Bernoulli Numbers

Miliyon T.(Larrys Note)

November 2, 2015

Contents
1 Definitions

2 How to Compute Bn s

3 Some Facts

4 Generating function

5 Why the odds vanish?

6 Simple but Elegant Application

6.1 Faulhabers Formula . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

4
4

Abstract
Bernoulli Numbers1 are a key figure in number theory. They are extremely useful in understanding
Riemann Zeta function. Despite there are many characterization of Bernoulli numbers we will see only
recursive equation in which we will use pascals Triangle.

Definitions

Definition 1.1. Setting B0 = 1 Bernoulli numbers2 are defined


m 
X
m+1
j=0

Bj = 0

(1)

One can also define the Bernoulli numbers using Pascals triangle
Definition 1.2.
B0 = 1
B2 + 2B1 + 1 = B2
B3 + 3B2 + 3B1 + 1 = B3
B4 + 4B3 + 6B2 + 4B1 + 1 = B4
B5 + 5B4 + 10B3 + 10B2 + 5B1 + 1 = B5
B6 + 6B5 + 15B4 + 20B3 + 15B2 + 6B1 + 1 = B6
B7 + 7B6 + 21B5 + 35B4 + 35B3 + 21B2 + 7B1 + 1 = B7
..
.
1 Discovered

by Jacob Bernoulli(1654 1705) and discussed by him in a posthumous work Ars Conjectandi(1713).
convention if B1 = 1
, the given Bernoulli sequence is called first Bernoulli numbers and second Bernoulli
2
numbers if B1 = 12 .
2 By

How to Compute Bn s

Using definition (1.2) it is easy to compute that

B0 = 1,

B1 =

1
,
2

B2 =

1
,
6

B3 = 0,

B4 =

1
,
30

B5 = 0,

B6 =

1
,
42

(2)

Some Facts

Lemma 3.1 (Binomial Convolution). Let f (z) =

Then there exists dn such that
X dn
zn,
h(z) =
n!
n0

an n
n0 n! z , g(z)

bn n
n0 n! z

and h(z) = f (z) g(z).

n  
X
n
with dn =
ak bnk
k

(3)

k=0

Proof. Multiplying f (z) and g(z) gives us




b0 0 b1 1 b2 2
a0 0 a1 1 a2 2
z + z + z +
z + z + z +
0!
1!
2!
0!
1!
2!
After expanding and regrouping we would get




a0 b0 0
a0 b1
a1 b0 1
a0 b2
a2 b0 2
z +
+
z +
+ +
z +
0!0!
0!1!
1!0!
0!2!
2!0!
If we let cn to be the coefficient of z n . For example c0 =
cn =

a0 b0
0!0! .

(4)

Then we have the following formula

n
X
ak bnk
k!(n k)!

(5)

k=0

Using (4) and (5) we write h(z) as the following sum

h(z) =

cn z n

(6)

n0

Now lets define a value dn such that

dn = n!cn = n!

n
X
ak bnk
k!(n k)!

k=0

n
X
n!ak bnk
=
k!(n k)!
k=0
n  
X
n
=
ak bnk
k
k=0

This gives us that

dn
= cn
n!

(7)

Substituting (7) on (6) completes the proof.

X dn
h(z) =
zn,
n!
n0

n  
X
n
with dn =
ak bnk
k
k=0

Generating function

Theorem 4.1 (Generating function3 for Bernoulli Numbers).

z
is a generating function for Bernoulli numbers.
ez 1
Proof. Let
G(z) =

X Bn
zn,
n!

where Bn stands for nth Bernoulli number.

(8)

n0

Multiply both sides by ez

X z n X Bn

zn
n!
n!
n0
n0
 n
n  
X X
n
z
=
Bk
n!
k

ez G(z) =

n0

(9)

by lemma (3.1).

(10)

k=0

Now, by our definition of the Bernoulli number in (1.1)


m 
X
m+1
Bj = 0
j
j=0

with B0 = 1.

If we set n = m + 1 and add Bn to both sides, then we have

n1
X
j=0


n  
X
n
n
Bj + Bn =
Bj = 0 + Bn = Bn
j
j
j=0

(11)

or Bn + 1 in the case where n = m + 1 = 1.

This enables us to simplify the result in (10) to get
ez G(z) = z +

Bn

n0

zn
= z + G(z)
n!

(12)

N.B. The z at the bottom comes from the fact that at n = 1, our result is
(B1 + 1)

z1
B1 1
=
z +z
1!
1!

If we subtract G(z) from both sides, we get

ez G(z) G(z) = z
G(z)(ez 1) = z
Dividing both sides by ez 1 gives us
G(z) =

3 They

z
ez 1

were invented in 1718 by French mathematician Abraham De Moivre (16671754)[5].

(13)

Why the odds vanish?

Corollary 5.1. B2i+1 = 0 if i 1.

Proof. From theorem (4.1) we have
X
z
zn
=
B
n
ez 1
n!
n0

Then using the fact that B1 = 1/2, we have the following

X

Bn

n1
n6=1

zn
z
z
= z

n!
e 1 2

(14)

Now, look closely at the following algebraic simplification

ez

z
z
2z + z(ez 1)
=
1 2
2(ez 1)
  z
z (e + 1)
=
2 (ez 1)
 z/2 
  z
e
z (e + 1)

=
2 (ez 1)
ez/2
  z/2

z
e + ez/2
=
2
ez/2 ez/2

If we replace z by z in our final result, the identity remain unchanged( ezz1

z
2

is even function).

 
 z/2
   z/2

ez/2 + e(z/2)
z
e
+ ez/2
z
e + ez/2
=
=
2
2
ez/2 e(z/2)
ez/2 ez/2
ez/2 ez/2
P
n
But this means that the same must hold true for n1 Bn zn! . Since in (14), we showed that they are equal


z
2



n6=1

functions. So that we have

X

Bn

n1
n6=1

X
X
(z)n
zn
zn
=
Bn
=
(1)n Bn
n!
n!
n!
n1
n6=1

n1
n6=1

Matching up each of the terms according to powers of z n , this gives us

Bn = (1)n Bn

(15)

Thus, Bn = 0, whenever n is odd. Since we have excluded the case n = 1, we conclude that
B2i+1 = 0 if i 1.

6
6.1

Simple but Elegant Application

Faulhabers Formula
m1
X
k=0

kn =


n 
1 X n+1
Bk mn+1k
n+1
k
k=0

(16)

Acknowledgments
It is a pleasure to thank my mentor.

References
[1] Ronald L. Graham, Donald E. Knuth, Oren Patashnik, Concrete Mathematics, Addison-Wesley, 1989.
[2] Martin Aigner and G
unter M. Ziegler, Proofs from THE BOOK, Springer, 4th ed, 2009.
[3] G. H. Hardy and M. Wright An Introduction to the Theory of Numbers, 6th ed, 2008.
[4] John H. Conway and Richard K. Guy The Book of Numbers (1996).
[5] [Thomas Koshy] Catalan numbers with Application pp. 382.