1.

Which branch of Physics deals with the science

concerned with the motion of bodies under the
action of forces, including the special case in which
a body remains at rest?

8. The sky is blue at daytime because air particles

in the atmosphere act as tiny
a. mirrors which reflect light of short wavelengths.
b. prisms which separate light into different colors.

a. acoustics
b. astrophysics
c. mechanics
d. waves
2. Which of the following does not express a
derived quantity?
a. 20 N
b. 220 V

c. gratings which diffract light causing dispersion.

d. polarizers which filter all colors of light except
blue and violet.

c. 2000 MA

d. 5 seconds

3. 0.25 kg is equivalent to
a. 250 mg
b. 250 cg
c. 250 g
d. 250 Mg
4. One kilometer is equal to 1,000,000 mm. Which
of the following expresses the value of 1 kilometer
to millimeter in scientific notation?
a. 1x107 mm
b. 1x106 mm
c. 1x108 mm
d. 1x10 mm
5. The use of wireless technological gadgets such
as laptops, cellular phones and iPod are
applications of which principles of Physics?
a. acoustic
b. gravitation
c. electricity and magnetism
d. inertia
6. Which part of the camera corresponds to the
retina?
a. lens of the camera
b. film
c. shutter
d. aperture
7. A person in a dark room looking through a
window can clearly see a person outside in the
daylight. But the person outside cannot see what
is inside. Why?
a. There is not enough light reflected off a person
in the room.
b. Light rays cannot pass through the window.
c. Outside light does not pass through the
windows.
d. Sunlight is not intense enough to be a source of
light.

9. If you want to see the different colors of light

like red, orange, yellow, green, blue indigo and
violet, which should you use?
a. lense b. mirror c. polarized light d. prisms
10. Sunsets often have reddish-orange color
associated with them. This is attributed to the
phenomenon of
a. diffraction
b. dispersion
c. polarization
d. refraction
11. If a man wishes to use a plane mirror on a wall
to view both his head and his feet as he stands in
front of the mirror, the required length of the
mirror
a. is equal to the height of the man.
b. is equal to one-half of the height of the man.
c. depends on the distance the an stands from the
mirror.
d. depends on both the height of the man and the
distance from the man and mirror.
12. As the angle is increased for a ray incident on a
reflecting surface, the angle between the incident
and reflected rays ultimately approaches what
value?
a. zero
b. 45
c. 90
d. 180
13. Which of the following best describes the
image formed by a plane mirrors?
a. virtual, inverted and enlarged
b. virtual, upright and same size as the object
c. real, upright and same size as the object
d. real, inverted and reduced
14. What kind of mirror will form an image which
is always virtual, upright and smaller than the
object?
a. concave
b. convex
c. plane
d. plane concave

15. A concave mirror with a focal length of 10 cm

creates an image 30 cm away from the principal
axis, the corresponding object is located how far
from the mirror?

24. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of T

years. The time after which its activity is reduced
to 6.25 % of the original activity is
a. 2T years
b. 4 T years

a. 5
b. 7.5
c. 15
d. 20
16. In which of the following material will light
pass with the greatest speed?

c. 6 T years
d.8 T years
25. The half-life of a radioactive sample is 3.02
days. After how many days 10% of the sample will
remain unchanged?
a. 10
b. 12
c. 15
d.20

a. Air 1.0003
c. H2o 1.333

b. Ethyl alcohol 1.36

d. ice 1.31

17. How is an incident light refracted as it passes

from a less dense to a denser medium?
a. at the normal
b. away from the normal
c. parallel the normal

d. towards the normal

18. How can nearsightedness corrected?

a. by using a converging or convex lens
b. by using polaroid eyeglasses to eliminate glare
c. use bifocal glasses
d. use diverging or concave glasses
19. A far-sighted person can only see objects
which are far, where is the image formed?
a. behind the retina
b. in front of the lens
c. in front of the retina d. on the retina
20. What makes a fish appear larger when places
in a spherical fish bowl?
a. Inside the focal point, the image is real, enlarged
and magnified
b. Inside the focal point, the image is real, inverted
and magnified
c. Inside the focal point, the image is upright,
virtual and magnified
d. Inside the focal point, the image is upright,
virtual and unmagnified
21. Uranium isotopes have different
a. atomic mass
b. atomic number
c. number of electrons d. number of protons
22. A certain nucleus splits into two medium sized
nuclei as induced by bombarding a heavy nucleus
with neutrons. What is this?
a. fission
b. fusion
c. ionizing radiation
d. radioactive dating
23. Carbon-14 dating could be used to determine
the age of the following except
a. ancient scrolls
b. fossils
c. petrified wood
d. paintings

26. Which of the following is the famous equation

of Albert Einstein which shows mass equivalence
of energy expressed in terms of speed of radiant
energy?
a. c2-m2

b. E = mc2

c. E=mv2

d. M-E c2

27. Atoms of uranium-235 and uranium 238 differ

by three
a. eb. n
c. p+
d. photons
28. Which is not an advantage of nuclear power?
a. A large amount of energy is generated from a
very small amount of fuel.
b. Nuclear power does not contribute to global
warming.
c. Nuclear power does not provide CO2 or SO2.
d. The fuel is not readily available.
29. Which of the series of reactions is ranked in
order of increasing energy?
a. chemical reaction nuclear fission phase
changes nuclear fusion
b. phase changes chemical reaction nuclear
fission nuclear fusion
c. chemical reaction phase changes nuclear
fission nuclear fusion
d. nuclear fission nuclear fusion chemical
reaction phase changes
30. Nuclear power plants are one of the greatest
alternative energy resources. Many countries,
despite the disadvantages, have enjoyed the fruits
of the technology. Who did not contribute to the
discovery of the artificial nuclear reactors?
a. Albert Einstein
b. Ernest Rutherford
c. James Chadwick
d. Otto Hahn

31. Three resistors 2 , 3 and 4 are connected

so that the equivalent resistance is 0.96 . The
resistors are connected in
a. 2 and 3 in series and in parallel with 4

34. Using the graph prepared by a Physics student

on voltage and current relationship, which shows
the greatest resistance?

b. 2 and 3 in parallel and in series with 4

c. all series
d. all parallel

a. R 1 only

32. Given the figure, what is the total resistance in

the combination?

d. Both R1 and R2

b. R 2 only
c. R 3 only

35. If a resistor of a desired value is not available, a

technician simply selects two or more resistors
whose combined values add up to the value
needed, and connects them in series. Which of the
following is true?

a. 9 b. 11 c. 13 d. 18
33. Given the circuit consists of battery and 3
identical lamps, which of the following is true
about the circuit?

a. A 75 resistors in series will have the same

resistance as one 150 resistor.
b. Two 75 resistors in series will have the same
resistance as one 150 resistor.
c. Two 75 resistors in series will have the same
resistance as one 100 resistor.
d. Two 75 resistors in series will have the same
resistance as two 150 resistor.
36. Two resistors are connected in parallel. The
total resistance if the combination
a. equal to the sum of the resistances
b. equal to the average of the resistances
c. greater than the resistance of either resistord.
less than the resistance of each resistor

a. I through point x is greater than that through

point z
b. I through point z is greater than that through
point y
c. I through point x is greater than that through
point y
d. I will be the same through points x, y and z

37. Octopus connections are fire hazards. Why?

a. Current becomes very high
b. Resistance becomes very high
c. Voltage becomes very high
d. All of the above
38. When a fuse is rated 8A, it means
a. it has a resistance of 8
b. it will melt if the current exceeds 8A
c. it will work if current is less than 8A
d. it will work if current is 8A
39. How much electrical energy is used in two
hours by a 220 V electric stove whose power rating
is 3 kilowatts?
a. 3 kilowatts
b. 6 kilowatts
c. 440 kilowatts
d. 660 kilowatts

40. Why are electrical wirings usually covered with

a layer of plastic?
a. to help electricity flow along the wire
b. to make it look good

46. A beam of light is directed forward in a upward

magnetic field. In what direction will the beam be
deflected?
a. backward
b. downward

c. to make it safe
d. to prevent electricity flow in the current
41. The electrical lines in residential houses maybe
either 110 V or 22 V. This voltage may either cause
shock or kill us. Which of the enumerated safety
measures is NOT advisable?

c. to the left
d. to the right
47. A transformer with lens loops in the secondary
than in the primary.

a. Connect an appliance with a voltage rating of

110 V to 220 V lines

d. step up transformer
48. Who devised the very first electric generator?

b. Do not switch on electrical appliances with wet

hands
c. Never insert your finger to the holes of an
electrical outlet.
d. Wear rubber shoes or slippers when repairing
electrical appliances.
42. Calculate the generation cost of electrical
power if 46 kwh was consumed by a household in
one month. Assume the electrical energy costs
305.24/kwh.

a. alternating transformer
b. AC/DC transformer
c. step down transformer

a. Andre Marie Ampire

b. Allesandro Volta
c. Hans Christian Oerstead
d. Michael Faraday
49. Electromagnets WXYZ are made by winding a
wire coil around an iron core. Which is the
strongest?
Electromagnet

# of turns

Current in the
wire (A)

10

20

a. a current carrying wire

20

b. a moving electric charge

c. a stationary charge

10

a. 130 b. 140
c. 150
d. 160
43. Which of the following does not produce a
magnetic field?

d. an oscillating electric charge

44. Whose experiment proved that a magnetic
field is present around a current carrying
conductor?
a. Hertzs
b. Maxwells
c. Michelson-Marleys d. Oerstead
45. A magnet is dropped from the ground through
a copper wire loop as shown in the diagram. What
is the direction of the electric current induced in
the wire loop as a result
of the changing magnetic
field of the approaching
magnet?
a. clockwise
b. counterclockwise
c. downward
d. upward

a. W

b. X

c. Y

d. Z

50. A transformer steps-down a voltage of 3,300 V

to 220V. If there are 40 turns in the secondary,
how many turns are there in the primary?
a. 880
b. 18, 150
c. 132, 000
d. 726,000
51. A stone is dropped from the roof of a building
takes 4 seconds to reach the ground. What is the
height of the building?
a. 19. 6 meters
b. 31.2 meters
c. 78.4 meters
d. 156.8 meters
52. If an object has an acceleration of 0 m/s2, then
one can be sure that the object is NOT
a. changing velocity
b. changing position
c. in a constant motion d. moving

53. The graph shows that the object has

60
40
20
0
2

10

a.
constantly increasing acceleration with time
b. constantly increasing distance traveled with
time
c. constantly increasing speed with time
d. constant magnitude of displacement
54. From the given graph, what is the acceleration
of the body?
a. 0 m/s2 b. 2.5 m/s2 c. 5 m/s2
d. 10 m/s2
55. Which of the following statements about
acceleration is not true?
a. Acceleration is a vector quantity.
b. Accelerating objects must be changing their
speed.
c. . Accelerating objects must be changing their
velocity.
d. An object which is moving at a constant speed is
accelerating.
56. Gohan accelerates a 0.4 kg ball from rest to 9
m/s during the 0.15 seconds in which the foot is in
contact with the ball. What average force does he
apply to the ball during the kick?
a. 24 N
b. 48 N
c. 60 N
d. 72 N
57. Which of the following statements is NOT true
about acceleration?
a. Acceleration is a change in velocity.
b. Acceleration can either be a positive or negative
value.
c. A graph of x vs. t where x represents distance
and t is time will be linear for a constantly
accelerating object.
d. An applied force is required for acceleration to
occur.
58. When a carabao pulls a cart, the force that
causes the carabao to move forward is
a. the force the carabao exerts on the cart
b. the force the carabao exerts on the ground

c. the force the cart exerts on the carabao

d. the force the ground exerts on the carabao
59. A 5000-kg truck travelling at 20 m/s is stopped
by the brakes in 5 seconds. Calculate the
deceleration of the truck?
a. 4 m/s2 b. 10 m/s2 c. 20 m/s2 d. 100 m/s2
60. An object at rest explodes into 2 parts. One
piece has a mass 4 times that of the other. If the
smaller piece moves with a speed of 120 m/s to
the left, the speed if the large piece is
a. 30 m/s b. 60 m/s c. 120 m/s d. 480 m/s
61. At what point is the kinetic energy of the
pendulum
at its
highest?
a. A

b. B
c. C
d. D

62. When you lift a 5-kg bag of rice from the floor
to your kitchen table whose height is 0.8 meters,
how much work do you do on the bag of rice?
a. 0
b. 8 joules
c. 40 joules
d. 50 joules
63. How much force is needed to accelerate a
1,300 kg car at a rate of 1.5m/s2?
a. 867 N
b. 1950 N
c. 8,493 N
d. 16,562 N
64. If you double the force acting on an object of a
given mass, the acceleration will be
a. doubled
b. increased by fourfold
c. increased by
d. increased by
65. If the velocity of the moving object is doubled,
what happens to its kinetic energy?
a. doubled
b. halved
c. quadrupled
d. unchanged
66. How much power does a 70 kg person develop
by running a 5m stairway in 10 seconds? (g = 10
m/s2)
a. 35
b. 350
c. 3500
d. 35 000

67. Which of the following statements about the

above situation is correct?
a. The input work is greater than the output work.
b. The input work is less than the output work.
c. The input work is equal to the output work.
d. The lever is used mainly to change the direction
of focus.
68. A man lifts a 20-kg load off the ground. A truck
moves a 20-kg load to a 100 m distance
warehouse. Who did more work with respect to
the ground?
a. the man
b. the truck
c. both did the same amount of work
d. neither the man nor the truck
69. A stone is thrown upward and falls back to the
ground when it reaches its maximum height, the
velocity of the ball is
a. at its maximum
b. at its minimum

74. How much pressure is exerted by the water at

the bottom of the swimming pool which is 10 m
wide, 20m long and 5m deep?
a. 5x104 N/m2
b. 5x103 N/m2
c. 50 N/m2
d. 5 N/m2
75. Study the diagram below. Which of the
following statements is true?
a. The block is denser
than liquid A but less
dense than liquid B.
b. The block is less dense
than liquid A but denser
than liquid B.
c. The block is heavier
than liquid A but lighter
than liquid B.
d. The block is less dense
than both liquid A and B.
For number 76 and 77, refer to the diagram below.

c. equal to average velocity

d. equal to displacement
70. Which law states that the velocity of liquid is
inversely proportional to the pressure exerted by a
fluid?
a. Archimedes Principle
b. Bernoullis Principle
c. Law of Inertia
d. Pascals Principle
71. What factors directly affect pressure?
a. force and volume
b. weight and area
c. weight and force
d. weight and volume
72. According to Archimedes principle, a floating
or submerged object displaces an amount of liquid
equal to its weight. How many kg of water will a
ship weighing 5,000 kg displaces?
a. equal to 5000 kg
b. less than 500 0 kg
c. more than 5000kg
d. data not enough
73. The water level in the graduated cylinder rises
from 10 cm to 35 cm when a solid lead ball is
added. What is the approximate volume of the
lead ball?
a. 3.5 cm3 b. 25 cm3 c. 35 cm3 d. 45cm3

76. The wavelength is equal to

a. 2 cm b. 4 cm
c. 6 cm
d. 8 cm
77. If the frequency of the wave is 2 cycles/second,
the speed of the wave in cm/s is
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 16
78. A boy shouts towards a cliff 80 m away from
him. The speed of sound is 320 m/s. How long will
it take before the boy hears the echo?
a. 0.25 second
b. 0.5 second
c. 1 second
d. 2 seconds
79. Which of the following attributes is not
common to both water waves and sound waves?
a. a medium is needed
b. direction of motion of particles of the medium
c. energy is transmitted
d. produced by a vibrating body

80. Which of the following ways may you follow to

make the pitch of a violin sound higher?
a. change it with a thinner string
b. decrease the length by pressing one part

86. Which of color bands represents a resistor with

resistance of 14 000 ?
a. black, orange, red
b. brown, yellow, orange
c. red, yellow, green
d. white, blue, violet

c. tighten the string

d. all of the above
81. Which of the following characteristics did you
particularly change in question number 80?
a. amplitude
b. frequency

87. Which of the following resists sudden change

in voltage?
a. capacitor
b. diode

c. speed

d. all of the above

82.The wave property shown in the diagram

below is?
a. diffraction
b. interference

c. resistor
d. transistor
88. Which semi-conductor carries electric current
by the motion of the holes?
a. diode
c. P-type

b. N-type
d. transistor

89. Which of the following diagrams show the

expression: ( AB ) + C = Q

c. reflection
d. reflection

83. A television remote control is used to direct

pulses of electromagnet radiation to a receiver on
a tv. This communication from the remote control
of the tv illustrates that electromagnetic radiation
a. diffracts and accelerates air
b. longitudinal wave
c. possesses energy inversely proportional to its
frequency
d. transfers energy without transferring mass
84. Which of the following radio carrier signal
modulation types will modulate the height of the
carrier signal?
a. AM
b. FM
c. PM
d. RF
85. LASERS are instruments that produce streams
of very intense infrared radiation or visible light.
They are used mostly in surgery to either cut or
heat weld. LASER is an acronym for
a. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of
Radiation
b. Light Amplification by Spontaneous Emission of
Radiation
c. Light Amplitude Stimulation Emitter Radiation
d. Light Amplitude by Stimulation of Emitter

90. Which of the following expressions refer to the

diagram below.

a. ( AB) (CD) E

b. ( AB ) (CD) E

c. ( A B) (CD) E

d. ( AB )(CD) E