IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Day 2

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]
Q.1) Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the
fundamental rights shall be void. Which among the following laws can be challenged in
courts as violating FR?
1. Ordinances issued by the president or the state governors.
2. Delegated legislations.
3. Constitutional amendments.
Choose the correct codes
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
All the above
Q.1) Solution (d)

The term law in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the
following:
(a) Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;
(b) Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors;
(c) Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like
order, bye-law, rule, regulation or notification; and
(d) Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.
Further, Article 13 declares that a constitutional amendment is not a law and hence cannot
be challenged. However, the Supreme Court held in the Kesavananda Bharati case2 (1973)
that a Constitutional amendment can be challenged on the ground that it violates a
fundamental right that forms a part of the basic structure of the Constitution and hence,
can be declared as void.
Q.2) The term State has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental
rights. According to Article 12, the State includes which among the following entities
1.
2.
3.
4.
Executive organs of the Union and state governments.

Legislative organs of the Union and state governments.
Judiciary at Union and state levels.
Local Self-governments created under 73rd and 74th amendments.
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5. Statutory authorities.
6. Non-statutory authorities.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
All the above
Q. 2) Solution (b)
According to Article 12, the State includes the following:
(a) Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the
Union government.
(b) Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state
government.
(c) All local authorities that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement
trusts, etc.
(d) All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL,
etc.
Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the
actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental
Rights. According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an
instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the State under Article 12.
Q.3) Which among the following FR does a foreign citizen can avail
1. Freedom to manage religious affairs.
2. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
3. Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational
institutions.
4. Right to elementary education.
5. Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
6. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
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a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
All the above
Q.3) Solution (c)

FR available to both citizens and foreigners (except enemy aliens):
1. Equality before law and equal protection of Laws (Article 14).
2. Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20).
3. Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21).
4. Right to elementary education (Article 21A).
5. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22).
6. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23).
7. Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc., (Article 24).
8. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article
25).
9. Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26).
10. Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion (Article 27).
11. Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational
institutions (Article 28).
Q.4) The concept "Equality before law" connotes which among the following
1. The absence of any special privileges in favour of any person.
2. The equality of treatment under equal circumstances.
3. The equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land.
a) 1 and 2 only
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b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All the above
Q.4) Solution (b)

The concept "Equality before law" connotes:
(a) The absence of any special privileges in favour of any person,
(b) The equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land administered by
ordinary law courts, and
(c) No person (whether rich or poor, high or low, official or non-official) is above the law.
On the other hand, "Equal protection of laws" connotes:
(a) The equality of treatment under equal circumstances, both in the privileges conferred
and liabilities imposed by the laws,
(b) The similar application of the same laws to all persons who are similarly situated, and
(c) The like should be treated alike without any discrimination.
Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties enshrined in the
constitution of India
1. These are applicable to all the residents of India irrespective of their caste, creed, sex
and religion.
2. The parliament cannot impose legal sanction against the violation of Fundamental
duties.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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Q.5) Solution (d)

Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or
foreigners1, the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to
foreigners. So, statement 1 is wrong as residents of India may include foreign citizens also.
Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental duties are also non-justiciable. The
Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts. Moreover, there is
not legal sanction against their violation. However, the Parliament is free to enforce them
by suitable legislation. So, statement 2 is also wrong.
Q.6) Which of the following statements can be considered as significance of Fundamental

Duties?
1. They help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a
law.
2. They are enforceable by law.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.6) Solution (c)

They help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. In
1992, the Supreme Court ruled that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a
court finds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a fundamental duty, it may
consider such law to be reasonable in relation to Article 14 (equality before law) or Article
19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from unconstitutionality. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
They are enforceable by law. Hence, the Parliament can provide for the imposition of
appropriate penalty or punishment for failure to fulfil any of them. So, statement 2 is also
correct.
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Q.7) Which among the following legal provisions are meant for the implementation of some
of the Fundamental Duties enshrined in the constitution of India?
1. Unlawful activities (Prevention) Act.
2. Representation of People Act (1951).
3. The Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets (Imposition of Tax) Bill, 2015.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All the above
Q.7) Solution (a)

The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999) identified the existence
of legal provisions for the implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties.
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of 1967 provides for the declaration of a communal
organisation as an unlawful association. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Representation of People Act (1951) provides for the disqualification of members of the
Parliament or a state legislature for indulging in corrupt practice that is, soliciting votes on
the ground of religion or promoting enmity between different sections of people on grounds
of caste, race, language, religion and so on. So, statement 2 is also correct.
Duty to pay taxes is not considered as Fundamental Duty. Hence, statement 3 is wrong.
Q.8) Which among the following is called as "Conscience of the constitution" by Granville
Austin?
1. Fundamental Rights.
2. Fundamental Duties.
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
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a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
All the above
Q.8) Solution (c)

The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the
Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution. Granville Austin has described the Directive
Principles and the Fundamental Rights as the Conscience of the Constitution
Q.9) DPSP are like the instrument of instructions. These instructions or recommendations to
the State in which among the following matters
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Legislative organs of the central and state governments.

Executive organs of the central and state governments.
Judiciary at Union and state levels.
All local authorities of the country.
All public authorities of the country.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All the above
Q. 9) Solution (b)
Directive Principles of State Policy are the constitutional instructions or recommendations
to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters. According to Article 36, the
term State in Part IV has the same meaning as in Part III dealing with Fundamental Rights.
Therefore, it includes the legislative and executive organs of the central and state
governments, all local authorities and all other public authorities in the country.
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Q.10) In Minerva mills case (1980), according to Supreme Court which among the following
constitutes the core of commitment to social revolution
1. Fundamental Rights.
2. Fundamental Duties.
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
All the above
Q.10) Solution (c)

In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court also held that the Indian Constitution is
founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive
Principles. They together constitute the core of commitment to social revolution.
Q.11) Consider the following statements regarding Quo-Warranto:

1. It prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
2. It cannot be issued in case of Ministerial office or private office.
3. This can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved
person.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above
Q.11) Solution (d)

Refer Laxmikanth Fundamental Rights, Quo-Waranto.
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Q.12) Article 34 of the Indian Constitution provides for the restriction on fundamental rights
while Martial Law is in force in any area within the territory of India. Which of the following
statements regarding Martial Law are correct?
1. The concept of Martial law has been borrowed from the English Common Law.
2. It refers to a situation where civil administration is run by military authorities
according to their own rules and regulations.
3. The expression Martial Law has not been defined anywhere in the constitution.
Select the correct code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.12) Solution (d)

All the statements are correct. During the operation of martial law, the military authorities
are vested with abnormal powers to take all necessary. They impose restrictions and
regulations on the rights of the civilians, can punish the civilians and can condemn them to
death.
Q.13) Which of the following Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens and not to
foreigners?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

Equal opportunity in matters of public employment.
Freedom of speech and expression.
Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.

a)
b)
c)
d)
4 only
2,3 and 4
1,2 and 3
All of the above
Q.13) Solution (d)

FRs available only to citizens and not to foreigners are:
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Article 15- prohibition of discrimination on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex or place of
birth.
Article 16- Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Article 19- Six freedoms.
Article 29- Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
Article 30- Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
Q.14) Consider the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code:

1. It is a Directive Principle of State Policy given under article 45 of Indian Constitution.
2. It is a Gandhian directive principle.
3. Uniform Civil Code refers to the body of laws governing rights and duties pertaining
to property and personal matters like marriage, divorce, adoption and inheritance.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

2 and 3
1 and 2
3 only
Q.14) Solution (d)

It is a DPSP given in article-44
It is a Liberal- Intellectual principle.
Q.15) Which of the following statements are a correct comparison between Fundamental
Rights(FR) and Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSPs):
1. FRs are justiciable while DPSPs are not.
2. FRs are negative as they prohibit state from doing certain things while DPSPs are
positive as they require state to do certain things.
3. In a conflict between DPSPs and FRs, FRs always prevails.
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a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.15) Solution (a)

Directive Principles given in Article 39 (b) and (c) have been given superiority over Article 14
and Article 19.
Q.16) Consider the following regarding the Fundamental Duties:

1. They were added as Part IVA of the Constitution by 44th Amendment Act.
2. Initially there were only 10 Fundamental Duties.
3. 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002, added the duty to provide education to
ones child or ward between the age of 6 and 14 years.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3
1 only
1 and 2
None of the above
Q.16) Solution (b)

Fundamental Duties were added by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
Q.17) Consider the following

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
AmritMahal
Khillari
Sahiwal
Hallikar
Gir
Which of the following are Indigenous drought breed cattles?

a) 1, 2, and 3 only
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b) 3 and 5 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) None of the above
Q.17) Solution (c)
AmritMahal, Khillari, Hallikar, Kangayam,Bargur,Umblacherry, Pullikulam, are some

of the indigenous drought breeds.
Gir, Sahiwal, Red sindhi, Deoni are some of the indigenous dairy breeds.
Tharparkar,Hariana, Kankrej,Ongole, Krishna valley are some of the dual purpose
breeds.
Jersey, Holstein Friesian,Brown swiss, Red dane, Ayrshire, Guernsey.
Murrah, Surthi, jaffarbandi,Bhadawari,Nili ravi, Mehsana, Nagpuri,Toda.

1. Udaan is a Special Industry initiative that aims to provide an exposure to the
unemployed graduates to the best of Corporate India.
2. It is implemented by Ministry of skill development and Entrepreneurship.
Select the correct answer with respect to UDAAN scheme

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Q.18) Solution (c)
Click here
It is advised to the candidates that there is a similar scheme UDAAN by MHRD,
UDAAN by MHRD is an initiative of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
to enable disadvantaged girl students and other students from SC/ST & minorities to
transit from school to post-school professional education specially in Science and
Math.
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1. Lebanon
2. Croatia
3. Cyprus
Which of the following countries are surrounded by Mediterranean Sea?

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
Q.19) Solution (b)
Croatia is surrounded by Adriatic sea
Q.20) Consider the following statements with respect to Green bonds

1. Green bond is a debt instrument issued by an entity for raising funds from investors
2. The funds generated are used to fund both green and non-green projects
3. In India IDBI,EXIM, Yes bank have started issuing green bonds
Select the correct answer using the code given below

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All the above
None of the above
Q.20) Solution (a)
Fund generated from bonds are used only to fund green projects
Click here to know more about Green Bonds
Q.21) Consider the following statements with respect to Ethanol blending.

1. Ethanol is derived only from Sugarcane.
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2. Recently Central Government has scaled up blending targets from 5% to 10% to
promote blending of ethanol with petrol and its use as alternative fuel
3. It reduces the carbon monoxide emissions by up to 30 per cent.
4. Normal cars can be used up 10% ethanol without any up gradation
Select the incorrect statement/s from the above

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
2 ,3 and 4 only
Q.21) Solution (a)
Ethanol is a renewable, domestically produced alcohol fuel made from plant

material, such as corn, sugar cane, or grasses. Using ethanol can reduce oil
dependence and greenhouse gas emissions
Motor vehicles can use ethanol up to 10 % without any up gradation. It also reduces
the carbon monoxide emissions by up to 30 percent
Click here
Q.22) An issue of updating the National Citizen Register (NCR) in Assam was in news.
Consider the following statements w.r.t NCR
1. The provisions governing NCR updation in Assam are Citizenship Act, 1951 and The
Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity cards) Rules, 2003
2. Policy decisions, guidelines, funds for NRC updation and implementation are
provided by and are done through the State Government machinery.
3. Persons whose names appear in NCR, 1955 are eligible for inclusion in NCR
Select the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
None
Q.22) Solution (d)

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The provisions governing NCR updation in Assam are Citizenship Act, 1955 and The
Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity cards) Rules, 2003
Policy decisions, guidelines and funds for NRC updation are provided by the
Central Government of India, but its implementation is done through the State Government
machinery under the Registrar General of India
Eligibility criterion for inclusion in NCR
Persons whose names appear in NRC, 1951

Persons whose names appear in any of the Electoral Rolls up to 24 March (midnight),
1971
Descendants of the above-mentioned persons
Persons who came to Assam on or after 1 January 1966 but before 25 March 1971
and registered themselves in accordance to the rules made by the Central
Government with the Foreigners Registration Regional Officer (FRRO) and those who
have not been declared as illegal migrants or foreigners by the authority
Persons who are original inhabitants of Assam and their children & descendants,
who are citizens of India (provided the citizenship of such persons is ascertained)
D voters can apply for inclusion of their names in the updated NRC. However, their
names will. Be finally included only when the appropriate Foreigner Tribunal
declares them as non-foreigners.
All Indian Citizens including their children and descendants who have moved to
Assam post 24 March 1971 would be eligible for inclusion in the updated NRC on
adducing satisfactory proof of residence in any part of the country (outside Assam)
as on 24 March 1971.
Persons who can provide any one of the documents issued up to midnight of 24
March 1971 as mentioned in the list of documents admissible for citizenship.
Read these articles

http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-others/national-register-of-citizens-67-lakhforms-filed-assam-gears-up-to-verify-citizenship-claims/
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-starkness-of-beingnowhere/article7633845.ece
Q.23) The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has given its approval to the
National Offshore Wind Energy Policy (OWEP). Consider the following w.r.t Indias Wind
Energy Potential and policies
1. Indias onshore wind energy potential is more than offshore
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2. National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE) has been authorized as the Nodal Agency
for development of offshore wind energy in the country
3. Offshore Wind Energy Policy allows wind energy development, research and
development activities upto seaward distance of territorial waters i.e 12 nautical
miles
Select the correct statement/s
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3
Q.23) Solution (b)
The Union cabinet approved the National Offshore Wind Energy Policy, aiming to harness
wind power along Indias 7,600 km coastline. With this approval, the Ministry of New &
Renewable Energy (MNRE) has been authorized as the Nodal Ministry for use of offshore
areas within the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of the country and the National Institute of
Wind Energy (NIWE) has been authorized as the Nodal Agency for development of offshore
wind energy in the country and to carry out allocation of offshore wind energy blocks,
coordination and allied functions with related ministries and agencies.
The decision paves the way for offshore wind energy development, including projects and
research and development activities up to a seaward distance of 200 nautical miles, which
constitutes the exclusive economic zone (EEZ) of the country.
Of Indias 36,642 MW of installed renewable power capacity, around 23,864 MW is onshore
wind energy alone.
http://www.livemint.com/Politics/hjYjnG8v4SWLIPKr5yo2FJ/Cabinet-approves-nationalwind-energy-policy.html
Q.24) Consider the following statements

1. It is also referred as dancing deer
2. Its habitat is located along the largest fresh water lake in eastern India.
3. The dancing deer is found in its natural habitat over the floating biomass locally
called "phumdi"
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Identify the species based on given statements
a)
b)
c)
d)
Reindeer
Goral
Himalayan Tahr
Sangai
Q.24) Solution (d)

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/flora-fauna/Wildlife-Institute-ofIndia-to-relocate-endangered-dancing-deer-of-Manipur/articleshow/52282276.cms
Q.25) Consider the following w.r.t Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV)

1. The inactivated polio vaccine produces antigens in the blood to all three types of
poliovirus.
2. IPV is not a 'live' vaccine
3. It is also called the Salk vaccine
Select the incorrect statement/s
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3
Only 1
Only 3
None
Q.25) Solution (b)

Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) was developed in 1955 by Dr Jonas Salk. Also called the Salk
vaccine, IPV consists of inactivated (killed) poliovirus strains of all three poliovirus types.
IPV is given by intramuscular injection and needs to be administered by a trained health
worker
The inactivated polio vaccine produces antibodies in the blood to all three types of
poliovirus. In the event of infection, these antibodies prevent the spread of the virus to the
central nervous system and protect against paralysis.
Advantages
As IPV is not a 'live' vaccine, it carries no risk of vaccine-associated polio paralysis.
IPV triggers an excellent protective immune response in most people.
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Disadvantages
IPV induces very low levels of immunity in the intestine. As a result, when a person
immunized with IPV is infected with wild poliovirus, the virus can still multiply inside the
intestines and be shed in the faeces, risking continued circulation.
IPV is over five times more expensive than oral polio vaccine.
Administering the vaccine requires trained health workers and sterile injection equipment
and procedures.
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IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Q.1) Solution (d)

Executive organs of the Union and state governments.

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Q.3) Solution (c)

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Q.4) Solution (b)

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Q.5) Solution (d)

Q.6) Which of the following statements can be considered as significance of Fundamental

Q.6) Solution (c)

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Q.7) Solution (a)

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Q.8) Solution (c)

Legislative organs of the central and state governments.

Choose the correct codes

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Q.10) Solution (c)

Q.11) Consider the following statements regarding Quo-Warranto:

Q.11) Solution (d)

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Q.12) Solution (d)

Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

Select the correct code from the following:

Q.13) Solution (d)

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Q.14) Consider the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code:

All of the above

Q.14) Solution (d)

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Q.15) Solution (a)

Q.16) Consider the following regarding the Fundamental Duties:

Q.16) Solution (b)

Q.17) Consider the following

Which of the following are Indigenous drought breed cattles?

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Q.17) Solution (c)

AmritMahal, Khillari, Hallikar, Kangayam,Bargur,Umblacherry, Pullikulam, are some

Q.18) Consider the following

Select the correct answer with respect to UDAAN scheme

Q.18) Solution (c)

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Which of the following countries are surrounded by Mediterranean Sea?

Q.19) Solution (b)

Croatia is surrounded by Adriatic sea

Q.20) Consider the following statements with respect to Green bonds

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Q.20) Solution (a)

Q.21) Consider the following statements with respect to Ethanol blending.

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Select the incorrect statement/s from the above

Q.21) Solution (a)

Ethanol is a renewable, domestically produced alcohol fuel made from plant

Q.22) Solution (d)

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Persons whose names appear in NRC, 1951

Read these articles

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Q.23) Solution (b)

Q.24) Consider the following statements

IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 2]

Q.24) Solution (d)