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1 Consider the following about the recently constituted Banks Board Bureau (BBB).

1. It will be a subsidiary of the RBI, consisting of eminent professionals and officials for public sector banks (PSBs).
2. It will replace the Appointments Board of Government.
3. It will approve mergers and acquisition of commercial banks in India.
4. It will restructure the bad loans of distressed banks.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2 The Amending Act (1781) to the Regulating Act of 1773 had which of the following provisions?
1. Increase in the jurisdiction of Supreme Court established by the Regulating Act 1773
2. Recognition of the appellate jurisdiction of the Governor-General-in-Council
3. Enactment of a temporary Uniform Civil Code
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 only

3 The International Finance Corporation (IFC), the investment arm of the World Bank has launched its first Uridashi Masala
Bonds. Why corporate prefer Masala Bonds over External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs)?
A. Masala bonds do not face currency fluctuation risks.
B. There is no limit to borrowing under Masala bonds unlike ECBs.
C. Masala Bonds are subsidized by the government.
D. Masala bonds are not bought and sold under market mechanism unlike ECBs.
4 Which of the following phenomenon is observed due to Doppler Effect?
1. Increase in sound of Car Siren when it is approaching
2. Redshift
3. Neutron bombing in Nuclear Reactors
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

5 Consider the following statements about the Act of 1909 which is also known as Morley-Minto Reforms.
1. It introduced a system of communal representation.
2. It provided for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors.
3. It curtailed the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at the provincial level but increased the same at Central level.
4. It relaxed the central control over the provinces by separating the central and provincial subjects.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
6 The protected area which hosts Mangroves as well as the Giant Salt Water Crocodiles is
A. Hemis National Park
B. Bhitarkanika National Park
C. Khirganga National Park
D. Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuary
7 A geostationary orbit is a particular type of geosynchronous orbit where a satellite in geosynchronous orbit returns to the same
point in the sky at the same time each day. This is made possible as
1. The satellite orbits directly above the poles.
2. The satellite follows the direction of the Earth's rotation.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
8 The raga which is sung late in night is
A. Raga Darbari
B. Raga Todi
C. Raga Bhopali
D. Raga Bhimpalasi

9 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to Polar Vortex?


A. It is a large-scale cyclone.
B. Coriolis force is needed for a Polar vortex to be sustained.
C. It strengthens in the winter and weakens in the summer.
D. It reduces depletion of ozone.
10 As per the Indian Independence Act of 1947, the Governor-general of India was to be
A. Elected by the first Constituent Assembly or Central Legislative Assembly of India
B. Appointed by the Viceroy on the advice of the executive council
C. Appointed by the British Monarch on the advice of the dominion cabinet
D. Nominated by the dominion cabinet based on the recommendation of the Viceroy
11 Consider the following about United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
1. UN Economic and Social Council is its parent organization.
2. The status of UNDP is that of an executive board within the United Nations General Assembly.
3. UNDP is funded entirely by voluntary contributions from member nations.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
12 A 'Trickle-down' approach to economic policy making will rely on which of the following?
1. High tax rates for corporations and wealthy individuals
2. Complete nationalization of the means of production
3. Improving economic growth rates
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
13 The Constituent Assembly was constituted in 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. As per the Plan
1. Each province and princely state was to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population.
2. Princely states could veto the resolutions passed in the Constituent assembly.
3. The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.
4. Community based representation was to be abolished in the constituent assembly.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
14 Consider the following statements about the external sector.
1. Assertion (A): Current Account deficit as a percentage of GDP has steadily increased during the last decade.
2. Reason (R): India has recently abolished controls over the current account convertibility.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
C. A is correct, but R is incorrect.
D. Both A and R are incorrect.
15 Which of the following was/were committees associated with the Constituent Assembly of India?
1. Welfare State Ideals committee
2. A States Committee for Negotiating with the States
3. A provincial Constitution Committee
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

16 Effective Revenue Deficit is


A. Revenue deficit minus grants for creation of capital Assets
B. Revenue receipts adjusted for expenditure on interest payments
C. Fiscal deficit minus revenue expenditure
D. Revenue deficit minus plan allocation to States and UTs
17 Which of the following erstwhile provinces had the largest membership in the Constituent Assembly of India?
A. United Provinces
B. Madras
C. West Bengal
D. Bombay
18 In ancient Indian Buddhist monasteries, a ceremony called Pavarana used to be held. It was the
A. Occasion to elect the Sanghaparinayaka and two speakers one on Dhamma and the other on Vinaya
B. Confession by monks of their offences committed during their stay in the monasteries during the rainy season
C. Ceremony of initiation of new person into the Buddhist Sangha in which the head is shaved an when yellow robes are offered
D. Gathering of Buddhist monks on the next day to the full moon day of Ashadha when they take up affixed abode for the next
four months or rainy season
19 Consider the following about the federal structure of India.
1. The Indian federal structure is the result of an agreement between the states.
2. All states have a legitimate right to secede from the federation by legislative means.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
20 The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states. Which of the following
is/are the major features of parliamentary government in India?
1. Sovereignty of the Indian Parliament
2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature and Judiciary
3. Membership of the ministers in the legislature
4. Presence of nominal and real executives
5. Resolution of all Parliamentary disputes by the Judiciary
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
21 Cutch Rebellion in 1819 occured because
1. The British government destroyed the communication facilities in and outside of Cutch.
2. The British took control the salt produced at the coasts.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
22 What do you understand by the statement, "The Directive principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the constitution are nonjusticiable in nature"?
A. The courts cannot recognize the DPSP in their judgments.
B. DPSP cannot be enforced by law.
C. They are not enforceable by the courts for their violation.
D. All of (a), (b) and (c)

23 The value of secularism can be found in which of the following parts of the constitution?
1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
4. Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
24 AEW&CS project of India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is related to
A. Improving surveillance capabilities of the Indian Air Force
B. Increasing the cyber security of the armed forces
C. Improving the strike range of ballistic missiles
D. Establishing dedicated satellite channel for military communication
25 Which of the following matters is/are dealt by the Third Schedule of the Constitution?
1. Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories
2. Provisions for elections to the Parliament and state legislatures
3. Provisions relating to the privileges of dignitaries
4. Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for constitutional functionaries
5. Provisions relating to disqualification of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 5 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 4 only

D. 2 and 5 only

26 The victor of this Battle took Bihar province in the end of 12th Century, eradicating Buddhism in that area, and later in early
13th Century, his army completed the occupation of the province of Bengal. The battle was
A. Battle of Tarain
B. Battle of chausa
C. Battle of Chausa
D. Battle of Panipat
27 Consider the following statements.
1. Assertion (A): Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament.
2. Reason (R): Preamble is not considered as a part of the constitution.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
C. A is correct, but R is incorrect.
D. Both A and R are incorrect.
28 Consider the following about the Parliament's power to reorganise the States?
1. A State reorganization bill can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.
2. The Home Minister must send the bill to the Governor concerned for his ratification.
3. If a state legislature unanimously opposes reorganization of the state concerned, the bill is sent to the Supreme Court for a
review.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. None
29 Which of the following species are NOT State animals of the states of India?
1. Wild buffalo
2. Snow leopard
3. Giant squirrel
4. Nilgiri tahr
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only

D. All are State animals.

30 Which of the following fundamental rights are conferred to Indian citizens but not foreign citizens living in India?
1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion
2. Right to conserve one's culture
3. Right to Life and Liberty
4. Right to freedom of speech and expression
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 3 and 4 only
31 Consider the following about fundamental rights.
1. They are not available against the action of private individuals.
2. They can be available only to citizens and not to legal or commercial entities.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
32 A Minimum Support Price (MSP) is announced for certain crops by the Union Government prior to the sowing season. Which
of the following approves a hike in the MSP?
A. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
B. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
C. Food Corporation of India (FCI)
D. Ministry of Agriculture and Public Distribution
33 Equal Protection of Laws' granted under Article 14 of the Constitution may imply
A. No person is above the law.
B. Equal treatment of equals under the law.
C. Absence of arbitrary power with the state.
D. The society operates on laws.
34 The Supreme Court held that the freedom of speech and expression includes
1. Right against tapping of telephonic conversation
2. Right against strike called by a political party or organisation
3. Freedom of commercial advertisements
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
35 Consider the following items in the Annual budget - Expenditure section.
1. Plan Assistance to State & UT Governments
2. Subsidies
3. States' share of taxes & duties
Arrange these items in increasing order of their share in the budget.
A. 2<3<1
B. 2<1<3
C. 1<2<3
D. 1<3<2
36 Which of the following is the central difference between the economic philosophies of Socialism and Communism?
A. State v/s non-state ownership of factors of production
B. Right of labour
C. Central v/s decentralized planning
D. Role of market in delivering social services

37 Consider the following about the writ of Mandamus.


1. It is used to prevent usurpation of public offices by ineligible individuals.
2. It cannot be issued against public executive authorities.
3. It cannot be issued by the lower courts.
Select the correct answer using the codes below
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only
38 The 1857 revolt did NOT spread to which of the following parts of the country?
1. Lucknow
2. Allahabad
3. Kashmir
4. Travancore
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 3 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 4 only
39 If a person's "Right to Vote" is infringed, what remedy does she he have?
A. Move the Supreme Court citing violation of fundamental rights
B. File a non-judicial petition with the Election Commission of India
C. File a case against the Chief Electoral Officer of the State
D. Move the High court for infringement of a constitutional right
40 The Regulating Act of 1773 is said to be of great constitutional importance in India.
Which of the following can be the reason(s) for it?
1. It created a federal architecture to govern India decentralizing the administrative system
2. It transferred control of India from commercial companies to a British government representative in India.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
41 In economics, the term 'invisible hand' is often used in the context of
A. Indirect effects of government policy on employment and output
B. Self-correcting quality of the market
C. Welfare orientation of the State
D. Role of regulatory mechanisms in preventing market failures
42 How is the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (SC) different from that of a High Court (HC)?
1. SC can issue writs for any purpose, whereas HCs can only issue them for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
2. SC can issue writ against the government, whereas HCs cannot.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
43 'Economic efficiency' as used by economists and policymakers is related to which of the
following?
1. Optimal allocation of goods and services
2. Resource efficient production
3. Reaching equal income levels for all economic agents
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

44 If a ship moves from seawater to freshwater, it will


A. Sink down a little bit
B. Rise above the water a little bit
C. Remain unaffected
D. Stop floating on water surface
45 Annual Survey of Industries is published by
A. Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
B. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
C. Ministry of Commerce
D. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
46 Consider the following about the Interim Government (1946) of India, whose members were the members of the Viceroy's
Executive Council.
1. The defence portfolio was held by the President of the Council.
2. There was no Health portfolio in the interim government.
3. External Affairs portfolio was managed by the Home Minister.
Select the correct answer using the codes below
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above
47 Consider the following about the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
1. It is funded entirely by the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
2. It is a member of United Nations Development Group.
3. It published the report "Global Environment Outlook".
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
48 The Doha Development Round is associated with which of the following organizations?
A. World Bank
B. United Nations Development Programme
C. World Trade Organization
D. United Nations Economic and Social Council
49 Which of the following are parts of the eight core industries in India?
1. Electricity
2. Fertilizer
3. Telecommunications
4. Steel
5. Textiles
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 3 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
50 'August Offer' of 1940 of the British government relates to
A. Appointment of a representative Constitution Making Body after the Second World War
B. Partition of India based on a referendum
C. Setting up provisional governments in the Princely states
D. Abolition of the system of communal electorates if India participated in the

51 Exercise Force Eighteen, one of the largest multi-national military exercises, is being conducted by India as part of its Look
(Act) East policy. Which of these nations is/are NOT its participant(s)?
1. Pakistan
2. USA
3. China
4. Russia
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 2 and 4 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
52 Consider the following statements.
1. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested all civil and military powers in him.
2. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.
The provisions above were made in which of the following Acts?
A. Charter Act of 1833
B. Charter Act of 1853
C. Government of India Act of 1858
D. Pitt's India Act of 1784
53 Which of the following is the single largest source of annual receipts for the government?
A. Interest receipts
B. Union Excise Duties
C. External Grants
D. Corporation Tax
54 The Supreme Court has declared which of the following rights as part of Article 21: Right to Life and Liberty?
1. Right to free legal aid
2. Right against delayed execution
3. Right to shelter
4. Right to decent environment
5. Right to livelihood
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 5 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
55 January 26 was specifically chosen as the 'date of commencement' of the Constitution because
A. It was on this day in 1930 that Purna Swaraj day was celebrated.
B. The members of the Constituent assembly appended their signatures to the Constitution of India on this date.
C. The Government of India Act 1935 was enacted on this date, which became the bedrock of the Indian constitution
D. The transfer of power from the British Crown to native Indian government took place on this date.
56 An "Outcome Budget" is presented by each Ministry/Department in respect of all Demands/Appropriations controlled by them.
Apart from financial outlays, the outcome budget covers which of the following under the Ministry/Department?
1. Scheme-wise analysis of physical performance
2. Review of performance of statutory and autonomous bodies under its administrative control
3. Reform measures within the Ministry/Department
Select the correct answer using the codes below
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
57 Which of the Acts passed by the British Parliament introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil
servants in India before independence?
A. Charter Act of 1853
B. Indian Councils Act of 1861
C. Indian Councils Act of 1892
D. Charter Act of 1833

58 The right to property is a legal right and not a fundamental right. This has which of the following implications?
1. There is no guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition of a private property by the state.
2. It can be regulated without a constitutional amendment by an ordinary law of the Parliament.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
59 Consider the following about Atal Innovation Mission (AIM).
1. It is being setup under NITI Aayog.
2. It will fund start-ups.
3. It will provide free grants to all research institutions and organizations for any kind of research being done in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
60 Cultural and educational rights given under Articles 29 and 30 of the Indian constitution imply
1. Minorities have the right to conserve their language and script.
2. Minorities have a fundamental right to receive financial support from the government to preserve their traditions.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
61 Consider the following statements.
1. It is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot.
2. The park harbours the northernmost lowland evergreen rainforests in the world.
3. The habitat changes with increasing altitude from tropical moist forests to Alpine meadows and perennial snow.
4. The park has extensive bamboo forests.
The above refer to?
A. Namdapha National Park
B. Balpakram National Park
C. Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary
D. Nokrek National Park
62 Which of the following were introduced or provided for by the Government of India Act of 1919?
1. Bicameralism
2. Direct Elections
3. Central Public Service Commission
4. Autonomy to provincial legislatures to enact their budgets
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
63 Which of the following is the competent authority to change the name of any State of India?
A. Concerned State Legislature
B. Governor concerned
C. Parliament
D. Union Home Minister
64 Which of the following statements about Down's syndrome is INCORRECT?
A. It affects the intelligence of a person.
B. It is a genetic disorder.
C. It may cause death earlier than normal.
D. It causes neo-natal paralysis of body.

65 The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the


A. Preamble of the Nehru Report produced in 1928
B. Prelude of the Government of India Act, 1935
C. 'Objectives Resolution' adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1946
D. 'Outcome Paper' of the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress,
66 Some of the developed countries have started to boycott goods manufactured in developing countries using 'sweat labour' in
addition to banning those manufactured by child labour. 'Sweat labour' implies goods produced by
A. Labourers trafficked from other nations
B. Labourers working in inhuman or unhealthy working conditions
C. Labour working in the unorganized sector which is not regulated by the state 1930.
D. Children of more than 14 years of age but less than 18 years
67 The higher the concentration of the mineral in rocks, the more economical it is to mine it. Which of the following processes
help in the concentration of minerals on earth?
1. Hydrothermal deposits
2. Weathering
3. Water erosion
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
68 The Indian Constitution establishes certain independent bodies like Election Commission of India, Union Service Public
Commission, Comptroller and Auditor General of India. How does it secure their independence from the government?
1. The Government has no right to appoint or remove the chairman of these bodies.
2. These bodies are not financed from the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. These bodies are not legal entities like the government.
4. The government cannot take any action against these bodies or their office holders.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. None of the above
69 A cloudburst is an extreme amount of precipitation. It can be caused due to
1. Collision of heavy clouds with mountains
2. Mixing of warm air parcel with cooler air resulting in sudden condensation
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

70 Consider the following about Brent Crude which serves as a major benchmark price for purchases of oil worldwide.
1. It is extracted from North Sea.
2. It is high in sulphur content.
3. It is of higher density than any other crude oil variety.
4. It is included in the OPEC Reference Basket.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
71 Heavy Water has applications as
1. Catalyst in Fusion reactions
2. Moderator in a Nuclear Reactor
3. Neutrino Detector
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

72 Which of the following most appropriately explains the system of 'diarchy' introduced by the Government of India Act of
1919?
A. There was a division of control of the Government of India between the British Secretary of State and the Viceroy
B. Administration of India was divided between Central and provincial governments
C. Both the official and non-official councils of Governor-General got the right to issue ordinances
D. None of the above
73 Which of the following most appropriately describes INS Arihant?
A. It is India's largest aircraft carrier.
B. It is India's first indigenously built nuclear armed submarine.
C. It is Indian Navy's first ground borne surveillance system.
D. None of the above
74 Which of the following was/were associated with Thomas Macaulay?
1. Minutes on Indian Education
2. Draft of Indian Penal Code
3. Draft of first Indian Forest Policy
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
75 If the difference between the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Net Domestic Product (NDP) is very less for an economy,
what can it imply?
A. The economy is growing at a very slow rate.
B. The economy can be technologically advanced.
C. The economy has low natural resource base.
D. Foreign investments form a major chunk of investments in the economy.
76 Yielding the floor in Indian Parliament is related to
A. Passing between the member addressing the House and the Chair which is considered breach of Parliamentary etiquette.
B. A Member raising a discussion on topics different from the business schedule of the house
C. Termination of a sitting of the House without any definite date being fixed for the next sitting.
D. None of the above
77 The British Government announced the appointment of a seven-member statutory Simon commission in 1927 to
A. Study and report on Constitutional reforms in India
B. Review the working of bureaucracy in India
C. Propose amendments in educational reforms made by Wood's despatch, 1854
D. Report on land revenue policy of the British government in India
78 Consider the following statements regarding the Chakiarkoothu form of dance.
1. It is from Kerala.
2. The performer narrates episodes from Hindu epics and Puranas.
3. It is a solo performance.
4. Mizhavu is the accompanying instrument.
5. It is performed in the Koothambalam.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 5 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
79 The first Parliament in the world to completely run on solar power is of
A. USA
B. Pakistan
C. Israel
D. China

80 The Roaring Forties are strong westerly winds found in the Southern Hemisphere. They are caused due to
1. Air being displaced from the Equator towards the South Pole
2. Earth's rotation
3. Equatorial counter-currents
4. Thermal dipole created in the Pacific Ocean
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
81 The Government of India Act of 1935 marked a major milestone towards establishing a 'responsible government' in India.
What do you understand by 'responsible government' in this context?
A. The Governor was required to act with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature.
B. Government of India took major steps in promoting the welfare of vulnerable sections of Indian population
C. The Viceroy, Governor and Ministers would conduct themselves strictly based on laws
D. Bureaucracy will act as per the instructions of the elected representatives instead of the Governor and Viceroy
82 The August Movement of 1942 in India relates to
A. Peasant revolts against Zamindars in tribal areas
B. Uprising of Bhils against outsiders which were assimilated in the national movement.
C. Agitation by Indian National Army in Burma which then staged march towards India
D. None of the above
83 Mekong-Ganga Cooperation Project is
A. A security agreement between India and ASEAN
B. A bilateral investment agreement involving India and Myanmar
C. A joint border demarcation exercise of East Asian countries and India
D. Cooperation in tourism, culture, education, and transportation linkages
84 The Prayag Assembly convened by Harshavardhana is best known for being
A. An assembly of universal character for offerings of royal charities to all classes of people
B. An assembly for compilation of all major teachings of Buddhism
C. A meeting of all literary gems in Harsha's Kingdom for showcasing the finest literature produced during the reign of Harsha
D. A consortium of all merchants from major Kiingdoms to promote trade between India and some East Asian nations
85 Apart from framing the Constitution and enacting ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly also
1. Ratified India's membership of the Commonwealth
2. Adopted the national flag and anthem
3. Elected the first President of India
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
86 The Sethusamudram Shipping Canal Project involves digging a long deepwater channel linking the
A. Palk Strait with the Gulf of Mannar
B. Lakshadweep Islands with Northern provinces of Sri Lanka
C. Kanyakumari Lagoons to the lagoons in Northern provinces of Sri Lanka
D. Adam's bridge and Ramanam Isthmus
87 Which of the following represents India at the IMF?
A. An Executive Director nominated by the government
B. Union Finance Secretary
C. Head of the largest Public Sector Bank (PSB)
D. Finance Minister

88 The historian Barani refused to consider the state in India under Delhi Sultans as truly Islamic because
1. The Muslims theologists did not decide or dictate state policy.
2. The Sultan supplemented the Muslim law by framing his own regulations
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
89 The Constitution of India establishes a federal system of government. It contains all the usual features of a federation which
are?
1. Division of powers between Central and Regional governments
2. Flexibility of the Constitution
3. Independent Judiciary
4. All-India Services
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
90 Launching an artificial satellite in which of the following ways would save effort?
1. Launching it from equator instead of poles
2. Launching it in eastward direction instead of westward direction
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

91 The writ of Certiorari is issued by


A. A higher court to a lower court or tribunal
B. Judiciary to the executive
C. Judiciary to the legislature
D. A higher court to its officers
92 Dalhousie's chief aim was the consolidation of British rule in India for which he adopted the principle of centralization. For the
newly acquired territories he devised the 'Non-Regulation System" under which
A. Commissioners were appointed to deal with the administrative problems.
B. All finances were to be regulated by the Governor General.
C. No authority in India could frame regulations on its own for new territories and had to rely on orders of the British Crown.
D. The British would remain away from administrative affairs of the new territories and instead regulate them by subsidiary
alliance.
93 Sannyasi Rebellion refers to
A. Displaced peasants and demobilized soldiers of Bengal being led by religious monks and dispossessed zamindars against the
British
B. Sanyasis rising in objection to the regulation of religious practices by the British
C. Dispossessed Zamindars going on hunger and water strikes due to illegitimate annexation of agricultural land by the state
D. The activities of an organized group of Sannyasis who resorted to print and mass media for exposing the British
94 The people of Satara rose in revolt under Dhar Rao in 1840 because
A. British imposed very high land taxes on peasants.
B. The popular ruler of Satara was deposed and banished by the British.
C. All fertile land in the village was confiscated by the British.
D. Satara forests were dismantled and a new order of administration was
95 The guarantor of the fundamental rights of the Indian citizens is the
A. President of India
B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court of India
D. National Human Rights Commission

96 The constitution describes which of the following as fundamental in the governance of the country?
A. Preamble
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Fundamental Rights
D. Fundamental Duties
97 Consider the following statements with regard to the Indian capitalist class in the Indian national movement:
1. It preferred mass civil disobedience as opposed to the constitutional forms of struggle.
2. It was against the ideology of imperialism.
Which of these is/are true?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
98 Special drawing rights can be used to
1. Settle Balance of Payment transactions
2. Augment Foreign Exchange Reserves
3. Fund infrastructure projects
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
99 Consider the following statements about General Anti-Avoidance Rules (GAAR):
1. It applies to indirect taxes only.
2. It will be applicable only when one of the main purposes of the transaction is to avoid taxes.
Which of these is/are true?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
100 The "National treatment" policy advocated by the World Trade Organization (WTO) means
1. Imported goods should be treated no less favorably than domestically produced goods.
2. Foreign companies must enjoy the same funding and protection by the government as domestic industries.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None

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