Test Booklet Code

DATE : 04/05/2014

R
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.

Answers & Solutions

Max. Marks : 720

for
AIPMT-2014
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(1)

1.

Which vector can clone only a small fragment of

DNA?

Answer (1)
Sol. Joint between carpals is gliding joint.

(1) Cosmid

6.

(2) Bacterial artificial chromosome

Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most

likely disrupt

(3) Yeast artificial chromosome

(1) Regulation of body temperature

(4) Plasmid

(2) Short term memory

Answer (4)

(3) Co-ordination during locomotion

Sol. Plasmid can clone only a small fragment of DNA

about 10 kbp size

(4) Executive function, such as decision making

2.

Cosmid

45 kbp

YAC

1 Mbp/ 1000 kbp 2,500 kbp

BAC

300 to 350 kbp

Answer (1)
Sol. Hypothalamus regulates body temperature.
7.

Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in

Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained

from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown
below?

(1) Mode of reproduction

(2) Cell membrane structure
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Cell shape
Answer (2)
Sol. Cell membrane of archaebacteria possesses branched
chain lipids.
3.

A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric

current is
(1) Scoltodon

(2) Pristis

(3) Torpedo

(4) Trygon

8.

What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge

digesters?

(4) Stimulant

Identify the hormone with its correct matching of

source and function
(1) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall
increases the blood pressure

(1) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2

(2) Methane and CO2 only

(2) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and

maintenance of mammary glands

(3) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO2

(3) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal

rhythm of sleepwake cycle

(4) Methane, hdyrogen sulphide and O2

Answer (3)

(4) Progesterone - corpus-luteum, stimulation of

growth and activities of female secondary sex
organs

Sol. In anaerobic sludge digesters, bacteria produce a

mixture of gases like CH4, H2S and CO2.
Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with
the example in human skeletal system :
Type of joint

(3) Depressant

Sol. The plant illustrated in diagram is Datura which has

hallucinogenic properties.

Sol. Torpedo-Electric ray can produce electric current.

5.

(2) Hallucinogen

Answer (2)

Answer (3)
4.

(1) Pain-killer

Answer (3)
Sol. Atrial Natriuretic factor is secreted by atrial wall of
heart. Oxytocin is synthesised by hypothalamous.

Example

(1) Gliding joint

between carpals

(2) Cartilaginous joint

between frontal and

pariental

(3) Pivot joint

between third and

fourth cervical
vertebrae

Answer (2)

between humerus
and pectoral girdle

Sol. In human male, urethra is urinogenital duct carry

urine and sperm both.

(4) Hinge joint

9.

(2)

The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and

urinary system in the human male is
(1) Vasa efferentia

(2) Urethra

(3) Ureter

(4) Vas deferens

15. An example of edible underground stem is

10. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how

much energy will be available to peacock as food in
the following chain?

(1) Potato

(2) Carrot

(3) Groundnut

(4) Sweet potato

Plant Mice Snake Peacock

Answer (1)

(1) 0.0002 J

(2) 0.02 J

Sol. Sweet potato, Carrot Edible root.

(3) 0.002 J

(4) 0.2 J

Potato Edible underground stem.

Answer (2)

16. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one

another without any particular direction, the
condition is termed as

Sol. Plant 20 J
Mice 20 10% = 2 J
Snake 2 10% = 0.2 J
Peacock 0.2 10% = 0.02 J

(2) ICFRE

(3) IUCN

(4) UNEP

(2) Vexillary

(3) Imbricate

(4) Twisted

Answer (3)

11. The organization which publishes the Red List of

species is
(1) WWF

(1) Valvate

Sol. Imbricate aestivation Cassia, gulmohur.

17. In 'S' phase of the cell cycle
(1) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell
(2) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell

Answer (3)

(3) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell

Sol. The IUCN Red List of threatened species (also known

as the IUCN Red List or Red Data List), founded in
1964, is the world's most comprehensive inventory
of th global conservation status of biological species.

(4) Chromosome number is increased

Answer (2)
Sol. S or synthesis phase marks the period where DNA
synthesis takes place. During this time the amount
of DNA per cell doubles.

12. Which one of the following growth regulators is

known as stress hormone?
(1) Indole acetic acid

(2) Abscisic acid

(3) Ethylene

(4) GA3

18. Geitonogamy involves

(1) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from a
flower of another plant belonging to a distant
population

Answer (2)

(2) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from

another flower of the same plant

Sol. ABA stimulates the closure of stomata in the

epidermis and increases the tolerance of plants to
various kinds of stresses.

(3) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the

same flower

13. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the

working of the heart?

(4) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a

flower of another plant in the same population

(1) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases

Answer (2)

(2) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output

Sol. Geitonogamy is transfer of pollen grains from the

anther to the stigma of another flower of the same
plant.

(3) Heart rate is increased without affecting the

cardiac output

19. Person with blood group AB is considered as

universal recipient because he has

(4) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase

Answer (2)

(1) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no

antibodies

Sol. Post-ganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nervous

system secrete acetylcholine which decrease heart
rate and cardiac output.

(2) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies

in the plasma
(3) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma

14. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in

(1) Potato

(2) Apple

(3) Banana

(4) Tomato

(4) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the

plasma
Answer (2)

Answer (4)

Sol. Person with blood group AB has both A and B

antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.

Sol. Tomatoedible part is pericarp and placenta.

(3)

20. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves

transfer of

25. Select the correct option

(1) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian

tube

Direction of Direction of reading

RNA synthesis of the template DNA
strand

(2) Ovum into the fallopian tube

(1)

3 5

3 5

(2)

5 3

3 5

Answer (3)

(3)

Sol. In IVF, zygote or the embryo upto 8-celled stage is

transferred into the fallopian tube

3 5

5 3

(4)

5 3

5 3

(3) Zygote into the fallopian tube

(4) Zygote into the uterus

21. Which one of the following are analogous structures?

Answer (2)

(1) Flippers of dolphin and legs of horse

Sol. RNA Polymers catalyse polymerisation only in one

direction, that is 5 3 and the strand that has the
polarity 3 5 act as a template.

(2) Wings of bat and wings of pigeon

(3) Gills of prawn and lungs of man
(4) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita

26. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand

and capsomeres?

Answer (3)
Sol. Wings of bat are skin folds stretched mainly between
elongated finger but the wings of birds are a feather
covering all along the arm. They look similar because
they have a common use for flying, but their origin
are not common. This makes them analogous
characteristics rather than homologous
characteristics.

(1) Retrovirus
(2) Polio virus
(3) Tobacco mosaic virus
(4) Measles virus
Answer (3)

As per 10th class NCERT option (2) can also taken

as correct option.

Sol. RNA is single stranded helically coiled with 6400

ribonucleotides.

22. Which one of the following fungi contains

hallucinogens?

27. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

(1) Ustilago sp.

(2) Morchella esculenta

(1) Operon-Structural genes, operator and promoter

(3) Amanita muscaria

(4) Neurospora sp.

(2) Transcription-Writing information from DNA to

t-RNA

Answer (3)
Sol. Amanita muscaria is noted for its hallucinogenic
properties, with its main psychoactive constituent
being the compound muscimol.

(3) Translation-Using information in m-RNA to

make protein
(4) Repressor protein-Binds to operator to stop
enzyme synthesis

23. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in

the immediate future is called
(1) Extinct

(2) Vulnerable

Answer (1)

(3) Endemic

(4) Critically Endangered

Sol. Operon consist of - regulator gene, promotor gene,

operator gene and structural genes.

Sol. A taxon facing extremely high risk of extinction in

the immediate future is called critically endangered.

28. Given below is the representation of the extent of

global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four
portions (A-D) represent respectively?

Answer (4)

24. Which one of the following is a non-reducing

carbohydrate?

(1) Ribose 5-phosphate (2) Maltose

(3) Sucrose

(4) Lactose

Answer (3)
Sol. Lactose, Maltose, Ribose 5-phosphate all are reducing
sugars.
(4)

31. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to

escape the heat for the duration of hot summer,
thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other
extremely cold northern regions move to

Options :
B

(1) Insects

Molluscs

Crustaceans

Other animal
Groups

(2) Insects

Crustaceans

Other animal
Groups

Molluscs

(3) Crustaceans

Insects

Molluscs

Other animal
Groups

(4) Molluscs

Other animal
Groups

Crustaceans

Insects

(1) Keolado National Park

(2) Western Ghat
(3) Meghalaya
(4) Corbett National Park
Answer (1)

Answer (1)

Sol. Every winter the famous Keolado National Park

(Bharatpur) in Rajasthan host thousands of
migratory birds coming from Siberia and other
extremely cold northern region.

Sol. A Insects

32. Match the following and select the correct answer

Column I

Column II

a.

Centriole

(i) Infoldings in
mitochondria

b.

Chlorophyll

(ii) Thylakoids

c.

Cristae

(iii) Nucleic acids

B Molluscs
C Crustaceans
D Other animal groups
29. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by
R.H. Whittaker is not based on

d. Ribozymes

(iv) Basal body cilia or

flagella

(1) Complexity of body organisation

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (iv)

(iii)

(i)

(ii)

(2) (iv)

(ii)

(i)

(iii)

(3) (i)

(ii)

(iv)

(iii)

(4) (i)

(iii)

(ii)

(iv)

(2) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus

(3) Mode of reproduction
(4) Mode of nutrition
Answer (2)
Sol. The main criteria of Whittaker's system are :- Cell
type, Thallus organisation, Nutrition, Reprodution
& phylogenetic relationship.

Answer (2)
Sol. Ribozyme is catalytic RNA.
33. Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus
cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks
(A-D). Identify the blanks.

30. Match the following and select the correct option :

(a) Earthworm

(i) Pioneer species

(b) Succession

(ii) Detritivore

(c) Ecosystem service

(iii) Natality

(d) Population growth

(iv) Pollination

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (ii)

(i)

(iv)

(iii)

(2) (i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(3) (iv)

(i)

(iii)

(ii)

Consumers
A
Soil solution

C
D
Uptake
Run off

Options :
C

(1)

Producers

Litter
fall

Rock
minerals

Detritus

Answer (1)

(2)

Detritus

Litter
fall

Producers

Sol. Detrivores, (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into

smaller particles.

Rock
minerals

(3)

Litter
fall

Producers

Rock
minerals

Detritus

The species that invade a base area in succession is

called pioneer species.

(4)

Detritus

Rock
minerals

Producer

Litter
fall

(4) (iii)

(ii)

(iv)

(i)

(5)

37. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa

cells of intestine by the process called

Answer (4)
Sol. A Detritus

(1) Co-transport mechanism

B Rock minerals

(2) Active transport

C Producer

(3) Facilitated transport

D Litter fall

(4) Simple diffusion

34. A man whose father was colour blind marries a

woman who had a colour blind mother and normal
father. What percentage of male children of this
couple will be colour blind?
(1) 75%

(2) 25%

(3) 0%

(4) 50%

Answer (3)
Sol. Fructose is absorbed with the help of the carrier ions
like Na + . This mechanism is called facilitated
transport.
38. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is
to produce

Answer (4)

X+Y

Sol.

X+

(1) Relaxin only

X+ Xc

X
X+

(2) Estrogen only

(3) Progesterone

Xc

(4) Human chorionic gonadotropin

Answer (3)

XX

XX

XY

XY

Sol. Corpus luteum secretes steroid hormones

progesterone and estrogen.

Colour blind male = 50%

35. Select the option which is not correct 0with respect
to enzyme action

39. Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in :

(1) Being lignified
(2) Having casparian strips

(1) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic

dehydrogenase

(3) Being imperforate

(4) Lacking nucleus

(2) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site

Answer (3)

(3) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the

inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
malonate

Sol. Vessel is a long cylindrical tube like structure made

of many cells, called vessel members, each with
lignified walls and a large central cavity. Vessel
members are interconnected through perforation in
their common walls.

(4) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at

a site distinct from that which binds the substrate
Answer (3)

40. Function of filiform apparatus is to

Sol. Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate is

an example of competitive inhibition. This is
reversible reaction. On increasing the substrate
(succinate) concentration the effect of inhibitor is
removed and Vmax remain same.

(1) Guide the entry of pollen tube

(2) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma
(3) Stimulate division of generative cell
(4) Produce nectar

36. Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of

Answer (1)

(1) The pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood

sugar levels

Sol. Filiform apparatus, present in synergids, play an

important role in guiding the pollen tube into the
synergid.

(2) The parathyroid glands, leading to increased

metabolic rate

41. Choose the correctly matched pair.

(3) The kidney, leading to suppression of

reninangiotensin-aldosterone pathway

(1) Inner surface of bronchioles-Squamous

epithelium

(4) The adrenal medulla, leading to increased

secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrene

(2) Inner lining of salivary ducts - Ciliated

epithelium

Answer (4)

(3) Moist surface of buccal cavity-Glandular

epithelium

Sol. In fight or flight reactions, emergency hormones are

secreted by adrenal medulla.

(4) Tubular parts of nephrons-Cuboidal epithelium

(6)

Answer (4)

46. Male gametophyte with least number of cells is

present in

Sol. Moist surface of buccal cavity Stratified

non-keratinised squamous epithelium
Inner surface of bronchioles Ciliated epithelium
Inner lining of salivary ducts Cuboidal epithelium

(1) Pinus

(2) Pteris

(3) Funaria

(4) Lilium

Answer (4)

42. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the

trees indicates that the

Sol. Male gametophyte is highly reduced in angiosperm

and is known as pollen grain. It is 2 or 3-celled.

(1) Location is not polluted

47. A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark

room. After a few days they were found to have
become white-coloured like albinos. Which of the
following terms will you use to describe them?

(2) Trees are very healthy

(3) Trees are heavily infested
(4) Location is highly polluted
Answer (1)
Sol. Lichens are very good pollution indicators, they do
not grow in polluted areas.

(1) Defoliated

(2) Mutated

(3) Embolised

(4) Etiolated

Answer (4)

43. Approximately seventy percent of carbon-dioxide

absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs
(1) As carbamino-haemoglobin

Sol. Etiolation is depigmentation is leaf when plant is

placed in dark for more than 36 hrs.

(2) As bicarbonate ions

48. A human female with Turner's syndrome

(3) In the form of dissolved gas molecules

(1) Is able to produce children with normal husband

(4) By binding to R.B.C.

(2) Has 45 chromosomes with XO

Answer (2)

(3) Has one additional X chromosome

Sol. Nearly 20 25 percent of CO2 is transported by

RBCs, whereas, 70 percent of it is carried as
bicarbonates. About 7 percent of CO2 is carried as
dissolved state in plasma.

(4) Exhibits male characters

Answer (2)
Sol. Turner's syndrome is caused due to the absence of
one of the X chromosomes i.e. 45 with XO
(or 44 + XO).

44. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron

occurs at
(1) The sacroplasmic reticulum

49. Pollen tablets are available in the market for

(2) The neuromuscular junction

(3) The transverse tubules

(1) Ex situ conservation

(4) The myofibril

(2) In vitro fertilization

Answer (2)

(3) Breeding programmes

Sol. Neuromuscular junction is the junction between

motor neuron and muscle fibre.

(4) Supplementing food

Answer (4)

45. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to

genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa.
Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the
population is
(1) 0.7

(2) 0.4

(3) 0.5

(4) 0.6

Sol. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and it has become

a fashion in recent years to use pollen tablets as food
supplements.
50. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which
(1) Uterus is removed surgically

Answer (4)

(2) Small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied

up

Sol. According to Hardy Weinberg principle.

p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1; (p + q)2 = 1

(3) Ovaries are removed surgically

(AA) p2 = 360 out of 1000 individual or p2 = 36 out

of 100

(4) Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up

q2 = 160 out of 1000 or q2 = 16 out of 100

Answer (2)

so q =

Sol. In tubectomy, small part of fallopian tube is removed

or tied up.

.16 = .4. As p + q = 1

so, p is 0.6.
(7)

56. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of

51. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) A sterile pistil is called a staminode

(1) Ulva

(2) The seed in grasses is not endospermic

(2) Rhodospirillum

(3) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit

(3) Spirogyra

(4) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in

maize grain

(4) Chlamydomonas
Answer (2)

Answer (4)

Sol. In Rhodospirillum, electron donor is organic

compound during photosynthesis.

Sol. Mango seeded fruit

57. Fruit colour in squash is an example of

Sterile stamen staminode

(1) Inhibitory genes

Seeds in grasses endospermic

(3) Dominant epistasis (4) Complementary genes

52. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is

carried out by?
(1) Pepsin

(2) Lipase

(3) Trypsin

(4) Rennin

Answer (3)
Sol. Dominant epistasis is the phenomenon of masking
or supressing the expression of a gene by a dominant
non-allelic gene.

Answer (4)

eg, fruit colour in Cucurbita pepo (Summer squash)

Sol. The initial step in the digestion of milk in human is

carried out by rennin.

58. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually

show symptoms of AIDS?

53. An example of ex situ conservation is

(1) Sacred Grove

(2) National Park

(3) Seed Bank

(4) Wildlife Sanctuary

(2) Recessive epistasis

(1) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse

transcriptase
(2) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected
person

Answer (3)

(3) When the infected retro virus enters host cells

Sol. In situ conservation strategies National park,

biosphere reserve, sanctuaries, sacred groves.

(4) When HIV damages large numebr of helper TLymphocytes

54. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of

whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used
in flying are an example of :

Answer (4)

(2) Analogous organs

Sol. Symptoms of AIDS would appear in the late stage of

HIV infection, when the virus attacks 'Helper-T-cells'
and causes their depletion

(3) Adaptive radiation

59. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Convergent evolution

(1) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in

rods only

(4) Homologous organs

Answer (4)

(2) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual

photopigments

Sol. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking, forelimbs of

whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used
in flying are the examples of homologous. All are
modified forelimbs, with the same types of bones,
they have become different due to adaptation to
habitat

(3) In retina the rods have the photopigment

rhodopsin while cones have three different
photopigments
(4) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C
Answer (4)

55. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the

southern hybridisation technique does not use

Sol. Retinal pigment is an aldehyde of vitamin A.

(1) PCR

60. Transformation was discovered by

(2) Electrophoresis

(1) Watson and Crick

(3) Blotting

(2) Meselson and Stahl

(4) Autoradiography

(3) Hershey and Chase

Answer (1)

(4) Griffith

Sol. PCR is only for amplification of DNA.

Answer (4)
(8)

Sol. In 1928, Frederick Griffith performed transformation

experiment by using Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Answer (2)
Sol. F.W. went isolated auxin from Avena coleoptile tip.

61. Which structures perform the function of

mitochondria in bacteria?

66. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from

(1) Mesosomes

(2) Nucleoid

(1) Multicarpellary superior ovary

(3) Ribosomes

(4) Cell wall

(2) Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium

Answer (1)

(3) Multicarpellary apocarpus gynoecium

Sol. Mesosomes help in respiration, secretion processes,

to increase the surface area of the plasma membrane
and enzymatic contact.

(4) Complete inflorescence

Answer (3)

62. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra

Uterine Device (IUD)?
(1) Vault

(2) Multiload 375

(3) LNG-20

(4) Cervical cap

Sol. Aggregate fruits are developed from multicarpellary

apocarpus gynoecium.
67. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both
marine and fresh water species

Answer (3)
Sol. LNG-20 is a hormone releasing intra-uterine device
(IUD).
63. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA
in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is
denoted as 2C?
(1) G2 and M

(2) G0 and G1

(3) G1 and S

(4) Only G2

(1) Cnidaria

(2) Echinoderms

(3) Ctenophora

(4) Cephalochordata

Answer (1)
Sol. Members of ctenophora, cephalochordata and
echinodermata are exclusively marine.
68. Which one of the following shows isogamy with
non-flagellated gametes?

Answer (4)
Sol. In M-phase, both 4C and 2C of DNA are present in
different stages.
64. In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterized
by

(1) Spirogyra

(2) Sargassum

(3) Ectocarpus

(4) Ulothrix

Answer (1)
Sol. Spirogyra shows isogamy with non-lagellated
gametes.

(1) Microscopy
(2) PCR and RAPD

69. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is

chiefly regulated by

(3) Northern blotting

(4) Electrophoresis and HPLC
Answer (2)

(1) Ribosomes

(2) Mitochondria

Sol. Now a days PCR & RAPD technique are used for the
characterisation of in vitro clonal propagation in
plants.

(3) Vacuoles

(4) Plastids

Answer (3)
Sol. Vacuoles

Option (1) is also correct.

70. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium

reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?

65. Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed

and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would
produce a bending when placed on one side of
freshly cut coleoptile stumps. Of what significance
is this experiment?

(1) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels

(2) Increase in aldosterone levels

(1) It demonstrated polar movement of auxins

(3) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels

(2) It made possible the isolation and exact

identification of auxin

(4) Decrease in aldosterone levels

Answer (2)

(3) It is the basis for quantitative determination of

small amounts of growth-promoting substances

Sol. Aldosterone stimulates Na+ and water reabsorption

in DCT.

(4) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin

(9)

71. Choose the correctly matched pair :

76. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a
dicot root. Which of the following anatomical
structures will you use to distinguish between the
two?

(1) Cartilage - Loose connective tissue

(2) Tendon - Specialized connective tissue
(3) Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue

(1) Cortical cells

(4) Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue

(2) Secondary xylem

Answer (4)

(3) Secondary phloem

Sol. Areolar and adipose tissue are loose connective

tissue while tendon is dense connective tissue.
Cartilage is specialized connective tissue.

(4) Protoxylem
Answer (4)
Sol. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith)
and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of the
organ. This type of primary xylem is called endarch.
In root, the protoxylem lies towards periphery and
metaxylem lies towards the centre, such arrangement
is called exarch.

72. To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseased

one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of
the diseased plant will be taken?
(1) Epidermis only
(2) Apical meristem only

77. Commonly used vectors for human genome

sequencing are

(3) Palisade parenchyma

(4) Both apical and axillary meristems

(1) T/A Cloning Vectors

Answer (4)

(2) T-DNA

Sol. Apical and axillary meristems are free of virus.

(3) BAC and YAC

73. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is

present is called

(4) Expression Vectors

(1) Troposphere

(2) Ionosphere

(3) Mesosphere

(4) Stratosphere

Answer (3)
Sol. Commonly used vectors for human genome
sequencing are BAC (Bacterial artificial chromosome)
and YAC (Yeast Artificial chromosome)

Answer (4)

78. Which one of the following living organisms

completely lacks a cell wall?

Sol. Good ozone is found in the upper part of the

atmosphere called the stratosphere and it acts as a
shield absorbing UV rays from the sun.

(1) Blue - green algae

(3) Sea - fan (Gorgonia) (4) Saccharomyces

74. Which one of the following is wrong about Chara?

Answer (3)

(1) Globule is male reproductive structure

Sol. Gorgonia (sea-fan) is an animal. All animal lack cell

wall.

(2) Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium

(3) Globule and nucule present on the same plant

79. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin

activity in a normal pregnant female

(4) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium

Answer (4)

(1) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of

endometrium

Sol. Nucule/oogonium/upper sex organ

(2) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the

thickening of endometrium

Globule/antheridium/lower sex organ

75. An alga which can be employed as food for human
being is
(1) Polysiphonia

(2) Ulothrix

(3) Chlorella

(4) Spirogyra

(2) Cyanobacteria

(3) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation

of the embryo
(4) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of
estrogen and progesterone

Answer (3)

Answer (4)

Sol. Chlorella is rich in proteins and are used as food

supplements even by space travellers.

Sol. In pregnant female, hCG maintains the corpus luteum

which secretes estrogen and progesterone.
(10)

80. The motile bacteria are able to move by

86. Viruses have

(1) Pili

(2) Fimbriae

(1) Both DNA and RNA

(3) Flagella

(4) Cilia

(2) DNA enclosed in a protein coat

Answer (3)

(3) Prokaryotic nucleus

Sol. Motile bacteria have thin filamentous extensions

from their cell wall called flagella.

(4) Single chromosome

Answer (2)

81. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial

plant removes

Sol. Nucleoprotein particles

87. Non-albuminous seed is produced in

(1) Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or

less
(2) Gases like sulphur dioxide

Sol. A sucrubber can remove gases like SO2 in which

the exhaust is passed through a spray of water or
lime.
82. The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage
of meiosis?
(4) Diplotene

(4) Wheat

88. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a

diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of
monomer are known as

Answer (2)

(3) Zygotene

(3) Castor

Sol. Seed of garden pea is ex-albuminous or non

endospermic.

(4) Gases like ozone and methane

(2) Pachytene

(2) Maize

Answer (1)

(3) Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or

above

(1) Diakinesis

(1) Pea

(1) Lamins

(2) Microtubules

(3) Microfilaments

(4) Intermediate filaments

Answer (3)
Sol. Microfilaments are ultramicroscopic long, narrow
cylindrical solid rods or protein filaments
(actin protein) of approx 8 nm in dm.

Answer (2)

89. The first human hormone produced by recombinant

DNA technology is

Sol. Crossing over is an enzyme-mediated process and

the enzyme involved is called recombinase.
83. Planaria possess high capacity of
(1) Bioluminescence

(1) Progesterone

(2) Insulin

(3) Estrogen

(4) Thyroxin

Answer (2)

(2) Metamorphosis

Sol. The first hormone produced by recombinant DNA

technology is insulin.

(3) Regeneration
(4) Alternation of generation

90. In which one of the following processes CO2 is not

released?

Answer (3)
Sol. Planaria, is a flatworm which possess a high power
of regeneration.

(1) Lactate fermentation

84. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are

visible first in

(3) Aerobic respiration in animals

(1) Buds

(2) Senescent leaves

(3) Young leaves

(4) Roots

(2) Aerobic respiration in plants

(4) Alcoholic fermentation
Answer (1)
Sol. Glucose

Answer (2)
Sol. N and K are mobile elements.

2NAD+

85. Which of the following is responsible for peat

formation?
(1) Sphagnum

(2) Marchantia

(3) Riccia

(4) Funaria

2NADH + H
2 Pyruvic acid
2NAD+

Answer (1)

2NADH + H+

Sol. Species of Sphagnum, a moss provides peat that have

long been used as fuel.

2 lactic acid
(11)

91. Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1

and K2 (K1 < K2) are inserted between plates of a
parallel plate capacitor, as shown in the figure. The
variation of electric field E between the plates with
distance d as measured from plate P is correctly
shown by
P+

K1

K2

Sol.

1
2

d n 2

1
2

4r n 2

1
r2

94. In a region, the potential is represented by V(x, y, z)

= 6x 8xy 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and x, y, z
are in metres. The electric force experienced by a
charge of 2 coulomb situated at point (1, 1, 1) is

Answer (3)

(1) 4 35 N

(2) 6 5 N

(3) 30 N

(4) 24 N

Answer (1)
E

(1)

Sol. V = 6x 8xy 8y + 6yz

(2)
0

Ex

V
(6 8 y ) 2
x

Ey

V
( 8x 8 6 z) 10
y

Ez

V
6 y 6
z

(3)

(4)
0

E Ex2 E y2 Ez2 4 100 36 140

Answer (4)
Sol. Electric field inside parallel plate capacitor having
charge Q at place where dielectric is absent
where dielectric is present

2 35 N/C

Q
A 0

F qE 4 35 N
95. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3
connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The
mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough
horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = )

Q
KA0

92. Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric poiwer is sent

from one city to another city through copper wires.
The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average
resistance per km is 0.5 . The power loss in the wire
is
(1) 12.2 kW

(2) 19.2 W

(3) 19.2 kW

(4) 19.2 J

The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The

downward acceleration of mass m1 is
(Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)

m2

m3

Answer (3)
Sol. Resistance = 150 0.5 = 75
I

m1

8
V

16 A
R 0.5

P = I2R = (16)2 75 W = 19200 = 19.2 kW

93. The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius r)
is inversely proportional to
(1)
(2) r2

(3) r3

(1)

g(1 2 )
2

(2)

g(1 g )
9

(3)

2 g
3

(4)

g(1 2 )
3

Answer (4)

(4) r
(12)

Sol. a m1 g (m2 m3 )g
m1 m2 m3

98. A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding

the internal resistance of a given cell. The main
battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an
emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The
potentiometer wire itself is 4 m long. When the
resistance, R, connected across the given cell, has
values of

m g 2g
3m
g
1 2
3

m2g

(i) Infinity
(ii) 9.5 ,

m3g

the 'balancing lengths', on the potentiometer wire are

found to be 3 m and 2.85 m, respectively.

The value of internal resistance of the cell is

m1g
96. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It
suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each
of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with
equal speeds (v). The total kinetic energy generated
due to explosion is
(1) 4 mv2
(3)

3
m v
2

(2) 0.25

(3) 0.95

(4) 0.5

Answer (4)

Sol. r 1 1 R
l2

(2) mv2

0.15
3

1 9.5
9.5
2.85
2.85

(4) 2 mv2

Answer (3)

= 0.5

Sol. Initial momentum = Pi = 0

99. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16

times its previous value, the percentage change in the
de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is

Final momentum Pf = 0 = mvi mvj P3

(1) 0.75

P3 mv 2

P32
1
1

mv 2 mv 2
Total KE
22m 2
2

(2) 25

(3) 75

(4) 60

Answer (3)

Sol.

3 mv 2
2m 2 v 2
mv 2
=
4m
2

'

97. Steam at 100C is passed into 20 g of water at 10C.

When water acquires a temperature of 80C, the mass
of water present will be:
[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal
heat of steam = 540 cal g1]

(1) 50

g1C1

(1) 22.5 g

(2) 24 g

(3) 31.5 g

(4) 42.5 g

( p 2 mE )

2 mE

h
2 m(16 E)

0.25
4

% change = 75%

and latent

100. Light with an energy flux of 25 104 Wm2 falls on

a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If
the surface area is 15 cm2, the average force exerted
on the surface is

Answer (1)

(1) 3.0 106 N

(2) 1.25 106 N

Sol. Heat gain by water = Heat lost by steam

(3) 2.50 106 N

(4) 1.20 106 N

Answer (3)

20 1 (80 10) = m 540 + m 1 (100 80)

1400 = 560 m

Sol. Fav

m = 2.5 g
Total mass of water = 20 + 2.5 = 22.5 g

2 I A 2 25 10 4 15 10 4
N

c
3 10 8

= 250 108 N = 2.5 106N

(13)

101. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies of

three segments into which a string is divided, then
the original fundamental frequency n of the string is
given by

Sol. Initially,

Finally,

(1) n = n1 + n2 + n3

1 1 1 1
(2) n n n n
1
2
3

(3)

5
R

l1 100 l1

...(i)

5
R

1.6 l1 2(100 1.6l1 )

R
R

1.6(100 l1 ) 2(100 1.6 l1 )

1
1
1
1

n
n1
n2
n3

160 1.6 l1 = 200 3.2 l1

n n1 n2 n3

l1 = 25

(4)

...(ii)

1.6 l1 = 40

From Equation (i),

Answer (2)
Sol.

l1

l2

l3

n1

n2

n3

n1

1 T
;
2 l1

n2

1 T
2l

5
R

25 75

R = 15 .
1
2l2

T
;

n3

103. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a

monochromatic radiation of = 975 . Number of
spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will
be

1 T
2l3

(1) 10

(l = l1 + l2 + l3)

(2) 3
(3) 2

2l
1
2l
2l
2l
1 1
1

1 2 3
n
T
T
T
T n1 n2 n3

(4) 6
Answer (4)

102. The resistances in the two arms of the meter bridge

are 5 and R , respectively. When the resistance
R is shunted with an equal resistance, the new
balance point is at 1.6 l1. The resistance R, is :

Sol. Energy incident

hc
6.63 10 34 3 10 8

eV
975 10 10 1.6 10 19

= 12.75 eV
The Hydrogen atom will be excited to n = 4

Number of spectral lines

104. A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is

so strong that even light cannot escape from it.
To what approximate radius would earth
(mass = 5.98 1024 kg) have to be compressed to be
a black hole?

G
A

l1

100 l1

4(4 1)
6
2

(1) 25

(1) 100 m

(2) 10

(2) 109 m

(3) 15

(3) 106 m

(4) 20

(4) 102 m
Answer (4)

Answer (3)
(14)

Sol. Ve

107. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as
fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are

2GM
C
R
2GM 2 6.67 10 11 5.98 10 24

C2
(3 10 8 )2

(4) [F V1 T1]

M = [F V1 T]
108. A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead of
him. He slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds that
traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him at
18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. If
the speed of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the
honk as heard by him will be

105. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass

m and radius R) rolling down an incline of angle ''
without slipping and slipping down the incline
without rolling is
(1) 7 : 5

(2) 5 : 7

(3) 2 : 3

(4) 2 : 5

(1) 1454 Hz
(2) 1332 Hz
(3) 1372 Hz

Answer (2)

(4) 1412 Hz

Sol. aslipping = gsin

g sin

a rolling

a slipping

(3) [F V T2]
Sol. F = [M V T1]

8.86 10 m 10 m

a rolling

(2) [F V T1]

Answer (1)

2 6.67 5.98
10 3 m
9
3

(1) [F V1 T]

K2
r2

Answer (4)

Sol. v0 = 36 km/h = 10 m/s

5
g sin
7

vS = 18 km/h = 5 m/s
S

f = 1392 Hz

v v0
343 10
f ' f
1392
Hz
343 5
v vs

1392

106. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is

free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless
string is wound round the cylinder with one end
attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in
the string required to produce an angular acceleration
of 2 revolutions s2 is

353
Hz 1412 Hz
348

109. When the energy of the incident radiation is increased

by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV
to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is

(1) 157 N

(2) 25 N

(1) 1.5 eV

(3) 50 N

(4) 78.5 N

(2) 0.65 eV
(3) 1.0 eV
(4) 1.3 eV

Answer (1)
Sol.

Answer (3)

Sol.

Tr I

E hv
0.5 hv

...(1)

Again 0.8 = 1.2 hv

...(2)

From equation (1) 1.2 0.6 = 1.2 hv 1.2

I
mr mr

2
r
2
r
2

Equation (2)

0.8 = 1.2 hv

0.2 0.2
1 eV

50 0.5 2 2

N = 157 N
2
(15)

110. A balloon with mass m is descending down with an

acceleration a (where a < g). How much mass should
be removed from it so that it starts moving up with
an acceleration a?
(1)

ma
ga

(2)

2 ma
ga

Answer (4)
Sol. Step - 1 Isothermal Expansion

P2V2 P3V3

2 ma
ga

P
(2V ) 3 P3 (16 V ) 3
2

P 2V 3 P 1 3 P
P3

2 16 V
2 8
64

ma
(4)
ga

112. Certain quantity of water cools from 70C to 60C in

the first 5 minutes and to 54C in the next 5 minutes.
The temperature of the surroundings is

Answer (2)

a mg B = ma

Sol.

P
2

Step - 2 Adiabatic Expansion

(3)

P2

PV = P22V

(i)

(1) 10C

(2) 45C

(3) 20C

(4) 42C

Answer (2)
Sol. Newtons law of cooling

mg
B

First

70 60
K 65 0
5

2 K 65 0

Next

(m m0)g
B (m m0)g = (m m0 )a

...(i)

60 54
K 57 0
5

...(ii)

Diving (i) and (ii)

(ii)

5 65 0

3 57 0

Equation (i) + equation (ii)

mg mg + m0g = ma + ma m0a
m0

1 2
2

K 1
0 .
t
2

285 50 195 30

2 ma
ga

2 0 90

111. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume

V expands isothermally to a volume 2 V and then
adiabatically to a volume 16 V. The final pressure of

0 45

113. The number of possible natural oscillations of air

column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm
whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz are (velocity of
sound = 340 ms1)

5
the gas is (take = )
3

(1) 16 P

(2) 64 P

(3) 32 P

P
(4)
64

(16)

(1) 6

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 7

Answer (1)

(1) It is for a LED and points A and B represents

open circuit voltage and short circuit current
respectively

Sol. lc = 0.85 m

f0

340 ms 1
v

100 Hz
4 l c 4 0.85m

(2) It is V I characteristic for solar cell where point

A represents open circuit voltage and point B
short circuit current

fn = (2n + 1)f0 = f0, 3f0, 5f0, 7f0, 9f0, 11f0, 13f0

= 100 Hz, 300 Hz, 500 Hz, 700 Hz,

(3) It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent

open circuit voltage and current, respectively

900 Hz, 1100 Hz

114. The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on :
a.

Type of semiconductor material

b.

Amount of doping

c.

Temperature

(4) It is for a photodiode and points A and B

represent open circuit voltage and current,
respectively
Answer (2)

Which one of the following is correct?

Sol. Solar cell Open circuit I = 0, potential V = emf

(1) a, b and c

(2) a and b only

(3) b only

(4) b and c only

Short circuit I = I, potential V = 0

117. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through
the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G,
the resistance of ammeter will be

Answer (1)
Sol. It depends on all.
115. Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of
earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly
represented by

E
(1)

(2)

E
(3)

R
r

(4)

(2)

1
G
499

(3)

499
G
500

(4)

1
G
500

Sol. n

I 100

500
I g 0.2

RA

Answer (2)
Sol. E in

500
G
499

Answer (4)

(1)

E out

118. A radio isotope X with a half life 1.4 109 years

decays of Y which is stable. A sample of the rock from
a cave was found to contain X and Y in the ratio 1 : 7.
The age of the rock is

GMr
R3

R
O

GM

G
G

n 500

r2

(1) 8.40 109 years

116. The given graph represents V I characteristic for a

semiconductor device.

(2) 1.96 109 years

(3) 3.92 109 years
(4) 4.20 109 years

Answer (4)
Sol. X : Y = 1 : 7

A
V

X : (X + Y) = 1 : 8 = 1 : 23

3 half life
T = 3 1.4 109 yrs = 4.2 109 yrs.

Which of the following statement is correct?

(17)

Answer (3)

119. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of

radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius R
and volume V. If 'T' is the surface tension of the liquid,
then

Sol. Power ouput = 3kW

(1) Energy is neither released nor absorbed

Ib 6 A

1 1
(2) Energy = 4VT is released
r R

VS

2.7 kW
450 V
6A

1 1
(3) Energy = 3VT is absorbed
r R

IP

3 kW
15 A
200 V

90
2.7 kW
100

122. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into wire of

length l. When this wire is subjected to a constant

1 1
(4) Energy = 3VT is released
r R

force F, the extension produced in the wire is l .

Which of the following graphs is a straight line?

Answer (4)
Sol. Energy released = (Af Ai)T
A f 4 R 2

3V
3
R
4

3
R
R

Ai n 4 r 2

3V
V
4 r 2
4 3
r
r
3

(1) l versus l

(2) l versus

1
l

(3) l versus l2

(4) l versus

1
l2

Answer (3)
Sol. V = Al, Y

1 1
Energy released = 3VT
r R

l l 2

120. If the focal length of objective lens is increased then

magnifying power of

123. A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius

r is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal
magnetic field B, as shown in figure. The potential
difference developed across the ring when its speed
is v, is

(1) Microscope will decrease but that of telescope

will increase
(2) Microscope will increase but that of telescope
decrease
(3) Microscope and telescope both will increase
(4) Microscope and telescope both will decrease
Answer (1)

Sol. MP of microscope

MP of telescope

Fl
Fl
Fl 2
l

Al
AY VY

L
P
1
f0
fe

f0
fe

(1) 2rBv and R is at higher potential

fe

1 D

(2) Zero
(3) Bvr2/2 and P is at higher potential

121. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working

on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in
the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the
secondary coil and the current in the primary coil
respectively are

(4) rBv and R is at higher potential

Answer (1)
Sol.

(1) 600 V, 15 A

(2) 300 V, 15 A

= BLeffv (Leff = Diameter)

(3) 450 V, 15 A

(4) 450 V, 13.5 A

= B 2Rv
(18)

Answer (3)

124. A particle is moving such that its position

coordinates (x, y) are

Sol. Normal incidence at silvered surface

(2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0,
(6 m, 7 m) at time t = 2 s and
(13 m, 14 m) at time t = 5 s

2A

Average velocity vector (Vav ) from t = 0 to t = 5 s is

(1)

11
(i j )
5

(2)

1
(13i 14 j )
5

(3)

7
(i j )
3

A
A

90
A

sin i
sin 2 A 2 sin A cos A
so,

2 cos A
sin r
sin A
sin A

127. Following figures show the arrangement of bar

magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has

magnetic dipole moment m . Which configuration

has highest net magnetic dipole moment?

N
a.

(4) 2(i j )

b.

Answer (1)

( x x1 )i ( y 2 y1 ) j
Sol. Vav 2
t 2 t1

30

c.

SS

(13 2)i (14 3) j

50
11i 11 j 1
(i j )
5
5

d.

60
SS

(1) d

(2) a

(3) b

(4) c

Answer (4)

M1 = m 2

125. The binding energy per nucleon of

7
3 Li

and

4
2 He

nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively. In

Sol. a.

the nuclear reaction 73 Li 11 H 42 He 24 He Q , the

value of energy Q released is

(1) 17.3 MeV

(2) 19.6 MeV

(3) 2.4 MeV

(4) 8.4 MeV

b.

M2 = 0

Answer (1)
c.

Sol. Q = 2(BE of He) (BE of Li)

30
m

= 2 (4 7.06) (7 5.60)

M 3 m (1 cos 30)2

= 56.48 39.2 = 17.3 MeV

126. The angle of a prism is A. One of its refracting
surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of
incidence 2A on the first surface returns back
through the same path after suffering reflection at the
silvered surface. The refractive index , of the prism is
(1) tan A

(2) 2sin A

(3) 2 cos A

(4)

3
m 1
2
2

m 2 3

m
d.

1
cos A
2

(19)

60
m
M4 = 2 mcos30 m 3

130. In the Young's double-slit experiement, the intensity

of light at a point on the screen where the path
difference is is K, ( being the wavelength of light
used). The intensity at a point where the path

difference is , will be
4

128. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with

a velocity of 5 ms1 and angle with the horizontal.
Another projectile fired from another planet with a
velocity of 3 ms 1 at the same angle follows a
trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the
projectile fired from the earth. The value of the
acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms2)
is (given g = 9.8 ms2)
(1) 110.8

(2) 3.5

(3) 5.9

(4) 16.3

(1) Zero
(3)

(2) K

K
4

(4)

Answer (4)

Answer (2)
Sol. y x tan

Sol. Path difference means maxima Imax = K

gx
2 u2 cos 2

I K cos 2

For equal trajectories for same angle of projection

K cos 2

g
constant
u2

K
2

2 1
K cos 2

2
4 2

K
2

131. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal

surface is represented by the equation,

9.8 g

52 32

X = Acos(t)
where

9.8 9
g
3.528 m/s2 3.5 m/s2
25

X = displacement at time t
= frequency of oscillation

Which one of the following graphs shows correctly

the variation a with t?

129. The force F acting on a particle of mass m is indicated

by the force-time graph shown below. The change in
momentum of the particle over the time interval from
zero to 8 s is

a
(1)

F (N)

6
3
0
3

(2)

t (s)

(1) 6 Ns

(2) 24 Ns

(3) 20 Ns

(4) 12 Ns

a
(3)

Answer (4)
Sol. Change in momentum = Area below the F versus t
graph in that interval

a
(4)

2 6 (2 3) (4 3)
2

Here a = acceleration at time t

= 6 6 + 12 = 12 Ns

T = time period
(20)

Answer (1)

Answer (4)

Sol.

Sol. X = Acost

3 P0

B
E

2 P0
t

P0

A
V0

2V0 V

W = Area of BCE + Area of ADE

v

= W0 + W0 = 0

dx
A sin t
dt

d 2x
dt 2

134. A beam of light of = 600 nm from a distant source

falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting
diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away.
The distance between first dark fringes on either side
of the central bright fringe is

A 2 cos t

(1) 2.4 mm

132. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q.

The electric potential and the electric field at the
centre of the sphere respectively are
(1) Both are zero

Q
(2) Zero and 4 R2
0

Q
(3) 4 R and zero
0

Q
Q
(4) 4 R and 4 R2
0
0

(2) 1.2 cm
(3) 1.2 mm
(4) 2.4 cm
Answer (1)
Sol. Distance between 1st order dark fringes = width of
principal max

Answer (3)
Sol. Electric potential, V

Q
40 R

2 D 2 600 10 9 2

d
10 3

= 2400 106

Electric field E = 0.

= 2.4 103m = 2.4 mm

133. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process

ABCDA as shown in figure. The work done by the
system in the cycle is

P
3 P0

135. Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD

are placed at right angle to each other, with one
above other such that O is their common point for
the two. The wires carry I 1 and I 2 currents,
respectively. Point P is lying at distance d from O
along a direction perpendicular to the plane
containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point
P will be

2 P0
P0

A
V0

(1)

D
2V0 V

0 I1
(2) 2 d I
2

(1) Zero
(2) P0 V0
(3) 2P0 V0
(4)

0 2 2
I1 I 2
2 d

P0V0
2

(21)

(3)

0
( I1 I 2 )
2 d

(4)

0 2
(i1 I 22 )
2 d

1/2

Answer (1)

Answer (4)

Sol.

Sol. Fact.
139. Which of the following statements is correct for the
spontaneous adsorption of a gas?

I1
B2

I2

(1) S is positive and, therefore, H should also be

highly positive

B1

(2) S is negative and, therefore, H should be

highly positive

B B B
2
1

2
2

(3) S is negative and therefore, H should be highly

negative

1
0 2
I 1 I 22 2

2 d

(4) S is positive and, therefore, H should be

negative

136. Equal masses of H2, O2 and methane have been taken

in a container of volume V at temperature 27C in
identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of
gases H2 : O2 : methane would be
(1) 8 : 1 : 2

(2) 8 : 16 : 1

(3) 16 : 8 : 1

(4) 16 : 1 : 2

Answer (3)
Sol. For adsorption S = ve, H = ve.
140. When 0.1 mol MnO 2
4 is oxidised the quantity of

Answer (4)

electricity required to completely oxidise MnO 2

4 to

Sol. Ratio or moles (volume)

MnO4 is

W W W
:
:
2 32 16

16 : 1 : 2

(1) 96.50 C

(2) 96500 C

(3) 2 96500 C

(4) 9650 C

Answer (4)

137. Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic

addition reaction?

1F

Sol. MnO 24 MnO 42

1 mole

CHO

For 0.1 mole 0.1 F is required.

(1)

141. Which one of the following is an example of a

thermosetting polymer?

CHO

(2)

NO2

OH

CHO

(3)

COCH3

OH
CH2

(1)

CH2
n

(4)
(2)

CH3
Answer (1)

(3)

Sol. Electron withdrawing group i.e., NO 2 favours

nucleophilic attack.
138. Which of the following molecules has the maximum
dipole moment?

(4)

(CH2 C = CH CH2
)n
Cl

(CH2 CH)
n
Cl

(N (CH2)6 N C (CH2)4 C)
n

(1) NF3

(2) CO2

Answer (1)

(3) CH4

(4) NH3

Sol. Novolac is thermosetting polymer.

(22)

142. Which one of the following species has plane

triangular shape?

Sol. Fact.

(2) N 3

(1) CO2
(3)

Answer (3)

NO3

(4)

146. Which of the following salts will give highest pH in

water?

NO2

Answer (3)

Sol.

(2) KCl

(3) NaCl

(4) Na2CO3

Answer (4)

Sol. Salt of strong base and weak acid.

147. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light

of wavelength 45 nm : (Planck's constant h = 6.63
1034 Js; speed of light c = 3 108 ms1)

N is sp2 hybrid and no lone pair.

143. Which of the following will be most stable diazonium
salt

(1) CuSO4

RN 2 X

(1) 4.42 1018

(2) 6.67 1015

(3) 6.67 1011

(4) 4.42 1015

(1) C 6 H 5 CH 2 N 2 X

(2) CH 3 N 2 X

Answer (1)

(3) C 6 H 5 N 2 X

(4) CH 3 CH 2 N 2 X

Sol. E

hc 6.63 1034 3 108

45 109

Answer (3)

= 4.42 1010 J

Sol. Resonance stabilization

148. D(+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields

an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be

144. In the following reaction, the product (A)

+

N NCl

CH = NOH

NH2

H C OH

H+

(A)

HO C H

Yellow dye

(1)

is
(1)

(2)

N=N

H C OH

(3)

N=N
NH2

(4)

(2) HO C H

CH2OH

CH2OH

CH = NOH

CH = NOH

HO C H
(3)

HO C H
H C OH

HO C H

NH2

H C OH

H C OH

NH2

N = N NH

CH = NOH

H C OH

HO C H
H C OH
(4) HO C H

H C OH

H C OH

CH2OH

CH2OH

Answer (1)

N=N

Sol. Glucoxime is formed.

149. The reaction of aqueous KMnO4 with H2O2 in acidic
conditions gives :

Answer (1)
Sol. Major product is formed by para attack.

(1) Mn4+ and MnO2

145. Which of the following complexes is used to be as

an anticancer agent?

(2) Mn4+ and O2

(1) Na2CoCl4

(2) mer-[Co(NH3)3Cl3]

(3) Mn2+ and O2

(3) cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2]

(4) cis-K2[PtCl2Br2]

(4) Mn2+ and O3

(23)

Answer (3)

154. For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and Kp are the

equilibrium constants at temperatures T1 and T2,
respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction is
constant in temperature range between T1 and T2, it
is readily observed that

Sol. 2KMnO4 + 5H2O2 + 3H2SO4 K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 +

8H2O + 5O2
150. The weight of silver (at. wt. = 108) displaced by a
quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O2
at STP will be
(1) 108.0 g

(2) 5.4 g

(3) 10.8 g

(4) 54.0 g

Answer (1)
Sol. WO2

1
K p

(2) K p K p

(3) K p K p

(4) K p K p

(1) K p

Answer (2)
Sol. Assuming T2 > T1.

5600
32 = 8 g = 1 equivalents
22400

155. Among the following sets of reactants which one

produces anisole?

= 1 equivalent of Ag

(1) C6H5 CH3; CH3COCl; AlCl3

= 108 g

(2) CH3CHO; RMgX

151. Which one of the following is not a common

component of Photochemical Smog?

(3) C6H5OH; NaOH; CH3I

(1) Chlorofluorocarbons

(4) C6H5OH; neutral FeCl3

(2) Ozone

Answer (3)

(3) Acrolein

OH

(4) Peroxyacetyl nitrate

Answer (1)

ONa
NaOH

Sol.

OCH3
CH3Br

Sol. Fact.
152. Which of the following compounds will undergo
racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses?

156. Which of the following hormones is produced under

the condition of stress which stimulates
glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings?

CH2Cl
(ii) CH3CH2CH2Cl

(i)

(iii) H 3C

CH3

CH3

CH

CH2Cl (iv)

(1) Estradiol

(2) Thyroxin

(3) Insulin

(4) Adrenaline

Answer (4)
Sol. Fact
157. (a) H2O2 + O3 H2O + 2O2

Cl

C2H5
(1) (i) and (iv)

(2) (i) and (ii)

(3) (ii) and (iv)

(4) (iii) and (iv)

(b) H2O2 + Ag2O 2Ag + H2O + O2

Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is
respectively

Answer (No answer)

(1) Oxidizing in (a) and (b)

153. Reason of lanthanoid contraction is

(2) Oxidizing in (a) and reducing in (b)

(1) Decreasing screening effect

(3) Reducing in (a) and oxidizing in (b)

(2) Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals

(4) Reducing in (a) and (b)

(3) Increasing nuclear charge

Answer (2)

(4) Decreasing nuclear charge

Sol. (a) H2O2 is reduced.

Answer (2)

(b) Ag2O is reduced.

Sol. Fact.
(24)

Answer (3)

158. Which property of colloids is not dependent on the

charge on colloidal particles?
(1) Tyndall effect

(2) Coagulation

(3) Electrophoresis

(4) Electro-osmosis

Sol. = 2.83 BM, unpaired electrons = 2

28Ni

Sol. Tyndall effect is an optical phenomenon.

159. Among the following complexes the one which
shows Zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE)
is
(2) [Mn(H2O)6]3+

[Fe(H2O)6]3+

[Co(H2O)6]2+

(3)

(4)

= 3d8 =

164. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed

vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how
much?

Answer (1)

(1) [Co(H2O)6]3+

+2

(At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)

(1) O2, 0.28 g

(2) Mg, 0.16 g

(3) O2, 0.16 g

(4) Mg, 0.44 g

Answer (2)

Answer (3)

Sol. 24 g Mg requires 16 g oxygen

Sol. Fe+3 = d5 = t32geg2 , CFSE = 0.

0.56 g oxygen requires 0.84 g Mg

160. Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium

hydrogen carbonate?

Mg left = 0.16 g
165. The pair of compounds that can exist together is

(1) Benzenesulphonic acid

(2) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol

(1) FeCl3, KI

(2) FeCl3, SnCl2

(3) Benzoic acid

(3) HgCl2, SnCl2

(4) FeCl2, SnCl2

Answer (4)

(4) o-Nitrophenol
Answer (4)

Sol. Sn+2 cannot reduce Fe+2.

Sol. o-nitrophenol is weaker acid than HCO3.

166. For the reaction, X2O4(l) 2XO2(g)

161. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which

one will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression?
(1) K2SO4

(2) KCl

(3) C6H12O6

(4) Al2(SO4)3

U = 2.1 kcal, S = 20 cal K1 at 300 K

Hence, G is
(1) 9.3 kcal
(2) 2.7 kcal
(3) 2.7 kcal

Answer (4)

(4) 9.3 kcal

Sol. Van't Hoff factor of Al2(SO4)3 is maximum i.e., 5.

Answer (3)

162. If a is the length of the side of a cube, the distance

between the body centered atom and one corner atom
in the cube will be
(1)

(3)

3
a
2
4
3

(2)

(4)

2
3

Sol. H = U + ngRT = 3.300 kCal

G = H TS = 2.700 kCal

167. In acidic medium, H2O2 changes Cr2 O72 to CrO5

which has two (OO) bonds. Oxidation state of
Cr in CrO5 is

3
a
4

(1) 10
(2) +5

Answer (1)
Sol. Half of body diagonal,

(3) +3

3a
.
2

(4) +6

163. Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the

following ions?

Answer (4)

(At. nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)

(1) Mn2+

(2) Ti3+

(3) Ni2+

(4) Cr3+

Sol.

+6

Cr
O

(25)

168. For the reversible reaction,

173. What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be

identified with the following quantum numbers?

2NH 3 (g) Heat

N 2 (g) 3H 2 (g)

n = 3, l = l, ml = 0

The equilibrium shifts in forward direction

(1) By increasing pressure and decreasing
temperature

(1) 4

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 3

(2) By increasing the concentration of NH3(g)

Answer (2)

(3) By decreasing the pressure

Sol. Orbital is 3pz.

(4) By decreasing the concentrations of N2(g) and

H2(g)

174. Identity Z in the sequence of reactions,

HBr/H O

C H ONa

Answer (1)

2 5
2 2
Y
Z
CH3CH2CH = CH2

Sol. Le chatelier's principle.

(1) CH3CH2 CH(CH3) O CH2CH3

169. Artificial sweetener which is stable under cold

conditions only is

(2) CH3 (CH2)3 O CH2CH3

(1) Alitame

(2) Saccharine

(3) Sucralose

(4) Aspartame

(3) (CH3)2CH2 O CH2CH3

(4) CH3(CH2)4 O CH3
Answer (2)

Answer (4)

Sol. CH3 CH2CH = CH2

Sol. Aspartame decomposes at cooking temperature.

170. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is
correctly represented?
(1) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3

(2) H > H+ > H

(3) Na+ > F > O2

(4) F > O2 > Na+

175. Using the Gibbs energy change, G = +63.3 kJ, for

the following reaction,

Sol. All answer are incorrect.

2Ag (aq) CO 23 (aq)

Ag 2 CO 3 (s)

171. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of

Cl2(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal
to

the Ksp of Ag2CO3(s) in water at 25C is

(R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)

(1) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)

(2) 1 mol of HCl(g)
(3) 2 mol of HCl(g)

(3) 8.0 1012

(4) 2.9 103

63300 = 2.303 8.314 298 log Ksp

2HCl

Initial 22.4 L

11.2 L

Final

22.4 L = 1 mole

11.2 L

(2) 3.2 1026

Sol. G = 2.303 RT log Ksp

Answer (2)
+ Cl2

(1) 7.9 102

Answer (3)

(4) 0.5 mol of HCl(g)

H2

CH3CH2CH2CH2
(Y)
Br

CH3(CH2) 3OCH2CH3
(Z)

Answer (No answer)

Sol.

HBr/H2O2

Ksp = 8 1012
176. Which of the following organic compounds has same
hybridization as its combustion product
(CO2)?

172. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?

(1) Mg2+

(1) Ethanol

(2) Ethane

(2) H+

(3) Ethyne

(4) Ethene

(3)

Li+

Answer (3)

(4) Na+

Sol. Product

Answer (3)

OCO

Sol. Both Be2+ and Li+1 have two electrons.

sp

(26)

Reactant
H C C H
sp

sp

177. Which of the following organic compounds

polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron?

CH3

CH3
Br

(1) Benzoic acid and para HO (C6H4) OH

(2)

(2) Propylene and para HO (C6H4) OH

and

CH3

(3) Benzoic acid and ethanol

CH3

Br

(4) Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol

Answer (4)

CH3

CH3
Br

Sol. Fact.

Br

(3)

178. Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions

increases in the order

and

CH3

CH3

(1) H2Se < H2Te < H2S

(2) H2S < H2Se < H2Te

CH3

CH3

(3) H2Se < H2S < H2Te

Br
(4)

(4) H2Te < H2S < H2Se

and

CH3

Answer (2)

Br

Sol. Bond length increases from H2S to H2Te.

Answer (4)

179. What products are formed when the following

compound is treated with Br2 in the presence of
FeBr3?

Sol. CH3 group is o, p-directing.

180. In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen
present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from
0.75 g of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H2SO4.
The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is

CH3

CH3
CH3

CH3

(1)

CH3

Br

(1) 43.33

(2) 37.33

(3) 45.33

(4) 35.33

Answer (2)

and

Br

CH3

Sol. %N =

CH3

(27)

1.4 N V 1.4 10 2
=
= 37.33%
0.75
w