotates in a
horizontal circle with an angular speed
rad/s about the vertical support. About the
point of suspension
(a) angular momentum is conserved
(b) angular momentum changes in magnitude but
not in direction
(c) angular momentum changes in direction but not
in magnitude
(d) angular momentum changes both in direction
and magnitude

7. Four particles, each of mass M and

equidistant from each other, move along a
circle of radius R under the action of their
mutual gravitational attraction, the speed
of each particle is
(a)

GM
R

(b)

2 2

(c)

GM
(1 + 2 2 )
R

(d)

1 GM
(1 + 2 2 )
2 R

tube in a vertical
plane. Two liquids
which do not mix and

d2
of densities d1 and d2
are filled in the tube.
d1
Each liquid subtends
90 angle at centre. Radius joining their
interface makes an angle with vertical.
Ratio d1 / d2 is
1 + sin
1 sin
1 + tan
(c)
1 tan
(a)

1 + cos
1 cos
1 + sin
(d)
1 cos
(b)

10. On heating water, bubbles beings

formed at the bottom of the vessel detach
and rise. Take the bubbles to be spheres
of radius R and making a circular contact
of radius r with the bottom
of the vessel. If r <<R and
the surface tension of water
is T, value of r just before
R
bubbles detach is (density
2r
of water is )
(a) R 2

w g
3T

(b) R 2

w g
6T

(c) R 2

w g
T

(d) R 2

3w g
T

11. Three rods of copper, brass and steel are

GM
R

8. The pressure that has to be applied to the

ends of a steel wire of length 10 cm to keep
its length constant when its temperature is
raised by 100C is (For steel, Youngs
modulus is 2 1011Nm 2 and coefficient of
thermal expansion is 1.1 10 5 K 1)
(a) 2.2 108 Pa
(c) 2.2 107 Pa

9. There is a circular

(b) 2.2 109 Pa

(d) 2.2 106 Pa

welded together to form a Y-shaped

structure. Area of cross-section of each
rod is 4 cm2 . End of copper rod is
maintained at 100C whereas ends of
brass and steel are kept at 0C. Lengths
of the copper, brass and steel rods are 46,
13 and 12 cm respectively. The rods are
thermally insulated from surroundings
except at ends. Thermal conductivities of
copper, brass and steel are 0.92, 0.26 and
0.12 in CGS units, respectively. Rate of
heat flow through copper rod is
(a) 1.2 cal/s
(c) 4.8 cal/s

(b) 2.4 cal/s

(d) 6.0 cal/s

JEE Main Solved Paper 2014

12. One mole of diatomic

17. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two

800 K
ideal gas undergoes a
cyclic process ABC as
shown in figure. The
600 K
C
A
process BC is adiabatic.
400 K
V
The temperatures at A,
B and C are 400 K, 800 K and 600 K,
respectively.
Choose
the
correct
statement.

(a) The change in internal energy in whole cyclic

process is 250 R
(b) The change in internal energy in the process CA
is 700 R
(c) The change in internal energy in the process AB
is 350 R
(d) The change in internal energy in the process BC
is 500 R

13. An open glass tube is immersed in mercury

in such a way that a length of 8 cm extends
above the mercury level. The open end of
the tube is then closed and sealed and the
tube is raised vertically up by additional 46
cm. What will be length of the air column
above mercury in the tube now?
(Atmospheric pressure = 76 cm of Hg)
(a) 16 cm (b) 22 cm (c) 38 cm (d) 6 cm

14. A particle moves with simple harmonic

circular plates separated by a distance of

5 mm and with a dielectric of dielectric
constant 2.2 between them. When the
electric field in the dielectric is
3 104 V/m, the charge density of the
positive plate will be close to
(a) 6 107 C/m 2

(b) 3 107 C/m 2

(c) 3 10 C/m

(d) 6 104 C/m 2

18. In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of

40 W, 5 bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W
and 1 heater of 1 kW. The voltage of the
electric mains is 220 V. The minimum
capacity of the main fuse of the building
will be
(a) 8 A

(b) 10 A

(c) 12 A

amplitude of motion is 3a
time period of oscillations is 8
amplitude of motion is 4a
time period of oscillations is 6

(d) 14 A

19. A conductor lies along the z-axis at

1.5 z < 1.5 m and carries a fixed

current of 10.0 A in az direction (see
figure).
For
a
field
B = 3.0 10 4 e0.2 x ay T, find the power

required to move the conductor at

constant speed to x = 2.0 m, y = 0 in
5 10 3 s. Assume parallel motion along
the x-axis.
z

motion in a straight line. In first sec, after

starting from rest it travels a distance a and
in next sec, it travels 2a, in same
direction, then
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1.5
l
B

2.0
1.5

15. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one

end. Find the number of possible natural
oscillations of air column in the pipe whose
frequencies lie below 1250 Hz. The
velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.
(a) 12

(b) 8

(c) 6

(d) 4

16. Assume that an electric field E = 30 x 2 $i

exists in space. Then, the potential
difference VA VO, where VO is the
potential at the origin and VA the potential
at x = 2 m, is
(a) 120 J

(b) 120 J (c) 80 J

(d) 80 J

(a) 1.57 W
(c) 14.85 W

(b) 2.97 W
(d) 29.7 W

20. The coercivity of a small magnet where

the ferromagnet gets demagnetised is
3 103 Am 1. The current required to be
passed in a solenoid of length 10 cm and
number of turns 100, so that the magnet
gets demagnetised when inside the
solenoid is
(a) 30 mA (b) 60 mA (c) 3 A

(d) 6 A

4 JEE Main Solved Papers

21. In the circuit shown here, the point C

24. A green light is incident from the water to the

is kept connected to point A till the

current flowing through the circuit
becomes
constant.
Afterward,
suddenly point C is disconnected
from point A and connected to point
B at time t = 0. Ratio of the voltage
across resistance and the inductor at
t = L / R will be equal to

air-water interface at the critical angle ().

Select the correct statement.

L
B

(a)

e
1 e

(c) 1

(b) 1
(d)

1 e
e

22. During

the
propagation
of
electromagnetic waves in a medium,

(a) electric energy density is double of the

magnetic energy density
(b) electric energy density is half of the
magnetic energy density
(c) electric energy density is equal to the
magnetic energy density
(d) Both electric and magnetic energy
densities are zero

23. A thin convex lens made from crown

3
glass = has focal length f.

2
When
it is measured in two different liquids
4
5
having refractive indices and . It
3
3
has the focal lengths f1 and f2 ,
respectively. The correct relation
between the focal length is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

f1 = f2 < f
f1 > f and f2 becomes negative
f2 > f and f1 becomes negative
f1 and f2 both become negative

(a) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of

the water at an angle of 90 to the normal
(b) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is less
than that of green light will come out of the air
medium.
(c) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is
more than that of green light will come out to the air
medium.
(d) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of
the water at various angles to the normal.

25. Two beams, A and B, of plane polarised light

with mutually perpendicular planes of
polarisation are seen through a polaroid. From
the position when the beam A has maximum
intensity (and beam B has zero intensity), a
rotation of polaroid through 30 makes the two
beams appear equally bright. If the initial
intensities of the two beams are I A and IB
respectively, then I A / IB equals
(a) 3

(b)

3
2

(c) 1

(d)

1
3

26. The radiation corresponding to 3 2 transition

of hydrogen atom falls on a metal surface to
produce photoelectrons. These electrons are
made to enter a magnetic field of 3 10 4 T. If
the radius of the largest circular path followed
by these electrons is 10.0 mm, the work
function of the metal is close to
(a) 1.8 eV

(b) 1.1 eV (c) 0.8 eV

1

(d) 1.6 eV
2

27. Hydrogen(1H ), deuterium(1H ), singly ionised

helium (2 He4 )+ and doubly ionised lithium

(3 Li8 )+ + all have one electron around the
nucleus. Consider an electron transition from
n = 2 to n = 1. If the wavelengths of emitted
radiation are 1, 2 , 3 and 4 , respectively for
four elements, then approximately which one
of the following is correct?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

41 = 2 2 = 2 3 = 4
1 = 2 2 = 2 3 = 4
1 = 2 = 4 3 = 9 4
1 = 2 2 = 3 3 = 4 4

JEE Main Solved Paper 2014

28. The forward biased diode connection is
+2V

(a)
(b)
(c)

30. Match List I (Electromagnetic wave

type)
with
List
II
(Its
association/application) and select the
correct option from the choices given
below the lists.

2V

3V

3V

2V

4V

2V

+2V

List I

(d)

A.

Infrared waves

List II

1. To treat muscular strain

B.

Radio waves

2. For broadcasting

29. A student measured the length of a rod and

C.

X-rays

3. To detect fracture of bones

wrote it as 3.50 cm. Which instrument did

he use to measure it?

D.

Ultraviolet

4. Absorbed by the ozone layer

of the atmosphere

(a) A meter scale

(b) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in vernier
scale matches with 9 divisions in main scale and
main scale has 10 divisions in 1 cm
(c) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the
circular scale and pitch as 1 mm
(d) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular
scale and pitch as 1 mm

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Codes
A
4
1
3
1

B
3
2
2
2

C
2
4
1
3

D
1
3
4
4

Chemistry
31. The correct set of four quantum numbers

34. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an

for the valence electrons of rubidium atom

( Z = 37) is

organic compound was digested by

Kjeldahl's method and the evolved ammonia
M
was absorbed in 60 mL of
sulphuric acid.
10
The unreacted acid required 20 mL of M /10
sodium
hydroxide
for
complete
neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen
in the compound is

1
2
1
(c) 5, 1, ,1, +
2
(a) 5, 0, 0, +

1
2
1
(d) 5, 0, 1, +
2
(b) 5, 1, 0, +

32. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der

Waals equation at low pressure can be
written as
RT
(a) Z = 1 +
pb
pb
(c) Z = 1
RT

a
(b) Z = 1
VRT
pb
(d) Z = 1 +
RT

33. CsCl crystallises in body centred cubic

lattice. If a its edge length, then which of
the following expressions is correct?
(a) r

Cs +

(b) r

Cs +

(c) r

Cs +

(d) r

Cs

+ rCl = 3a
3a
+ rCl =
2
3
+ rCl =
a
2
+ rCl = 3a

(a) 6%
(c) 3%

(b) 10%
(d) 5%

35. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an

electrolyte is 50 . The specific
conductance of the solution of 0.5 M
solution of same electrolyte is 1.4 S m 1
and resistance of same solution of the
same electrolyte is 280 . The molar
conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the
electrolyte in Sm 2mol1 is
(a) 5 104

(b) 5 103

(c) 5 10

(d) 5 102

6 JEE Main Solved Papers

36. For the complete combustion of ethanol,

40. For the non-stoichiometric reaction

C2H 5OH( l)+ 3O2( g) 2CO2( g)+ 3H2O( l),

the amount of heat produced as measured in
bomb calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol1 at
25C. Assuming ideality the enthalpy of
combustion, C H, for the reaction will be

2 A + B C + D, the following kinetic

data were obtained in three separate
experiments, all at 298 K.

(a) 1366. 95 kJ mol 1

(i)

0.1 M

0.1 M

1.2 10 3

(ii)

0.1 M

0.2 M

1.2 10 3

(iii)

0.2 M

0.1 M

2 . 4 10 3

(R = 8.314 J K 1mol 1)
(b) 1361. 95 kJ mol 1
(c) 1460. 50 kJ mol 1
(d) 1350. 50 kJ mol 1

The rate law for the formation of C is

37. The equivalent conductance of NaCl at

concentration C and at infinite dilution are
C and , respectively. The correct
relationship between C and is given as
(where, the constant B is positive)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

C
C
C
C

=
=
=
=

Initial rate of
Initial
Initial
concen tration concentration formation of C
( B)
( A)
(mol L 1S 1)

+ (B)C
(B)C
(B) C
+ (B ) C

38. Consider separate solution of 0.500 M

dC
= k[ A][B]
dt
dC
(c)
= k[ A][B]2
dt

(a)

dC
= k[ A]2 [B]
dt
dC
(d)
= k[ A]
dt

(b)

41. Among the following oxoacids, the

correct decreasing
strength is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

order

of

acid

HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4

HClO4 > HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3
HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl
HClO2 > HClO4 > HClO3 > HOCl

C2H5OH (aq), 0.100 M Mg 3(PO4 )2 (aq),

0.250 M KBr(aq) and 0.125 M Na3PO4 (aq)
at 25C. Which statement is true about these
solution, assuming all salts to be strong
electrolytes?

42. The metal that cannot be obtained by

(a) They all have the same osmotic pressure

(b) 0.100 M Mg 3 (PO 4 )2 (aq) has the highest osmotic
pressure
(c) 0.125 M Na 3PO 4 (aq) has the highest osmotic
pressure
(d) 0.500 M C 2H5OH (aq) has the highest osmotic
pressure

43. The octahedral complex of a metal ion

39. For the reaction,

SO2( g) +

1
O ( g) q
2 2

SO3( g)

if Kp = KC( RT )x
where, the symbols have usual meaning,
then the value of x is (assuming ideality)
(a) 1
(c)

1
2

1
(b)
2
(d) 1

electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its

salts is
(a) Ag
(c) Cu

(b) Ca
(d) Cr

M 3 + with four monodentate ligands L1,

L2 , L3 and L4 absorb wavelengths in the

region of red, green, yellow and blue,
respectively. The increasing order of
ligand strength of the four ligands is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

L4 < L3 , L2 < L1
L1 < L3 < L2 < L4
L3 < L2 < L4 < L1
L1 < L2 < L4 < L3

44. Which of the following properties is not

shown by NO?
(a) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state
(b) It is a neutral oxide
(c) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen
dioxide
(d) Its bond order is 2.5

45. In which of the following reactions H2O2

acts as a reducing agent?

JEE Main Solved Paper 2014

50. The equation which is balanced

and

represents the correct product(s) is

I. H2O2 + 2H + + 2e 2H2O

(a) Li 2O + 2KCl 2LiCl + K 2O

(b) [CoCl(NH3 )5 ]+ + 5H+ Co2+

II. H2O2 2e O2 + 2H +

+ 5NH+4 + Cl

III. H2O2 + 2e 2OH

IV. H2O2 + 2OH 2e O2 + 2H2O

(a) I and II
(c) I and III

(c) [Mg(H2O)6 ]2+ + (EDTA)4

Excess NaOH

(b) III and IV

(d) II and IV

[Mg(EDTA)]2+ + 6H2O

46. The correct statement for the molecule,

CsI3 is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

51. In SN2 reactions, the correct order of

it is a covalent molecule
it contains Cs+ and I3
it contains Cs3+ and I ions
it contains Cs+ , I and lattice I2 molecule

reactivity for the following compounds

and
CH3Cl,CH3CH2Cl, (CH3 )2 CHCl
(CH3 )3 CCl is

47. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen

of a particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4.
The ratio of number of their molecule is
(a) 1 : 4

(b) 7 : 32 (c) 1 : 8

(d) 3 : 16

48. Given below are the half-cell reactions

Mn2 + + 2 e Mn ; E = 1.18 eV
2 (Mn 3+ + e Mn2 + ); E = + 1.51 eV
The E for 3Mn2 + Mn + 2Mn3+ will
be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2 . 69 V; the reaction will not occur

2 . 69 V; the reaction will occur
0. 33 V; the reaction will not occur
0. 33 V; the reaction will occur

49. Which

series of reactions correctly

represents chemical relations related to
iron and its compound?
(a) Fe

Dil. H2 SO4

(b) Fe

O 2 , Heat

FeSO 4

FeO

H2 SO4 ,O2

Dil. H2 SO4

Cl , Heat

Heat

Fe

Heat

Fe

FeSO 4

Heat, air

2
(c) Fe
FeCl 3 FeCl 2

O , Heat

52. On heating an aliphatic primary amine

with chloroform and ethanolic potassium
hydroxide, the organic compound formed
is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

an alkanol
an alkanediol
an alkyl cyanide
an alkyl isocyanide

53. The most suitable reagent for the

(a) KMnO4
(b) K 2 Cr2O7
(c) CrO3
(d) PCC (pyridinium chlorochromate)

54. The major organic compound formed by

Zn Fe

(d) Fe

(a) CH3 CI > (CH3 )2 CHCI > CH3 CH2 CI

> (CH3 )3 CCI
(b) CH3 CI > CH3 CH2 CI > (CH3 )2 CHCI
> (CH3 )3 CCI
(c) CH3 CH2 Cl > CH3 Cl > (CH3 )2 CHCl
> (CH3 )3 CCI
(d) (CH3 )2 CHCI > CH3 CH2 CI > CH3 CI
> (CH3 )3 CCI

conversion of
R CH2 OH R CHO is

Fe2 (SO 4 ) 3

(d) CuSO4 + 4KCN K 2 [Cu(CN)4 ]

+ K 2 SO4

CO, 600 C
FeO
Fe3O 4
CO, 700 C

Fe

the reaction of 1,1,1-trichloroethane with

silver powder is
(a) acetylene
(c) 2-butyne

(b) ethene
(d) 2-butene

8 JEE Main Solved Papers

55. Sodium phenoxide when heated with CO2
under pressure at 125C yields a product
which on acetylation produces C.
ONa

57. For which of the following molecule

significant 0 ?

Cl

CN

OH

SH

Cl

CN

OH

SH

II

III

IV

125

+ CO2 B H

C
5 atm

Ac2 O

The major product C would be

OH

OCOCH3
COOH

(a)

COCH3

(b)

(a) Only I
(c) Only III

(b) I and II
(d) III and IV

58. Which one is classified as a condensation

polymer?

COCH3

(a) Dacron
(c) Teflon

OCOCH3

OH

(b) Neoprene
(d) Acrylonitrile

59. Which one of the following bases is not

present in DNA?

(c)

COOCH3

(d)

COOH

56. Considering the basic strength of amines

in aqueous solution, which one has the
smallest pKb value?
(b) CH3NH2
(d) C6H5NH2

(a) (CH3 )2 NH
(c) (CH3 )3 N

(a) Quinoline
(c) Cytosine

(b) Adenine
(d) Thymine

60. In the reaction,

LiAlH4

PCl 5

Alc. KOH

CH3COOH A B C
The product C is
(a) acetaldehyde
(c) ethylene

(b) acetylene
(d) acetyl chloride

Mathematics
and
X = {4 n 3 n 1 : n N}
Y = {9 ( n 1) : n N}; where N is the set of
natural numbers, then X Y is equal to

61. If

(b) Y X
(d) Y

(a) N
(c) X

62. If z is a complex number such that| z| 2,

then the minimum value of z +
(a) is equal to

1
2

5
2

(b) lies in the interval (1, 2)

5
2
3
5
(d) is strictly greater than but less than
2
2
(c) is strictly greater than

and
the
equation
aR
2
2
3 ( x [ x ]) + 2 ( x [ x ]) + a = 0 (where,[ x ]
denotes the greatest integer x) has no
integral solution, then all possible values
of a lie in the interval

63. If

(a) (1, 0) (0, 1)

(c) (2 , 1)

(b) (1, 2 )
(d) (, 2 ) (2 , )

64. Let and be the roots of equation

px 2 + qx + r = 0, p 0. If p, q and r are in
AP and

1 1
+ = 4, then the value of| |

is
(a)

61
9

(b)

2 17
9

(c)

34
9

(d)

2 13
9

JEE Main Solved Paper 2014

65. If , 0 and f( n) = n + n and

72. If g is the inverse of a function f and

3
1 + f(1) 1 + f(2)
1 + f(1) 1 + f(2) 1 + f(3)
1 + f(2) 1 + f(3) 1 + f(4)

f ( x ) =

= K(1 )2(1 )2 ( )2 ,
(a)

(d) 1

(c) 1

that AA T = A T A and B = A 1 A T , then BBT

is equal to
(b) I

1 T

(c) B

(d) (B )

67. If the coefficients of x 3 and x 4 in the

expansion of (1 + ax + bx 2 )(1 2 x )18 in

powers of x are both zero, then ( a, b) is
equal to
251
(a) 16,

3
272

(c) 14,

251
(b) 14,

3
272

(d) 16,

68. The angle between the lines whose

direction cosines satisfy the equations
l + m + n = 0 and l2 = m2 + n2 is

(c)
6

(a)

(b) 5 x4

1
1 + {g ( x)}5

(d)
2
(b)

(0, 1) satisfying f(0) = 2 = g(1), g(0) = 0 and

f(1) = 6, then for some c ] 0, 1[
(a) 2/
f (c ) = g (c )
(c) f (c ) = g (c )

74. If x = 1 and x = 2 are extreme points of

f( x ) = log| x | + x 2 + x , then
1
2
1
(c) = 2 , =
2
(a) = 6, =

to
(a) ( x 1) e
(c) ( x + 1) e

x+

1
x

x+

1
x

441
100
(d) 110

positive numbers form an

increasing GP. If the middle term in this
GP is doubled, then new numbers are in
AP. Then, the common ratio of the GP is

(c)

x+

(d) xe

1
x

x+

+C
1
x

+C

equal to

2
44 3
3

(d) 4 3 4
3
(b)

77. The area of the region described by

70. Three

+C

(b) xe

(c) 4 3 4

(a)

+C

(b)

sin( cos2 x )
is equal to
x 0
x2

1
2

121
10
(c) 100

71. lim

(d) = 2 , =
1

(a) 4

(b) 3 +
(d) 2 +

1
2

(b) = 6, =

x+
75. The integral 1 + x 1 e x dx is equal

= k(10)9 , then k is equal to

(a) 2 + 3
(c) 2 3

(b) 2 f (c ) = 3g (c )
(d) f (c ) = 2 g (c )

76. The integral 1 + 4 sin2 x 4 sin x dx is

69. If(10)9 + 2(11)1(10)8 + 3(11)2(10)7 + ... + 10(11)9

(a)

(d) 1 + {g ( x)}5

73. If f and g are differentiable functions in

66. If A is a 3 3 non-singular matrix such

(a) I + B

1
, then g ( x ) is equal to
1 + x5

(a) 1 + x5
(c)

then K is equal to
1
(b)

2
3

A = {( x , y ) : x 2 + y 2 1 and y 2 1 x } is

(a)

4
+
2
3

(b)

4
2
(c)

2 3
2 3

2
+
2
3

(d)

78. Let the population of rabbits surviving at

a time t be governed by the differential
dp(t) 1
equation
= p(t) 200. If p(0) = 100,
2
dt
then p(t) is equal to
t

(b) 1

(a) 400 300e 2

(d)

(c) 600 500e 2

(b) 300 200e

t
2

t
2

(d) 400 300e

10 JEE Main Solved Papers

79. If PS is the median of the triangle with

vertices P (2 , 2), Q (6, 1) and R(7, 3), then

equation of the line passing through(1, 1)
and parallel to PS is
(a) 4 x 7 y 11 = 0
(c) 4 x + 7 y + 3 = 0

(b) 2 x + 9 y + 7 = 0
(d) 2 x 9 y 11 = 0

80. Let a, b, c and d be non-zero numbers. If

the point of intersection of the lines
4 ax + 2 ay + c = 0 and 5 bx + 2 by + d = 0
lies in the fourth quadrant and is
equidistant from the two axes, then
(a) 2 bc 3ad = 0
(c) 2 ad 3bc = 0

(b) 2 bc + 3ad = 0
(d) 3bc + 2 ad = 0

81. The locus of the foot of perpendicular

drawn from the centre of the ellipse
x 2 + 3 y 2 = 6 on any tangent to it is
(a) ( x2 y2 )2 = 6 x2 + 2 y2
(c) ( x2 + y2 )2 = 6 x2 + 2 y2

radius 1. If T is the circle centred at (0, y )

passing through origin and touching the
circle C externally, then the radius of T is
equal to
3
2

(c)

1
2

(d)

1
4

parabolas y 2 = 4 x and x 2 = 32 y is
1
2

(b)

3
2

(c)

84. The image of the line

1
8

(d)

2
3

x 1 y 3 z 4
=
=
3
1
5

in the plane 2 x y + z + 3 = 0 is the line

x+ 3
=
3
x+ 3
(b)
=
3
x3
(c)
=
3
x3
(d)
=
3
(a)

y5
=
1
y5
=
1
y+ 5
=
1
y+ 5
=
1

z2
5
z+2
5
z2
5
z2
5

86. Let A and B be two events such that

1
1
1
P ( A B) = , P ( A B) = and P ( A) = ,
6
4
4
where A stands for the complement of the
event A. Then , the events A and B are
(a) independent but not equally likely
(b) independent and equally likely
(c) mutually exclusive and independent
(d) equally likely but not independent

87. The variance of first 50 even natural

numbers is
833
4

(b) 833
(d)

437
4

and k 1, then f4 ( x ) f6 ( x ) is equal to

1
6
1
(c)
4

(a)

1
3
1
(d)
12
(b)

89. A bird is sitting on the top of a vertical

83. The slope of the line touching both the

(a)

(b) 1
(d) 3

88. If fk( x ) = 1 / k (sin k x + cosk x ), where x R

82. Let C be the circle with centre at (1, 1) and

(b)

(a) 0
(c) 2

(c) 437

(d) ( x2 + y2 )2 = 6 x2 2 y2

3
2

equal to

(a)

(b) ( x2 y2 )2 = 6 x2 2 y2

(a)

85. If [ a b b c c a ] = [ a b c ]2 , then is

pole 20 m high and its elevation from a

point O on the ground is 45. It flies off
horizontally straight away from the point
O. After 1s, the elevation of the bird from O
is reduced to 30. Then, the speed (in m/s)
of the bird is
(a) 40( 2 1)
(b) 40( 3 2 )
(c) 20 2
(d) 20( 3 1)

90. The statement ~( p ~ q) is

(a) equivalent to p q
(b) equivalent to ~ p q
(c) a tautology
(d) a fallacy

Answers
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
61.
71.
81.

(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)

2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
62.
72.
82.

(c)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)

3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
63.
73.
83.

(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(a)

4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
64.
74.
84.

(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)

5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
65.
75.
85.

(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)

6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
66.
76.
86.

(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)

7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
67.
77.
87.

(d)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)

8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
58.
68.
78.
88.

(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)

9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
59.
69.
79.
89.

(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)

10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
60.
70.
80.
90.

(*)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)

NOTE * Means, none options are not correct.

Solutions
Physics
1. Given,

So,

3. For the mass m,

I = (e

1000 V / T

mg T = ma

1) mA,

dV = 0.01 V
T = 300 K
I = 5 mA
I = e1000 V / T 1

T
T

I + 1 = e1000 V / T
Taking log on both sides, we get
1000 V
log(I + 1) =
T
dI
1000
dV
On differentiating,
=
I+1
T
1000
dI =
(I + 1) dV
T
1000
dI =
(5 + 1) 0.01 = 0.2 mA

300
So, error in the value of current is 0.2 mA.

m a
mg

As we know, a = R
So,
mg T = mR
Torque about centre of pully
T R = mR 2

2. Time taken to reach the maximum height t 1 = u

t1 u

(i)
...(ii)

From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get

g
a=
2
Hence, the acceleration with the mass of a body fall is
g
.
2

4. A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a

vertical cross-section, then

t2

If t 2 is the time taken to hit the ground,

1
i.e.,
H = ut 2 gt 22
2
But
t 2 = nt 1
nu 1 n2u 2
So,
H = u
g 2
g
2
g
2
nu
1 n2u 2
H =

g
2 g
2

2 gH = nu (n 2 )

[Given]

x3
d
x2
dy 6
tan =
=
2
dx dx

12 JEE Main Solved Papers

At limiting equilibrium, we get
= tan
x2
x2 = 1 x = 1
0. 5 =
2
x3
, we get
6
When x = 1
(1)3 1
y=
=
6
6

Now, putting the value of x in y =

When x = 1

(1)3 1
=
6
6
So, the maximum height above the ground at
which the block can be placed without slipping is
1
m.
6
y=

Then, v can be resolved into two components,

radial component rrad and tangential component
rtan . Due to vrad, L will be tangential and due to v tan ,
L will be radially outwards as shown.
So, net angular momentum will be as shown in
figure whose magnitude will be constant
(|L| = mvl ). But its direction will change as shown in
the figure.
L = m(r v )
where, r = radius of circle

7. Net force acting on any one particle M,

5. / We know that change in potential energy of a

system corresponding to a
internal force as
f
U f Ui = W = F. dr

conservative

GM 2
GM 2
GM 2
+
cos 45 +
cos 45
2
2
(2 R )
(R 2 )
(R 2 )2

GM 2 1
1

+
2
R2 4
M

Given,

F = ax + bx2

45
v

| W | = (ax + bx2 )dx

L

O
R

R 45

We know that work done in stretching the rubber

band by L is
| dW | = | Fdx|

ax2
bx3
+
=

2
O 3 O

2
2
a (0) b L3 b (0)3
aL
=

+ 3
2
2
3

2
3
aL
bL
|W | =
+
2
3
6. Angular momentum of the pendulum about the
suspension point O is

This force will equal to centripetal force.

Mv 2 GM 2 1
1
So,
=

+
R
2
R2 4
GM
1 GM
v=
(1 + 2 2 ) =
(2 2 + 1)
4R
2 R
Hence, speed of each particle in a circular motion
is
1 GM
(2 2 + 1).
2 R

8. / If the deformation is small, then the stress in a

body is directly proportional to the corresponding strain.

According to Hooke's law i.e.,

Youngs modulus (Y ) =
So,

F/A
FL
=
L / L A L

If the rod is compressed, then compressive stress

and strain appear. Their ratio Y is same as that for
tensile case.
Given, length of a steel wire (L) = 10cm,

Y =

Temperature () = 100 C

As length is constant.
L = m(r v )

Tensile stress
Tensile strain

Strain =

L
=
L

JEE Main Solved Paper 2014

Now,
pressure = stress = Y strain
[Given, Y = 2 1011N / m2 and = 1.1 .105 K 1]

0.92(100 T ) 026
. (T 0) 012
. (T 0)
=
+
46
13
12
100C

= 2 1011 11
. 105 100
= 2.2 108 Pa

l1

9. Equating pressure at A, we get

dQ1
dt

K1

R sin d 2 + R cos d 2 + R(1 cos ) d1

= R(1 sin ) d1

dQ2
dt l2

K2

K3
l3

R sin

90

d2

dQ3
dt

0C

0C
R

13

T = 40 C
dQ1 0.92 4(100 40)
=
= 4.8 cal/s
dt
40

12. According to first law of thermodynamics, we get

d1
A

(sin + cos ) d 2 = d1(cos sin )

d1 1 + tan
=

d 2 1 tan

10. The bubble will detach if,

Buoyant force Surface tension force
4
R 3w g T dl sin
3

(i) Change in internal energy from A to B i.e., U AB

U AB = nC V (TB TA )
5R
= 1
(800 400) = 1000 R
2
(ii) Change in internal energy from B to C
U BC = nC V (TC TB )
5R
= 1
(600 800) = 500 R
2
(iii) Uisothermal = 0
(iv) Change in internal energy from C to A i.e., UCA
UCA = nC V (TA TC )
5R
= 1
(400 600) = 500 R
2

13. / In this question, the system is accelerating

horizontally i.e., no component of acceleration
in vertical direction. Hence, the pressure in the
vertical direction will remain unaffected.
i.e.,
p1 = p0 + gh

sin T dl = T(2pr) sin

4
( w ) R 3 g (T ) (2 r )sin

3
r
sin =
R
Solving,

r=

Again, we have to use the concept that the

pressure in the same level will be same.
x p2
8 cm

54x

54

2 w g
2 w R 4 g
= R2
3T
3T

No option matches with the correct answer.

11. / In thermal conduction, it is found that in

steady state the heat current is directly
proportional to the area of cross-section A
which is proportional to the change in
temperature (T1 T2) .
Then,

Q KA (T1 T2)
=
t
x

According to thermal conductivity, we get

dQ 1 dQ2 dQ3
=
+
dt
dt
dt

For air trapped in tube, p1V1 = p2 V2

p1 = patm = g 76
[A = area of cross-section]
V1 = A 8
p2 = patm g (54 x) = g (22 + x)
V2 = A x
g 76 8 A = g (22 + x)A x
x2 + 22 x 78 8 = 0

x = 16 cm

14 JEE Main Solved Papers

16. As we know, potential difference VA VO is

14. In SHM, a particle starts from rest, we have

i.e.,
x = A cost , at t = 0, x = A
When t = , then
x= Aa
When t = 2, then
x = A 3a
On comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
A a = A cos
A 3a = A cos 2
As cos 2 = 2 cos 2 1

dV = Edx

A 3a 2 A 2 + 2 a2 4 Aa A 2

=
A
A2
2
2
2
A 3aA = A + 2 a 4 Aa
a2 = 2 aA
Now,

= 10 8 = 80 J

17. When free space between parallel plates of

capacitor, E =

When dielectric is introduced between parallel

plates of capacitor, E =
K0
Electric field inside dielectric

= 3 104
K 0
where, K = dielectric constant of medium = 2.2
0 = permitivity of free space = 8.85 1012

A = 2a
A a = A cos
cos = 1 / 2
2

=
3
T
T = 6

= 2.2 8.85 1012 3 104

= 6.6 8.85 108 = 5.841 107
= 6 107 C/m 2

15. For closed organ pipe

85 cm

(2 n + 1)v
[n = 0, 1, 2, ...]
4l
(2 n + 1)v
< 1250
4l
4 0.85
(2 n + 1) < 1250
340
(2 n + 1) < 12.5 2 n < 1150
.
n < 525
.
So,
n = 0, 1, 2, 3,...,5
So, we have 6 possibilities.
Alternate method
In closed organ pipe, fundamental node
=

Vo

x3
VA VO = 30 = 10 [2 3 (0)3 ]
3
0

....(ii)

dV = 30 x dx

....(i)

A 3a
A a
= 2
1
A
A

VA

18. Total power (P) consumed

= (15 40) + (5 100) + (5 80)
+ (1 1000) = 2500 W
As we know,
Power, P = VI
2500
125
A=
I=
= 113
. A

220
11
Minimum capacity should be 12 A.

19. When force exerted on a current carrying

conductor
Fext = BIL
Average power =
P=

l = 0.85 =
4

Work done
Time taken

1
1
F dx = B( x)IL dx
t
t ext.
0

1
3 104e 0. 2 x 10 3 dx
5 103 0

i.e.,

= 9 [1 e 0. 4 ]

Possible frequencies = 100 Hz, 300 Hz, 500 Hz,

700 Hz, 900 Hz, 1100 Hz below 1250 Hz.

1
= 9 1 0. 4

e
= 2.967
2.97 W

= 0.85 = 4 0.85
4
c
340
As we know, =
= 100 Hz

4 0.85

JEE Main Solved Paper 2014

20. For solenoid, the magnetic field needed to be
magnetised the magnet.
B = 0 nI
[Where, n = 100, l = 10cm =

24. / For total internal reflection of light take place,

following conditions must be obeyed.
(i) The ray must travel from denser to rarer
medium.

10
m = 01
. m]
100

(ii) Angle of incidence () must be greater than or

equal to critical angle (C) i.e.,

C = sin 1 rarer
denser

100
I
01
.
I = 3A

3 103 =

21. After connecting C to B hanging the switch, the

circuit will act like an L-R discharging circuit.
Applying Kirchhoffs
R
loop equation,
VR + VL = 0

VR = VL
VR
= 1
VL

C
Green

equally divided between electric and magnetic

field.

23. / It is based on lens maker's formula and its

magnification
1
1
1
i.e.,
= ( 1)

.
f
R2
R1

According to lens makers formula, when the lens

in the air.
1 3
1
1

=
1

R1 R 2
f 2
1 1
=
f = 2x
f 2x
1
1
1
Here, =

x R1 R 2
4
5
In case of liquid, where refractive index is and ,
3
3
we get
Focal length in first liquid
1
1 s
1
=
1

f1 l1
R1 R 2

3
1 2
1
=
1
x
f1 4

3
f1 is positive.
1
1
1
1
=
=
=
f1 = 4f
f1 8 x 4(2 x) 4f

3
1
1

= 2 1
x
5
f2

3
f2 is negative.

Air
Water

22. Both the energy densities are equal i.e., energy is

Focal length in second liquid

1
1 s
1
=
1

f2 l 2
R1 R 2

15

1
b
and nwater = a + 2
nwater

If frequency is less is greater and hence, RI

n( water) is less and therefore, critical angle
increases. So, they do not suffer reflection and
come out at angle less than 90.
Here, sinC =

25. By law of Malus i.e., I = I0 cos 2

Finally

Initially
IA

IA
IB

IB
Polaroid

Polaroid

Transmission axis Transmission axis

IA = IA cos 2 30

Now,

IB = IB cos 2 60
IA = IB

As,

IA cos 30 = IB cos 2 60
2

IA

3
1
=I
4 B 4
IA
1
=
IB 3

26. / The problem is based on frequency dependence

of photoelectric emission. When incident light
with certain frequency (greater than on the
threshold frequency is focus on a metal surface)
then some electrons are emitted from the metal
with substantial initial speed.

When an electron moves in a circular path, then

mv
r 2e 2 B2 m2 v 2
r=

=
eB
2
2
KEmax =

r 2e 2 B2
(mv )2
=(KE)max

2m
2m

16 JEE Main Solved Papers

Work function of the metal (W),

Chemistry

W = h KEmax

r 2e 2 B2 1
r 2eB2
eV =
eV
2m 2
2m
[hv 1.89 eV, for the transition on from third to
second orbit of H-atom]

. =
189

100 106 16
. 1019 9 108
2 91
. 1031
16
. 9
= 189
.
2 91
.
= 189
. 0.79
= 11
. eV
=

27. For hydrogen atom, we get

1
1
1
= R z2 2 2
1

2
1
3
= R(1)2
4
1
1
3
= R(1)2
4
2
1
3
= R(2 )2
4
3
1
3
= R(3)2
4
4
1
1
1
1
=
=
=
1 4 3 9 4 2

28. For forward bias, p-side must be a higher potential

than n-side.
+2 V

2 V

So, is forward biased.

29. If student measures 3.50 cm, it means that there in

an uncertainly of order 0.01 cm.
For vernier scale with 1 MSD = 1mm
and
9 MSD = 10 VSD
LC of Vernier calliper
= 1MSD 1VSD
1
9
=
1
10
10
=

31. Given, atomic number of Rb, Z = 37

Thus, its electronic configuration is [Kr ]5s1. Since
the last electron or valence electron enter in 5s
subshell.
So, the quantum numbers are n = 5, l = 0, (for s
1
1
orbital) m = 0(Qm = + l to l ), s = + or
2
2

32. / To solve this problem, the stepwise approach

required i.e.,
(i) Write the van der Waals equation, then
apply the condition that at low pressure,
volume become high,
i.e.,
V b~
V
(ii) Now calculate the value of compressibility
factor (Z).
[Z = pV / RT ]

According to van der Waals equation,

p + a ( V b ) = RT

V2
a
At low pressure, p + 2 V = RT

V
a
pV + = RT
V
a
pV = RT
V
pV
a
Divide both side by RT,
= 1
RT
RTV
33. In CsCl, Cl lie at corners of simple cube and Cs+
at the body centre, Hence, along the body
diagonal, Cs+ and Cl touch each other so
rCs + + rCl = 2 r
Calculation of r
In EDF,
G
r A

F
a

1
cm
100

b
a

Body centred cubic unit cell

30. (a) Infrared rays are used to treat muscular strain.

(b) Radiowaves are used for broadcasting
purposes.
(c) X-rays are used to detect fracture of bones.
(d) Ultraviolet rays are absorbed by ozone.

H
2r

i.e.,

FD = b =

a2 + a2 = 2 a

In AFD,
c 2 = a2 + b 2 = a2 + ( 2 a)2 = a2 + 2 a2
c 2 = 3 a2
c=

3a

JEE Main Solved Paper 2014

As AFD is an equilateral triangle.
3a

3 a = 4r r =
4
3
3
Hence, rCs + + rCl = 2 r = 2
a=
a
4
2

34. / This problem is based on the estimation of

percentage of N in organic compound using
Kjeldahls method. Use the concept of
stoichiometry and follow the steps given below
to solve the problem.
(i) Write the balanced chemical reaction for
the conversion of N present in organic
compound to ammonia, ammonia to
ammonium sulphate and ammonium
sulphate to sodium sulphate.
(ii) Calculate millimoles (m moles) of N
present in organic compound followed by
mass of N present in organic compound
using the concept of stoichiometry.
(iii) At last, calculate % of N present in organic
compound using formula
Mass of N 100
% of N =
Mass of organic compound

Mass of organic compound = 1.4 g

Let it contain x mmole of N atom.
Organic compound NH3
x mmole
2NH3 + H2 SO4 (NH4 )2 SO4

(i)

6 m mole
initially taken

H2SO 4 + 2 NaOH Na 2SO 4 + 2 H2O ...(ii)

2 mmole NaOH reacted.
Hence, mmoles of H2 SO4 reacted in Eq. (ii) = 1
mmoles of H2 SO4 reacted from Eq. (i)
= 6 1 = 5mmoles
mmoles of NH3 in Eq. (i) = 2 5

= 10 mmoles
mmoles of N atom in the organic compound
= 10 mmoles
Mass of N = 10 103 14 = 0.14 g
Mass of N present in
organic compound
% of N =
100
Mass of organic compound
0 .14
% of N =

100 = 10%
1.4

35. / In order to solve the problem, calculate the

value of cell constant of the first solution and
then use this value of cell constant to calculate
the value of k of second solution. Afterwards,
finally calculate molar conductivity using
values of k and m.

17

For first solution,

k = 1.4 Sm1, R = 50 , M = 0 .2
1
l
Specific conductance ( ) =
R A
1
l
1.4 Sm1 =

50 A
l
= 50 1.4 m1
A
For second solution,
l
R = 280, = 50 1.4 m1
A
1
1
=
1.4 50 =
280
4
Now, molar conductivity
1/ 4

1
m=
=
=
1000 m 1000 0 .5 2000
= 5 104 Sm2 mol 1

36. C2H5OH(l) + 3O2 (g) 2CO2 (g) + 3H2O()l

U = 1364.47 kJ/mol
H = U + ng RT
ng = 1
1 8.314 298
H = 1364.47 +
1000
[Here, value of R in unit of J must be
converted into kJ]
= 1364.47 2 . 4776
= 1366.94 kJ/mol
During solving such problem, students are
advised to keep much importance in unit
conversion. As here, value of R (8.314 J K 1 mol 1)
in JK 1 mol 1 must be converted into kJ by dividing
the unit by 1000.

37. According to Debye Huckel Onsager equation,

C = B C
where, C = limiting equivalent conductivity at
concentration C
= limiting equivalent conductivity at
infinite dilution
C = concentration

38. / This problem includes concept of colligative

properties (osmotic pressure here) and vant
Hoff factor. Calculate the effective molarity of
each solution.
i.e., effective molarity
= vant Hoff factor molarity

0.5 M C2H5OH (aq)

Effective molarity = 0 .5
0.25 M KBr (aq)
Effective molarity = 0 .5 M
0.1 M Mg3 (PO4 )2 (aq)

i=1
i=2
i=5

18 JEE Main Solved Papers

Effective molarity = 0 . 5 M
0.125 M Na 3PO4 (aq)
Effective molarity = 0. 5 M
Hence, all colligative properties are same.

42. Higher
i=4

NOTE This equation is solved by assuming that the examiner

has taken Mg3 (PO4 )2 to be completely soluble. However, the
fact is that it is insoluble (sparingly soluble).

39. For the given reaction, ng = np nR

43. / Arrange the complex formed by different

where, np = number of moles of products

n R = number of moles of reactants
K p = Kc (RT)

ng

1
ng =
2

40. / This problem can be solved by determining the

order of reaction w.r.t. each reactant and then
writing rate law equation of the given equation
accordingly as
dC
r=
= k[ A ] x [B] y
dt
where, x = order of reaction w.r.t. A
y = order of reaction w.r.t. B

1. 2 103 = k (0 .1) x (0 .1)y

1.2 103 = k (01
. ) x (02
. )y
2 .4 103 = k (02
. ) x (01
. )y
As shown above, rate of reaction remains constant
as the concentration of reactant (B) changes from
0.1 M to 0.2 M and becomes double when
concentration of A change from 0.1 to 0.2
(i.e., doubled).

41. Decreasing order of strength of oxoacids

HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl
Reason Consider the structures of conjugate
bases of each oxyacids of chlorine.
O
Cl

Cl
O
O

O
O

Cl
O
O

ClO

ligands L1 , L2 , L3 and L4 , according to

wavelength of their absorbed light, then use
the following relation to answer the question.
Ligand field strength
Energy of light absorbed
1

Wavelength of light absorbed

L1

Absorbed light

L2

Red Green

L3

L4

Yellow

Blue

Wavelength of absorbed light decreases

Increasing order of energy of wavelengths

absorbed reflect greater extent of crystal-field
splitting, hence higher field strength of the ligand.
Energy Blue (L4 ) > green (L2 ) > yellow ( L3 )
> red (L 1)
L4 > L2 > L3 > L 1 in field strength of ligands.

44. NO is paramagnetic in gaseous state because in

R = k [ A]1[B]0

the position of element in the

electro-chemical series more difficult is the
reduction of its cations.
If Ca 2+ (aq) is electrolysed, water is reduced in
preference to it. Hence, it cannot be reduced
electrolytically from their aqueous solution.
Ca 2+ (aq ) + H2O Ca 2+ + OH + H2

Negative charge is more delocalised on ClO4 due

to resonance, hence ClO4 is more stable (and less
basic).
Hence, we can say as the number of oxygen
atom(s) around Cl-atom increases as oxidation
number of Cl-atom increases and thus, the ability
of loose the H+ increases.

gaseous state, it has one unpaired electron.

Total number of electron present = 7 + 8
= 15 e
Hence, there must be the presence of unpaired
electron in gaseous state while in liquid state, it
dimerises due to unpaired electron.

45. Release of electron is known as reduction. So,

H2O2 acts as reducing agent when it releases
electrons.
Here, in reactions (II) and (IV), H2O2 releases two
electron, hence reactions (II) and (IV) is known as
reduction.
In reactions (I) and (III), two electrons are being
added, so (I) and (III) represents oxidation.

46. I3 is an ion made up of I2 and I which has linear

shape.
CH3
CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3
(Less
crowded)

CH

Cl

> CH3

Cl

CH3

CH3

3
(More crowded)

while Cs+ is an alkali metal cation.

JEE Main Solved Paper 2014

(mO2 )
nO 2 (M O2 )
47.
=
n N2 (mN2 )
(M N2 )

50. / This problem is based on conceptual mixing of

where, m O2 = given mass of O2

m N2 = given mass of N2
M O 2 = molecular mass of O2
M N2 = molecular mass of N2
nO 2 = number of moles of O2
n N2 = number of moles of N2
mO 2 28 1 28
7
=
=
=
m N 32 4 32 32
2

48. Standard electrode potential of reaction [E 0 ] can

be calculated as

properties of lithium oxide and preparation,

properties of coordination compounds. To
answer this question, keep in mind that on
adding acid ammine complexes get destroyed.

(a) Li 2O + KCl 2LiCl + K 2O

This is wrong equation, since a stronger base
K 2O cannot be generated by a weaker base
Li 2O.
(b) [CoCl(NH3 )5 ]+ + 5H+

Co2+ (aq ) + 5NH4 + + Cl

This is correct. All ammine complexes can be
destroyed by addingH . Hence, on adding acid to
[CoCl(NH3 )5 ], It gets converted to Co2+ (aq )
NH + and Cl .
4

0
Ecell
= ER EP

where, ER = SRP of reactant

EP = SRP of product
0
If Ecell
= +ve, then reaction is spontaneous
otherwise non-spontaneous.
E = 1.51V

OH

(c) [Mg(H2O)6 ]2 + + EDTA 4 [Mg( EDTA)]2 +

excess

+ 6H2O
This is wrong, since the formula of complex
must be [Mg(EDTA)]2+ as EDT.
(d) The 4th reaction is incorrect. It can be correctly
represented as

1 Mn2+
Mn3+
E = 1.18 V

2
Mn2+

Mn

For Mn2+ disproportionation,

E = 1.51 V 1.18 V = 2 . 69 V < 0

49. / Analyse each reaction given in the question

and choose the correct answer on the basis of
oxidation state and stability of iron compounds.
Use the concept of Ellingham diagram to solve
this problem.

2CuSO4 + 10KCN 2K 3 [Cu(CN)4 ]

+ 2K 2 SO4 + (CN)2

51. / Steric hindrance (crowding) is the basis of SN 2

reaction, by using which we can arrange the
reactant in correct order of their reactivity
towards SN 2 reaction.

Rate of S N2

1
Steric crowding of ' C'
CH3

The correct reactions are as follows

(a) Fe + dil H2 SO4 FeSO4 + H2
1
H2 SO4 + 2FeSO4 + O2
2
Fe2 (SO4 )3 + H2O
Fe2 (SO4 )3 Fe2O3 (s) + 3SO3
The given reaction is incorrect in question

CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3

(Less
crowded)

2
(b) Fe

FeO

Cl

CH3

CH3

3
(More crowded)

As steric hinderance (crowding) increases, rate of

SN2 reaction decreases.
NOTE The order of reactivity towards S N 2 reaction for alkyl

[It could also be Fe2O3 or Fe3O4 ]

FeO + H2 SO4 FeSO4 + H2O

2FeSO4 Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3

(c) Fe

Cl > CH3

CH

Cl 2

19

FeCl 3
Air

No reaction
[It cannot give FeCl 2 ]

O2

CO

CO

600 C

700 C

(d) Fe
Fe3O4
FeO
Fe
This is correct reaction.

halides is
Primary halides > Secondary halides > Tertiary halides
(1)
(2)
(3)

52. This reaction is an example of carbylamine

reaction which includes conversion of amine to
isocyanide.

C2H5 OH

R NH2 + CHCl 3 R N C:
1 a min e

KOH

Alkyl isocyanide

NOTE This reaction include rearrangement reaction of nitrene

in which migration of alkyl group from carbon to nitrogen
takes place.

20 JEE Main Solved Papers

53. R CH2OH PCC
R CH == O

58. Dacron is a condensation polymer of ethylene

Pyridinium chlorochromate is the mild oxidising

agent which causes conversion of alcohol to
aldehyde stage. While others causes conversion
of alcohol to acid.
54. The reaction is

glycol and methyl terepthalate. Formation of

dacron can be shown as

6Ag

2CH3 CCl 3 CH3 C C CH3 + 6AgCl

But -2 -yne

55. It is a Kolbe Schmidt reaction.

ONa

O
COOH
OCCH3

COONa
OH

+ CO2

125C
5 atm

H+ /Ac2O

Here, elimination of MeOH occurs as a by product.

So, this reaction is known as condensation
polymerisation.

Aspirin
(pain killer)

The second step of the reaction is an example of

acetylation reaction.

56. / This problem can be solved by using the concept

of effect of steric hindrance, hydration and
H-bonding in basic strength of amines.

Order of basic strength of aliphatic amine in

aqueous solution is as follows (order of K b )

(CH3 )2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3 )3N > C6H5NH2

As we know, pK b = logK b

So, (CH3 )2 NH will have smallest pK b value.

59. Quinoline is an alkaloid, it is not present in DNA.

DNA has four nitrogen bases in adenine, guanine,
cytosine and thymine.

60. / This problem is based on successive reduction,

chlorination and elimination reaction. To solve
such problem, use the function of the given
reagents.

(i) LiAlH 4 causes reduction

(ii) PCl 5 causes chlorination
(iii) Alc. KOH causes elimination reaction
LiAlH 4
CH3 CH2OH
CH3 COOH
(A )

In case of phenyl amine, N is attached to sp2

hybridised carbon, hence it has highest pK b and
least basic strength.

PCl 5

Alc.KOH

CH3 CH2 Cl CH2 == CH2

(B )

HCl

indicating net dipole moment which includes

lone pair and bond angle also.

(C )
Ethylene

57. / Draw the structure of organic compounds

Mathematics
61. We have, X = {4n 3n 1 : n N}

OH groups and SH groups do not cancel their

dipole moment as they exist in different
confirmation.

X = {0, 9, 54, 243, ...}[Put n = 1, 2, 3, ...]

Y = {9(n 1) : n N}
Y = {0, 9, 18, 27, ...} [Put n = 12
, , 3,...]
It is clear that X Y .

X Y = Y

62. | z| 2 is the region on or outside circle whose

centre is (0, 0) and radius is 2.
1
Minimum z + is distance of z, which lie on circle
2
1
| z| = 2 from , 0 .
2
Minimum z +
(2, 0)

1
=
2

1
Distance of , 0 from
2

JEE Main Solved Paper 2014

=

1 + 2 + 0 = 3

2
2

2 + 1 + 0 = 3 =

2
2
Y

D
A
1 , (0,0)
(2,0)
2 0

(2,0)

Since, p, q and r are in AP.

2q = p + r
1 1
Also,
+ =4

+
=4

+ = 4
q 4r
=
p
p

1
= AD
2
1
Hence, minimum value of z + lies in the interval

2
Geometrically Min z +

(1, 2).

63. / Put t = x [x ] = {X }, which is a fractional part

function and lie between 0 {X } < 1 and then
solve it.

Given, a R and equation is

3{ x [ x]}2 + 2 { x [ x]} + a2 = 0

3 t + 2 t + a = 0
Q

t =

t = x [ x] = { X }
0 t 1

1 + 3a2
3
[Fractional part]

multiplied row-to-row or row-to-column, to

write the given determinant as the product of
two determinants and then expand.

Given,

1+

Let

1 + 3a2
<1
3

[Q{ x} > 0]

1 + 3a2 < 2 1 + 3a2 < 4 a2 1 < 0

(a + 1)(a 1) < 0
+

3
1 + + 1 + 2 + 2
= 1 + + 1 + 2 + 2 1 + 3 + 3
1 + 2 + 2 1 + 3 + 3 1 + 4 + 4

a (1, 1)
For no integral solution of a, we consider the interval
(1, 0) (0, 1.)

1 1 1
= 1
1 2 2

64. / If ax 2 + bx + c = 0 has roots and , then

b
c
and = . Find the values of +
a
a
and and then put in ( ) 2 = ( + ) 2 4
to get required value.

Given, and are roots of px2 + qx + r = 0, p 0.

q
r
, =
...(i)
+=

p
p

1 1 + 1 1 + 1 1
1 1 + 1 + 1
1 1 + 1 2 + 1 2

1 1 + 1 + 1
1 1 + +
1 1 + 2 + 2
1 1 + 1 2 + 1 2
1 1 + 2 + 2
1 1 + 2 2 + 2 2

NOTE Here, we figure out the integral solution, we get a = 0.

This implies any interval excluding zero should be correct
answer as it gives eitherwww no solution or no integral
solution.
+=

f(n) = n + n
f(1) = + , f(2 ) = 2 + 2 ,
f(3) = 3 + 3 , f(4) = 4 + 4
3
1 + f(1) 1 + f(2 )
= 1 + f(1) 1 + f(2 ) 1 + f(3)
1 + f(2 ) 1 + f(3) 1 + f(4)

[From Eq. (i)]

q = 4r
On putting the value of q in Eq. (ii), we get

2(4r ) = p + r p = 9r
q 4r 4r
4
Now,
+=
= =
=
p
p 9r
9
r
r
1
and
= =
=
p 9r 9
16 4 16 + 36

( )2 = ( + )2 4 = + =
81
81 9
2
52
2
( ) =
13
| | =

9
81

1 + 3a2
1
3
Taking positive sign, we get
0

...(ii)

65. / Use the property that, two determinants can be

Let t = x [ x], then equation is

2

21

1 1 1
1 1 1
1 = 1
1 2 2
1 2 2

On expanding, we get
= (1 )2 (1 )2 ( )2
But given,
= K(1 )2 (1 )2 ( )2
Hence, K(1 )2 (1 )2 ( )2
= (1 )2 (1 )2 ( )2

K =1

22 JEE Main Solved Papers

Hence, (l, m, n) is (1, 0, 1).
When n = 0, then l = m
Hence, (l, m, n) is (1, 0, 1).
1+ 0 + 0 1

=
=
cos =

3
2 2 2

66. / Use the following properties of transpore

( AB) T = BT A T , ( A T ) T = A and A 1 A = I and

simplify.

If A is non-singular matrix, then| A | 0

AAT = AT A and B = A 1 AT

69. Given,

BBT = ( A 1 AT )( A 1 AT )T
1 T

1 T

= A A A( A )
1

1 T

= A AA ( A )
T

[Q AAT = AT A]

1 T

11
11
11
k = 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 10
10
10
10

= IA ( A )
T

k 109 = 109 + 2 (11)1(10)8

+ 3(11)2 (10)7 + ... + 10(11)9

[Q( AB ) = B A ]
T

[Q A A = I]

= AT ( A 1 )T
= ( A 1 A)T

11 k = 1 11 + 2 11
10
10
10

[Q( AB)T = BT AT ]

in (1 x )

11
11 11
+
k 1 = 1 +

10
10 10

is

Coefficient of x3 = Coefficient of x3 in (1 2 x)18

+ Coefficient of x2 in a(1 2 x)18
+ Coefficient of x in b(1 2 x)18

= C 3 2 + a C 2 2 b C1 2
3

18

18

Given, coefficient of x3 = 0
=18 C 3 2 3 + a 18C 2 2 2 b 18C1 2 = 0
18 17 2
18 17 16
8 + a
2

2
32
b 18 2 = 0
34 16
...(i)
3
Similarly, coefficient of x4
18
C 4 2 4 a 18 C 3 2 3 + b 18 C 2 2 2 = 0

17 a b =

32 a 3b = 240
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
272
a = 16, b =
3

l + m+ n= 0
l = ( m + n)
(m + n)2 = l 2
m2 + n2 + 2 mn = m2 + n2
[Ql 2 = m2 + n2 , given]

When

2 mn = 0
m= 0 l = n

10
10

11
11
k = 10 10 10 10
10
10

k = 100

70. Let a, ar, ar be in GP (r > 1.)

2

On multiplying middle term by 2, a, 2 ar, ar 2 are in

AP.

4ar = a + ar 2

(ii)

a22 + b22 + c 22

11 10
1 1
10
10
10
11

10 11
=
k
10
10
11 1
10

r 2 4r + 1 = 0
16 4
=2 3
2
r = 2 + 3 [QAP is increasing]

r=

a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c 2

a12 + b12 + c12

10

n
Q In GP,sum of n terms = a(r 1), when r > 1

r 1

68. We know that angle between two lines is

cos =

11
11
+ ... + 10
10
10

In expansion of (1 + ax + bx2 )(1 2 x)18 ,

18

10

On subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get

67. / To find the coefficient of x 3 and x 4 , use the

formula of coefficient of x
(1) r n Cr and then simplify.

=I =I
n

...(i)

11
11
+ ... + 9 + 10 ...(ii)
10
10

71.

lim

x 0

= lim

sin( cos 2 x )
x2

sin (1 sin2 x)
2

= lim

sin( sin2 x)

x 0
x
x2
2
sin( sin x)
= lim
[Qsin ( ) = sin ]
x 0
x2
sin2 x
sin
sin sin2 x
= 1
= lim
( ) 2 = Q lim
2
x 0 sin x
x
0

x 0

JEE Main Solved Paper 2014

76. / Use the formula,|x a| = x a ,

72. Here, g is the inverse of f (x).

(x a) ,

fog ( x) = x
On differentiating w.r.t. x, we get
f {g ( x)} g ( x) = 1
g ( x) =

g ( x) = 1 + {g ( x)}

f( x) = log| x| + x2 + x, then

f ( x) = + 2 x + 1
x
(i)
f (1) = 2 + 1 = 0
[At extreme point, f ( x) = 0]

(ii)
f (2 ) = + 4 + 1 = 0
2
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
1
= 2, =
2
1

1 x +

1 + x x e xdx

1
x dx

x+

1
x dx

+ xe
+

x 1

+C

77. Given, A = {( x, y) : x2 + y2 1and y2 1 x}

Y

(0,1)

(1,0)

x+

1
x

1
x+
x
xe

1
x+
x
e

1
x dx

Y
1
1 2
r + 2 (1 y2 )dy
0
2

1
y3
(1)2 + 2 y
2
3

4
+
2
3

78. Given differential equation dp 1 p(t ) = 200 is a

dt

linear differential equation.

1
Here, p (t ) = ,Q(t ) = 200
2
2 dt

=e

Hence, solution is
p(t ).IF = Q(t ) IF dt
p (t ) e

dx
x+

Required area =

1
=e
Q 1 2 e
x

= e x + 1/ xdx + xe x + 1/ x ex+1/ xdx

=

=4 34
3

IF = e

1 x+ x
dx
e
x2
1
x+
d
x dx
( x) e
dx

x+

1
x+
x
xe

x+

1
x+
x dx
e

74. Here, x = 1 and x = 2 are extreme points of

= e

03 1 2 sin 2 dx 3 1 2 sin 2 dx

x 3
x
= x + 4cos x + 4cos

20
2

f and g are differentiable in (0, 1).

Let
(i)
h( x) = f( x) 2 g ( x)
h(0) = f(0) 2 g (0)
h(0) = 2 0
h(0) = 2
and
h(1) = f(1) 2 g (1) = 6 2(2 )
h(1) = 2, h(0) = h(1) = 2
Hence, using Rolles theorem,
h(c ) = 0, such that c (0, 1)
Differentiating Eq. (i) at c, we get

f (c ) 2 g (c ) = 0

f (c ) = 2 g (c )

= e

1 2 sin x dx = |1 2 sin x|dx

0

2
2
=

73. Given, f(0) = 2 = g(1), g(0) = 0 and f(1) = 6

75.

xa
x<a

to break given integral in two parts and then

integrate separately.

1
Q f ( x) =

1 + x5

1
1
1 + {g ( x)}5

1
=
f (g ( x))

23

p (t ) e

t
2

t
2

= 200 e 2 dt
= 400e

t
2

+ K

p (t ) = 400 + ke 1/ 2

If p(0) = 100, then k = 300

t

p (t ) = 400 300e 2

t
2

24 JEE Main Solved Papers

79. Coordinate of S =

7 + 6 3 1 13
,
= , 1
2
2 2

[QS is mid-point of line QR]

2
.
9
Required equation passes
through (1, 1) and parallel
to PS is
2
y + 1=
( x 1)
9
2 x + 9y + 7 = 0

Slope of the line PS is

k 2 b2
h2 a2
+ 2
=1
2 2
(h + k )
(h + k 2 )2

6h
2 k2
+
=1
(h + k 2 )2 (h2 + k 2 )2
[Q a2 = 6, b 2 = 2 ]

6 x2 + 2 y2 = ( x2 + y2 )2
[Replacing k by y and h by x]

82. / Use the property, when two circles touch each

other externally, then distance between the
centre is equal to sum of their radii, to get
required radius.

80. Let coordinate of the intersection point in fourth

quadrant be (, ).
Since, (, ) lies on both lines 4 ax + 2 ay + c = 0
and 5bx + 2 by + d = 0.
c
(i)

4 a 2 a + c = 0 =
2a
d
(ii)
and
5b 2 b + d = 0 =
3b
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
c d
=
2a
3b
3bc = 2 ad

2 ad 3bc = 0

Let the coordinate of the centre of T be (0, k ).

Y
C
C1 (1,1)
T

Equation of the tangent is

xcos ysin
+
=1
a
b
Let (h, k ) be any point on the locus.
h
k
(i)
cos + sin = 1

a
b
b
Slope of the tangent line is
cot.
a
Slope of perpendicular drawn from centre (0,0) to
k
(h, k ) is .
h
Since, both the lines are perpendicular.
k b cot = 1

h a
cos sin
[Say]

=
=
ha
kb

cos = ha, sin = kb

From Eq. (i), we get
h
k
(ha) + (kb ) = 1
a
b

h2 + k 2 = 1
1
= 2

h + k2
Also,

sin2 + cos 2 = 1

(kb )2 + (ha)2 = 1

k b + 2 h2 a2 = 1
2 2 2

2
2
81. Equation of ellipse is x2 + 3 y2 = 6 or x + y = 1.

(1 k)

(0,k)

C2

(1,0)

Distance between their centre

k + 1 = 1 + (k 1)2

[Q C1C 2 = k + 1]

k + 1 = 1 + k + 1 2k

k + 1=

k2 + 1 + 2 k = k2 + 2 2 k k =

k2 + 2 2 k
1
4

1
So, the radius of circle T is k i .e., .
4

83. / Let the tangent to parabola be y = mx + a/m, if

it touches the other curve, then D = 0, to get the
value of m.

For parabola, y2 = 4 x
1
be tangent line and it touches the
Let y = mx +
m
2
parabola x = 32 y.
1
x2 = 32 mx +

m
32

x2 + 32 mx +
=0
m
Q
D=0
32
1
2

(32 m) 4
m3 =
=0
m
8
1
m=

JEE Main Solved Paper 2014

84. / Here, plane, line and its image are parallel to
each other. So, find any point on the normal to
the plane from which the image line will be
passed and then find equation of image line.

Here, plane and line are parallel to each other.

Equation of normal to the plane through the point
(1, 3, 4) is
x1 y 3 z 4
[Say]
=
=k
=
2
1
1
Any point in this normal is (2 k + 1, k + 3, 4 + k ).
2 k + 1 + 1, 3 k + 3 , 4 + k + 4 lies on
Then,

2
2
2
plane.

6
2 (k + 1)
2

k 8 + k
+
+ 3=0
2

k = 2
Hence, point through which this image pass is
(2 k + 1, 3 k, 4 + k )
i.e., (2(2 ) + 1, 3 + 2, 4 2 ) = (3, 5 , 2 )
Hence, equation of image line is
x+ 3 y 5 z2
=
=
3
1
5

87.

[Q 2 n = n(n + 1), here n = 50]

1
Variance, = Xi 2 ( x)2
n
1 2
2 =
(2 + 42 + K + 1002 ) (51)2
50
= 833
88. Given, fk ( x) = 1 (sin k x + cos k x),
k
where x R and k > 1
1
4
4
f4 ( x) f6 ( x) = (sin x + cos x)
4
1
(sin6 x + cos 6 x)
6
1
2
2
= (1 2 sin xcos x)
4
1
1 1
1
(1 3sin2 x cos 2 x) = =
6
4 6 12

89. In OA 1B1,
tan45 =

a ( b c) = (a c) b (a b) c
[a b c ] = [b c a ] = [c a b]
and [a a b ] = [a b b] = [ a c c] = 0.

20
=1
OB1

OB1 = 20
A2

20 m
45
30

20

In OA2 B2 ,
tan30 =

B2

B1

20
OB2 = 20 3
OB2

B1B2 + OB1 = 20 3
B1B2 = 20 3 20
B1B2 = 20( 3 1) m
Distance 20( 3 1)
Now, speed =
=
1
Time
= 20( 3 1) m/s

[a b b c c a ] = [a b c ]2
[a bc ]2 = [a bc ]2 = 1

86. Given, P( A B) = 1 , P( A B) = 1, P( A ) = 1
4
1 5
=
6 6
1 3
and
P( A) = 1 P( A ) = 1 =
4 4
P( A B) = P( A) + P(B) P( A B)
5 3
1
= + P(B)

6 4
4
1
P(B) = A and B are not equally likely.
3
1
P( A B) = P( A) P(B) =
4
So, events are independent.

A1B1
OB1
A1

Now, [a b b c c a ]
= a b [( b c ) ( c a )]
[Let k = b c]
= a b [k ( c a )]
= a b [( k a ) c ( k c ) a ]
= (a b) [( b c a )c ( b c c )a ]
= (a b) ([b c a ] c ) 0 {Q[b c c ] = 0}
= (a b) c [b c a ] = [a b c ][ b c a ]
{Q [a b c ] = [ b c a ]}
= [a b c ]2

X i 2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + K + 100
=
n
50
50 51
=
= 51
50

X =

85. / Use the following formula to simplify

But given,
So,

Here,

25

P( A B) = 1 P( A B) = 1

90.
p q p ~ q ~ p q ~ ( p ~ q)

~p

~q

~( p ~ q ) is equivalent to ( p q ).