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Practice Test I
Basic Sciences
Time: 2 hrs
PGM
PHARMACOLOGY
Read the instructions at the begining carefully. Subjects inlude Pharmacology &
Clinical Pharmacology. Answer sheets are provided separately.
Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response. There
may be more than one correct answer(s).
C levodopa
B carbidopa
D tubocurarine
C Imipenem
B Aztreonam
D Carbimazole
C IR spectroscopy
B X-ray diffraction
D UV spectroscopy
C porphyria
B asthma
D uraemia
C dopamine
B noradrenaline
D adrenaline
Medicine
-1-
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C hexokinase
B thermolysin
D carboxypeptidase A
7. Why thiol and sulphide groups are generally not introduced into lead molecules in
SAR studies?
A makes the compound more toxic
B increase the rate of excretion of
the molecule
C metoclopramide
B propanolol
D timolol
C Chlorpromazine
B Chlorthalidone
D Phenytoin
10. Which of the following test is used for diagnosis of renovascular disease?
A Urinary aldosterone
C Urinary metanephrine
D Plasma norepinephrine
C Rifampicin
B ketoconazole
D Allopurinol
B adrenergic receptor
C Lithium carbonate
B Clozapine
D Moclobemide
Medicine
-2-
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
14. Antibiotic that attains the highest concentration in the CSF in uninflamed
meninges?
A Cefuroxime
C Ceftazidime
B Cefotaxime
D Nafcillin
C acetylcholine
B histamine
D isoprenaline
16. Which of the following ACE inhibitors is exclusively excreted by the kidney?
A Ramipril
C Enalapril
B Quinapril
D Fosinopril
B sedative in adults
18. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is usually indicative of
A acute glomerulonephritis
B hepatorenal failure
D diabetes
C 6-mercaptopurine
B cyclophosphamide
D methotrexate
C Spectinomycin
B Paromomycin
D Sisomycin
C inactivates bradykinin
D increases bradykinin
Medicine
-3-
PGM
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
C - 0.50 to + 0.05
B - 0.15 to + 0.15
D + 57 to + 70
C Prostacyclin I2
B somatostatin
D serotonin
C Furosemide
B Triamterene
D Bumetanide
C oxotremorine
B hexamethonium
D carbachol
C Tolbutamide
B Chlorpropamide
D Lidocaine
C dimethylcysteine
B succimer
D dexrazoxane
C Meloxicam
B Piroxicam
D Etoricoxib
Medicine
-4-
PGM
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
30. Reye's syndrome has been associated with the use of __________ in children
A Ibuprofen
C Acetaminophen
B Aspirin
D Diclofenac
C tropicamide
B atropine
D carbachol
C chlorpromazine
B Methyldopa
D Naltrexone
C Ionic diffusion
B Passive diffusion
D Active transport
C Eplerenone
B Clopidogrel
D Amiloride
C Danurobicin
B Cytarabine
D Melphalan
C - interface
B - interface
C Imipenem
B Nalidixic acid
Medicine
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MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C UV-220 nm
B UV-214 nm
D UV- 275 nm
C Spironolactone
B Indapamide
D Acetazolamide
40. Which of the following indicator is used in aqueous titration of nicotinic acid?
A phenolphthalein
C phenol red
B bromothymol blue
D bromophenol blue
41. Passive tubular reabsorption in renal tubules is seen with which of the following
substances?
A uric acid
C probenecid
B vitamins
D glucose
C imipramine
B quinidine
D verapamil
43. In a patient with Status epilepticus not responsive to phenytoin, which of the
following can be given?
A phenobarbital
C Lidocaine
B Diazepam
D Ethosuximide
C Phenobarbitone
B Phenytoin
D Carbamazepine
Medicine
-6-
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C Cinnarizine
B Loratidine
D Cimetidine
47. A drug used for symptomatic relief of nasal congestion from common cold
A sumatriptan
C ritodrine
B hydroxyamphetamine
D propylhexedrine
C isoniazid
B minocycline
D emetine
C Nephrotic syndrome
B Crystalluria
D Interstitial nephritis
C salicylic acid
B acetic acid
D formic acid
Section B
51. Which of the following is not an opioid agonist?
A meperidine
C naloxone
B fentanyl
D propoxyphene
52. Which of the following drugs retains its activity and shows clinical response even
in severe renal failure?
A Metolazone
C Furosemide
B Xipamide
53. Intravenous anesthetic agent that have no effect on renal blood flow:
A Isoflurane
C Halothane
B Desflurane
D Sevoflurane
Medicine
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MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
54. Which of the following ACE inhibitors is water soluble, not metabolized, and
excreted unchanged by the kidneys?
A perindopril
C fosinopril
B enalapril
D lisinopril
C Dopamine receptors
B Serotonin receptors
D GABA receptors
C brimonidine
B phenoxybenzamine
D dipivefrine
C dry cough
B angioedema
D weight gain
C D-penicillamine
B Captopril
D Ethanolamine
C benzodiazepines
B cyproheptadine
D diphenhydramine
61. Fick's first law of diffusion is applicable to which type of drug diffusion?
A nonionic diffusion
C active transport
B electro-chemical diffusion
D facilitated diffusion
Medicine
-8-
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
62. The most common type of hypersensitivity reaction cephalosporins may produce
A Anaphylaxis
C Maculopapular rash
B Bronchospasm
D Urticuria
C 4-8 mg
B 5-20 mg
D 2.5-10 mg
C naproxen
B Etoricoxib
D Aspirin
C vancomycin
B penicillins
D NSAIDS
C Ramipril
B Captopril
D Enalapril
C 180-200 mg/day
B 50-100 mg/day
D 400-600 mg/day
69. All of the following drugs should be avoided during breast feeding except:
A Aspirin
C Warfarin
B Ciprofloxacin
D Amiodarone
70. Drugs can bind reversibly with all of the following except:
A red blood cells
C immunoglobulins
B lipoproteins
D 1-acid glycoprotein
Medicine
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MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C lidocaine
B aspirin
D amiodarone
C Captopril
B Spirapril
D Benazepril
C pilocarpine
B physostigmine
D atropine
74. Match the following ACE inhibitors with their correct elimination t
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Enalapril
Lisinopril
Ramipril
Captopril
Perindopril
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
12 hr
2 hr
8-48 hr
25-30 hr
11 hr
C K+ sparing diuretics
B thiazides diuretics
D loop diuretics
C it is a glycoprotein
C Clozapine
B Buspirone
D Ondansetron
Medicine
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MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C pre-erythrocytic stages
B exo-erythrocytic stages
C neostigmine
B hyoscyamine
D ecothiophate
C P. aeruginosa
B E. histolytica
D Giardia Lamblia
82. Which of the following inhibit the metabolism of alcohol by inhibiting alcohol
dehydrogenase?
A satranidazole
C disulfiram
B metronidazole
D chloral hydrate
83. Regarding absorption of a drug from the GI tract, spot the incorrect statement(s)
A uncharged drugs are better
absorbed from the stomach
C pernicious anemia
B rickets
D hyperparathyroidism
C Itraconazole
B Fluconazole
D Mebendazole
86. Regarding Quinacrine Hcl (mepacrine), which of the following statements is false?
A causes discoloration of skin and
urine
B tumorgenic and mutagenic
Medicine
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MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C vasodilatation
B salivation
D bronchial constriction
C Roflumilast
B Infliximab
D Etarnercept
C prednisone
B chlorpromazine
D propranolol
C atropine
B carbachol
D vesamicol
91. Which of the following drugs is a water soluble compound excreted unchanged by
the kidney?
A lisinopril
C chlorthalidone
B indapamide
D ramipril
C Diclofenac sodium
B Piroxicam
D Ibuprofen
C Carbimazole
B Itraconazole
D Ketoconazole
C Fosinopril
B Lisinopril
D Ramipril
Medicine
- 12 -
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C parathyroid hormone
D endogenous opioids
C morphine
B biotin
D nitrofurantoin
98. Which of the following statements regarding partial agonist is/are true?
A antagonize full agonists
C Mineralocorticoid
B Growth hormone
D Aldosterone
C nitrofurantoin
B nystatin
D polymyxin-B
Section C
101. Match the following drugs (agents) with their corresponding renal clearance
mechanisms:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Iodopyracet
Polar ionic drugs
Creatinine
Lipophilic drugs
Glucose
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
C Neomycin
B Polymyxin B
D Vancomycin
Medicine
- 13 -
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C Ketorolac
B Ibuprofen
D Diclofenac
C Stanozolol
B Flutamide
D Danazol
C cefadroxil
B cefaclor
D ceftazidime
C Cefaclor
B Clavulanic acid
D Aztreonam
109. Hypokalemia due to diuretic use in hypertension is due to all of the following
drugs except
A amiloride
C Furosemide
B Indapamide
D Enalapril
Medicine
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MCQ Series
Practice Test I
112. Which of the following increases heart rate and causes dryness of mouth?
A procaine
C bethanechol
B alcohol
D marijuana
B dopamine/epinephrine in the
event of atropine failure
C chlordiazepoxide
B mifepristone
D Bromocriptine
C Carbamazepine
B Imipramine
D Risperidone
C 1.1 L/min
B 4.2 L/min
D 5.3 L/min
C clearance
B Bioequivalence
D Volume of distribution
C phenylephrine
B clonidine
D Isoprenaline
Medicine
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PGM
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C Nifedipine
B Codeine
D Nitrazepam
C Streptomycin
B Azithromycin
D Clindamycin
C Bumetanide
B Amiloride
D Triamterene
C Biotin
B Ascorbic acid
D Pantothenic acid
C hydrolysis
B Methylation
D oxidation
C decamethonium
B neostigmine
D trimethaphan
125. Why it is irrational to administer a large single oral dose of Vitamin B complex?
A bioavailability decreases with
increasing dose
C risk of toxicity
D follows first order kinetics
C phenylbutazone
B morphine
D dicoumarol
127. A medication that reverses the action of competitive blockers after surgery
A Atropine
C Succinylcholine
B Neostigmine
D d-Tubocurarine
Medicine
- 16 -
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C lorazepam
B midazolam
D thiopental
C Moclobemide
B Tolcapone
D Selegiline
C Indapamide
B Spironolactone
D Eplerenone
C Timolol
B Pindolol
D Sotalol
132. Match the following regarding malarial infection: i.e., Chloroquine and Primaquine
are effective _____cides respectively.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hypnozoites
Merozoites
trophozoites
Chloroquine
Primaquine
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
pre-erythrocytic stage
schizonticide
gametocide
exoerythrocytic stage
erythrocytic stage
133. The hormone that stimulates the secretion of growth hormone (GH) by
somatotropes is a
A peptide
C catecholamine
B glycoprotein
D steroid
C Prostacyclin
B PGE2
D endothelin
135. Common methods for testing drug assay include all of the following except:
A Column chromatography
C UV spectroscopy
B Titration
D HPLC
Medicine
- 17 -
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C Buserelin
B Cyproterone acetate
D Drosperinone
C Sodium valproate
B Carbamazepine
D Vigabatrin
138. The most reliable and dependable technique for identification testing of pure
drugs is
A Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
spectroscopy
B Infrared spectrophotometry
139. Serotonin syndrome can occur in patients receiving MAO inhibitors if they are
given
A chlorpromazine
C dapsone
B benzocaine
D meperidine
C pralidoxime
B atropine
D neostigmine
C Gabapentin
B Topiramate
D Vigabatrin
C Torsemide
B Bumetanide
D Amiloride
143. Drugs useful for treating opioid withdrawal syndrome include all of the following
except:
A Lofexidine
C Buprenorphine
B Methadone
D Clozapine
Medicine
- 18 -
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C DHEA
B Diazoxide
D Mestranol
C Cefoperazone
B Cefotaxime
D Ceftazidime
C dicyclomine
B atropine
D pilocarpine
147. Which of the following benzodiazepines has the highest protein binding?
A flurazepam
C lorazepam
B alprazolam
D diazepam
148. All of the following drugs are significantly concentrated in milk except:
A Clindamycin
C Ciprofloxacin
B Diltiazem
D Acyclovir
C spironolactone
B triamterene
D acetazolamide
150. All of the following ACE inhibitors have a 2 S-aminophenylbutanoic acid ethyl
ester group except
A Ramipril
C Enalapril
B Captopril
D Fosinopril
Section D
Medicine
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MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
151. Rearrange the different stages of the malarial parasite P. vivax's life-cycle into
correct order:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Oocyst
Merozoites
Zygote
Sporozoites
Gametes
C Warfarin Sod.
B Ethylbiscoumacetate
D Nicoumarol
153. The most potent inhalation anesthetic suitable for open drop method
A Diethyl ether
C Methoxyflurane
B Halothane
D Isoflurane
154. Which of the following types of compounds are eliminated renally and not through
bile?
A compounds that are unionized
155. Antimalarial drug effective in erythrocytic phase having the fastest onset of action:
A Artemesinin
C Primaquine
B Chloroquine
D Mefloquine
C noncompetitive antagonists
B nonequilibrium antagonists
D partial antagonists
C Dopamine
B Adrenaline
D Serotonin
Medicine
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MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C Bioavailability is 65%
C tolu balsam
B rose oil
D esters of acetic
160. Which of the following methods is useful for measurement of receptor density?
A Affinity chromatography
B Radioligand-binding assay
D Quantitative autoradiography
C Penicillamine
B Ca Na2 EDTA
D Dimercaprol
C K+ depletion
B hypertension
D hypotension
C proximal tubules
D distal tubules
C Atropine
B Ephedrine
D Chloroquine
Medicine
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MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C Primaquine
B Pyrimethamine
D Artemesinin
C secobarbital
B thiopental sodium
D pentobarbital sodium
C Naproxen
B Aspirin
D Ibuprofen
C Chloroquine
B Sulfadoxine
D Primaquine
C Imipramine
B Valproic acid
D Verapamil
C neostigmine
B atropine
D edrophonium
C 56%
B 50-60%
D 97%
Medicine
- 22 -
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
C Ethacrydine
B Carbetocin
D Atosiban
175. Which of the following antibiotics do not require dose adjustments in renal failure?
A Paromomycin
C Neomycin
B Cloxacillin
D Vancomycin
177. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is present in all of the following organs/tissues
except
A exocrine pancreas
C liver
C collecting duct
180. Which of the following drug should not be used in carbamate anti-ChEs
poisoning?
A atropine
C pralidoxime
B neostigmine
Medicine
- 23 -
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
B is a bacteriocidal
C Quetiapine
B Olanzapine
D Clozapine
C Enalapril
B Lisinopril
D Fosinopril
Proteases
Neuropeptide
Amino acids
Lipid messengers
Peptide hormones
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
thromboxane
bradykinins
tachykinins
GABA
thrombin
C Propranolol
B Nitrazepam
D Aspirin
C Diloxanide furoate
B Chloroquine
D Cotrimazole
C Alkaline diuresis
B Charcoal hemoperfusion
Medicine
- 24 -
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
189. Which one of the following is a non volatile, non-barbiturate, intravenous general
anesthetic?
A halothane
C methohexital
B thiopental
D propofol
C Fentanyl
B Tramadol
D Methadone
C vesamicol
B Neostigmine
D Atropine
C Meperidine
B Indomethacin
D Diazepam
C sodium thiopental
B phenytoin
D lidocaine
C it is a prodrug
C Distal tubule
B Thick AscLH
D both b & c
196. Most commonly used muscle relaxant for passing tracheal tube
A Vecuronium
C Pancuronium
B Atracurium
D Succinylcholine
Medicine
- 25 -
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
C pergolide
B serotonin
D phencyclidine
C atropine
B neostigmine
D pralidoxime
C Chlorpromazine
B Chlorimipramine
D Promethazine
C gentamicin
B fosinopril
D procyclidine
Medicine
- 26 -
PGM
MCQ Series
Practice Test I
PGM
Disclaimer: Every attempt has been made to validate each and every
question/answers. Any remaining error is regretted. Author will not be held responsible
for any errors. Please consult standard textbooks given in the reference section for any
discrepancy. Questions with wrong answers may better be left unattempted/
unanswered. This is a practice series available free to download designed for the
benefit of prospective PG candidates and UG medical students alike.
Reference Textbooks:
1. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th Edition, KD Tripathi
2. Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 13th Edition, Katzung & Trevor
3. A Textbook of Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics, 5th Edition, Ritter, Lewis,
Mant & Ferro
4. Pharmacology & Therapeutics: Principles to Practice, Waldman and Terzic,
Saunders Elsevier
5. Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological basis of Therapeutics, Laurence Brunton,
12th Edition
6. Gareth Thomas, Medicinal Chemistry, An Introduction: Second Edition, Wiley
7. Textbook of Receptor Pharmacology, Foreman & Johansen, Second Edition CRC
Press
8. Wilson & Gisvold's Textbook of Organic Medicinal & Pharmaceutical Chemistry,
Beale & Block, 12th Edition
Medicine
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