BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE MAJOR

1. The acoelomates, typified by the flatworms, are most primitive bilaterally symmetrical animals,
and the simplest ones in which true organs composed of two or more primary tissues occur.
Flatworms ____________________.
a. Have an open circulatory system
b. Have a closed circulatory system with a heart
c. Have no need for a circulatory system because they have no organs
d. Lack circulatory, therefore all their cells must be within diffusion distance of oxygen and blood
2. Which of the following does not contribute to the variation of population?
a. Mitosis
b. Crossing over
c. Independent assortment
d. Changes in chromosome structure and number
3. In vascular plants, dermal tissues cover and protect the root and shoot systems, ground tissues
make up the greater portion of plant body; and strands of___________ tissues , conduct food,
water, and minerals.
a. Lateral
b. Dermal
c. Vascular
d. Cuticle
4. The kingdom Protista consists of predominantly unicellular phyla of eukaryotes, together with
three phyla that include large number of multicellular organisms; the red algae, brown and green
algae. Protists are considered the ancestors of:
a. Plants
b. Fungi
c. Animals
d. All of the above
5. Diploid cells have two copies of chromosomes. These two copies are called:
a. Chiasma
b. Genetic recombinant
c. Kinetochore
d. Daughter chromosomes
6. An organelle is a structure within a cell that takes part in carrying out the cells life functions.
Which of the following is NOT an organelle within cells?
a. Chloroplast
b. Nucleus
c. Metabolite
d. Mitochondrion
7. Sugar and starches are called:
a. Proteins
b. Fats
c. Carbohydrates
d. Minerals
8. Which of the following organisms is cold-blooded with a dry scaly skin?
a. Frog
b. Lizard
c. Whales
d. Earthworms
9. All living things are made up of cells. Different cells and organs are adapted for their different
roles in life processes. All living cells contain a nucleus, cytoplasm and cell membrane. In
addition to these, plant cells also have a cell wall, chloroplasts and a vacuole. Which part of a cell
contains the mitochondria?
a. Cell wall
b. Cytoplasm
c. Nucleus
d. Cell membrane
10. The part of a plant cell that stores water, sugar, and minerals?
a. Vacuole
b. Cell wall
c. Nucleus
d. Chloroplast
11. Cell is the smallest unit of living materials that can carry out all the activities necessary for life.
Plant cell contain most of the same organelle and structures found in animal cells. The major
difference between plant cells and animal cells is that plant cells have:
a. Cell wall
b. Vacuoles
c. A plasma membrane
d. Mitochondria
12. The food making process in green plants is called:
a. Absorption
b. Conduction

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c. Photosynthesis
d. Respiration
Photosynthesis is the process of converting light energy and inorganic compounds to chemical
energy and organic compounds. This the way the plants make their own food. Photosynthesis :
a. Is not important to animals
b. Use up oxygen
c. Is essential to all life on earth
d. Takes place only in darkness
Plants need carbon dioxide, water, light, and chlorophyll in order to make starch by
photosynthesis. Carbon dioxide enters plant through holes in the leaves called:
a. Stomata
b. Cuticles
c. Air spaces
d. Chloroplasts
Two different forms of the same gene and are located on homologous chromosomes.
a. DNA
b. Genes
c. Chromatids
d. Alleles
The fungi are often considered as plants because they are non motile and they have external cell
walls. They absorb food from a living or non living organic source. Therefore, fungi are classified
as:
a. Prokaryotic producers
b. Eukaryotic producers
c. Prokaryotic decomposer
d. Eukaryotic decomposer
Which of the following represents the smallest unit of life?
a. Atom
b. Cell
c. Organelle
d. Embryo
Which of the following best describes a group of cells that work together to perform a function?
a. Organ
b. Tissue
c. Organ system
d. Organism
Fungi absorb the nutrients from dead organism. In an ecosystem, what roles do they play?
a. Epiphytes
b. Carnivore
c. Saprophytes
d. Producers
In a binomial system of naming organisms, the name of a species consists of two words, the first
of which is called:
a. Class
b. Genus
c. Phylum
d. Family
All living things on Earth are characterized by cellular organization, growth, reproduction and
heredity. These characteristics serve to define the term LIFE. Other properties commonly
exhibited by organisms include movement and sensitivity to stimuli. Which of the following
conditions is a sufficient criterion to define life?
a. Growth
b. Reproduction
c. Sensitivity
d. Adaptation
What is the major role of decomposer in an ecosystem?
a. Act as pollutants
b. Recycle nutrients
c. Make the soil fertile
d. Clean the environment
The plant loses water but takes up carbon dioxide during the day, when it is numerous stomata
remain open. At night, plants conserve__________ and restrict___________ intake.
a. Oxygen; water
b. Water; oxygen
c. Water; carbon dioxide
d. Carbon dioxide; water
Which of the following organisms transmit the malarial parasite?
a. Ants
b. Flies
c. Aedes
d. Anopheles
Who is the Father of Binomial Nomenclature?
a. Gregor Mendel

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b. Aristotle
c. Carolus Linnaeus
d. Charles Darwin
During mitosis, a double-stranded chromosome is attached to a spindle fiber at the ___________.
a. Cell plate
b. Centromere
c. Centriole
d. Centrosome
The cell wall of plant cell is made of:
a. Lipids
b. Cellulose
c. Protein
d. Cell membrane
Which results from drinking saltwater?
a. Poisoning of the cells
b. Dehydration of the cells
c. Increase in cell pressure
d. Bursting of the cells
At metaphase of the first meiotic division, the chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibers as:
a. Double chromatids
b. Non-homologous pairs
c. Single chromatid strands
d. A tetrad of four chromatids
Which best describes meiosis as another form of cell division with accompanying nuclear
changes?
a. The nuclear changes follows one another indefinitely
b. Each new cell has double the amount from both parents
c. The nucleoli break up into two parts and disappear
d. Each new cell has half the number of chromosomes
Which is the energy storage compound used to do all forms of work of the cell?
a. Electron
b. Adenine
c. Nicotinamide
d. Adenosine triphosphate
Chromosomes do not normally occur in pairs in:
a. Earthworm
b. Somatic cells
c. Fertilized eggs
d. Gametes
The bipolar nature of the cell membrane is due to:
a. Presence of carriers
b. Presence of glycolipids
c. Phospholipids bilayer
d. Integral proteins
When a red blood cell is placed in distilled water, it:
a. Plasmolysis
b. Remains the same
c. Shrinks
d. Swells
What kind of relationship is exhibited by an algae and a fungi in a lichen?
a. Commensalism
b. Parasitism
c. Symbiosis
d. Competition
Chlorophyll appears green because the green portion of light is:
a. Dispersed
b. Absorbed
c. Refracted
d. Reflected
The end products of the dark reaction phase of photosynthesis are ADP and:
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Sugar
c. Carbon
d. Starch
Which pigment is dominant in red algae?
a. Carotenoids
b. Chlorophyll
c. Phycocyanin
d. Fucoxanthin
At the completion of mitosis, the remainder of the cell divides and a new cell wall is formed. This
process is called:
a. Meiosis
b. Cytokinesis
c. Recombination

d. Cross over
40. Which of these is a natural ecosystem?
a. Aquarium
b. Forest
c. Ponds
d. Plant in a pot
41. Bacteria are classified according to their shape. What do we call bacteria that are like bullet or rod
shape?
a. Cocci
b. Spirilla
c. Bacilli
d. Spirillum
42. Which of the following bacteria can cause pulmonary tuberculosis?
a. Mycobacterium
b. Leptospira
c. Anthracis
d. Propionibacterium
43. In the early 2000s there was a worldwide threat called biological warfare in which a certain
specie of bacteria can be used to kill thousands of people. What particular microorganism is this?
a. Leptospira interrogans
b. Escherichia coli
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Streptomyces
44. Protista are grouped according to their mode of acquiring energy. Which of the following contain
chlorophyll and capable of producing their own food through the process of photosynthesis:
a. Phototrophs
b. Heterotrophs
c. Sporozoans
d. Saprophytes
45. Thickening and gel-forming agents in ice cream, candy, toothpaste and cream cosmetics is known
as:
a. Alginic acid
b. Agar
c. Carageenan
d. Leucosin
46. A structure used by heterotrophs with no permanent cell structure for locomotion when
cytoplasm produces cytoplasmic extension, this structure is called:
a. Pseudopods
b. Tube feet
c. Oviduct
d. Spores
47. Fungi cannot produce their own food because they do not contain chlorophyll, they depend on
living host that makes them parasites. What do you call the Fungi that feed on decaying matter?
a. Eimeria
b. Sporozoans
c. Entamoeba
d. Saprophytes
48. An important mold used in making a drug that kills disease-causing bacteria is:
a. Penicillum notatum
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Aspergillus oryzae
d. Streptomyces
49. Fungal body that absorb and provide nutrients to the fungi by extending downward into the
substrate is called:
a. Hyphae
b. Rhizoids
c. Vascular system
d. Phloem
50. Some fungal species can be harmful to other organisms and humans. Which of the following mold
produces a poisonous substance called aflatoxin?
a. Aspergillus oryzae
b. Aspergillus capucus
c. Aspergillus flavus
d. Saccharomyces rouxii
51. What do we call the structure of nonvascular plants that absorb water and nutrients instead of
true root?
a. Substrate
b. Rhizoids
c. Hyphae
d. Cuticle
52. A non flowering vascular plant where seeds are not enclosed in a protective tissue is called as?
a. Cotyledons
b. Gymnosperms

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c. Sepals
d. Angiosperms
Angiosperms are classified according to their lifespan. What do you call a type of angiosperm that
develop roots, stems, leaves for the first year and produce fruits or seeds on the second year then
die:
a. Annual
b. Biennials
c. Perennials
d. Centennials
Sponges are the simplest animals belonging to Phylum Porifera. What do you call the large
opening body structure of sponges where waste water and materials go out?
a. Spicules
b. Pores
c. Flagella
d. Osculum
Cnidarians are stinging animals. They use tentacles to get their food. Cnidarians use stinging
cells that are poison-filled to paralyze their prey or enemies, this stinging poisonous cells is
called:
a. Nematocysts
b. Spicules
c. Osculum
d. Pores
Mollusks are soft-bodied invertebrates and have three parts. Which part of the mollusks that
produce shell to protect their so body?
a. Muscular foot
b. Visceral mass
c. Mantle
d. Spicule
Echinoderms are spinny-skinned animals belonging to Phylum Echinodermata. They have a
unique part is being used for getting food, moving around, and for gas exchange. This unique part
is called:
a. Spines
b. Tube feet
c. Arms
d. Endoskeleton
Anthropods grow a new skeleton many times in their life to give way to growth, specifically
increase in size. This process <putol> increase in size is known as:
a. Molting
b. Growth
c. Development
d. Maturation
An enzyme responsible for digesting carbohydrates once food undergo the process of chemical
digestion in the mouth is called:
a. Amylase
b. Pepsin
c. Pepsinogen
d. Hydrochloric acid
Muscle contraction in the esophagus that helps moves the food down the stomach. This process
is called:
a. Epistaxis
b. Peristalsis
c. Flatulence
d. Constipation
Which of the following cells produces hydrochloric acid in the stomach?
a. Pancreatic cells
b. Neurons
c. Epithelial cells
d. Parietal cells
Cells produced in the Islets of Langerhans that stimulates production of insulin is the:
a. Delta cells
b. Alpha cells
c. Parietal cells
d. Beta cells
The undigested food particles that were not absorbed by the body are eliminated as feces. This
process is called:
a. Excretion
b. Defecation
c. Retention
d. Digestion
If the large intestines absorb more water than usual, it will make the fecal matter quite hard and
difficult to eliminate and will eventually lead to constipation. What intervention you will initiate to
prevent this from occurring?
a. Drink water less than the 8 glasses recommended per day.

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b. Eat food rich in carbohydrates, fats and try to avoid including vegetables in the diet.
c. Include green leafy vegetables and fruits in every meal and drink plenty of water.
d. Increase intake of carbonated drinks and junk foods.
During meal time, one of your students suffocates and is having difficulty of breathing. What will
you do to help your suffocating student?
a. Ignore your student probably she is just kidding around.
b. Leave your student and call her parents.
c. Go immediately to the principals office and report what happened.
d. Ask your student to cough as hard as she can, if nothing happens, apply upward thrust in her
diaphragm.
Pancreas secretes four major hormones that aid in the digestion of food. One of which is the beta
cells that stimulates the production of insulin. What will happen if there is an inadequate
production of insulin?
a. If there is an inadequate release of insulin, fat will not be emulsified.
b. If there is an inadequate release of insulin, blood sugar level will be normalized
c. If there is an inadequate release of insulin, blood sugar will not be deposited inside the cell that will
result in increased blood sugar level.
d. If there is an inadequate release of insulin, carbohydrates, fats, and proteins will not be digested.
Diarrhea is characterized by frequent soft watery stool due to the presence of microorganism in
the food that can lead to dehydration if not managed immediately. What intervention will you
perform in order to manage this condition?
a. Drink lots of clean water and eat fruits and vegetables rich in potassium in order to prevent
dehydration.
b. Take medicine to stop your diarrhea to prevent further loss of water in your body.
c. Do nothing because diarrhea will eventually come to stop and this condition dos not impose threat to
health
d. Take herbal medicines given by witchdoctor in order to strengthen your immune system preventing
dehydration.
Small intestine is consists of three parts the duodenum, jejunum, and the ileum. What usually
happens in the jejunum?
a. Digestion of carbohydrates takes place
b. Absorption of nutrients takes place
c. Digestion of proteins takes place
d. Digestion of protein usually occurs
Appendix is a part of the large intestines in which biologic function is still unknown up to this day.
What will happen if fecal matter penetrates the appendix?
a. If fecal matter penetrates the appendix, this part of the intestine will be detached from the large
intestine.
b. If fecal matter penetrates the appendix, this part of the intestine will become inflamed and there will
be the appearance of a certain disease called appendicitis.
c. If fecal matter penetrates the appendix, it will cause obstruction of bowel movement.
d. If fecal matter enters the appendix, it will cause the bile from not reaching the intestine.
Which of the following function of digestive enzyme is correct?
a. Amylase digests carbohydrates in the mouth.
b. Pepsinogen digests proteins in the stomach
c. Lipase digests proteins in the small intestines.
d. Parietal cells dissolve food that enters the stomach.

Integumentary system protects us from harmful elements such as microorganisms that could cause
diseases, prevents us from dehydration, synthesis vitamin D and regulates body temperature.
71. This is known as the largest system of the body:
a. Circulatory
b. Nervous
c. Digestive
d. Skin
72. What do you call the pigment produced by melanocytes?
a. Keratin
b. Melanin
c. Chlorophyll
d. Carotenoids
73. Hair is present all throughout the body. It is made up of keratin and the outer layer consists of
dead cells. Which part of the hair found beneath the dermal area and is capable of mitosis?
a. Hair gland
b. Hair shaft
c. Hair follicle
d. Hair bulb
74. Dermis is the second layer of the skin which contains several accessory structures namely
glands, muscle, hair follicles, blood vessels and nerves. This gland secretes oily substance called
sebum which prevents the skin from drying. What do you call this gland?
a. Eccrine gland
b. Soporiferous gland

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c. Merocrine gland
d. Apocrine gland
This condition when there is an inflammation of the hair follicles and sebaceous gland due to
accumulation of sebum and bacteria:
a. Blackheads
b. Whiteheads
c. Acute contact dermatitis
d. Acne
Epidermis consists of five sub-layers. Which of the following layers where a protein called keratin
is found?
a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum lucidum/corneum
d. Stratum granulosum
Type of joint that is immovable and can be seen in the sutures of the skull called:
a. Fibrous
b. Synovial
c. Cartilaginous
d. Axial
Which of the following types of bone cells that is responsible for resorption of bones:
a. Osteoclasts
b. Osteogenesis
c. Osteoblasts
d. Osteocytes
Considered as essential to human life as it gives u framework and support to protect the vital
organs and other structures of the body:
a. Cartilages
b. Joints
c. Tissues
d. Bones
The bones comprise the diaphysis or shaft and epiphysis located at the end of the shaft. This is
the site where blood cells are formed. What do you call the part of the bone where the said cells
are produced?
a. Central cavity
b. Epiphysis
c. Diaphysis
d. Spongy bone
Which of the following type of muscles that is spindle shaped and non-striated and tends to be
involuntary?
a. Cardiac muscles
b. Smooth muscles
c. Skeletal muscles
d. Rough muscles
Inflammation of the joint caused by accumulation of uric acid:
a. Osteoblastosis
b. Gouty arthritis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Osteoarthritis
Disease of the skeletal system causing abnormal lateral curvature of the spine which is noted to
be of unknown cause and heredity at times. What do you call this condition?
a. Osteomalacia
b. Scoliosis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Fracture
Disease of the muscular system of unknown causes or sometimes associated with too little
acetylcholine reaching the neuromuscular junction causing severe exhaustion and muscle
fatigue:
a. Myasthenia
b. Muscular dystrophy
c. Gullain Barre syndrome
d. Parkinsons disease
Condition of the nervous system caused by a damage of the facial nerve leading to a unilateral
paralysis of the facial muscles:
a. Alzheimers disease
b. Bells palsy
c. Meningitis
d. Parkinsons disease
Division of the peripheral nervous system that controls voluntary movements of the body:
a. Autonomic nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system
The cerebrum has four lobes. What lobe is responsible for hearing and language?

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a. Temporal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Frontal lobe
Structure in the diencephalon that manage and control body temperature, thirst, hunger, and
sexual urges:
a. Thalamus
b. Pons
c. Hypothalamus
d. Pituitary gland
Cells found in the brain is generally called as:
a. Myocytes
b. Nephrons
c. Hepatocytes
d. Neurons
Part of nerve cell that conveys impulse away from the cell body is called as:
a. Arteries
b. Axons
c. Dendrites
d. Myelin sheath
Structure of the brainstem that regulates breathing, heartbeat regulates blood flow and blood
pressure:
a. Pons
b. Midbrain
c. Pituitary gland
d. Medulla oblongata
Part of the brain responsible for awareness and consciousness and is considered as the largest
part of the brain is called:
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum
c. Diencephalon
d. Brainstem
It distributes oxygen and necessary nutrients needed by the body and therefore, considered as
the river of life:
a. Blood vessels
b. Blood
c. Valves
d. Heart
Which of the following statements below appropriately describe Dengue?
I.
It has now 6 strains hence the disease can recur if infection is caused by another strain.
II.
It is transmitted by a female Aedes aegypti mosquito
III.
It can be prevented by administration of vaccine.
IV.
A positive tourniquet test confirms the disease.
a. II and IV
b. II only
c. I, II and III
d. I and III
Which of the following components of the blood that controls blood clotting?
a. Leukocytes
b. Platelets
c. Erythrocytes
d. Electrolytes
When you are to cite the synonyms for Dengue. You should NOT mention:
a. Breakbone fever
b. Dandy fever
c. Ague
d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

SITUATION: A forty five year old teacher went to Palawan to investigate mysterious deaths in the area,
two weeks after he left the area he developed episodes of chills and fever. Examination reveals presence
of malaria parasite in his blood.
97. The species of the protozoa that cause quartan malaria which means fever and chills occur every
seventy two hours on the 4th day after the onset is:
a. Plasmodium ovale
b. Plasmodium vivax
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Plasmodium malariae
98. Which of the following microorganism will most likely cause the above disease?
a. Spirochete
b. Bacteria
c. Protozoa
d. Virus

99. By incidence, you are aware that the strain which accounts for more fatality and histopathologic
change
a. Plasmodium falciparum
b. Plasmodium ovale
c. Plasmodium vivax
d. Plasmodium malariae
100.
The primary pathologic change in malaria is:
a. Decrease in platelet count
b. Destruction of erythrocytes
c. Destruction of lymphocytes
d. Reaction to toxins
101.
The type of immunity that has two to three weeks duration of protection is:
a. Artificial Passive Immunity
b. Natural Active Immunity
c. Artificial Active Immunity
d. Natural Passive Immunity
102.
You know that innate immunity is known as:
a. Immunity resulting from vaccination
b. State of resistance to infection inherent in body tissues.
c. Resistance dependent on the recognition of infectious disease.
d. Defense mechanism providing protection against infectious agents
103.
The typical pattern of malarial infection in whatever strain among infected person is:
a. Fever, chills, diaphoresis
b. Fever, diaphoresis, chills
c. Chills, diaphoresis, fever
d. Chills, fever, diaphoresis
104.
The teacher asks you regarding the characteristics of the vector that is responsible for the
transmission of the disease. As a knowledgeable science head teacher, which of the following
would you respond?
a. It usually does not bite a person in motion.
b. It breeds in stagnant water and a high flying mosquito.
c. It has fine white dots at the base of the wings with white bands on the legs.
d. The mosquito that infects person usually bites two hours after sunrise and 2 hours before sunset.
105.
The largest of the immune globulins and appears mostly in the intravascular serum and
the first IG to be synthesized by the neonate is:
a. Ig G
b. Ig M
c. Ig A
d. Ig E
106.
A student asks his biology teacher how the skin provides natural immunity to our body.
Which of the following is an appropriate response by the teacher?
a. Skin has normal secretions like sweat that makes skin slightly acidic thereby inhibiting bacterial
growth.
b. Skin serves as the second line of defense against invading microorganisms.
c. The moisture in the skin prevents bacterial growth.
d. None of the above
107.
Which of the following statements describe Ig E?
a. Crosses placenta
b. Involve in allergic & parasitic infection
c. Most abundant immunoglobulin
d. None of the above
108.
You know that innate immunity is known as:
a. Immunity resulting from vaccination
b. State of resistance to infection inherent in body tissues
c. Resistance dependent on the recognition of infectious disease.
d. Defense mechanism providing protection against infectious agents.
109.
Your co-teacher asks which class of immunoglobulins is beginning being acquired by the baby as
it breastfeed to the mother. The knowledge teacher would respond by saying:
a. Ig A
b. Ig M
c. Ig G
d. Ig E
110.
Which description is appropriate for the Ig A?
a. Takes part in allergic and combats parasitic infections.
b. Appears in small amount in serum with it biologic function unknown.
c. Provides a rapid protection because it is the first antibody noted after antigen injection in an adult.
d. Has a protective function on mucosal surfaces exposed to environment transported across mucous
membrane with secretions.
111.
When asked by the client, Aside from bite of an infected mosquito, what are the possible
ways of transmitting the disease? You are correct when you replied:
a. It can be acquired upon indirect contact with fomites.
b. It can be also be transmitted parenterally through blood transfusion.
c. Direct contact with the patient who has malaria is one of the possible ways.

d. There are no other means to transmit the disease but bite of anopheles mosquito.
112.
Which of the following does not confer innate immunity by decreasing the pH thereby
inhibiting bacterial growth?
a. Vagina
b. Tears
c. Breast milk
d. Sweat
113.
Process that takes place during the process of inhalation by a process called diffusion.
Oxygen enters the lungs while carbon dioxide exits. The process is called as:
a. Gas transport
b. Respiration
c. Gas exchange
d. Regulation
114.
What is the normal respiration of an individual per minute?
a. Below sixty
b. Sixty to one hundred
c. Sixteen to twenty
d. 12 to 16
115.
The main source of infection in pulmonary tuberculosis is?
a. Unsanitary surroundings
b. Unavailability of potable drinking water
c. Crowded living quarters
d. Direct contact with infected person
116.
Which assessment would not be consistent with the usual clinical presentation of
tuberculosis and may indicate the development of concurrent problems?
a. High grade fever
b. Productive cough
c. Chills and night sweats
d. Anorexia and weight loss
117.
Which of the following statements regarding TB is incorrect?
a. The disease is caused by a Gram (+) acid fast bacilli
b. Most of the extra pulmonary TB are not communicable
c. Bovine tuberculosis is acquired thru ingestion of unpasteurized milk
d. Adults can develop TB as a result of contact with a child having primary complex.
118.
A client has a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. This means that the client is:
a. Has developed passive immunity to tuberculosis.
b. Has developed a resistance to tubercle bacilli.
c. Has had develop to TB infected person
d. Has active tuberculosis
119.
Which of the following anti-TB drugs does not require monitoring of liver enzymes?
a. Isoniazid
b. Streptomycin
c. Rifampicin
d. Pyrazinamide
120.
The chronic superficial nodule or deep granulomatous lesion that solitary, asymmetric and
painless seen in a patient with syphilis is termed as:
a. Tabes dorsales
b. Chancre
c. Gumma
d. Condyloma lata
121.
Latent syphilis is characterized by which of the following?
a. Asymptomatic but serologic test proves to be reactive.
b. Considered as the destructive but non-infectious stage
c. The typical chancre usually occurs.
d. Affectation of the brain happen.
122.
A patient with syphilis is most contagious during what stage of the disease?
a. Tertiary syphilis
b. Latent syphilis
c. Primary syphilis
d. Secondary syphilis
123.
Which of the following component of the excretory system that t transport urine from the
renal pelvis to the urinary bladder:
a. Ureters
b. Kidneys
c. Urinary system
d. Urethra
124.
Urine formation undergo three process. What process that allows necessary nutrients and
substances to be absorbed by the blood while eliminating ammonia, urea and other waste
products.
a. Tubular secretion
b. Glomerular filtration
c. Tubular reabsorption
d. Glomerular absorption

125.
Which of the following diagnostic tests would confirm that the patient is having
pneumonia?
a. Sputum smear on the abdomen
b. Neufuld-Quellung test
c. Chest X-ray
d. Bordet-Gengou test
126.
Which of the following manifestations if present would support diagnosis of pneumonia?
a. Petechial rashes on the abdomen
b. Hemoptysis and low grade fever in the afternoon
c. Rusty or prune-juice sputum and chest pain
d. Generalized flushing of the skin
127.
In order to prevent the spread of pneumonia, which of the following should be instructed
to the client?
a. Droplet Precaution
b. Enteric Precaution
c. Airborne Precaution
d. Contact Precaution
128.
Melissa most probably developed pneumonia thru the following ways EXCEPT:
a. Direct contact with the patients respiratory secretions
b. Indirect contact with fomites
c. Aspiration of food, fluid or vomitus
d. None of the above
129.
A client with pneumonia is experiencing pleuritic chest pain. Which of the following
describes pleuritic chest pain?
a. Moderate pain that worsen on inspiration
b. Severe midsternal pain
c. A mild but constant aching in the chest
d. Muscle spasm pain that accompanies coughing
130.
What is the single most important manifestation of pneumonia?
a. Chest pain
b. Rusty sputum
c. Fast breathing
d. Chills with rising fever
131.
What medication you will expect to be given to client with pneumonia?
a. Tetracycline
b. Amoxicillin
c. Contrimoxazole
d. Ciprofloxacin
132.
Which of the following organisms most commonly causes community acquired
pneumonia in adults?
A. Streptococcus pneumonia
B. Klebsiella pneumonia
C. Haemophilus influenza
D. Staphylococcus aureus

The Lymphatic system is a series of an open structural network that circulates throughout the body by
containing a clear fluid called lymph. The immune system protects our body from infectious agents
therefore maintaining homeostasis.
133.
Component of the lymphatic system that gathers interstitial fluid from body tissues. This
is called as:
a. Lymphatics
b. Lymph nodes
c. Tonsils
d. Lymphatic capillaries
SITUATION: In a seminar, you will be a resource person on the prevention and control of STDs. The
question that follow pertain to AIDS.
134.
A depressed immune system is caused by which of these pathophysiological alterations?
a. Decreased CD4 T-cell count
b. An increase in Immunoglobulin E
c. Low platelet count
d. Increased sedimentation rate
135.
Which of the following health practices would the teacher most stress in preventing the
transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) in case any team member has HIV or
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
a. No sharing of underarm deodorant or shower soap
b. Making sure certain towels have been washed in boiling water
c. No sharing of razors or toothbrushes
d. Avoiding physical contact such as hugs

136.
Which of the following is NOT vulnerable to AIDS?
a. Drug addicts
b. Person aging 20 to 40 years old
c. Women who have had sex partners
d. Person who use condom
137.
A mother with a diagnosis of AIDS states that she has been earring for her little baby even
though she has not been feeling well. You should ask her:
a. If she is breastfeeding the baby
b. When the baby last received antibiotics
c. If she has hugged or kiss the baby
d. How long she has been caring for the baby
138.
The following are common opportunistic infections in an AIDS patient EXCEPT:
a. Pneumocystis carnii pneumonia
b. Kaposis sarcoma
c. Hodgkins lymphoma
d. Toxoplasmosis
139.
AIDS has minor and major signs. Which of the following is not considered a major sign?
a. Loss of weight 10% of bodys wt.
b. Prolonged fever for one month
c. Chronic diarrhea for more than one month
d. Persistent cough for one month
140.
Which comment by the AIDS patient indicates the need for further teaching?
a. I must have gotten the infection when I used IV drugs and would share needles.
b. I should not touch or share food with my daughter because I might give it to her.
c. It is important to remember that HIV can be transmitted by sexual contact.
d. I will not be able to donate blood and organs in the future.
141.
The teenager seeks evaluation for fatigue, night sweats and weight loss in 6 weeks. To
confirm that the client has been infected with HIV, the doctor will probably order:
a. CD4 count
b. ELISA test
c. Western blot
d. Polymerase chain reaction
142.
A client with HIV is taking zidovudine (AZT), AZT is a drug that acts to:
a. Destroy the virus
b. Slow replication of the virus
c. Enhance the bodys antibody protection
d. Neutralize toxins produced by the virus
143.
A concern participant who has AIDS develops Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). The
participant asks you. How did I get this pneumonia? Your response should be based on which
of these statements about PCP?
a. It occurs in immunosuppressed persons from proliferation of organisms that are normally present in
the body.
b. It is transmitted from close contact with an infected individual who has a suppressed immune system.
c. It results from exposure to a carrier of the organism who has not taken appropriate precautions.
d. It is most often acquired from unprotected sex with an infected individual.
144.
When a trauma victim express fear that AIDS may develop as a result of a blood
transfusion, as a Biology major should explain that:
a. Blood is treated with a radiation to kill the virus
b. Screening for the HIV antibodies has minimized this risk
c. The ability to directly identify HIV has eliminated this concern
d. Consideration should be given to donating own blood for transfusion
The nervous and endocrine system corresponds with each other. This serves as a check and balance by
how the body reacts with the outside world. The pituitary gland is the master gland which controls the
releases of the hormones.
145.
Which of the following hormones plays the role in regulating blood sugar level and protein
breakdown:
a. Growth hormone
b. Prolactin
c. Cortisol
d. Aldosterone
146.
Which of the following hormones causes contraction of the uterus during child labor and
delivery:
a. Antidiuretic hormones
b. Oxytocin
c. Thyroid stimulating hormone
d. Extrgen
147.
Disease of the endocrine system brought about by insufficient production of insulin. This
could be hereditary or acquired. This condition causes excess blood sugar. This is called as:
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Diabetes insipidus
c. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone

d. Hyperglycemia
148.
This typically seen in the patient with syphilis is known as chancre. It is correctly
described by the following statements EXCEPT:
a. A firm painless skin ulceration
b. May persist 4-6 weeks and requires treatment
c. Localized at the point of initial exposure to the spirochete
d. Often overlooked in women
149.
Which of the following manifestations is not commonly seen during the secondary stage
of syphilis infections?
a. Symmetrical, reddish, pink non-itchy rash
b. Condyloma lata
c. Gumma
d. Headache and malise
150.
A patient with syphilis is most contagious is most contagious during what stage of the
disease?
a. Primary syphilis
b. Latent syphilis
c. Secondary syphilis
d. Tertiary syphilis