Deck General August 2015

United State Coast Guard
National Maritime Center

1.
Deck General
September 2015
(2.1.1-46) You are Master of a 20-ton ketch. You wish to heave-to on the starboard tack in 35 knots
of wind. Which action would be appropriate?
o
o
o
(A) Secure your storm jib aback to starboard and sheet your reefed mizzen in flat. Secure your
rudder hard to starboard.
(B) Secure your reefed mizzen aback to starboard and your storm jib aback to port. Secure your
rudder hard to port.
(C) Sheet your mizzen in flat and secure your rudder amidships.
(D) Set your storm jib aback to port and secure your rudder hard to starboard.
If choice A is selected set score to 1.
2.
(2.1.2-13) You are sailing before the wind in heavy weather. The failure of what will affect the
vessel's safety most?
o
o
o
(A) The jib sheet

(B) The helm
(C) The outhaul
(D) The main halyard
If choice B is selected set score to 1.
3.
(2.11.1.2B-6) Before a Master relieves a Pilot of the conn, the __________.

o
o
o
(A) Master should agree to sign a release of liability form

(B) Master should foresee any danger to the vessel on the present course
(C) vessel must be in extremis
(D) Master must first request the Pilot to take corrective action
4.
(2.1.1-13) To prevent a wooden hull from leaking you caulk it __________.

o
o
o
(A) after dry docking, while the hull is moist

(B) afloat, where it is leaking
(C) afloat, in all accessible areas
(D) after dry docking, and the hull has dried
If choice D is selected set score to 1.
5.
(2.3.1-1) Your vessel is on a voyage from Ogdensburg, NY, to Chicago, IL, via the Great Lakes. The
date is October 3 of the current year. If your vessel is subject to the load line requirements, using
illustration D031DG below, to which of her marks should she be loaded?
o
o
(A) Salt water - Intermediate

(B) Salt water - Winter
(C) Fresh water - Intermediate
(D) Fresh water - Winter
If choice C is selected set score to 1.

6.
Deck General
September 2015
(2.3.2.1-6) Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 14'-00", AFT 16'-00". Using the Guidance Manual for
Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 350 long tons are discharged from No. 13
hatch.
o
o
o
(A) FWD 13'-03 5/8", AFT 15'-03 1/8"

(B) FWD 13'-04 3/4", AFT 15'-03 1/4"
(C) FWD 13'-05 1/5", AFT 15'-04 3/5"
(D) FWD 13'-08 4/5", AFT 15'-08 4/5"
7.
(2.1.4-15) A stay is __________.
o
o
o
(A) standing rigging

(B) a jib
(C) a halyard
(D) a downhaul
8.
(2.11.1.2-3) Bilge soundings indicate __________.

o
o
o
(A) the amount of condensation in the hold

(B) whether the vessel is taking on water
(C) whether the cargo is leaking or not
(D) All of the above
9.
(2.1.3-10) When sailing with the wind aft, a vessel may carry sails on both sides at the same time.
Which is the proper term for this configuration?
o
o
o
(A) Luffed sails

(B) Cringled sails
(C) Reefed
(D) Wing and wing
10. (2.3.2.2-3) Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of
ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel
loaded with grain which has a test weight of 33 lbs.
o
o
o
(A) 1010 tons each

(B) 1025 tons each
(C) 1050 tons each
(D) 1070 tons each

Deck General
September 2015
11. (2.3.2.2-1) Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of
loaded with grain which has a test weight of 35 lbs.
o
o
(A) 785 tons each

(B) 820 tons each
(C) 880 tons each
(D) 900 tons each
12. (2.1.4-24) If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area __________.
o
o
o
(A) becomes less

(B) does not change
(C) moves aft
(D) becomes larger
13. (2.11.1.2A-5) While standing look-out at night, a dim light on the horizon will be seen quickest by
looking __________.
o
o
o
(A) quickly above then quickly below the horizon

(B) a little above the horizon
(C) a little below the horizon
(D) directly towards the light
14. (2.3.3-18) Your vessel is approaching the International Bridge on the St. Marys River. If the gage on
the bridge, read from top to bottom, indicates 124 ft. and the IGLD (1955) is 600 ft., determine the
actual vertical clearances between the existing water level and the lowest point of the bridge over
the channel.
o
o
o
(A) 124 feet

(B) 476 feet
(C) 724 feet
(D) 840 feet
15. (2.1.2-12) If you were to jibe in a strong wind, the part of the rigging most likely to fail would be the
__________.
o
o
(A) forestay
(B) halyard
(C) backstay
(D) jumper stay

Deck General
September 2015
16. (2.11.1.1-2) While your vessel is docked port side to a wharf, a sudden gale force wind causes the
vessel's stern lines to part. The stern begins to fall away from the dock, and no tugs are immediately
available. Which measure(s) should you take FIRST?
o
o
o
(A) Shut down any cargo transfer that's in progress.

(B) Obtain assistance from the terminal to put new stern lines out.
(C) Notify the engine room of the need for propulsion.
(D) Let go the port anchor and veer to a short scope of chain.
17. (2.3.3-21) Which publication offers information on Great Lakes ice services?
o
o
o
(A) Marine Weather Log

(B) U.S. Coast Pilot #6
(C) Light List volume VII
(D) National Weather Service, Ice Outlooks
18. (2.1.1-39) You can slow or stop a sailing vessel by __________.
o
o
o
(A) bring the vessel's head into the wind and let the sails luff
(B) raise the centerboard when running before the wind
(C) put the wind off the beam and sheet in
(D) put the wind off the stern and ease all sheets
19. (2.11.1.2-12) The "Mode" selector switch can be positioned and select all of the following EXCEPT
__________.
o
o
o
(A) automatic gyro

(B) hand-electric steering
(C) non-followup control
(D) weather adjustments
20. (2.1.1-27) You are under sail on a close reach, and the wind is steady. While steady on course, you
reef the mainsail and your speed slows. Which is TRUE about the apparent wind?
o
o
o
(A) It will remain unchanged

(B) It will decrease and draw aft
(C) It will increase and draw forward
(D) It will increase and draw aft

Deck General
September 2015
21. (2.3.2.1-4) Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-08", AFT 20'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for
Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 840 long tons are loaded in No. 1 hatch.
o
o
o
(A) FWD 18'-08", AFT 21'-06"

(B) FWD 18'-09", AFT 21'-07"
(C) FWD 18'-11", AFT 21'-09"
(D) FWD 22'-00", AFT 19'-02"
22. (2.1.4-10) A sloop is a sailing vessel with __________.
o
o
o
(A) one mast

(B) two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post
(C) two masts: a foremast and a mainmast
(D) two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
23. (2.1.2-2) When crossing a bar in rough weather, you should enter on a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) flood current

(B) ebbing current
(C) tidal bore
24. (2.1.3-9) Which is the ideal situation to set your sails in a wing and wing configuration?
o
o
o
(A) When sailing with the wind aft

(B) When on a close reach
(C) When anchored or drifting
(D) When tacking
25. (2.1.4-27) Which statement is TRUE concerning the gooseneck?
o
o
o
(A) It connects the boom to the mast and allows the boom to swing freely.
(B) It is a sailing maneuver which brings the vessel's head through the wind.
(C) It is a sailing condition where there is a loss of air flow over the sails.
(D) None of the above

Deck General
September 2015
26. (2.1.1-23) Your vessel is drifting with the wind broad on the port beam. The Marconi sail is set and
flapping free. When is the maximum drive attained as you sheet in the sail?
o
o
o
(A) When it first takes the shape of an airfoil

(B) When it is 45 from the apparent wind
(C) When it is at right angles to the true wind
(D) When it is filled with a slight flap at the leech
27. (2.3.2.3-2) Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long
tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a
desired mean keel draft of 29'-06"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)
o
o
o
(A) 1550 tons

(B) 2920 tons
(C) 3010 tons
(D) 3515 tons
28. (2.1.4-29) The nautical term "lee shore" refers to the __________.
o
o
o
(A) shore in a harbor of refuge

(B) shore on the lee side of the vessel
(C) western shore of the Lesser Antilles
(D) shore that is in the lee
29. (2.3.3-16) Assume that your vessel has just entered Lake Erie by way of the Welland Canal and is
proceeding in a southwesterly direction. Which statement about the aids to navigation you can
expect to encounter along the route is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) Lighted aids, fog signals, and radio beacons maintained by Canada are not included in the
Great Lakes Light List.
(B) All aids are maintained by the U.S. Coast Guard, 9th Coast Guard District, Cleveland, Ohio.
(C) All red even-numbered buoys should be kept on your port side when proceeding in this
direction.
(D) The characteristics of buoys and other aids are as if "returning from seaward" when
proceeding in this direction.

Deck General
September 2015
30. (2.1.2-7) On a sailing vessel, it is best to approach a person in the water by placing them on your
__________.
o
o
(A) bow
(B) leeward side
(C) windward side
(D) transom
31. (2.1.1-1) What are reef points used for?

o
o
o
(A) Reduce the draft if the boat runs aground

(B) Reduce the area of a sail
(C) Keep the sail taut in light airs
(D) Increase the strength of the mast
32. (2.3.3-7) Distances on the Great Lakes System are generally expressed in __________.
o
o
o
(A) miles above the entrance to the St. Lawrence Seaway (MASLW)
(B) statute miles
(C) nautical miles
(D) miles above the head of the passes (AHP)
33. (2.3.1-4) What does the line labeled "MS" indicate on the Great Lakes load line model shown in
illustration D031DG below?
o
o
o
(A) Midseason
(B) Midsummer
(C) Mean sea level
(D) Maximum submergence
desired mean keel draft of 29'-11"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN)
o
o
o
(A) 2230 tons

(B) 2270 tons
(C) 2310 tons
(D) 2350 tons

Deck General
September 2015
35. (2.1.1-40) As a vessel falls off the wind from close-hauled to a beam reach, the tendency for the
vessel to move sideways through the water will __________.
o
o
(A) increase
(B) change only if the vessel comes about on the opposite tack
(C) decrease
(D) not change
36. (2.3.3-22) Who publishes the "Canadian List of Lights, Buoys and Fog Signals"?
o
o
o
(A) The Canadian Coast Guard

(B) The Canadian Hydrographic Service
(C) The U.S. Hydrographic Service
(D) The U.S. Coast Guard
37. (2.3.3-3) A channel is stated as having a controlling depth of 38 feet. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) At least 50% of the channel is cleared to the charted depth.

(B) At least 80% of the channel is cleared to the charted depth.
(C) The sides of the channel conform to at least 50% of the controlling depth.
(D) 100% of the channel width is clear to 38 feet.
38. (2.1.1-45) When experiencing heavy winds, you should reef sails to __________.
o
o
o
(A) reduce sail area exposed to the wind

(B) remove all tension on the main and jib sheets
(C) allow the sails to catch more wind
(D) bring the sails parallel to the wind
39. (2.1.3-3) Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?

o
o
o
(A) Canvas sailcloth is susceptible to rot due to moisture and should never be covered when wet.
(B) Polyester sailcloth, such as Dacron, is resistant to rot due to moisture but susceptible to UV
degradation and should be kept covered as much as possible.
(C) Kevlar sail cloth is susceptible to weakening due to repeated folding and therefore should be
draped loosely over the boom when stowed.
(D) All of the above are true.

Deck General
September 2015
40. (2.3.3-25) A list man would expect to see any of the following light signals EXCEPT __________.
o
o
o
(A) two red lights

(B) one amber light
(C) one white light
(D) one green light
tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 8 & 12 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a
desired mean keel draft of 28'-03"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN).
o
o
(A) 460 tons per hatch

(B) 520 tons per hatch
(C) 690 tons per hatch
(D) 730 tons per hatch
42. (2.1.1-37) You are at the helm of a sloop-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a
beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "head up
quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) slack the main sheet

(B) slack the jib sheet
(C) trim the foreguy
(D) slack the main outhaul
43. (2.1.1-17) With regard to aerodynamic lift, which statement is TRUE?

o
o
(A) Adjusting the angle of attack on a mainsail is accomplished by adjusting the outhaul or the
vang, if fitted.
(B) When a sail is trimmed too tight, turbulence will break out on the windward side of the sail and
cause a telltale there to flutter.
(C) If the thrust on a sail becomes excessive when close-hauled, it is likely to capsize the vessel
rather than drive it.
(D) A properly trimmed sail should have laminar flow on the windward side and turbulent flow on
the leeward side.

Deck General
September 2015
44. (2.1.1-14) On small sailing vessels, which is the PRIMARY reason for using nylon in a combination
chain-nylon anchor rode?
o
o
(A) It reduces the cost of the gear

(B) It reduces the overall weight
(C) It provides elasticity to the rode
(D) It increases the strength
45. (2.1.3-1) As shown in illustration D002SL below, which of the following describes the three corners
of the main sail?
o
o
o
(A) Head, tack, and clew

(B) Head, fore, and aft
(C) Headboard, foot, and tail
(D) Luff, leech, and spar
tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 5 & 7 while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a
o
o
o
(A) 1410 tons

(B) 1450 tons
(C) 1490 tons
(D) 1520 tons
loaded with grain which has a test weight of 37.6 lbs.
o
o
(A) 930 tons each

(B) 955 tons each
(C) 975 tons each
(D) 990 tons each

Deck General
September 2015
48. (2.1.1-33) Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE?

o
o
o
(A) If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you can sail closer to the wind and decrease
leeway.
(B) If you ease the sheets and change heading, you can sail faster but not so close to the wind.
(C) If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you will luff.
(D) If you ease the sheets you will be in irons.
49. (2.3.3-5) On the Great Lakes, the term "controlling depth" means the __________.
o
o
(A) distance in units of the chart (feet, meters or fathoms) from the reference datum to the bottom
(B) minimum amount of tail water available behind a dam
(C) least depth within the limits of the channel which restricts the navigation
(D) designed dredging depth of a channel constructed by the Corps. of Engineers
50. (2.3.3-19) The vertical reference for all water levels and bench marks on the Great Lakes - St.
Lawrence River System is known as __________.
o
o
(A) Great Lakes Low Water Datum

(B) Mean Sea Level Datum
(C) International Great Lakes Datum
(D) North Central Reference Datum
51. (2.1.2-14) A capsized small sail vessel is best righted when what part of the vessel is downwind?
o
o
o
(A) Stern
(B) Centerboard
(C) Bow
(D) Mast
52. (2.1.1-2) Which line would NOT be used in handling a mainsail?

o
o
(A) Downhaul
(B) Sheet
(C) Uphaul
(D) Halyard

Deck General
September 2015
53. (2.1.4-14) Which is standing rigging?

o
o
(A) Sheets
(B) Downhauls
(C) Stays
(D) Halyards
54. (2.1.2-21) You must pick up an individual who has fallen overboard from a sailboat. The final
approach should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) on a broad reach

(B) upwind
(C) downwind
(D) on a close reach
55. (2.3.4-16) Generally speaking, the more destructive storms occurring on the Great Lakes usually
come from the __________.
o
o
o
(A) northeast or east

(B) southwest or west
(C) southeast or south
(D) northwest or north
56. (2.3.3-11) Which of the Great Lakes lies entirely within the United States?
o
o
o
(A) Lake Michigan

(B) Lake St. Clair
(C) Lake Ontario
(D) Lake Superior
57. (2.1.1-6) Which point of sailing describes a vessel on that has the wind coming from 140 relative?
o
o
(A) Close hauled on the port tack

(B) Running before the wind
(C) On a broad reach
(D) Close hauled on the starboard tack

Deck General
September 2015
58. (2.1.1-3) A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 050 relative would be in which situation?
o
o
o
(A) Reaching on a starboard tack

(B) Running before the wind
(C) On a broad reach on a port tack
59. (2.1.1-4) Which would describe a sailing vessel with the wind coming from 090 relative?
o
o
o
(A) Close hauled on the port tack

(B) Reaching on the starboard tack
(C) Close hauled on the starboard tack
(D) On a broad reach on the starboard tack
60. (2.1.2-20) You are preparing for what promises to be a rough ocean passage. Your 120-foot
schooner carries a yard on the foremast, about 50 feet above the water. The yard weighs about
1000 pounds. If you take the yard down and stow it on deck for the trip, you will __________.
o
o
o
(A) decrease the metacentric height

(B) increase your vessel's GM
(C) increase the reserve buoyancy
(D) give the vessel a gentler roll
61. (2.3.4-3) Advection fog, a common occurrence on the Great Lakes, forms when __________.
o
o
o
(A) air comes in contact with a rapidly cooling land surface

(B) cool air contacts warm river currents
(C) frigid arctic air moves across the lakes and becomes saturated
(D) relatively warm air flows over cooler water
62. (2.3.4-2) Storms that enter the Great Lakes Basin from the west and northwest at a peak in October
are the products of pressure systems known as __________.
o
o
o
(A) Polar highs

(B) Fata morgana
(C) Northwesters
(D) Alberta lows

Deck General
September 2015
63. (2.1.1-5) Which phrase describes a sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180 relative?
o
o
o
(A) Running before the wind

(B) On a broad reach on a port tack
(C) Close hauled on the port tack
64. (2.1.1-15) What does a deep keel on a sailing vessel increase?

o
o
o
(A) Mast height to compensate for increased lateral resistance

(B) Height of the center of gravity above the hull resulting in a more stable vessel
(C) Length-depth ratio resulting in a faster hull design
(D) Resistance to lateral movement
65. (2.3.4-10) Fog can form in any season on the Great Lakes, but it is most likely to occur over open
waters in __________.
o
o
o
(A) summer and early autumn

(B) autumn and early winter
(C) winter and early spring
(D) spring and early summer
66. (2.3.3-14) The Lake Carriers Association and the Canadian Ship owners Association prescribe
separation routes for upbound and downbound vessels on the Great Lakes. The recommended
courses for these routes are shown on the Great Lakes Charts in the form of __________.
o
o
o
(A) green figures over a solid course line track

(B) black figures over a segmented course line track
(C) red figures over a solid course line track
(D) red or magenta figures over a segmented course line track
67. (2.3.4-1) Nearly half of all storms that enter the Great Lakes Basin during the period from October
through May come from __________.
o
o
o
(A) lows which originate in north central and western Canada

(B) highs which originate in north eastern and eastern Canada
(C) highs which originate in the east and east central USA
(D) lows which originate in the central and western USA

Deck General
September 2015
68. (2.1.2-1) Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent?

o
o
o
(A) Two responsible persons should be designated so that one can relieve the other as
necessary.
(B) There must be a designated responsible person who knows they are expecting your call at a
certain time.
(C) There must be a designated responsible person available at all times to receive your call.
(D) The designated responsible person must be instructed to call the Coast Guard search and
rescue authorities immediately if your call does not come in on schedule.
69. (2.1.4-8) A yawl is a sailing vessel with __________.

o
o
o
(A) a single mast

(B) two masts: a foremast and a mainmast
(C) two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
(D) two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post
70. (2.1.4-6) On some sail boats, the bottom of the mast rests on a part of the keel. What is the proper
nomenclature for this part?
o
o
o
(A) The foot keel

(B) The keel step
(C) The keel sole
(D) The heel step
71. (2.1.1-22) To get the best speed when tacking and using a mainsail and jib, how should the sails
should be trimmed?
o
o
o
(A) With as much of a gap as possible between the two sails in order to catch the most wind
(B) Trimmed so that an air slot is formed between the two sails
(C) With one sail set as close to a right angle as possible to the other
(D) Trimmed so the jib is on one side of the vessel and the mainsail on the other
72. (2.1.1-7) Which describes a sailing vessel with the wind coming from 290 relative?
o
o
(A) On a beam reach on a starboard tack

(B) Close hauled on a starboard tack
(C) On a close reach on a port tack
(D) On a broad reach on a port tack

Deck General
September 2015
73. (2.1.1-8) A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 260 relative is considered to be in which
situation?
o
o
o
(A) Running before the wind

(B) On a broad reach
(C) On a starboard tack
(D) On a close reach
74. (2.1.1-9) A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 220 relative would be in which situation?
o
o
o
(A) Close hauled on the starboard tack

(B) On a broad reach
(C) Running before the wind
(D) Close hauled on the port tack
75. (2.1.4-3) Which BEST describes the term "reaching"?

o
o
(A) The wind has no effect on the vessel while underway

(B) The wind comes directly over the bow of your sail boat while underway
(C) The wind comes from broad on the bow to the quarter while underway
(D) The wind comes directly over the stern of your sail boat while underway
76. (2.1.2-16) When anchoring a small sailing vessel in rough weather, the best anchor line would be
composed of __________.
o
o
o
(A) chain-wire
(B) chain-manila
(C) all chain
(D) chain-nylon
77. (2.1.2-9) You are running before a strong wind in a sloop. The most dangerous thing to do is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) reef the mainsail

(B) jibe
(C) strike the jib
(D) tack about

Deck General
September 2015
78. (2.1.1-24) You are sailing on a close reach when a strong wind suddenly heels the vessel hard over.
Which action should you take to reduce the heeling and yet maintain speed?
o
o
o
(A) Ease all sheets and bear more into the wind
(B) Ease the mainsheet and bear more away from the wind
(C) Haul in on the mainsheet and steer more towards the wind
(D) Haul in on the mainsheet and ease the jib sheet
79. (2.1.1-10) Which is TRUE for a sailing vessel with the wind coming from 020 relative?
o
o
o
(A) The vessel is coming about

(B) The vessel is running before the wind
(C) The vessel is close hauled on the port tack
(D) The vessel is on a broad reach and a starboard tack
80. (2.1.1-11) Which line would be used to hoist a sail?

o
o
o
(A) Forestay
(B) Foreguy
(C) Mainsheet
(D) Halyard
81. (2.1.3-8) Which is the major lift-producing part of a sail?

o
o
o
(A) The trailing edge

(B) The foil
(C) The head
(D) The leading edge
82. (2.1.3-7) Which statement is TRUE about sail shape?

o
o
o
(A) A high-aspect ratio marconi mainsail is more efficient for downwind sailing than a gaff-rigged
mainsail.
(B) You can reduce the belly in a boomed mainsail by easing the sheet.
(C) You can move the belly up in a mainsail by easing the luff tension.
(D) You should put more belly in a sail in light airs than in a strong breeze.

Deck General
September 2015
ballast required in tank No.1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel
loaded with grain which has a test weight of 39.5 lbs.
o
o
o
(A) 155 tons each

(B) 170 tons each
(C) 190 tons each
(D) 200 tons each
84. (2.3.3-9) Which of the Great Lakes experiences the least amount of water level fluctuation between
seasonal high and low water marks?
o
o
o
(A) Lake Huron

(B) Lake Superior
(C) Lake Michigan
(D) Lake Erie
85. (2.3.3-13) Assume that your vessel has just entered Lake Michigan via the Straits of Mackinac and
is proceeding south to Chicago. Which statement is TRUE with respect to the aids to navigation you
will encounter along this route?
o
o
o
(A) Green buoys mark the location of wrecks or obstructions which must be passed by keeping
the buoy on the right hand.
(B) Red buoys should be passed down your starboard side.
(C) Aids to navigation are serviced jointly by the U.S. and Canadian Coast Guard.
(D) All solid colored buoys are numbered, the red buoys bearing odd numbers and green buoys
bearing even numbers.
86. (2.3.3-15) Nautical charts published by the Canadian Hydrographic service which are referenced in
the United States Coast Pilot are identified by __________.
o
o
(A) a footnote number

(B) the abbreviation "can" preceding the chart number
(C) an asterisk preceding the chart number
(D) the letter "C" in parentheses following the chart number
87. (2.1.1-12) Which is TRUE when repairing a torn sail at sea?

o
o
o
(A) Use perfectly aligned stitches in old sail cloth so as to get the strain properly aligned
(B) Orient the weave of the patch material, on large patches, with the sail cloth being repaired
(C) Avoid using glued patches on old sail cloth

Deck General
September 2015
88. (2.1.1-29) When properly set and drawing, a fore-and-aft sail shall have which cross-section?
o
o
o
(A) One that approximates a straight line

(B) One that has more curve at the luff
(C) One that has more curve at the leach
(D) One that is a uniform curve
89. (2.3.1-5) Where on a vessel are the load line markings shown in illustration D031DG inscribed?
o
o
o
(A) port and starboard sides

(B) port side
(C) starboard side
(D) stern
90. (2.1.2-17) The old sailors admonition "Beware the lee shore" warns of the danger due to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) the current flowing directly on shore

(B) there being less wind in the lee of the shore
(C) the wind blowing stronger at this location
(D) the ground swell making it difficult to tack off
91. (2.3.1-7) On Great Lakes vessels, when do midsummer load lines apply?
o
o
(A) June 16 through September 16

(B) July 16 through August 30
(C) May 1 through September 15
(D) April 16 through April 30 and September 16 through September 30
92. (2.1.1-16) You are sailing at 8 knots on a beam reach in an apparent wind of 25 knots. Which
statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) If you turn to a close reach, the apparent wind will reduce in strength.
(B) The apparent wind at the top of your mast will be slightly stronger than 25 knots and slightly
farther forward than the wind at deck level.
(C) The true wind is a little abaft your beam, at just under 25 knots.
(D) None of the above are true.

Deck General
September 2015
93. (2.1.4-19) Sideways movement of the mast is resisted by the __________.

o
o
o
(A) sheets
(B) shrouds
(C) halyards
(D) forestay
94. (2.3.3-12) Which of the Great Lakes generally has the shortest navigation season?
o
o
o
(A) Lake Superior

(B) Lake Huron
(C) Lake Erie
(D) Lake Michigan
o
o
o
(A) 2500 tons

(B) 2550 tons
(C) 2600 tons
(D) 2650 tons
96. (2.1.1-18) What is the proper method to fix running rigging to a cleat?
o
o
o
(A) Half-hitches then a round turn

(B) A series of half-hitches
(C) One round turn
(D) A round turn, figure eights, and a half-hitch
97. (2.1.1-19) When shifting to a course where the wind comes more from astern, what will easing the
mainsheet accomplish?
o
o
o
(A) It allows the sail to catch more wind

(B) It decreases the force needed to haul on the mainsheet
(C) It will bring the head of the sail down from the top of the mast
(D) It will bring the boom more fore and aft

Deck General
September 2015
98. (2.1.1-20) Which statement is TRUE concerning a sailing vessel with the sails properly trimmed?
o
o
o
(A) Sheeting in the sails will allow the vessel to sail closer to the wind but will decrease speed.
(B) The more the sails are sheeted in, the greater your speed will be when sailing downwind.
(C) As the sails are sheeted in on a close hauled course, speed will increase as the side forces
on the vessel decrease.
(D) As the sails are sheeted in, the vessel will heel less when close hauled.
99. (2.1.1-21) Your sails are properly trimmed while on a reaching course. Which is/are TRUE when
changing to a close hauled course?
o
o
o
(A) The result will be a reduction of speed

(B) This action requires you to sheet in for best speed
(C) Causes a greater heeling force to leeward
100.
o
o
o
(2.1.3-4) Dacron sails, when not in use, may be damaged under which condition?
(A) If left in the sunlight
(B) When folded frequently
(C) If washed with soap
(D) When stowed wet
101.
(2.1.1-25) The sails are properly set and trimmed. Which is TRUE when the vessel heads up
from a beam reach to close hauled?
o
o
o
(A) The apparent wind moves forward

(B) The side slip decreases
(C) The speed will increase
(D) The heeling moment decrease rapidly
102.
(2.1.1-26) The sails are properly set and trimmed. Which is TRUE when a vessel heads up from
a beam reach to close-hauled?
o
o
(A) The vessel's side slip decreases

(B) The heeling moment decreases
(C) The vessel's speed decreases
(D) The apparent wind remains steady

103.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.1.4-17) Which is a part of a vessel's standing rigging?

(A) Topping lift
(B) Downhaul
(C) Sheet
(D) Backstay
104.
(2.1.1-28) In order to maintain speed while changing course from a close reach to a broad reach,
what should be done to the sails?
o
o
(A) Reefed
(B) Eased out
(C) Lowered
(D) Hauled in
105.
(2.1.1-30) You are running before the wind in a fresh breeze. The boom may be prevented from
accidentally jibing by using which item?
o
o
(A) A buntline
(B) An outhaul
(C) A preventer
(D) A clewline
106.
o
o
o
(2.1.1-32) Which action will NOT reduce heeling of a vessel when sailing on a tack?
(A) Reefing sails
(B) Changing to larger sails
(C) Heading up until your sails begin to luff
(D) Easing sheets
107.
(2.3.1-2) Which statement is TRUE with respect to the load line markings shown in illustration
D031DG below?
o
o
(A) U.S. flag vessels less than 100 feet in length and less than 200 gross tons are not required to
show these marks.
(B) Vessels engaged solely on Great Lakes voyages are not required to show these marks.
(C) A vessel displaying these marks may load in the salt waters of the St. Lawrence River.
(D) U.S. flag vessels of 100 gross tons and upward must show these marks.

108.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.1.2-10) You are sailing in a strong wind and may accidentally jibe when __________.
(A) tacking
(B) running-free
(C) in irons
(D) reaching
109.
(2.3.2.1-3) Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 17'-03", AFT 18'-09". Using the Guidance Manual
for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the new draft if 450 long tons are loaded in No. 16 hatch.
o
o
(A) FWD 16'-11", AFT 19'-04 2/3"

(B) FWD 17'-01", AFT 18'-11 1/4"
(C) FWD 17'-04", AFT 19'-03 3/4"
(D) FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-11 1/4"
110.
o
o
o
(2.1.3-12) Which term describes most recreational sailing craft that have triangular sails?
(A) Square rigged
(B) Gaff rigged
(C) Spinnaker rigged
(D) Marconi rigged
111.
o
o
o
(2.1.2-19) Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent?

(A) There must be specific instructions for the designated responsible person to follow if your call
does not come in on schedule.
(B) The designated responsible person should be over 18 years of age.
(C) The designated responsible person must be instructed to call the Coast Guard search and
rescue authorities immediately if your call does not come in on schedule.
(D) There must be a designated responsible person who will be available to receive your call at
anytime.
112.
o
o
o
(2.1.1-34) Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE?

(A) If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you must bear away from the wind.
(B) If you ease the sheets, you can sail faster on the same course.
(C) If you ease the sheets, you can sail faster and closer to the wind.
(D) If you steer closer to the wind, you will slow down.

Deck General
September 2015
113.
(2.1.1-35) Your 20-ton ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing close hauled on the port tack in a
moderate breeze with all sails properly trimmed. You wish to bear off quickly to avoid a floating
hazard. To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should which action should you take?
o
o
(A) Slack the jib sheet

(B) Slack the mizzen sheet
(C) Put your rudder hard to port
114.
(2.1.1-36) You are at the helm of a ketch-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack,
close hauled, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off
o
o
(A) slack the jib sheet

(B) slack the mizzen sheet
(C) trim the mizzen vang
(D) trim the main outhaul
115.
for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 540 long tons are loaded in No. 18
hatch.
o
o
(A) FWD 30'-04", AFT 29'-06"

(B) FWD 29'-09", AFT 30'-11"
(C) FWD 29'-05", AFT 31'-03"
(D) FWD 30'-01", AFT 31'-03"
116.
o
o
o
(2.1.2-15) How should you try to right a capsized small sailing vessel?
(A) Lock the centerboard in the down position, stand on the centerboard, and pull on a shroud or
a halyard.
(B) Position all personnel around the mast and lift the vessel upright.
(C) Put the centerboard in the up position and have all personnel haul in on the line attached to
the mast.
(D) Position all personnel at the stern and rock the vessel upright.

Deck General
September 2015
117.
(2.1.1-38) You are at the helm of a schooner-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on
a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off
o
o
o
(A) slack the fore-staysail sheet

(B) slack the jib sheet
(C) slack the foresail sheet
(D) slack the main sheet
118.
(2.1.1-41) Your vessel is sailing on a port tack when a sudden gust of wind heels the vessel
sharply to starboard. Which action will reduce the heeling of the vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Shift weight to the port side of the vessel

(B) Ease the sheets to allow air flow to spill off the sail
(C) Attempt to sail the vessel closer to the wind
(D) Any of the above
119.
(2.1.1-42) A ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing to windward with the wind about 50 on the port
bow. All the sails are set and drawing properly. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
(A) If you slack the main sheet, the lift to drag ratio of the mainsail will increase.
(B) If you strike the mainsail, the center of effort of the whole rig will move down.
(C) If you slack the mizzen sheet, the center of effort will move aft.
(D) If you sheet in the mainsail without changing course, the vessel will heel farther and speed
up.
120.
(2.1.1-43) You are attempting to recover a mooring buoy. If you approach the object on the port
tack, how would you slow the vessel as you draw near?
o
o
(A) Quickly change to a starboard tack as you reach the object.

(B) Bring the wind directly over the bow and allow the sails to luff.
(C) Bring the wind so that it comes over the stern and ease all the sheets.
(D) Shift the rudder from port to starboard several times as you reach the object.

Deck General
September 2015
121.
(2.1.4-2) Which term describes a sailing vessel that is underway with the wind coming over the
port side?
o
o
(A) The vessel is a on port jibe

(B) The vessel is on a port tack
(C) The vessel is on a starboard tack
(D) The vessel is on a starboard jibe
122.
o
o
(2.1.4-12) A boom vang __________.

(A) douses the gaff topsail
(B) draws the head of the sail to windward
(C) holds the boom down and flattens the main sail
(D) tautens the standing rigging
123.
(2.1.2-22) Your 80-ton schooner is hove to on the starboard tack under storm trysail and forestaysail in 45 knots of wind. Your heading is averaging about 000 true and the wind is from the
northeast. There is a dangerous shoal bearing 270 true, range 5 miles. Which action would be
appropriate?
o
o
(A) You need only stay alert for changes, as your present drift will carry you away from the
danger.
(B) You should set a reefed foresail and strike the jib.
(C) You should tack or jibe to the port tack and make all possible headway to the south.
(D) You should strike all sails and get underway under bare poles, making as much way as
possible to the north.
124.
(2.1.1-44) You are sailing into a harbor with the intention of picking up your mooring. There is no
current. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?
o
o
(A) On a sloop, if your initial approach is to be downwind you could slow your approach by
striking the jib and letting your main sheet out as far as it will go.
(B) On a yawl, the last sail you will strike after you have picked up the mooring will normally be
the mainsail.
(C) On a ketch, you will most likely strike the jib before making your final approach.
(D) All of the above are correct.

Deck General
September 2015
125.
(2.1.4-11) The metal horseshoe-shaped pieces used to bend a sail onto a stay are
called_________.
o
o
o
(A) hanks
(B) gudgeons
(C) warps
(D) shackles
126.
(2.1.2-3) A sail plan, including the vessel's itinerary, name, number, and persons aboard, should
be filed with __________.
o
o
(A) the FAA

(B) a responsible person
(C) the Coast Guard
(D) U.S. Customs
127.
(2.1.4-22) You are at the helm of a sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled,
and you are instructed to "head up". You should __________.
o
o
o
(A) turn the rudder to starboard

(B) turn the wheel to port if you are steering with a wheel
(C) push the tiller to starboard if you are steering with a tiller
(D) All of the above are correct
128.
o
o
o
(2.1.4-21) What is the purpose of a centerboard when sailing on a tack?

(A) To reduce heeling of the vessel
(B) To add weight stability
(C) To prevent the vessel from jibing
(D) To reduce side slip of the vessel
129.
(2.1.2-4) A storm is forecast for the area where your vessel is moored. For its safety you should
put __________.
o
o
(A) a strain on the mooring lines

(B) more slack in the mooring lines
(C) chafing gear on the mooring lines
(D) grease on the mooring lines

Deck General
September 2015
130.
(2.1.2-5) Your sailing vessel is docked during a storm and is in continuous motion. If a mooring
line parts due to vessel motion, it will most likely do so __________.
o
o
(A) where it is made fast on the vessel

(B) at the chock
(C) at the eye
(D) midway between the vessel and the dock
131.
(2.1.2-6) Your 40-foot auxiliary sailing vessel has just run aground on a bar. She has a relatively
long, deep keel and the tide is falling. You have checked the bilges for damage and found none.
Which is the most prudent action to take immediately?
o
o
(A) Sheet the sails in flat to try to heel her over with the wind and sail off.
(B) Strike the sails. Then run a kedge anchor out to one side, hook the main halyard to it, and
heave the boat down onto one side.
(C) Take soundings visually, by sounding pole, or lead line all around the vessel to locate the
deepest water.
(D) Start the engine and run it hard in forward to try to drive over and off the bar.
132.
(2.1.2-8) A marker pole, with a horseshoe buoy and a sea anchor attached, should be used to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) determine your speed through the water

(B) determine your vessel's sideslip underway
(C) mark the position of a lost mooring
(D) indicate location of a man overboard
133.
(2.1.2-11) You are running before a rough sea and a strong wind. Your sailing vessel is yawing.
If the wind should catch the mainsail on the reverse side you will __________.
o
o
(A) broach
(B) tack
(C) jibe
(D) go in irons

Deck General
September 2015
134.
(2.1.2-18) Every different type of sailing rig can be dangerous in certain circumstances. Which
situation would most likely be dangerous?
o
o
o
(A) A gaff rig is dangerous in a calm wind and sea.

(B) A tall, marconi, sloop rig is dangerous to tack.
(C) A square rig, such as a ship rig, is dangerous to jibe.
(D) A gaff rig is dangerous in a calm wind and large swell.
135.
o
o
o
(2.1.3-2) In illustration D001SL below, what is the edge of the sail labeled "A" called?
(A) Clew
(B) Luff
(C) Leech
(D) Headboard
136.
o
o
o
(2.1.3-5) Which is the main cause of damage to Canvas sails, when not in use?
(A) When stowed wet
(B) When left in the sunlight
(C) If folded frequently
(D) If washed with soap and water
137.
o
o
o
(2.1.3-6) Which is the main cause of damage to Kevlar sails when not in use?
(A) When they are left in the sunlight
(B) If they are folded frequently
(C) If they are washed with water and bleach
138.
o
o
o
(2.1.3-11) When would the sails normally be set in a wing and wing configuration?
(A) If the vessel is close hauled
(B) If the vessel is wearing
(C) When the vessel is tacking in a head wind
(D) If the vessel is sailing with the wind aft

139.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.1.4-1) Which is TRUE about a sail when it has been reefed?

(A) The sail area is reduced
(B) The sail area is widened
(C) The sail area is increased
(D) The sail area remains unchanged
140.
o
o
o
(2.1.4-4) Which term defines the hinge fitting used to attach the boom to the mast on a sail boat?
(A) The gooseneck
(B) The swivel
(C) The pintle
(D) The step
141.
(2.1.4-5) What fitting on the mast works in conjunction with the shrouds to control side bend of
the mast?
o
o
o
(A) Spreader
(B) Chainplate
(C) Hound
(D) Crowfoot
142.
o
o
(2.1.4-7) A schooner is a fore-and-aft rigged vessel with __________.

(A) two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
(B) a single mast
(C) at least two masts: a foremast and a mainmast
143.
o
o
o
(2.1.4-9) A ketch is a sailing vessel with __________.

(A) one mast
(B) two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
(C) two masts: a foremast and a mainmast

Deck General
September 2015
144.
(2.1.4-13) What standing rigging supports the mast in the fore-and-aft and athwartships
directions?
o
o
(A) Guys and vangs

(B) Vangs and shrouds
(C) Shrouds and stays
(D) Sheets and guys
145.
o
o
o
(2.1.4-16) A shroud is __________.

(A) standing rigging
(B) a light sail
(C) a sheet
(D) a topmast stay
146.
o
o
o
(2.1.4-18) What is NOT running rigging?

(A) Backstay
(B) Sheet
(C) Downhaul
(D) Halyard
147.
o
o
o
(2.1.4-20) What is part of a vessel's standing rigging?

(A) Sheet
(B) Backstay
(C) Downhaul
(D) Topping lift
148.
(2.1.4-23) Changing direction by bringing the stern of the vessel through the eye of the wind is
known as __________.
o
o
o
(A) running before the wind

(B) reefing
(C) tacking
(D) jibing

149.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.1.4-25) The term "lee side" refers to the __________.

(A) side of the vessel exposed to the wind
(B) starboard side
(C) side of the vessel sheltered from the wind
(D) port side
150.
o
o
o
(2.1.4-26) Which fitting is used to connect the boom to the mast?

(A) Clevis pin
(B) Gooseneck
(C) Gunter-lug
(D) Transom
151.
o
o
o
(2.1.4-28) Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE regarding heaving-to?

(A) A yawl will heave to with her jib aback, main sheet eased, and her mizzen sheeted in.
(B) A sloop will heave to with her jib and mainsail aback.
(C) A ketch will heave to with her jib and mizzen aback.
152.
(2.3.1-3) A vessel is loaded to her summer marks for a voyage from Montreal, Canada to Duluth,
MN via the Great Lakes System. The voyage has been estimated to take nine (9) days. If the vessel
departs Montreal on September 28th, which of the following statements is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The vessel must be at her winter marks by the evening of the third day.
(B) The vessel must be at her summer marks when she arrives at Duluth.
(C) The vessel is in violation of the load line requirements.
(D) The vessel's intermediate load line marks may not be submerged after September 30.
153.
(2.3.1-6) In illustration D031DG below, what does the single line located directly above the
diamond indicate?
o
o
(A) freeboard line

(B) deck line
(C) water line
(D) load line

Deck General
September 2015
154.
(2.3.1-8) Which vessel is exempt from the load line and marking requirements for vessels
operating on the Great Lakes System?
o
o
(A) A 300 GT tank barge operating exclusively on Lake Michigan

(B) A 79-foot, 150 GT pleasure craft operating on the St. Lawrence River
(C) A 500 GT dry cargo river barge operated continuously between Calumet Hbr Chicago, IL and
Burns Hbr, IN
(D) A 200 GT passenger vessel operating between Duluth, MN and Munising, MI
155.
for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 180 long tons are loaded in No. 23
hatch.
o
o
(A) FWD 24'-04 2/3", AFT 25'-10 3/4"

(B) FWD 24'-06 1/2", AFT 25'-08 2/3"
(C) FWD 24'-08 1/4", AFT 25'-00 2/3"
(D) FWD 24'-10 1/4", AFT 25'-00 1/4"
156.
for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 634 long tons are discharged from NO.
19 hatch.
o
o
(A) FWD 25'-00 1/4", AFT 25'-04 1/8"

(B) FWD 25'-02 3/4", AFT 23'-08 5/8"
(C) FWD 25'-05 1/4", AFT 23'-08 5/8"
(D) FWD 25'-10 1/4", AFT 23'-11 3/4"
157.
for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 765 long tons are discharged from No.
7 hatch.
o
o
(A) FWD 15'-04 3/4", AFT 18'-04"

(B) FWD 15'-11 3/5", AFT 18'-11"
(C) FWD 18'-08 2/5", AFT 18'-05"
(D) FWD 18'-05 3/4", AFT 18'-10"

Deck General
September 2015
158.
for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 170 long tons are discharged from No.
8 hatch.
o
o
(A) FWD 19'-00.4", AFT 20'-08.6"

(B) FWD 18'-10.8", AFT 20'-10.4"
(C) FWD 19'-03.4", AFT 20'-05.6"
(D) FWD 19'-05.4", AFT 20'-03.4"
159.
(2.3.2.2-4) Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the
amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft
for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 34 lbs.
o
o
(A) 1150 tons each

(B) 1180 tons each
(C) 1220 tons each
(D) 1250 tons each
160.
(2.3.2.2-5) Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the
amount of ballast required in tank No. 1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft
o
o
o
(A) 23 tons each

(B) 50 tons each
(C) 75 tons each
(D) 150 tons each
161.
(2.3.2.2-7) Using sheet 25 in the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the
amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft
o
o
o
(A) 1010 tons each

(B) 1025 tons each
(C) 1045 tons each
(D) 1070 tons each

Deck General
September 2015
162.
(2.3.2.3-3) Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long
o
o
o
(A) 2930 tons

(B) 3110 tons
(C) 3170 tons
(D) 3240 tons
163.
o
o
(A) 1540 tons

(B) 1590 tons
(C) 1645 tons
(D) 1670 tons
164.
tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 2, 6, & 10, while using a single belt loader, to arrive
at a desired mean keel draft of 27'-07"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND
HAVEN)
o
o
(A) 510 tons per hatch

(B) 530 tons per hatch
(C) 590 tons per hatch
(D) 610 tons per hatch
165.
(2.3.3-1) There are basically three categories of water level fluctuations on the Great Lakes.
What is NOT included as one of these?
o
o
(A) Short period fluctuations

(B) Seasonal fluctuations
(C) Controlled outflow fluctuations
(D) Long range fluctuations

Deck General
September 2015
166.
(2.3.3-2) You are transiting the Straits of Mackinac by way of an improved channel. You have
information which indicates that the channel's Federal project depth is 28 ft. Which of the following
statements is true with regards to this channel?
o
o
(A) The least depth within the limits of the channel is 28 ft.
(B) The design dredging depth of the channel is 28 ft.
(C) The maximum depth which may be expected within the limits of the channel is 28 ft.
(D) The channel has 28 ft. in the center but lesser depths may exist in the remainder of the
channel.
167.
o
o
(2.3.3-4) Which basic category of water level fluctuations on the Great Lakes is the most regular?
(A) Long-term fluctuations
(B) Short-term fluctuations
(C) Seasonal fluctuations
(D) Outflow fluctuations
168.
o
o
o
(2.3.3-6) Which two Great Lakes are considered hydraulically as one?

(A) Lakes Erie - St. Clair
(B) Lakes Michigan - Huron
(C) Lakes Superior - Huron
(D) Lakes Erie - Ontario
169.
o
o
o
(2.3.3-8) Which of the Great Lakes is most affected by short-term Lake level fluctuations?
(A) Lake Erie
(B) Lake Superior
(C) Lake Huron
(D) Lake Michigan
170.
(2.3.3-10) Which of the Great Lakes is generally the last to reach its seasonal low and seasonal
high water marks?
o
o
(A) Lake Huron

(B) Lake Superior
(C) Lake Ontario
(D) Lake Michigan

171.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.3.3-17) How are aids to navigation on the Great Lakes arranged geographically?
(A) In an easterly and southerly direction, except on Lake Erie
(B) In a westerly and northerly direction, except on Lake St. Clair
(C) In a westerly and northerly direction, except on Lake Michigan
(D) In an easterly and southerly direction, except on the New York State Barge Canal
172.
(2.3.3-20) Your vessel has been ordered to proceed to the United Grain Growers Wharf at
Thunder Bay, Lake Superior, for the purpose of taking on a load of wheat. Which publication(s)
would you consult for such information as the length of the wharf, the depth of the water alongside,
and the loading capacity at the facility?
o
o
(A) The Lake Carriers Association Facilities Directory

(B) The Navigational Chart and Light List Vol. VII
(C) The United States Coast Pilot #6
(D) The International Guide to Canadian Ports and Facilities
173.
o
o
o
(2.3.3-23) Which statement is FALSE with regards to the Great Lakes Light List?
(A) The Light List should be corrected each week from the appropriate Notice to Mariners.
(B) The Light List does not contain information on any of the navigational aids maintained by
Canada.
(C) Volume VII does not include information on Class III private aids to navigation.
(D) The Light List does not include Coast Guard mooring buoys, special purpose buoys, or buoys
marking fish net areas.
174.
(2.3.3-24) Your vessel is underway and approaching an overhead obstruction on Lake Superior.
Given the following information, determine the clearance between your vessel and the obstruction.
Highest point on vessel: 74 ft. Lowest point of obstruction: 126 (LWD) Monthly lake level: +2 (LWD)
International Great Lakes Datum: 600.0 (182.88 meters)
o
o
o
(A) 474 feet

(B) 400 feet
(C) 175 feet
(D) 50 feet

Deck General
September 2015
175.
(2.3.4-4) Which type of fog is the most dense and widely spread of those that occur on the Great
Lakes?
o
o
o
(A) Radiation fog

(B) Lake effect fog
(C) Steam fog
(D) Advection fog
176.
o
o
(2.3.4-5) Advection fog holds longest over which portions of the lakes?
(A) Southeast
(B) Northeast
(C) Northwest
(D) Southwest
177.
o
o
o
(2.3.4-6) Which statement is TRUE concerning weather conditions on the Great Lakes?
(A) Thunderstorms are most likely to develop from November through April.
(B) The most destructive storms usually come from the northwest or north.
(C) When a vessel is south of an eastward-moving storm center, the approach of the low is
evidenced by winds from the north to northeast.
(D) When a vessel is north of an eastward-moving storm center, changes in the weather are less
distinctive than when sailing south of the center.
178.
o
o
o
(2.3.4-7) Which statement concerning storm surges on the Great Lakes is FALSE?
(A) They are common along the deeper areas of the lakes.
(B) They cause rapid differences in levels between one end of the lake and the other.
(C) The greatest water level difference occurs when the wind is blowing along the axis of the lake.
(D) If the wind subsides rapidly, a seiche effect will most likely occur.
179.
(2.3.4-8) A vessel operating on the Great Lakes, and whose position is south of an approaching
eastward-moving storm center, would NOT experience __________.
o
o
(A) lowering clouds and drizzle

(B) a southwest to west wind
(C) a falling barometer
(D) rain or snow

Deck General
September 2015
180.
(2.3.4-9) On the Great Lakes, winter storms compound the ice threat by bringing a variety of
wind, wave, and weather problems on an average of every __________.
o
o
o
(A) four days

(B) five days
(C) three days
(D) two days
181.
(2.3.4-11) What is NOT characteristic of the conditions which would be experienced by a vessel
located southeast of an approaching eastward-moving storm center on the Great Lakes?
o
o
(A) A westerly wind

(B) Falling barometer
(C) Lowering clouds
(D) Rain or snow
182.
o
o
o
(2.3.4-12) "Seiche" is defined as a(n) __________.

(A) lake current which is predominant during the spring and fall navigation season on the Great
Lakes
(B) oscillation caused by the diminishing of forces which cause lake level fluctuations
(C) higher than normal high water or lower than normal low water
(D) unusually strong storm system which approaches the Great Lakes System generally from the
Northeast
183.
(2.3.4-13) The phenomenon known as a "seiche" is most likely to occur on Lake Erie
__________.
o
o
o
(A) when strong winds from the Northeast suddenly diminish

(B) during the months of May through August
(C) when the Moon and Sun are in alignment
(D) during the passage of a rapidly moving warm front
184.
(2.3.4-14) On the Great Lakes, short-term fluctuations in water levels may be a result of any of
the following EXCEPT __________.
o
o
o
(A) below normal rain fall

(B) seiches
(C) strong winds
(D) sudden changes in barometric pressure

185.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.3.4-15) On which of the Great Lakes would shore ice be the most pronounced?
(A) Lake Erie
(B) Lake Superior
(C) Lake Huron
(D) Lake Michigan
186.
(2.3.4-17) A vessel operating on the Great Lakes, and whose position is southeast of an
eastward-moving storm center, would NOT experience __________.
o
o
o
(A) a northeast wind

(B) a falling barometer
(C) rain or snow
(D) lowering clouds and drizzle
187.
o
o
o
(2.3.4-18) Which statement concerning storm surges on the Great Lakes is FALSE?
(A) They are common along the deeper areas of the lakes.
(B) The greatest water level difference occurs when the wind is blowing along the longitudinal
axis of the lake.
(C) If the wind subsides rapidly, a seiche effect will most likely occur.
(D) They cause rapid differences in levels between one end of the lake and the other.
188.
(2.11.1.1-1) While your vessel is docked port side to a wharf, a sudden gale force wind causes
the vessel's bow lines to part. The bow begins to fall away from the dock, and no tugs are
immediately available. Which measure(s) should you take FIRST?
o
o
o
(A) Slip the stern lines, let the vessel drift into the river, and then anchor.
(B) Call the Master and the deck gang.
(C) Obtain assistance and attempt to put some new bow lines out.
(D) Let go the starboard anchor.
189.
(2.11.1.1A-1) You are on watch at night in clear visibility and the vessel has just been anchored.
What is the first thing that you should do after the anchor has been let go?
o
o
o
(A) stop the engines

(B) lower the accommodation ladder and illuminate it
(C) turn off the running lights and turn on the anchor lights
(D) take bearings to obtain ship's position

Deck General
September 2015
190.
(2.11.1.1A-2) You are on watch and the pilot has just anchored the vessel. The next thing that
you should do after the anchor has been let go is to __________.
o
o
(A) stop the engines

(B) escort the pilot to the accommodation ladder
(C) plot the vessel's position on the chart
(D) make a round of the weather decks
191.
(2.11.1.1A-3) You are on anchor watch. As an aid to preventing thievery on the vessel you
should __________.
o
o
(A) only show the required anchor lights and keep the rest of the vessel darkened
(B) show anchor lights, deck lights and cargo lights hung over the vessel's side
(C) maintain water on deck with firehoses led out and all-purpose nozzles attached
(D) show running lights, anchor lights and deck lights
192.
(2.11.1.2-1) When the gyro-pilot is used for steering, what control is adjusted to compensate for
varying sea conditions?
o
o
o
(A) Lost motion adjustment

(B) Rudder control
(C) Sea control
(D) Weather adjustment
193.
(2.11.1.2-13) You have the "conn" at the time the helmsman who is steering by hand reports that
the rudder is not responding to the wheel. Your FIRST action should be to __________.
o
o
(A) signal the engine room to stop the engines

(B) shift the selector switch to the other steering pump
(C) call the Master
(D) call the engine room
194.
(2.11.1.2-8) The "rudder adjustment" control on an autopilot steering stand is used to

__________.
o
o
o
(A) set the departure from base course before actuating the rudder
(B) align the rudder angle indicator with the true rudder angle
(C) set the rate at which the rudder responds
(D) set the number of degrees of rudder per degree of course error

Deck General
September 2015
195.
(2.11.1.2-6) Your ship is steaming at night with the gyro-pilot engaged when you notice that the
vessel's course is slowly changing to the right. What action should you take FIRST?
o
o
o
(A) switch to hand steering

(B) notify the engine room
(C) call the Master
(D) shift steering to the emergency steering station
196.
(2.11.1.2-2) While on watch at sea you must maintain a proper lookout at all times. On a 700-foot
cargo vessel being hand-steered during daylight hours in good visibility and clear of any navigational
hazards, the lookout may be __________.
o
o
(A) the helmsman

(B) the mate on watch
(C) Either A or B
(D) Neither A nor B
197.
(2.11.1.2-5) You are on watch at sea at night and a fire breaks out in #3 hold. What should be
done IMMEDIATELY?
o
o
(A) Flood the space with CO2 from the fixed fire fighting system.
(B) Cool the deck to contain the fire.
(C) Shut down the cargo hold ventilation.
(D) Proceed to the space and determine the extent of the fire.
198.
(2.11.1.2-4) While on watch at sea you must maintain a proper lookout at all times. You are on a
200-foot cargo vessel with an unobstructed view astern from the steering position. The vessel is
being hand-steered during daylight hours in good visibility and clear of any navigational hazards.
The lookout may be __________.
o
o
(A) the helmsman

(B) the officer on watch
(C) Either A or B
(D) Neither A nor B
199.
(2.11.1.2-9) The "weather adjustment" control on an autopilot steering stand is used to

__________.
o
o
(A) set the speed at which the rudder responds

(B) set the null band or dead zone signal before actuating the rudder
(C) allow leeway according to the weather conditions
(D) proportionally set the number of degrees of rudder response per degree of course error

Deck General
September 2015
200.
(2.11.1.2-10) The "Port-Off-Stbd" selector switch on an autopilot steering stand is used to

__________.
o
o
(A) change from hand electric steering to automatic gyro

(B) change over the port to the starboard bow thruster
(C) change over one steering system to the other
(D) change over hand electric steering to non-followup
201.
(2.11.1.2-7) While steering by autopilot you notice that the vessel has deviated 15 degrees from
course and there is no corrective rudder being applied. As a standard operating procedure you
should first __________.
o
o
o
(A) switch to hand steering

(B) check the setting of the weather adjustment
(C) check the setting of the rudder adjustment
(D) immediately engage the trick wheel
202.
(2.11.1.2-11) When a vessel is on autopilot steering, the "weather " control is adjusted to
compensate for which severe weather effect on a vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Yaw
(B) Pitch
(C) Leeway
(D) Roll
203.
(2.11.1.2-14) When steering by hand, which of the following may be a functional input to the
steering gear as a result of turning the wheel?
o
o
(A) Rudder adjustment

(B) Weather adjustment
(C) Non-follow-up
(D) All the above may be activated
204.
(2.11.1.2-15) When steering on autopilot which of the following input conditions may NOT have
an effect on the control of the steering gear?
o
o
(A) Rudder adjustment

(B) Weather adjustment
(C) Non-followup
(D) All the above may be activated

Deck General
September 2015
205.
(2.11.1.2-16) You are a watchstanding mate and have come to the bridge to relieve the watch.
After reviewing the chart and having been briefed by the off-going mate, you are now ready to effect
the relief. The watch is officially transferred to you after __________.
o
o
o
(A) you state the vessel's charted position, present course and port of destination
(B) the mate being relieved says, "You have the conn" and you state the ship's course
(C) the mate being relieved tells you the vessel's course and speed and states that you have the
watch
(D) you say, "I relieve you" and you state the course per gyro and magnetic compasses
206.
(2.11.1.2-17) You are a watchstanding mate and have come to the bridge to relieve the watch
while underway at sea. The watch should not be transferred __________.
o
o
(A) during an engine speed change

(B) unless the helm is in the "hand" mode
(C) during a navigational course change
207.
(2.11.1.2-18) You are preparing to relieve the mate on watch while underway at sea. The watch
should not be transferred __________.
o
o
o
(A) during a collision avoidance maneuver

(B) while the Master is on the bridge
(C) during an engine speed change
208.
(2.11.1.2-19) You are a watchstanding mate and have come to the bridge to relieve the watch.
After reviewing the chart and having been briefed by the off-going mate, you are now ready to effect
the relief. Which of the following is exemplary of the statement that would officially transfer the
watch?
o
o
o
(A) You say to the mate going off watch, "I relieve you, course 321 per gyro, 316 per standard."
(B) You say to the mate going off watch, "Destination New York, course 283, speed 16 knots."
(C) The mate being relieved says, "All in apparent good order, course 068 per gyro, 075 per
standard."
(D) The mate being relieved says, "You now have the watch, course 147, speed 15 knots."

Deck General
September 2015
209.
(2.11.1.2-20) You are on watch at sea and find it prudent to call the Master to the bridge due to
traffic congestion. The moment that the Master officially relieves you of the conn is whenever
__________.
o
o
(A) you call the Captain to the bridge in a traffic situation

(B) a watchstander announces "Captain's on the bridge"
(C) the Master specifically informs you that he has the conn
(D) the Captain states the course being steered
210.
o
o
(2.11.1.2-21) Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.

(A) telemotor position
(B) Rapson slide indicator
(C) rudder angle indicator
(D) follow-up gear
211.
(2.11.1.2A-1) The lookout sights a vessel dead ahead. This should be reported on the bell with
__________.
o
o
(A) one bell

(B) two bells
(C) three bells
(D) four bells
212.
(2.11.1.2A-2) A look-out at the bow sights an object on your port side. How many bell strokes
should he sound?
o
o
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
213.
o
o
o
(2.11.1.2A-3) While on duty as a look-out, which other duty may you perform?
(A) Paint any area near your station
(B) Overhaul a block, as long as it is at your look-out station
(C) Sweep down the fo'c'sle

214.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.11.1.2A-4) When must a proper look-out must be kept?

(A) only in fog
(B) only between the hours of sunset and sunrise
(C) only when entering and leaving port
(D) at all times
215.
o
o
o
(2.11.1.2A-6) When is a lookout permitted to leave his station?

(A) only when properly relieved
(B) at the end of the watch
(C) 15 minutes before the end of the watch
(D) at any time
216.
o
o
o
(2.11.1.2A-7) What should look-outs report?

(A) Discolored water
(B) Floating objects
(C) Shoals
217.
(2.11.1.2A-8) As look-out, you spot an object 45 off your port bow. You should report the object
as __________.
o
o
o
(A) broad on the port bow

(B) on the port beam
(C) 3 points on the port bow
(D) 3 points forward of the port beam
218.
o
o
o
(2.11.1.2A-9) A vessel spotted at 45 relative can be reported as __________.

(A) 4 points forward of starboard bow
(B) broad on the starboard bow
(C) 4 points abaft the starboard beam
(D) on the starboard beam

219.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.11.1.2A-10) A look-out should report objects sighted using __________.

(A) relative bearings
(B) true bearings
(C) magnetic bearings
(D) gyro bearings
220.
o
o
o
(2.11.1.2A-11) What does the command "Hard right rudder" mean?

(A) put the rudder over to the right all the way
(B) put the rudder over quickly to 15 right rudder
(C) jam the rudder against the stops
(D) meet a swing to the right, then return to amidships
221.
(2.11.1.2A-12) What action should the helmsman take when hearing the command "ease the
rudder"?
o
o
(A) bring the rudder amidships

(B) move the rudder slowly in the direction of the most recent rudder command
(C) decrease the rudder angle
(D) steer the course which is your present heading
222.
(2.11.1.2A-13) When a helmsman receives the command "Right 15 degrees rudder," What
should the helmsman's immediate reply be ?
o
o
(A) No reply is necessary, just carry out the order.

(B) "Rudder is right 15 degrees"
(C) "Right 15 degrees rudder"
(D) "Aye Aye Sir"
223.
o
o
o
(2.11.1.2A-14) What is a CORRECT reply to a pilot's request, "How's your head"?

(A) "Eased to 10 rudder"
(B) "Steady"
(C) "Checked"
(D) "Passing 50"

Deck General
September 2015
224.
(2.11.1.2A-15) When being relieved of the helm, the new helmsman would find it handy to know
which of the following?
o
o
(A) leeway
(B) deviation on that heading
(C) amount of helm carried for a steady course
(D) variation in the area
225.
(2.11.1.2A-16) When relieving the helm, the new helmsman should know which of the following
before assuming the watch?
o
o
o
(A) maximum rudder angle previously used

(B) variation
(C) gyro error
(D) course per magnetic steering compass
226.
o
o
o
(2.11.1.2A-17) What is the "iron mike"?

(A) pilot
(B) automatic pilot
(C) standby wheel
(D) speaker
227.
(2.11.1.2A-18) You are standing the wheel watch on entering port and the Master gives you a
rudder command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. What should you do?
o
o
(A) Ask the Pilot if he relinquishes control.

(B) Bring the rudder to a position midway between the two conflicting positions.
(C) Obey the Master.
(D) Obey the Pilot.
228.
o
o
o
(2.11.1.2A-19) What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean?
(A) Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it is now.
(B) Shift the rudder control to the alternate steering method.
(C) Put the rudder amidships and hold the heading steady as she goes.
(D) Stop the swing of the ship.

229.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.11.1.2A-20) What does the helm command "meet her" mean?

(A) note the course and steady on that heading
(B) steer more carefully
(C) use rudder to check the swing
(D) decrease the rudder angle which is on
230.
o
o
(2.11.1.2A-21) The helm command "Nothing to the left" means do NOT __________.
(A) use left rudder
(B) steer right of the ordered course
(C) steer left of the ordered course
(D) leave any buoys on the port side
231.
o
o
(2.11.1.2A-22) What does the helm command "Left twenty" mean?

(A) put the rudder hard left for the first twenty degrees of swing
(B) put the rudder left twenty degrees and then ease back as the vessel starts swinging
(C) put the rudder left twenty degrees
(D) change course twenty degrees to the left
232.
o
o
(2.11.1.2A-23) What does the helm command "Check her" mean?

(A) stop the swing using hard over rudder
(B) test the steering control
(C) slow the swing using moderate rudder
(D) read the compass heading
233.
o
o
o
(2.11.1.2A-24) What does the helm command "Steady as you go" mean?
(A) steer the course when the swing stops
(B) maintain the rate of swing
(C) don't allow the vessel to swing off course so much
(D) steer the course you are on now

234.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.11.1.2A-25) When steering a vessel, which of the following will an effective helmsman do?
(A) apply rudder to move the compass card towards the lubbers line when off course
(B) keep the rudder amidships except when changing course
(C) use as much rudder as possible to keep the vessel on course
(D) repeat back to the watch officer any rudder commands before executing them
235.
(2.11.1.2A-26) You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry, "Man overboard
starboard side". What immediate action should you take?
o
o
o
(A) give full right rudder

(B) throw a life ring to mark the spot
(C) give full left rudder
(D) put the rudder amidships
236.
(2.11.1.2B-1) While the Pilot is maneuvering the vessel to a dock, what is the PRIMARY
responsibility of the watch officer?
o
o
o
(A) Judge the appropriateness of the Pilot's orders and countermand them if necessary.
(B) Supervise the signaling and flag etiquette.
(C) Record the bells and their times in the bell book.
(D) Insure that helm and throttle orders given by the Pilot are correctly executed.
237.
(2.11.1.2B-2) While the Pilot is maneuvering the vessel to a dock, what is the primary
responsibility of the watch officer?
o
o
(A) Supervise the signaling and flag etiquette

(B) Insure that helm and throttle orders given by the Pilot are correctly executed
(C) Judge the appropriateness of the Pilot's orders and countermand them if necessary
(D) Record the bells and their times in the bell book
238.
(2.11.1.2B-3) When the pilot is embarked he or she __________.
o
o
(A) relieves the Master of his duties

(B) relieves the officer of the watch
(C) is a specialist hired for his or her local navigational knowledge
(D) is solely responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel

Deck General
September 2015
239.
(2.11.1.2B-4) A vessel is entering port and has a Pilot conning the vessel. The Master is unsure
that the Pilot is taking sufficient action to prevent a collision. What should the Master do?
o
o
(A) Direct the Pilot to stop the vessel and anchor if necessary until the situation clears.
(B) Nothing; the Pilot is required by law and is solely responsible for the safety of the vessel.
(C) Recommend an alternative action and if not followed relieve the Pilot.
(D) State his concerns to the Pilot but do not interfere with the handling of the vessel.
240.
(2.11.1.2B-5) You are on a large merchant vessel entering a U.S. port. There is a Pilot on board
and he has the conn. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
(A) The Pilot is solely responsible for the internal working of the ship.
(B) The Master is responsible for the safe navigation of the ship and the Pilot is employed for his
local knowledge.
(C) The Pilot becomes solely responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel only if the Master
relinquishes the conn.
(D) The Pilot is solely responsible for the safe maneuvering of the ship only if he is required to be
on board by law.
241.
(2.11.1.2B-7) You are standing watch on entering port and the Master gives a rudder command
which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. You should ensure the helmsman
__________.
o
o
(A) obeys the Pilot

(B) asks the Pilot if he has relinquished control
(C) obeys the Master
(D) brings the rudder to a position midway between the two conflicting positions
242.
(2.11.1.2B-8) You are on watch while your vessel is entering port with a pilot conning. The pilot
gave a steering command to the helmsman who failed to acknowledge it by repeating the order. You
have now enunciated the pilot's order to the helmsman and there is still no response. If the
helmsman continues on the original course, you should immediately __________.
o
o
o
(A) ask the Pilot to repeat the command since the helmsman failed to hear it
(B) repeat the Pilot's command a second time and notify the Master
(C) tell the helmsman to ask the Pilot to repeat any command that he fails to hear or understand
(D) take the helm and expedite the maneuver that the pilot ordered

Deck General
September 2015
243.
(2.11.1.2B-9) You are on watch while your vessel is entering port with a pilot conning. The pilot
gives a steering command to the helmsman who fails to acknowledge it by repeating the command.
You should immediately __________.
o
o
o
(A) notify the Master

(B) tell the helmsman to ask the Pilot to repeat any command that he fails to hear or understand
(C) ask the Pilot to repeat the command since the helmsman failed to hear it
(D) repeat the Pilot's command and ensure that the helmsman repeats it exactly
244.
(2.11.1.2B-10) You are on watch and the Pilot has the conn. The Master has temporarily gone
below. The Pilot orders a course change which you are certain will put the vessel into imminent
danger. Your first action should be to __________.
o
o
o
(A) countermand the order and immediately notify the Master

(B) immediately call the Master and await further orders from him
(C) make an appropriate entry in the deck log concerning the Pilot's order
(D) immediately sound a short ring on the general alarm
245.
(2.11.1.2B-11) While you are on watch entering port, the Master gives the helmsman a rudder
command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. You should make sure the
helmsman __________.
o
o
(A) asks you for instructions

(B) obeys the Master
(C) brings the rudder to a point midway between the two conflicting positions
(D) obeys the Pilot

Deck General
September 2015
246.
(2.2.1.2B3-6) A vessel has an amidships superstructure. Which location would be most suitable
for main deck stowage of vehicles?
o
o
o
(A) Beside the hatches, forward of the midships house

(B) On top of the aftermost hatch on the vessel
(C) On top of No.1 hatch
(D) On top of the hatch immediately aft of the midships house
247.
(2.2.1.3-17) When carrying a full or nearly full load of bulk ore in a general cargo type vessel
which has engine spaces amidships, the cargo in each hold should be trimmed so that the bulk of
the cargo lies __________.
o
o
(A) Toward the forward bulkhead of the forward holds and toward the after bulkhead of the after
holds
(B) Toward the after bulkhead of the forward holds and the forward bulkhead of the after holds
(C) Along the centerline
(D) Toward the after bulkhead of all holds
248.
(2.2.1.9A-60) What should be done after putting down the ramp on a Ro-Ro vessel, prior to
loading or discharging cargo?
o
o
o
(A) Turn on ventilation for cargo holds.

(B) Call out the deck department for all hands.
(C) Turn on red cargo light.
249.
(2.2.1.1C-32) What do the letter and number symbols, such as B-II, used to classify portable fire
extinguishers indicate?
o
o
o
(A) class of fire and size of the extinguisher

(B) extinguishing agent and location aboard vessel
(C) extinguishing agent and relative size of the extinguisher
(D) class of fire and location aboard vessel

Deck General
September 2015
250.
(2.2.1.5D2-43) Which statement is TRUE concerning the tandem working arrangement of

pedestal cranes when completing a quad lift?
o
o
o
(A) The cranes require shoreside assistance to handle heavy cargos.

(B) The cargo discharge cannot be accomplished without pendulation.
(C) The cargo discharge cannot be performed at anchor.
(D) The discharge is slow due to the size of the cargo and all the cranes working together.
251.
(2.2.1.5E-11) The force acting on a single cargo runner which is vertically lifting or lowering a
load is greatest when __________.
o
o
(A) lowering the load at constant speed

(B) decelerating when lowering the load
(C) decelerating when raising the load
(D) raising the load at constant speed
252.
(2.2.1.5D2-8) Which of the following is/are the component(s) of a twin crane set as shown
in illustration D047DG?
o
o
o
(A) Crane house assembly

(B) Foundation assembly
(C) Turntable assembly
253.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7E1-18) Which is NOT required on a tankship carrying hazardous liquid cargoes in bulk?
(A) Certificate of Inspection issued under the Tank Vessel Regulations
(B) Certificate of Adequacy for the hazardous cargoes carried
(C) A copy of 46 CFR parts 35 and 150
(D) Cargo piping plan showing loading rates for all applicable cargo lines
254.
(2.2.1.5B-3) The IMO requires Cargo Securing Manuals on certain vessels. Which of the
following are required to maintain this manual onboard?
o
o
o
(A) RoRo Carriers

(B) Liquid Bulk Carriers
(C) LNG Carriers
(D) Solid Bulk Carriers

Deck General
September 2015
255.
(2.2.1.6-7) When loading a container vessel, the operation is basically that of vertical loading.
The important factors to be considered when loading containers are the port of discharge, and which
of the following?
o
o
o
(A) Weight, and refrigeration

(B) Available dunnage, and chocking
(C) Sweat, and weight
(D) Crushability, and inherent vice
256.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.6-22) What purpose does a bridge fitting serve when lashing containers?
(A) Restrains racking loads
(B) Restrains the container against horizontal motion
(C) Ties a container stack to the deck
(D) Ties a container to the container below it
257.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-34) Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes?
(A) A slew drive system provides for rotation of each crane.
(B) Each crane is supplied with luff, hoist, and slew functions for crane load handling.
(C) An independent slew drive system rotates the turntable.
258.
(2.2.1.7E2-13) A vessel transporting hazardous substances is required to have a Dangerous

Cargo Manifest. Which organization requires this document?
o
o
o
(A) The National Cargo Bureau

(B) The American Bureau of Shipping
(C) The International Dangerous Goods Code
(D) The International Maritime Organization
259.
(2.2.1.7D-34) According to the Chemical Data Guide, fuel oil number 6 has a flash point (degrees
F) of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 65
(B) 80 - 100
(C) 110 - 140
(D) 150 - 430(cc)

Deck General
September 2015
260.
(2.2.1.3-19) Prior to being able to sail, each vessel that carries grain in bulk must have a
certificate of loading issued by the __________.
o
o
(A) Lloyds of London

(B) National Cargo Bureau
(C) American Bureau of Shipping
(D) U.S. Salvage
261.
(2.2.1.7E1-10) You are to load styrene in bulk, which is subject to self-polymerization. In

accordance with 46 CFR Table 153 what are you required to do?
o
o
o
(A) Be furnished with a Certificate of Inhibition to be maintained on the bridge

(B) Inject nitrogen to pad any ullage above the styrene to prevent contact with oxygen
(C) Use heating coils to maintain the styrene within the temperatures specified by the shipper
(D) Not carry any cargo in the tanks surrounding the tank loaded with styrene
262.
(2.2.1.7D-47) You are loading benzyl chloride and a small quantity spills on deck. According to
the Chemical Data Guide, which of the following may be used as a substitute for water for the
cleanup procedure?
o
o
o
(A) Sodium carbonate

(B) Sodium bisulfite
(C) Alcohol
(D) Soda ash solution
263.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.2A-22) Overcarriage is best prevented by __________.

(A) Assuring heavy cargo is stowed low in the vessel
(B) Stowing the cargo which is to be discharged last on the bottom
(C) Checking the vessel's load line calculations carefully
(D) Inspection of the hold at completion of discharge
264.
(2.2.1.7E1-65) In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label
name for a class 6.2 substance?
o
o
(A) Poison
(B) Infectious substance
(C) Corrosive substance
(D) Oxidizer

Deck General
September 2015
265.
(2.2.1.10A-5) Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 85and the wet bulb
temperature is 73, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?
o
o
(A) 42%
(B) 56%
(C) 67%
(D) 85%
266.
(2.2.1.6-11) Under normal weather and sea conditions when securing a stack of containers with
twist locks, lashings are required when the tier exceeds what height?
o
o
o
(A) One container

(B) Three containers
(C) Lashings are always required
(D) Two containers
267.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-1) What does item "K" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?
(A) Rider block taglines
(B) Cargo snaking cables
(C) Jib luffing cables
(D) Manual slewing cables
268.
(2.2.1.2B5-3) Which organization would conduct a survey of the insulation in a reefer

compartment prior to loading cargo?
o
o
o
(A) American Bureau of Shipping

(B) U.S. Customs Service
(C) National Cargo Bureau
(D) OSHA
269.
(2.2.1.5C-8) The organization that certifies the safe working load of cargo cranes on a vessel is
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) classification society

(B) U.S. Coast Guard
(D) none of the above

270.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.5D2-53) What is the purpose of the equalizing beam aboard a crane vessel?
(A) It is used to rigidly connect two cranes.
(B) It is used to pick up light loads.
(C) It is required to "twin-up" 30-ton pedestal cranes.
(D) It allows for rotation of the hook in the single mode.
271.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.10-7) The moisture equilibrium chart can be used to determine the __________.
(A) Temperature at which moisture equilibrium will occur in a cargo hold containing a hygroscopic
cargo
(B) Absolute moisture content of the air surrounding a hygroscopic cargo when moisture
equilibrium exists
(C) Enthalpy of the air surrounding a hydroscopic cargo which is in moisture equilibrium with the
cargo
(D) Dew point temperature that the air surrounding a hygroscopic commodity will have when in
moisture equilibrium with that commodity
272.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7B-3) You are ordering ships' stores. Which statement is TRUE?

(A) Drugs and medicines must be stowed in accordance with the directives of the Food and Drug
Administration.
(B) Properly labeled consumer commodities need not be labeled in accordance with Title 46 CFR.
(C) Flammable ship's stores must be certified for use on inspected vessels by Underwriter's
Laboratories.
(D) Aerosol cans of engine starting fluid must be stowed in either the paint locker or portable
magazine after receipt.
273.
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-62) What is used to power modern pedestal cranes?

(A) Steam
(B) Water
(C) Hydraulics
274.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-49) What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye?
(A) Apply an ice pack to the eye.
(B) Flush the eye with plenty of water.
(C) Keep the eyelid closed.
(D) Rub the eye area clean.

275.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.3-13) Which statement about the ventilation of bulk coal is TRUE?

(A) Coal should be through-ventilated to remove methane and reduce the heat of spontaneous
combustion.
(B) Coal should be surface ventilated only.
(C) Coal should be ventilated only if temperatures in the center of the cargo exceed 125F.
(D) Coal should not be ventilated; all oxygen should be excluded from the cargo.
276.
(2.2.1.6-27) You are on a containership. The cargo includes a container of small arms
ammunition, a container of lead-acid storage batteries and a container of methyl acetylene bottles.
Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The storage batteries must be at least ten horizontal feet away from the methyl acetylene.
(B) The ammunition must be separated from the methyl acetylene by at least one hold.
(C) The storage batteries must be stowed on deck away from the ammunition.
(D) No separation is required because freight containers are exempted.
277.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-15) Corrosive liquids and acids should have which kind of label?
(A) Red and white
(B) White and black
(C) Skull and crossbones
(D) Yellow and white
278.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5E-9) Stress on the topping lift of a swinging boom can be reduced by __________.
(A) Raising the boom
(B) Rigging a back stay
(C) Taking all slack out of the preventer
(D) Increasing the mechanical advantage of the cargo purchase
279.
(2.2.1.7D-24) Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The
placard has the number 2199 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo?
o
o
o
(A) Adiponitrile
(B) Xylenol
(C) Furan
(D) Phosphine

Deck General
September 2015
280.
(2.2.1.2B3-1) When a deck cargo is secured with chain or wire lashings and grab (pear) links,
which statement is FALSE?
o
o
(A) The turnbuckle should be secured with a stick or lock nuts.

(B) The lashings should be inspected each day and any slack taken up.
(C) The amount of take-up is limited by the length of the turnbuckle.
(D) At the grab (pear) link, the slack end of chain should be led back and secured to the chain
above the link.
281.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-82) Which is a grade B flammable liquid?

(A) Carbon Disulfide
(B) Butadiene
(C) Carbon Tetrachloride
(D) Ethyl Chloride
282.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-10) Which is a solid at ambient temperature?

(A) Methyl chloride
(B) Naphthalene
(C) Aniline
(D) Formic acid
283.
(2.2.1.2B5-2) A survey of refrigerated cargo, to certify that proper methods of stowage were
utilized, can be conducted by the __________.
o
o
(A) U.S. Coast Guard

(B) American Bureau of Shipping
(D) Occupational Safety and Health Administration
284.
(2.2.1.5B-2) Cargo vessels are required to maintain a Cargo Securing Manual onboard. What
information should this manual provide?
o
o
o
(A) The test data for the hatch covers

(B) The test weight of the vessel's cranes
(C) The list of cargo types the vessel can transport
(D) The maximum securing load of the vessel's lashing gear

Deck General
September 2015
285.
(2.2.1.7D-96) The flash point of a product is 100F. What can happen if it is heated above
110F?
o
o
o
(A) It may burn and explode if an ignition source is present.

(B) It will boil off to the atmosphere.
(C) It will become less volatile and easier to handle.
286.
(2.2.1.7C-16) In accordance with U.S. regulations which signal is required to be displayed during
hours of darkness if a vessel is handling Class 1 explosive materials?
o
o
(A) Two all-round fixed red lights

(B) One all-round fixed red light
(C) One all-round flashing red light
(D) No special signal is required during darkness
287.
(2.2.1.2A-25) Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage
to cargo when the damage arises from __________.
o
o
o
(A) Lack of ventilation in transit

(B) Perils of the sea
(C) An act of war
(D) An error in navigation
288.
(2.2.1.1E-14) Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station
No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The height of the letters and figures must be at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1/2 inch

(B) 1 inch
(C) 1-1/2 inches
(D) 2 inches
289.
(2.2.1.1D-2) A marine radar system for surface navigation must be fitted on all ocean or
coastwise vessels of over __________.
o
o
(A) 1,400 GT
(B) 1,500 GT
(C) 1,600 GT
(D) 1,700 GT

Deck General
September 2015
290.
(2.2.1.5A-21) You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the
stresses on the rig with the boom at 20 to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60 to
the horizontal, which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The thrust on the boom is greater at 60.

(B) The stress on the heel block is less at 20.
(C) The stress on the head block is less at 60.
(D) The stress on the topping lift is greater at 60.
291.
(2.2.1.1A-1) Single hull vessels operating exclusively on the Great Lakes must be dry docked at
intervals not to exceed what time period?
o
o
o
(A) 60 months
(B) 24 months
(C) 12 months
(D) 48 months
292.
(2.2.1.7D-63) What is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form
a flammable mixture with air in the presence of an ignition source?
o
o
o
(A) Flash point

(B) Flammable range
(C) Reid vapor index
(D) Autoignition temperature
293.
o
o
(2.2.1.2A-13) Cargoes that might leak from containers are known as __________.
(A) Dirty cargoes
(B) Caustic cargoes
(C) Wet cargoes
(D) Bulk cargoes
294.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-44) What is NOT a grade E product?

(A) Creosote coal tar
(B) Gasoline
(C) Dioctyl-phthalate
(D) Formic acid

Deck General
September 2015
295.
(2.2.1.7D-94) In order to determine the fire and explosion hazard data for naphtha, you would
use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical?
o
o
o
(A) Mineral spirits

(B) Treacle
(C) Napthalene
(D) Tar camphor
296.
(2.2.1.4-24) There is a large shipment of case goods available to be loaded on your vessel. You
are to load as many tons as possible in a hold which has 32,300 cubic feet left unfilled by cargo.
Each case measures 2-feet high by 2-feet wide by 4-feet long and weighs 500 pounds. If you allow a
broken stowage allowance of 10% of the 32,300 feet, what is the nearest whole number of tons
which may be loaded?
o
o
o
(A) 324 tons

(B) 360 tons
(C) 363 tons
(D) 406 tons
297.
(2.2.1.7A-9) You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of allyl alcohol,
benzene, and propanolamine. Which of the following is true?
o
o
o
(A) Allyl alcohol is incompatible with propanolamine but both are compatible with benzene.
(B) All of these cargoes are mutually compatible.
(C) Benzene may not be carried in a tank adjacent to either of the other two cargoes.
(D) Propanolamine is compatible with allyl alcohol but must be segregated from benzene.
298.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-41) Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations?

(A) Cargo loaded into vehicles and/or containers prior to lifting need not be secured.
(B) Never exceed crane manufacturer's limits concerning the safe working loads of cargo jibs.
(C) Lifting points on all equipment need not be checked prior to commencing a lift.
(D) All the above
299.
(2.2.1.1B-1) In accordance with U.S regulations, your cargo vessel must have which of the
following?
o
o
(A) Separate toilet facilities for engineers where their number exceeds six
(B) Sufficient facilities for the crew to wash their clothes
(C) A wash basin in each room

Deck General
September 2015
300.
(2.2.1.7E1-70) You are on a US vessel loading explosives for the military and will be
sailing foreign. Who is required to supervise the loading and stowage of the cargo?
o
o
(A) a USCG credentailed officer with a hazmat endorsement

(B) a USCG credentailed officer or rating with a hazmat endorsement
(C) a USCG credentailed officer designated by the Master
(D) an employee of the carrier designated by the Master
301.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-80) Which is an example of a grade B flammable liquid?

(A) Phenol
(B) Allyl alcohol
(C) Acetaldehyde
(D) Carbon disulfide
302.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.1C-13) Which space(s) on your cargo vessel must have a fire detection system?
(A) Enclosed spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"
(B) Any compartment adjacent to one containing explosives
(C) Any compartment containing explosives
303.
(2.2.1.7C-7) Your vessel is loading Class 1G explosives. Which of the following statements is
true concerning bunker operations?
o
o
(A) Vessels may handle Class 1 explosives while bunkering without any approval as long as
the hatches are open
(B) Vessels containing Class 1 explosives may not take on bunkers at any time without
approval by the COTP
(C) Vessels may not handle Class 1 explosives while taking on fuel unless approval had been
granted by the COTP
(D) Vessels handling Class 1 explosives may bunker during daylight only without any approval
from the COTP
304.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.1B-2) What is the largest crew a cargo vessel may carry without having a hospital space?
(A) 6
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 16

Deck General
September 2015
305.
(2.2.1.1B-3) What is the maximum number of crew members that may be berthed in one room
aboard your cargo vessel?
o
o
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) Six
(D) Eight
306.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7E1-41) The National Cargo Bureau represents the __________.

(A) shipper
(B) agent
(C) operator
307.
(2.2.1.7E1-38) If you carry packaged hazardous cargoes on a break bulk vessel bound foreign,
you must __________.
o
o
(A) remove the hazardous cargo labels from a portable tank after the tank is emptied
(B) log the receipt of hazardous cargoes in the Official Logbook
(C) have the shipping papers indicate the proper shipping name and the technical name of n.o.s.
cargoes
(D) stow the hazardous cargoes on deck available for jettisoning if necessary
308.
(2.2.1.1E-8) The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon
(EPIRB) is __________.
o
o
(A) secured in the emergency locker

(B) secured inside the wheelhouse
(C) tested monthly
(D) tested annually
309.
(2.2.1.1E-4) Regulations require that prior to departure on a three-day voyage, the steering gear,
whistle, and communications system between the bridge and engine room must be tested prior to
departure no earlier than __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1 hour
(B) 4 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 12 hours

Deck General
September 2015
310.
(2.2.1.7E1-74) Prior to handling Class 1 explosive materials, which signal(s) is/are required to be
displayed by the vessel?
o
o
(A) an announcement on VHF channel 16 every hour

(B) the Bravo flag and signs posted prohibiting smoking
(C) an all-round flashing blue light
(D) the Bravo flag and a flashing red all-round light
311.
(2.2.1.7E1-33) You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. You must inspect this
cargo __________.
o
o
o
(A) daily
(B) after encountering rough weather
(C) daily, at sea only
(D) after loading and prior to arrival in port only
312.
(2.2.1.7E1-45) What must access to a cargo pump room on a tank vessel carrying grades A, B,
C or D liquid cargoes be?
o
o
(A) at least 13.1 feet away from the galleys, living quarters or navigation spaces
(B) only from areas equipped with power ventilation systems
(C) from the open deck
(D) isolated from any part of the vessel which normally contains sources of vapor ignition
313.
(2.2.1.3-14) When considering a vessel's stability, which spaces in a general cargo vessel are
the best locations for the carriage of bulk grain?
o
o
o
(A) Deep tanks

(B) 'Tween-decks
(C) Lower holds at the ends of the vessel
(D) Lower holds
314.
o
o
o

(A) During any cargo handling operation, the safety of personnel is paramount.
(B) Do not exceed rated load capacity of crane and container spreader or slings.
(C) Cargo handlers must be outfitted with adequate protection from personal injury.
(D) All the above

315.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(B) Each single boom is of the partial-level luffing type and is capable of limited rotation.
(C) Maintenance logs and records are to be kept for each crane.
316.
(2.2.1.10A-2) Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 80F (27C) and the
wet bulb temperature is 70F (21C), what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?
o
o
(A) 45%
(B) 52%
(C) 61%
(D) 65%
317.
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-35) Which statement is TRUE regarding the operation of a crane?

(A) The crane jib is raised and lowered by the hoisting winch.
(B) The cargo block is raised and lowered by the luffing winch.
(C) The crane jib is raised and lowered by the luffing winch.
(D) The crane jib is raised and lowered by a jibing winch.
318.
(2.2.1.7D-92) You are loading epichlorohydrin onto your barge. According to the Chemical Data
Guide, you could expect to detect a leak by smell if the concentration in air was at least
__________.
o
o
(A) 2 ppm
(B) 10 - 25 ppm
(C) 40 ppm
(D) 105 ppm
319.
(2.2.1.1E-6) Maritime Administration personnel may be allowed in the pilothouse upon the
responsibility of the __________.
o
o
o
(A) officer in charge of the watch

(B) most senior person present from the Maritime Administration
(C) Chief Officer
(D) Navigator

320.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.5D2-28) Which action(s) is/are included in crane operations?

(A) Luff, slew, and hoist operations
(B) Pre-operation checks and start-up
(C) Removing booms from stowage
321.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.1B-4) Which statement about the hospital space on a cargo ship is TRUE?
(A) The hospital space must have both a bathtub and shower.
(B) The hospital may be used for disciplinary confinement if it is not being used for treatment.
(C) A hospital is required on all vessels with a crew of 12 or more if it makes overnight voyages.
(D) If a ship has a crew of forty-five who do not have their own room, the hospital must have four
berths.
322.
(2.2.1.1B-5) Where are the U.S. regulations governing the sleeping accommodations of a cargo
vessel found?
o
o
o
(A) 46 CFR subchapter T

(B) 46 CFR subchapter S
(C) 46 CFR subchapter B
(D) 46 CFR subchapter I
323.
o
o
(A) 66%
(B) 74%
(C) 85%
(D) 90%
324.
(2.2.1.1C-1) In accordance with U.S. regulations for cargo vessels, what is the maximum number
of sleeping accommodations a barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps, hydrants,
hose, and nozzles installed?
o
o
(A) 5
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 15

Deck General
September 2015
325.
(2.2.1.7D-61) According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is recommended
for use in fighting an ethylamine fire?
o
o
o
(A) Dry chemical

(B) Water fog
(C) Water foam
(D) Sand or Sawdust
326.
(2.2.1.5D2-12) Which of the following is/are the component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in
illustration D047DG?
o
o
o
(A) Hook block assembly

(B) Boom assembly
(C) Operator's cab
327.
(2.2.1.5D2-10) What is the maximum weight the 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in
illustration D049DG can lift in the twin mode?
o
o
(A) 15 tons
(B) 30 tons
(C) 60 tons
(D) 120 tons
328.
(2.2.1.7D-43) According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing
agent for an ethylene cyanohydrin fire?
o
o
o
(A) CO2
(B) Alcohol foam
(C) Dry chemical
(D) Water fog
329.
(2.2.1.7E1-21) You have a tow of chemical barges. The mate reports an ammonia smell around
the head of the tow. You would suspect a leak in the barge carrying __________.
o
o
(A) propanolamine
(B) methyl chloride
(C) morpholine
(D) heptane

330.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.1C-2) How much foam does a A B-III foam extinguisher contain?

(A) 2-1/2 gallons of foam
(B) 8 gallons of foam
(C) 10 gallons of foam
(D) 12 gallons of foam
331.
(2.2.1.7E1-55) Who must approve the carriage of a liquefied gas not appearing in table 4 of 46
CFR Part 154?
o
o
(A) Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection

(B) Commandant (G-MTH)
(C) vessel owner
(D) American Bureau of Shipping
332.
(2.2.1.1C-5) On an international voyage, how many fire axes is a cargo vessel of 14,000 GT
required to carry?
o
o
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 12
333.
(2.2.1.1C-3) On an international voyage, a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or more operating two fire
pumps simultaneously is required to have a minimum pitot tube pressure from the two highest
outlets. What is the minimum required pressure?
o
o
o
(A) 70 psi
(B) 100 psi
(C) 35 psi
(D) 50 psi
334.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-4) Which statement concerning castor oil is TRUE?

(A) It has a Reid vapor pressure of 9.5.
(B) It has a specific gravity of 1.3.
(C) The boiling point is 215F (102C).
(D) It is a grade E combustible liquid.

Deck General
September 2015
335.
(2.2.1.5D1-2) The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended with the palm
down and holds this position rigidly. This is the signal to __________.
o
o
o
(A) stop
(B) lower
(C) swing
(D) hoist
336.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-9) Which statement is TRUE concerning toluene?

(A) It is classified as a grade A flammable liquid.
(B) Its Reid Vapor Pressure is 9.4.
(C) The boiling point is 174F.
(D) It is an aromatic hydrocarbon.
337.
o
o
(2.2.1.1C-7) What is the minimum number of fire axes required on a vessel of 900 GT?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
338.
(2.2.1.6-26) You are on a containership. Which statement about the stowage of hazardous
materials in containers is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) Packages of liquids within a container should be stowed on top of packages of solids to
prevent crushing.
(B) The containers provide automatic segregation of hazardous materials except for class A
explosives.
(C) All packages within a container must be marked "This End Up" to indicate the correct
stowage.
(D) A refrigerated container with a fuel tank containing a flammable liquid must be stowed on
deck.
339.
o
o
o
(A) Organic Peroxide

(B) Oxidizer
(C) Corrosive
(D) Infectious substance

340.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.7E1-3) Which statement about the carriage of solid hazardous materials in bulk is TRUE?
(A) Hazardous materials that require separation must not be handled at the same time.
(B) A certificate issued by ABS will be accepted as evidence that the vessel complies with all
applicable loading regulations.
(C) The shipping papers can be used in lieu of a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for a vessel carrying
solid hazardous materials in bulk.
(D) A special permit issued by the Coast Guard is required before bulk solid materials that require
special handling are loaded
341.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.1C-4) Which of the following is considered to be a B-II portable fire extinguisher?

(A) 2-1/2 gallon foam
(B) 2 pound dry chemical
(C) 4 pound carbon dioxide
342.
(2.2.1.1C-9) How many fire axes should be carried by a 700 GT cargo vessel, navigating the
Great Lakes?
o
o
o
(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 6
343.
(2.2.1.1C-8) What are the type and number of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside
and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit?
o
o
(A) one A-I

(B) two A-IIs
(C) one B-II
(D) one C-II

Deck General
September 2015
344.
(2.2.1.10-1) On a vessel proceeding from a very cold to a warm climate with a cargo of a
nonhygroscopic nature in the holds, which is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) Danger of heavy ship sweat exists; constant and vigorous ventilation is required.
(B) The possibility of any sweat problem, either cargo or ship, is remote.
(C) There is little danger of ship's sweat, slight possibility of cargo sweat; moderate ventilation is
needed.
(D) There is danger of heavy cargo sweat if outside air is introduced by ventilation.
345.
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-22) When should a crane boom-up so high that the boom hits the stops?
(A) Only if the load has not exceeded the limit at that angle
(B) Only if necessary to perform a given lift
(C) Never
(D) Only if the load contains non-hazardous materials
346.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-30) What is the TLV of cyclohexanol?

(A) 20 ppm
(B) 30 ppm
(C) 40 ppm
(D) 50 ppm
347.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5C-13) Mousing a cargo hook with marline or small line __________.

(A) protects the hook from the sling ring
(B) prevents the sling ring from coming out of the hook
(C) increases the lifting capacity of the hook
348.
(2.2.1.7A-8) You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of butyric acid,
propylene oxide, and octyl alcohol. Which statement is true?
o
o
(A) Butyric acid is incompatible with octyl alcohol but not propylene oxide.
(B) Octyl alcohol is incompatible with both butyric acid and propylene oxide.
(C) Propylene oxide may not be stowed in a tank adjacent to butyric acid.
(D) All of these cargoes are compatible.

Deck General
September 2015
349.
(2.2.1.3-1) While loading cargo, a white trimming light on the starboard side comes on. This
indicates that __________.
o
o
(A) the chutes in No. 1 hold should be directed to the starboard side
(B) the vessel has a list of about 1` to starboard
(C) a severe list to starboard has developed and all loading should cease
(D) the chutes should be directed to the starboard side
350.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7A-13) Which product(s) is(are) compatible with the product ethylene cyanohydrin?
(A) Isocyanates
(B) Sulfuric acid
(C) Nitric acid
(D) Ammonia
351.
(2.2.1.7D-53) You are transferring a cargo of ethyl chloride and a small amount spills into the
water around your vessel. What does the Chemical Data Guide indicate is the solubility of ethyl
chloride in water?
o
o
(A) negligible
(B) slight
(C) moderate
(D) complete
352.
(2.2.1.7D-35) When heated to breakdown, tetraethyl or tetramethyl lead compounds emit highly
toxic fumes of __________.
o
o
(A) hydrogen gas

(B) lead
(C) bromide
(D) phosgene
353.
o
o
(2.2.1.5C-10) The latch of a safety hook __________.

(A) prevents the sling ring from coming out of the hook if there is a strain on the sling ring
(B) increases the strength of the hook
(C) prevents the sling ring from coming out of the hook if the strain is abruptly eased

Deck General
September 2015
354.
(2.2.1.1C-6) The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. Which of the
following would fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection?
o
o
(A) One B-I extinguisher

(B) One B-II extinguisher
(C) One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
(D) One B-V extinguisher
355.
(2.2.1.5E-1) Which part of a conventional cargo gear rig provides for vertical control and
positioning of a boom?
o
o
(A) Spider band

(B) Topping lift
(C) Cargo whip
(D) Gooseneck fitting
356.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-11) What does item "G" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?
(A) Turntable
(B) Pedestal
(C) Mast
(D) Pillar
357.
(2.2.1.1C-10) What are the required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be
carried, in the vicinity of the radio room exit, on a tank vessel on an international voyage?
o
o
o
(A) one B-I

(B) one B-II
(C) one C-I
(D) one C-II
358.
(2.2.1.6-8) Because of the arrangement of the cell guides, the MOST important factor while
loading containers is the __________.
o
o
(A) weight of the container

(B) size of the shoreside crane
(C) list of the vessel
(D) contents of the container

359.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.7D-14) Flammable liquids should have what kind of label?

(A) White
(B) Skull and crossbones
(C) Yellow
(D) Red
360.
(2.2.1.1C-11) What are the required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for
staterooms on cargo vessels?
o
o
o
(A) one B-I

(B) one C-I
(C) one A-I
(D) none required
361.
(2.2.1.5D1-25) The signal man assisting the crane operator first taps the top of his head with his
fist and then proceeds to use regular signals. This is the signal to __________.
o
o
o
(A) use the whip line

(B) use the auxiliary line
(C) proceed slowly
(D) use the main hoist
362.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.10-13) A heated bulkhead has the effect on a hygroscopic commodity of __________.

(A) causing moisture to accumulate against the bulkhead
(B) raising the vapor pressure of the commodity
(C) lowering the dew point of the air
(D) lowering the vapor pressure of the commodity
363.
o
o
(2.2.1.2A-14) What is a wet cargo?

(A) A cargo that contains hygroscopic moisture
(B) A cargo particularly susceptible to damage by moisture
(C) A canned or bottled liquid such as beer
(D) A liquid cargo carried in the deep tanks

Deck General
September 2015
364.
(2.2.1.10A-6) Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 84 and the wet bulb
o
o
o
(A) 71%
(B) 79%
(C) 81%
(D) 88%
365.
(2.2.1.1C-12) The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill
the requirements for fire protection?
o
o
(A) One B-I extinguisher

(B) One B-II extinguisher
(C) One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
(D) One B-V extinguisher
366.
(2.2.1.1C-14) What are the required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for a
galley having an area of 3,500 square feet?
o
o
(A) one B-II

(B) one C-II
(C) two B-II's or C-II's
(D) two A-II's or B-II's
367.
(2.2.1.7C-15) Your vessel is handling Class 1 explosive material. In accordance with U.S.
regulations which of the following is true?
o
o
o
(A) a fire hose must be in the vicinity of the repair work and shall produce an effective stream of
water at 100 psi
(B) repair work can only be conducted in a cargo space containing Class 1 material if approved
by the Chief Engineer
(C) repairs that require riveting can be carried out in a cargo space containing Class 1 material
(D) repairs that produce spark cannot be carried out in cargo spaces containing Class 1 materials
368.
o
o
o

(A) Never exceed crane manufacturer's limits concerning the safe working loads of cargo jibs.
(B) Cargo loaded into vehicles and/or containers prior to lifting needs to be properly secured so
as to prevent shifting during transport.
(C) Lifting points on all equipment must be safely checked prior to commencing a lift.
(D) All the above

369.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.1C-15) On a cargo vessels which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable?

(A) B-III
(B) C-II
(C) A-II
370.
(2.2.1.7D-1) Another name for coal naphtha that would appear on a dangerous cargo manifest is
__________.
o
o
(A) tar
(B) toluene
(C) benzene
(D) middle oil
371.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.1E-5) What is required to be posted in the pilothouse of a vessel?

(A) Company Mission Statement
(B) Maneuvering Characteristics
(C) Official Crew List
(D) Certificate of Inspection
372.
(2.2.1.1C-16) On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of carbon dioxide into any
"tight" space shall be completed within what time period?
o
o
(A) 1 minute
(B) 2 minutes
(C) 4 minutes
(D) 6 minutes
373.
(2.2.1.7D-48) Severe exposure to chlorine gas can be fatal. Chlorine gas is primarily a
__________.
o
o
(A) skin burning agent

(B) blood poisoning agent
(C) respiratory irritant
(D) nerve paralyzing irritant

374.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.2A-20) The stowage factor for a cargo is based upon __________.

(A) one short metric ton
(B) one short ton
(C) one long ton
(D) one long metric ton
375.
(2.2.1.1C-17) In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not be used for any other
purpose EXCEPT __________.
o
o
o
(A) in connection with the fire-detecting system

(B) in connection with the water sprinkler system
(C) to ventilate the space
(D) to run the emergency wiring to the space
376.
(2.2.1.3-5) When loading a cargo of taconite, proper sequencing of loading by hatch number is
necessary to __________.
o
o
(A) control list

(B) prevent excessive longitudinal stresses
(C) provide the proper trim
(D) prevent negative stability from developing
377.
(2.2.1.4-6) You are lifting a 3 ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an
angle of 60 to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and
determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom.
o
o
(A) 1 1/8 inch

(B) 1 1/2 inch
(C) 1 3/4 inch
(D) 2 inch
378.
(2.2.1.1C-18) The space containing the cylinders for the carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguishing
system must be designed to preclude an anticipated ambient temperature over __________.
o
o
(A) 80F
(B) 95F
(C) 130F
(D) 150F

Deck General
September 2015
379.
(2.2.1.5D2-24) For any given pedestal crane, when the boom is lengthened, the lifting capacity is
__________.
o
o
(A) increased
(B) decreased
(C) eliminated
(D) unchanged
380.
(2.2.1.1C-19) CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they are stored must
__________.
o
o
(A) have an audible alarm

(B) NOT contain more than 200 pounds of CO2
(C) be automatically operated by a heat actuator
381.
(2.2.1.1C-23) On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how many international

shore connection flange(s) must be provided?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
382.
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-19) Nonflammable gases should have what kind of label?

(A) Skull and crossbones
(B) Red
(C) Green
(D) White
383.
(2.2.1.5D2-15) The load chart of a crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with
boom length to determine the __________.
o
o
(A) maximum counter weight required

(B) minimum horsepower required
(C) allowable load
(D) hoist rope strength

384.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.2B3-7) What does it mean to "shore up" the main deck for the stowage of deck cargo?
(A) strengthen the main deck by placing pillars underneath it in the tween-decks
(B) package the cargo in wooden crates so it will not damage the deck
(C) distribute the weight of the cargo by placing fore-and-aft planks on the main deck
(D) weld pad eyes on deck in proper position to secure the cargo
385.
(2.2.1.10-6) Sweat damage in a hatch full of canned goods in cartons will occur when the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) dew point is lower than the temperature of the cargo

(B) air temperature is higher than the temperature of the cargo
(C) air temperature is lower than the temperature of the cargo
(D) dew point is higher than the temperature of the cargo
386.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.2A-8) Damage to cargo caused by dust is known as __________.

(A) oxidation
(B) contamination
(C) tainting
(D) vaporization
387.
(2.2.1.1C-20) Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces, paint lockers and tanks
may be located within those spaces when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed
__________.
o
o
(A) 150 lbs

(B) 300 lbs
(C) 450 lbs
(D) 600 lbs
388.
(2.2.1.4-3) The deck load capacity of a compartment into which you intend to load a cargo of soft
brick is 380 lbs. per sq. ft. The stowage factor of the brick is 21.3. Disregarding broken stowage,
what is the maximum height the brick may be stacked without endangering the structure?
o
o
(A) 1.7 feet

(B) 3.6 feet
(C) 5.0 feet
(D) 7.1 feet

Deck General
September 2015
389.
(2.2.1.1C-21) The number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each cargo space on a cargo
vessel is equal to __________.
o
o
o
(A) the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 100
(B) one pound of CO2 per cubic foot of space
(C) one pound of CO2 per square foot of deck area
(D) the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 30
390.
(2.2.1.7D-83) Which extinguishing agent is recommended in the Chemical Data Guide for use on
a carbon disulfide fire?
o
o
o
(A) Chemical foam

(B) Water fog
(C) Alcohol foam
(D) Dry chemical
391.
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-37) What is classified as a combustible liquid?

(A) Carbon tetrachloride
(B) Ethyl alcohol
(C) Tetraethylene glycol
(D) Acetaldehyde
392.
o
o
(A) The thrust on the boom is greater at 20.

(B) The stress on the heel block is greater at 60.
(C) The stress on the head block is greater at 60.
(D) The angle of elevation does not change the stresses in the masthead fairlead for the topping
lift.
393.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-41) Triethylene glycol fires may be extinguished by __________.

(A) carbon dioxide
(B) dry chemical
(C) alcohol foam

Deck General
September 2015
394.
(2.2.1.1C-22) You have determined that a cargo space on a freight vessel is 45 feet by 36 feet by
62 feet. How many pounds of carbon dioxide is required for this space?
o
o
(A) 1674
(B) 2511
(C) 3348
(D) 5022
395.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5C-15) A spreader bar is used to __________.

(A) protect the slings
(B) protect the upper part of a load
(C) increase the lifting capacity
(D) increase the lifting radius
396.
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-65) What is/are the advantage(s) of cranes over conventional cargo booms?
(A) Cranes are able to pick up and drop loads over a greater spotting area
(B) Increased safety because the deck is clear of running and standing rigging
(C) Simplicity of operation of the crane by its operator
397.
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-65) What is the flash point of iso-Hexane?

(A) 20Centigrade
(B) 68Fahrenheit
(C) -10Fahrenheit
(D) 152Centigrade
398.
(2.2.1.7D-36) You are loading propanolamine and spill a small quantity on deck. According to the
Chemical Data Guide, you would expect its odor to be __________.
o
o
o
(A) sweet
(B) similar to turpentine
(C) similar to ammonia
(D) fishy

Deck General
September 2015
399.
(2.2.1.1E-10) Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is
designated as boat number _________.
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 2 STARBOARD
(C) 3
(D) 4
400.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-13) The label required for magnesium scrap is __________.

(A) oxidizer
(B) yellow
(C) corrosive
401.
(2.2.1.1C-24) What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 2,000
GT?
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
402.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-32) Which of the following product(s) would be classified as grade E?

(A) Bunker C
(B) Kerosene
(C) Gasoline
403.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.1C-25) What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 900 GT?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Deck General
September 2015
404.
(2.2.1.1C-26) The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to
provide access __________.
o
o
o
(A) on each level of the accommodation space

(B) as close as possible to the house
(C) on the main deck
(D) to each side of the vessel
405.
(2.2.1.5D2-45) During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown
operations?
o
o
(A) Bunkering
(B) High winds
(C) More than 3 list
(D) Potable water spill on deck
406.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-90) An example of a grade D product is __________.

(A) kerosene
(B) heavy fuel oil
(C) aviation gas grade 115/145
(D) commercial gasoline
407.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-78) According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is a characteristic of allyl chloride?
(A) It is chemically unstable
(B) It may be stored in steel tanks
(C) It has sour odor.
(D) It is classified as a grade B poison.
408.
(2.2.1.2A-18) The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside of the side shell, the
underside of the deck, and the tank top is known as the __________.
o
o
(A) deadweight space

(B) grain cubic
(C) measurement space
(D) gross tonnage

409.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.10-8) Which data can NOT be found on a moisture equilibrium chart?

(A) Moisture content
(B) Vapor pressure
(C) Wet bulb temperature
(D) Dry bulb temperature
410.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.3-16) Bulk cargo refers to __________.

(A) cargo which requires refrigeration
(B) homogeneous cargo not enclosed in a container
(C) cargo which is very dense
(D) cargo which occupies a large volume of space
411.
(2.2.1.1C-31) Aboard a cargo vessel, the carbon dioxide supply used in a fixed extinguishing
system MUST at least be sufficient for what space(s)?
o
o
o
(A) the space requiring the largest amount

(B) all cargo spaces
(C) all the spaces of a vessel
(D) the engine room and largest cargo space
412.
(2.2.1.1C-33) Which of the following is a requirement of the lifeline which is part of a fireman's
outfit?
o
o
o
(A) it must be not less than 50 feet in length

(B) it must be made of steel or bronze wire rope
(C) it must be corrosion resistant
413.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.1E-16) The Great Lakes Edition of the Notice to Mariners is published __________.
(A) weekly by the 9th Coast Guard District
(B) monthly by the Army Corps of Engineers
(C) monthly by the Naval Oceanographic office
(D) biweekly by the Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard

Deck General
September 2015
414.
(2.2.1.7A-7) You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of
ethanolamine, methyl acrylate, and glycerine. Which statement is true?
o
o
o
(A) Glycerine is compatible with both of the other cargoes.

(B) Glycerine may be stowed adjacent to methyl acrylate but must be segregated from
ethanolamine.
(C) All of these cargoes are mutually incompatible.
(D) Methyl acrylate and ethanolamine are compatible but both must be segregated from
glycerine.
415.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-7) What is an explosion hazard when exposed to flame?

(A) Formic acid
(B) Tallow
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Toluene
416.
(2.2.1.5F-2) Which device is designed to automatically hold the load if power should fail to an
electric winch?
o
o
o
(A) Electromagnetic brake

(B) Hand brake
(C) Pneumatic brake
(D) Motor controller
417.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-49) Which wire rope purchases may be used with a 30-ton pedestal crane?
(A) Luff
(B) Rider block
(C) Hoist
418.
(2.2.1.1C-34) Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces
that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?
o
o
(A) The spaces shall have designated smoking areas.

(B) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.
(C) The spaces are prohibited from being fitted with fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems.

Deck General
September 2015
419.
(2.2.1.1C-35) Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces
which are "specially suitable for vehicles"?
o
o
o
(A) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system.
(B) The Commandant may permit the installation of an approved water sprinkler extinguishing
system.
(C) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.
420.
(2.2.1.7D-77) According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is the Reid Vapor Pressure of tertbutylamine?
o
o
o
(A) 11 (psig)
(B) 12 (psig)
(C) 13 (psig)
(D) 14 (psig)
421.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.1D-1) Which item may be substituted for, in the fireman's outfit, on a cargo vessel?
(A) flame safety lamp
(B) fire ax
(C) rigid helmet
(D) flashlight
422.
(2.2.1.5A-16) For a given weight of cargo, the stress on the heel block of a cargo boom
__________.
o
o
o
(A) increases as the cargo closes the head while hoisting

(B) increases if the cargo runner is doubled up
(C) is determined by the thrust stresses on the boom
(D) decreases as the boom is topped to a greater angle
423.
(2.2.1.5A-11) The safe working load for the assembled cargo gear and the minimum angle to the
horizontal for which the gear is designed shall be marked on the __________.
o
o
o
(A) heel of the boom

(B) mast or king post
(C) deck
(D) head of the boom

Deck General
September 2015
424.
o
o
o
(A) 75%
(B) 81%
(C) 84%
(D) 88%
425.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-31) Grade E combustible liquids are those having flash points of __________.
(A) 80F or less
(B) 150F or greater
(C) greater than 115F and less than 150F
(D) greater than 80F and less than 115F
426.
(2.2.1.5F-6) If a hydraulic pump on a winch accidentally stops while hoisting, the load will stay
suspended because __________.
o
o
(A) the control lever will move to the stop position

(B) a centrifugal counterweight counteracts the force of gravity.
(C) a check valve will close and prevent reverse circulation
(D) the electric pump motor will cut out
427.
(2.2.1.1D-5) Under the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is TRUE concerning
fireman's outfits?
o
o
(A) If a vessel carries two outfits, they may be stored in the same location.
(B) Each fireman's outfit shall contain a flame safety lamp of an approved type.
(C) Each fireman's outfit shall contain a fresh-air breathing apparatus.
428.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.6-20) The weight of the container and its contents is supported on deck by what part(s)?
(A) Four lower corner castings
(B) Bottom, side, and end rails
(C) Bottom flooring, side, and end rails
(D) Bottom flooring only

Deck General
September 2015
429.
(2.2.1.1D-4) On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's
outfit?
o
o
(A) Self-contained breathing apparatus with a lifeline attached

(B) Rigid helmet, boots, and gloves
(C) Combustible gas indicator
(D) Flame safety lamp
430.
(2.2.1.1E-11) When can a work vest be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the
required lifesaving gear?
o
o
(A) When stowed away from the ring buoys

(B) A work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket.
(C) When it is approved by the Coast Guard
(D) When working near or over the water
431.
(2.2.1.4-12) You are lifting a 5-ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an
o
o
(A) 1 3/8 inch

(B) 1 1/2 inch
(C) 1 3/4 inch
(D) 1 7/8 inch
432.
o
o
(2.2.1.5C-11) The best way to lift many small articles aboard your vessel is with a __________.
(A) spreader
(B) snotter
(C) pallet
(D) barrel hook
433.
(2.2.1.7D-42) According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is NOT
recommended for use on a retinol fire?
o
o
o
(A) CO2
(B) Dry chemical
(C) Foam
(D) Water spray

Deck General
September 2015
434.
(2.2.1.5E-4) The wire rope used for cargo handling on board your vessel has a safe working load
of eight tons. It shall be able to withstand a breaking test load of __________.
o
o
(A) 32 tons
(B) 40 tons
(C) 48 tons
(D) 64 tons
435.
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-70) Which fire extinguishing agent can NOT be used on an ethylenediamine?

(A) Alcohol foam
(B) Dry chemical powder
(C) Water foam
(D) Water fog
436.
(2.2.1.2A-10) Cargo that is highly susceptible to damage by tainting from odorous cargo is called
__________.
o
o
(A) dry cargo

(B) delicate cargo
(C) immune cargo
(D) clean cargo
437.
(2.2.1.1D-3) An accommodation ladder or other equally safe and convenient means must be
provided for a pilot whenever the distance from the sea level is more than __________.
o
o
(A) 20 feet
(B) 30 feet
(C) 40 feet
(D) 50 feet
438.
(2.2.1.1D-6) Which statement is TRUE concerning vessels over 1600 gross tons certificated for
service solely on the Great Lakes?
o
o
(A) They must have gyro compasses.

(B) They must have magnetic compasses.
(C) They must carry a deep-sea hand lead.
(D) All of the above statements are TRUE.

Deck General
September 2015
439.
(2.2.1.5D2-51) Which of the following statements is/are TRUE concerning cranes being installed
on the centerline of vessels?
o
o
o
(A) One crane is able to work both sides of the ship.

(B) One crane is able to work one end of two adjacent hatches.
(C) They are more economical and weigh less.
440.
(2.2.1.10A-1) Using the available references determine the dew point when the dry bulb
temperature is 74F (23C) and the wet bulb temperature is 60F (16C).
o
o
o
(A) 14F
(B) 20F
(C) 28F
(D) 50F
441.
to cargo when the damage arises out of __________.
o
o
(A) fire caused by lightning

(B) inherent vice
(C) overloading
(D) poor stowage of cargo in a container
442.
o
o
o
(B) Each single boom is of the partial-level luffing type and is capable of limited rotation.
(C) An independent slew drive system rotates the turntable.
443.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.2A-4) Odorous cargoes are those that __________.

(A) are susceptible to damage by tainting
(B) give off fumes that may damage other cargoes
(C) are liquid, but in containers
(D) are exceptionally dusty and leave a residue

Deck General
September 2015
444.
(2.2.1.7C-1) Which statement is NOT true concerning the stowage of class 1 explosives?
o
o
(A) Class 1.4 explosives must be "separated from" a stow of class 8 corrosive materials.
(B) Class 1.4 explosives may not be stowed in the same hold with class 6.1 poisons.
(C) Class 1.4 explosives must be "separated from" a stow of class 5.1 oxidizing materials.
(D) Class 1.1 explosives may be stowed with class 9 dangerous substances
445.
o
o
(2.2.1.6-19) What provides the majority of strength to an aluminum-sided container?

(A) Aluminum side and end panels
(B) Corner fittings
(C) Framework, primarily the corner posts
(D) Framework and siding acting as a girder
446.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-62) Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire?

(A) Water fog
(B) Any isoprene inhibitor
(C) Absorbent C
(D) Foam
447.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.2B4-5) A shore is a piece of securing dunnage that __________.

(A) is placed on the deck under the cargo to distribute its weight evenly
(B) is also known as a "distance piece"
(C) is run horizontally from a support to the cargo
(D) runs from a low supporting level up to the cargo at an angle
448.
(2.2.1.1D-7) A vessel in Great Lakes service shall carry anchors in accordance with standards
established by the __________.
o
o
o
(A) underwriter of the vessel

(B) Canadian Coast Guard
(C) U.S. Coast Guard

Deck General
September 2015
449.
(2.2.1.1E-1) Cargo vessels being navigated, and fitted with emergency lighting and power
systems, shall have their emergency systems tested at least once __________.
o
o
(A) a month
(B) in each week
(C) in every 6 months
(D) in every 12 months
450.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.6-6) Which statement concerning the carriage of containers is TRUE?

(A) Deck load calculations must take into account the square footage of the entire container
bottom.
(B) When stowed on deck of a break bulk ship, the bottom of the container must be evenly
supported throughout.
(C) The Chief Mate and Master of a container ship should have the proposed stowage plan ready
for the stevedore upon arrival in port.
(D) With tiered containers, a 40-foot container may be stowed on top of two 20-foot containers.
451.
(2.2.1.1E-2) Who must ensure that the emergency lighting and power systems on cargo vessels
are operated at least weekly?
o
o
(A) Deck officer assigned

(B) Master
(C) Chief Engineer
(D) Engineering officer assigned
452.
(2.2.1.7D-38) If you came into contact with nitrobenzene while disconnecting the cargo hose, you
should be aware that it is __________.
o
o
o
(A) a nerve poison

(B) a blood poison
(C) highly toxic when absorbed through the skin

Deck General
September 2015
453.
(2.2.1.1E-13) Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station
No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The height of the letters and figures must be at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1/2 inch

(B) 1 inch
(C) 1-1/2 inches
(D) 2 inches
454.
(2.2.1.2B5-1) In preparation for receiving chilled reefer cargo, the reefer space has been
precooled for over twenty-four hours. Loading may begin when the space has been cooled to a
temperature between __________.
o
o
(A) -10F (-23C) and +10F (-12C)

(B) 12F (-11C) and 20F (-7C)
(C) 28F (-2C) and 40F ( 4C)
(D) 42F (6C) and 55F (13C)
455.
(2.2.1.1E-3) On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, regulations require that
__________.
o
o
o
(A) the emergency generator and lighting system be tested by starting and operating within 12
hours prior to departure
(B) a lifeboat drill be held within 12 hours prior to departure
(C) fire pumps be tested by starting within 12 hours prior to departure
(D) the entire steering gear be tested within 12 hours prior to departure
456.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-29) Which action(s) is/are included in crane operations?

(A) Normal boom stowage and shutdown operations
(B) Emergency shutdown operation
(C) Removing booms from stowage

Deck General
September 2015
457.
stresses in the rig with the boom at 20 to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60 to
o
o
o
(A) The stress on the masthead fairlead for the topping lift is greater at 20.
(B) The stress on the heel block is less at 20.
(C) The thrust on the boom is greater at 20.
(D) The stress on the topping lift is greater at 60.
458.
(2.2.1.4-23) You must load as much of a large shipment of case goods as possible into a hold
which has 24,400 cubic feet of space. Each case measures 2 feet by 2 feet by 4 feet and weighs
448 pounds. If you allow for broken stowage of 15%, how many long tons can be loaded?
o
o
o
(A) 259
(B) 207
(C) 351
(D) 54
459.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-25) The boom indicator on a crane will indicate the __________.

(A) direction of the boom
(B) lifting capacity of the boom
(C) length of the boom
(D) angle of the boom
460.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-74) To what chemical family does chlorallylene belong?

(A) Substituted allyl
(B) Esters
(C) Alcohols
(D) Glycol ethers
461.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.1E-7) Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?
(A) Lifeboat oar
(B) Immersion suit
(C) Life preserver
(D) Hand-portable fire extinguisher

462.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.2A-6) Which is an example of cargo damage caused by inherent vice?

(A) Stevedore damage
(B) Heating of grain
(C) Wear and tear
(D) Sublimation of chemicals
463.
(2.2.1.5A-13) The main advantage and chief characteristic of a Steulchen boom is that it can be
__________.
o
o
(A) collared to the mast

(B) swung from one hatch to the adjacent hatch
(C) operated by one winchman
(D) cradled on deck
464.
(2.2.1.1E-9) The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon
(EPIRB) is __________.
o
o
o
(A) secured inside the wheelhouse

(B) tested annually
(C) secured in the emergency locker
(D) tested monthly
465.
(2.2.1.1E-12) In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, Coast Guard approved buoyant work
vests __________.
o
o
o
(A) should not be stowed where they could be confused with life jackets in an emergency
(B) may be used as a substitute for approved life preservers during routine drills, but never during
an emergency
(C) should be stowed in engineering spaces in lieu of approved life jackets because they are less
bulky and permit free movement in confined spaces
466.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-57) What does a jib refer to on a crane?

(A) Topping lift
(B) Boom
(C) Liftline
(D) Control cab

Deck General
September 2015
467.
(2.2.1.7D-3) You are loading a cargo tank on your container ship. The tank displays the red label
as shown in illustration D023DG below. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
(A) The tank contains an oxidizing material.

(B) The tank's volume is 1077 cubic feet.
(C) The tank contains propylene.
(D) There are three tanks in the shipment.
468.
o
o
(2.2.1.5A-7) The head block is located _________.

(A) at the base of the boom
(B) at the head of the mast
(C) at the head of the boom
(D) on top of the jack staff
469.
(2.2.1.5F-5) If an attempt is made to hoist a load that exceeds the capacity of an electric winch,
an overload safety device causes a circuit breaker to cut off the current to the winch motor
__________.
o
o
(A) when the line pull reaches 99% of the rated winch capacity
(B) after a short build-up of torque
(C) after the line pull exceeds the rated winch capacity
(D) immediately
470.
(2.2.1.5D2-32) Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding a twin pedestal crane
set?
o
o
o
(A) The cranes may be operated independently.

(B) When twinned, the crane rotation on the foundation assembly is unlimited.
(C) The cranes may be interconnected for twin operation.
471.
(2.2.1.1E-15) According to regulations when, if ever, may cargo hatches on Great Lakes vessels,
with more than 6 feet of freeboard, be left uncovered or open while the vessel is being navigated?
o
o
o
(A) At the discretion of the Master, for reasonable purposes

(B) On the authority of the Bosun
(C) If a Mate deems it necessary for ship's maintenance
(D) The hatch may never be uncovered

Deck General
September 2015
472.
(2.2.1.5D2-7) When a cargo boom or crane is rated at varying capacities, there will be a table at
the controls which relates safe working load to __________.
o
o
o
(A) cable strength

(B) boom strength
(C) winch speed
(D) load radius
473.
(2.2.1.2B5-4) If reefer spaces are not properly cleaned prior to loading cargo, it will most likely
cause __________.
o
o
o
(A) mold to develop on commodities

(B) contamination of the insulation in the space
(C) malfunction of the refrigeration equipment
474.
(2.2.1.7A-12) According to the Chemical Data Guide, which reactive group(s) is/are not
compatible with the products polybutene and o-xylene?
o
o
o
(A) Phenols, cresols

(B) Alcohols, glycols
(C) Amides
(D) Nitric acid
475.
(2.2.1.10-2) Your vessel is going from a warm climate to a cold climate with a hygroscopic cargo.
o
o
o
(A) There is danger of heavy cargo sweat if you ventilate.

(B) You should ventilate; there is little danger of ship sweat, but a possibility of cargo sweat.
(C) There is little danger of any sweat problem.
(D) You must ventilate constantly and vigorously to combat ship sweat.
476.
(2.2.1.10-3) Your vessel is loaded with nonhygroscopic cargoes and is going from a cold to a
warm climate. You should __________.
o
o
o
(A) not ventilate the cargo holds

(B) start the exhaust blowers
(C) ventilate the cargo holds
(D) start the intake blowers

477.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.2A-15) Which term describes goods having a stowage factor below 40?
(A) "Heavy-lift" cargo
(B) "Deadweight" cargo
(C) "Measurement" cargo
(D) "Full-and-down" cargo
478.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.10-4) Hygroscopic cargoes should be ventilated when __________.

(A) the outside dew point is 60F (16C) and the cargo temperature is 54F (12C)
(B) going from a warm to a cold climate
(C) the dew point of the air in the hold is very low
(D) the dew point of the outside air is greater than the dew point of the air in the hold
479.
(2.2.1.4-10) The amount of strain on each runner of a married fall system lifting 2000 lbs. when
the angle made by the legs is 90 would be __________.
o
o
(A) 1000 lbs.

(B) 1154 lbs.
(C) 1414 lbs.
(D) 2000 lbs.
480.
(2.2.1.10-5) Sweat damage will occur in a cargo hold containing cased machinery when the
__________.
o
o
(A) air temperature of the hold is higher than the temperature of the outside air
(B) dew point of the outside air is lower than the temperature of the cargo
(C) dew point of the hold is higher than the temperature of the ship's skin
(D) outside air temperature is colder than the temperature of the cargo
481.
(2.2.1.4-20) You are going to load bales of wool having a stowage factor of 96 in #3 lower hold
which has a bale cubic of 84,000. How many tons of wool can be stowed in the compartment?
o
o
o
(A) 577
(B) 602
(C) 654
(D) 875

Deck General
September 2015
482.
(2.2.1.10-9) When the dew point of the outside air is higher than the dew point of the air in the
cargo hold, you should __________.
o
o
(A) energize the exhaust blowers

(B) not ventilate the cargo holds
(D) energize the intake blowers
483.
(2.2.1.5C-3) Which is a TRUE statement concerning the examining of cargo equipment at the
time of a vessels Inspection for Certification.
o
o
(A) Cargo booms must be weight tested at this time by the U.S. Coast Guard.
(B) No test at this time is required.
(C) Cargo booms must be weight tested at this time by the National Cargo Bureau.
(D) Cargo booms must be weight tested at this time by the American Bureau of Shipping.
484.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-29) What is the threshold limit value (TLV) for a product of PHTHALIC ANHYDRIDE?
(A) 1 ppm
(B) 2 ppm
(C) 3 ppm
(D) 4 ppm
485.
(2.2.1.10-10) When the dew point of the outside air is lower than or equal to the dew point of the
air in the cargo hold, you should __________.
o
o
(A) shut down the exhaust blowers

(B) secure all ventilation
(D) shut down the intake blowers
486.
(2.2.1.4-9) You are loading a cargo of cases into a hold which has a bale cubic of 44,000. The
cargo consists of cases measuring 4 ft by 2 ft by 1.5 ft. Estimated broken stowage is 15%. What is
the maximum number of cases which can be stowed in the hold?
o
o
(A) 3096
(B) 3116
(C) 3136
(D) 3156

Deck General
September 2015
487.
(2.2.1.5D2-14) Which of the following is/are the optional component(s) of a twin crane set as
shown in illustration D047DG?
o
o
(A) Boom assembly

(B) Hook block assembly
(C) Rider block tagline system
488.
(2.2.1.5D2-20) On a ship's crane, the load chart relates the allowable load to the combination of
the boom length and __________.
o
o
(A) boom strength

(B) winch speed
(C) load radius
(D) cable strength
489.
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-36) Which statement is FALSE regarding the operation of a crane?

(A) The cargo block is raised and lowered by the hoisting winch.
(B) The crane jib is raised and lowered by the luffing winch.
(C) The cargo block is raised and lowered by the luffing winch.
490.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.3-18) Which statement is correct concerning the carriage of coal in bulk?

(A) Dunnage should be placed against ship's sides and around stanchions.
(B) Coal should be vented with surface ventilation only.
(C) Through ventilation, as well as surface ventilation, should be provided whenever possible.
(D) Because of its inherent vice, coal should not be loaded wet.
491.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-61) What is another description for a tandem crane lift?

(A) Single crane hoisting 30 tons
(B) Quad lift hoisting 120 tons
(C) Twin cranes hoisting 60 tons

492.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.10-11) Which factor is MOST important in preventing sweat damage within a cargo hold?
(A) Outside air temperature
(B) Dew point of the outside atmosphere
(C) Dew point of the cargo hold
(D) Temperature of the cargo
493.
(2.2.1.10-12) Given a dry bulb temperature of 78F and wet bulb temperature of 66.5F, the dew
point is __________.
o
o
(A) 47.0F
(B) 51.5F
(C) 59.0F
(D) 70.0F
494.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-63) Most pedestal crane power is provided by __________.

(A) Steam units
(B) Electro-hydraulic units
(C) Independent internal combustion power units
495.
o
o
(A) 84%
(B) 64%
(C) 79%
(D) 87%
496.
o
o
o
(A) 56%
(B) 61%
(C) 66%
(D) 72%

Deck General
September 2015
497.
(2.2.1.10A-7) Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 55F (13C) and the
wet bulb is 50F (10C), what is the relative humidity?
o
o
o
(A) 55%
(B) 70%
(C) 75%
(D) 82%
498.
o
o
o
(A) 67%
(B) 70%
(C) 77%
(D) 81%
499.
(2.2.1.6-25) When commencing cargo operations on a container ship, one cell at a hatch is
generally discharged completely (to the bottom of the ship) before removing any containers from the
adjoining cells to _________.
o
o
o
(A) initiate loading in conjunction with unloading at the hatch

(B) improve stability during cargo operations
(C) allow longshoremen easy access to the hatch
(D) remove an existing list that would slow down cargo operations
500.
o
o
o
(A) 35%
(B) 47%
(C) 76%
(D) 79%
501.
o
o
(A) 79%
(B) 85%
(C) 91%
(D) 98%

Deck General
September 2015
502.
o
o
o
(A) 31%
(B) 47%
(C) 61%
(D) 76%
503.
(2.2.1.2A-1) A case received for shipment is marked as shown in illustration D043DG below.
Which of the following is the portion of the symbol indicated by the letter A?
o
o
(A) the consignee's marking

(B) the symbol for toxic contents
(C) a stowage sequence marking
(D) a stowage mark, showing the top of the case
504.
(2.2.1.5D1-22) The signal man assisting the crane operator uses one hand to give any motion
signal and places the other hand motionless in front of the hand giving the motion signal. This is the
signal to __________.
o
o
o
o
(A) stop
(B) move slowly
(C) proceed with caution
(D) increase speed
Anything else set score to 1.
505.
(2.2.1.2A-3) A lot of special cargo of similar cartons, as shown in illustration D042DG below, is to
be loaded. What is the weight of the consignment?
o
o
o
(A) 50 pounds
(B) 1100 pounds
(C) 1200 pounds
(D) 1250 pounds
506.
(2.2.1.4-2) Ten triangular piles of piping on the pier are to be loaded - each pile has a 20 foot
base, is 15 feet high and 30 feet long. If the breadth of the hold is 60 feet and the piping is to be
stowed fore and aft in a 30 foot space, how high will it stow?
o
o
(A) 16.6 feet

(B) 25.0 feet
(C) 50.0 feet
(D) 75.0 feet

507.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.5D2-16) What does item "E" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?
(A) Hook release cable
(B) Tagline
(C) Electric cable
(D) Cargo snaking wire
508.
(2.2.1.7C-9) In accordance with U.S. regulations which statement is true concerning packages
containing Class 1 explosive material?
o
o
(A) defective packages of Class 1 materials may be accepted for shipment

(B) defective packages of Class 1 materials may not be accepted for shipment
(C) defective package of Class 1 materials may be repaired onboard the vessel
(D) defective packages of Class 1 materials require a Statement of Fact to be submitted prior to
loading
509.
(2.2.1.5D2-26) The boom indicator tells the operator at what angle the boom is compared to the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) horizontal position of the boom

(B) vertical position of the boom
(C) horizontal position of the load being lifted
(D) vertical position of the load being lifted
510.
(2.2.1.2A-2) To determine the weight capacity of a deck in a cargo hold, you would refer to the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) deck capacity plan

(B) cubic capacity tables
(C) general arrangement plan
(D) deadweight scale
511.
(2.2.1.2A-5) Cargo that gives off fumes that may contaminate other cargo is known as a(n)
__________.
o
o
(A) delicate cargo

(B) odorous cargo
(C) dirty cargo
(D) toxic cargo

512.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.2A-7) A hygroscopic cargo is defined as a cargo __________.

(A) capable of giving off moisture in the form of a liquid
(B) capable of absorbing moisture in the form of a gas
(C) that is shipped in a liquid state
(D) that will ignite in contact with water
513.
(2.2.1.2A-9) Damage to cargo caused by fumes or vapors from liquids, gases, or solids is known
as __________.
o
o
o
(A) vaporization
(B) oxidation
(C) contamination
(D) tainting
514.
(2.2.1.5D2-33) Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE regarding a twin pedestal crane
set?
o
o
(A) The cranes may be operated independently.

(B) The cranes are powered by independent internal combustion power units.
(C) The cranes may be interconnected for twin operation.
515.
(2.2.1.4-25) The lower hold of your vessel has a bale cubic of 52,000 cu. ft. You will load a cargo
of cases, each weighing 380 lbs. and measuring 3 ft. x 2 ft. x 2 ft. The estimated broken stowage is
15%. How many tons of cases can be loaded?
o
o
(A) 137 tons

(B) 161 tons
(C) 625 tons
(D) 969 tons
516.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.2A-11) Which is characteristic of a "special cargo"?

(A) It is of high value or easily pilferable.
(B) The cargo gives off toxic gases when heated.
(C) Periodic inspection is required while in transit to prevent spoilage.
(D) It must be stowed on deck.

517.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.2A-12) A "wet cargo" refers to __________.

(A) bulk liquids
(B) liquids in containers
(C) cargoes that will cause condensation
(D) a cargo that will be damaged if it gets wet
518.
(2.2.1.4-14) If two falls are attached to lift a one-ton load, what angle between the falls will result
in the stress on each fall being equal to the load being lifted?
o
o
(A) 60
(B) 75
(C) 120
(D) 150
519.
o
o
(2.2.1.6-15) A high cube container would most likely be used to stow __________.
(A) dense bulk cargoes
(B) fragile cargoes
(C) household appliances
(D) heavy industrial machinery
520.
(2.2.1.5C-4) For vessels fitted with cargo gear, an initial test of the units under a proof load shall
be conducted. Subsequent tests and exams of the same nature shall be carried out at what time
interval?
o
o
o
(A) 1 year
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years
521.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.2A-16) A cargo that has a stowage factor over 40 is known as a __________.

(A) hygroscopic cargo
(B) weight cargo
(C) stowage cargo
(D) measurement cargo

Deck General
September 2015
522.
(2.2.1.2A-23) A claim for cargo damages may be held against the ship owner if such damage is
the result of failure of the ship's officers to __________.
o
o
(A) prevent delays due to quarantine restrictions

(B) ensure the fitness and safety of cargo spaces
(C) ensure adequate packaging of the cargo
(D) correct all defects in the ship's construction
523.
(2.2.1.2A-17) The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside faces of the cargo
battens, the lower side of the deck beams, and the top of the tank top ceiling is known as the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) bale cubic

(B) stowage area
(C) deadweight space
(D) gross tonnage
524.
o
o
(2.2.1.2A-19) What is NOT an advantage of filler cargo?

(A) Dunnage costs are reduced.
(B) The hold space has maximum utilization.
(C) Overcarriage is reduced or eliminated.
(D) Voids in the cargo stow are filled.
525.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.2A-21) Which vessel is most likely to be loaded full but not down?
(A) A bulk carrier loaded with steel
(B) A break bulk vessel loaded with palletized cargo
(C) A bulk carrier loaded with heavy ore
(D) A tanker loaded with heavy grain
526.
to a cargo when the damage arises from __________.
o
o
o
(A) unseaworthiness when sailing

(B) insufficient packing
(C) mismanagement of the vessel
(D) quarantine delays

Deck General
September 2015
527.
to a cargo when the damage arises out of __________.
o
o
o
(A) strikes or lockouts

(B) fire caused by fault of the carrier
(C) delays due to seizure of the vessel
(D) improper stowage
528.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5C-2) A pelican hook __________.

(A) is used for extra heavy loads
(B) is used for boat falls
(C) is used for light loads only
(D) can be released while under strain
529.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.2A-28) Which is an example of failure to exercise due diligence?

(A) Sailing with less than 30% reserve fuel oil supply
(B) Overloading
(C) Sailing short of being full and down
(D) Sailing short of union manning requirements
530.
(2.2.1.5C-5) A periodic thorough examination of the cargo gear proves satisfactory. What
percentage of the total gear must be dismantled to determine actual internal condition?
o
o
o
(A) None
(B) 10%
(C) 25%
(D) 100%
531.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.2A-29) What is an example of a fundamental objective of cargo stowage?

(A) Make maximum use of existing dunnage.
(B) Load so the trim does not exceed 3 feet by the stern.
(C) Separate wet and dry cargoes into separate holds.
(D) Prevent overcarriage by block stowage.

532.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.2A-30) "Block stowage" means __________.

(A) stowing all the cargo for a port in the same area
(B) using separation cloths to separate different kinds of cargo
(C) having the cargo on pallets
(D) using port marks on the cargo
533.
(2.2.1.2A-31) The temperature at which water vapor in an atmosphere condenses to a liquid is

known as which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) the dew point

(B) the bubble point
(C) equilibrium
(D) the flash point
534.
(2.2.1.2B3-2) Regulations concerning the stowage, lashing, and securing of timber deck cargoes
aboard general cargo vessels may be found in the __________.
o
o
(A) International Cargo Bureau Regulations

(B) Rules and Regulations for Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels
(C) Load Line Regulations
(D) vessel's classification society rules and regulations
535.
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-55) Pedestal cranes have limit switches to restrict the movement of which function?
(A) Slew rate limits
(B) Luff rate limits
(C) Slew travel limits
(D) Swivel power limits
536.
o
o
(2.2.1.2B3-3) Which material should NOT be used to secure cargo on deck for a voyage?
(A) Steel strapping
(B) Wire rope
(C) Fiber rope
(D) Steel chain

537.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.2B3-4) In the stowage of deck cargo, "cribbing" is __________.

(A) nets placed across the hatch opening to keep the cargo from falling in the hatch
(B) separation pieces used to keep cylinders upright and steady
(C) placed on deck to support the cargo
(D) shims for stowing baled cargo
538.
(2.2.1.5F-1) If an electric cargo winch is being used to lift a draft of cargo and the engine room
loses all power, which will occur?
o
o
(A) The load will fall rapidly to the deck unless the foot brake is engaged.
(B) An electromagnetic brake will hold the load where it is suspended.
(C) A pawl, forced by a spring mechanism, will engage the teeth of the bull gear and hold the
load.
(D) The load will slowly lower to the deck under control of the drag of the winch motor.
539.
(2.2.1.5D2-9) It is the responsibility of the crane operator to, at all times, be aware of the location
of the __________.
o
o
o
(A) load
(B) hook
(C) boom
540.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.2B3-5) "Cribbing" is __________.

(A) cardboard separation pieces placed between deck loads to prevent chafing
(B) a crate in which a deck cargo is packaged
(C) the chains and shackles used to secure a deck cargo
(D) wooden blocks or dunnage placed between a deck load and the deck
541.
(2.2.1.2B3-8) It is possible, and sometimes necessary, to strengthen the deck of a vessel for
carriage of deck cargo by __________.
o
o
o
(A) erecting vertical pillars under the deck to support the cargo
(B) welding steel "feet" to the deck, on which the cargo is placed
(C) building a stage on which to place the cargo
(D) placing bunker on the deck

Deck General
September 2015
542.
(2.2.1.5D1-16) The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended downwards,
forefinger pointing down, and moves his hand in small horizontal circles. This is the signal to
__________.
o
o
(A) swing
(B) lower
(C) hoist
(D) extend
543.
(2.2.1.6-9) When loading containers into the cell guides in the hold of a container ship, which
statement is TRUE?
o
o
(A) The container must be locked into the cell guide.

(B) No further securing is usually required.
(C) Containers must have vertical lashings if they do not have twist lock securing.
(D) All containers must have vertical and horizontal lashings.
544.
(2.2.1.6-2) You are on a container vessel. What concerning the handling and stowage of
containerized hazardous materials is TRUE?
o
o
(A) A portable cargo tank of a flammable, cryogenic liquid may not be in transit for a period
exceeding its marked rated holding time unless the liquid is inhibited.
(B) Open-bed containers may be used to transport hazardous materials if the cargo is properly
secured.
(C) A portable cargo tank containing a cryogenic liquid must be shipped on deck unless forced
ventilation is provided to the tween-decks.
(D) A container loaded with packages of tear gas would display a placard reading "Irritant."
545.
(2.2.1.2B3-9) You are preparing to load a heavy cargo with abnormal physical dimensions
onboard your vessel. Which of the following is of primary importance when planning the load?
o
o
o
(A) ensuring the maintenance of adequate stability throughout the voyage

(B) comparing the broken stowage factor of the unit to other cargo in the hold
(C) comparing how much cargo can be loaded on top of the abnormal units
(D) ensuring the proper customs forms and labels are on the units

546.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.5D2-68) What is meant by the term "level-luffing" a crane?

(A) Luffing while the load remains at a constant height
(B) Slewing the boom left or right in a level plane
(C) Maintaining the boom at a constant height
547.
(2.2.1.2B4-1) Which cargoes require strips of common building lathe as dunnage in order to
carry away heat generated by the cargo?
o
o
(A) Cardboard cartons of shoes

(B) Refrigerated fruit that is ripening
(C) Paper products packaged in rolls
(D) Canned soups packaged in crates
548.
(2.2.1.5D1-23) The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended, his fingers
closed, and his thumb pointing downward. This is the signal to __________.
o
o
(A) raise the boom

(B) lower the boom
(C) lower the load
(D) hoist the load
549.
(2.2.1.2B4-2) Battens are fitted in cargo holds across the frames of the vessel from the turn of
the bilge upward. The purpose of these cargo battens is __________.
o
o
(A) for securing a snatch block when snaking cargo into the wings of the hold
(B) to support the dunnage floors which are laid down between tiers of cargo
(C) to prevent cargo from coming in contact with the vessel's frames or shell plating
(D) to provide fittings to which cargo lashings may be secured
550.
o
o
(2.2.1.2B4-3) What is the main purpose of dunnage?

(A) To act as ballast for light vessels
(B) To support weakened bulkheads
(C) To provide ventilation and drainage for cargo
(D) To secure the tarpaulins in place

Deck General
September 2015
551.
(2.2.1.2B4-4) Securing cargo by running timbers from an upper support down to the cargo, either
vertically or at an angle, is called __________.
o
o
(A) braces
(B) toms
(C) dunnage
(D) shores
552.
(2.2.1.5D2-3) Which statement is TRUE concerning a tagline as used with a 30-ton pedestal
crane?
o
o
(A) Taglines are wire rope purchases that raise and lower the topping lift.
(B) Taglines are wire rope purchases that raise and lower the jib.
(C) Taglines can be fastened to the corners of vehicles or containers during cargo operations.
(D) Taglines are wire ropes payed-out or taken-in for positioning the crane pedestal.
553.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.2B4-6) Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage by __________.
(A) tainting
(B) inherent vice
(C) hygroscopic absorption
(D) ship's sweat
554.
(2.2.1.2B5-5) If you are loading fruit in reefer spaces and you notice that the fruit is beginning to
mold, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) discharge CO2 into the compartment after loading

(B) carry the cargo at a cooler temperature than originally planned
(C) refuse to carry the cargo
(D) write up exceptions on the cargo
555.
(2.2.1.2B5-6) When fruit is carried as refrigerated cargo, the most frequent cause of its being
infected at the discharge port is __________.
o
o
o
(A) improper pre-cooling of the cargo spaces

(B) leaks in the ship's refrigeration system
(C) carriage at the wrong temperature
(D) improper cleaning of the cargo spaces

556.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.2B6-1) Which can be prevented only by segregating two lots of cargo into separate holds?
(A) Contamination of a clean cargo by a dirty cargo
(B) Contamination of a food cargo by an odorous cargo
(C) Overcarriage, overstowage, and short landing
(D) Contamination of dry cargo by a wet cargo
557.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.2B6-2) Segregation of cargoes refers to __________.

(A) separating cargoes by destination
(B) listing the cargoes in order of their flammability
(C) classifying cargoes according to their toxicity
(D) separating cargoes so that the inherent characteristics of one cannot damage the other
558.
(2.2.1.5F-4) Electric cargo winches have an overload safety device which normally cuts the
current to the winch motor __________.
o
o
o
(A) when the line pull reaches the breaking strength of the fall
(B) before the safe working load of the fall is reached
(C) before the line pull reaches the rated capacity of the winch
(D) after torque causes line pull to exceed the rated capacity of the winch
559.
(2.2.1.5D1-24) The signal man assisting the crane operator first taps his elbow with one hand
and then proceeds to use regular signals. This is the signal to __________.
o
o
o
(A) use the main hoist

(B) proceed slowly
(C) increase speed
(D) use the whip line
560.
o
o
(2.2.1.2B6-3) Certain cargoes must be segregated because of their __________.

(A) destination
(B) weight
(C) inherent characteristics
(D) danger to humans

Deck General
September 2015
561.
(2.2.1.2B6-4) Keeping certain cargoes separated because of their inherent characteristics is

known as __________.
o
o
o
(A) segregation
(B) cargo typing
(C) overstowage
(D) spot loading
562.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.3-2) Before loading bulk grain, bilge wells must be covered to __________.
(A) prevent cargo sifting into the bilge wells
(B) prevent oil, water, or other liquid from reaching the cargo
(C) permit rapid flow of water to the bilge wells
(D) add strength to the bilge well strainer
563.
(2.2.1.3-3) The certificate of loading required by each vessel carrying grain in bulk is issued by
the __________.
o
o
(A) owner or charterer of the vessel

(D) shipper of the cargo
564.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.3-4) What is usually NOT required in preparing a hold for reception of a bulk grain cargo?
(A) Remove residue of previous cargo.
(B) Spray or fumigate any insect colonies.
(C) Remove loose rust and scale.
(D) Steam clean areas obstructed by structural members.
565.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D1-12) How should you signal the crane operator to swing?

(A) With arm extended downwards and forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal
circles.
(B) Extend arm and point finger in the direction to move the boom.
(C) With both arms extended out and palms down, move arms back and forth.
(D) Place both fists in front of the body with the thumbs pointing outward.

566.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.3-6) Which statement about shipping coal is TRUE?

(A) Anthracite will generate more methane than bituminous coal.
(B) Coal should not be shipped while wet.
(C) Coal should be surface ventilated to remove methane gas.
(D) The methane gas generated by coal will react with moisture on the ship's structure and
accelerate corrosion.
567.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.3-6) A list signal of one white light indicates that the vessel is __________.
(A) listing over 5 with the light displayed on the high side
(B) on an even keel
(C) listing, and the chutes should be directed to the side where the light is displayed
(D) listing about 1 to the side the light is displayed on
568.
(2.2.1.5D1-13) The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended and is
pointing his finger in the direction to move the boom. This is the signal to __________.
o
o
o
(A) hoist
(B) extend
(C) lower
(D) swing
569.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-59) What describes a tandem crane lift?

(A) Two sets of twin cranes hoisting 120 tons
(B) Single crane hoisting 30 tons
(C) Two cranes on a single pedestal hoisting 60 tons
570.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.3-8) What is NOT a problem when carrying coal?

(A) Spontaneous heating
(B) The requirement for through-ventilation
(C) The corrosion some types of coal will cause to the ship
(D) Generation of methane gas

571.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.5A-3) What is meant by the term "topping the boom"?

(A) Spotting the boom over the deck
(B) Raising the boom
(C) Lowering the boom
(D) Swinging the boom athwartships
572.
(2.2.1.3-9) While loading a cargo of grain, your vessel develops a list to starboard. This will be
corrected by __________.
o
o
o
(A) the list man changing the discharge location of the chutes
(B) allowing the grain to level itself as the hold fills to the spar deck level
(C) the compensating tanks on the high side
(D) trimming the final loading cone by hand
573.
(2.2.1.3-10) Atmospheres laden with coal dust or grain dust caused by loading these cargoes
__________.
o
o
o
(A) may be explosive in some concentrations

(B) are toxic to human life
(C) require loading operations to be shut down until the atmosphere clears
(D) are subject to spontaneous combustion
574.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.3-11) Which statement about the carriage of coal is true?

(A) Most problems with spontaneous combustion will occur within 72 hours of loading and after
that the risk decreases.
(B) Coal absorbs nitrogen from the air which reacts with methane and causes spontaneous
heating.
(C) Wet coal is more liable to spontaneous heating than dry coal.
(D) Freshly worked coal is more dangerous than weathered coal.
575.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-21) What does item "A" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?
(A) Boom luffing falls
(B) Remote block tagline system
(C) Slewing cable
(D) Cargo hoist falls

Deck General
September 2015
576.
(2.2.1.3-12) Spontaneous heating of coal rapidly accelerates at the approximate minimum

temperature of __________.
o
o
(A) 88F
(B) 111F
(C) 100F
(D) 119F
577.
(2.2.1.3-15) Ship's officers should check every cargo compartment after it is filled with bulk grain
to ensure __________.
o
o
(A) the correct grade of cargo has been loaded

(B) the heavier grade is in the lower hold
(C) all void spaces are filled
(D) all lighting circuits are energized
578.
(2.2.1.3-20) Who would normally certify that all preparations have been made and all regulations
observed prior to loading a cargo of bulk grain?
o
o
(A) Master of the vessel

579.
(2.2.1.3-21) Which agency issues a certificate of loading that is evidence that the rules and
regulations concerning bulk grain cargoes have been observed?
o
o
o

(B) Public Health Service
(C) Department of Agriculture
(D) National Cargo Bureau
580.
o
o
(2.2.1.3-22) When referring to dry bulk cargoes, the term "flow state" __________.
(A) relates to the suitability of loading a cargo by flowing down inclined chutes
(B) designates the state of a commodity when the ship is heeled past the angle of repose
(C) refers to the saturation of a dry bulk product with water to the point where it acts as a liquid
(D) relates to the minimum granule size of a particular product where it will flow like a liquid at an
angle of 30

Deck General
September 2015
581.
(2.2.1.3-23) A Great Lakes bulk ore vessel would use an "Iron Deckhand" to assist in
__________.
o
o
o
(A) removing hatch covers

(B) unloading bulk cargo
(C) steering the vessel
(D) making the vessel fast to a dock
582.
(2.2.1.4-1) A lot of special cargo as shown in illustration D042DG below is to be loaded aboard
your vessel. You examine one of the cartons of the lot shown. Assuming no broken stowage what is
the total cubic space the consignment will occupy?
o
o
(A) 51 cubic feet (1.5 cubic meters)

(B) 58 cubic feet (1.7 cubic meters)
(C) 336 cubic feet (10 cubic meters)
(D) 700 cubic feet (21 cubic meters)
583.
(2.2.1.4-4) A case received for shipment has the markings shown in illustration D043DG below.
Each carton measures 13" X 15" X 23". What is the total cubic capacity the entire consignment will
occupy if you assume 10% broken stowage?
o
o
(A) 779 cubic feet (22 cubic meters)

(B) 857 cubic feet (24 cubic meters)
(D) 112,125 cubic feet (3173 cubic meters)
584.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5A-15) The greatest strain, when lifting a load with the jumbo purchase, is on __________.
(A) the standing part because it is directly connected to the weight
(B) the hauling part because it must absorb the frictional losses of all the sheaves
(C) the parts in the movable block
(D) all of the parts, dividing the load equally
585.
(2.2.1.4-5) A lot of special cargo of similar cartons as shown in illustration D042DG below is to be
loaded. What is the total cubic capacity the consignment will occupy if you assume 10% broken
stowage?
o
o
(A) 51 cubic feet (1.5 cubic meters)

(B) 58 cubic feet (1.7 cubic meters)
(C) 65 cubic feet (2.0 cubic meters)
(D) 336 cubic feet (10 cubic meters)

Deck General
September 2015
586.
(2.2.1.4-7) A case received for shipment has the markings shown in illustration D043DG below.
Each carton measures 13" X 15" X 23". Ignoring broken stowage what is the total cubic capacity the
entire consignment will occupy?
o
o
o
(A) 779 cubic feet (22 cubic meters)

(B) 1,047 cubic feet (30 cubic meters)
(D) 112,125 cubic feet (3173 cubic meters)
587.
(2.2.1.4-8) Twenty-five hundred (2500) tons of iron ore with a stowage factor of 17 is stowed in a
cargo hold. The dimensions of the hold are 55 feet long and 45 feet wide and 35 feet high. What is
the height of the center of gravity of the ore above the bottom of the hold?
o
o
(A) 7.8 feet

(B) 8.6 feet
(C) 17.1 feet
(D) 34.6 feet
588.
(2.2.1.4-11) A vessel has a deadweight carrying capacity of 10,500 tons. Fuel, water, and stores
require 1500 tons. The cubic capacity is 500,000 cubic feet. Which cargo will put her full and down?
o
o
o
(A) Bundles of rubber, SF 140.2

(B) Slabs of zinc, SF 7.1
(C) Barrels of tallow, SF 66.8
(D) Rolls of barbed wire, SF 55.5
589.
(2.2.1.4-13) The lower hold of your vessel has a bale capacity of 60,000 cubic feet. How many
tons of cotton in bales having a stowage factor of 85 can be stowed in the lower hold, assuming a
broken stowage factor of 20%?
o
o
(A) 141
(B) 565
(C) 706
(D) 847

Deck General
September 2015
590.
(2.2.1.4-15) A sling is rigged on a piece of pipe weighing 1000 lbs. The angle between the sling
legs is 140 and the legs are of equal length. What stress is exerted on each sling leg when the pipe
is lifted?
o
o
o
(A) 1318 lbs.

(B) 1366 lbs.
(C) 1414 lbs.
(D) 1462 lbs.
591.
determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom?
o
o
o
(A) 1 inch
(B) 1 3/8 inch
(C) 1 1/2 inch
(D) 1 7/8 inch
592.
(2.2.1.5A-5) The process of lowering a boom to a horizontal position and onto its deck support is
called __________.
o
o
o
(A) cradling a boom

(B) toppling a boom
(C) spotting a boom
(D) collaring a boom
593.
which has a bale cubic of 72,000. How many tons of the wool can be stowed in the compartment,
assuming 10% broken stowage?
o
o
o
(A) 493
(B) 577
(C) 602
(D) 648

Deck General
September 2015
594.
(2.2.1.4-18) Two falls are supporting a 1.5 ton load. The port fall is at an angle of 40 from the
vertical. The starboard fall is at an angle of 70 from the vertical. What is the stress on each fall?
o
o
o
(A) Port 1.5 tons, starboard 1.0 tons

(B) Port 1.5 tons, starboard 1.5 tons
(C) Port 1.7 tons, starboard 1.3 tons
(D) Port 1.7 tons, starboard 2.0 tons
595.
angle 20 to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and
o
o
o
(A) 1 3/8 inch

(B) 1 1/2 inch
(C) 1 5/8 inch
(D) 1 3/4 inch
596.
(2.2.1.5A-17) The greatest horizontal stress between the heads of the booms in the yard and
stay rig occurs when the load is in such a position that the __________.
o
o
(A) yard fall is at a greater angle to the horizontal than the stay fall
(B) falls are at an equal angle to the horizontal
(C) stay fall is at a greater angle to the horizontal than the yard fall
(D) stay fall is vertical
597.
which has a bale cubic of 62,000. How many tons of the wool can be stowed in the compartment,
assuming 10% broken stowage?
o
o
o
(A) 558
(B) 620
(C) 520
(D) 654
598.
(2.2.1.5D2-4) Which statement is TRUE concerning a tagline as used with a 30-ton pedestal
crane?
o
o
o
(A) Taglines are wire rope purchases that raise and lower the jib.
(B) Taglines can be fastened to the corners of the jib when lifting containers.
(C) The taglines are wire rope purchases that raise and lower the topping lift.
(D) The crane might not have taglines installed in its rigging system.

Deck General
September 2015
599.
(2.2.1.4-22) You must load as much of a large shipment of case goods as possible into a hold
which has 24,000 cubic feet of space. Each case measures 2 feet by 2-1/2 feet by 4 feet and weighs
448 pounds. If you allow for broken stowage of 15%, how many long tons can be loaded?
o
o
o
(A) 233
(B) 190
(C) 280
(D) 204
600.
(2.2.1.5A-1) The periodic weight testing of a vessel's cargo booms may be performed by the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) National Cargo Bureau

(B) Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers
601.
(2.2.1.5C-6) All wire rope used in shipboard cargo gear must be identified and described in a
certificate. The certificate shall certify all of the following EXCEPT the __________.
o
o
o
(A) load at which a test sample broke

(B) number of strands and of wires in each strand
(C) date of the test
(D) name of the vessel
602.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5A-2) What would you use to adjust the height of a cargo boom?
(A) Lizard
(B) Spanner guy
(C) Working guy
(D) Topping lift
603.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5A-4) What is meant by "spotting the boom"?

(A) Two-blocking it
(B) Spotting it with wash primer and red lead
(C) Lowering it into a cradle
(D) Placing it in a desired position

604.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.5A-6) The heel block is located __________.

(A) near the spider band
(B) at the base of the boom
(C) near the midships guy
(D) at the cargo hook
605.
(2.2.1.5A-8) A band or collar on the top end of a boom to which the topping lift, midships guy,
and outboard guys are secured, is called the __________.
o
o
(A) collar band

(B) spider band
(C) guy band
(D) pad eye collar
606.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5A-9) Which part of a cargo boom has the greatest diameter?

(A) Heel
(B) Middle
(C) It has the same diameter along its complete length.
(D) Head
607.
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-50) Which wire rope purchase(s) is/are optional with a 30-Ton pedestal crane?
(A) Luff
(B) Hoist
(C) Rider block
608.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5A-10) What is required to be stenciled at the heel of a cargo boom?

(A) Maximum load when doubled up
(B) Maximum angle of elevation permitted
(C) Date of the last quadrennial test
(D) Safe working load

Deck General
September 2015
609.
(2.2.1.5A-12) The fitting that allows a boom to move freely both vertically and laterally is called
the __________.
o
o
(A) spider band

(B) gooseneck
(C) lizard
(D) swivel
610.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5A-14) With a given load on the cargo hook, the thrust on a cargo boom __________.
(A) increases as the angle to the horizontal decreases
(B) increases as the angle to the horizontal increases
(C) is least at an angle of 45 and increases as the boom is raised or lowered
(D) is greatest at an angle of 45 and decreases as the boom is raised or lowered
611.
the horizontal, which statement is true?
o
o
o
(A) The stress on the heel block is less at 60.

(B) The change in angle of elevation has no effect on the stresses in the head block.
(C) The stress on the topping lift is greater at 60.
(D) The thrust on the boom is greater at 20.
612.
(2.2.1.5B-1) Where are the test certificates, for wire rope used as cargo runners, and loose gear
certificates usually maintained?
o
o
o
(A) With the Cargo Gear Register on the ship

(B) At the Coast Guard Marine Safety Office with the vessel's inspection records
(C) In the Official Log
(D) At the central records center of the agency testing the cargo gear
613.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5C-1) In relation to cargo gear, what does "SWL" mean?

(A) Stress, weight, load
(B) Ship's working lift
(C) Starboard wing lift
(D) Safe working load

614.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.5C-7) Who certifies the safe working load of cargo booms on a vessel?
(C) Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers
(D) The Ship's Master
615.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5C-9) A sling is a device used in __________.

(A) hoisting the anchor
(B) hoisting personnel aboard a vessel
(C) securing a small boat to a large vessel
(D) hoisting cargo aboard a vessel
616.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5C-12) Which statement is TRUE about hooks and shackles?

(A) Shackles are stronger than hooks of the same diameter.
(B) Hooks and shackles of the same diameter are of equal strength.
(C) Hooks are stronger than shackles of the same diameter.
(D) All the above may be true, depending on the hook's or shackle's overall length.
617.
(2.2.1.5C-14) When a two-leg sling is used to lift a load, a sling 40 feet long is better than one of
30 feet because the __________.
o
o
o
(A) sling will be easier to remove

(B) load can be lifted higher
(C) sling will be easier to attach
(D) tension in the sling legs is less
618.
(2.2.1.5C-16) The best way to determine if a load is within maximum lift limits is to use
__________.
o
o
(A) prior experience with similar lifts

(B) a load weight indicator
(C) material invoices for shipping weights
(D) a boom angle indicator

619.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.5D2-6) Which safety precaution(s) should be observed during crane operations?

(A) Relaying communications to port agents on the pier during cargo hoists
(B) Using the proper slings or other lifting devices during cargo operations
(C) Checking for proper lifting from beneath the load during cargo operations
620.
(2.2.1.5D1-1) The signal man assisting a crane operator has his arm extended, thumb pointing
downwards, flexing fingers in and out. This is the signal to __________.
o
o
(A) raise the boom and lower the load

(B) lower the boom and raise the load
(C) lower the load and raise the boom
(D) raise the load and lower the boom
621.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D1-3) How should you signal the crane operator to hoist?

(A) Extend arm with fingers closed and thumb pointing upward.
(B) With forearm vertical and forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles.
(C) With arm extended downwards and forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal
circles.
(D) Place both fists in front of body with the thumbs pointing upward.
622.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D1-4) How should you signal the crane operator to use the main hoist?
(A) Extend arm with the thumb pointing up and flex the fingers in and out for as long as the load
movement is desired.
(B) First tap your elbow with one hand, and then proceed to use regular signals.
(C) Use one hand to give any motion signal, and place the other hand motionless in front of the
hand giving the motion signal.
(D) First tap the top of your head with your fist, and then proceed to use regular signals.

623.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.5D1-5) How should you signal the crane operator to lower?

(A) Extend arm with thumb pointing downward, and flex fingers in and out.
(B) Extend arm and point finger in the direction to move the boom.
(C) With arm extended downwards and forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal
circles.
(D) With forearm vertical and forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles.
624.
o
o
(2.2.1.5D1-6) How should you signal the crane operator to use the whip line?
(A) First tap the top of your head with your fist, and then proceed to use regular signals.
(B) Extend arm with the thumb pointing up, and flex the fingers in and out for as long as the load
(C) First tap your elbow with one hand, and then proceed to use regular signals.
(D) Use one hand to give any motion signal, and place the other hand motionless in front of the
625.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D1-7) How should you signal the crane operator to raise the boom and lower the load?
(A) Extend arm with the thumb pointing up, and flex the fingers in and out for as long as the load
(B) Clasp hands in front of your body.
(C) Extend arm with the palm down and hold this position rigidly.
(D) Place both fists in front of your body with thumbs pointing toward each other.
626.
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-23) The boom stops on a pedestal crane prevent the boom from __________.
(A) swinging at sea
(B) being lowered too low
(C) being raised too high
(D) overloading when not in use
627.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D1-8) How should you signal the crane operator to move slowly?
(A) First tap your elbow with one hand and then proceed to use regular signals.
(B) Use one hand to give any motion signal, and place the other hand motionless in front of the
(C) Extend arm with the thumb pointing up, and flex the fingers in and out for as long as the load
(D) First tap the top of your head with your fist and then proceed to use regular signals.

628.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.5D1-9) How should you signal the crane operator to stop?

(A) Extend arm with the palm down and hold this position rigidly.
(B) Clasp hands in front of your body.
(C) Place both fists in front of your body with the thumbs pointing outward.
(D) With both arms extended out and palms down, move arms back and forth.
629.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D1-10) How should you signal the crane operator to dog everything?
(A) Clasp hands in front of your body.
(B) Extend arm with the palm down and hold this position rigidly.
(C) Place both fists in front of your body with thumbs pointing toward each other.
(D) Extend arm with the thumb pointing up, and flex the fingers in and out.
630.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D1-11) How should you signal the crane operator to lower the boom?
circles.
(B) Extend arm with the palm down, and hold this position rigidly.
(C) With hands clasped in front of your body.
(D) With arm extended and fingers closed, point thumb downward.
631.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D1-14) How should you signal the crane operator to raise the boom?
(A) Extend arm with fingers closed and point thumb upward.
(B) With forearm vertical and forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles.
(C) Extend arm with the thumb pointing up and flex the fingers in and out.
(D) Place both fists in front of the body with the thumbs pointing upward.
632.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D1-15) How should you signal the crane operator to lower the boom and raise the load?
circles.
(B) Extend arm with thumb pointing downward and flex fingers in and out.
(C) With forearm vertical and forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles.
(D) Extend arm and point finger in the direction to move the boom.

Deck General
September 2015
633.
(2.2.1.5D1-17) The signal man assisting the crane operator has his forearm vertical, forefinger
pointing up, and moves his hand in a small horizontal circle. This is the signal to __________.
o
o
(A) extend
(B) lower
(C) hoist
(D) swing
634.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D1-18) How should you signal the crane operator to stop in an emergency?
(A) Extend arm with the palm down and hold this position rigidly.
(B) Place clasped hands in front of your body.
(C) Place both fists in front of the body with the thumbs pointing outward.
(D) Extend arm and move hand rapidly right and left with the palm down.
635.
(2.2.1.5D1-19) The signal man assisting a crane operator has his arm extended with his fingers
closed and thumb pointing upward. This is the signal to __________.
o
o
o
(A) check the boom stop

(B) raise the boom and hook
(C) raise the hook
(D) raise the boom
636.
(2.2.1.5D1-20) The signal man has both arms extended out, palms down, and is moving his arms
back and forth. This is the signal for __________.
o
o
o
(A) swing right

(B) keep lifting
(C) swing left
(D) emergency stop
637.
(2.2.1.5D1-21) The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended, with the
thumb pointing up, and is flexing his fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired.
This is the signal to __________.
o
o
o
(A) raise the boom and lower the load

(B) lower the boom and lower the load
(C) raise the boom and raise the load
(D) lower the boom and raise the load

Deck General
September 2015
638.
(2.2.1.5D1-26) The signal man assisting the crane operator has one hand occupied and one fist
in front of his chest with the thumb pointing outward and is tapping his chest with the heel of his fist.
This is the signal to __________.
o
o
(A) extend the boom

(B) hoist the boom
(C) retract the boom
(D) lower the boom
639.
(2.2.1.5D1-27) The signal man assisting the crane operator has his hands clasped in front of his
body. This is the signal to __________.
o
o
(A) stop
(B) prepare for signal
(C) dog everything
(D) stand-by
640.
(2.2.1.5D2-64) What is the advantage of the tandem working arrangement of pedestal cranes
when operating cargo?
o
o
o
(A) The cargo discharge can be performed in port or at anchor

(B) The cranes enable the handling of heavy cargos without shoreside assistance
(C) The cargo discharge can be accomplished with controlled pendulation
641.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-2) The crane manufacturer's operating tables are posted near the __________.
(A) wire-rope locker
(B) crane pedestal
(C) main deck
(D) crane controls

Deck General
September 2015
642.
(2.2.1.5D2-5) What is the maximum weight the 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in
illustration D051DG can lift when married together in twin with the other pair of cranes at the
opposite end of the hatch?
o
o
(A) 60 tons
(B) 120 tons
(C) 30 tons
(D) 90 tons
643.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-17) What does item "D" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?
(A) Hook block
(B) Rider block
(C) Heel block
(D) Gin block
644.
(2.2.1.5D2-18) The 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in the illustration D047DG can lift a
maximum weight of how many tons in the single mode?
o
o
(A) 120 tons

(B) 60 tons
(C) 30 tons
(D) 15 tons
645.
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-19) What does item "C" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?
(A) Block/hook assembly
(B) Equalizing beam
(C) Rider block
(D) Hoist fall spreader
646.
(2.2.1.5D2-13) What should be given, as a minimum, to personnel who are involved in crane
cargo handling?
o
o
o
(A) Protective head gear, gloves, and steel-toed safety shoes

(B) A survival suit for work on the stern or side port
(C) A life preserver for going aloft to work on the crane

647.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.5D2-27) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding crane operations?

(A) The aft cranes can be operated from the aft steering station.
(B) Radio communications allow the crane operator to disregard the use of hand signals.
(C) The crane operators and signalman must be familiar with the correct hand signals.
(D) The forward cranes can be operated from the bridge.
648.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-37) Which statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding the operation of a crane?

(A) The crane jib is raised and lowered by the hoisting winch.
(B) The load is handled by the hoisting winch and cargo block.
(C) The cargo block is raised and lowered by the luffing winch.
(D) All the above
649.
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-38) Who should be notified prior to starting up a crane?

(A) The pumpman
(B) The stevedore foreman
(C) The engine room
(D) All the above
650.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-42) Which statement(s) is/are FALSE concerning crane cargo operations?

(A) Never exceed crane manufacturer's limits concerning the safe working loads of cargo jibs.
(B) Cargo loaded into vehicles and/or containers prior to lifting need not be secured.
(C) Lifting points on all equipment must be safely checked prior to commencing a lift.
(D) All the above
651.
(2.2.1.5D2-44) Which action(s) should the operator of a pedestal crane take if crane control is
lost?
o
o
o
(A) Let go of both control levers and return to neutral position.

(B) Notify the mate on watch.
(C) Press the emergency stop.

Deck General
September 2015
652.
operations?
o
o
o
(A) Potable water spill on deck

(B) Trim greater than 4 feet
(C) Bunkering barge alongside
(D) Crane hydraulic hose bursts
653.
operations?
o
o
o
(A) High winds

(B) Fire aboard
(C) Lightning
654.
operations?
o
o
o
(A) An approaching squall line

(B) Lightning in the vicinity
(C) A fire on the pier
655.
(2.2.1.5D2-52) Which piece(s) of equipment is/are required to "twin-up" 30-ton pedestal cranes
aboard a crane vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Equalizing beam

(B) 20-foot container spreader
(C) Portable power swivel
656.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-54) Pedestal cranes have limit switches to restrict the movement of which function?
(A) Turntable limits
(B) Slew travel limits
(C) Luff travel limits

657.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.5D2-56) What is another name for the boom of a crane?

(A) Rider
(B) Jib
(C) Lift
658.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-58) The electrical components for each single crane are installed in its __________.
(A) crane house
(B) machinery base
(C) turntable
659.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-60) What describes a twin crane lift?

(A) Two cranes on a single pedestal hoisting 60 tons
(B) Single crane hoisting 30 tons
(C) Two sets of twin cranes hoisting 120 tons
660.
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-66) What is meant by the term "luffing the boom" of a crane?

(A) Moving the boom left or right
(B) Stopping the boom
(C) Topping or lowering the boom
661.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-67) What does "level-luffing" accomplish during crane operations?

(A) It maintains the height of the load above the deck.
(B) It prevents the load from swinging when the boom level is adjusted.
(C) Less power is needed when topping the boom with a load on the hook.

662.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.5D2-69) Before starting to hoist provisions, which should be checked?

(A) Hoist rope is not kinked
(B) The hook is centrally located over the load
(C) Multiple part lines are not twisted around each other
663.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5D2-70) What is TRUE about hoisting operations?

(A) If tag lines are used to control a suspended load, they should be secured to the deck.
(B) Personnel may work beneath suspended loads, as long as they are alert and wear hard hats.
(C) If a suspended load with no tag begins to spin, personnel should attempt to stop the spinning
if the load is within reach.
(D) Personnel not involved in the hoisting operation should be kept clear of the transfer area.
664.
o
o
(2.2.1.5E-2) When handling cargo, the majority of cargo gear breakdowns is due to __________.
(A) topping lift failures
(B) extension failure of the boom
(C) guy failures
(D) compression bending of the boom
665.
(2.2.1.5E-3) On your vessel, a wire rope for the cargo gear shows signs of excessive wear and
must be replaced. In ordering a new wire for this 10-ton boom, what safety factor should you use?
o
o
(A) Three
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Seven
666.
(2.2.1.5E-5) It is permissible to place an eye splice in wire rope used as cargo gear providing the
splice is made using __________.
o
o
(A) three tucks with whole strands

(B) three tucks with whole strands and two tucks with 1/2 the wire cut from the tucking strand
(C) two tucks with whole strands and three tucks with half strands
(D) two tucks with whole strands and one tuck with one-half strand

Deck General
September 2015
667.
(2.2.1.5E-6) What is the minimum standard for making an eye splice in a wire to be used as
cargo gear?
o
o
o
(A) Make three tucks with full strands, remove half the wires from each strand, and make two
more tucks.
(B) Make four tucks with each full strand.
(C) Make four tucks in each strand, cut away every other strand, and make two more tucks with
each remaining strand.
(D) Make six tucks with each strand, removing a few wires from each strand as each additional
tuck is made.
668.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.5E-7) Which ending is NOT acceptable in a wire rope that is free to rotate when hoisting?
(A) Eye formed with a pressure clamped sleeve
(B) Liverpool eye splice
(C) Poured socket
(D) Eye formed by clips
669.
(2.2.1.5E-8) Why is 6X19 class wire rope more commonly used for cargo runners than the more
flexible 6X37 wire rope?
o
o
(A) It is longer.
(B) It resists abrasion better.
(C) It hugs the winch drum better.
(D) It is less expensive.
670.
(2.2.1.5E-10) With a given load on the cargo hook, tension in a single span topping lift
__________.
o
o
o
(A) increases as the boom's angle to the horizontal decreases

(B) increases as the boom's angle to the horizontal increases
(C) is at a maximum when the boom is at a 45 angle to the horizontal
(D) decreases as the boom's angle to the horizontal decreases
671.
(2.2.1.5E-12) The maximum theoretical stress that can be developed on a guy in a yard and stay
rig is limited by the __________.
o
o
(A) location of the boom

(B) weight of the load
(C) lifting capacity of the winch
(D) position of the guy

Deck General
September 2015
672.
(2.2.1.5F-3) You are using an automatic tension winch by yourself. If you get caught in the turns
of the line as they lead into the gypsyhead __________.
o
o
o
(A) you may be pulled into the winch and injured or killed
(B) the safety cutout will stop the winch before you're injured
(C) the line will part and snap back
(D) None of the above are correct
673.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.6-1) What is the meaning of the term tare weight?

(A) Weight of a container
(B) Weight of the contents of a container
(C) Total weight of a container and contents
(D) Pounds of force necessary to damage a container
674.
(2.2.1.6-21) The securing systems for containers were developed to prevent container movement
during which ship motion?
o
o
(A) Yaw
(B) Surge
(C) Roll
(D) Sway
675.
o
o
(2.2.1.6-3) A high cube container is designed specifically to __________.

(A) carry cargoes of very low stowage factors
(B) stow cargoes with concentrated weights such as machinery
(C) carry low density cargoes
(D) protect fragile cargoes
676.
(2.2.1.6-12) The lashings on a stack of containers with interlocking fittings restrain the forces that
cause __________.
o
o
(A) crushing
(B) racking
(C) toppling
(D) buckling

Deck General
September 2015
677.
(2.2.1.6-13) Under normal weather and sea conditions when securing a stack of containers with
non-locking fittings, lashings are required when the tier exceeds what height?
o
o
o
(A) Lashings are always required

(B) One container
(C) Two containers
(D) Three containers
678.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.6-4) How long is the standard container used to measure equivalent units?
(A) 10 feet (3 meters)
(B) 20 feet (6 meters)
(C) 35 feet (11 meters)
(D) 40 feet (12 meters)
679.
(2.2.1.6-5) You are in a tropical port. The refrigeration machinery on a container loaded with aircooled fruit fails. It cannot be repaired for 18 to 24 hours. Which step should you take to reduce the
temperature rise and spoilage of the fruit?
o
o
(A) Discharge a cylinder of nitrogen into the container

(B) Shade the container and periodically hose it down
(C) Seal any ventilation openings and add dry ice
(D) Spread ice over the top layer and in any voids within the container
680.
(2.2.1.6-10) What is NOT an advantage of containership operations over conventional break-bulk

operations?
o
o
o
(A) Flexibility of operation

(B) Reduction of cargo damage
(C) Lower stevedoring costs
(D) Greater operational safety
681.
o
o
(2.2.1.6-14) Which statement concerning sweat damage in containers is TRUE?

(A) In general, containerized hygroscopic cargoes are the only ones subject to sweat damage.
(B) Sweat damage in containers is unusual due to the small enclosed volume of air.
(C) Containers should be ventilated, dehumidified, or the contents physically protected against
sweat damage.
(D) Sweat damage is not a problem except in insulated and refrigerated containers.

682.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.6-16) A half-height container is used __________.

(A) to carry cargoes of low density
(B) to carry cargoes such as steel products or drums
(C) when stowage space is limited
(D) to double the stowage capacity of the vessel
683.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.6-17) What is NOT a securing system used on a containership?

(A) Stacking system
(B) Buttress system
(C) Lashing system
(D) Locking system
684.
(2.2.1.6-18) With the buttress securing system, containers of different heights must be stowed
__________.
o
o
o
(A) on the top tier

(B) next to the buttress tower
(C) on the bottom tier on deck
(D) in the hold
685.
(2.2.1.6-23) Which statement concerning the lashings of containers with solid bar or wire rope
lashings is TRUE?
o
o
(A) Stack heights should be reduced when using a solid bar lashing.
(B) Solid bars should be used for lashing the first tier only, with wire lashings on the higher tier(s).
(C) Stack weights should be less when using a solid bar lashing as compared to a wire lashing.
(D) Stack heights may be increased when using a solid bar lashing.
686.
(2.2.1.6-24) On the fully containerized ship, approximately one-third or more of the cargo is on
deck above the rolling center. Top stowed containers are subject to __________.
o
o
o
(A) accelerations greater than on conventional vessels

(B) accelerations less than on conventional vessels
(C) accelerations the same as on conventional vessels
(D) no accelerations

Deck General
September 2015
687.
(2.2.1.6-28) A structurally serviceable freight container loaded with Class 1 explosive materials
cannot have a major defect in its strength components. Which of the following would make a
container non-serviceable?
o
o
o
(A) dents or bends in the structural members greater than 0.75" in depth regardless of length
(B) dents or bends in the structural members less than 0.75" in depth regardless of length
(C) dents or bends in the structural members less than 0.075" in depth regardless of length
(D) dents or bends in the structural members greater than 0.075" in depth regardless of length
688.
(2.2.1.6-29) In accordance with U.S. regulations, a freight container that is to be loaded with
Class 1 explosive materials must be in serviceable condition. Which of the following would prevent a
container from being considered serviceable?
o
o
o
(A) the door gasket does not seal

(B) a film of rust on the top
(C) paint scratches on the sides
(D) the locking mechanism is stiff
689.
(2.2.1.7A-1) You are planning the stowage of two incompatible products on your multiple-product
tankship. What will NOT provide the minimum required segregation?
o
o
o
(A) Diagonally adjacent tanks

(B) Tank containing a third cargo compatible with the other two
(C) Empty tank
(D) Solid (non-intercostal) bulkhead
690.
(2.2.1.7A-2) You are on a multiple product tankship and carrying methyl acrylate,
diethanolamine, and triethylamine. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The heating coils to the cargo tank loaded with methyl acrylate must be blanked off.
(B) Methyl acrylate may be loaded in a tank adjacent to diethanolamine but not triethylamine.
(C) Each crew member working on deck must have an emergency escape breathing apparatus.
(D) Valve components made of aluminum, copper, or zinc may not be in contact with the cargoes.

Deck General
September 2015
691.
(2.2.1.7A-3) You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide, diisopropylamine and pyridine
on your multi-product tankship. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
(A) Carbon disulfide may be carried in NOS. 1 and 2 center tanks and diisopropylamine in NOS. 1
and 2 wing tanks.
(B) A tank of carbon disulfide may be used to separate a tank of pyridine from a tank of
diisopropylamine.
(C) Diisopropylamine must be separated from carbon disulfide by two barriers (cofferdams, voids,
empty tanks, etc.)
(D) Pyridine and diisopropylamine may be carried in tanks having a common header vent.
692.
(2.2.1.7A-4) You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker. The loading plan includes cargoes of
diethylenetriamine and formamide. Which statement concerning the stowage of these cargoes is
TRUE?
o
o
(A) They must be separated by a void space or empty tank.

(B) The cargoes must have individual venting systems.
(C) The minimum segregation required is a single bulkhead.
(D) The valves in common piping systems must be chained closed and locked.
693.
(2.2.1.7A-5) You are carrying cargoes of crotonaldehyde, phosphoric acid, and morpholine on
your multiple-product tankship. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
o
o
(A) The minimum protective clothing required for taking samples of phosphoric acid is goggles or
a face shield.
(B) Aluminum, copper, and zinc are prohibited in all valve parts in contact with these cargoes.
(C) Each of the cargoes must be segregated from the other by at least two barriers.
(D) The required warning sign must have the legend "cancer hazard" added to it.
694.
(2.2.1.7A-6) You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide, diisopropylamine and pyridine
on your multi-product tankship. Which statement is true?
o
o
(A) Carbon disulfide may be carried in NOS. 1 and 2 center tanks and diisopropylamine in NOS. 1
and 2 wing tanks.
(B) Pyridine and diisopropylamine may not be carried in tanks having a common header vent.
(C) A tank of diisopropylamine may be used to separate a tank of pyridine from a tank of carbon
disulfide.
(D) Pyridine must be separated from carbon disulfide by two barriers (cofferdams, voids, empty
tanks, etc.).

Deck General
September 2015
695.
(2.2.1.7A-10) You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of
isophorone, ethylenediamine, and creosote. Which of the following is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) All of these cargoes are compatible.

(B) All of these cargoes are incompatible.
(C) Ethylenediamine is compatible with isophorone but both are incompatible with creosote.
(D) Isophorone is incompatible with ethylenediamine but may be stowed adjacent to creosote.
696.
(2.2.1.7A-11) You are on a multiple-product tankship and scheduled to load a cargo classed as
an aromatic amine. This cargo is incompatible with cargoes classed as __________.
o
o
o
(A) organic anhydrides

(B) phenols
(C) ketones
(D) esters
697.
(2.2.1.7A-14) Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A,
B, C, or D cargoes?
o
o
(A) Pump rooms

(B) Navigation spaces
(C) Cofferdams
(D) Enclosed deck spaces
698.
o
o
(2.2.1.7B-1) You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?

(A) All stores of line, rags, linens and other similar type stores must be certified by UL as being
fire retardant.
(B) Cylinders containing compressed gasses must be constructed and tested in accordance with
the Bureau of Standards.
(C) Up to five gallons of a flammable liquid may be stowed in the engine room.
(D) All distress flares when received must be stored in the portable magazine chest.

Deck General
September 2015
699.
(2.2.1.7B-2) You are ordering ships' stores that are NOT consumer commodities. Which
statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The label of a hazardous ships' store must include instructions for safe stowage.
(B) Cartridges for the line throwing appliance must be stored in the portable magazine chest after
receipt.
(C) All flammable liquids must be stowed in the paint locker or specially constructed integral
tanks.
(D) Replacement CO2 cylinders for the fixed fire fighting system must have been tested within 8
years of receipt.
700.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7B-4) You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?

(A) Stores certified for use on uninspected vessels may be identified by the certification number
used by Underwriter's Laboratories.
(B) Acetylene may be in a ship's storeroom in quantities not exceeding 6000 cubic feet.
(C) Stores such as line, rags, mattresses, linens, etc. must be treated to be fire retardant.
(D) A portable container of a flammable liquid used as fuel for portable auxiliary equipment must
be stowed in a paint locker or at a designated open location.
701.
(2.2.1.7C-2) You receive a package, for shipment aboard your vessel, containing Class 1
explosives. The package is damp, moldy and stained. You must __________.
o
o
(A) have the U.S.C.G. Captain of the Port approve the shipment
(B) repair or replace the packaging before stowage
(C) seek the shipper's advice with regard to withdrawal, repair, or replacement
(D) note an exception on the Bill of Lading
702.
(2.2.1.7C-4) You will load class 1.2 commercial explosives and need to construct a portable
magazine. The magazine MUST __________.
o
o
o
(A) be fastened with nails or screws

(B) be made of metal
(C) have a hinged cover
(D) be elevated with skids 10cm (3.9 inches) above the deck

Deck General
September 2015
703.
(2.2.1.7C-5) Your vessel is loading Class 1 explosives using the vessel's cranes. What style of
hook or shackle are you required to use to attach the lifting sling to the runner?
o
o
(A) a safety hook with the latch locked open

(B) an open hook to facilitate cargo operations
(C) a hook that has been closed by wire
(D) a screw-pin shackle painted yellow
704.
(2.2.1.7C-6) Your vessel is preparing for cargo operations. Prior to handling Class 1
explosives the responsible person must ensure which of the following?
o
o
(A) that the vessel radars are on standby and ready for emergency use
(B) that all sources of electromagnetic radiation are de-energized
(C) that an emergency tow wire has been rigged amidships
(D) that the Alpha flag has been run up on the offshore yardarm
705.
(2.2.1.7C-8) Your vessel has been loaded with Class 1 explosives and is secured for sea. In
accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is true?
o
o
(A) you may take on bunkers during daylight hours with COTP approval
(B) you may take on bunkers without any approval
(C) you may only take on bunkers during daylight hours
(D) you must obtain approval from the COTP to bunker
706.
(2.2.1.7C-10) While on cargo watch, you notice one of the containers of Class 1 explosive
materials has been damaged and some of the contents has leaked onto the deck. In accordance
with U.S. regulations what actions must be taken?
o
o
o
(A) the Master must report the incident to the COTP as soon as practical
(B) repairs can be made onboard by the crew as long as the vessel remains in port
(C) the incident must be reported to the stevedore and repairs can be done on the vessel
(D) contents may be set aside until it is convenient to offload them

Deck General
September 2015
707.
(2.2.1.7C-11) U.S. regulations require having a responsible person present at the hatches of
spaces containing Class 1 explosive materials. When does the requirement apply during cargo
operations?
o
o
o
(A) any time the hatch containing the explosive is open whether the handling of cargo is in
progress or not
(B) a responsible person is required to be in attendance only while the handling of cargo is in
progress
(C) a responsible person is required to randomly check the loading process, not to maintain
constant attendance
(D) from the commencement of loading Class 1 Explosives until the completion of the final load
and the vessel departs
708.
(2.2.1.7C-12) U.S. regulations require a responsible person to be present at all times when the
hatches of spaces containing Class 1 explosive materials are open. When is the responsible person
released from the duty of attendance?
o
o
o
(A) when the final paperwork has been completed for the Class 1 Explosives in the hold
(B) when all cargo operations have been completed and the vessel is ready to depart
(C) when the responsible person has been relieved by another officer
(D) when the hatches for the hold containing Class 1 Explosives have been secured
709.
(2.2.1.7C-13) Matches and lighters are prohibited on vessels handling Class 1 explosive
materials except in a designated area. In accordance with U.S. regulations who may designate this
area on the vessel?
o
o
o
(A) the senior officer on watch

(B) the Company Port Captain
(C) the designated areas are listed in the CFR
(D) the Master or the COTP
710.
(2.2.1.7C-14) Your vessel is handling Class 1 explosive materials in a US port. In accordance

with U.S. regulations which of the following is true?
o
o
(A) repair work can be carried out in a cargo space containing Class 1 materials if approved by
the Master
(B) a responsible person is required to be onboard the vessel that can monitor the loading of
several hatches simultaneously
(C) a fire hose must be laid out, produce an effective stream of water to reach every part of the
loading area, and be ready for immediate use
(D) two fire hoses are required to be in the vicinity of each cargo hatch handling Class 1 materials

711.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.7D-75) What is the Reid vapor pressure of allyl chloride?

(A) 16.5 (psia)
(B) 14.0 (psia)
(C) 12.9 (psia)
(D) 10.3 (psia)
712.
o
o
(A) Xylenol
(B) Isocyanates, n.o.s.
(C) Propadiene, inhibited
(D) Hexanols
713.
(2.2.1.7D-18) The label required on containers carrying barium oxide in an international shipment
must read __________.
o
o
o
(A) "Infectious Substance"

(B) "Radioactive"
(C) "Spontaneously Combustible"
(D) "Poison"
714.
o
o
o
(A) Isoheptene
(B) Phosphine
(C) Furan
(D) Hexanols
715.
(2.2.1.7D-2) According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material is not compatible with
vinylidene chloride (inhibited)?
o
o
o
(A) Copper or copper alloys

(B) Nickel
(C) Stainless steel
(D) Aluminum

Deck General
September 2015
716.
o
o
o
(A) Propadiene, inhibited

(B) Acrylic acid
(C) Hexanol
(D) Benzonitrile
717.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-5) What produces the MOST dangerous vapors?

(A) Anhydrous ammonia
(B) Camphor oil
(C) Methyl alcohol
(D) Pentane
718.
(2.2.1.7D-20) A package contains nitric acid solution and is radioactive. The radiation level at the
package surface is .36 millirems per hour. How should this package be labeled?
o
o
o
(A) Radioactive I and corrosive

(B) Fissile class I
(C) Radioactive II and poison
(D) Radioactive II and oxidizer
719.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-6) What is the MOST irritating to the skin?

(A) Ethyl alcohol
(B) Oleum
(C) Isoprene
(D) Carbon disulfide
720.
(2.2.1.7D-21) You are on a containership carrying a tank container that had been filled with
sodium hydroxide solution. The container is empty but has not been cleaned. Which, if any, placard
is required?
o
o
(A) Residue label with the UN number

(B) Black and white corrosive placard
(C) No placard is required; the tank openings must be sealed
(D) Empty placard with corrosive placard

721.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-8) Sulfuric acid is a __________.

(A) colorless liquid with a pleasant fruity odor
(B) colorless-to-brown liquid with a choking odor when hot
(C) whitish liquid with a faint, pleasant odor
(D) clear syrupy liquid with no odor
722.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-26) Corrosive liquids and acids should have what kind of label?
(A) Yellow
(B) White
(C) Skull and crossbones
(D) Red
723.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-27) Flammable liquids should have what kind of label?

(A) White
(B) Skull and crossbones
(C) Yellow
(D) Red
724.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-11) The flash point of vinyl chloride is __________.

(A) -108F (-78C)
(B) 32F (0C)
(C) -20F (-29C)
(D) 97F (36C)
Deck General
September 2015

725.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.7D-28) Nonflammable gases should have what kind of label?

(A) Green
(B) White
(C) Red
(D) Skull and crossbones
726.
(2.2.1.7D-12) Containers of flammable solids should be conspicuously labeled by the shipper

with a __________.
o
o
o
(A) red and white label

(B) green label
(C) orange label
(D) yellow label
727.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-16) Cottonseed oil is classed as a __________.

(A) combustible liquid
(B) flammable solid
(C) flammable liquid
(D) poison B
728.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-17) Argon is classified as a __________.

(A) flammable gas
(B) nonflammable gas
(C) corrosive
(D) flammable liquid
729.
(2.2.1.7D-33) The appearance of Bunker C and fuel oils are dark colored liquids, and
__________ .
o
o
o
(A) viscous oils

(B) soluble oils
(C) cutting oils
(D) slop oils

730.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.7D-39) What are the health hazard ratings for a product of triethylbenzene?
(A) 1,1,1
(B) 2,2,2
(C) 0,1,1
(D) Unavailable
731.
(2.2.1.7D-40) In order to determine the health hazard data for carbolic acid, you would use that
information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical?
o
o
o
(A) Phenol
(B) Carbon bisulfide
(C) Carbinol
(D) Acetic oxide
732.
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-45) A synonym for chloroform is __________.

(A) chlorine gas
(B) 4-methyl phenol
(C) trichloromethane
(D) sulfuric chlorohydrin
733.
(2.2.1.7D-46) According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material would corrode upon contact
with aniline?
o
o
(A) Nickel
(B) Aluminum
(C) Copper
(D) Mild steel
734.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-50) What is the Reid vapor pressure of a Grade A flammable liquid?

(A) 14 psia or more
(B) more than 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia
(C) 5 to 8 1/2 psia

Deck General
September 2015
735.
(2.2.1.7D-51) According to the Chemical Data Guide, what are the flammable limits of ethylene
oxide?
o
o
(A) 1.85 - 48.0%

(B) 2 - 100%
(C) 1.9 - 88.0%
(D) 2.7 - 34%
736.
(2.2.1.7D-52) According to the Chemical Data Guide, ethylene oxide exhibits which fire and
explosion hazard?
o
o
(A) It breaks down into highly toxic fumes of bromides.

(B) It does not need oxygen for combustion.
(C) It reacts with water to provide flammable vapors.
(D) Its flash point is 80.4F.
737.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-54) What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid?

(A) iso-Propylamine
(B) Ethyl acetate
(C) Morpholine
(D) Acetone
738.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-55) What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid?

(A) Pentane
(B) Methyl alcohol
(C) Nonyl phenol
(D) Ethylene dibromide
739.
(2.2.1.7D-56) According to the Chemical Data Guide, what does ethyl chloride produce when
ignited?
o
o
o
(A) Toxic fumes of lead

(B) Poisonous chlorine gas
(C) Toxic fumes of oxides of nitrogen
(D) Poisonous phosgene gas

Deck General
September 2015
740.
(2.2.1.7D-57) During transfer operations, ethyl chloride spills into the water. According to the
Chemical Data Guide, at what temperature will the ethyl chloride boil off the water?
o
o
(A) above 46F

(B) above 54F
(C) above 60F
(D) above 68F
741.
(2.2.1.7D-58) During transfer operations, a quantity of propylamine spills on deck. According to

the Chemical Data Guide, what is the correct reaction?
o
o
(A) cover the contaminated surface with soda-ash-soaked lime solution

(B) add sodium bisulfate on the contaminated surface and spray it down with water
(C) immediately flush the spill with large quantities of fresh water
(D) move to a position upwind of the spill and allow the product to boil off
742.
(2.2.1.7D-59) According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health
hazard rating of 3,2,2. What does the last digit "2" of the rating mean?
o
o
o
(A) the chemical poison presents some hazard if it enters the body and typically has threshold
limits of 100 to 500 ppm
(B) chemical vapors will cause a slight smarting of the eyes or respiratory system if present in
high concentrations
(C) the chemical is severely hazardous, usually having threshold limits below 10 ppm
(D) the chemical contains fairly severe skin irritants, causing second- and third-degree burns after
a few minutes contact
743.
(2.2.1.7D-60) According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is a recommended extinguishing

agent for an ethyl chloride fire?
o
o
o
(A) Carbon Tetrachloride

(B) Alcohol foam
(C) Water foam
(D) CO2

Deck General
September 2015
744.
(2.2.1.7D-64) According to the Chemical Data Guide, what does the grade B flammable liquid
carbon disulfide produce when burning?
o
o
(A) phosgene gas

(B) sulfur dioxide gas
(C) carbon tetrachloride
(D) sulfuric acid gas
745.
(2.2.1.7D-66) According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for the grade B flammable
liquid piperylene is __________.
o
o
(A) not available

(B) -20F
(C) 108F
(D) 43C
746.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-67) According to the Chemical Data Guide, piperylene possesses which characteristic?
(A) A Reid vapor pressure of 14 psia
(B) Specific Gravity of 0.86
(C) A boiling point of 43F
(D) Insoluble in water
747.
(2.2.1.7D-68) According to the Chemical Data Guide, 1,3 - pentadiene possesses which
characteristic?
o
o
(A) Pale yellow liquid, strong odor

(B) Straw-colored liquid, sweet-odor
(C) Colorless liquid, faint odor
(D) Colorless liquid, mild aromatic odor
748.
(2.2.1.7D-69) According to the Chemical Data Guide, to what chemical family does 1,3 pentadiene belong?
o
o
o
(A) Olefins
(B) Unsaturated hydrocarbons
(C) Esters
(D) Phosphorus

749.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-71) What is the Vapor pressure of ethylene oxide at 46 C?

(A) 15.2 (psia)
(B) 38.5 (psia)
(C) 10.9 (psia)
(D) 48.0 (psia)
750.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-72) To what chemical family does ethylene oxide belong?

(A) Esters
(B) Alkylene oxides
(C) Glycol ethers
(D) Alcohols
751.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-73) What is the Reid vapor pressure of a grade B product?

(A) 7 psia and a flash point of 80F
(B) above 14 psia
(C) 9 1/2 psia and a flash point of 95F
(D) more than 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia and a flash point of 72F
752.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-76) What is the boiling point of carbon disulfide?

(A) 167F
(B) 115F
(C) 111F
(D) 46F
753.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-79) Which of the following is classified as a flammable liquid?

(A) Methyl alcohol
(B) Mineral spirits
(C) Butane
(D) Bunker C
Deck General
September 2015

754.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.7D-81) What is a grade B flammable liquid?

(A) Chlorallylene
(B) Ethylene oxide
(C) Paraldehyde
(D) Allyl alcohol
755.
(2.2.1.7D-84) Which of the following would be a good extinguishing agent for a grade B product
of 1,3-Pentadiene?
o
o
o
(A) High Velocity Fog

(B) Low Velocity Fog
(C) Water
(D) Foam
756.
(2.2.1.7D-85) According to the chemical data guide, what type of odor would you smell if a leak
occurred while loading diethylenetriamine?
o
o
o
(A) ammonia
(B) gasoline
(C) rotten eggs
757.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-86) What is a major health hazard of the product tert-butylamine?

(A) causes irreversible damage to eye tissue
(B) can be absorbed through the skin
(C) is a very unstable product
(D) it reacts to protective rubber gear
758.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-87) Which of the flash points would indicate a grade D combustible liquid?
(A) 65F
(B) 160F
(C) 155F
(D) 87F

759.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.7D-88) Grade D liquids are those having flash points of __________.

(A) 150F or greater but less than 212F
(B) 80F or less
(C) 212F or greater
(D) greater than 80F and less than 150F
760.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-89) Which flash point would indicate a grade D combustible liquid?

(A) 40F
(B) 95F
(C) 79F
(D) 155F
761.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-91) Which cargo is considered volatile?

(A) Bunker C
(B) Sweet oil
(C) Turkey-red oil
(D) iso-Propylamine
762.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-93) According to the Chemical Data Guide, epichlorohydrin is a(n) __________.

(A) corrosive
(B) class B poison
(C) oxidizer
(D) explosive
763.
(2.2.1.7D-95) Depending on its concentration, which product(s) can be classified as either grade
D or E?
o
o
(A) Sulfuric acid

(B) Formaldehyde solutions 37% to 50%
(C) 1,1,1-trichloroethane

Deck General
September 2015
764.
(2.2.1.7D-97) If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) below the "explosive range"

(B) within the "explosive range"
(C) above the "explosive range"
765.
(2.2.1.7D-98) According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent should be used
on a petrolatum fire in an open area?
o
o
o
(A) Foam
(B) Dry chemical
(C) CO2
(D) Monoxide powders
766.
(2.2.1.7D-99) If a crew member is exposed to phenol by way of skin or eye contact, you should
IMMEDIATELY __________.
o
o
o
(A) flush skin and eyes with water

(B) administer oxygen
(C) give victim stimulant
(D) treat victim for shock
767.
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-100) Camphor oil is classified as a __________.

(A) Grade A flammable liquid
(B) Grade C flammable liquid
(C) Grade D combustible liquid
(D) Grade E combustible liquid
768.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-101) Which flash point would indicate a grade E combustible liquid?

(A) 80F
(B) 155F
(C) 140F
(D) 75F

769.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.7D-102) Grade E liquids are those having a flash point of __________.

(A) 150F and below
(B) 150F and above
(C) below 80F
(D) below 150F and above 80F
770.
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-103) Vinyl chloride reacts dangerously with __________.

(A) saltwater
(B) alkalies
(C) concentrated nitric acid
(D) organic acids
771.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7D-104) Heavy fuel oils when spilled are __________.

(A) less harmful to sea life than lighter oils
(B) more harmful to sea life than lighter oils
(C) not a real threat to marine life
(D) easier to clean up than lighter refined oils
772.
(2.2.1.7E1-1) In accordance with regulations, ethylene oxide shall be loaded below what
temperature?
o
o
(A) 90F
(B) its flash point
(C) 70F
(D) 51F
773.
(2.2.1.7E1-29) When stowing hazardous materials on deck, lashing of such cargo is permitted if
__________.
o
o
(A) there is at least 3 inches of dunnage on deck

(B) the cargo is lashed to the adjacent guard rails
(C) the lashings are secured to deck pad eyes
(D) a wooden bin is constructed of at least 2-inch dunnage and bolted together

Deck General
September 2015
774.
(2.2.1.7E1-47) On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be
permitted during a loading operation?
o
o
o
(A) The senior deck officer on duty or certified tankerman

(B) Smoking is not permitted during a loading operation.
(C) The OCMI who issued the Certificate of Inspection
(D) The vessel owner
775.
(2.2.1.7E1-2) Protective clothing must be worn while sampling hazardous cargo on a tankship,
and as a minimum includes __________.
o
o
(A) chemical resistant gloves

(B) boots
(C) a face mask or goggles
(D) a hood or hard hat
776.
(2.2.1.7E1-4) You are on a cargo vessel carrying toluol in bulk in portable tanks. Which is a
requirement for pumping the toluol?
o
o
(A) Hose connections to the tank must be made with a minimum of three bolts.
(B) If transferring at anchor, you must display a red flag by day and a red light at night.
(C) There must be water pressure on the fire main.
(D) You must shut down if another vessel comes alongside.
777.
(2.2.1.7E1-34) You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. The Dangerous Cargo
Manifest must be signed by the __________.
o
o
(A) U.S. Coast Guard Marine Inspector

(B) shipper
(C) Master or his authorized representative
(D) Master only
778.
(2.2.1.7E1-5) Your tankship is carrying a cargo of styrene. Which of the following is NOT a
requirement for carriage of this cargo?
o
o
o
(A) Authorization to carry styrene must be endorsed on the Certificate of Inspection.

(B) The cargo tank heating coils must be blanked off.
(C) You must have a "Certificate of Inhibition" provided by the shipper.
(D) P/V valves with galvanized parts must be replaced.

Deck General
September 2015
779.
(2.2.1.7E1-6) Your U.S. tankship is designed to carry anhydrous ammonia in bulk. The keel was
laid in 1980. Which statement concerning the carriage of this cargo is TRUE?
o
o
(A) Aluminum, copper, zinc, and mercury are allowed in valve parts in contact with the cargo.
(B) Carriage of this cargo is authorized by issuance of an IMO Certificate.
(C) The cargo may be gauged by automatic float type devices.
(D) A flammable gas detection system must be installed in each cargo pump room.
780.
(2.2.1.7E1-35) You have loaded dangerous cargo on your vessel and must fill out a Dangerous
Cargo Manifest. In which publication would you find the requirements to complete this form?
o
o
o
(A) 33 CFR - Navigation and Navigable Waters

(B) IMCO - Intergovernmental Maritime Consultative Organization
(C) IMDG - International Maritime Dangerous Goods
(D) 46 CFR - Shipping
781.
(2.2.1.7E1-7) Your U.S. tankship is designed to carry anhydrous ammonia in bulk. The keel was
laid in 1980. Which statement concerning the carriage of this cargo is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) Carriage of this cargo is authorized by issuance of an IMO Certificate.

(B) Tanks may not be located "on deck".
(C) A flammable gas detection system must be installed in each cargo pump room.
(D) Aluminum and copper alloys are prohibited from being in valve parts in contact with the cargo.
782.
(2.2.1.7E1-8) You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker with orders to load diethylamine.
What is NOT a requirement for transporting this cargo?
o
o
(A) Each crew member must be provided with an emergency escape breathing apparatus.
(B) You must have a containment system made out of stainless steel other than types 416 and
422.
(C) If you are also carrying allyl alcohol, the venting systems don't have to be segregated.
(D) You must have two toxic vapor detectors or the pump room must meet special requirements.
783.
(2.2.1.7E1-9) You are on a vessel designed to carry compressed gasses in bulk with a cargo of
butadiene. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
(A) The cargo tank may be sampled only when the tank is being filled.
(B) Silver and copper are prohibited in the parts of valves and fittings in contact with the cargo.
(C) The shipping document must specify the exact quantity of butadiene being carried.
(D) The ullage must be padded with compressed air at a minimum pressure of 2 psig.

784.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.7E1-11) You are on a tankship designed to carry molten sulfur. Which statement is TRUE?
(A) The pressure in the heating coils in the tanks must be less than that of the cargo exerted on
them.
(B) There must be two portable toxic vapor detectors on board.
(C) Cargo temperature may be taken by portable thermometers.
(D) The cargo tank ventilation system must maintain the H2S vapor concentration at 1.85% or
more by volume.
785.
(2.2.1.7E1-12) You are on a cargo vessel carrying portable tanks of dangerous cargoes in bulk.
o
o
o
(A) All electrical equipment within 10 feet horizontally must be explosion proof or intrinsically safe.
(B) If the tanks are off loaded, no more than two tanks may be lifted together in a hoist.
(C) When transferring sulfuric acid, you must display a red flag by day whether at anchor or
moored.
(D) If the tanks are pumped out while remaining on board, each hose connection must have a
minimum of three bolts.
786.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7E1-13) What type of gauging is required for a cargo of formic acid?

(A) Restricted
(B) Open
(C) Closed
787.
o
o
(2.2.1.7E1-14) You are on a tankship carrying benzene in bulk. Which statement is TRUE?
(A) The crew quarters must have positive-pressure ventilation to prevent the fumes from entering
the living spaces.
(B) No other cargoes may be carried due to the possibility of contamination by a carcinogen.
(C) Personnel working in regulated areas must use respirators.
(D) Benzene is not a cancer-causing agent.
788.
(2.2.1.7E1-15) What is NOT required as special safety equipment on a tankship carrying

hazardous cargoes in bulk?
o
o
(A) Equipment to lift an injured person from a pump room

(B) A safety locker adjacent to the emergency shutdown station
(C) Two portable vapor detectors suitable for the cargoes carried
(D) Shower and eyewash fountain

Deck General
September 2015
789.
(2.2.1.7E1-16) You are on a vessel carrying liquefied butadiene in bulk. Which document is NOT
required to be either in the wheelhouse or easily accessible to the person on watch while underway?
o
o
o
(A) Cargo manual

(B) Shipping document
(C) Cargo information card
790.
(2.2.1.7E1-17) Your tankship is carrying a 30% solution of hydrogen peroxide. The cargo
containment system must have a permanent inert gas system. While discharging this cargo the inert
gas system must maintain a minimum pressure of __________.
o
o
(A) 3.0 psig

(B) 0.5 psig
(C) atmospheric pressure
(D) 5.0 psig
791.
(2.2.1.7E1-19) Your tank vessel is loading a hazardous cargo. The allowance for expansion is
based on ambient temperatures of what maximum range?
o
o
o
(A) -18C to 46C

(B) 0C to 100C
(C) -10C to 90C
(D) -40C to 50C
792.
(2.2.1.7E1-20) You are on a vessel that carries liquefied gasses in bulk. The person on watch is
required to have what information about the cargo easily accessible?
o
o
(A) Name and address of consignee

(B) Exact quantity on board
(C) Firefighting procedures
(D) Port of loading
793.
(2.2.1.7E1-22) No hot work shall be performed on board a vessel with hazardous materials as
cargo unless the work is approved by the __________.
o
o

(B) local U.S. Coast Guard Captain of the Port
(C) harbormaster

794.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.7E1-23) In handling break bulk hazardous materials, it is forbidden to use __________.

(A) pallets
(B) cargo nets
(C) slings
(D) metal bale hooks
795.
(2.2.1.7E1-24) On a manned vessel carrying packaged hazardous cargo, the hazardous

materials shall be inspected __________.
o
o
o
(A) prior to entry into a U.S. port

(B) every 24 hours unless equipped with a fire detecting system
(C) after stowage is complete
796.
(2.2.1.7E1-25) Once a vessel has loaded packaged hazardous cargo, the cargo spaces shall be
inspected. The spaces shall also be inspected at least once in every 24 hours. The only exception to
daily inspection is when __________.
o
o
(A) there is sufficient fire protection located on the main deck adjacent to the cargo hatch
(B) a vessel is equipped with an automatic smoke or fire detecting system
(C) the cargo hatches are of steel construction
(D) the cargo is of a nonflammable type
797.
(2.2.1.7E1-26) You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. The regulations require
you to __________.
o
o
o
(A) periodically inspect it and make an entry in a log

(B) keep a warning sign posted nearby
(C) keep a fire hose run out and ready for use if needed
(D) allow no chipping or painting in the vicinity of the cargo
798.
(2.2.1.7E1-27) If a Master must jettison a container loaded with hazardous material, he must, as
soon as possible, notify the __________.
o
o
(A) Environmental Protection Agency

(B) nearest Captain of the Port
(D) National Hazardous Chemical Response Center

Deck General
September 2015
799.
(2.2.1.7E1-28) Your ship is carrying hazardous cargo. During a daily inspection, you notice that
some of the cargo has shifted and several cases are broken. You should FIRST __________.
o
o
(A) log the facts in the rough log and inform the Chief Mate later
(B) report the facts immediately to the Master, who will make a decision
(C) call out the deck gang to jettison the cargo
(D) make a determination of the seriousness of the breakage, and do what you think best
800.
(2.2.1.7E1-30) What is NOT a requirement for the preparation of used, gasoline-propelled cars if
they are to be carried as ordinary cargo and not as hazardous cargo?
o
o
o
(A) The vehicle must be inspected for fuel leaks.

(B) The engine must be run until it dies from lack of fuel.
(C) The ignition key may not be in the ignition.
(D) The fuel tank must be inerted with CO2.
801.
(2.2.1.7E1-31) Which agency is authorized to assist the Coast Guard in the inspection of vessels
for the suitability of loading hazardous materials?
o
o
(A) U.S. Navy explosive loading details

(C) National Cargo Bureau, Inc.
(D) Environmental Protection Agency
802.
(2.2.1.7E1-32) What would NOT require that a detailed report of the release of hazardous cargo
be made to the Department of Transportation?
o
o
(A) Heavy weather causes damage to packages of a hazardous liquid that is subsequently
pumped out at sea through the bilge pumping system.
(B) Part of your deck cargo of five gallon cans of paint is damaged and leaking so you jettison
them to eliminate the fire hazard.
(C) A carboy of nitric acid is broken on deck while loading and is flushed overboard with no injury
or damage.
(D) The valve on an empty portable tank that contained acetone is accidentally opened and some
of the residue escapes to the open sea.

Deck General
September 2015
803.
(2.2.1.7E1-36) You are loading a cargo that includes cylinders of acetylene aboard your break
bulk vessel. Which statement is true?
o
o
o
(A) Stowage in the upper deck-deck is considered to be the equivalent of "on deck" stowage for
this cargo.
(B) The cylinders may be protected from the radiant heat of the Sun by laying a tarp on them.
(C) The cylinders must have a red label for flammability and a green label for compressed gas.
(D) The cylinders must be stowed at least 10 horizontal feet from corrosive materials in the same
space.
804.
(2.2.1.7E1-37) All handling and stowage of packaged hazardous materials on board a domestic
vessel engaged in foreign trade shall be done under the supervision of __________.
o
o
(A) the National Cargo Bureau

(B) a U.S. Coast Guard Marine Inspector
(C) an officer assigned to the vessel
(D) the American Bureau of Shipping
805.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7E1-39) Many dangerous cargoes are stowed on deck because of the __________.
(A) danger to crew and cargo
(B) necessity of periodic inspection
(C) possible need to jettison
806.
(2.2.1.7E1-40) You have completed a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for dangerous cargoes loaded
on board. It should be kept in a conspicuous location __________.
o
o
(A) in the radio room

(B) in the ship's office
(C) on or near the bridge
(D) outside the Captain's stateroom
807.
(2.2.1.7E1-42) Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A,
B, C, or D cargoes?
o
o
o
(A) Pump rooms

(B) Cofferdams
(C) Enclosed deck spaces
(D) Navigation spaces

Deck General
September 2015
808.
(2.2.1.7E1-43) What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A
liquids?
o
o
(A) Each cargo tank must have a vent.

(B) A vent header must be fitted with a pressure-vacuum valve.
(C) The diameter of the vent must be greater than 4 inches in diameter.
(D) The vent must extend to a reasonable height above the weather deck.
809.
(2.2.1.7E1-44) In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to
pass through machinery spaces, what are the type(s) of cargo permitted to be carried through such
piping?
o
o
o
(A) grades D or E
(B) LFG
(C) grades A or B
(D) grade E
810.
(2.2.1.7E1-46) Air compressors are NOT permitted in which space(s) on a tank barge carrying
grade A cargo?
o
o
o
(A) A space in which cargo hose is stored

(B) A cargo handling room
(C) An enclosed space containing cargo piping
811.
(2.2.1.7E1-48) According to regulations, cargo pump rooms, on the tank vessels handling grades
A, B, or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type. What is the time
requirement to sufficiently effect a complete change of air?
o
o
(A) 1 minute
(B) 2 minutes
(C) 3 minutes
(D) 5 minutes

Deck General
September 2015
812.
(2.2.1.7E1-49) A vessel constructed after 1970, carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes, has

enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are normally present. What is not required for the
segregation of these spaces from cargo tanks?
o
o
(A) cofferdams
(B) galleys
(C) pump rooms
(D) tanks used to carry liquids having a flash point of 150F or above
813.
(2.2.1.7E1-50) Regulations require that cargo pump rooms on tank barges (constructed in 1965)
carrying grades B or C liquid cargoes have power ventilation systems. In what time period can these
systems completely change the air?
o
o
(A) 1 minute
(B) 3 minutes
(C) 5 minutes
(D) 10 minutes
814.
(2.2.1.7E1-51) Regulations require that cargo tanks in which grades B or C liquids are carried
must be vented with which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) Flame screens

(B) Forced draft blowers
(C) Gooseneck vents
(D) Pressure vacuum relief valves
815.
(2.2.1.7E1-52) What are tank vessels handling grade B liquids required to have their cargo
pumps separated from all sources of vapor ignition by?
o
o
(A) areas equipped with power ventilation

(B) gas tight bulkheads
(C) cofferdams
(D) empty cargo spaces

Deck General
September 2015
816.
(2.2.1.7E1-53) What are the minimum ventilation requirements for pump rooms on tank vessels,
constructed in 1960, carrying grades B or C liquid cargo with machinery spaces located below the
freeboard deck?
o
o
(A) that it be fitted with at least two ducts extended to the weather deck
(B) that it be power ventilation
(C) that it be connected to a vent header system
(D) gooseneck vents and flame screens
817.
o
o
(2.2.1.7E1-54) In order to carry a cargo of triethanolamine, what hull type is required?

(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
818.
o
o
o
(A) Non-flammable gases

(B) Toxic gases
(C) Inert gases
(D) Flammable gases
819.
o
o
o
(A) Inert gases

(B) Flammable gases
(C) Poison gases
(D) Non-flammable gases
820.
o
o
(A) Flammable gases

(B) Poison gases
(C) Non-flammable gases
(D) Inert gases

Deck General
September 2015
821.
o
o
o
(A) Flammable solid

(B) Flammable liquid
(C) Non-flammable gases
(D) Dangerous when wet
822.
o
o
o
(A) Dangerous when wet

(B) Flammable solid
(C) Flammable liquid
(D) Spontaneously combustible
823.
o
o
o
(A) Flammable liquid

(B) Spontaneously combustible
(C) Flammable solid
(D) Dangerous when wet
824.
o
o
o
(A) Corrosive
(B) Infectious substance
(C) Poison gases
(D) Oxidizer
825.
o
o
o
(A) Poison
(B) Oxidizer
(C) Corrosive
(D) Organic Peroxide

Deck General
September 2015
826.
(2.2.1.7E1-66) You are the mate on watch during cargo operations and are conducting the
inspection of a hold containing class 3 substances. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the
following is true of any hand flashlight you may be using?
o
o
(A) it must be suitable for use in non-hazardous locations

(B) it must be suitable for use in hazardous locations
(C) the power source must not exceed three volts
(D) it must be USCG approved
827.
(2.2.1.7E1-67) Closed freight containers and closed cargo units are used in the shipment of
freight. Which of the following defines these terms?
o
o
(A) a freight container in which the contents are enclosed by rigid surrounding walls
(B) a freight container in which the contents are enclosed by permanent structures
(C) a freight container in which the contents are enclosed by fabric sides, top and secured with a
locking cable
(D) a freight container in which the contents are enclosed by permanent structures on the sides
and a plastic or fabric top
828.
(2.2.1.7E1-68) In accordance with U.S regulations vessels transporting hazardous materials are
required to have a Dangerous Cargo Manifest. Where is this document to be kept?
o
o
(A) on or near the vessel's bridge except when underway

(B) on or near the vessel's bridge except when docked in a US port
(C) in the possession of the Master at all times
(D) in the Cargo Office while underway
829.
(2.2.1.7E1-69) On a manned vessel transporting hazardous materials what is the frequency of

required inspections of cargo holds where the materials are stowed?
o
o
(A) once every 24 hours after periods of heavy weather and prior to discharging the cargo
(B) upon completion of loading, and and after periods of heavy weather unless the hold is
equipped with automatic smoke/fire monitoring capability
(C) upon completion of loading, and at least once every 24 hours thereafter if the hold is
equipped with automatic smoke/fire monitoring capability
(D) once every 48 hours weather permitting

Deck General
September 2015
830.
(2.2.1.7E1-71) Where can the U.S. regulations for the preparation of cargo holds prior to loading
hazardous material be found?
o
o
(A) 46 CFR 176.57

(B) 49 CFR 176.63
(C) 49 CFR 176.58
(D) 46 CFR 176.58
831.
(2.2.1.7E1-72) Which of the following describes the difference between a closed freight container
and an open freight container?
o
o
o
(A) a closed unit encloses its contents with a permanent structure and the open unit does not
(B) a closed unit encloses its contents with a semi-permanent structure and the open unit does
not
(C) an open unit encloses its contents with a permanent structure and has an access door that
the closed unit does not have
(D) an open unit encloses its contents with a semi-permanent structure and the closed unit does
not
832.
(2.2.1.7E1-73) In accordance with U.S. regulations on the transportation of hazardous materials,

which of the following is true concerning a transport unit with fabric sides or tops?
o
o
o
(A) they are semi-rigid cargo transport units

(B) they are closed cargo transport units
(C) they are ventilated cargo transport units
(D) they are open cargo transport units
833.
(2.2.1.7E1-75) Your vessel is preparing to load Class 1 explosive material in a US port. In

accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following best describes the procedure for rigging of
the required tow wires?
o
o
(A) on the bow the wire shall be secured to the bitts with the towing eye passed inboard and kept
at water level
(B) on the bow and stern, the wires shall be secured to the bitts and coiled on deck ready for
immediate deployment
(C) on the bow and stern, the wires shall be secured to the bitts with the towing eye passed
outboard and kept at water level
(D) on the bow and stern, the wires shall be secured to the bitts with the towing eye passed
inboard and kept at water level

Deck General
September 2015
834.
(2.2.1.7E1-76) Your vessel is loading Class 1 explosives into hatch No. 2 when you observe an
electrical storm approaching from the east. What actions should you take?
o
o
(A) rig a bonding cable from your vessel to the dock in the event the vessel is struck by lighting
(B) call for assist tugs to stand-by and send the longshoremen ashore for their safety
(C) halt loading operations and close hatch No. 2 until the weather is clear and the storm has
passed
(D) continue loading hatch No. 2 and monitor the VHF marine weather channel
835.
(2.2.1.7E1-77) In accordance with U.S. regulations, what natural phenomena would require you
to stop cargo operations involving Class 1 explosive materials and secure hatches?
o
o
(A) thunder
(B) an electrical storm
(C) moderate onshore winds
(D) snow flurries
836.
(2.2.1.7E1-78) In accordance with U.S. regulations, where are the signs prohibiting smoking
required to be posted while the vessel is loading Class 1 explosive materials?
o
o
o
(A) at all locations where Class 1 materials are being handled

(B) in all inside ladder wells on the vessel
(C) in the officer and crew mess halls on the vessel
(D) in all the recreational rooms on the vessel
837.
(2.2.1.7E2-1) In which of the following publications can the requirements for shipment of
hazardous materials by water be found?
o
o
(A) 49 CFR and the International Hazardous Goods Code

(B) 46 CFR and Safety of Life at Sea Manual
(C) 49 CFR and the International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code
(D) 46 CFR and the International Hazardous Goods Code
838.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.7E2-2 What mode of transportation does the IMDGC cover?

(A) transportation by air for international commerce
(B) transportation by rail for international commerce
(C) all modes of transportation for international commerce
(D) transportation by water for international commerce

Deck General
September 2015
839.
(2.2.1.7E2-3) The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns dangerous goods into
classes. How many main classes are there?
o
o
o
(A) nine main classes

(B) eleven main classes
(C) six main classes
(D) eight main classes
840.
(2.2.1.7E2-4) The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes for dangerous
goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 1 substances?
o
o
o
(A) Flammable liquids

(B) Gases
(C) Radioactive material
(D) Explosives
841.
goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 2 substance?
o
o
o
(A) Oxidizing substance and organic peroxides

(B) Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles
(C) Toxic and Infectious substances
(D) Gases
842.
o
o
o
(A) Flammable liquids

(B) Gases
(C) Toxic and infectious substances
(D) Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles
843.
o
o
(A) Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides

(C) Flammable solids
(D) Toxic and infectious substances

Deck General
September 2015
844.
o
o
(A) Corrosive substance

(B) Explosives
(C) Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides
(D) Radioactive material
845.
o
o
(A) Gases
(B) Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides
(D) Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles
846.
(2.2.1.7E2-10) The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes for
dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 7 substances?
o
o
o

(B) Toxic and infectious substances
(C) Flammable solids
847.
(2.2.1.7E2-11) The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes for
dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 8 substances?
o
o
o
(A) Corrosive substance

(B) Flammable liquids
848.
(2.2.1.7E2-12) The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes to dangerous
o
o

(D) Gases

Deck General
September 2015
849.
(2.2.1.9A-1) Which lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be painted or soaked in oil
when not in use?
o
o
(A) Wire rope.

(B) Chain
(C) Webbing
850.
(2.2.1.9A-2) Which of the following lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be stowed
when not in use?
o
o
o
(A) Wire rope

(B) Webbing
(C) Chain
851.
(2.2.1.9A-3) Entries should be made in a Ro-Ro vessel's cargo-securing device record book for
__________.
o
o
o
(A) procedures for accepting cargo securing devices

(B) procedures for maintaining and repairing cargo-securing devices
(C) record of cargo securing device inspections
852.
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-4) Which of the following is a characteristic of a Ro-Ro vessel?

(A) Long port stays necessary to secure vehicles
(B) Passenger tours available upon docking
(C) Short in port turnaround times
(D) Heavy vehicles only require lightweight securing equipment
853.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-5) How could lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels be stowed when not in use?
(A) Hang vertically in a sheltered area
(B) Stow in bins at hatch coming side
(C) Drape along brackets

854.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.9A-6) What characterizes a Ro-Ro vessel?

(A) Long port stays required for cargo securing
(B) High freeboard and sail area
(C) May carry up to 24 passengers
(D) Lightweight securing equipment trailers
855.
(2.2.1.9A-7) Which of the following lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be
maintained when not in use?
o
o
o
(A) Wire rope

(B) Webbing
(C) Chain
856.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-8) Which of the following is not a loading or transfer feature aboard a Ro-Ro vessel?
(A) Cargo lift
(B) Hatch opening designed as a lift
(C) Stern ramp and/or side ramp
(D) Stuelcken boom
857.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-9) The primary objective of a Ro-Ro vessel is to __________.

(A) transfer containers without chassis
(B) load the vessel with palletized cargo
(C) be loaded full and down to her marks
(D) transport vehicles
858.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-10) Cargo that is suitable for carriage on Ro-Ro vessels includes __________.
(A) trailers
(B) containers
(C) rolling vehicles

Deck General
September 2015
859.
(2.2.1.9A-11) Which of the following are considered to be "road vehicles" that can be carried on
Ro-Ro vessels?
o
o
o
(A) Articulated road train

(B) Semi-trailer
(C) Road train
860.
(2.2.1.9A-12) Which of the following are considered to be "road vehicles" that can be carried on
Ro-Ro vessels?
o
o
(A) Train
(B) Articulated train
(C) Semi-trailer
861.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-13) Any vehicle to be loaded aboard a Ro-Ro vessel must __________.

(A) be provided with an effective braking system
(B) weigh less than 22 tons
(C) have securing points with each aperture capable of accepting more than one lashing
862.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-14) Which operating procedure(s) should be adhered to on a Ro-Ro vessel?

(A) One officer assigned to oversee the initial loading and lashing
(B) All lashings should be completed before leaving port
(C) Periodic inspection and retensioning of lashings during the voyage
863.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-15) Which standard operating procedure(s) should be adhered to on a Ro-Ro vessel?

(A) One deck engine mechanic assigned to oversee the initial loading and lashing
(B) Periodic inspection and retensioning of lashings as required during voyage
(C) Battery cables must be disconnected to prevent fire hazard

864.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.9A-16) When accepting vehicles for shipment, the Master should ensure that __________.
(A) vehicles are in apparent good order and condition suitable for sea transport, particularly with
regards to securing
(B) all decks intended for the stowage of vehicles are, in so far as is practicable, free from oil and
grease
(C) the ship has on board an adequate supply of cargo securing gear, which is maintained in
sound working condition
865.
(2.2.1.9A-17) Onboard a Ro-Ro vessel many decks are used for the carriage of both rolling and
container cargoes, as such it is most useful if a deck socket accepts both __________.
o
o
(A) container locks and bridge fittings

(B) twist-Locks and lashing hooks
(C) bridge fittings and lashing hooks
(D) twist-locks and container locks
866.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-18) Cargo securing for Ro-Ro is based on the concept of __________.

(A) vessel loaded full and down to her marks
(B) palletized cargo
(C) solid packing
(D) rapid loading and discharge
867.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-19) The securing of passenger cars on a Ro-Ro vessel requires __________.

(A) low labor intensive equipment
(B) specially designed equipment to avoid vehicle damage
(C) simple and lightweight equipment
868.
(2.2.1.9A-20) Which of the following is considered auxiliary securing equipment that provides
extra reliability to lashing in Ro-Ro transport operations?
o
o
o
(A) Trailer trestles

(B) Pedestals
(C) Wheel chocks

Deck General
September 2015
869.
(2.2.1.9A-21) The lashings used on Ro-Ro vessels should be capable of withstanding the forces
of __________.
o
o
o
(A) rolling
(B) pitching
(C) heaving
870.
(2.2.1.9A-22) Which variable factor affects the initial lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro
vessels?
o
o
(A) Vessel's draft

(B) Center of gravity of vehicle or cargo unit
(C) Changes in humidity
(D) Age of vehicle or cargo unit
871.
vessels?
o
o
o
(A) Reputation of shipper concerning condition of cargo

(B) Air pressure in the vehicles tires
(C) Age of vehicle or cargo unit
(D) Size and weight of vehicle/cargo unit
872.
vessels?
o
o
o
(A) Number, position and angle of lashings

(B) ABS requirements
(C) Port of origin
(D) Vessel's draft
873.
(2.2.1.9A-25) Which lashing device(s) would be used in securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro
vessels?
o
o
(A) Webbing
(B) Chain
(C) Buckle or ratchet tensioner

Deck General
September 2015
874.
(2.2.1.9A-26) Which of the following lashing materials would be used in securing heavy vehicles
aboard Ro-Ro vessels?
o
o
o
(A) Chain lever or turnbuckle

(B) Buckle or ratchet tensioner
(C) Webbing
875.
(2.2.1.9A-27) Which lashing materials would be used in securing light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro
vessels?
o
o

(B) Webbing
(C) Chain
876.
(2.2.1.9A-28) Which lashing material is preferred when securing new cars aboard Ro-Ro
vessels?
o
o

(B) Webbing
(C) Wire
877.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-29) What is used when securing light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?
(A) Chain
(B) Buckle or ratchet tensioner
(C) Manila rope
(D) Wire
878.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-30) What is used when securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?
(A) Manila rope
(B) Webbing
(C) Buckle or ratchet tensioner
(D) None of these

879.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.1.9A-31) What is used when securing light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?
(B) Wire
(C) Chain
(D) None of these
880.
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-32) What may NOT be used when securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?
(A) Chain lever
(B) Chain
(C) Webbing
(D) Turnbuckle
881.
(2.2.1.9A-33) An advantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is
that it __________.
o
o
(A) is light weight

(B) has fine adjustment
(C) has long life
(D) absorbs shock
882.
(2.2.1.9A-34) A disadvantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is
that it __________.
o
o
(A) is affected by temperature

(B) is easily damaged
(C) does not absorb shock
(D) can wrap around cargo
883.
(2.2.1.9A-35) A disadvantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is
that it is __________.
o
o
o
(A) affected by temperature

(B) easily damaged
(C) costly relative to the strength ratio
(D) heavy

Deck General
September 2015
884.
(2.2.1.9A-36) The disadvantage(s) of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro
vessels is that __________.
o
o
o
(A) it is heavy
(B) the links lose strength if placed over corners
(C) it does not absorb shock
885.
(2.2.1.9A-)37 A disadvantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is
that __________.
o
o
o
(A) it has high initial cost

(B) it is affected by temperature
(C) it is easily damaged
(D) the links lose strength if placed over corners
886.
(2.2.1.9A-38) The disadvantage(s) of using web lashing on light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels
is that it __________.
o
o
o
(A) is vulnerable to damage and pilferage

(B) deteriorates in sunlight
(C) cuts on sharp edges
887.
(2.2.1.9A-39) What is/are the advantage(s) of using web lashing on light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro
vessels?
o
o
o
(A) Good working life

(B) Flexible
(C) Light and easy to handle
888.
(2.2.1.9A-40) The advantage(s) of using wire rope lashing on vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is
that it __________.
o
o
o
(A) has a good working life

(B) is not affected by temperature
(C) is Lighter than chain

Deck General
September 2015
889.
(2.2.1.9A-41) Which tensioning device is used with wire rope lashing to secure vehicles aboard
Ro-Ro vessels?
o
o
(A) Chain lever

(B) Adjust-a-matic tensioner
(C) Ratchet tensioner
(D) Buckle tensioner
890.
(2.2.1.9A-42) Which tensioning device is used with chain to secure heavy vehicles aboard RoRo vessels?
o
o
(A) Buckle tensioner

(B) Chain lever
(D) Adjust-a-matic tensioner
891.
(2.2.1.9A-43) Which tensioning device is used with webbing to secure light vehicles aboard RoRo vessels?
o
o
o
(A) Turnbuckle
(B) Chain lever
(C) Adjust-a-matic tensioner
(D) Ratchet tensioner
892.
(2.2.1.9A-44) Which of the following tensioning devices is used with webbing to secure light
vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?
o
o
o
(A) Chain lever

(B) Turnbuckle
(D) Buckle tensioner
893.
(2.2.1.9A-45) Which tensioning device is used with wire rope lashing to secure vehicles aboard
Ro-Ro vessels?
o
o
o
(A) Adjust-a-matic tensioner

(B) Buckle tensioner
(D) Chain lever.

Deck General
September 2015
894.
(2.2.1.9A-46) Which tensioning device is used with chain to secure heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro
vessels?
o
o
(A) Buckle tensioner

(B) Turnbuckle
(D) Ratchet tensioner
895.
(2.2.1.9A-47) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding lashing requirements to

secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?
o
o
(A) It is not necessary for an adequate number of securing points on the vehicles themselves
since setting the brakes is sufficient.
(B) The securing of cargo on flats and trailers must be adequate to withstand road motions only.
(C) The generally recommended lash angle is no greater than 45 degrees relative to the deck in
any direction.
(D) The movements experienced by road borne cargo are the same as the movements of a ship
at sea.
896.
(2.2.1.9A-48) Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding lashing requirements to secure
vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?
o
o
o
(A) It is necessary for an adequate number of securing points on the vehicles themselves in order
that lashings may be properly and safely utilized.
(B) The generally recommended lash angle cannot be greater than 45 degrees relative to the
deck in any direction.
(C) The securing of cargo on flats and trailers and in containers must be adequate to withstand
both road and sea motions
(D) All the above
897.
(2.2.1.9A-49) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding lashing requirements to

o
o
o
(A) It is NOT imperative that the securing of cargo on flats and trailers and in containers be
adequate for BOTH road and sea motions.
(B) For effective securing vehicles should be stowed athwartships whenever possible.
(C) It is not necessary to lash automobiles since setting the brakes is sufficient to keep them from
moving.
(D) The generally recommended lash angle should not be greater than 45 degrees relative to the
deck in any direction.

Deck General
September 2015
898.
(2.2.1.9A-50) Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding lashing requirements to
o
o
o
(A) It is imperative that the securing of cargo on flats and trailers and in containers be adequate
for both road and sea motions.
(B) The movements experienced by road borne cargo differ significantly from the roll and sway
movements of a ship at sea.
(C) It is necessary for adequate number and strength of securing points on the vehicles
themselves in order that lashings may be properly and safely utilized.
(D) All the above
899.
o
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-51) Which factor(s) affect lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro vessels?

(A) Wide variations of air temperature
(B) Ship's characteristics and motion in a seaway
(C) Trim of the vessel
900.
(2.2.1.9A-52) What should you be concerned with when loading and securing vehicles on a RoRo?
o
o
(A) Number of axles

(B) Disconnecting the battery cables to prevent fire hazard
(C) Number, position and angle of lashes
(D) Minor air pressure changes in the tires
901.
(2.2.1.9A-53) What should you be concerned with when loading and securing vehicles aboard a
Ro-Ro vessel?
o
o
o
(A) That all fuel is drained from the vehicles' tanks to prevent fire hazard
(B) The vehicles' brakes should not be set to allow for adjusting the lashings
(C) The preferred stowage of vehicles is athwartships wherever possible
(D) The size, weight, and center of gravity of vehicle/cargo unit
902.
(2.2.1.9A-54) Which factor(s) should be considered when loading vehicles or trailers aboard RoRo vessels?
o
o
o
(A) Layout of decks

(B) Tie-down and lashing
(C) Vertical clearances

Deck General
September 2015
903.
(2.2.1.9A-55) Which element(s) should be taken into account in the preparation of the "Cargo
Securing Manual"?
o
o
o
(A) Weight of the vehicles

(B) Geographical area of the voyage
(C) Dynamic forces under adverse weather conditions
904.
(2.2.1.9A-56) According to the IMO Code, what are the minimum number of securing points that
should be on each side of a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between 3.5 Tons and 20
Tons, when carried on Ro-Ro vessels?
o
o
o
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) Three
(D) One
905.
should be on each side of a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between 30 tons and 40
tons, when carried on Ro-Ro vessels?
o
o
o
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
906.
should be on each side of a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between 3.5 tons and 20
o
o
o
(A) Two
(B) One
(C) Three

Deck General
September 2015
907.
should be on each side of a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between 20 tons and 30
o
o
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
908.
(2.2.1.9A-61) What should be done before energizing the cargo hold ventilation on a Ro-Ro
vessel, prior to loading or discharging cargo?
o
o
o
(A) Notify the engine room.

(B) Call out the deck department for all hands.
(C) Notify the boarding agent.
909.
(2.2.1.9A-62) What should be done immediately after putting down the stern ramp on a Ro-Ro
vessel, prior to loading or discharging cargo?
o
o
(A) Turn on pump room ventilation.

(B) Raise/open the stern door.
(C) Call out the deck department for all hands.
(D) Turn on the red cargo light.
910.
(2.2.1.9A-63) Which of the following is NOT necessary, prior to loading or discharging cargo on a
Ro-Ro vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Raise/open the stern door.

(B) Turn on ventilation for cargo holds.
(C) Lower the stern ramp.
(D) Turn on the red cargo light.
911.
(2.2.1.9A-64) Which of the following actions are stated in the correct order prior to loading or
discharging cargo on a Ro-Ro vessel?
o
o
(A) Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp
(B) Lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door, turn on ventilation for cargo holds
(C) Raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp, turn on ventilation for cargo holds
(D) Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door

Deck General
September 2015
912.
o
o
o
(A) Raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp, turn on ventilation for cargo holds
(B) Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp
(C) Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door
(D) Lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door, turn on ventilation for cargo holds
913.
o
o
(A) Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp
(B) Lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door, turn on ventilation for cargo holds
(C) Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door
(D) Raise/open stern door, lower the stern ramp, turn on ventilation for cargo holds
914.
o
o
o
(A) Lower the stern ramp, raise/open stern door, turn on ventilation for cargo holds
(B) Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, raise/open stern door, lower the stern ramp
(C) Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, lower the stern ramp, raise/open stern door
(D) Raise/open stern door, lower the stern ramp, turn on ventilation for cargo holds
915.
(2.2.1.9A-68) Which of the following is the stated proper sequence before commencing cargo
operations aboard Ro-Ro vessels?
o
o
(A) Start ventilation, notify engine room, lower the ramp

(B) Notify engine room, lower the ramp, start ventilation
(C) Start ventilation, lower the ramp, notify engine room
(D) Lower the ramp, start ventilation, notify engine room
916.
o
o
(2.2.1.9A-69) Peck and Hale gear is used most commonly for securing __________.
(A) baled cargo
(B) palletized cargo
(C) automobiles
(D) large wooden crates

Deck General
September 2015
917.
(2.2.1.9A-70) While loading or discharging vehicles, which is the most important safety
consideration aboard a Ro-Ro vessel?
o
o
(A) Ensuring that a fuel barge cannot come alongside

(B) Preventing the asphyxiation of personnel below decks
(C) Notifying the engine room prior to completing operations
(D) Calling out the deck department for all hands periodically
918.
(2.2.1.9A-71) The most important safety consideration during loading or discharge aboard a RoRo vessel is __________.
o
o
o
(A) the thorough ventilation of all cargo spaces

(B) having the outboard anchor down
(C) ensuring that visitors cannot come aboard
(D) having all crewmembers and longshoremen wear hard hats

Deck General
September 2015
919.
(2.2.2.2B-48) Cargo tanks carrying grades D or E liquids on tank barges are required to be
vented with which of the following?
o
o
(A) branch vent lines and a vent header

(B) gooseneck vents and flame screens
(C) forced draft blowers
(D) pressure-vacuum relief valves
920.
(2.2.2.4A-17) Your ship has loaded 9,000 barrels of fuel oil at a cargo temperature of 35C
(95F). API gravity is 44. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. You are bound for New
Jersey from Venezuela. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is
55F at the discharge port?
o
o
(A) 85,560
(B) 504,900
(C) 370,440
(D) 485,100
921.
(2.2.2.9E5-4) When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, what is the MOST important
symptom to check for?
o
o
o
(A) suspension of breathing

(B) cold and moist skin
(C) unconsciousness
(D) slow and weak pulse
922.
(2.2.2.1C-26) What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A
liquids?
o
o
(A) A vent header must be fitted with a pressure-vacuum valve.

(B) The vent must extend to a reasonable height above the weather deck.
(C) The diameter of the vent must be greater than 4 inches in diameter.
(D) Each cargo tank must have a vent.

923.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.2.6A3-15) Which statement about inert gas pressures in a cargo tank is TRUE?
(A) High gas pressures may cause loss of suction when stripping.
(B) High gas pressures may cause pyrophoric oxidation in the tank.
(C) The pressures of the inert gas in the tank may create excessive pressure at the pump while
discharging.
(D) Gas pressures should be maintained at the highest permissible level throughout the
discharging process.
924.
(2.2.2.6B-14) On a LNG ship at anchor with cargo onboard, how is the vapor pressure in the
cargo tanks controlled?
o
o
o
(A) All boil-off vapor is normally burned in the boilers, and any excess steam generated is
controlled by the "steam dump system".
(B) Excess vapor is controlled by the "Thermo-regenerative saturation plant".
(C) Excess vapor is vented to the atmosphere.
(D) The vapor is compressed by the high duty gas compressor and returned to the tanks.
925.
(2.2.2.6A1-2) The high-level overfill tank alarm, installed in the on-board monitoring system, must
__________.
o
o
(A) sound when the tank is 90% full

(B) be both audible and visual
(C) operate in unison with other alarms
(D) be the same as the overfill alarm
926.
o
o
(2.2.2.9A-30) What is litmus paste is used to determine?

(A) the tank datum point
(B) innage
(C) thievage
(D) ullage

927.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.2.5B-12) Insulating flanges minimize the dangers arising from which of the following?
(A) smoking on deck
(B) tank over-pressurization
(C) accumulations of electrostatic charges
(D) loading asphalt
928.
o
o
o
(2.2.2.6B-34) What is one of the principal dangers inherent in liquefied petroleum gas?
(A) its low temperature causes frostbite or freezing
(B) the way it reacts with sea water
(C) as it warms up it becomes heavier than air
(D) the strong odor it produces
929.
(2.2.2.6B-28) In case of a LNG leak from a liquid header flanged connection, what is the first
precautionary action to take?
o
o
(A) Tighten the flange bolts until the leak stops.

(B) Call the Coast Guard
(C) Flood the area under the leak with water.
(D) Stop cargo transfer until the cause of the leak is corrected.
930.
o
o
(2.2.2.6A3-6) An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to __________.

(A) aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks
(B) force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outside atmosphere
(C) lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible
(D) increase the rate of discharge of cargo
931.
(2.2.2.9D-12) To insure proper seating when closing a valve on a tank, what position should the
valve be in?
o
o
o
(A) closed, opened a half turn, and then closed again

(B) set up as tight as possible by hand
(C) closed against the stop and the locking pin inserted
(D) set up tight using a valve wrench

Deck General
September 2015
932.
(2.2.2.6D-10) Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, the oxygen content in the tank must be
measured at a position __________.
o
o
(A) in the vent riser

(B) one meter from the deck
(C) at the top of the tank
(D) immediately above the level of the oil
933.
(2.2.2.4A-21) A cargo of oil has a coefficient of expansion of .0005 per degree F. If this cargo is
loaded at 70F, and a cargo temperature of 90F is expected at the discharge port, how many
barrels would you expect to unload if you loaded 10,000 barrels?
o
o
o
(A) 9,900
(B) 9,990
(C) 10,010
(D) 10,100
934.
(2.2.2.9A-23) Who must supervise functions aboard a tanker or tank barge such as connecting,
disconnecting, and topping off?
o
o
o
(A) the person designated as "person in charge"

(B) any certificated tankerman
(C) the Master of the vessel
(D) the officer of the watch
935.
(2.2.2.6D-23) You have completed a crude oil wash. What action should be taken with the oil in
the lines running to the washing machines?
o
o
o
(A) Open a COW nozzle forward and one aft and drain the line into the after tank by gravity
(B) Pull a suction using the supply line pump
(C) Close off all valves in the system and leave the oil in the line primed for the next crude oil
wash
(D) Blow the line out using compressed air
936.
(2.2.2.2B-33) A loaded hopper barge with independent tanks has a placard, with alternating red
and white quadrants, on each side and end. Which statement concerning this barge is TRUE?
o
o
(A) You must operate this barge as a lead barge.

(B) The barge should be spotted as far away from the towboat as possible.
(C) The barge must be in a protected position within the tow.
(D) The cargo will spontaneously ignite if released to the atmosphere.

Deck General
September 2015
937.
(2.2.2.9.C1.2-6) Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many
location(s)?
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
938.
(2.2.2.2B-3) Which credential enables a person to serve as person in charge of a tank barge
which is transferring cargo?
o
o
(A) Ordinary Seaman/Wiper

(B) Certified Tankerman
(C) Able Seaman
(D) Operator of Uninspected Towing Vessels
939.
(2.2.2.6B-24) At what maximum gas concentration must the fixed gas detection system on a
LNG ship activate an audible and visual alarm?
o
o
(A) 30% by volume.

(B) 20% by volume.
(C) 30% by lower flammable limit
(D) 20% of the lower flammable limit.
940.
(2.2.2.5D-17) What is a single fitting installed in a pipeline that either blanks off the pipe or allows
a full flow passage of a liquid through the pipe?
o
o
(A) pivot coupling

(B) spectacle flange
(C) blind flange
(D) quick-release coupling
941.
(2.2.2.3-7) Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed at night while bunkering at a
dock?
o
o
(A) One red light over a yellow light

(B) One red light over a white light
(C) One red light
(D) Two red lights

942.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.2.5C-4) Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps aboard tankers?

(A) They require extensive maintenance.
(B) They are used for stripping pumps.
(C) They are more expensive than reciprocating pumps.
(D) They are gravity-fed.
943.
(2.2.2.6A4-11) Vapor recovery hoses must be tested yearly at what ratio to their maximum
allowable working pressure?
o
o
o
(A) 1 mawp
(B) 2 mawp
(C) 3 mawp
(D) 5 mawp
944.
(2.2.2.2A-2) While underway and towing an unmanned tank barge you are required to
__________.
o
o
(A) open the tops of all empty tanks on the barge

(B) fly a red flag from the towing vessel
(C) maintain a strict watch on the barge from the towing vessel
(D) take hourly soundings of any loaded tanks on the barge
945.
(2.2.2.6C1-17) The vapor pressure of a gas is defined as the pressure necessary to keep it in
what state?
o
o
o
(A) inert state

(B) soluble state
(C) solid state
(D) liquified state
946.
(2.2.2.6A4-13) When checking the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes
requiring vapor recovery, the atmosphere must be sampled __________.
o
o
(A) one meter from the tank bottom and one meter below the tank top
(B) one half the ullage of the tank and one meter above the tank bottom
(C) one half the ullage of the tank and one meter below the tank top
(D) at three meter intervals from the tank top

947.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.2.7-1) Static electricity may be built up by the __________.

(A) settling of solids or water in petroleum
(B) flow of petroleum through pipes
(C) spraying or splashing of petroleum
948.
(2.2.2.4A-13) Your ship has loaded 22,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for
Panama. When loaded the cargo temperature was 90F. API was 15. The volume correction factor
(VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 100F at the discharge port, how many
barrels will be offloaded?
o
o
(A) 21,252
(B) 21,912
(C) 22,088
(D) 22,748
949.
o
o
o
(2.2.2.6B-48) During the ballast voyage, how are the tanks kept cold on an LNG tanker?
(A) aggressive gas compressor operation
(B) venting gas to the atmosphere
(C) managing the tank pressure
(D) spraying LNG heel through spray nozzles in the tanks
950.
(2.2.2.6D-3) You are planning to use a crude oil washing system. What precaution must be taken
with the source tank for the washing machines?
o
o
(A) The oil in the source tank must be sampled for compatibility.
(B) The inert gas system must lower the oxygen content in the source tank to a maximum of 12%.
(C) At least one meter must be decanted from the source tank.
(D) The source tank must have been crude oil washed at least once in the past 150 days.
951.
o
o
o
(2.2.2.6B-12) Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo tanks?

(A) LPG's high oxygen content makes it nonvolatile.
(B) LPG is compatible with all cargoes.
(C) Cargo tanks are inspected less frequently than on oil tankers.
(D) The cargo tanks are used for one type of cargo only.

952.
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.2.6C3-9) When loading a tanker, you should __________.

(A) load only one tank at a time
(B) keep a strain on the loading hoses
(C) close valves by closing them down, reopening one or two turns, and re-closing
(D) keep the seamen on watch on standby in the mess room
953.
(2.2.2.2B-43) Which cargo grade(s) are permitted by regulations to be carried on a barge in

tanks fitted only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?
o
o
o
(A) B only
(B) B or C
(C) C or D
(D) D or E
954.
(2.2.2.8-1) Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long
time is TRUE?
o
o
(A) A "buddy system" should be used where someone enters the tank with you.
(B) Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine gas which may accumulate in
poisonous quantities.
(C) After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found safe for entry, someone should standby at
the tank entrance while you are inside.
(D) You should always wear a gas mask.
955.
(2.2.2.6C3-15) Where do you check when measuring the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior
to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery?
o
o
o
(A) one meter from the tank bottom and one meter below the tank top
(B) at three meter intervals from the tank top to the bottom
(C) one half the ullage of the tank and one meter above the tank bottom
(D) one half the ullage of the tank and one meter below the tank top
956.
o
o
o
(2.2.2.3-6) Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed during the day while bunkering?
(A) A red flag
(B) A red and yellow flag
(C) A yellow flag
(D) A red light

Deck General
September 2015
957.
(2.2.2.5B-11) Your non-oceangoing vessel is required to have a fixed piping system to discharge
oily mixtures ashore. What is required at each outlet of this system?
o
o
o
(A) A 5-gallon can or a fixed containment system

(B) A means to stop each pump
(C) A non-return valve
(D) A stop valve
958.
o
o
(2.2.2.8-16) Who will certify the vessel to be gas free before entering the shipyard?
(A) The chief officer.
(B) A representative from the vessel's class society.
(C) A shoreside gas chemist.
(D) A dedicated company representative.
959.
o
o
(2.2.2.6C1-33) Which of the following is a characteristic of Methane gas?

(A) it is corrosive
(B) it is volatile
(C) it is odorless
(D) it is active
960.
(2.2.2.2B-36) Regulations require that venting for cargo tanks in which only grades D or E liquids
are to be transported shall, as a MINIMUM, be of which type? (tank barge constructed on or after
July 1, 1951)
o
o
(A) Branch vent lines connected to a vent header system

(B) Gooseneck vents and flame screens
(C) Straight vents open to atmosphere
(D) Individual pressure vacuum relief valves
961.
(2.2.2.1D-8) How many low-velocity spray applicators are required on the weather decks of a
tankship?
o
o
o
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

Deck General
September 2015
962.
(2.2.2.1C-33) By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which
operation?
o
o
o
(A) topping off

(B) stripping
(C) crude oil washing
963.
(2.2.2.5B-9) The fitting at the end of a cargo line in a tank that allows suction to be taken close to
the bottom of a tank is a __________.
o
o
(A) vacuum valve

(B) bell-mouth
(C) strainer
(D) suction end
964.
(2.2.2.1A-1) When using the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR's) for Tank Vessels, you see T/O
and B/C. What do the T and B tell you?
o
o
o
(A) Special construction limitations

(B) The waters in which vessels may operate
(C) Grades of cargo which may be carried
(D) Type of vessel to which the regulation applies
965.
o
o
(2.2.2.6C2-3) While discharging a tanker, list can be controlled by __________.

(A) using the after peak tank, loading as necessary
(B) shoreside personnel
(C) using wing tanks near the longitudinal center, discharging as necessary
(D) using a center tank near the bow, discharging as necessary
966.
(2.2.2.2B-24) Which signal must you display at night on a docked tank barge to show that it is
loading or discharging flammable liquid cargo?
o
o
(A) Flashing amber light

(B) Red light
(C) ICC yellow light
(D) Two orange lights

Deck General
September 2015
967.
(2.2.2.6D-20) What type of heat must be applied in order to raise the temperature of water from
60 degrees F to 180 degrees F?
o
o
(A) crucial heat

(B) sensible heat
(C) latent heat
(D) super heat
968.
o
o
o
(2.2.2.8-13) A gas-free certificate would usually be issued by a(n) __________.

(A) Coast Guard marine inspector
(B) ABS marine surveyor
(C) port engineer
(D) certified marine chemist
969.
(2.2.2.4B-9) The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0004 below. Use the salmon
colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.
o
o
o
(A) 49.73 numeral

(B) 52.76 numeral
(C) 55.29 numeral
(D) 57.93 numeral
970.
(2.2.2.6C1-10) A flammable liquid having a Reid vapor pressure of 8 P.S.I.A. or less and a
flash point of 80F or below is grade __________.
o
o
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
971.
(2.2.2.6A3-13) You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in operation to inert the
tanks. The pressure in a tank being discharged starts to drop below the allowable limit. What action
should you take?
o
o
o
(A) Cut in another IG fan to increase gas flow.

(B) Open the tank isolation valve to the fully open position.
(C) Open the pressure control valve until the pressure increases.
(D) Reduce the pumping rate.

Deck General
September 2015
972.
(2.2.2.1A-2) For the purpose of regulating tank vessels, flammable liquids are liquids which will
__________.
o
o
o
(A) have a Reid vapor pressure of 18 pounds or more

(B) sustain combustion at a temperature at or below 100F (38C)
(C) give off flammable vapors only above 80F (27C)
(D) give off flammable vapors at or below 80F (27C)
973.
(2.2.2.9.C1.2-10) Which of the following represents an emergency procedure used to stop the oil
flow aboard tank vessels, of 250 tons or greater, as required by U.S. regulations?
o
o
(A) Self-closing emergency disconnect fitting

(B) Manually-operated quick-closing valve
(C) Quick-acting power actuated valve
(D) Pressure-sensitive oil pressure controller
974.
(2.2.2.7-28) The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel to
immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he/she knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify
the Coast Guard can lead to a monetary fine and imprisonment of what time period?
o
o
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 years
975.
(2.2.2.1C-11) Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A,
B, C, or D cargoes?
o
o
(A) Enclosed deck spaces

(B) Navigation spaces
(C) Cofferdams
(D) Pump rooms
976.
(2.2.2.6C1-24) What happens to the volume of flammable and combustible liquids when
temperature is increased?
o
o
o
(A) it remains constant if pressure remains constant

(B) it contracts
(C) it remains constant
(D) it expands

Deck General
September 2015
977.
(2.2.2.1B-1) To determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is permitted to carry you should
__________.
o
o
(A) ask the terminal supervisor or his representative

(B) refer to the vessel's Certificate of Inspection
(C) examine the cargo tanks and fittings
(D) check the loading order
978.
(2.2.2.1B-2) Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall
be kept on board __________.
o
o
(A) for 1 year

(B) for 2 years
(C) until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires
(D) until the next Coast Guard inspection
979.
o
o
o
(2.2.2.9B-5) Which of the following would be classified as grade "C" petroleum product?
(A) Reid vapor pressure of 5 psia, flash point of 70F.
(B) Reid vapor pressure of 7 psia, flash point of 85F.
(C) Reid vapor pressure above 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia.
(D) Reid vapor pressure of 14 psia, flash point of 60F.
980.
(2.2.2.9B-12) What is the lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid will ignite
and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame?
o
o
o
(A) fire point

(B) flash point
(C) vaporization temperature
(D) autoignition temperature
981.
(2.2.2.1E-2) Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks
is TRUE?
o
o
(A) They can be used only when the compartment is gas free.
(B) They must be explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamps.
(C) No portable electric equipment of any type is allowed.
(D) The fixture must be explosion-proof and the line must have a ground wire.

Deck General
September 2015
982.
(2.2.2.1D-7) What is the total number of approved low-velocity spray ("water-fog") applicators
required aboard a tankship?
o
o
(A) 4
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 11
983.
(2.2.2.9.C1.2-14) In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is
when __________.
o
o
o
(A) you first start to receive fuel

(B) hoses are being blown down
(C) hoses are being disconnected
(D) final topping off is occurring
984.
(2.2.2.9A-12) Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to withstand a pressure of at least
how many psi?
o
o
o
(A) 75 psi
(B) 100 psi
(C) 120 psi
(D) 150 psi
985.
o
o
o
(2.2.2.9B-9) Which of the following defines flammable liquids for the purpose of U.S. regulations?
(A) liquids that give off flammable vapors only above 80F (27C)
(B) liquids that have a Reid vapor pressure of 18 pounds or more
(C) liquids that sustain combustion at a temperature at or below 100F (38C)
(D) liquids that give off flammable vapors at or below 80F (27C)
986.
(2.2.2.1B-3) When inspecting a tank barge to see that it has all the required fire extinguishers
and other safety items aboard, which of the following is the best source for determining what is
required?
o
o
(A) The supervisor in charge of the dock to which the barge is tied up
(B) Part 38 of the Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels
(C) The Certificate of Inspection of the barge
(D) The local fire marshal

987.
o
o
o
Deck General
September 2015
(2.2.2.6A3-11) Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank vessels?
(A) Using the system accelerates the rusting of the tanks.
(B) Flue gases from the ship's boilers are used in some systems.
(C) Helium is the preferred inert gas.
988.
o
o
(2.2.2.6A3-3) An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to __________.

(A) prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in tanks
(B) blow out cargo lines to prevent the buildup of gas concentrations
(C) dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the lower explosive limit
(D) prevent fires in the pump room by continually displacing flammable vapors
989.
(2.2.2.2A-9) According to U.S. regulations, what is required where cargo pump shafts on tankers
pierce bulkheads?
o
o
o
(A) compressed air shall be used as the primary means to discharge cargo
(B) a pressure gauge or manometer shall be installed on the bulkhead to ensure the gastight seal
is maintained
(C) the glands are to be kept under continuous suction with power ventilation
(D) readily accessible gastight glands shall be provided
990.
(2.2.2.6A3-7) On a hydrocarbon flammability chart the line which extends from 0% to 21.8%
oxygen, lying tangent to the flammability range, is called the __________.
o
o
(A) minimum oxygen content line

(B) critical dilution line
(C) critical displacement line
(D) upper threshold limit
991.
o
o
o
(2.2.2.8-11) A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by which organization?
(A) National Fire Protection Association
(B) Mine Safety Appliance Association
(C) American Chemical Society
(D) Marine Chemists Association

Deck General
September 2015
992.
(2.2.2.1D-9) A tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how

much foam solution can be produced from this supply?
o
o
(A) 200 gallons

(B) 420 gallons
(C) 667 gallons
(D) 986 gallons
993.
o
o
o
(2.2.2.6A2-19) Which of the following describes the fresh air intake of the inert gas system?
(A) it opens when there is excessive vacuum on the deck water seal
(B) it allows the inert gas piping to be used for gas freeing the tanks
(C) it prevents the flue gas from falling below an oxygen content of 3%
(D) it enables outside air to mix with and to cool the hot flue gases
994.
(2.2.2.1B-4) A re-inspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the following months
while the Certificate of Inspection is valid?
o
o
(A) 8 - 12 months
(B) 10 - 12 months
(C) 10 - 14 months
(D) 12 - 14 months
995.
(2.2.2.1B-5) If your asphalt barge has operated more than 12 months in saltwater in the 24
month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?
o
o
o
(A) 12 months since last dry-docking

(B) 18 months since last dry-docking
(C) 24 months since last dry-docking
(D) 36 months since last dry-docking
996.
(2.2.2.2B-10) Which type of power may a towing vessel use to drive the cargo pumps of a tank
barge?
o
o
(A) Only steam

(B) Steam, air, or electricity
(C) Only air
(D) Air or steam only

Deck General
September 2015
997.
(2.2.2.1B-6) What certificate verifies that a liquefied gas tanker complies with the requirements
with regard to their structure, equipment, fittings, arrangements, and materials?
o
o
(A) Certificate of Fitness for the Carriage of Dangerous Chemicals in Bulk

(B) Cargo Ship Safety Construction
(C) Certificate for the Carriage of Noxious Liquid Substances
(D) International Oil Prevention Certificate
998.
(2.2.2.7-12) Open ullage holes in tanks which are not gas-free must be protected by
__________.
o
o
(A) stop-check valves

(B) flame screens
(C) PV valves
(D) warning signs
999.
o
o
o
(2.2.2.6A2-1) The fresh air intake of the inert gas system _____,
(A) prevents the flue gas from falling below an oxygen content of 3%
(B) enables outside air to mix with and to cool the hot flue gasses
(C) opens when there is excessive vacuum on the deck water seal
(D) allows the inert gas piping to be used for gas freeing the tanks
1000. (2.2.2.6A1-3) In an inert gas system, high pressure alarms are set in the main vapor collection
line to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure reaches a certain level. What is the
percentage of the lowest relief valve setting at which the alarm must sound?
o
o
(A) 70%
(B) 80%
(C) 90%
(D) 95%
1001. (2.2.2.6D-19) You are planning to use the crude oil washing system on your tankship. What is
required to prevent electrostatic buildup in the tanks?
o
o
o
(A) The fixed machines must be operated simultaneously with the portable machines to equalize
the electrostatic potential.
(B) The source tank for the tank cleaning machines must have least one meter decanted from it.
(C) The portable machines must be set at the proper drop for the first wash before the fixed
machines are used.
(D) The inert gas system must reduce the oxygen content in the tanks to a maximum of 18%.

Deck General
September 2015
1002. (2.2.2.9A-33) How should pinching of the cargo hose between the vessel and the dock be
prevented?
o
o
o
(A) adjusting the hose supports

(B) laying out an excess length of hose on deck
(C) tying off the topping lifts and runners to winch heads
(D) install hose preventers
1003. (2.2.2.1C-1) Cargo pump rooms on tank vessels, constructed in 1965, handling grade C liquid
cargo shall have power ventilation systems. What is time requirement for these ventilation
systems to completely change the air?
o
o
o
(A) 1 minute
(B) 3 minutes
(C) 5 minutes
(D) 10 minutes
1004. (2.2.2.9B-18) What is the standard net barrel for petroleum products?
o
o
o
(A) 48 gallons at 70Fahrenheit

(B) 50 gallons at 50Celsius
(C) 60 gallons at 100Saybolt
(D) 42 gallons at 60Fahrenheit
1005. (2.2.2.1C-2) Regulations require that cargo pump rooms handling grades D and/or E liquid cargo
only shall be fitted with at LEAST how many ducts extended to the weather deck?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
1006. (2.2.2.1C-3) What is the required access to a cargo pump room in a tank vessel carrying grades
C or D liquid cargo?
o
o
o
(A) only from enclosed areas free from sources of vapor ignition
(B) from the open deck
(C) from areas equipped with power ventilation
(D) from within the vessel

Deck General
September 2015
1007. (2.2.2.1C-4) What is NOT a requirement of cargo piping installed in tank vessels carrying grade
D or E cargo ONLY?
o
o
o
(A) Connections at bulkheads must be made so that the plating does not form part of a flanged
joint.
(B) Flanged joints shall be used for pipe sizes exceeding 2 inches in diameter.
(C) Piping through bunker spaces may be run through a pipe tunnel.
(D) The cargo piping system shall be fixed.
1008. (2.2.2.5C-14) What is LEAST likely to be used to strip a cargo tank?

o
o
o
(A) Rotary pump

(B) Centrifugal pump
(C) Eductor
(D) Reciprocating pump
1009. (2.2.2.6C3-13) According to U.S. regulations, how much hose should you use in transferring oil
in bulk?
o
o
o
(A) Not over 300 feet (91.4 m) of hose.

(B) Sufficient for maximum vessel movement without straining the hoses.
(C) Twice the distance between ship and dock.
(D) One and one half times the distance between ship and dock.
1010. (2.2.2.1C-5) What type of ventilation is required for pump rooms on tank vessels, carrying grade
C liquid cargo, with machinery spaces below the freeboard deck?
o
o
o
(A) gooseneck vents and flame screens

(B) power ventilation
(C) a vent header system
(D) at least two ducts extending to the weather deck
1011. (2.2.2.1C-6) According to regulations, which grade(s) of cargo may be carried in tanks that are
vented only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?
o
o
o
(A) B only
(B) B or C
(C) C or D
(D) D or E

Deck General
September 2015
1012. (2.2.2.9.C1.2-3) Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the pre-transfer conference?
o
o
(A) Emergency shutdown procedures

(B) Identity of the product to be transferred
(C) Estimated time of finishing cargo
(D) Details of transferring and receiving systems
1013. (2.2.2.1C-7) What is required of the access to a cargo pump room on a tank vessel carrying
grade D liquid cargo?
o
o
o
(A) away from galleys, living quarters, or navigation spaces

(B) from the open deck
(C) only from areas equipped with power ventilation systems
(D) isolated from sources of vapor ignition
1014. (2.2.2.6C3-14) The term "load on top" is used on many crude oil carriers, what is this a method
for?
o
o
o
(A) calculating the ullage in the cargo tanks

(B) the loading of new cargo into a decanted slop tank as a procedure to minimize pollution
(C) calculating the ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank
(D) loading ballast by gravity
1015. (2.2.2.1C-8) Regulations require that cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade D liquid cargo
shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by __________.
o
o
o
(A) general cargo spaces

(B) cofferdams
(C) passageways or living quarters
(D) gastight bulkheads
1016. (2.2.2.9.C1.2-5) What causes the most frequent incidents of pollution during tanker operations?
o
o
o
(A) groundings
(B) loading and discharging
(C) routine discharge of oil during ballasting and tank crude oil washing
(D) collisions

Deck General
September 2015
1017. (2.2.2.1E-6) Each fire pump on a tankship must have a pressure gauge located at __________.
o
o
(A) each fire station discharge

(B) the manifold connection
(C) the pump discharge
(D) the pump station
1018. (2.2.2.6A2-13) The liquid-filled PV breaker has acted to relieve a vacuum in a tank. What action
must be taken in regards to the PV-breaker before continuing operations?
o
o
o
(A) Refill the breaker with liquid.

(B) Install a new rupture disc.
(C) Check to make certain that it has reset itself.
(D) Manually reset the vacuum side of the breaker.
1019. (2.2.2.6D-5) You are planning to use the crude oil washing system on your tankship. What is
required to prevent electrostatic buildup in the tanks?
o
o
(A) The inert gas system must reduce the oxygen content in the tanks to a maximum of 18%.
(B) The fixed machines must be operated simultaneously with the portable machines to equalize
the electrostatic potential.
(C) The source tank for the tank cleaning machines must have least one meter decanted from it.
(D) The portable machines must be set at the proper drop for the first wash before the fixed
machines are used.
1020. (2.2.2.5C-9) Which statement is TRUE concerning deep well self-priming pumps?
o
o
o
(A) In recent years deep well pumps have become increasingly unpopular in product tankers and
medium size crude ships.
(B) When loading oil cargo, it is always loaded via the discharge line through to the pump until the
tank is topped off.
(C) There is no danger of damaging the pump from overheating.
(D) Stripping systems are generally eliminated for the purposes of cargo handling.
1021. (2.2.2.6C1-8) Combustible liquid is defined as any liquid having a flash point above __________.
o
o
o
(A) 40F ( 4C)

(B) 80F (27C)
(C) 110F (43C)
(D) 150F (66C)

Deck General
September 2015
1022. (2.2.2.4A-2) A tanker is loaded with 5,000 barrels of petroleum. The cargo was loaded at a
temperature of 70F, and the coefficient of expansion is .0004. What is the net amount in barrels of
cargo loaded?
o
o
o
(A) 4800
(B) 4980
(C) 5020
(D) 5200
1023. (2.2.2.6C1-11) Grade E combustible liquids have a flash point of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 150F or above

(B) 60F to 100F
(C) 80F to 150F
(D) 90F to 120F
1024. (2.2.2.7-4) In order to reduce the accumulation of static electricity while loading petroleum
products, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) use the overall method of loading only

(B) start to load slowly
(C) increase the air flow into the tank
(D) start to load at maximum pressure
1025. (2.2.2.6D-11) You have completed a crude oil wash. What action should be taken with the oil in
the lines running to the washing machines?
o
o
o
(A) Open a COW nozzle forward and one aft and drain the line into the after tank by gravity
(B) Blow the line out using compressed air
(C) Pull a suction using the supply line pump
(D) Close off all valves in the system and leave the oil in the line primed for the next crude oil
wash
1026. (2.2.2.5C-6) Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps aboard tank vessels?
o
o
o
(A) They are gravity-fed.

(B) They are positive displacement pumps.
(C) They produce a pulsating flow.
(D) They require more maintenance than a reciprocating pump.

Deck General
September 2015
1027. (2.2.2.7-29) Which of the following describes (auto) ignition temperature?

o
o
o
(A) the temperature at which a 1% mixture of the fuel with air will explode
(B) the temperature at which a fuel begins to give off explosive vapors
(C) the temperature at which a fuel if ignited will continue to burn
(D) the temperature at which no spark or flame is required to ignite gas or vapor
1028. (2.2.2.6B-3) The vapor pressure of a gas is the pressure necessary to keep it in a(n)
__________.
o
o
o
(A) liquefied state

(B) soluble state
(C) solid state
(D) inert state
1029. (2.2.2.6A1-4) You are on an inerted tankship. A low pressure alarm must be set to cause an
audible and visual alarm if the pressure in the tanks cannot be maintained at more than
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 4" water gauge

(B) 90% of the vacuum assist fan
(C) 90% of the pressure drop through the scrubber
(D) 90% of the vacuum relief setting
1030. (2.2.2.1C-9) Branch venting, from safety relief valves on barges, shall be constructed to
discharge gas at what minimum vertical height above the weather deck?
o
o
(A) 6 feet
(B) 8 feet
(C) 10 feet
(D) 12 feet
1031. (2.2.2.1C-10) Cargo tanks on barges fitted with goose neck vents and flame screens are limited
to carrying which grade of cargo?
o
o
o
(A) A and below

(B) B and below
(C) C and below
(D) D and E only

Deck General
September 2015
1032. (2.2.2.6D-1) When cleaning a tank by the Butterworth process, you should begin to pump out the
slops __________.
o
o
o
(A) when the process is started

(B) when the process is finished
(C) at the end of the drop schedule
(D) when the tank is clean
1033. (2.2.2.1C-12) U.S. regulations require cargo pump rooms, on tank vessels handling grades A, B,
or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type. in what amount of
time should the ventilation effect a complete change of air?
o
o
(A) not more than 1 minute

(B) not more than 2 minutes
(C) not more than 3 minutes
(D) not more than 5 minutes
1034. (2.2.2.5D-13) Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many
location(s)?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
1035. (2.2.2.2A-7) When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST action you should take if a cargo
valve jammed open?
o
o
o
(A) Run out the vessel or terminal fire hose.

(B) Order the dock man to shut down.
(C) Call the owner, operator, or terminal supervisor.
(D) Trip the pump relief valve.
1036. (2.2.2.1C-13) What is required of an access to a cargo pump room in a tank vessel carrying
grade D liquid cargo?
o
o
(A) isolated from sources of vapor ignition

(B) only from areas equipped with power ventilation systems
(C) from the open deck
(D) away from galleys, living quarters, or navigation spaces

Deck General
September 2015
1037. (2.2.2.2B-4) You have orders to drop off a barge loaded with propylene oxide at a fleet. In doing
so, you must ensure that __________.
o
o
(A) all wing voids and rakes are pumped dry before tying off the barge
(B) the barge is moored next to the bank where it will be protected from a possible collision
(C) the barge is under the care of a watchman
(D) a rake end is facing upstream to minimize the effect of current on the mooring lines
1038. (2.2.2.9B-4) The boiling point of Methane is -161C. How is the substance carried?
o
o
o
(A) Atmospheric pressure.

(B) Fully refrigerated.
(C) Normal ambient temperature.
(D) Fully pressurized.
1039. (2.2.2.1C-14) Each hose used for transferring vapors must be which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) be capable of withstanding at least 2.0 psi vacuum without collapsing or constricting
(B) be electrically continuous with a maximum resistance of 10,000 ohms
(C) have a design burst pressure of at least 25 psig
1040. (2.2.2.6C1-31) What is the general name given to propane, butane, and mixtures of the two?
o
o
o
(A) LEG
(B) LNG
(C) NGL
(D) LPG
1041. (2.2.2.6A3-12) Which statement about the inert gas system is TRUE?
o
o
(A) Flue gas with excessive oxygen content is de-oxygenated in the scrubber.
(B) The boiler will produce the best quality of flue gas for the IG system when the boiler load is
very light.
(C) Boiler soot blowers should never be used when the IG system is operating.
(D) The boiler will produce the most quantity of flue gas for the IG system when the boiler load is
very light.

Deck General
September 2015
1042. (2.2.2.1C-15) Regulations require that cargo pump rooms handling grades D and/or E liquid
cargo only shall be fitted with at LEAST how many ducts extended to the weather deck?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
1043. (2.2.2.6C2-1) The terminal indicates to you that they are going to use a booster pump to assist
the discharging operation. You start the discharge, and in a few minutes the pressure drops sharply.
This could be a result of the __________.
o
o
o
(A) ship's pump speeding up

(B) booster pump failing to start
(C) booster pump being lined up in the wrong direction
(D) booster pump coming on the line and discharging properly
1044. (2.2.2.1C-16) What is required of the access to a cargo pump room on a tank vessel carrying
grades A, B, C or D liquid cargoes?
o
o
o
(A) it is at least 13.1 feet away from the galleys, living quarters or navigation spaces
(B) it is from the open deck
(C) it is only from areas equipped with power ventilation systems
(D) it is isolated from any part of the vessel which normally contains sources of vapor ignition
1045. (2.2.2.1C-17) On a vessel, constructed after 1970, carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes, what
can NOT segregate enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are normally present from
cargo tanks?
o
o
o
(A) galleys
(B) tanks used to carry liquids having a flash point of 150F or above
(C) pump rooms
(D) cofferdams
1046. (2.2.2.1C-18) What is an advantage of the spherical type containment system?

o
o
o
(A) good visibility over the bow for ship handling

(B) the design does not require a full liquid tight secondary barrier
(C) both "A" and "B"
(D) neither "A" or "B"

Deck General
September 2015
1047. (2.2.2.2B-31) You are underway with a tow consisting of six barges containing hazardous
chemicals. Which statement is FALSE concerning a cargo information card?
o
o
o
(A) It must be carried in the pilothouse, readily available for each chemical carried.
(B) It must be posted on the lead barge of the tow only.
(C) It contains information on procedure for spills or leaks.
(D) It must be posted on each barge on the tow.
1048. (2.2.2.1C-19) According to U.S. regulations which of the following statements is correct regarding
the fuel oil containment around loading manifolds?
o
o
o
(A) They may be fixed or portable, depending upon the age of the vessel.
(B) Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank.
(C) The containment drains must have quick-closing valves to be closed in the event of leakage
or failure of any part of the transfer connection.
(D) All containment drains must lead to a common fixed drain tank.
1049. (2.2.2.4A-5) Your ship departed Venezuela for New York, loaded with 10,000 barrels of crude oil,
whose average cargo temperature was 30C (86F). API is 25. The volume correction factor (VCF)
is .00045. If this cargo is heated to 100F prior to discharge, how many barrels will you offload?
o
o
o
(A) 10,315
(B) 10,063
(C) 9,937
(D) 9,685
1050. (2.2.2.4A-31) You are in the process of loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 1030, on 5
November, you gauge the vessel and find that you have loaded 203,000 barrels. At 1200, you find
that you have loaded 219,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at
approximately __________.
o
o
o
(A) 0735, 7 November

(B) 1104, 6 November
(C) 0140, 6 November
(D) 1510, 5 November

Deck General
September 2015
1051. (2.2.2.1C-20) According to U.S. regulations, which grade(s) of cargo may be carried in tanks that
are vented only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?
o
o
o
(A) D or E
(B) C or D
(C) B only
(D) B or C
1052. (2.2.2.6A2-15) Which method is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo
tanks?
o
o
(A) Exhaust gas pressure from the stack

(B) Inert gas compressor
(C) High capacity fan
(D) Natural aspiration
1053. (2.2.2.1C-21) According to U.S. regulations, what is required where cargo pump shafts on
tankers pierce bulkheads?
o
o
o
(A) a pressure gauge or manometer shall be installed on the bulkhead to ensure the gastight seal
is maintained
(B) readily accessible gastight glands shall be provided
(C) compressed air shall be used as the primary means to discharge cargo
(D) the glands are to be kept under continuous suction with power ventilation
1054. (2.2.2.1C-22) Which of the following describes the requirement for ventilation spaces of a gas
safe space within the cargo area?
o
o
(A) they must be operating on at all times

(B) they must be sucking from the outside atmosphere
(C) they must be positive pressure
(D) they must be a filtered system
1055. (2.2.2.6C3-6) Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find that she has too much
trim by the stern. To adjust the trim you may __________.
o
o
o
(A) shift bunkers forward

(B) load more cargo forward
(C) add ballast forward

Deck General
September 2015
1056. (2.2.2.6A2-11) In order for combustion to occur inside a piping system such as a vapor collection
header in a marine emission control system, there must be __________.
o
o
o
(A) ignition
(B) oxygen
(C) fuel
1057. (2.2.2.2B-49) What should you look at to determine the pressure and temperature limitations
under which LFG is required to be transported on a barge?
o
o
o
(A) loading order

(B) Certificate of Inspection
(C) tankerman documents
(D) rules and regulations for tank vessels
1058. (2.2.2.1E-12) In accordance with U.S. regulations, no vessel can come or remain alongside a
tank vessel while it is loading A, B, or C grade cargo without permission from whom?
o
o
(A) tank ship owner

(B) terminal manager
(C) officer-in-charge of the vessel which is loading
(D) USCG captain of the port
1059. (2.2.2.2B-19) You are towing a 1,000 GT gasoline tank barge which is not gas free. By
regulation, cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the barge may __________.
o
o
o
(A) be open without flame screens in good weather from 16 May to 15 September
(B) be open without flame screens under the supervision of the senior crew member on duty
(C) not be open without flame screens under any circumstances
(D) be open without flame screens when the barge is empty
1060. (2.2.2.6C3-12) When measuring the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes
requiring vapor recovery, check it __________.
o
o
(A) at three meter intervals from the tank top to the bottom
(B) one meter from the tank bottom and one meter below the tank top
(C) one half the ullage of the tank and one meter below the tank top
(D) one half the ullage of the tank and one meter above the tank bottom

Deck General
September 2015
1061. (2.2.2.4A-29) You are loading 475,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0800 on 8 July, you find that you
have loaded 174,000 barrels. At 1000, you find that you have loaded 192,000 barrels. If you
continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1752, 8 July

(B) 1940, 8 July
(C) 0143, 9 July
(D) 1727, 9 July
1062. (2.2.2.1C-23) In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to
pass through machinery spaces. This is permitted provided that the only cargo carried through such
piping is(are) which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) grades D or E
(B) grades A or B
(C) LFG
(D) grade E
1063. (2.2.2.1C-24) According to U.S. regulations, access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel
carrying grades C or D liquid cargo must be which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) only from enclosed areas free from sources of vapor ignition
(B) from within the vessel
(C) from areas equipped with power ventilation
(D) from the open deck
1064. (2.2.2.6D-12) You are crude oil washing on a tanker with an inert gas system. What percentage
of oxygen must the inert gas system produce and deliver to the tanks?
o
o
o
(A) 0%
(B) 5%
(C) 8%
(D) 11%
1065. (2.2.2.5B-6) Pinching of the cargo hose between the vessel and the dock should be prevented by
__________.
o
o
o
(A) adjusting the hose supports

(B) tying off the topping lifts and runners to winch heads
(C) laying out an excess length of hose on deck

Deck General
September 2015
1066. (2.2.2.6D-16) Tankers that are in service carrying "sour crudes" are faced with additional
problems for their safe operation. One such problem is called "polyphoric oxidation" what does this
result in?
o
o
o
(A) particles of rust in the tanks reaching a high temperature during "gas free" operations.
(B) a lighter grade of crude being needed for tank washing.
(C) additional time for tank cleaning.
(D) a second scrubber, known as an alkaline scrubber, to be added in series to the "normal"
scrubber.
1067. (2.2.2.1C-25) U.S. regulations require that cargo tanks in which grades B or C liquids are carried
must be vented with which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) Flame screens

(B) Pressure vacuum relief valves
(C) Gooseneck vents
(D) Forced draft blowers
1068. (2.2.2.5C-10) All of the following steps are taken in starting a centrifugal pump, EXCEPT to
__________.
o
o
(A) open the pump suction and discharge valves

(B) vent the pump casing
(C) set the relief valve
(D) check the lubrication system
1069. (2.2.2.1C-27) Cargo hose carried on tank vessels must be designed to withstand the pressure of
the shutoff head of the cargo pump or pump relief valve setting, but in no case should it be less than
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 100 psi

(B) 150 psi
(C) 200 psi
(D) 250 psi

Deck General
September 2015
1070. (2.2.2.7-14) What must be present in order for combustion to occur inside a piping system such
as a vapor collection header in a marine emission control system?
o
o
o
(A) oxygen
(B) fuel
(C) ignition
1071. (2.2.2.1C-28) What pressure shall cargo hoses carried on tank vessels be able to withstand?
o
o
o
(A) at least 75 psi

(B) at least 100 psi
(C) at least 120 psi
(D) at least 150 psi
1072. (2.2.2.1E-1) You have berthed in a port area with other tank vessels. What signal is displayed by
a vessel to indicate it is transferring flammable or combustible liquid cargo?
o
o
o
(A) A flashing yellow light

(B) A green light visible all around the horizon
(C) An illuminated red and yellow caution flag
(D) A red light visible all around the horizon
1073. (2.2.2.6C3-19) Petroleum cargo tanks should not be topped off at deck level when loading on a
cold day due to which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) air pockets may cause the cargo to bubble out of the ullage hole
(B) a subsequent temperature rise will cause the cargo to overflow
(C) the increased viscosity of the product requires higher loading pressure which increases the
chances of a spill
(D) the tank valve may be stiff and a spill will occur before the valve can be closed
1074. (2.2.2.1C-29) What is the minimum temperature required in order for steam driven pumps to be
considered a source of vapor ignition?
o
o
(A) 100C
(B) 212F
(C) 500F
(D) 1200F

Deck General
September 2015
1075. (2.2.2.6D-7) The complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel, including
the operating sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the system, and
required personnel will be found in the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Crude Oil Washing Operations and Equipment Manual

(B) Code of Federal Regulations
(C) Oil Transfer Procedures Manual
(D) Crude Oil Washing addendum to the Certificate of Inspection
1076. (2.2.2.6A3-10) The advantages of using an inert gas system on a tank vessel is that it provides
__________.
o
o
o
(A) better fuel economy

(B) tank atmosphere with low oxygen content
(C) for faster loading
1077. (2.2.2.6A1-1) Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system?

o
o
o
(A) Deck seal low water alarm

(B) Low oxygen alarm
(C) Scrubber high water level alarm
(D) Low pressure alarm
1078. (2.2.2.6A3-16) Which action must be taken when an individual cargo tank is closed off from the
inert gas system by the tank isolation valve?
o
o
o
(A) The tank must be gas freed.

(B) The tank must be vented to the atmosphere.
(C) The tank must be ballasted.
(D) The bypass valve must also be closed.
1079. (2.2.2.8-8) The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas
free is a lamp that is __________.
o
o
o
(A) self-contained
(B) approved explosion proof
(C) battery fed

Deck General
September 2015
1080. (2.2.2.7-24) Which signal must you display at night on a docked tank barge to show that it is
loading or discharging flammable liquid cargo?
o
o
o
(A) Flashing amber light.

(B) Two orange lights.
(C) ICC yellow light.
(D) Red light.
1081. (2.2.2.2B-28) Your tow includes a barge carrying chlorine. Which special requirements must be
observed?
o
o
o
(A) You must post a deckhand to keep a special watch on this barge.
(B) A cargo information card for chlorine must be in the pilothouse.
(C) The wing voids shall not be opened when underway.
1082. (2.2.2.1C-30) In a tank vessel constructed in 1970, carrying grade A, B, C, or D liquid cargo,
what is required to isolate cargo pumps from sources of vapor ignition?
o
o
o
(A) gastight bulkheads

(B) passageways or living quarters
(C) cofferdams
(D) general cargo spaces
1083. (2.2.2.4A-15) Your ship has loaded 22,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for
Panama. When loaded the cargo temperature was 90F. API was 15. The volume correction factor
(VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 100F at the discharge port, how many
gallons will be offloaded?
o
o
(A) 1,214,840
(B) 1,205,160
(C) 927,696
(D) 920,304
1084. (2.2.2.1C-31) What must cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade D liquid cargo be isolated
from sources of vapor ignition by?
o
o
(A) general cargo spaces

(B) passageways or living quarters
(C) gastight bulkheads
(D) cofferdams

Deck General
September 2015
1085. (2.2.2.1C-32) By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which
operation?
o
o
o
(A) loading
(B) crude oil washing
(C) discharging
1086. (2.2.2.1E-5) Portable fire extinguishers must be provided for the cargo tank area of an unmanned
tank barge __________.
o
o
o
(A) when transferring cargo

(B) only when fully loaded
(C) if one or more tanks are full
(D) only when the barge is being towed
1087. (2.2.2.6C1-7) Combustible liquids are divided into how many grades?
o
o
o
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
1088. (2.2.2.6C3-5) With an increase in temperature the volume of flammable and combustible liquids
__________.
o
o
o
(A) remains constant if pressure remains constant

(B) expands
(C) contracts
(D) remains constant
1089. (2.2.2.6B-16) Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo tanks?
o
o
o
(A) Cargo tanks are inspected less frequently than on oil tankers.
(B) The cargo tanks are used for one type of cargo only.
(C) LPG is compatible with all cargos.
(D) LPG high oxygen content makes it nonvolatile.

Deck General
September 2015
1090. (2.2.2.6A3-21) You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in operation to inert the
tanks. The pressure in a tank being discharged starts to drop below the allowable limit. What action
should you take?
o
o
(A) Cut in another IG fan to increase gas flow.

(B) Open the tank isolation valve to the fully open position.
(C) Reduce the pumping rate.
(D) Open the pressure control valve until the pressure increases.
1091. (2.2.2.1C-34) What do regulations require that pump rooms on tank vessels carrying grade C
liquid cargo with machinery spaces below the freeboard deck be ventilated with?
o
o
(A) gooseneck vents and flame screens

(B) a vent header system
(C) power ventilation
(D) at least two ducts extending to the weather deck
1092. (2.2.2.1D-1) The tank barge on which you are preparing to load petroleum is required to have on
board one B-II fire extinguisher. What does NOT meet this requirement?
o
o
o
(A) 2-1/2 gallon foam

(B) 5 gallon water (stored pressure)
(C) 10 pound dry chemical
(D) 15 pound CO2
1093. (2.2.2.1D-2) A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of __________.

o
o
(A) 20 pounds of CO2

(B) 3 gallons of foam
(C) 10 pounds of dry chemical
1094. (2.2.2.1D-3) On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire
extinguishers in the pump room. To comply with regulations, you __________.
o
o
(A) should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the vicinity of the exit
(B) may substitute sand for the required extinguishers
(C) should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the lower pump room
(D) need not be concerned since no portable extinguishers are required in the pump room

Deck General
September 2015
1095. (2.2.2.5B-4) The main underdeck pipeline on a tankship is connected to individual tanks by
__________.
o
o
o
(A) tank drops

(B) line drops
(C) crossovers
(D) branch lines
1096. (2.2.2.5A-7) The flame screens installed on tank vents that may contain combustible gases, are
designed to prevent explosions by which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity

(B) allowing the escape of flammable vapors
(C) preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank
(D) dissipating the heat of an external flame
1097. (2.2.2.2B-9) A person may operate an air compressor in which of the following areas on board a
tank barge?
o
o
o
(A) Pump room

(B) A space adjacent to a cargo tank
(C) A space two meters from a cargo valve
(D) Generator room
1098. (2.2.2.6D-6) You have water washed your cargo tanks using the fixed machines. What should
you do before using portable machines to clean areas screened from the wash of the fixed machine
by structural members?
o
o
o
(A) Attach the water supply hose to the portable machine after the cleaning head is positioned
inside the tank.
(B) Ground the fixed machines to eliminate any electrostatic buildup on the cleaning head.
(C) Insure that the tanks are not stripped until the final wash is started.
(D) Ventilate the tank to eliminate any electrostatically charged mist.
1099. (2.2.2.6B-19) An LNG vessel containment system must be cooled down prior to loading cargo.
Where are the cool-down parameters and rates obtained from?
o
o
o
(A) the instruction manual provided by the manufacturer of the containment system
(B) the port engineer
(C) either the master or chief engineer probably knows this information
(D) the knowledgeable shoreside loading terminal personnel

Deck General
September 2015
1100. (2.2.2.7-26) What percent of oxygen content by volume, must each inert gas system be designed
to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gases?
o
o
o
(A) 15% or less

(B) 10% or less
(C) 20% or less
(D) 5% or less
1101. (2.2.2.6B-43) Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of LFG?
o
o
(A) Report any leakage of cargo.

(B) Be on the lookout for work being accomplished ashore in the vicinity of the barges.
(C) Make sure the rake ends of the barge are completely dry and mopped.
(D) Ascertain that the hoses to be used are in good order.
1102. (2.2.2.6B-47) What is the Inert gas plant on an LNG vessel designed to produce?
o
o
(A) inert gas only

(B) warm GNG for purging
(C) inert gas and dry air with a minimum dew point of -40F
(D) nitrogen and dry air with a dew point of at least -20F
1103. (2.2.2.1E-3) You are requisitioning stores for your tank vessel. What type of matches are
permitted aboard?
o
o
o
(A) Safety
(B) Phosphorous
(C) Self-extinguishing
(D) Wooden
1104. (2.2.2.4A-36) Which of the following best describes the heat value of a fuel?
o
o
o
(A) the amount of heat released when a fuel is burned

(B) the cost per BTU of a fuel
(C) the temperature to which a fuel must be raised to cause ignition
(D) the amount of fuel added to a fuel to cause it to burn

Deck General
September 2015
1105. (2.2.2.1D-4) Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher?
o
o
o
(A) 12 gallon soda acid

(B) 20 gallon foam
(D) 20 pound dry chemical
1106. (2.2.2.1D-5) On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are considered semi-portable when
they have a gross weight of more than __________.
o
o
o
(A) 55 pounds
(B) 75 pounds
(C) 95 pounds
(D) 125 pounds
1107. (2.2.2.6B-6) Upon release to the atmosphere, LFG readily __________.
o
o
o
(A) vaporizes
(B) attacks corrosively
(C) attacks caustically
(D) rises
1108. (2.2.2.7-19) What is a enclosure which will withstand ignition of a flammable gas, and which will
prevent the transmission of any flame able to ignite a flammable gas, which may be present in the
surrounding atmosphere called?
o
o
o
(A) explosion proof

(B) a flame proof screen
(C) primary gas barrier
(D) gas-safe enclosure
1109. (2.2.2.2B-20) You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. Regulations say that cargo
tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates may remain open without flame screens ONLY
__________.
o
o
(A) if an approved type B-II fire extinguisher is provided

(B) for periods not to exceed five minutes
(C) when the open tanks are gas free
(D) if the barge is towed on a hawser astern

Deck General
September 2015
1110. (2.2.2.2B-23) Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during
cargo transfer?
o
o
o
(A) To prohibit open lights

(B) To prohibit smoking
(C) To keep visitors away from the barge
1111. (2.2.2.1D-6) Deck foam systems, designed to protect cargo areas on tank vessels built after
January 1, 1975, must have a supply of foam-producing material to operate the system at its
designed rate of foam production for __________.
o
o
o
(A) 15 minutes without recharging

(B) 20 minutes without recharging
(C) 25 minutes without recharging
(D) 30 minutes without recharging
1112. (2.2.2.6A3-22) How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo
tanks?
o
o
o
(A) De-energizes the "charged mist" effect.

(B) Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces.
(C) Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors.
(D) Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower
explosive limit.
1113. (2.2.2.2A-8) On tankers ullages are measured from what point?
o
o
o
(A) an above-deck datum such as the top of the ullage pipe

(B) the tank ceiling aboard transversely framed vessels
(C) the tank top
(D) a thievage mark below the edge of the deck
1114. (2.2.2.2B-35) Cargo tanks on barges fitted with goose neck vents and flame screens are limited
to carrying which grade of cargo?
o
o
o
(A) A and below

(B) B and below
(C) C and below
(D) D and E only

Deck General
September 2015
1115. (2.2.2.6A3-2) How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo
tanks?
o
o
o
(A) Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors.
(B) De-energizes the "charged mist" effect.
(C) Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces.
explosive limit.
1116. (2.2.2.2B-14) A tank barge equipped with an internal-combustion engine-driven cargo pump on
the weather deck shall be provided with a minimum of one remote manual shutdown station. What is
the correct location of the shutdown station?
o
o
o
(A) Midpoint of the vessel or 100 feet from the engine

(B) Stern of the vessel or 100 feet from the engine
(C) Midpoint of the vessel or 75 feet from the bow
(D) Bow of the vessel or 75 feet from the engine
1117. (2.2.2.6C1-18) What does the term "oil", as used in the U.S. regulations mean?
o
o
o
(A) liquefied petroleum gas

(B) crude oil only
(C) fuel oil only
(D) petroleum oil of any kind
1118. (2.2.2.6B-41) What is generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire caused by escaping
gas?
o
o
o
(A) call the local fire department

(B) shut off the leak
(C) use a chemical foam fire extinguisher
(D) sweep flames away with water spray

Deck General
September 2015
1119. (2.2.2.1D-10) According to regulations, how many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are
required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned, cargo pump-equipped tank barge engaged in
transferring grade B flammable liquids?
o
o
o
(A) Two
(B) None
(C) Three
(D) One
1120. (2.2.2.3-4) Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during fueling operations?
o
o
o
(A) Fuel tanks should be topped off with no room for expansion.
(B) All windows, doors, hatches, etc. should be closed.
(C) A fire extinguisher should be kept nearby.
(D) All engines, motors, fans, etc. should be shut down when fueling.
1121. (2.2.2.1D-11) Where is a permanently installed system of gas detection required?

o
o
o
(A) Cargo pump rooms.

(B) Air locks.
(C) Cargo compressor rooms.
(D) All of the above.
1122. (2.2.2.1E-9) U.S. regulations require any tankship making a voyage of over 48 hours duration to
conduct certain tests not more than 12 hours prior to leaving port. Which of the following must be
tested to meet this requirement?
o
o
o
(A) emergency lighting system

(B) means of communication between the bridge and engine room
(C) watertight door to the shaft alley
(D) fire pump relief valve
1123. (2.2.2.6B-32) What should LFG tank and pipeline maintenance include?
o
o
o
(A) examination for fractures and pitting

(B) cleaning with clean fresh or sea water
(C) exclusion of all sand and solid matter

Deck General
September 2015
1124. (2.2.2.1E-4) A tug should not come alongside a tank vessel in way of its cargo tanks while it is
loading grade A, B, or C cargo without the permission of the __________.
o
o
(A) superintendent of the shoreside facility

(B) the cognizant OCMI
(C) person in charge of the transfer
(D) local fire department
1125. (2.2.2.6D-13) What is the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, allowed to be maintained in
the cargo tanks prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?
o
o
o
(A) 5%
(B) 12%
(C) 10%
(D) 8%
1126. (2.2.2.6C1-16) When referring to quantity of barite in a P-tank, ullage is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) distance of the barite surface above the tank bottom

(B) total weight of barite in UPC (ullages per centimeter)
(C) percentage of barite in the tank
(D) distance of the barite surface below the tank cover
1127. (2.2.2.3-3) When bunkering is complete, the hoses should be __________.

o
o
(A) stowed vertically and allowed to drain

(B) cleaned internally with a degreaser
(C) drained, blanked off, and stored securely
(D) washed out with hot soapy water
1128. (2.2.2.7-3) Which of the following terms best defines the spontaneous mixing of a tank's liquid
contents when a heavier layer forms above a less dense lower layer?
o
o
o
(A) flash over

(B) boil off
(C) cascading
(D) rollover

Deck General
September 2015
1129. (2.2.2.6A3-1) Tank vessel inerting refers to __________.

o
o
o
(A) the introduction of inert gas into a tank with the object of reducing the oxygen content to below
8% by volume
(B) the introduction of inert gas into a gas free tank for the purpose of reducing the oxygen
content to below 8% by volume
(C) the introduction of inert gas into a cargo tank during cargo discharge to replace the volume of
discharged cargo
1130. (2.2.2.5B-7) A single fitting installed in a pipeline that either blanks off the pipe or allows a full
flow passage of a liquid through the pipe is referred to as a __________.
o
o
o
(A) spectacle flange

(B) pivot coupling
(C) quick-release coupling
(D) blind flange
1131. (2.2.2.4B-7) The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0023 below. Use the salmon
o
o
(A) 74.73 numeral

(B) 85.60 numeral
(C) 79.23 numeral
(D) 91.42 numeral
1132. (2.2.2.1E-7) Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard tank vessels?
o
o
o
(A) They may be worn while working on deck but not while working over the side.
(B) They must be used only under supervision of a designated ship's officer.
(C) They will be accepted for up to 10% of the required life preservers.
(D) They may be worn during drills.
1133. (2.2.2.1E-8) According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), when loading, or discharging oil in
bulk at a dock, which of the following signals must be displayed?
o
o
(A) A yellow flag (day), red light (night)

(B) A signal is not required for discharging oil, only gasoline
(C) A red flag (day), red light (night)
(D) A green flag (day), green light (night)

Deck General
September 2015
1134. (2.2.2.1E-10) According to U.S. regulations, how many emergency outfits are required to be
carried onboard all tankships over 1,000 gross tons?
o
o
o
(A) Three emergency outfits

(B) Two emergency outfits
(C) Four emergency outfits
(D) One emergency outfit
1135. (2.2.2.2B-16) The use of portable electrical equipment in the pump room on tank barges is
prohibited unless __________.
o
o
o
(A) spaces with bulkheads common to the pump room are either gas-free, inert, filled with water,
or contain grade E liquid
(B) the pump room is gas-free
(C) all other compartments in which flammable vapors and gases may exist are closed and
secured
1136. (2.2.2.5B-1) The system of valves and cargo lines in the bottom piping network of a tank vessel
that connects one section of cargo tanks to another section is called a __________.
o
o
(A) come-along
(B) runaround
(C) crossover
(D) manifold
1137. (2.2.2.1E-11) Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D, Rules and Regulations for
Tank Vessels?
o
o
o
(A) Benzene
(B) Asphalt
(C) Vinyl Chloride
1138. (2.2.2.2A-1) What type of vent system would a barge of acrylonitrile have?
o
o
o
(A) Open
(B) Pressure-vacuum
(C) Rupture disk
(D) Safety relief

Deck General
September 2015
1139. (2.2.2.6A4-5) Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable instrument to measure
concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure __________.
o
o
o
(A) nitrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) water vapor
1140. (2.2.2.6C2-7) Which tanker discharge pattern would be the safest and most efficient?
o
o
o
(A) Empty the forward tanks and start working aft, emptying each tank in sequence
(B) Start discharging with most of the discharge coming from forward, but include some from
midships and after tanks
(C) Start pumping from midships and then work forward and aft simultaneously as the midships
tank is emptied
(D) Start pumping from forward, midships, and aft with the discharge distributed equally among
the tanks
1141. (2.2.2.5A-3) A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is in what
state?
o
o
o
(A) slack
(B) completely empty
(C) low in the vessel
(D) completely full
1142. (2.2.2.6B-18) Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector
systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit. What is indicated if the gas detector alarms
sounds?
o
o
(A) an explosion is about to take place

(B) the detector is sampling a space in which 30 percent of the atmosphere is explosive
(C) a flammable vapor concentration exists at the sample point, but it is too lean to burn
(D) the detector sensor is sampling a space where the cargo vapor concentration is 30 percent by
volume

Deck General
September 2015
1143. (2.2.2.2A-3) If you have a liquefied flammable gas barge in tow, which is NOT required of you
with respect to the barge and its cargo?
o
o
o
(A) Keep the barge under constant surveillance.

(B) Make periodic inspections of bilges.
(C) Have a properly certificated tankerman or at least one credentialed officer on board the
towing vessel.
(D) Verify ullage readings.
1144. (2.2.2.5B-10) What will NOT increase friction of a liquid flowing in a pipe and cause a loss of
suction head?
o
o
(A) Pipeline valves

(B) Backing rings for pipe welds
(C) Slowing the pumping rate
(D) Bends in the piping
1145. (2.2.2.2A-4) What is NOT a responsibility of the tankerman in charge of loading an unmanned
tank barge?
o
o
o
(A) Enforcement of smoking restrictions

(B) Protecting cargo hose with chafing gear
(C) Restricting vessels from coming alongside the barge
(D) Insuring that a combustible gas indicator is aboard
1146. (2.2.2.2A-5) Your tow includes a loaded chlorine barge. After inspecting the tow, the mate
reports that he hears a hissing sound coming from the safety valves. Where will you find information
on emergency procedures concerning the uncontrolled release of cargo?
o
o
(A) Dangerous Cargo Regulations

(B) Barge's Certificate of Inspection
(C) Cargo Information Card on your towboat
(D) Cargo Manifest or loading paper

Deck General
September 2015
1147. (2.2.2.2A-6) You are making tow. A loaded, open-hopper barge with independent tanks has
placards, with alternating red and white quadrants, located at each side and end. You inspect the
barge and find slight traces of water in the wing voids due to condensation. What should you do?
o
o
o
(A) Refuse to accept the barge until all wing voids are dry.
(B) Accept the barge and periodically check the wing voids.
(C) Accept the barge and when weather conditions permit run with the wing voids open to
ventilate the spaces.
(D) Return the barge to the fleet and depart without the barge.
1148. (2.2.2.2B-1) Who may approve cargo piping to pass through a machinery space for a barge
designed to carry only grade E products?
o
o
o

(B) Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard
(C) Vessel owner
1149. (2.2.2.2B-30) A cargo information card does NOT contain __________.
o
o
o
(A) duties of the person in charge during the transfer of cargo

(B) precautions to be observed in case of a spill or leak
(C) instructions for the safe handling of the cargo
(D) appearance and odor characteristics of the cargo
1150. (2.2.2.2B-25) Where should a tank barge's Certificate of Inspection be kept?

o
o
o
(A) In the owner's office

(B) On the towboat
(C) In the operator's office
(D) On the barge

Deck General
September 2015
1151. (2.2.2.2B-2) If your JP-5 barge has operated in salt water for less than 1 month in the 12 month
period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?
o
o
o

1152. (2.2.2.4A-34) A centrifugal ballast pump has a capacity of 200 gpm. If suction is taken on a
ballast tank containing 200 long tons of seawater, how much water will be remain in the tank after
discharging for one hour?
o
o
(A) 45.83 long tons

(B) 101.63 long tons
(C) 154.16 long tons
(D) 199.87 long tons
1153. (2.2.2.2B-5) If your Bunker-C barge has operated in salt water for more than 12 months in the 24
o
o
o

colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral.
o
o
o
(A) 91.92 numeral

(B) 81.79 numeral
(C) 85.02 numeral
(D) 89.68 numeral
1155. (2.2.2.6C1-14) Grade D combustible liquids have a maximum flash point of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 109F
(B) 100F
(C) 80F
(D) 149F

Deck General
September 2015
1156. (2.2.2.5B-15) In accordance with regulations, what is the required bursting pressure of a cargo
hose used for transferring liquefied gases?
o
o
(A) 4 times the pressure of the cargo pump used for transferring
(B) one half the designed working pressure
(C) 5 times the maximum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer
(D) 5 times the minimum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer
1157. (2.2.2.6C3-17) A vessel loads edible oil in a deep tank through a manhole at the mid-length of
the tank. In order to fill the tank to maximum capacity, what trim should the vessel have?
o
o
o
(A) In level trim

(B) Down by either the bow or stern
(C) Down by the stern
(D) Down by the bow
1158. (2.2.2.2B-6) What are the venting requirements for a barge with a cargo of adiponitrile?
o
o
o
(A) Pressure-vacuum relief valves

(B) Open venting
(C) Closed venting with a vapor recovery system
(D) Gooseneck vents fitted with flame screens
1159. (2.2.2.4A-33) The process of adding mercaptans to gas, is known as which of the following?
o
o
(A) reeking
(B) smelling
(C) stenching
(D) saturating
1160. (2.2.2.6A2-2) Which part of the inert gas system is designed to relieve sudden large
overpressures that exceed the capacity of the mechanical P/V valves?
o
o
o
(A) Pressure control valve

(B) Liquid filled P/V breaker
(C) Isolation valve
(D) Deck water seal

Deck General
September 2015
1161. (2.2.2.2B-7) Which statement is TRUE concerning cargo hose on tank barges?
o
o
(A) Cargo hose must be able to withstand the shut-off head less the static head of the cargo
pump but no less than 100 psi.
(B) Cargo hose must be able to withstand the static head of the cargo pump but no less than 100
psi.
(C) Cargo hose must be able to withstand at least 150 psi.
(D) Cargo hose must be able to withstand the shut-off head plus the static head of the cargo
pump.
1162. (2.2.2.2B-8) What form of venting of cargo tanks is allowed for a tank barge certificated to carry
grade B petroleum products?
o
o
o
(A) Gooseneck vents with flame screens

(B) Individual pressure-vacuum relief valves with flame screens
(C) Straight vents with flame screens
(D) Gooseneck vents only
1163. (2.2.2.4A-16) Your ship has loaded 9,000 barrels of fuel oil at a cargo temperature of 35C (95
F). API gravity is 44. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. You are bound to New Jersey
from Venezuela. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55F at
the discharge port?
o
o
o
(A) 8,910
(B) 8,820
(C) 9,180
(D) 9,090
1164. (2.2.2.6A4-9) Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at the
outlet of the gas production plant. This valve must close automatically upon __________.
o
o
o
(A) blower failure

(B) deck seal low water level
(C) low inert gas temperature
(D) cargo pump failure

Deck General
September 2015
1165. (2.2.2.6B-15) LNG containment insulation performs all of the following functions, except which of
the following?
o
o
o
(A) increases the dew point of the hold space atmosphere

(B) protects the hull against low temperature
(C) limits the heat leak to the cargo
(D) absorbs loads imposed by the cargo
1166. (2.2.2.2B-11) Which tank barges require draft marks?

o
o
o
(A) Notch barges over 1000 GT

(B) Tank barges over 100 GT
(C) Tank barges over 50 GT
(D) All tank barges
1167. (2.2.2.6A4-10) On a vapor control system, each vessel's vapor connection flange must have a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) hose saddle

(B) pressure gauge permanently attached to the flange
(C) 6" reducer
(D) stud at least 1" long projecting from the flange face
1168. (2.2.2.2B-12) When discharging cargo from a tank barge, in which case may the cargo pass
through or over the towing vessel?
o
o
o
(A) With permission from the person in charge of the towing vessel
(B) When off-loading grade C cargo
(C) With permission from the person in charge of the shore facility
(D) In no case
1169. (2.2.2.2B-13) Where is the most probable location of the remote shutdown station for cargo
pumps on a tank barge carrying oil?
o
o
(A) Above the forward rake end

(B) The loading dock
(C) The midpoint of the barge
(D) Within 25 feet of the pump engine

Deck General
September 2015
1170. (2.2.2.2B-15) What is a requirement for remote manual shutdown stations for internal
combustion engine driven cargo pumps on tank barges?
o
o
(A) There must be at least two such shutdown devices.

(B) They must be located at least 10 feet from the engine.
(C) They must be conspicuously marked.
(D) The valve rods shall be fitted with stuffing boxes.
1171. (2.2.2.2B-17) Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D, Rules and Regulations for
Tank Vessels?
o
o
(A) Vinyl Chloride

(B) Benzene
(C) Asphalt
1172. (2.2.2.6B-45) What is one major advantage of transporting gas under refrigeration?
o
o
o
(A) It reduces its volume.

(B) It has less product per volume.
(C) It increases its volume.
1173. (2.2.2.2B-18) While underway and towing an unmanned tank barge you are required to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) open the tops of all empty tanks on the barge

(B) fly a red flag from the towing vessel
(C) take hourly soundings of any loaded tanks on the barge
(D) maintain a strict watch on the barge from the towing vessel
1174. (2.2.2.2B-21) What is NOT a requirement for storage batteries on tank barges?
o
o
o
(A) They may be located in cargo handling rooms

(B) They must be located in well ventilated spaces
(C) Each battery box must have a watertight lining
(D) They must be secured against movement

Deck General
September 2015
1175. (2.2.2.6B-26) Which of the following statements is true?

o
o
(A) LNG contains smaller quantities of a heavier hydrocarbon known as pantene

(B) LNG is a pure substance and has no other component
(C) LNG contains smaller quantities of a heavier hydrocarbon known as NGL
(D) NGL contains smaller quantities of a heavier hydrocarbon known as LNG.
1176. (2.2.2.4A-1) A tank holds 400 tons of sea water when filled. How many tons of liquid of specific
gravity 0.9300 will it hold when filled to 90% capacity?
o
o
o
(A) 326.6
(B) 343.2
(C) 377.6
(D) 390.2
1177. (2.2.2.5D-9) What is an advantage of a gate valve over a butterfly valve?

o
o
(A) More compact

(B) Cheaper
(C) Less frequent maintenance
(D) Faster operation
1178. (2.2.2.2B-42) If your asphalt barge has operated more than 12 months in saltwater in the 24
o
o
o

1179. (2.2.2.4A-26) A tanker is loaded with 12,000 barrels of #2 fuel oil. The temperature of the product
is 88F. API gravity is 39. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. The net amount of cargo in
barrels, loaded is _________.
o
o
(A) 12,168
(B) 11,994
(C) 11,832
(D) 12,006

Deck General
September 2015
1180. (2.2.2.6A2-3) After the initial cleaning of flue gas in an inert gas system the gas is passed
through what device for final cleaning?
o
o
o
(A) Demister
(B) Final filter
(C) Scrubber
(D) Deck water seal
1181. (2.2.2.2B-22) The sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during
cargo transfer reads __________.
o
o
o
(A) "Warning, Keep Off, Stay Clear"

(B) "Warning, No Smoking, No Open Lights, No Visitors"
(C) "Danger, Do Not Board"
(D) "Dangerous Cargo Being Transferred"
1182. (2.2.2.6A2-16) The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent __________.
o
o
(A) air entering inert gas system

(B) flue gas escaping to atmosphere
(C) flammable vapors from entering machinery space
(D) inert gas escaping to atmosphere
1183. (2.2.2.6A4-2) During loading and discharging operations, in addition to when the cargo tanks
have been properly filled, each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas
pressure of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 125 millimeters of water pressure

(B) 75 millimeters of water pressure
(C) 150 millimeters of water pressure
(D) 100 millimeters of water pressure
1184. (2.2.2.2B-26) The final inspection responsibility for seeing that a tank barge is provided with the
required equipment and fittings in good and serviceable condition prior to loading cargo rests with
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) owner of the barge

(B) charterer through the Master of the towing vessel
(C) terminal operator
(D) tankerman or person in charge of loading

Deck General
September 2015
1185. (2.2.2.2B-27) A barge displaying a 2' X 3' white sign with the word "WARNING" followed by
"DANGEROUS CARGO" in black letters __________.
o
o
o
(A) would require that a cargo information card be carried in the pilothouse of the towboat
(B) must be located as a lead barge in a tow
(C) may not be spotted next to the towboat while under tow
(D) may not be in the same tow as a barge carrying gasoline
1186. (2.2.2.2B-29) Which barge in your tow would require a cargo information card to be carried in the
pilothouse?
o
o
o
(A) A gas-free chlorine barge

(B) An empty (not gas-free) barge that last carried benzene
(C) A tank barge with a sign reading "No Visitors, No Smoking, No Open Lights"
(D) An open hopper barge carrying coal
1187. (2.2.2.6A3-4) An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions by
__________.
o
o
(A) eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks

(B) blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam
(C) reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion
(D) removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks
1188. (2.2.2.2B-32) Your tow contains a barge carrying carbon tetrachloride. What is NOT required?
o
o
(A) Cargo warning signs on barge

(B) Cargo information card in pilothouse
(C) Certificated tankerman on towboat
(D) Cargo information card on barge
1189. (2.2.2.2B-34) According to regulations, how many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are
required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned, cargo pump-equipped tank barge while engaged in
transferring grade B flammable liquids?
o
o
o
(A) Three
(B) Two
(C) One
(D) None

Deck General
September 2015
1190. (2.2.2.2B-37) What are cargo tanks carrying grades D or E liquids on tank barges required to be
ventilated with?
o
o
o
(A) forced draft blowers

(B) branch vent lines and a vent header
(C) pressure-vacuum relief valves
(D) gooseneck vents and flame screens
1191. (2.2.2.4A-37) What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo?

o
o
o
(A) Reducing the gross cargo calculations to net amounts

(B) Adjusting the cargo figures to coincide with the draft
(C) Siphoning off a few barrels of petroleum for shipboard use
(D) Determining the amount of water (if any) in each cargo tank
1192. (2.2.2.6B-36) How is the amount of LFG that may be loaded into a given tank determined?
o
o
o
(A) loading to within 10 percent of the safety relief valve setting

(B) loading to within 1 percent of outage
(C) checking the loading sheet
(D) filling to the maximum level indicated on the liquid level gauging device
1193. (2.2.2.5B-16) On a vapor control system, what must each vessel's vapor connection flange
have?
o
o
o
(A) stud at least 1" long projecting from the flange face
(B) 6" reducer
(C) pressure gauge permanently attached to the flange
(D) hose saddle
1194. (2.2.2.2B-38) On a tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951, what is the required vent size
for each cargo tank?
o
o
(A) not less than 1.5 inches

(B) not less than 2.0 inches
(C) not less than 2.5 inches
(D) not less than 3.0 inches

Deck General
September 2015
1195. (2.2.2.2B-39) How many portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an
unmanned tank barge during cargo transfer, if the barge has no cargo pumps of her own?
o
o
o
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) None
1196. (2.2.2.2B-40) How many fire extinguishers, and what type, are required on an unmanned oil
barge during transfer operations, if the barge has no cargo pumps aboard?
o
o
(A) Two B-II

(B) One B-V
(C) One B-II
(D) Two A-II
1197. (2.2.2.4A-12) Your ship has loaded 20,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for San
Francisco. When loaded the cargo temperature was 96F. API was 15. The volume correction
factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 56F at the discharge port, how
many gallons will be offloaded?
o
o
o
(A) 1,082,400
(B) 853,440
(C) 1,117,600
(D) 826,560
1198. (2.2.2.6B-29) LNG boil-off is used as fuel in the dual fuel system to produce steam in the boilers
to run the turbines. What happens under slow maneuvering speeds, due to excessive steam being
generated?
o
o
(A) the boil-off is vented to the atmosphere

(B) the boil-off is not permitted to be used as a fuel
(C) the steam produced in the boiler, due to the dual fuel system, is dumped to the main
condenser
(D) the steam is vented to the atmosphere to prevent excess build-up of pressure in the boiler

Deck General
September 2015
1199. (2.2.2.2B-41) What type of vent is required on a barge transporting No. 6 fuel oil?
o
o
o
(A) Pressure-vacuum
(B) Gooseneck vents fitted with flame screens
(C) Vent header
(D) Branch vent line
1200. (2.2.2.2B-44) To determine the pressure and temperature limitations under which LFG is
required to be transported on a barge, you should look at the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Certificate of Inspection

(B) rules and regulations for tank vessels
(C) tankerman's document
(D) loading order
1201. (2.2.2.5B-13) What is the most commonly used material for valve construction in LNG cargo
piping?
o
o
o
(A) 9% nickel alloy steel.

(B) 5% nickel alloy steel.
(C) Aluminum.
(D) Stainless steel.
1202. (2.2.2.2B-45) You are in charge of a 225-gross ton tug preparing to depart from Houston, Texas,
with a loaded 2500-gross ton tank barge bound for New York. Prior to departure, regulations require
that you __________.
o
o
o
(A) record the condition of the towing gear

(B) have on board an Official Logbook in lieu of other forms of records
(C) record the status of all firefighting equipment
(D) record the barge's load line and draft readings
1203. (2.2.2.5B-17) What is the first action you should take to prevent oil from escaping into the sea
when ballasting through the cargo piping system?
o
o
o
(A) open block valves, then start the cargo pump

(B) open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump
(C) open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
(D) start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves

Deck General
September 2015
1204. (2.2.2.2B-46) On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be
permitted during a loading operation?
o
o
o
(A) The certificated tankerman on duty

(B) The vessel owner
(C) Smoking is not permitted during a loading operation.
(D) The OCMI who issued the Certificate of Inspection
1205. (2.2.2.2B-47) What is NOT a requirement of the re-inspection for a tank barge with a certificate of
inspection valid for two years?
o
o
o
(A) The inspector shall examine the vessel machinery as well as equipment.
(B) The inspector shall examine all accessible parts of the vessel's hull.
(C) The scope of the re-inspection shall be the same as for the inspection for certification, but in
less detail.
(D) The re-inspection will be made between the fourteenth and sixteenth months.
1206. (2.2.2.2B-50) What type of vent is required on a barge transporting No. 6 fuel oil?
o
o
o
(A) Pressure-vacuum
(B) Branch vent line
(C) Vent header
(D) Gooseneck vents fitted with flame screens
1207. (2.2.2.2B-51) During cargo transfer on an unmanned tank barge, how many portable fire
extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area, if the barge has no cargo pumps of her own?
o
o
o
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) None
1208. (2.2.2.6A4-3) Which statement about the pressure in a tank being inerted by an inert gas system
is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) A positive pressure should be maintained at all times.

(B) The pressure must remain within the limits of +5 psi to -1 psi.
(C) The maximum pressure permitted is 8 psi.

Deck General
September 2015
1209. (2.2.2.5C-3) What is NOT an advantage of centrifugal pumps over reciprocating pumps?
o
o
o
(A) They pump more cargo in less time.

(B) They require priming for stripping.
(C) They are smaller for equivalent pumping ability.
(D) They are less expensive.
1210. (2.2.2.5B-5) The piping that routes an oil cargo from the manifold to underdeck pipelines is
known as a __________.
o
o
o
(A) transfer
(B) cargo fill
(C) branch line
(D) line drop
1211. (2.2.2.2B-52) How many, and what type, fire extinguishers are required on an unmanned oil
barge during transfer operations, if the barge has no cargo pumps aboard?
o
o
o
(A) Two A-II

(B) One B-II
(C) One B-V
(D) Two B-II
1212. (2.2.2.6A2-4) Which function is NOT provided by the scrubber of an inert gas system?
o
o
o
(A) Removes particulate matter like soot.

(B) Maintains gas pressure in the tanks.
(C) Removes chemical impurities from the gas.
(D) Cools the inert gas.
1213. (2.2.2.3-1) Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the
pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) notify the terminal superintendent

(B) replace the hose
(C) place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers
(D) repair the hose with a patch

Deck General
September 2015
1214. (2.2.2.3-10) The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time an oil spill occurs on deck.
After shutting down the transfer, the engine room should first be informed and then __________.
o
o
o
(A) spread an absorbent material, such as sawdust

(B) sound the general alarm
(C) rig a fire hose and call for water on deck
(D) remove the plugs from the scuppers
1215. (2.2.2.5D-3) The valve on the discharge side of a cargo pump on a tank vessel will usually be a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) butterfly valve

(B) check valve
(C) globe valve
(D) gate valve
1216. (2.2.2.6B-33) What is the term used for evaporated LNG?

o
o
o
(A) boil-off
(B) vapor
(C) GNG
1217. (2.2.2.6B-20) What is the most common liquified gas cargo?

o
o
o
(A) hydrocarbons
(B) butane
(C) chemical gases
(D) ammonia
1218. (2.2.2.6B-40) Which of the following is not an acceptable means to measure a liquid level in a
cyrogenic cargo tank?
o
o
o
(A) a nitrogen bubbler system

(B) a sounding tape gage using blue chalk
(C) a capacitance level measurement system
(D) a radar gage

Deck General
September 2015
1219. (2.2.2.6A4-15) What is the combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to?
o
o
(A) boiler forced draft fan rate

(B) size of the largest cargo tank
(C) maximum cargo pump discharge rate
(D) shoreside loading rate
1220. (2.2.2.3-2) The most likely time for oil pollution while bunkering is when __________.
o
o
o
(A) final topping off is occurring

(C) first starting to receive fuel
(D) hoses are disconnected and being capped
1221. (2.2.2.5D-10) A device fitted over the discharge opening on a relief valve consisting of one or two
woven wire fabrics is called a flame __________.
o
o
o
(A) screen
(B) restrictor
(C) filter
(D) stopper
1222. (2.2.2.3-5) If you are bunkering and you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the
rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line will __________.
o
o
o
(A) remain constant

(B) decrease
(C) stop
(D) increase
1223. (2.2.2.3-8) When bunkering at a dock which of the following signals must be displayed?
o
o
o
(A) A yellow flag by day, red light by night

(B) A red flag by day, red light by night
(C) A green flag by day, green light by night
(D) A red flag by day, a blue light by night

Deck General
September 2015
1224. (2.2.2.3-9) When bunkering at anchorage which of the following signals must be displayed?
o
o
(A) A red flag by day, red light by night

(B) A red light by night ONLY
(C) A red flag by day ONLY
(D) No signal required at anchorage
1225. (2.2.2.5D-19) Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be kept in good
working order to prevent __________.
o
o
o
(A) escape of explosive vapors

(B) oil spillage on deck
(C) contamination from other tanks
(D) damage to tank boundaries
1226. (2.2.2.3-11) A precaution you should take before bunkering is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) plug the scuppers

(B) close the lids on the vents
(C) plug the vents
(D) plug the sounding pipes
1227. (2.2.2.3-12) When selecting the fuel oil tanks for the "burn-out" of bunkers during a voyage
consideration of all of the following must be taken with the EXCEPTION of __________.
o
o
o
(A) flashpoint
(B) list
(C) stability
(D) trim
1228. (2.2.2.3-13) In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is
when __________.
o
o
o
(A) final topping off is occurring

(C) you first start to receive fuel
(D) hoses are being disconnected

Deck General
September 2015
1229. (2.2.2.4A-18) Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 36C
Jersey from Ecuador. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55F
at the discharge port?
o
o
o
(A) 7,798
(B) 7,827
(C) 8,173
(D) 8,202
1230. (2.2.2.4A-3) A cargo of 10,000 barrels of gasoline is loaded at a temperature of 90F, and a
cargo temperature of 55F, is expected on this voyage. It has a coefficient of expansion of .0006.
How many barrels would you expect to discharge at your destination?
o
o
o
(A) 9790
(B) 9994
(C) 10210
(D) 10410
1231. (2.2.2.4A-19) Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 36C
Jersey from Ecuador. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is
55F at the discharge port?
o
o
o
(A) 327,533
(B) 428,890
(C) 344,484
(D) 451,110
1232. (2.2.2.5D-11) What is the purpose of a check valve?

o
o
o
(A) Passes air but not liquid

(B) Regulates liquid flow
(C) Passes liquid but not air
(D) Permits flow in one direction only

Deck General
September 2015
1233. (2.2.2.4A-4) A tanker is loaded with 12,000 barrels of #2 fuel oil. The temperature of the product
is 88F. API gravity is 39. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. The net amount of cargo in
gallons, loaded is _________.
o
o
o
(A) 496,944
(B) 511,056
(C) 650,760
(D) 669,240
1234. (2.2.2.4A-6) Your ship departed Venezuela for New York, loaded with 10,000 barrels of crude oil,
whose average cargo temperature was 30C (86 F). API is 25. The volume correction factor (VCF)
is .00045. If this cargo is heated to 100F prior to discharge, how many gallons will you offload?
o
o
o
(A) 417,354
(B) 422,646
(C) 546,535
(D) 553,465
1235. (2.2.2.4A-7) Your ship has loaded 6,000 barrels of gasoline, at a cargo temperature of 50F,
departing New Jersey bound for Florida. API gravity is 55. The volume correction factor (VCF) is
.0006. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 90F at the
discharge port?
o
o
o
(A) 5,856
(B) 5,982
(C) 6,018
(D) 6,144
1236. (2.2.2.4A-8) Your ship has loaded 6,000 barrels of gasoline, at a cargo temperature of 50F,
departing New Jersey bound for Florida. API gravity is 55. The volume correction factor (VCF) is
.0006. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 90F at the
discharge port?
o
o
o
(A) 337,920
(B) 322,080
(C) 295,952
(D) 258,048

Deck General
September 2015
1237. (2.2.2.4A-9) Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 85F,
departing Aruba bound for New Jersey. API gravity is 55. The volume correction factor (VCF) is
.0006. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 50F at the
discharge port?
o
o
o
(A) 7,880
(B) 7,832
(C) 8,168
(D) 8,120
1238. (2.2.2.5C-22) The terminal indicates to you that they are going to use a booster pump to assist
the discharging operation. You start the discharge, and in a few minutes the pressure drops sharply.
This could be a result of which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) booster pump coming on the line and discharging properly

(B) booster pump failing to start
(C) booster pump being lined up in the wrong direction
(D) ships pump speeding up
1239. (2.2.2.4A-10) Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 85F,
departing Aruba bound for New Jersey. API gravity is 55. The volume correction factor (VCF) is
.0006. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 50F at the
discharge port?
o
o
o
(A) 449,240
(B) 430,760
(C) 343,056
(D) 328,944
1240. (2.2.2.4A-11) Your ship has loaded 20,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for San
Francisco. When loaded the cargo temperature was 96F. API was 15. The volume correction
factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 56F at the discharge port, how
many barrels will be offloaded?
o
o
o
(A) 19,680
(B) 19,712
(C) 20,288
(D) 20,320

Deck General
September 2015
1241. (2.2.2.4A-14) A tank is loaded with 9,000 barrels of gasoline. The temperature of the product is
90F (32C), and it has a coefficient of expansion of .0008. What is the net amount of cargo loaded?
o
o
o
(A) 8856 bbls

(B) 8784 bbls
(C) 8820 bbls
(D) 9216 bbls
1242. (2.2.2.4A-20) A tank is loaded with 9,000 barrels of gasoline. The temperature of the product is
80F (27C), and it has a coefficient of expansion of .0008. The net amount of cargo loaded is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 8,944 barrels

(B) 8,856 barrels
(C) 9,144 barrels
(D) 9,072 barrels

Deck General
September 2015
1243. (2.2.2.6A4-1) Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be
equipped with an inert gas system if the tonnage is more than __________.
o
o
o
(A) 100,000 DWT (metric tons)

(B) 50,000 DWT (metric tons)
(C) 50,000 DWT (long tons)
(D) 100,000 DWT (long tons)
1244. (2.2.2.4B-11) The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0001 below. Use the
salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.
o
o
(A) 86.72 numeral

(B) 89.98 numeral
(C) 91.40 numeral
(D) 93.18 numeral
1245. (2.2.2.6A2-14) What type of liquid is used in the liquid P/V breaker?
o
o
o
(A) Hydraulic oil

(B) Oil from the cargo
(C) Distilled water
(D) Water-antifreeze mixture
1246. (2.2.2.4A-22) A cargo of fuel oil is loaded whose temperature is 66F. API gravity is 36. The
volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. A cargo temperature of 80F is expected at the discharge
port. If 9,000 barrels were loaded, how many barrels would you expect to unload?
o
o
(A) 8,910
(B) 8,937
(C) 9,063
(D) 9,090

Deck General
September 2015
1247. (2.2.2.4A-23) A cargo of fuel oil is loaded whose temperature is 66F. API gravity is 36. The
volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. A cargo temperature of 80F is expected at the discharge
port. If 9,000 barrels were loaded, how many gallons would you expect to unload?
o
o
o
(A) 375,354
(B) 380,646
(C) 491,535
(D) 498,465
1248. (2.2.2.6A2-7) The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur
combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________.
o
o
o
(A) cooler
(B) scrubber
(C) purifier
(D) filter
1249. (2.2.2.4A-24) A tanker is loaded with 8,000 barrels of fuel oil. The temperature of the cargo is
50F. API gravity is 37. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. What is the net amount in
barrels of cargo loaded?
o
o
(A) 7,960
(B) 8,016
(C) 8,040
(D) 7,984
1250. (2.2.2.4A-25) A tanker is loaded with 8,000 barrels of fuel oil. The temperature of the cargo is
50F. API gravity is 37. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. What is the net amount in
gallons of cargo loaded?
o
o
o
(A) 334,320
(B) 337,680
(C) 437,800
(D) 442,200

Deck General
September 2015
1251. (2.2.2.4A-27) You are loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0900 you find that you have loaded
207,000 barrels. At 1030 you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. If you continue loading at
the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________.
o
o
(A) 2100 that night

(B) 0730 the next day
(C) 0910 the next day
(D) 1215 the next day
1252. (2.2.2.4A-28) You are loading 530,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0945 on 13 April, you find that you
have loaded 202,000 barrels. At 1130, you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. If you
continue at the same rate, you will finish at __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1322, 13 April

(B) 1920, 13 April
(C) 1120, 14 April
(D) 1305, 14 April
1253. (2.2.2.4A-30) You are in the process of loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 1030, on 5
November, you gauge the vessel and find that you have loaded 203,000 barrels. At 1200 you find
that you have loaded 218,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at
approximately __________.
o
o
(A) 1510, 5 November

(B) 1104, 6 November
(C) 1242, 6 November
(D) 0735, 7 November
1254. (2.2.2.4A-32) You are loading 530,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0945 on 13 April, you find that you
have loaded 202,000 barrels. At 1130, you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. When will you
complete loading if you continue at the same rate?
o
o
o
(A) 1322, 13 April

(B) 1920, 13 April
(C) 1120, 14 April
(D) 1305, 14 April

Deck General
September 2015

o
o
o
(A) Reducing the gross cargo calculations to net amounts

(B) Determining the amount of water (if any) in each cargo tank
(C) Adjusting the cargo figures to coincide with the draft
(D) Siphoning off a few barrels of petroleum for shipboard use
1256. (2.2.2.4A-38) What is the heat given to or given up by a substance while changing state?
o
o
o
(A) condensation
(B) latent heat
(C) vaporization
(D) evaporation
1257. (2.2.2.5B-14) What should you use when hooking up a cargo hose to your vessel manifold?
o
o
o
(A) self-contained breathing apparatus

(B) insulating flange or single length of non-conducting hose
(C) international shore connection
(D) oxygen analyzer
1258. (2.2.2.4A-39) A tank holds 400 tons of sea water when filled. How many tons of liquid of specific
gravity 0.9300 will it hold when filled to 90% capacity?
o
o
o
(A) 377.6
(B) 326.6
(C) 390.2
(D) 343.2
o
o
o
(A) 40.18 numeral

(B) 22.44 numeral
(C) 89.75 numeral
(D) 28.62 numeral

Deck General
September 2015
1260. (2.2.2.5D-18) What is TRUE of pressure/vacuum valves?

o
o
o
(A) They are designed to provide for the flow of small volumes of tank atmospheres caused by
thermal variations in a cargo tank.
(B) They should be kept in good working order by regular inspection and cleaning.
(C) They should operate in advance of the pressure/vacuum breakers.
o
o
o
(A) 72.42 numeral

(B) 78.98 numeral
(C) 83.46 numeral
(D) 91.48 numeral
o
o
o
(A) 43.19 numeral

(B) 46.56 numeral
(C) 49.92 numeral
(D) 55.72 numeral
o
o
o
(A) 29.70 numeral

(B) 49.82 numeral
(C) 33.63 numeral
(D) 58.33 numeral
o
o
o
(A) 72.43 numeral

(B) 52.79 numeral
(C) 91.36 numeral
(D) 101.02 numeral

Deck General
September 2015
1265. (2.2.2.4B-13) Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel?
o
o
(A) The vertical center of gravity

(B) GM
(C) The stress on the hull
(D) The longitudinal center of gravity
colored pages in the Stability book to determine the hogging numeral.
o
o
(A) 81.37 numeral

(B) 84.46 numeral
(C) 95.70 numeral
(D) 98.23 numeral
salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference to determine the sagging numeral.
o
o
o
(A) 71.07 numeral

(B) 74.95 numeral
(C) 77.56 numeral
(D) 78.29 numeral
salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral.
o
o
o
(A) 29.49 numeral

(B) 31.97 numeral
(C) 33.61 numeral
(D) 35.12 numeral
1269. (2.2.2.5B-3) The piping that routes an oil cargo from the manifold directly to a cargo tank and
serves only one tank is known as a __________.
o
o
o
(A) filler line

(B) tank drop
(C) branch line
(D) cargo fill

Deck General
September 2015
1270. (2.2.2.5A-1) According to the regulations, normally, manholes in LFG tanks are located
__________.
o
o
o
(A) above the weather deck

(B) in the ends of each tank
(C) in the expansion trunk of each tank
(D) there are no requirements in the regulation
1271. (2.2.2.5A-2) According to the regulations, to prevent excessive pressure buildup in cargo tanks
containing LFG, they are fitted with __________.
o
o
o
(A) flame screens

(B) excess flow valves
(C) pressure vacuum relief valves
(D) safety relief valves
1272. (2.2.2.5A-4) Ullage measurements are taken from the top of the liquid to which of the following
points?
o
o
o
(A) the base of the expansion trunk

(B) an above-deck datum, usually the top of the ullage hole
(C) the base of the ullage port
(D) a line scribed within the ullage port
1273. (2.2.2.5A-5) Sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels are
permitted by U.S. regulations to be located in which of the listed spaces?
o
o
o
(A) Laundries
(B) crew lounge
(C) Washrooms
1274. (2.2.2.5A-6) Where are ullages measured from?

o
o
(A) the thievage mark

(B) the tank ceiling
(C) an above deck datum
(D) the tank top bushing

Deck General
September 2015
1275. (2.2.2.5A-8) U.S. regulations define several acceptable means of closure for ballast and fuel oil
tank vents. Which of the following is an example of acceptable means?
o
o
o
(A) manually operated ball check valve

(B) automatically operated hinged closure
(C) permanently installed canvas hood
(D) corrosion resistant wire screen
1276. (2.2.2.5D-2) To insure proper seating when closing a valve on a tank, the valve should be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) closed, opened a half turn, and then closed again

(B) closed against the stop and the locking pin inserted
(C) set up tight using a valve wrench
(D) set up as tight as possible by hand
1277. (2.2.2.5B-2) The pipe used to connect two separate piping systems on a tank vessel is known as
a __________.
o
o
o
(A) crossover
(B) transfer
(C) connection
(D) junction
1278. (2.2.2.5B-8) The main function of a stripping system is to __________.

o
o
o
(A) increase the loading rate of the shoreside pumps

(B) maintain the temperature of the cargo throughout the vessel
(C) dispose of dangerous vapors within the cargo tanks
(D) discharge liquid left in the cargo tanks after the main pumps have discharged the bulk
1279. (2.2.2.5C-1) Which statement about a centrifugal cargo pump is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) It must have a positive suction.

(B) It is a positive displacement pump.
(C) Increasing rotation speed will decrease discharge pressure.

Deck General
September 2015
1280. (2.2.2.6A3-19) Which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system
to the cargo tanks?
o
o
o
(A) Inert gas compressor

(B) Exhaust gas pressure
(C) Natural aspiration
(D) High capacity fan
1281. (2.2.2.5C-2) What is a characteristic of all centrifugal cargo pumps?

o
o
o
(A) They are self-priming.

(B) Decreasing the speed of rotation will decrease the discharge pressure.
(C) Opening the discharge valve wider will increase the discharge pressure.
1282. (2.2.2.5C-5) Which pump must always be primed?

o
o
(A) Reciprocating pump

(B) Rotary pump
(C) Centrifugal pump
1283. (2.2.2.5C-7) Centrifugal pumps have what advantage(s) over reciprocating pumps?
o
o
o
(A) They pump more cargo in less time.

(B) They are less expensive.
(C) They are smaller for equivalent pumping ability.
1284. (2.2.2.5C-8) A deepwell pump is a type of __________.

o
o
(A) gear pump

(B) eductor
(C) centrifugal pump
(D) screw pump

Deck General
September 2015
1285. (2.2.2.5C-11) You may be able to avoid loss of suction in a pump by __________.
o
o
o
(A) opening the vent cock on the pump

(B) using a full tank to keep the pump primed
(C) closing down on the tank valve
1286. (2.2.2.5C-12) You start a centrifugal cargo pump to discharge cargo. The pump works for a while
and then loses suction. This could be caused by __________.
o
o
(A) the pump running backwards

(B) the discharge head being too high
(C) incomplete priming
1287. (2.2.2.5C-13) Which method should be used to warm up the pump turbines prior to discharge?
o
o
(A) Run the turbine at slow speed with the pump disconnected
(B) Run the pump at high speed with the discharge valves closed
(C) Shut the discharge valve and run the pump at slow speed
(D) Lock the turbine rotor and slowly bleed in steam until operating temperature is reached
1288. (2.2.2.5C-15) On what type of pump would you find an impeller?

o
o
o
(A) Gear
(B) Centrifugal
(C) Vane
(D) Piston
1289. (2.2.2.5C-16) If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent electric motors, operating at
unequal speeds are discharging an inflammable liquid through a common discharge line, the higher
speed pump may cause the slower pump to do which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) turn backward

(B) overspeed the driving end
(C) stop
(D) overheat

Deck General
September 2015
1290. (2.2.2.5C-17) Steam driven pumps are considered, by regulations, sources of vapor ignition if the
steam temperature is at least what temperature?
o
o
o
(A) 212F
(B) 1200F
(C) 100C
(D) 500F
1291. (2.2.2.5C-18) Which of the following conditions would be hazardous if you were using two
centrifugal pumps to discharge a flammable liquid?
o
o
(A) Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from a common line.
(B) Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a common line.
(C) Each pump operating at a different speed and discharging into a common line.
(D) Both pumps operating at the same speed taking suction from a common line.
1292. (2.2.2.5C-19) On many modern tankers, which of the following devices is used to reduce cargo
pump leakage to the pump room bilge?
o
o
o
(A) Mechanical seals

(B) Shaft sleeves
(C) Clipper seals
(D) Flinger rings
1293. (2.2.2.5C-20) Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps aboard tankers?

o
o
o
(A) They are more expensive than reciprocating pumps.

(B) They are gravity-fed.
(C) They are used for stripping pumps.
(D) They are used for stripping pumps.
1294. (2.2.2.5C-21) Which of the following statements concerning deep well cargo pumps is correct?
o
o
o
(A) The impeller is located at the upper end of the shaft.

(B) Special priming provisions are necessary.
(C) The prime mover is connected at the lower portion of the shaft.
(D) A pump room is not necessary.

Deck General
September 2015
1295. (2.2.2.5C-23) What are submerged LNG pump bearings lubricated by?
o
o
o
(A) graphite
(B) silicon grease
(C) Low Temp-a special cryogenic lubricant
(D) LNG
1296. (2.2.2.5D-1) What is the purpose of pressure-vacuum relief valves?

o
o
o
(A) Maintaining constant velocity in cargo lines

(B) Automatic regulation of pressure or vacuum in enclosed spaces.
(C) Regulation of suction head on cargo pumps
(D) Regulation of discharge pressure from cargo pumps
1297. (2.2.2.5D-4) What is TRUE of pressure/vacuum valves?

o
o
o
(A) They are designed to provide for the flow of small volumes of tank atmospheres caused by
thermal variations in a cargo tank.
(B) They should operate in advance of the pressure/vacuum breakers.
(C) They should be kept in good working order by regular inspection and cleaning.
1298. (2.2.2.5D-5) What is the purpose of the relief valve of a cargo pump?
o
o
(A) Allows two or more tanks to be filled at the same time

(B) Provides for the removal of vapors
(C) Permits the return of cargo to the suction side of the pump
(D) Provides for the emergency shutdown of the pump
1299. (2.2.2.6A2-12) Each hose used for transferring vapors must __________.
o
o
o
(A) be electrically continuous with a maximum resistance of ten thousand ohms

(B) have a design burst pressure of at least 25 psig
(C) be capable of withstanding at least 2.0 psi vacuum without collapsing or constricting

Deck General
September 2015
1300. (2.2.2.5D-6) Cargo pump relief valves are piped to the __________.
o
o
o
(A) crossover lines interconnecting two pumps

(B) cargo pump pressure gauges
(C) atmosphere through pump vents
(D) suction side of pumps
1301. (2.2.2.5D-7) A relief valve for a cargo pump is generally installed __________.
o
o
o
(A) between the pump and discharge valve

(B) between the pump and suction valve
(C) after the suction valve
(D) after the discharge valve
1302. (2.2.2.5D-8) Which characteristic is an advantage of a butterfly valve as compared to a gate

valve?
o
o
o
(A) Less maintenance required

(B) Precise control over cargo flow
(C) No resistance to cargo flow when open
(D) Quick operation
1303. (2.2.2.5D-12) What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is
installed to be in a normally open position?
o
o
(A) Depends on seat configuration

(B) Direction is unimportant
(C) From below the seat
(D) From above the seat
1304. (2.2.2.5D-14) Branch venting from safety relief valves on barges shall be constructed to
discharge the gas at a vertical height above the weather deck to a minimum of __________.
o
o
(A) 6 feet
(B) 8 feet
(C) 10 feet
(D) 12 feet

Deck General
September 2015
1305. (2.2.2.5D-15) What type of valve will usually be on the discharge side of a cargo pump on a tank
vessel?
o
o
(A) globe valve

(B) butterfly valve
(C) check valve
(D) gate valve
1306. (2.2.2.5D-16) Which of the following applies to cargo tank safety valves?
o
o
o
(A) are not held closed by tank pressure

(B) can be opened by pilot valves
(C) are not to be "popped" in port
(D) all of the above
1307. (2.2.2.6A1-5) On a tank vessel, when must each high level alarm and tank overfill alarm must be
tested?
o
o
(A) weekly
(B) anytime prior to loading
(C) no earlier than 24 hours prior to loading
(D) no later than 24 hours prior to loading
1308. (2.2.2.6A1-6) What percent of oxygen content by volume, must each inert gas system be
designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gases?
o
o
o
(A) 5% or less
(B) 10% or less
(C) 20% or less
(D) 15% or less
1309. (2.2.2.6A2-5) What is the major function of the deck water seal in an inert gas system?
o
o
o
(A) Relieves excessive pressures from the system.

(B) Prevents the flow of inert gas into closed or isolated tanks.
(C) Removes any leftover water or soot after the gas has been scrubbed.
(D) Isolates hazardous areas from nonhazardous areas.

Deck General
September 2015
1310. (2.2.2.6A2-6) The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________.
o
o
o
(A) prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas

(B) cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the cargo tanks
(C) relieves sudden large overpressures in the system
(D) acts as an emergency system shutdown when the inlet pressures exceed the safe working
pressure in the hazardous zone
1311. (2.2.2.6A2-8) Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas
generation system?
o
o
o
(A) Cools the inert gas.

(B) Maintains the oxygen content at 5% by volume.
(C) Maintains flow to the water seal on the gas main.
(D) Bleeds off static electricity in the inert gas.
1312. (2.2.2.6A2-9) After allowing for pressure losses, the pressure-volume capacity of an inert gas
blower must be able to maintain a pressure, in any cargo tank, at a minimum of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 50 millimeters of water pressure

(B) 100 millimeters of water pressure
(C) 150 millimeters of water pressure
(D) 200 millimeters of water pressure
1313. (2.2.2.6A2-10) The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to the
__________.
o
o
(A) boiler forced draft fan rate

(B) shoreside loading rate
(C) cargo pump discharge rate
(D) size of the largest cargo tank
1314. (2.2.2.6A2-17) The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be
automatically secured if __________.
o
o
o
(A) normal water supply at the water seal is lost

(B) the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost
(C) the temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks is more than 150F

Deck General
September 2015
1315. (2.2.2.6A2-18) Which function is NOT provided by the scrubber of an inert gas system?
o
o
(A) Removes particulate matter like soot.

(B) Removes chemical impurities from the gas.
(C) Maintains gas pressure in the tanks.
(D) Cools the inert gas.
1316. (2.2.2.6A3-5) The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) prevent outside air from entering the tank

(B) comply with double hull pollution prevention regulations
(C) provide increase in cargo discharge pressure
(D) allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life
1317. (2.2.2.6A3-8) The maximum allowable oxygen content within the ship's cargo tanks, inert gas
piping and the vapor recovery system is __________.
o
o
(A) 4%
(B) 5%
(C) 8%
(D) 10%
1318. (2.2.2.6A3-9) Introducing inert gas into a tank already inert with the object of further reducing the
oxygen or hydrocarbon content to prevent combustion if air enters the tank is called __________.
o
o
o
(A) purging
(B) gas dispersion
(C) bonding
(D) gas freeing
1319. (2.2.2.6A3-14) Which operation may cause the pressure in an inert tank to fall below the
prescribed limits?
o
o
(A) Steaming tanks

(B) Crude oil washing
(C) Discharging
(D) Loading

Deck General
September 2015
1320. (2.2.2.6A3-17) Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing a tank?
o
o
o
(A) Application of degreasing solvents

(B) Removal of corrosion products and sludge
(C) Fresh air ventilation
(D) Washing the tank interior with sea water
1321. (2.2.2.6A3-18) Which of the following describes excessive recirculation of inert gas?
o
o
(A) it is likely to over pressurize the cargo tanks

(B) it is likely to overheat the deck water seal
(C) it is undesirable and it may lead to high oxygen content of the inert gas
(D) it is highly recommended
1322. (2.2.2.6A3-20) While discharging cargo, the cargo tank pressures are falling too low. What can
the Cargo Officer do to correct the problem?
o
o
o
(A) Ask the terminal to send more vapor to the ship.

(B) Slow the discharge rate.
(C) Stop the discharge rate.
1323. (2.2.2.6A4-4) Where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration, pressure, and temperature
of an inert gas system required to be located?
o
o
o
(A) Bridge and tank(s) being inerted

(B) Bridge and engine control consoles
(C) Main deck and engine control consoles
(D) Cargo control and engine control consoles
1324. (2.2.2.6A4-6) Each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or
mixture of gasses, that has an oxygen content by volume of __________.
o
o
(A) 10% or less

(B) 15% or less
(C) 5% or less
(D) 20% or less

Deck General
September 2015
1325. (2.2.2.6A4-7) Coast Guard Regulations permit which of the following systems to be used for fire
prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessels?
o
o
o
(A) The fire main system

(B) A fixed water spray system
(C) The deck foam system
(D) An inert gas system
1326. (2.2.2.6A4-8) The last 1.0 meter (3.3 feet) of vapor piping before the vessel vapor connection
must be painted __________.
o
o
o
(A) yellow/red/yellow
(B) hi-visibility yellow
(C) international orange
(D) red/yellow/red
1327. (2.2.2.6A4-12) During loading, what is the minimum pressure required to be maintained by the
inert gas system on cargo tanks?
o
o
o
(A) 2" water gauge

(B) 4" water gauge
(C) 20" water gauge
(D) 40" water gauge
1328. (2.2.2.6A-16) You are onboard a tankship during the final stages of loading number two fuel oil.
Regulations require that your cargo tanks have installed high level and tank overfill alarms. At what
point must the high level alarm activate?
o
o
o
(A) At 95% of tank capacity or lower but higher than the setting of the overfill alarm
(B) At 99% of tank capacity with the overfill alarm set at 5% less
(C) At 90% of tank capacity if the overfill alarm is set at 95%
(D) At 95% of tank capacity or higher but less that the setting of the overfill alarm
1329. (2.2.2.6B-30) What happens to steam that is produced by gas burning in excess of machinery
plant demand?
o
o
o
(A) re-circulated to the first stage articulator

(B) vented to the atmosphere
(C) jettisoned overboard below the waterline
(D) dumped to a condenser

Deck General
September 2015
1330. (2.2.2.6B-1) The weight of liquefied petroleum gas vapors as compared to air is __________.
o
o
o
(A) lighter
(B) the same
(C) variable
(D) heavier
1331. (2.2.2.6B-2) Liquefied flammable gas is defined as any flammable gas having a Reid vapor
pressure exceeding how many pounds?
o
o
(A) 14
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50
1332. (2.2.2.6B-4) The primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) flammability
(B) temperature
(C) pressure
(D) toxicity
1333. (2.2.2.6B-5) One of the principal dangers inherent in liquefied petroleum gas is __________.
o
o
o
(A) as it warms up it becomes heavier than air

(C) the strong odor it produces
(D) its low temperature causes frostbite or freezing
1334. (2.2.2.6B-7) Generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire caused by escaping gas is to
__________.
o
o
(A) use a chemical foam fire extinguisher

(B) sweep flames away with water spray
(C) shut off the leak
(D) call the local fire department

Deck General
September 2015
1335. (2.2.2.6B-8) Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished by __________.
o
o
(A) blowing the flames out

(B) utilizing carbon dioxide or dry chemical fire extinguishers
(C) letting it burn itself out
(D) utilizing soda and acid fire extinguishers
1336. (2.2.2.6B-9) What normally helps in detecting escaping gas?

o
o
o
(A) Running hand along pipe

(B) Odor
(C) Increase the line pressure
(D) Red flame
1337. (2.2.2.6B-10) Name one major advantage of transporting gas under refrigeration.
o
o
(A) It increases its volume.

(B) It has less product per volume.
(C) It reduces its volume.
1338. (2.2.2.6B-11) A chemical additive to LPG gives it a characteristic __________.

o
o
o
(A) pressure
(B) odor
(C) color
(D) density
1339. (2.2.2.6B-13) The amount of LFG that may be loaded into a given tank is determined by
__________.
o
o
o
(A) checking the loading sheet

(B) filling to the maximum level indicated on the liquid level gauging device
(C) loading to within 1 percent of outage
(D) loading to within 10 percent of the safety relief valve setting

Deck General
September 2015
1340. (2.2.2.6B-17) What does the LNG cargo pumps capacity depends upon?
o
o
o
(A) density of cargo

(B) speed (LPG/LNG pumps are constant speed)
(C) back pressure
1341. (2.2.2.6B-21) Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished by which of the following?
o
o
(A) utilizing soda and acid fire extinguishers

(B) utilizing carbon dioxide or dry chemical fire extinguishers
(C) letting it burn itself out
(D) blowing the flames out
1342. (2.2.2.6B-22) Which of the following describes a chemical gas?

o
o
o
(A) substance whose molecules not exceed 4 carbon molecules

(B) substance whose molecules contain other atoms as well as carbon and hydrogen
(C) gas that has molecules but not carbon or hydrogen
(D) substance whose molecules contain only carbon and hydrogen
1343. (2.2.2.6B-23) There is a water spray or deluge system on LNG vessels that provide a water
spray over all areas around the cargo system. What can this system be used for?
o
o
(A) protecting surrounding areas from the radiant heat of a fire

(B) protecting mild steel hull plating from cracking due to LNG leaks
(C) both "A" and "B"
(D) neither "A" nor "B"
1344. (2.2.2.6B-25) Liquefied flammable gas is defined as any flammable gas having a Reid vapor
pressure exceeding how many pounds?
o
o
(A) 14
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50

Deck General
September 2015
1345. (2.2.2.6B-27) A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off during each voyage. How is the
cargo boil off normally handled?
o
o
(A) Vented to the atmosphere.

(B) Mixed with nitrogen and re-circulated through the primary barrier.
(C) Burned in the boilers.
(D) Compressed, condensed, and return to the cargo tanks.
1346. (2.2.2.6B-31) What do gas compressors on an LNG vessels provide the motive force to do?
o
o
o
(A) circulate gas when warming up the tanks

(B) deliver boil-off gas to the engine room
(C) deliver gas ashore when loading
1347. (2.2.2.6B-35) What functions due re-liquification plants perform?

o
o
o
(A) re-liquify cargo vapor generated during loading and return it to the cargo tanks
(B) cool down cargo tanks and pipes prior to loading
(C) keep cargo at a temperature and pressure within the design limit of the cargo system during
transport
1348. (2.2.2.6B-37) What characteristic does a chemical additive to LPG give it?
o
o
(A) color
(B) pressure
(C) odor
(D) density
1349. (2.2.2.6B-38) What is the LNG cargo term "rollover" used to describe?
o
o
o
(A) when two or more stratified layers of different density LNG in the same tank suddenly mix
together, causing a rapid increase in boil-off vapors
(B) vapor pockets forming at the bottom of a half-filled tank
(C) moving LNG from one tank to another
(D) custody transfer at the terminal

Deck General
September 2015
1350. What is the primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas?
o
o
(A) temperature
(B) pressure
(C) flammability
(D) toxicity
1351. (2.2.2.6B-42) What is the preferable way to extinguish an LNG fire?

o
o
(A) Apply mechanical foam.

(B) Apply "Purple K" dry chemical.
(C) Shut off the source of the gas feeding the fire.
(D) Apply water fog.
1352. (2.2.2.6B-44) What device will be activated while loading a LNG tank and the HI-HI liquid level
set point is reached?
o
o
o
(A) No shutdown required.

(B) Overflow shutdown.
(C) Remote shutdown valve control.
(D) Emergency shutdown.
1353. (2.2.2.6B-46) What is the gas above the liquid in an LNG tank?
o
o
(A) very dry air

(B) inert gas
(C) gaseous natural gas
(D) nitrogen
1354. (2.2.2.6B-49) While underway with full LNG cargo tanks, an alarm indicates liquid in hold space
#3. What should be the first action taken?
o
o
o
(A) immediately commence lining up the system to educt LNG from the cargo hold and prepare to
jettison LNG from cargo tank #3
(B) check the temperature and pressure indicators in the hold space
(C) commence purging hold #3 with inert gas
(D) send someone into the hold space with SCBA and cyrogenic immersion suit, to investigate
the condition of the hold

Deck General
September 2015
1355. (2.2.2.6B-50) In what condition is LNG transported?

o
o
(A) At its critical temperature.

(B) At a pressure in excess of 15.4 PSIA.
(C) At its boiling point.
1356. (2.2.2.6C1-1) The designations A, B, C, D, and E grades of cargo refer to the __________.
o
o
o
(A) pour point, color, and viscosity index of petroleum products

(B) degrees of quality of petroleum products
(C) grades of crude oil
(D) flash point range and Reid vapor pressure index of petroleum products
1357. (2.2.2.6C1-5) A petroleum liquid has a flash point of 85F. This is a grade __________.
o
o
(A) B flammable liquid

(B) C flammable liquid
(C) D combustible liquid
(D) E combustible liquid
1358. (2.2.2.6C1-2) Which of the following grade classifications is assigned to Camphor oil?
o
o
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
1359. (2.2.2.6C1-3) Which product is most likely to accumulate static electricity?
o
o
o
(A) Lubricating oil

(B) Hard asphalt
(C) Crude oil
(D) Residual fuel oil

Deck General
September 2015
1360. (2.2.2.6C1-6) Flammable liquid means any liquid which gives off flammable vapors at or below
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 40F (4.4C)

(B) 80F (26.7C)
(C) 110F (43.3C)
(D) 150F (65.6C)
1361. (2.2.2.6C1-4) Most crude oils are classified as grade __________.

o
o
o
(A) B
(B) C or D
(C) A or B
(D) E
1362. (2.2.2.6C1-9) A combustible liquid with a flash point of 90F would be grade __________.
o
o
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
1363. (2.2.2.6C1-13) Butadiene, inhibited, is labeled as a __________.
o
o
o
(A) flammable gas

(B) combustible liquid
(C) flammable liquid
(D) flammable solid
1364. (2.2.2.6C1-15) The vapor pressure of a substance __________.

o
o
o
(A) is not affected by temperature

(B) increases with the temperature
(C) may increase or decrease as the temperature rises
(D) decreases as temperature increases

Deck General
September 2015
1365. (2.2.2.6C1-12) A petroleum liquid has a flash point of 135Fahrenheit. This liquid is classed as a
grade __________.
o
o
(A) B flammable liquid

(B) C flammable liquid
(C) D combustible liquid
(D) E combustible liquid
1366. (2.2.2.6C1-19) Which of the following reacts dangerously with vinyl chloride?
o
o
(A) saltwater
(B) alkalies
(C) concentrated nitric acid
(D) organic acids
1367. (2.2.2.6C1-20) A combustible liquid is defined as any liquid having a flash point above what
temperature?
o
o
(A) 110F (43C)

(B) 40F (4C)
(C) 80F (27C)
(D) 150F (66C)
1368. (2.2.2.6C1-21) What is the flash point of a Grade D liquid?

o
o
o
(A) 212F or greater

(B) greater than 80F and less than 150F
(C) 150F or greater but less than 212F
(D) 80F or less

Deck General
September 2015
1369. (2.2.2.6C1-22) You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide, diisopropylamine and
pyridine on your multi-product tankship. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) A tank of pyridine may be used to separate a tank of carbon disulfide from a tank of
diisopropylamine.
(B) Carbon disulfide may be carried in NOS. 1 and 2 center tanks and diisopropylamine in NOS. 1
and 2 wing tanks.
(C) Carbon disulfide must be separated from pyridine by two barriers (cofferdams, voids, empty
tanks, etc.).
(D) Pyridine and diisopropylamine may be carried in tanks having a common header vent.
1370. (2.2.2.6C1-23) What is the flash point of vinyl chloride?

o
o
o
(A) -20F (-29C)

(B) 32F (0C)
(C) 97F (36C)
(D) -108F (-78C)
1371. (2.2.2.6C1-25) Which factor must be considered when determining the order of loading of
dissimilar products through the same piping system aboard a tanker?
o
o
o
(A) Specific gravities

(B) Flash points
(C) Reid vapor pressures
(D) Contamination of the cargo
1372. (2.2.2.6C1-26) What is the temperature at which a vapor mixture, at a given pressure, begins to
condense?
o
o
o
(A) dew point

(B) critical point
(C) boiling point
(D) bubble point
1373. (2.2.2.6C1-27) Some cargoes can react with air to form unstable oxygen compounds which could
cause them to do which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) explode
(B) polymerize
(C) form CO2
(D) form water

Deck General
September 2015
1374. (2.2.2.6C1-28) Which of the following will be the indication of the tendency of a grade "B" product
to vaporize?
o
o
o
(A) ignition temperature

(B) flash point
(C) convection index
(D) flammable range
1375. (2.2.2.6C1-29) Most liquified gas cargoes are flammable, and are carried at or close to their
boiling point. What will happen if they are released into the atmosphere?
o
o
o
(A) result in sloshing in the tank which could make the ship unstable
(B) burn, if it's within its flammable range and has an ignition source
(C) freeze and possibly cause structural damage
(D) allow air to enter the system causing polymerization
1376. (2.2.2.6C1-30) Which of the following describes the relationship between the vapor pressure of a
substance and temperature?
o
o
o
(A) increases with the temperature

(B) decreases as temperature increases
(C) is not affected by temperature
(D) may increase or decrease as the temperature rises
1377. (2.2.2.6C1-32) Which of the following describes one of the principle dangers inherent in liquified
petroleum gas?
o
o
o
(A) as it warms up it becomes heavier than air

1378. (2.2.2.6C2-2) When stripping a tank, excessive air in the suction line may cause __________.
o
o
o
(A) an over pressurized line

(B) loss of suction
(C) increase of suction
(D) back pressure

Deck General
September 2015
1379. (2.2.2.6C2-4) When discharging an oil cargo, the first consideration is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) get the bow up

(B) discharge from the centerline tanks first
(C) discharge from the wings first
(D) discharge from amidships first
1380. (2.2.2.6C2-5) Which tanker discharge pattern would be the safest and most efficient?
o
o
o
(A) Start pumping from midships and then work forward and aft simultaneously as the midships
tank is emptied
(B) Start pumping from forward, midships, and aft with the discharge distributed equally among
the tanks
(C) Empty the forward tanks and start working aft, emptying each tank in sequence
(D) Start discharging with most of the discharge coming from forward, but include some from
midships and after tanks
1381. (2.2.2.6C2-6) You are on a tankship discharging oil. When all of the oil that the main cargo
pumps can handle is pumped out of a tank, the remainder is __________.
o
o
(A) gravitated to the centers from the wings and pumped out with the main pumps
(B) stripped out and pumped directly ashore into the mainline as the remaining cargo tanks are
pumped out with the main pumps
(C) stripped to one tank and then pumped out with the main pumps
(D) stripped out and pumped directly ashore after all the tanks have been emptied by the main
pumps
1382. (2.2.2.6C2-8) You are on a tankship discharging oil. what happens to the remaining oil when all
of the oil that the main cargo pumps can handle is pumped out of a tank?
o
o
(A) the remainder is stripped out and pumped directly ashore after all the tanks have been
emptied by the main pumps
(B) the remainder is stripped out and pumped directly ashore into the mainline as the remaining
cargo tanks are pumped out with the main pumps
(C) the remainder is stripped to one tank and then pumped out with the main pumps
(D) the remainder is gravitated to the centers from the wings and pumped out with the main
pumps

Deck General
September 2015
1383. (2.2.2.6C2-9) While discharging a cargo, the stripping of the tanks falls behind schedule. What
does this indicate?
o
o
o
(A) main pumps are working at a high discharge pressure

(B) stripping pump is not primed
(C) stripping line is cross-connected to the main line
(D) main pumps are leaving too much oil in the tanks
1384. (2.2.2.6C3-1) Where would you expect to find a "charged mist" on a tanker?
o
o
o
(A) In the overflow line while topping off.

(B) In a common vent header during tank ballasting.
(C) In a cargo tank during inerting operations.
(D) In a cargo tank during "Butterworthing".
1385. (2.2.2.6C3-7) Your tank vessel is fully loaded, and you find that she is down slightly by the head.
To adjust the trim, you may __________.
o
o
(A) add ballast aft

(B) load more cargo aft
(C) shift cargo aft
1386. (2.2.2.6C3-2) What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off?
o
o
o
(A) Notify the engine room of the procedure.

(B) Reduce the loading rate.
(C) Give the operation your undivided attention.
(D) Maintain communications with the dock man.
1387. (2.2.2.6C3-3) When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST action you should take if a cargo
valve jammed open?
o
o
o
(A) Run out the vessel's or terminal's fire hose.

(B) Trip the pump relief valve.
(D) Order the dock man to shut down.

Deck General
September 2015
1388. (2.2.2.6C3-4) Petroleum cargo tanks should not be topped off at deck level when loading on a
cold day because __________.
o
o
o
(A) air pockets may cause the cargo to bubble out of the ullage hole
(B) the tank valve may be stiff and a spill will occur before the valve can be closed
(C) the increased viscosity of the product requires higher loading pressure which increases the
chances of a spill
(D) a subsequent temperature rise will cause the cargo to overflow
1389. (2.2.2.6C3-8) Which factor must be considered when determining the order of loading of
o
o
o
(A) Reid vapor pressures

(B) Flash points
(C) Specific gravities
(D) Contamination of the cargo
1390. (2.2.2.6C3-10) A vessel loads edible oil in a deep tank through a manhole at the mid-length of
the tank. In order to fill the tank to maximum capacity, what trim should the vessel have?
o
o
o
(A) Down by the stern

(B) Down by either the bow or stern
(C) Down by the bow
(D) In level trim
1391. (2.2.2.6C3-11) In controlling pollution, which action should be taken after all dirty ballast has
been transferred to the slop tank and prior to discharge through the oily water separator?
o
o
o
(A) The dirty ballast tank is crude oil washed.

(B) The clean tanks should be ballasted.
(C) Chemicals should be added to emulsify the oil.
(D) The slops should be allowed time to settle.
1392. (2.2.2.6C3-16) To prevent the overflow of cargo tanks due to expansion, where should you top
off?
o
o
o
(A) to within 1 to 3 inches of its capacity

(B) to within 1% to 3% of its capacity
(C) to the bottom of the expansion trunk
(D) 1 to 3 inches from top of the vent pipe

Deck General
September 2015
1393. (2.2.2.6C3-18) When loading a petroleum cargo which is below average ambient temperatures,
You must do which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) verify the vents are sealed

(B) verify there is room for expansion
(C) verify vapor baffles are installed
1394. (2.2.2.6-2) What is NOT a requirement for the safe and effective use of a crude oil washing
system?
o
o
o
(A) Use portable washing machines to reach areas obscured by structural members in the tanks.
(B) Decant one meter from the source tank for the tank cleaning machines.
(C) Use an inert gas system while washing tanks.
(D) Strip all tanks and remove the bottom residue.
1395. (2.2.2.6D-4) When cleaning cargo tanks with portable machines, how is the machine grounded?
o
o
o
(A) The water supply hoses contain internal wires that act as conductors
(B) The water jets impinging on the vessel's structure form a pathway to ground.
(C) Bonding wires are secured from the machine to a convenient location on deck.
(D) The machines must maintain physical contact with the deck at the Butterworth opening.
1396. (2.2.2.6D-8) You are cleaning the tanks after carrying a cargo of crude oil. Which statement is
TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The principal hazard with steaming cargo tanks is raising the ambient temperature above the
flame point of the cargo residue.
(B) Steam cleaning and water washing are both capable of generating electrostatic charges
within a tank.
(C) Washing water should be re-circulated if possible because it has the same electric potential
as the cargo tank being cleaned.
(D) The hoses to portable cleaning machines should be disconnected before the machines are
removed from the tank.

Deck General
September 2015
1397. (2.2.2.6D-9) When tank cleaning with a portable machine, the weight of the machine is
suspended from __________.
o
o
o
(A) solid iron bars clamped to the Butterworth opening

(B) the suspension line, usually manila or natural fiber line
(C) a wire rope suspension line
(D) the supply hose
1398. (2.2.2.6D-14) What is NOT a requirement for the safe and effective use of a crude oil washing
system?
o
o
o
(A) Strip all tanks and remove the bottom residue.

(B) Use portable washing machines to reach areas obscured by structural members in the tanks.
(C) Decant one meter from the source tank for the tank cleaning machines.
(D) Use an inert gas system while washing tanks.
1399. (2.2.2.6D-15) In order for you to operate your vessels crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to
be washed must be which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) gas free

(B) inerted
(C) full of cargo
(D) opened to the atmosphere for ventilation
1400. (2.2.2.6D-17) Where will the complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel,
including the operating sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the
system, and required personnel be found?
o
o
o
(A) Code of Federal Regulations

(B) Crude Oil Washing Operations and Equipment Manual
(C) Oil Transfer Procedures Manual
(D) Crude Oil Washing addendum to the Certificate of Inspection

Deck General
September 2015
1401. (2.2.2.6D-18) In controlling pollution, which action should be taken after all dirty ballast has been
transferred to the slop tank and prior to discharge through the oily water separator?
o
o
(A) The dirty ballast tank is crude oil washed.

(B) The clean tanks should be ballasted.
(C) The slops should be allowed time to settle.
(D) Chemicals should be added to emulsify the oil.
1402. (2.2.2.6D-21) You have water washed your cargo tanks using the fixed machines. What should
you do before using portable machines to clean areas screened from the wash of the fixed machine
by structural members?
o
o
o
(A) Attach the water supply hose to the portable machine after the cleaning head is positioned
inside the tank.
(B) Ground the fixed machines to eliminate any electrostatic buildup on the cleaning head.
(C) Insure that the tanks are not stripped until the final wash is started.
(D) Ventilate the tank to eliminate any electrostatically charged mist.
1403. (2.2.2.6D-22) You are planning to use a crude oil washing system. What precaution must be
taken with the source tank for the washing machines?
o
o
(A) The inert gas system must lower the oxygen content in the source tank to a maximum of 12%.
(B) The oil in the source tank must be sampled for compatibility.
(C) At least one meter must be decanted from the source tank.
(D) The source tank must have been crude oil washed at least once in the past 150 days.
1404. (2.2.2.6D-24) Which of the following shall be used to isolate fire hydrant valves on a crude oil
tanker from the crude oil washing system?
o
o
o
(A) automatic closing valves

(B) face blanks
(C) non-return valves
(D) spade blanks

Deck General
September 2015
1405. (2.2.2.7-2) Your vessel is taking on cargo oil when a small leak develops in the hose. You order
the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) replace the hose

(B) place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers
(C) repair the hose with a patch
(D) notify the terminal superintendent
1406. (2.2.2.7-5) Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the pre-transfer conference?
o
o
o
(A) Emergency shutdown procedures

(B) Estimated time of finishing cargo
(C) Identity of the product to be transferred
(D) Details of transferring and receiving systems
1407. (2.2.2.7-6) When carrying a cargo of asphalt or molten sulfur, which are carried at temperatures
of over 300F, one of the biggest dangers is __________.
o
o
o
(A) explosion of vapors after discharge

(B) water in the tanks or pipelines
(C) having the cargo too cool
(D) inadequate ullage space
1408. (2.2.2.7-7) A tank vessel transferring non-flammable hazardous cargo in bulk must display
warning signs. These signs must __________.
o
o
o
(A) use black lettering on a white background

(B) be visible from both sides and from forward and aft
(C) be displayed only while transferring cargo and fast to a dock
(D) indicate "NO SMOKING"
1409. (2.2.2.7-8) The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) at the main deck manifold

(B) in the pump room
(C) in the midships house
(D) at the vent header

Deck General
September 2015
1410. (2.2.2.7-9) A flame screen __________.

o
o
o
(A) permits vapors to exit but not enter a tank

(B) prevents the passage of flammable vapors
(C) prevents inert gas from leaving a tank
(D) permits the passage of vapor but not of flame
1411. (2.2.2.7-10) Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop __________.
o
o
o
(A) oil from flowing out of the tank vent

(B) flames on deck from entering the tank vent
(C) vapors from leaving the tank vent
(D) air from entering the tank vent
1412. (2.2.2.7-11) How should cargo tank hatches be protected when the ullage opening is open and
the tank NOT gas free?
o
o
o
(A) With pressure-vacuum relief valves

(B) With flame screens
(C) With warning signs
(D) With gooseneck vents
1413. (2.2.2.7-13) What is acceptable flame screening?

o
o
o
(A) Two fitted brass screens of 10 x 15 mesh spaced 1/2 inch apart
(B) A fitted single stainless steel screen of 15 x 15 mesh
(C) A fitted single brass screen of 10 x 10 mesh
(D) A fitted stainless steel screen of 30 x 30 mesh
1414. (2.2.2.7-15) What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye?
o
o
(A) Rub the eye area clean.

(B) Apply an ice pack to the eye.
(C) Flush the eye with plenty of water.
(D) Keep the eyelid close.

Deck General
September 2015
1415. (2.2.2.7-16) When discharging clean ballast prior to entering a loading port, what must you do if it
is determined the ballast exceeds 15 parts per million of oil?
o
o
o
(A) the deballasting must be stopped until the oil can settle out, then resumed at a slower
discharge rate
(B) the deballasting must be completely discharged in order to load
(C) the deballasting must be completed only after "load on top" has been completed
(D) the deballasting must be terminated automatically
1416. (2.2.2.7-17) When planning the loading or discharging of a VLCC (100,000 DWT+) what is the
most important consideration?
o
o
o
(A) Rate of discharging

(B) Rate of loading
(C) Draft and trim
(D) Limits of the bending moments
1417. (2.2.2.7-18) Asphyxia is generally limited to enclosed spaces, and the deficiency of breathable
air in an enclosed space can occur with any of the following conditions. Indicate the condition that
will NOT cause asphyxia.
o
o
o
(A) When 21% of oxygen is present.

(B) Where large quantities of inert gas is present.
(C) When large quantities of cargo vapor is present
(D) Where rusting of internal tank surfaces has taken place.
1418. (2.2.2.7-20) What can be used to prevent a flammable atmosphere from occurring in a tank
container?
o
o
(A) a combustion stabilizer

(B) an oxidizer
(C) inert gas
(D) a vortex eliminator

Deck General
September 2015
1419. (2.2.2.7-21) Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire?

o
o
o
(A) Foam
(B) Dry chemicals
(C) CO2
(D) All the above
1420. (2.2.2.7-22) What type of gas detection device is used to determine when gassing up is
complete?
o
o
o
(A) Methane detector

(B) Oxygen meter
(C) CO2 meter
(D) Dew point meter
1421. (2.2.2.7-23) What must cargo tanks be fitted with to prevent over pressurization when loading
liquid petroleum products?
o
o
o
(A) pressure-vacuum valve

(B) ullage opening
(C) equalizing line
(D) overpressurization valve
1422. (2.2.2.7-25) What color must the last 1.0 meter (3.3 feet) of piping before the vessel vapor
connection be painted?
o
o
(A) yellow/red/yellow
(B) international orange
(C) red/yellow/red
(D) hi-visibility yellow
1423. (2.2.2.8-2) Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing a tank?
o
o
o
(A) Removal of corrosion products and sludge

(B) Fresh air ventilation
(C) Washing the tank interior with sea water
(D) Application of degreasing solvents

Deck General
September 2015
1424. (2.2.2.8-3) Which statement about entry into a space that has been sealed for a long time is
TRUE?
o
o
(A) The heat of the sun on upper ballast tanks, such as in a bulk carrier, may generate carbon
monoxide.
(B) The natural ventilation through the installed vents is sufficient to provide the proper oxygen
content.
(C) A tank that has been used to carry hazardous liquids should be tested for oxygen content,
toxicity, and explosive gases.
(D) You can safely enter the space without a breathing apparatus if the oxygen content exceeds
14%.
1425. (2.2.2.8-4) Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is
TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The tank need not be tested for oxygen content if it is ventilated for more than 24 hours.
(B) The tank must be tested at frequent intervals to ensure that hazardous gasses have not
regenerated.
(C) If the oxygen content tests at less than 12% you should wear an approved gas mask.
(D) The tank should be tested only once to ensure the oxygen content is at least 14% before
entry.
1426. (2.2.2.8-5) A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by the __________.
o
o
o
(A) National Fire Protection Association

(B) Mine Safety Appliance Association
(C) Marine Chemists Association
(D) American Chemical Society
1427. (2.2.2.8-6) You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with air. If
your instructions say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15% of the
LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentage of vapors for men to enter?
o
o
o
(A) .15%
(B) .85%
(C) 1.05%
(D) 7.00%

Deck General
September 2015
1428. (2.2.2.8-7) Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge
which is NOT gas-free?
o
o
(A) A three-cell flashlight

(B) A spark resistant and flame retardant lamp
(C) An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp
1429. (2.2.2.8-9) What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?
o
o
o
(A) For the instant that it is made

(B) For as long as is indicated on the gas-free certificate
(C) Until changes in temperature or pressure affect the vapor content in the space
(D) Until valves in line with the tank or compartment are reopened
1430. (2.2.2.8-10) Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum products, the tank must be
certified by __________.
o
o
o
(A) a certified marine chemist

(B) the shipyard fire department
(C) the American Bureau of Shipping
(D) the Coast Guard
1431. (2.2.2.8-12) You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a
dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot-work before sailing. Which of the
following statements is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The Captain of the Port may give specific approval to make hot-work repairs.
(B) Hot-work repairs at such a facility are prohibited.
(C) The repair area must be inspected by a marine surveyor to ensure that it can be done safely.
(D) You can make repairs with permission of the facility owner since you are empty and the cargo
is on the facility.

Deck General
September 2015
1432. (2.2.2.8-14) You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a
dangerous cargo from your barge. You must complete topside repairs on the barge involving hotwork before sailing. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) Hot-work repairs at such a facility are prohibited.

(B) The facility operator must notify the Captain of the Port before conducting welding or hotwork.
(C) The repair area must be inspected by a marine surveyor to ensure that it can be done safely.
(D) You can make repairs with permission of the facility owner since you are empty and the cargo
is on the facility.
1433. (2.2.2.8-15) Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or declared as which
of the following?
o
o
o
(A) safe for hot-work

(B) not safe for personnel
(C) not safe for hot-work
(D) safe for personnel
1434. (2.2.2.9A-1) Your tank vessel is fully loaded to the marks, and you find that she is down slightly
by the head. Which of the following choices would be the best action to take to trim the vessel
slightly by the stern?
o
o
(A) load more cargo aft

(B) add ballast aft
(C) shift cargo aft
(D) shift ballast from the aft to forward
1435. (2.2.2.9A-2) What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off?
o
o
o
(A) Notify the engine room of the procedure.

(B) Maintain communications with the dock man.
(C) Reduce the loading rate.
(D) Give the operation your undivided attention.

Deck General
September 2015
1436. (2.2.2.9A-3) According to U.S. regulations, which conditions would not disqualify a nonmetallic
hose as being suitable for use in transferring oil?
o
o
o
(A) A small cut in the hose cover which just pierces the reinforcement.
(B) A leak in the flange gasket while hydrostatically testing the hose.
(C) A slight oil seepage between the hose and flange connection.
(D) Evidence of internal or external deterioration.
1437. (2.2.2.9A-5) According to U.S. regulations, which of the following conditions would disqualify a
nonmetallic hose as being suitable for use in transferring oil?
o
o
(A) A blown gasket when hydrostatic test pressure is applied.

(B) A cut in the cover which makes the reinforcement visible.
(C) Evidence of internal or external deterioration.
(D) The hose has not been tested in the last 180 days.
1438. (2.2.2.9A-4) U.S. regulations require which of the following upon completion of oil transfer
operations?
o
o
o
(A) all persons on duty during oil transfer shall be accounted for
(B) all soundings shall be entered in the oil record book
(C) all hoses shall be blown down with air
(D) all valves used during transfer shall be closed
1439. (2.2.2.9A-6) According to U.S. regulations, no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless
each person in charge has signed what document?
o
o
(A) valve inspection record

(B) oil record book
(C) declaration of inspection
(D) certificate of inspection

Deck General
September 2015
1440. (2.2.2.9A-7) Which of the following describes the Declaration of Inspection required prior to the
transfer of fuel?
o
o
o
(A) it must be signed by both the person-in-charge of the pumping and the person-in-charge of
receiving
(B) it requires the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard to be posted at the gangway
(C) it describes the procedure for draining the sumps of oil lubricated machinery into the bilges of
U.S. vessels
(D) it is the same as the Certificate of Inspection
1441. (2.2.2.9A-8) On tankers ullages are measured from what point?
o
o
o
(A) an above-deck datum such as the top of the ullage pipe

(B) the tank ceiling aboard transversely framed vessels
(C) the tank top
(D) a thievage mark below the edge of the deck
1442. (2.2.2.9A-9) What does the sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank
barge during cargo transfer read?
o
o
(A) "Warning, Keep Off, Stay Clear"

(B) "Dangerous Cargo Being Transferred"
(C) "Warning, No Smoking, No Open Lights, No Visitors"
(D) "Danger, Do Not Board"
1443. (2.2.2.9A-10) On tankers using manually operated tank valves, what does the deck hand wheel
indicator register?
o
o
o
(A) approximate number of turns the tank valve has been opened
(B) exact lift position of the tank valve disk, through 100% of its operation
(C) oxygen content of the tank
(D) level of oil in the tank
1444. (2.2.2.9A-11) Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within
what percent?
o
o
o
(A) 1%
(B) 3%
(C) 5%
(D) 10%

Deck General
September 2015
1445. (2.2.2.9A-13) Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within
what percent?
o
o
o
(A) 1 percent
(B) 3 percent
(C) 5 percent
(D) 10 percent
1446. (2.2.2.9A-14) When loading a tanker, you should do which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) load only one tank at a time

(B) close valves by closing them down, reopening one or two turns, and re-closing
(C) keep a strain on the loading hoses
(D) keep the seamen on watch on standby in the mess room
1447. (2.2.2.9A-15) What is the purpose of the relief valve of a cargo pump?
o
o
o
(A) Allows two or more tanks to be filled at the same time

(B) Permits the return of cargo to the suction side of the pump
(C) Provides for the emergency shutdown of the pump
(D) Provides for the removal of vapors
1448. (2.2.2.9A-16) When two ballast pumps used for deballasting a single tank start cavitating, what
action should you take?
o
o
o
(A) shut down one pump

(B) close the valve on the suction side of the ballast pump to re-prime the pump
(C) close the valve on the discharge side of the pump to re-acquire suction
(D) open all valves on the discharge side to permit improved flow
1449. (2.2.2.9A-17) Which refers to the depth of a petroleum product in a tank?

o
o
o
(A) Ullage
(B) Thievage
(C) Outage
(D) Innage

Deck General
September 2015
1450. (2.2.2.9A-18) When tank cleaning with a portable machine, how is the weight of the machine is
suspended?
o
o
(A) solid metal bars clamped to the Butterworth opening

(B) a portable davit
(C) a natural fiber tag line, saddle and hose
(D) a wire rope suspension line
1451. (2.2.2.9A-19) When discharging a tanker, how can list be controlled?
o
o
o
(A) by using wing tanks near the longitudinal center, discharging as necessary
(B) by shoreside personnel
(C) by using a center tank near the bow, discharging as necessary
(D) by using the after peak tank, loading as necessary
1452. (2.2.2.9A-20) "Line Displacement" is a procedure that is followed at an oil terminal facility, when
there is a change of which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) product during the final phase of loading

(B) product before the start of loading
(C) cargo lines at the terminal before loading
(D) product after the final discharge
1453. (2.2.2.9A-21) When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the first action you should take if a cargo
valve jammed open?
o
o
(A) Call the owner, operator, or terminal supervisor.

(B) Unplug the deck scuppers.
(C) Order the dock man to shut down.
(D) Run out the vessel or terminal fire hose.
1454. (2.2.2.9A-22) While loading bulk liquid cargo, a tank valve jams open, what is the first action you
should take?
o
o
(A) unplug the deck scuppers

(B) call the chief engineer
(C) order the shore facility to shut down
(D) run out the vessels fire hose

Deck General
September 2015
1455. (2.2.2.9A-24) When stripping a tank, what is caused by excessive air in the suction line?
o
o
(A) an over pressurized line

(B) back pressure
(C) loss of suction
(D) increase of suction
1456. (2.2.2.9A-25) What is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the tank top in a cargo
tank called?
o
o
o
(A) innage
(B) ullage
(C) thievage
(D) tankage
1457. (2.2.2.9A-26) Which of the following is equivalent to a "barrel", which is a unit of liquid measure?
o
o
o
(A) 40 U.S. gallons at 50F

(B) 45 U.S. gallons at 75F
(C) 43 U.S. gallons at 65F
(D) 42 U.S. gallons at 60F
o
o
o
(A) Determining the amount of water (if any) in each cargo tank.
(B) Reducing the gross cargo calculations to net amounts.
(C) Adjusting the cargo figures to coincide with the draft.
(D) Siphoning off a few barrels of petroleum for shipboard use.
1459. (2.2.2.9A-28) What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off?

o
o
(A) Maintain communications with the dock man.

(B) Reduce the loading rate.
(C) Notify the engine room of the procedure.
(D) Give the operation your undivided attention.

Deck General
September 2015
1460. (2.2.2.9A-29) You start a centrifugal cargo pump to discharge cargo. The pump works fine for
awhile and then loses suction. What could have caused this?
o
o
o
(A) incomplete priming

(B) the pump running backwards
(C) the discharge head being too high
(D) head pressure on the suction side of the pump
1461. (2.2.2.9A-31) According to U.S. regulations, no person may connect or disconnect an oil transfer
hose or engage in any other critical oil transfer operation on a tank vessel unless which of the
following is met?
o
o
(A) that person holds a valid port security card

(B) that person holds a license as master, mate, or engineer
(C) the designated person-in-charge supervises that procedure
(D) that person holds a tankerman assistant endorsement
1462. (2.2.2.9A-32) Which of the following is the pipe used to connect two separate piping systems on
a tank vessel?
o
o
o
(A) crossover
(B) transfer
(C) connection
(D) junction
1463. (2.2.2.9A-34) Which of the following terms best describes the amount of product in a tank
measured from the tank top to the level of liquid?
o
o
o
(A) Innage
(B) Thievage
(C) Outage
(D) Ullage
1464. (2.2.2.9A-35) What should be the first consideration when discharging an oil cargo?
o
o
(A) discharge from the centerline tanks first

(B) discharge from amidships first
(C) get the bow up
(D) discharge from the wings first

Deck General
September 2015
1465. (2.2.2.9A-36) How can you determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is permitted to carry?
o
o
o
(A) refer to the vessel's Certificate of Inspection

(B) check the loading order
(C) examine the cargo tanks and fittings
(D) ask the terminal supervisor or his representative
1466. (2.2.2.9A-37) According to U.S. regulations, which of the following describes the declaration of
inspection?
o
o
(A) paper issued by the Coast Guard marine inspector which allows you to conduct a transfer
operation
(B) application you must complete and submit to the Coast Guard to have an inspector visit your
vessel
(C) document signed by vessel and shore facility persons-in-charge declaring that all transfer
requirements have been met
(D) annual report submitted by vessel personnel to the Coast Guard declaring that all transfer
equipment has been inspected
1467. (2.2.2.9A-38) During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the
posted transfer procedures are being followed?
o
o
(A) The tankerman

(B) The senior able seaman
(C) The designated person in charge
(D) The oiler
1468. (2.2.2.9A-39) When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST action you should take if a cargo
valve jammed open?
o
o
o
(A) Trip the pump relief valve.

(B) Run out the vessel or terminal fire hose.
(D) Order the dock man to shut down.

Deck General
September 2015
1469. (2.2.2.9A-40) The sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during
cargo transfer should state which of the following?
o
o
(A) "Danger, Do Not Board"

(B) "Warning, Keep Off, Stay Clear"
(C) "Warning, No Smoking, No Open Lights, No Visitors"
(D) "Dangerous Cargo Being Transferred"
1470. (2.2.2.9A-41) Which of the following procedures would insure proper seating of the valve when
closing?
o
o
o
(A) set up tight using a valve wrench

(B) closed, opened a half turn, and then closed again
(C) closed against the stop and the locking pin inserted
(D) set up as tight as possible by hand
1471. (2.2.2.9A-42) Which factor must be considered when determining the order of loading of
o
o
o
(A) Contamination of the cargo

(B) Flash points
(C) Specific gravities
(D) Reid vapor pressures
1472. (2.2.2.9A-43) When loading a tanker, you should perform which of the following functions to
ensure a safe operation?
o
o
(A) keep the seamen on watch on standby in the mess room

(B) load only one tank at a time
(C) close valves by closing them down, reopening one or two turns, and re-closing
(D) keep a strain on the loading hoses
1473. (2.2.2.9B-1) Oil product samples should be taken at the commencement and completion of
loading operations. As the Person in Charge, where should the the final samples be taken?
o
o
o
(A) the vessel's cargo tanks

(B) the dock riser
(C) the shore tank discharge
(D) the shore line low points

Deck General
September 2015
1474. (2.2.2.9B-2) Which of the terms best describes the process of the production of vapor above the
surface of a boiling cargo due to evaporation on an LNG tanker?
o
o
o
(A) boil-off
(B) condensation
(C) solidification
(D) adiabatic
1475. (2.2.2.9B-3) If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be which
of the following?
o
o
o
(A) above the "explosive range"

(B) within the "explosive range"
(C) above the "lower explosive limit"
(D) below the "explosive range"
1476. (2.2.2.9B-6) LNG is carried at approximately what temperature?

o
o
o
(A) -160 degrees F

(B) -160 degrees R
(C) -160 degrees K
(D) -160 degrees C
1477. (2.2.2.9B-7) Which of the following is an example of a example of a grade D product?
o
o
o
(A) kerosene
(B) commercial gasoline
(C) aviation gas grade 115/145
(D) heavy fuel oil
1478. (2.2.2.9B-8) What is the primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas?
o
o
o
(A) toxicity
(B) flammability
(C) temperature
(D) pressure

Deck General
September 2015
1479. (2.2.2.9B-10) Which of the following describes a liquified gas?

o
o
o
(A) A gas that is mixed with another substance that causes it to liquify.
(B) A liquid that requires to be heated above normal ambient temperature to make it form a gas.
(C) A liquid that needs to be stored at absolute zero to prevent it becoming gaseous.
(D) A substance that at normal temperature and pressure would be a gas.
1480. (2.2.2.9B-11) What is Reid Vapor Pressure?

o
o
o
(A) exerted by liquid cargo on the sides of a tank

(B) a measurement of the amount of flammable vapors given off by a liquid at a certain
temperature
(C) exerted by liquid cargo on a cargo hose body
(D) the lowest temperature and pressure that will cause a flammable liquid to give off vapors
1481. (2.2.2.9B-13) What grade are most crude oils are classified as?
o
o
o
(A) C or D
(B) E
(C) A or B
(D) B
1482. (2.2.2.9B-14) Which of the flash points would indicate a grade D combustible liquid?
o
o
(A) 155F
(B) 160F
(C) 87F
(D) 65F
1483. (2.2.2.9B-15) What do the designations A, B, C, D, and E refer to in grades of cargo?
o
o
o
(A) flash point range and Reid vapor pressure index of petroleum products
(B) degrees of quality of petroleum products
(C) pour point, color, and viscosity index of petroleum products
(D) grades of crude oil

Deck General
September 2015
1484. (2.2.2.9B-16) What is the standard unit of liquid volume used in the petroleum industry?
o
o
(A) drum
(B) gallon
(C) barrel
(D) liter
1485. (2.2.2.9B-17) Which of the following describes the flash point temperature of a liquid?
o
o
(A) that a liquid must reach before it will flow readily

(B) at which a liquid will explode
(C) at which a liquid will give off inflammable vapors
(D) at which a liquid will burn steadily
1486. (2.2.2.9B-19) In what condition is LNG transported?

o
o
o
(A) At its critical temperature.

(B) At its boiling point.
(C) At a pressure in excess of 15.4 PSIA.
(D) At its vapor stage
1487. (2.2.2.9B-20) What is the most common liquified gas cargo?
o
o
o
(A) ammonia
(B) chemical gases
(C) hydrocarbons
(D) butane
1488. (2.2.2.9B-21) Which of the following describes one of the principle dangers inherent in liquified
petroleum gas?
o
o
o
(A) the way it reacts with sea water

(B) as it warms up it becomes heavier than air

Deck General
September 2015
1489. (2.2.2.9B-22) What do the designations A, B, C, D, and E grades of cargo define?

o
o
o
(A) degrees of quality of petroleum products

(B) pour point, color, and viscosity index of petroleum products
(C) grades of crude oil
(D) flash point range and Reid vapor pressure index of petroleum products
1490. (2.2.2.9.C1.1-1) Which of the following describes heavy fuel oils when they have been spilled?
o
o
(A) they are more harmful to sea life than lighter oils
(B) they are not a real threat to marine life
(C) they are less harmful to sea life than lighter oils
(D) they are easier to clean up than lighter refined oils
1491. (2.2.2.9.C1.2-1) According to U.S. regulations, which of the following does not qualify as a
discharge of oil?
o
o
o
(A) Discharging oil into the sea for pollution research.

(B) Pumping oil overboard through a fixed piping system.
(C) Leakage of oil to the water by an improperly blanked transfer hose.
(D) Spilling oil on the main deck and having it flow over the side.
1492. (2.2.2.9.C1.2-2) What term is not considered a "discharge" as it applies to the U.S. pollution
regulations?
o
o
o
(A) pumping a harmful substance

(B) sampling a harmful substance
(C) spilling a harmful substance
(D) leaking diesel fuel oil
1493. (2.2.2.9.C1.2-4) If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during
the fuel transfer operations, which action should you take FIRST?
o
o
o
(A) Shut down the operation.

(B) Close the valves at the manifold.
(C) Sound the general alarm.
(D) Notify the person in charge of the shore facility.

Deck General
September 2015
1494. (2.2.2.9.C1.2-7) Who enforces the U.S. pollution regulations that apply to ships?
o
o
(A) Port Authority

(B) State Pollution Board
(D) Corps of Engineers
1495. (2.2.2.9.C1.2-8) According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), what
is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI coupling?
o
o
o
(A) 8 bolts
(B) 6 bolts
(C) 2 bolts
(D) 4 bolts
1496. (2.2.2.9.C1.2-9) The term "segregated ballast" is defined in the U.S. regulations as ballast water
introduced into which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) oily water separator for segregation

(B) tank that is completely separated from the cargo oil and fuel oil systems
(C) isolated tank for analysis because of its noxious properties
(D) fuel settling tank for segregation from lighter fluids
1497. (2.2.2.9.C1.2-11) Which of the following describes the depth of a product in a tank?
o
o
o
(A) Ullage
(B) Innage
(C) Outage
(D) Thievage
1498. (2.2.2.9.C1.2-12) What does the MARPOL 73/78 convention deal with?
o
o
o
(A) International Marine Organization Gas Carrier Code

(B) International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(C) International Convention of Safety of Life at Sea
(D) International Convention on Standards of Training Certification and Watchkeeping

Deck General
September 2015
1499. (2.2.2.9.C1.2-13) It would be prudent to perform which of the following actions prior to the
commencement of bunkering?
o
o
o
(A) plug the sounding pipes

(B) close the lids on the vents
(C) plug the vents
(D) plug the scuppers
1500. (2.2.2.9.C1.2-15) Your vessel is taking on cargo oil when a small leak develops in the hose. You
order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, which of the following action should you
perform?
o
o
o
(A) place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers
(C) notify the terminal superintendent
(D) repair the hose with a patch
1501. (2.2.2.9.C1.3-1) U.S. regulations require that all oil spills in United States waters be reported
immediately. Who is this report made to?
o
o
o

(B) Corps of Engineers
(C) local port authority
(D) state pollution board
1502. (2.2.2.9.C1.3-2) Your vessel is taking on cargo oil when a small leak develops in the hose. You
order the pumping stopped. What action should you take before you resume pumping?
o
o
o
(A) repair the hose with a patch

(C) place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers
(D) notify the terminal superintendent
1503. (2.2.2.9.C1.3-4) While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. Which of the
following actions should you carry out FIRST?
o
o
o
(A) Stop loading

(B) Notify the Coast Guard
(C) Notify terminal superintendent
(D) Search the vessel for leaks

Deck General
September 2015
1504. (2.2.2.9.C1.3-4) When you notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel, what
should your first action be?
o
o
(A) notify the senior deck officer

(B) notify the terminal superintendent
(C) stop loading
(D) determine whether your vessel is the source
1505. (2.2.2.9D-1) Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of LFG?
o
o
o
(A) Be on the lookout for work being accomplished ashore in the vicinity of the barges.
(B) Make sure the raked ends of the barge are completely dry and mopped.
(C) Report any leakage of cargo.
(D) Ascertain that the hoses to be used are in good condition.
1506. (2.2.2.9D-18) Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product
tanks is TRUE?
o
o
(A) No portable electric equipment of any type is allowed.

(B) The fixture must be explosion-proof and the line must have a ground wire.
(C) They must be explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamps.
(D) They can be used only when the compartment is gas free.
1507. (2.2.2.9D-2) Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during
cargo transfer?
o
o
o
(A) To keep visitors away from the barge

(B) To designate smoking areas
(C) To indicate any health risk if applicable
(D) To indicate if the cargo is a marine pollutant
1508. (2.2.2.9D-3) According to 46 CFR there are specific alarms that are required to be tested prior to
cargo transfer. Which of the following items does not require testing?
o
o
o
(A) low liquid level alarms

(B) high level visual alarm
(C) high level audible alarm
(D) quick closing loading valves

Deck General
September 2015
1509. (2.2.2.9D-4) For all loading operations, the terminal must supply the vessel with a means in
which the vessel's designated person-in-charge may stop the flow of oil to the vessel, insuring
immediate shutdown in the event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. Which of the following
choices will accomplish this task as required by 33 CFR?
o
o
o
(A) a loudhailer from the vessel bridge

(B) a specific sequence of lights
(C) a signal-board on the bridge
(D) a pneumatically or mechanically operated device
1510. (2.2.2.9D-5) U.S. regulations state that a person may not transfer oil or hazardous materials to or
from a vessel unless each person-in-charge has signed which of the following documents?
o
o
o
(A) valve inspection record

(B) machinery log
(C) oil record book
(D) Declaration of Inspection
1511. (2.2.2.9D-6) If a repair team is to enter a confined space for repair work, what minimum level of
oxygen should be present?
o
o
o
(A) 18%
(B) 19%
(C) 20%
(D) 21%
1512. (2.2.2.9D-7) Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel?
o
o
(A) The US Coast Guard.

(B) The manager of the shore facility
(C) The designated person in charge
(D) The American Bureau of Sipping.
1513. (2.2.2.9D-8) U.S. regulations require a meeting before starting any oil transfer operation. Who
must be in attendance at this meeting?
o
o
o
(A) master and chief engineer of the vessel and the terminal supervisor
(B) person-in-charge of the oil transfer operations on the vessel and the person-in-charge of the
oil transfer operations at the facility
(C) master of the vessel and the terminal superintendent
(D) terminal supervisor, Master of the vessel and the Coast Guard

Deck General
September 2015
1514. (2.2.2.9D-9) The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must
hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer?
o
o
(A) The person in charge on the vessel

(B) The person in charge of either place that is doing the pumping
(C) Both persons in charge
(D) The person in charge at the facility
1515. (2.2.2.9D-10) U.S. regulations state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless
which of the following conditions is met?
o
o
o
(A) a representative sample has been taken from the oil being received
(B) all parts of the transfer system have been properly lined up
(C) an oil containment boom is available for immediate use
(D) oil residue has been drained from all hoses
1516. (2.2.2.9D-11) What should you do in order to reduce the accumulation of static electricity while
loading petroleum products?
o
o
o
(A) start to load at maximum pressure

(B) start to load slowly
(D) use the overall method of loading only
1517. (2.2.2.9D-13) What is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off sufficient vapors to
form a flammable mixture with air?
o
o
(A) lower explosive limit

(B) fire point
(C) flash point
(D) threshold limit value
1518. (2.2.2.9D-14) Which statement is TRUE concerning insulating flanges?
o
o
o
(A) They should be inspected and tested periodically to ensure that the insulation is clean and in
good condition.
(B) After the insulating flange is installed, hot work may be performed on deck.
(C) Switching off a cathodic protection system may be substituted for using an insulating flange
(D) The measured resistance value after installation should be less than 1,000 ohms.

Deck General
September 2015
1519. (2.2.2.9D-15) When is it acceptable to use power-driven or manually-operated spark producing

devices in the pump room, where grades A, B, C, and D liquid cargoes are involved?
o
o
o
(A) when the vessel is gas free

(B) when all cargo tanks are empty
(C) when all cargo tanks have been inerted
(D) when the compartment itself is gas free
1520. (2.2.2.9D-16) Which of the following does not require cargo transfer operations on a tank vessel
to be stopped?
o
o
(A) there is a fire on the dock or on a nearby vessel

(B) there is an electrical storm in the vicinity
(C) a tug comes alongside while the tanker is loading grade D and E cargoes
(D) a large, fresh oil spill is discovered immediately adjacent to the side of the tanker
1521. (2.2.2.9D-17) You have berthed in a port area with other tank vessels. What signal is displayed
by a vessel to indicate it is transferring flammable or combustible liquid cargo?
o
o
(A) A flashing yellow light

(B) A green light visible all around the horizon
(C) A red light visible all around the horizon
(D) An illuminated red and yellow caution flag
1522. (2.2.2.9E1-1) According to U.S. regulations, which of the following is a requirement of the
ventilation system of a pump room on a tanker?
o
o
o
(A) the regulation only requires the installation of an exhaust fan

(B) the regulation requires that the ventilation be non-spark producing
(C) the regulation only applies to vessels built prior to Jan 1, 1963
(D) the regulation makes exception for the ventilation requirements if a SCBA is mounted at the
entrance
1523. (2.2.2.9E1-2) What is the inert gas system on a tanker used for?
o
o
o
(A) blow out cargo lines to prevent gas concentrations

(B) dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the lower explosive limit
(C) prevent fires in the pump room by continually displacing flammable vapors
(D) prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in tanks

Deck General
September 2015
1524. (2.2.2.9E1-3) According to U.S. regulations, tank vessels are required to have a means of
emergency shutdown. This device does which of the following?
o
o
(A) shuts off the main propulsion plant

(B) shuts off the firefighting foam systems
(C) stops the flow of oil to shore facility or other vessel
(D) secures electrical power to all motors
1525. (2.2.2.9E1-4) U.S. regulations require an emergency means of stopping the flow of oil or LNG
during transfer operations. The emergency means may be which of the following?
o
o
(A) self-closing automatic disconnect fitting

(B) manually-operated quick-closing valve
(C) emergency pump control on the cargo deck
(D) automatic pressure-sensitive oil flow regulator
1526. (2.2.2.9E1-5) Who is responsible for the final inspection ensuring a tank barge is provided with
the required equipment and has fittings in good and serviceable condition prior to loading cargo?
o
o
o
(A) charterer through the Master of the towing vessel

(B) owner of the barge
(C) terminal operator
(D) tankerman or person in charge of loading
1527. (2.2.2.9E1-6) Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators?

o
o
o
(A) They will detect a lack of oxygen.

(B) One sample of air is adequate to test a tank.
(C) They are calibrated to read the percentage chance of explosion.
(D) They do not work properly where there is a lack of oxygen.
1528. (2.2.2.9E1-7) Which of the following describes intrinsically safe equipment?

o
o
o
(A) an electrical circuit normally limited to instrumentation in hazardous areas

(B) electrical circuits under 2 amperes
(C) electrical circuits under 12 volts
(D) an electrical circuit in which a spark is incapable of causing the ignition of a given explosive
mixture

Deck General
September 2015
1529. (2.2.2.9E1-8) The flame screens installed on tank vents that may contain combustible gases, are
designed to prevent explosions by which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) allowing the escape of flammable vapors

(B) dissipating the heat of an external flame
(C) preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank
(D) absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity
1530. (2.2.2.9E2-1) The intakes for an air compressor on a tank vessel carrying grade A cargo may be
located in which of the following areas?
o
o
(A) A cargo handling room

(B) An enclosed space connected to the cargo handling room
(C) An area aft of the cargo area 2.5 meters vertically above the deck
(D) An enclosed machinery space containing cargo piping
1531. (2.2.2.9E2-2) Which of the following choices does not depict the tank inerting process on a tank
vessel?
o
o
o
(A) the introduction of inert gas into a gas free tank with the objective of reducing the oxygen
content to below 8% by volume
(B) the introduction of nitrogen gas into a tank with the objective of reducing the oxygen content
to below 8% by volume
(C) the introduction of inert gas into a cargo tank during cargo discharge operations to replace the
volume of discharged cargo
(D) the introduction of oxygen into a gas free tank prior to entry
1532. (2.2.2.9E2-3) Your vessel is securely moored to the berth preparing to discharge a cargo of
LPG. Which of the following items would not comply with a "Safety Checklist" and should be
corrected?
o
o
o
(A) the inert gas system deck water seal is drained and secured
(B) there is sufficient pump room ventilation
(C) the fixed and portable oxygen analyzers are calibrated and operational
(D) cargo tanks atmosphere pressure is positive, with an oxygen content of 8% or below

Deck General
September 2015
1533. (2.2.2.9E2-4) Under which of the following conditions will the blowers of an inert gas generation
system aboard a tanker remain operational?
o
o
(A) boiler combustion control indicates high oxygen level

(B) high temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks
(C) The tank atmosphere above 8% oxygen
(D) the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost
1534. (2.2.2.9E2-5) The cargo pump relief valve is usually piped to which of the following components?
o
o
(A) crossover line

(B) atmosphere through pump vent
(C) suction side of pump
(D) cargo pump pressure gauge
1535. (2.2.2.9E2-6) What is the required gas supply capacity of an inert gas system?
o
o
o
(A) 125% of shore side loading rate

(B) 125% of cargo pump capacity
(C) 125% of forced draft rate
(D) 125% of fan capacity
1536. (2.2.2.9E2-7) In an inert gas system, high pressure alarms are set in the main vapor collection
line to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure reaches a certain level. What is the
percentage of the lowest relief valve setting at which the alarm must sound?
o
o
(A) 70%
(B) 80%
(C) 90%
(D) 95%

Deck General
September 2015
1537. (2.2.2.9E2-8) If the inert gas system was not in operation while loading crude oil on a tank
vessel, what action would you take?
o
o
(A) Immediately start up the inert gas system and admit gas to the deck main when oxygen
content is below 8%.
(B) Immediately stop loading.
(C) Continue loading, as this is a normal procedure.
(D) Continue loading under "Emergency Procedures"
1538. (2.2.2.9E2-9) Which of the following conditions will result in an automatic shut down of the flue
gas inert gas system?
o
o
o
(A) Low temperature water leaving the scrubber seal.

(B) High temperature gas discharge from inert gas blowers.
(C) High temperature gas entering the scrubber.
(D) Oxygen content of the gas falls below 5%.
1539. (2.2.2.9E2-10) On a tanker vessel, what is the required combined capacity of the inert gas
generating system as compared to the total capacity of all the cargo pumps which can be operated
simultaneously?
o
o
o
(A) 50%
(B) 75%
(C) 100%
(D) 125%
1540. (2.2.2.9E2-11) What is the maximum allowable oxygen content within the ships cargo tanks, inert
gas piping and the vapor recovery system?
o
o
(A) 4%
(B) 5%
(C) 8%
(D) 10%

Deck General
September 2015
1541. (2.2.2.9E2-12) When the inert gas system is temporarily unable to maintain a positive pressure,
or an oxygen content less than 8%, how should cargo operations be adjusted?
o
o
o
(A) operations should be shut down immediately

(B) operations should continue only under "Emergency Procedures"
(C) operations should be monitored more frequently
(D) operations should continue at a slower rate until these requirements are met
1542. (2.2.2.9E2-13) When a tank vessel with a capacity of 250 barrels is transferring oil to a facility,
U.S. regulations require an emergency means to stopping the flow of oil. Where must these
emergency means be operable from?
o
o
(A) the engine room, cargo control room and bridge sequentially
(B) two or more locations on the tank vessel
(C) the usual operating station of the person in charge of the oil transfer
(D) a remote location of equal distance from the tank vessel and facility
1543. (2.2.2.9E2-14) How is an inert gas system designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions?
o
o
(A) by removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks

(B) by blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam
(C) by reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion
(D) by eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks
1544. (2.2.2.9E2-15) What do the emergency shutdown requirements of U.S. regulations apply to?
o
o
o
(A) air compressors

(B) induced draft fans
(C) condensate pumps
(D) cargo transfer systems
1545. (2.2.2.9E2-16) Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system?

o
o
o
(A) Low pressure alarm

(B) Scrubber high water level alarm
(C) Deck seal low water alarm
(D) Low oxygen alarm

Deck General
September 2015
1546. (2.2.2.9E2-17) How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo
tanks?
o
o
o
(A) Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors.
(B) Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces.
(C) De-energizes the "charged mist" effect.
explosive limit.
1547. (2.2.2.9E2-18) Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of Liquefied
Gas?
o
o
o
(A) Make sure the rake ends of the barge are completely dry and mopped.
(B) Be on the lookout for work being accomplished ashore in the vicinity of the barges.
(C) Report any leakage of cargo.
(D) Ascertain that the hoses to be used are in good order.
1548. (2.2.2.9E2-19) What is the preferable way to extinguish an Liquefied Gas fire?
o
o
o
(A) Apply "Purple K" dry chemical.

(B) Shut off the source of the gas feeding the fire.
(C) Apply water fog.
(D) Apply mechanical foam.
1549. (2.2.2.9E2-20) What is generally, the first action in extinguishing an Liquefied Gas fire caused by
escaping gas?
o
o
o
(A) sweep flames away with water spray

(B) shut off the leak
(C) call the local fire department
(D) use a chemical foam fire extinguisher
1550. (2.2.2.9E2-21) In order to reduce the accumulation of static electricity while loading petroleum
products, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) start to load slowly

(B) start to load at maximum pressure
(D) use the overall method of loading only

Deck General
September 2015
1551. (2.2.2.9E2-22) Where is the most likely location for a cargo fire to occur on a tanker?
o
o
o

(B) in the pump room
(C) in the midships house
(D) at the vent header
1552. (2.2.2.9E2-23) What is the primary function of a flame screen on a tank vessel?
o
o
o
(A) prevents the passage of flammable vapors

(B) permits vapors to exit but not enter a tank
(C) prevents inert gas from leaving a tank
(D) permits the passage of vapor but not of flame
1553. (2.2.2.9E2-24) Which of the following is the primary function of the screens that are fitted to the
Fuel oil tank vents?
o
o
(A) vapors from leaving the tank vent

(B) oil from flowing out of the tank vent
(C) flames on deck from entering the tank vent
(D) air from entering the tank vent
1554. (2.2.2.9E2-25) Protective clothing must be worn while sampling hazardous cargo on a tankship.
This clothing includes which of the following at a minimum?
o
o
(A) a hood or hard hat

(B) boots
(C) a face mask or goggles
(D) chemical resistant gloves
1555. (2.2.2.9E2-26) Which of the following will prevent a flammable atmosphere from occurring in a
cargo tank on a tank vessel?
o
o
o
(A) an oxidizer
(B) a vortex eliminator
(C) a combustion stabilizer
(D) inert gas

Deck General
September 2015
1556. (2.2.2.9E3-1) What are the flammable limits for motor gasoline?
o
o
o
(A) 1.4% to 7.6% mixture in air

(B) 5.3% to 7% mixture in air
(C) 0.9% to 5.9% mixture in air
(D) 2.5% to 12.8% mixture in air
1557. (2.2.2.9E3-11) With reference to Liquefied Gas operations, what does the term "rollover" used to
describe?
o
o
(A) custody transfer at the terminal

(B) vapor pockets forming at the bottom of a half-filled tank
(C) when two or more stratified layers of different density LNG in the same tank suddenly mix
together, causing a rapid increase in boil-off vapors
(D) moving LNG from one tank to another
1558. (2.2.2.9E3-2) Combustion can occur inside a piping system such as a vapor collection header in
a marine emission control system. Which of the following will not aid in this combustion process?
o
o
(A) oxygen
(B) fuel
(C) nitrogen
(D) ignition
1559. (2.2.2.9E3-5) What is the minimum temperature required to ignite gas or vapor without a spark or
flame being present called?
o
o
o
(A) flash point

(B) autoignition temperature
(C) lower explosive limit
(D) fire point
1560. (2.2.2.9E3-3) What are the primary concern(s) for safely transporting and handling Liquefied
Gas?
o
o
o
(A) a system of cargo tanks and piping free from leaks

(B) cargo tanks and piping located or protected to minimize physical damage
(C) cargo tanks and piping strong enough to withstand the pressure

Deck General
September 2015
1561. (2.2.2.9E3-4) Which of the following actions is not considered to have the potential
for generating static electricity?
o
o
o
(A) discharging a fire hose on deck

(B) settling of solids or water in petroleum
(C) spraying or splashing of petroleum
(D) flow of petroleum through pipes
1562. (2.2.2.9E3-6) Where would be the most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker?
o
o

(B) at the vent header
(C) in the pump room
(D) in the midships house
1563. (2.2.2.9E3-7) Which of the following is the chief source of spontaneous combustion aboard
tankers?
o
o
o
(A) kerosene cargo

(B) oil soaked rags or rubbish
(C) gasoline cargo
(D) JP4 cargo
1564. (2.2.2.9E3-8) U.S. regulations require that tank vessels handling grade B liquids shall have their
cargo pumps separated from all sources of vapor ignition by which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) gas tight bulkheads

(B) areas equipped with power ventilation
(C) cofferdams
(D) empty cargo spaces
1565. (2.2.2.9E3-9) What is the best method for extinguishing a fire of escaping liquefied flammable
gas?
o
o
o
(A) stopping the flow of gas

(B) cooling the gas below the ignition point
(C) interrupting the chain reaction
(D) cutting off the supply of oxygen

Deck General
September 2015
1566. (2.2.2.9E3-10) Which of the following is a safety consideration when dealing with Liquefied Gas?
o
o
(A) it's carcogenic

(B) it's caustic
(C) it's cold
(D) it's corrosive
1567. (2.2.2.9E3-12) What is the primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas?
o
o
o
(A) toxicity
(B) flammability
(C) pressure
(D) temperature
1568. (2.2.2.9E4-1) Which of the following conditions will cause a combustible gas indicator to become
inoperative or give erroneous readings?
o
o
o
(A) compartment to be tested is free of CO2

(B) hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere is less than the upper explosive limit
(C) inerted content of the atmosphere is less than the lower explosive limit
(D) atmosphere has sufficient oxygen
1569. (2.2.2.9E4-2) Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, what position must the oxygen content in
the tank must be measured at?
o
o
o
(A) in the vent riser

(B) immediately above the level of the oil
(C) at the top of the tank
(D) one meter from the deck
1570. (2.2.2.9E4-3) Span gas is used for what process?
o
o
o
(A) To calibrate a gas analyzer to ensure it indicates correct gas concentrations.

(B) To find the zero point on a gas analyzer.
(C) The name of a gaseous state when the temperature of the vapor is the same as that of the
liquid.
(D) To insure an inert atmosphere during the span of time when a system is being brought to a
dry air condition from a flammable atmosphere.

Deck General
September 2015
1571. (2.2.2.9E4-4) What is span gas is used for aboard liquefied natural gas carriers?
o
o
o
(A) odorize the cargo

(B) detect leaks in cargo piping
(C) inert the barrier spaces
(D) calibrate the gas leak detectors
1572. (2.2.2.9E5-1) The condition of asphyxia arises from which of the following?
o
o
(A) too much oxygen

(B) improper caloric intake
(C) an inadequate supply of oxygen
(D) sleep deprivation
1573. (2.2.2.9E5-2) Compared to air, the weight of liquefied petroleum gas vapors are which of the
following?
o
o
o
(A) variable
(B) heavier
(C) lighter
(D) the same
1574. (2.2.2.9E5-3) What would likely happen if you were exposed to a 100% methane atmosphere for
more than 15 minutes?
o
o
o
(A) suffocate
(B) break out in a cyrogenic rash
(C) become quite ill due to the toxic nature of the gas
(D) be severely burned
1575. (2.2.2.9E5-5) Cryogenic burns can result in frostbite, what is the proper immediate treatment?
o
o
o
(A) Compress the affected area with cryogenic burn heat wrap.
(B) Apply ice to the area and gradually warm.
(C) Massage the affected area.
(D) Warm the area quickly by placing it in water at 108F until it has thawed.

Deck General
September 2015
1576. (2.2.2.9E5-6) What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye?
o
o
o
(A) Apply an ice pack to the eye.

(B) Flush the eye with plenty of water.
(C) Keep the eyelid close.
(D) Rub the eye area clean.
1577. (2.2.2.9F-1) In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to
pass through machinery spaces. This is permitted provided that the only cargo carried through such
piping is(are) which of the following?
o
o
(A) LFG
(B) grades D or E
(C) grade E
(D) grades A or B
1578. (2.2.2.9F-2) Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find that she has too much
trim by the stern. What action should you take to obtain an even keel and still maintain profitability?
o
o
o
(A) load more cargo forward

(B) discharge cargo midships
(C) add ballast forward
(D) shift bunkers forward
1579. (2.2.2.9F-3) 46 CFR directs the location of fuel oil sounding tubes and access openings for fuel
oil tanks on cargo vessels. Where can the tubes be located?
o
o
o
(A) Cargo holds

(B) Laundries
(C) Crew lounge
(D) Washrooms
1580. (2.2.2.9F-4) Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find that she has too much
trim by the stern. Which of the following action would reduce the excessive trim?
o
o
(A) add ballast forward

(B) load more cargo forward
(C) shift bunkers forward
(D) discharge cargo from the after tanks

Deck General
September 2015
1581. (2.2.2.9F-5) What are flame screens used for?
o
o
o
(A) prevent flames from entering tanks

(B) protect firefighters from flames
(C) keep flames and sparks from getting out of an engines exhaust system
(D) contain flammable fumes
1582. (2.2.2.9F-6) What is a cofferdam?

o
o
(A) Area the product is loaded into

(B) Opening in the deck used for cleaning a tank
(C) Void or empty space separating two tanks
(D) Tube fitted to an ullage hole
1583. (2.2.2.9F-7) What type of valve is usually on the discharge side of a cargo pump on a tank
vessel?
o
o
o
(A) check valve

(B) spectacle valve
(C) globe valve
(D) butterfly valve
1584. (2.2.2.9F-8) On tankers with manually operated tank valves, which of the following is the type of
valve most commonly used?
o
o
o
(A) gate valve

(B) globe valve
(C) check valve
(D) butterfly valve
1585. (2.2.2.9F-9) On modern tankers with separate pump rooms, which of the following is used to
minimize cargo pump shaft leakage?
o
o
(A) Stuffing box glands

(B) Slinger rings
(C) Mechanical seals
(D) Shaft sleeves

Deck General
September 2015
1586. (2.7.3.5-1) A vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it carries
more than __________.
o
o
o
(A) 49 passengers
(B) 36 passengers
(C) 6 passengers
(D) 12 passengers
1587. (2.7.3.6-22) If your vessel is certificated to carry 10 persons, including both adults and children,
how many life jackets are you required to carry on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) 10 adult and 1 child

(B) 11 adult
(C) 10 adult
(D) 10 adult and 5 child
1588. (2.8.2.8-47) The safe working load (SWL) of wire rope with a safety factor of 6 is what percent of
its strength?
o
o
o
(A) 10%
(B) 17%
(C) 50%
(D) 80%
1589. (2.7.1-8) On a passenger vessel with stateroom accommodations, which space would NOT be
required to be checked by the patrol between 10 pm and 6 am?
o
o
o
(A) pilothouse
(B) weather decks
(C) galley
(D) public spaces with an automatic fire detection system
1590. (2.7.3.9-18) According to the regulations for small passenger vessels, fuses and circuit breakers
are used in electrical circuits to __________.
o
o
o
(A) keep the circuit from becoming overloaded or overheated

(B) make the operator inspect his wiring periodically after the fuses blow
(C) prevent voltage fluctuations
(D) keep equipment from shutting off unexpectedly

Deck General
September 2015
1591. (2.8.2.2-11) Close link chain of not less the 3/4" (or the wire rope equivalent) is required for
lashing deck cargoes of timber. What size flexible wire rope would provide the strength equivalent to
3/4" chain, using a safety factor of 5?
o
o
o
(A) 9/16"
(B) 1"
(C) 1 1/4"
(D) 1 3/8"
1592. (2.7.3.8-48) On small passenger vessels, fuel lines may be made of __________.
o
o
o
(A) annealed tubing of copper, nickel-copper, or copper nickel

(B) plastic, rubber, or seamless steel tubing
(C) stainless steel, iron, or brass
(D) copper, plastic, stainless steel, or galvanized iron
1593. (2.8.2.5B-37) Mooring wire fiber tails should be inspected on a regular basis. Which of the
following would be included in the inspection?
o
o
o
(A) inspection for any signs of fading

(B) inspection of the connection between the wire and tail
(C) inspection of the diameter and replace if there is a 10% increase
(D) inspection of the overall length to determine amount of stretch
1594. (2.7.3.8-2) On small passenger vessels which parts of a water-cooled gasoline or diesel engine
must be water-jacketed and cooled?
o
o
o
(A) The exhaust manifold

(B) The engine's head
(C) The block
1595. (2.8.2.3A-13) Which knot shown in illustration D030DG below represents a square knot?
o
o
o
(A) H
(B) W
(C) P
(D) R

Deck General
September 2015
1596. (2.8.2.3A-8) What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "Q"?
o
o
o
(A) square knot

(B) clove hitch
(C) round knot
(D) bowline
1597. (2.7.3.9-9) Starting motors, generators, and other spark producing devices should be mounted
as high above the bilges as possible to __________.
o
o
o
(A) prevent accidental ignition of any gasoline vapors that may have accumulated in the bilges
(B) keep them cool when the vessel is underway
(C) make them more accessible for repairs
(D) keep them dry when the bilges are full of water
1598. (2.8.2.6B-20) A sheave is a __________.

o
o
o
(A) seaman's knife

(B) partial load of grain
(C) line to hold a lifeboat next to the embarkation deck
(D) grooved wheel in a block
1599. (2.8.2.4B-3) Nylon line is NOT suitable for __________.

o
o
o
(A) stoppers
(B) lashings
(C) towing
(D) mooring lines
1600. (2.7.3.6-23) Your vessel is certificated to carry 50 persons. You are required to have
__________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) 50 adult life jackets and 5 child life jackets

(B) 40 adult life jackets and 10 child life jackets
(C) 50 adult life jackets and 2 child life jackets
(D) 50 adult life jackets

Deck General
September 2015
1601. (2.8.2.5B-30) You are preparing to moor your vessel starboard side to, bow in. Which is
customarily put out first?
o
o
o
(A) the bow spring line

(B) the stern line
(C) the head line
(D) the after breast line
1602. (2.8.2.4C-13) When a line is laid down in loose, looping figure-eights, it is said to be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) chined
(B) flemished
(C) coiled
(D) faked
1603. (2.7.3.2-20) A Certificate of Inspection for vessels of less than 100 gross tons carrying more than
twelve passengers on an international voyage will be issued for a period of __________. (small
passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) four years

(B) three years
(C) two years
(D) one year
1604. (2.8.2.6A-29) What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 1 as shown in illustration
D029DG below?
o
o
o
(A) 1.0
(B) 2.0
(C) 0.5
(D) 1.5
1605. (2.7.3.11-20) What must be mounted at a small passenger vessels operating station for use by
the Master and crew?
o
o
o
(A) The location of the first aid kit

(B) Emergency Instructions
(C) Instructions on artificial respiration
(D) A tide table for the area

Deck General
September 2015
1606. (2.8.2.3A-4) When improperly tied, which knot shown in illustration D030DG below is called a
granny or thief's knot?
o
o
o
(A) F
(B) M
(C) R
(D) W
1607. (2.7.3.8-42) On small passenger vessels which type of internal combustion engine carburetor
does not require a drip collector?
o
o
(A) Four barrel

(B) Updraft
(C) Downdraft
(D) Two barrel
1608. (2.7.3.6-58) The painter on a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________.
o
o
o
(A) have a minimum breaking strength of 3,000 lbs. if the capacity of the lifesaving gear is 50
persons or greater
(B) be stowed to pay out freely if the vessel sinks
(C) be resistant to ultraviolet sunlight deterioration
1609. (2.7.3.8-9) Which type of ventilation is required for enclosed spaces containing gasoline,
machinery, or fuel tanks? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
(A) Mechanical supply and natural exhaust

(B) Natural supply and natural exhaust
(C) Natural supply and mechanical exhaust
(D) Mechanical supply and mechanical exhaust
1610. (2.8.2.1-3) After having been pulled aloft in a bosun's chair on a mast, you must now make
yourself fast in the chair prior to painting the mast. You should first __________.
o
o
o
(A) seize the hauling part and the standing part firmly in one hand to support your weight
(B) make the tail of the line leading from the becket bend fast to a padeye on the mast
(C) have the sailor on deck make the hauling part fast to a cleat on the mast
(D) frap yourself to the mast to take the strain off the hauling part

Deck General
September 2015
1611. (2.7.3.11-10) Life floats and buoyant apparatus used aboard small passenger vessels shall be
marked in clearly legible letters and numbers __________.
o
o
o
(A) with the parent vessels name and the number of persons allowed
(B) by a Coast Guard inspector after inspecting the equipment
(C) by the American Bureau of Shipping (ABS), another recognized, authorized classification
society or the vessels underwriters
(D) by all of the above
1612. (2.8.2.3B-7) Which is TRUE when splicing nylon line?

o
o
o
(A) Only short splices can be used in nylon

(B) Only use long splices in nylon line
(C) All splices must be around a thimble in nylon line
(D) Ensure extra tucks are taken in the splice
1613. (2.8.2.1-13) A vessel is underway with a work stage rigged over the side. A seaman may work on
the stage, but only when __________.
o
o
o
(A) wearing a life jacket

(B) the vessel is not making way
(C) wearing both a life jacket and a safety harness secured to the stage
(D) wearing a safety harness secured to the stage
1614. (2.6-17) On an OSV, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life jacket?
o
o
o
(A) To replace a damaged life jacket

(B) For use during boat drills
(C) For use during fire drills
(D) At no time
1615. (2.7.3.6-18) On vessels subject to the provisions of 46 CFR Subchapter T, life jackets shall be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) inaccessible to passengers

(B) on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times
(C) kept locked up at all times when underway
(D) stored in convenient places throughout the accommodation spaces

Deck General
September 2015
1616. (2.8.2.3A-25) Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a single becket bend?
o
o
o
(A) E
(B) F
(C) G
(D) H
1617. (2.8.2.4A-11) When taking a length of new manila rope from the coil, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) lay the coil on end with the inside end up then unwind the rope from the outside of the coil
(B) lay the coil on end with the inside end down, then pull the inside end up through the middle of
the coil
(C) mount the coil so it will turn like a spool and unreel from the outside
(D) roll the coil along the deck and allow the rope to fall off the coil
1618. (2.8.2.2-3) Using a safety factor of five, determine what is the safe working load for 3-1/2 inch
manila line with a breaking stress of 4.9 tons.
o
o
o
(A) 0.82 ton

(B) 0.98 ton
(C) 2.45 tons
(D) 12.25 tons
1619. (2.8.2.3B-35) Which knot would serve best as a safety sling for a person working over the side?
o
o
(A) Lifting hitch

(B) Bowline on a bight
(C) French bowline
(D) Jug sling
1620. (2.7.3.3-1) Paint and oil lockers on small passenger vessels must be constructed of or lined with
__________.
o
o
o
(A) fiberglass
(B) steel or equivalent material
(C) sheetrock, asbestos, or other material that retards the spread of fire
(D) marine plywood

Deck General
September 2015
1621. (2.8.2.4C-26) Which rope has the greatest breaking strength?

o
o
o
(A) Polypropylene
(B) Polyester
(C) Manila
(D) Nylon
1622. (2.8.2.4A-4) A natural fiber rope can be ruined by dampness because it may __________.
o
o
o
(A) shrink
(B) unlay
(C) stretch
(D) rot
1623. (2.7.3.6-1) Where should life jackets be stowed? (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)
o
o
o
(A) Throughout the accommodation spaces

(B) In locked watertight and fireproof containers on or above the main deck
(C) In the forepeak
(D) In the wheelhouse
1624. (2.7.3.8-23) On small passenger vessels, shut-off valves must be installed on both gasoline and
diesel fuel supply lines __________.
o
o
o
(A) at the tank and the engine end of the fuel line
(B) outside the engine room on the fill and vent lines
(C) only at the tank end of the fuel line
(D) only at the engine end of the fuel line
1625. (2.8.2.5B-4) Which position shown in illustration D019DG below is the most dangerous when
tying up?
o
o
o
(A) IV
(B) III
(C) II
(D) I

Deck General
September 2015
1626. (2.8.2.3B-21) A monkey fist is found on which of the following?

o
o
o
(A) manrope
(B) heaving line
(C) mooring line
(D) lead line
1627. (2.7.3.2-22) As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a
proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of
Federal Regulations would you find the answer?
o
o
o
(A) Subchapter B
(B) Subchapter D
(C) Subchapter F
(D) Subchapter T
1628. (2.7.3.10-1) For what purpose may gasoline be used on small passenger vessels?
o
o
o
(A) Cooking
(B) Lighting
(C) Heating
1629. (2.7.1-14) If your passenger vessel has been issued a stability letter, it must be __________.
o
o
o
(A) posted in a passenger area

(B) posted adjacent to the Certificate of Inspection
(C) filed in the ship's office
(D) posted in the pilothouse
1630. (2.7.3.7-11) Which statement is TRUE concerning the number of portable fire extinguishers
required at the operating station of a small passenger vessel? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) None are required.

(B) Two B-I extinguishers are required.
(C) One B-II extinguisher is required.
(D) One B-I extinguisher is required.

Deck General
September 2015
1631. (2.8.2.4A-3) Which method is used to detect rot in manila lines?
o
o
o
(A) Opening the strands and examining the inner fibers

(B) Feeling the surface of the line for broken fibers
(C) Measuring the reduction in circumference of the line
(D) Observing for the appearance of mildew on the outer surface
1632. (2.8.2.3B-26) Which is NOT a type of seizing?

o
o
(A) Flat seizing

(B) Racking seizing
(C) Tube seizing
(D) Throat seizing
1633. (2.7.3.2-12) Whenever practicable, the Certificate of Inspection must be posted __________.
(small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) near the area where passengers embark

(B) as high as feasible in the pilot house
(C) in any location desired
(D) in a conspicuous place where it will most likely be observed by the passengers
1634. (2.8.2.4B-10) A new coil of nylon line should be opened by __________.
o
o
o
(A) unreeling from a spool

(B) taking a strain on both ends
(C) pulling the end up through the eye of the coil
(D) uncoiling from the outside with the coil standing on end
1635. (2.8.2.5A-8) In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "G" called?
o
o
o
(A) forward spring line

(B) forward breast line
(C) offshore bow line
(D) inshore bow line

Deck General
September 2015
1636. (2.7.3.6-48) Small passenger vessels in cold water ocean routes, that do not meet the standards
for collision bulkheads or subdivision in subchapter S, must carry __________. (small passenger
vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) 100% inflatable buoyant apparatus

(B) at least two EPIRBs
(C) at least one hand fire pump
1637. (2.8.2.3B-1) Which statement about two lines spliced together is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) Splicing is used to prevent rotting of the lines bitter end.

(B) Splicing is used to increase the circumference of each line.
(C) Splicing is used to increase the overall strength of the line.
(D) Splicing two lines together is stronger than knotting two lines together.
1638. (2.7.3.9-14) Lead-acid batteries used aboard "T-Boats" must have terminal connections that are
__________.
o
o
(A) located so as to be easily greased

(B) the spring slip style
(C) a permanent type
(D) temporarily clamped on the top of the battery
1639. (2.6-1) The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________.
o
o
o
(A) one can opener

(B) compass
(C) one 50 meter line
1640. (2.8.2.6A-30) What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 2 as shownin illustration
D029DG below?
o
o
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.0
(C) 2.0
(D) 3.0

Deck General
September 2015
1641. (2.8.2.4C-22) In what direction should you coil a left-hand laid rope?
o
o
(A) either a clockwise or a counter-clockwise direction

(B) a clockwise direction only
(C) a counter-clockwise direction only
(D) an alternating clockwise and counter-clockwise direction
1642. (2.6-15) Which type EPIRB must each ocean-going OSV carry?
o
o
o
(A) Class C
(B) Class A
(C) Class B
(D) Category I
1643. (2.8.2.3B-11) What is a "sheepshank" used for?

o
o
o
(A) keep a line from fraying

(B) join lines of unequal size
(C) stop off a line
(D) shorten a line
1644. (2.8.2.3A-6) Which knot in illustration D030DG below is secure only when there is a strain on the
line?
o
o
(A) H
(B) I
(C) L
(D) P
1645. (2.7.3.8-1) According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic and other nonmetallic piping
materials __________.
o
o
o
(A) are preferable to steel pipe

(B) may only be used in non-vital systems
(C) may replace metal pipe or tubing in any installation
(D) may not be used on inspected vessels

Deck General
September 2015
1646. (2.8.2.6A-5) You are using tackle number 3 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight
of 120 lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the
hauling part required to lift the weight?
o
o
o
(A) 49 lbs.
(B) 27 lbs.
(C) 40 lbs.
(D) 52 lbs.
1647. (2.8.2.6A-2) You are using tackle number 8 in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight of 100
lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the hauling
part required to lift the weight?
o
o
(A) 120 lbs.

(B) 55 lbs.
(C) 40 lbs.
(D) 37 lbs.
1648. (2.7.3.10-4) Which vessel must carry a compass on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) A vessel operating on the Gulf of Mexico

(B) A non-self-propelled vessel
(C) A vessel operating in protected waters with a short restricted route
(D) A vessel operating on the Ohio River
1649. (2.7.3.1-6) The definition of "partially protected waters", as used in the Regulations does not
include __________.
o
o
(A) harbors, lakes and similar waters determined by the OCMI to be protected waters
(B) the Great Lakes during the summer season
(C) sheltered waters presenting no special hazard
(D) waters within 20 nautical miles from the mouth of a harbor of safe refuge
1650. (2.8.2.6A-33) What is the mechanical advantage, neglecting friction, of tackle number 5 as
shown in illustration D029DG below?
o
o
(A) 2.0
(B) 4.0
(C) 5.0
(D) 5.5

Deck General
September 2015
1651. (2.8.2.5B-13) Chafing gear __________.
o
o
o
(A) reduces and prevents wear caused by the rubbing of one object against another
(B) prevents corrosion of running rigging
(C) reduces and prevents corrosion of standing rigging
(D) protects the body against extreme cold
1652. (2.8.2.6A-8) You are using tackle number 4 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a
weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook of tackle number 11. What is the
mechanical advantage of this rig?
o
o
o
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 10
(D) 24
1653. (2.6-22) Limit switches are located on the survival craft winch systems for OSVs to __________.
o
o
(A) stop the winch in case the craft's weight exceeds the load lift limit
(B) limit the amount of cable on the drum
(C) stop the winch just before the survival craft reaches final stowage position
(D) limit the ascent rate
1654. (2.7.3.9-11) Individual wires, used in systems greater than 50 volts, __________.
o
o
o
(A) must be installed in conduit

(B) should be supported at 24 inch intervals with plastic tie wraps
(C) should never be located in a tank
1655. (2.7.3.9-5) On small passenger vessels all connections to electrical conductors MUST be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) made within enclosures

(B) inspected annually by the Coast Guard
(C) served and parceled with the lay, turned and wormed the other way
(D) installed only by a licensed marine electrician

Deck General
September 2015
1656. (2.7.3.11-16) All life jackets carried on board small passenger vessels are required to be marked
o
o
o
(A) with the vessel's name

(B) with the vessel's official number
(C) with the maximum weight to be held by the life preserver
(D) with the maximum serviceable life of the life preserver
1657. (2.7.3.9-8) Storage batteries on "T-Boats" must be located __________.

o
o
o
(A) near the bilge to lower the center of gravity and improve stability
(B) in a tray lined with suitable material that resists damage from the electrolyte
(C) in sight of the main engine(s)
(D) in locked closets with restricted ventilation
1658. (2.8.2.5A-4) In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "C" called?
o
o
o
(A) spring line

(B) shore line
(C) stern line
(D) breast line
1659. (2.7.3.10-2) Which T-Boat must be fitted with a suitable compass?

o
o
(A) A vessel in river service

(B) A vessel operating on a short, restricted route on lakes, bays, and sounds
(C) A vessel engaged in ocean or coastwise service
(D) The regulations do not require a compass on any vessel
1660. (2.7.3.9-1) Starting motors, generators, and any other spark producing devices shall be
o
o
o
(A) of the alternating current type

(B) mounted as high as practicable above the bilges
(C) rated for at least 12 volts

Deck General
September 2015
1661. (2.6-2) Regulations require that OSV's under 100 GT must have a steering system that is
capable of moving the rudder __________.
o
o
o
(A) from 35 on one side to 30 on the other side, in no more than 28 seconds, while making
maximum headway
(B) by a required auxiliary steering system under emergency conditions when duplicated main
steering power systems are provided
(C) at one-half the maximum astern speed without damage
(D) from 15 on one side to 15 on the other side, in 30 seconds at 7 knots, or one-half the
maximum speed
1662. (2.7.3.6-47) Small wooden hull passenger vessels, whose routes are limited to coastwise warm
water routes on the high seas, must carry approved life floats or buoyant apparatus __________.
o
o
o
(A) in place of ring life buoys

(B) for not less than 100% of all persons permitted on board
(C) for all persons on board
(D) for not less than 67% of all persons permitted on board
1663. (2.7.3.11-26) On Subchapter T small passenger vessels, after loading and prior to departure, the
master shall determine the vessel complies with all stability requirements in which of these
documents?
o
o
o
(A) stability letter

(C) Load Line Certificate
1664. (2.6-3) Each OSV must carry __________.

o
o
o
(A) at least 12 rocket parachute flares

(B) at least one life buoy on each side of the vessel fitted with a buoyant life line
(C) one category I 406 Mhz satellite EPIRB
1665. (2.8.2.4C-5) The "lay" of a line refers to __________.

o
o
o
(A) its normal location of stowage

(B) the direction of twist in the strands
(C) the manner in which it is coiled
(D) the manner in which it is rigged

Deck General
September 2015
1666. (2.7.3.8-49) Aboard small passenger vessels, which material may be used for diesel fuel line
installations but not for gasoline fuel lines?
o
o
o
(A) Nickel-copper tubing

(B) Copper-nickel tubing
(C) Annealed copper tubing
(D) Seamless steel pipe or tubing
1667. (2.7.3.8-47) Gasoline tank vent lines on board small passenger vessels must be fitted with
removable flame screens __________.
o
o
o
(A) consisting of a single screen of at least 30 X 30 mesh, corrosion resistant wire

(B) three inches in circumference inside the fill pipe
(C) three inches in diameter with a check valve to prevent water from entering in heavy weather
(D) and 30 square inches of louvers
1668. (2.8.2.4B-6) If given equal care, nylon line should last how many times longer than manila line?
o
o
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
1669. (2.8.2.5B-35) Fiber tails on mooring wires deteriorate more rapidly than the wires themselves.
What preventive maintenance should be done to the fiber tails?
o
o
o
(A) discard after initial use

(B) wash with degreaser and stow after use
(C) lubricate to aid in reduction of chaffing
(D) inspect and replace at regular intervals
1670. (2.8.2.6A-3) You are using tackle number 12 shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight
o
o
(A) 80 lbs.
(B) 50 lbs.
(C) 69 lbs.
(D) 55 lbs.

Deck General
September 2015
1671. (2.8.2.6A-15) What is the name of tackle number 2 as shown in illustration D029DG below?
o
o
o
(A) Gun tackle

(B) Onefold purchase
(C) Single purchase
(D) Whip
1672. (2.7.3.2-28) The carbon dioxide cylinders of all fixed fire extinguishing systems shall be retested
and remarked whenever a cylinder remains in place on a vessel for __________. (small passenger
vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) 5 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder
(B) 7 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder
(C) 10 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder
(D) 12 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder
1673. (2.7.3.2-19) The inspection of small passenger vessels of 60 feet in length carrying more than
twelve persons on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard __________. (small
o
o
o
(A) once every 6 months

(B) once every year
(C) once every 2 years with a minimum of one re-inspection during that period
(D) once every 3 years with a minimum of two re-inspections during that period
1674. (2.8.2.3B-32) Instead of whipping an end of a line, a temporary means of preventing the line from
unraveling is to tie a __________.
o
o
o
(A) square knot

(B) figure-eight knot
(C) becket bend
(D) blackwall hitch
1675. (2.7.3.8-15) 46 CFR Subchapter T requires that rigid plastic or other nonmetallic piping
__________.
o
o
o
(A) only be used in non-vital systems

(B) have approved metallic fittings and cutoff valves where it penetrates a watertight deck or
bulkhead
(C) not be used in gasoline or diesel fuel systems

Deck General
September 2015
1676. (2.8.2.3B-41) A short splice in a line __________.

o
o
o
(A) should be used if the line is going through a block

(B) doubles the size of the line
(C) decreases the size of the line
(D) should only be used in wire rope
1677. (2.6-4) The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________.
o
o
o
(A) buoyant oars

(B) one 50 meter line
(C) one first aid kit
1678. (2.8.2.3A-21) What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "N"?
o
o
o
(A) stopper
(B) rolling bowline
(C) heaving line hitch
(D) timber hitch
o
o
o
(A) Clew garnet tackle

(B) Threefold purchase
(C) Boat falls
(D) Triple purchase
1680. (2.8.2.5B-11) Chafing gear is used to __________.

o
o
o
(A) anchor the boat

(B) protect fiber rope from abrasion
(C) strengthen mooring lines
(D) pick up heavy loads

Deck General
September 2015
1681. (2.8.2.3B-42) Which tool is used to open the strands of fiber lines when making an eye splice?
o
o
o
(A) Belaying spike

(B) Fid
(C) Pricker
(D) Heaver
1682. (2.6-5) The instructions for rescue boats and liferafts on an OSV must be approved by the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) Minerals Management Service

(B) lease operator
(C) person-in-charge of the unit
(D) Coast Guard
o
o
o
(A) Whip
(B) Runner
(C) Inverted whip
(D) Single purchase
1684. (2.7.3.11-3) When an autopilot is being used aboard small passenger vessels, who must make
or supervise the changeover from automatic to manual steering and vice versa?
o
o
o
(A) A credentialed state or federal pilot

(B) A certified quartermaster
(C) A qualified Engineer
(D) The Master or Mate on watch
1685. (2.7.3.8-59) According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, how long should exhaust blowers be operated
in enclosed spaces containing gasoline powered machinery before starting the engine?
o
o
(A) For at least four to five minutes

(B) No fixed amount, but the blower should run until you don't smell any gas
(C) Long enough to achieve at least one complete change of air
(D) Long enough to achieve a minimum of two complete air changes

Deck General
September 2015
1686. (2.8.2.4A-7) Which term describes a part of a natural fiber line?

o
o
o
(A) Lacings
(B) Twines
(C) Lays
(D) Fibers
1687. (2.7.3.8-11) For pumping the bilges, a 54 foot long "T-Boat", which is not a ferry, but is
certificated to carry 30 passengers, must be fitted with at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) one fixed hand pump and one portable hand pump
(B) one fixed power pump and one portable hand pump
(C) two portable hand pumps
(D) either "A" or "B"
1688. (2.8.2.3A-30) What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "P"?
o
o
o
(A) rolling hitch

(B) marline hitch
(C) clove hitch
(D) round turn and two half hitches
1689. (2.7.3.6-5) On small passenger vessels painters fitted to life floats shall be at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 20.0 meters (65.5 feet) in length

(B) 30.5 meters (100 feet) in length
(C) 10 fathoms (60 feet) in length
(D) 90 feet (27.5 meters) in length
1690. (2.6-6) The rescue boat on an OSV is not required to carry a __________.
o
o
(A) sea anchor

(B) radar reflector
(C) fishing kit
(D) searchlight

Deck General
September 2015
1691. (2.8.2.4B-14) Which statement is TRUE about nylon line?
o
o
o
(A) Nylon stoppers should be used with nylon line.

(B) Nylon line is excellent for use in alongside towing.
(C) A normal safe working load will stretch nylon line 50%.
(D) Manila line will usually last longer than nylon line.
1692. (2.8.2.4A-13) What is the result when natural fiber rope gets wet?
o
o
o
(A) the line will be easier to handle

(B) the line will shrink in length
(C) the overall strength of the line will decrease
(D) the line will become more elastic
1693. (2.7.3.8-8) On board small passenger vessels the minimum fill pipe size for a gasoline or diesel
tank is __________.
o
o
o
(A) Not specified by the Regulations

(B) Large enough so it does not cause backpressure and fuel spillage
(C) 2 1/2 inches nominal pipe size
(D) 1 1/2 inches nominal pipe size
1694. (2.8.2.4C-19) In the manufacture of line, plant fibers are twisted together to form __________.
o
o
(A) line
(B) cable
(C) yarns
(D) strands
1695. (2.8.2.1-15) To properly rig the downhaul to your stage for lowering, you must __________.
o
o
o
(A) take 2 round turns around the stage and then dip the third turn to form a clove hitch
(B) take only figure eights around the horns
(C) pass the downhaul through the bridle formed by the standing part and then take round turns
(D) take 2 or 3 round turns around the stage and then belay the downhaul around the horns

Deck General
September 2015
1696. (2.6-7) The person-in-charge shall insure that each rescue boat on an OSV is lowered to the
water, launched and operated at least once every __________.
o
o
(A) week
(B) two months
(C) three months
(D) six months
1697. (2.8.2.5A-1) In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "E" called?
o
o
o
(A) bow spring line

(B) bow line
(C) after spring line
(D) forward breast line
1698. (2.6-8) The Master or person-in-charge of an OSV shall insure that each deck from which rescue
boats are launched is __________.
o
o
o
(A) surfaced with a nonskid texture

(B) kept clear of any obstructions that would interfere with launching
(C) roped off to prevent unnecessary access
(D) posted with a list of persons assigned to the rescue boat
1699. (2.6-9) The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on an OSV vessel must be stowed
__________.
o
o
o
(A) so that it will float free if the vessel sinks

(B) in an approved bracket
(C) in an inside passageway
(D) so that it is accessible from the pilothouse of the vessel
1700. (2.8.2.5A-2) In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "A" called?
o
o
o
(A) offshore stern line

(B) after spring line
(C) after breast line
(D) onshore stern line

Deck General
September 2015
1701. (2.7.3.8-35) Backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________.
o
o
o
(A) carburetors
(B) distributors
(C) spark plugs
(D) fuel tanks
1702. (2.7.3.11-14) A small passenger vessel's Official Number must be marked___________.

o
o
(A) in block type Arabic numerals not less than 1-1/2 inch high
(B) on some clearly visible exterior structural hull part
(C) or mounted so its alteration, removal, or replacement would be obvious
1703. (2.7.3.2-11) Whenever an inspected vessel is dry-docked for major repairs, the person in charge
of the vessel, the owner or the agent should report this to the __________. (small passenger vessel
regulations)
o
o
o
(A) Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection

(B) American Boat and Yacht Council, Inc.
(C) National Cargo Bureau, Inc.
1704. (2.6-10) On an OSV, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?
o
o
o
(A) Two ring life buoys on each side of the OSV

(B) One ring life buoy on each side of the OSV
(C) Three ring life buoys
(D) One ring life buoy
1705. (2.8.2.6-2) Disregarding friction, what is the mechanical advantage of a twofold purchase when
rove to disadvantage?
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Deck General
September 2015
1706. (2.8.2.3A-7) What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "J"?
o
o
o
(A) marline hitch

(B) becket bend
(C) bowline
(D) plain whipping
1707. (2.8.2.3B-14) Which kind of hitch should you use to secure a spar?
o
o
o
(A) Blackwall hitch

(B) Timber hitch
(C) Two half hitches
(D) Stage hitch
1708. (2.7.3.9-10) Electrical wiring on all "T-Boats" must be __________.

o
o
o
(A) concealed so the boat can be maintained more easily

(B) protected from the weather
(C) in an accessible place behind the ceiling
(D) concealed to prevent mechanical damage
1709. (2.6-11) Of the required ring life buoys for an OSV, how many must be equipped with a
waterlight?
o
o
(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
1710. (2.8.2.3B-16) What can a rolling hitch be used for?

o
o
(A) make a temporary eye

(B) mouse a hook
(C) secure a line around a spar
(D) shorten a line

Deck General
September 2015
1711. (2.6-12) What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on an OSV certified for ocean
service?
o
o
o
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16
1712. (2.8.2.4B-12) What is the critical point in nylon line elongation?

o
o
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
1713. (2.8.2.4B-7) Compared to manila line, size for size, nylon line __________.
o
o
o
(A) has less strength than manila line

(B) has more strength than manila line
(C) is equivalent to manila line
(D) will rot quicker than manila line
1714. (2.7.3.2-16) A small passenger vessel engaging in international voyages must be dry docked at
least once every __________.
o
o
o
(A) 6 months
(B) 12 months
(C) 36 months
(D) 60 months
1715. (2.8.2.3B-6) Which weakens a line the LEAST?

o
o
o
(A) Long splice

(B) Clove hitch
(C) Square knot
(D) Short splice

Deck General
September 2015
1716. (2.7.3.6-8) On small passenger vessels if an item of lifesaving equipment is carried but not
required __________.
o
o
o
(A) it must be removed from the vessel as excess equipment

(B) it may remain aboard the vessel as excess equipment regardless of its condition
(C) it must be destroyed in the presence of a marine inspector
(D) the equipment must be approved by the Commandant
1717. (2.7.3.6-30) All vessels not limited to daylight service shall be fitted with a ring life buoy
o
o
o
(A) with no line attached

(B) with a water light to be attached during nighttime operation
(C) on the stern of the vessel
(D) with a twenty fathom line attached
1718. (2.6-18) The immersion suit requirements for OSV apply to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean
__________.
o
o
o
(A) above 20 degrees North and below 20 degrees South

(B) above 25 degrees North and below 25 degrees South
(C) above 30 degrees North and below 30 degrees South
(D) above 32 degrees North and below 32 degrees South
1719. (2.7.3.8-60) On board small passenger vessels, ducts for compartments which contain gasoline
powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks __________.
o
o
o
(A) must not allow any appreciable vapor flow except through their normal openings
(B) must be of rigid, permanent construction
(C) must lead as directly as possible and be properly fastened and supported
1720. (2.6-13) For an OSV not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse
projected type line throwing appliance is a __________.
o
o
(A) spring-loaded line thrower

(B) hand thrown buoyant line
(C) shoulder type line throwing gun
(D) heaving line

Deck General
September 2015
1721. (2.7.1-3) A passenger vessel of 600 GT is required to have how many fire axes?
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 6
1722. (2.8.2.3B-27) Which of the following describes a "whipping"?

o
o
o
(A) a U-bolt for securing a cargo whip to the winch drum

(B) a stopper for nylon line
(C) a messenger
(D) turns of twine around a rope end
1723. (2.7.3.8-56) Aboard small passenger vessels which type(s) of ventilation must be provided for
enclosed spaces containing gasoline engines or gasoline fuel tanks?
o
o
(A) At least one opening to the exterior of the hull

(B) Mechanical supply and natural exhaust
(C) Natural supply and mechanical exhaust
1724. (2.7.3.3-4) How many escape routes must normally exist from all general areas accessible to the
passengers or where the crew may be quartered or normally employed? (small passenger vessel
regulations)
o
o
o
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
1725. (2.7.3.11-7) On small passenger vessels, when must watchmen patrol throughout the vessel to
guard against and give alarm in case of fire or other danger?
o
o
o
(A) When the rest of the crew is asleep

(B) During the nighttime when the vessel carries overnight passengers
(C) At all times outside normal work hours
(D) At all times when the vessel is underway

Deck General
September 2015
1726. (2.7.3.2-6) Whenever a "T-Boat" is hauled out for repairs or alterations affecting its safety you
must __________.
o
o
o
(A) provide a complete set of plans to the Commandant for review

(B) notify the cognizant OCMI
(C) schedule a full safety equipment inspection
(D) Both B and C
1727. (2.8.2.3B-37) When making a short splice in wire rope __________.

o
o
o
(A) the first three wires are tucked with the lay and the last three go against the lay
(B) all tucks go with the lay
(C) the first three wires are tucked against the lay and the last three go with the lay
(D) all tucks go against the lay
1728. (2.7.3.6-28) All small passenger vessels operating on lakes, bays, sounds, or river routes on
runs of more than 30 minutes are required to carry __________. (small passenger vessel
regulations)
o
o
o
(A) 8 red hand flare distress signals and 8 orange smoke hand distress signals
(B) 3 red hand flare distress signals and 3 orange smoke hand distress signals
(C) 6 red hand flare distress signals and 6 orange smoke hand distress signals
1729. (2.6-14) The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's
largest loaded liferaft at a speed of at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 10 knot
(B) 1 knot
(C) 5 knot
(D) 2 knot
1730. (2.8.2.4C-16) Which line is two-stranded, left-handed small stuff?

o
o
o
(A) Lagline
(B) Marline
(C) Ratline
(D) Houseline

Deck General
September 2015
1731. (2.8.2.4A-12) In order to correctly open a new coil of manila line, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) pull the tagged end from the top of the coil
(B) pull the tagged end through the eye of the coil
(C) unreel the coil from a spool
(D) secure the outside end and unroll the coil
1732. (2.7.3.7-4) All vessels not required to have a power driven fire pump shall carry __________.
o
o
o
(A) not less than three hand fire pumps

(B) a suitable, detachable pump usable for firefighting purposes
(C) an emergency hand fire and bilge pump
(D) at least three 2-1/2 gallon fire buckets
1733. (2.8.2.4A-16) As you hold a piece of manila line vertically in front of you, the strands run from the
lower left to the upper right. Which type of line is this?
o
o
(A) Water-laid
(B) Sennet-laid
(C) Right-hand laid
(D) Cable-laid
1734. (2.7.3.1-5) In the small passenger vessel regulations a coastwise route is defined as one that is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) not more than 20 nautical miles offshore in the ocean

(B) not more than 20 statute miles from the nearest safe harbor in the Pacific Ocean
(C) on ocean waters more than 200 nautical miles from shore in the Gulf of Alaska
(D) not more than 50 statute miles from shore in the Gulf of Mexico
1735. (2.7.3.8-10) On small passenger vessels a gasoline tank vent pipe must __________.
o
o
o
(A) terminate in a U-bend as high above the weather deck as practicable

(B) have a cross sectional area not less than that of 19 millimeters OD tubing.
(C) be connected to the tank at its highest point

Deck General
September 2015
1736. (2.8.2.1-6) The normal and safest way for a sailor in a bosun's chair to be raised aloft is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) by taking the gantline to a winch drum and heaving away with the winch
(B) for the sailor to pull himself aloft and then make fast with a bosun's chair hitch
(C) by fairleading the gantline with a snatch block and pulling with a cargo runner
(D) manually by two or three sailors heaving away on deck
1737. (2.8.2.4C-2) Placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook is
called __________.
o
o
o
(A) worming
(B) flemishing down
(C) faking
(D) mousing
1738. (2.8.2.4A-10) Which type of line would have the LEAST resistance to mildew and rot?
o
o
(A) Nylon
(B) Dacron
(C) Manila
(D) Polypropylene
1739. (2.7.3.10-5) Which fuel cannot be used for cooking on vessels carrying passengers for hire?
o
o
o
(A) Wood
(B) Gasoline
(C) Coal
(D) Kerosene
1740. (2.6-16) Each EPIRB required on an OSV shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and
output indicator every __________.
o
o
(A) week
(B) two weeks
(C) month
(D) two months

Deck General
September 2015
1741. (2.6-19) Each buoyant work vest on an OSV must be __________.

o
o
o
(A) equipped with a waterlight

(B) Coast Guard Approved
(C) marked with the name of the unit
1742. (2.8.2.4A-5) How should natural fiber rope be stowed in order to help protect it from rotting?
o
o
o
(A) stowed in a hot, moist compartment

(B) stowed in any compartment
(C) stowed on deck at all times
(D) dried, and stowed in a place with adequate ventilation
1743. (2.7.3.9-6) In general, batteries aboard small passenger vessels should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) accessible for maintenance and removal

(B) as high above the bilge as practicable
(C) stowed in well-ventilated spaces to allow dissipation of any gases generated
1744. (2.7.3.8-39) On small passenger vessels a gasoline engine must be fitted with __________.
o
o
o
(A) A means of backfire flame control

(B) A lubricating oil pressure gauge and a tachometer
(C) Jacket water discharge temperature gauges
1745. (2.6-20) The light on a personal flotation device on an OSV must be replaced __________.
o
o
(A) every six months

(B) when the power source is replaced
(C) when it is no longer serviceable
(D) each year after installation

Deck General
September 2015
1746. (2.8.2.4C-21) A piece of small stuff (small line) secured to an object to prevent it from going adrift
is a __________.
o
o
o
(A) lanyard
(B) keeper
(C) stopper
(D) noose
1747. (2.8.2.4C-9) Stuffer-braid rope has __________.

o
o
o
(A) no core
(B) a yarn core
(C) 12 threads
(D) three strands
1748. (2.7.3.2-14) A vessels Certificate of Inspection will show the __________. (small passenger
vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) minimum fire fighting and lifesaving equipment

(B) route permitted
(C) crew requirements
1749. (2.7.3.11-9) Where must the draft marks be placed on a small passenger vessel?
o
o
(A) On each side of the stem

(B) Near the stern post or rudder post
(C) At each end of the vessel
(D) On each side, amidships
1750. (2.7.3.6-16) Which statement is TRUE concerning work vests on a small passenger vessel?
o
o
o
(A) They must be stowed separately from approved life jackets

(B) They may be substituted for up to 10% of the required life jackets on board
(C) They need not be an approved type
(D) They may be worn during drills

Deck General
September 2015
1751. (2.7.3.11-19) Certain equipment aboard vessels, inspected under the small passenger vessel
regulations, is required to be marked with the vessel's name. This includes __________. (small
o
o
(A) bunks, silverware, china, and glassware

(B) anchors, line, paint cans, and fuel drums
(C) life jackets, life floats and paddles
(D) whistles, searchlights, navigation lights, and ship's bell
1752. (2.6-21) Each personal flotation device light on an OSV that has a non-replacement power
source must be replaced __________.
o
o
o
(A) every 24 months after initial installation

(B) every 12 months after initial installation
(C) every six months after initial installation
(D) on or before the expiration date of the power source
1753. (2.7.3.11-2) According to small passenger vessel regulations, while serving as Master on board
your vessel, what should be done with your credential?
o
o
o
(A) displayed in your home

(B) in your possession on board the vessel
(C) kept in the Coast Guard office where you sat for your license
(D) displayed in the company office on shore
1754. (2.8.2.3A-24) Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a timber hitch?
o
o
o
(A) E
(B) F
(C) N
(D) U
1755. (2.8.2.3B-29) A whipping on a fiber line __________.

o
o
o
(A) becomes part of a splice

(B) keeps the ends from fraying
(C) protects your hands
(D) strengthens it

Deck General
September 2015
1756. (2.8.2.1-23) The rope which is rove from the truck to be used with a bos'n's chair is called a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) strop
(B) life line
(C) whip
(D) gantline
1757. (2.7.3.9-15) To prevent damage by and to storage batteries aboard small passenger vessels
they should be located __________.
o
o
o
(A) in trays constructed of material that is resistant to the electrolyte

(B) so as to prevent movement when the vessel pitches and rolls
(C) in a well ventilated area
1758. (2.8.2.4C-25) Which factor is most likely to impair the strength and durability of synthetic line?
o
o
o
(A) Washing with mild soap

(B) Mildew
(C) Dry rot
(D) Sunlight
1759. (2.7.1-1) Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition
to the deck officer in the pilothouse, where should there be an additional crew member on watch?
o
o
o
(A) on lookout on the fore deck

(B) on the bridge wing
(C) always in the pilothouse
(D) in or near the pilothouse
1760. (2.8.2.3B-13) Which line cannot be spliced?

o
o
o
(A) Braided line with a hollow core

(B) Double-braided line
(C) Any line can be spliced
(D) Braided line with a solid core

Deck General
September 2015
1761. (2.8.2.3B-22) What is the knot at the end of the heaving line used to pass the towing hawser
called?
o
o
o
(A) heaving knot

(B) ball or baseball knot
(C) three strand Turk's head
(D) monkey's fist
1762. (2.7.3.7-2) What would be an example of a B-I extinguisher? (small passenger vessel
regulations)
o
o
o
(A) 5 pound foam

(B) 2 pound dry chemical
(D) 2.5 gallon foam
1763. (2.7.3.6-55) The life jackets on all vessels shall be __________.

o
o
o
(A) inspected weekly

(B) worn at all times
(C) tested yearly
(D) readily available
1764. (2.7.3.11-23) Aboard small passenger vessels the steering gear, signaling whistle, controls, and
communication system shall be tested by the Master __________.
o
o
o
(A) once a week

(B) before getting underway for the day's operation
(C) at least once in every 48 hours
(D) at every inspection and re-inspection
1765. (2.8.2.4A-1) When using or caring for natural-fiber rope, which of the following is NOT
recommended?
o
o
o
(A) reverse turns on winches periodically to keep out kinks

(B) use chafing gear
(C) dry the line before stowing it
(D) try to lubricate the line

Deck General
September 2015
1766. (2.8.2.2-2) Using a safety factor of 6, determine the safe working load of manila line with a
breaking stress of 8 tons.
o
o
(A) 0.75 tons

(B) 1.25 tons
(C) 1.33 tons
(D) 8.00 tons
1767. (2.7.1-15) Which passenger vessel is required to permanently exhibit a fire control plan?
o
o
o
(A) a vessel 500 Gross Tons on a domestic voyage

(B) a vessel 500 Gross Tons on an international voyage
(C) any vessel over 500 Gross Tons
1768. (2.8.2.3A-10) What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "S"?
o
o
o
(A) hook hitch

(B) blackwall hitch
(C) half hitch
(D) bowline
1769. (2.8.2.3A-14) Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a bowline?

o
o
o
(A) G
(B) H
(C) L
(D) Q
1770. (2.7.1-2) Which river passenger vessel must have a copy of the vessel's plans permanently
displayed?
o
o
o
(A) A 200 GT vessel carrying more than 50 passengers

(B) A 325 GT vessel on a voyage in excess of 8 hours
(C) A 550 GT vessel with sleeping accommodations
(D) A 1100 GT vessel making daylight excursion trips only

Deck General
September 2015
1771. (2.7.3.6-32) A 50-foot passenger vessel not limited to daylight operation is required to be
equipped with at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1 ring life buoy with a water light

(B) 2 ring life buoys with a water light
(C) 2 ring life buoys with 2 water lights
(D) 3 ring life buoys with 2 water lights
1772. (2.7.3.8-4) On small passenger vessels, what type of devices are required at both the tank and
engine connections of all internal combustion engine fuel lines?
o
o
o
(A) Clean out plates

(B) Shut-off valves
(C) Fuel gauges
(D) Drain valves
1773. (2.7.1-4) When a passenger vessel's plans must be permanently exhibited, they are NOT
required to show information on the __________.
o
o
o
(A) fire detection system

(B) portable fire extinguishers
(C) ventilation systems
(D) lifeboats, liferafts, and life preservers
1774. (2.8.2.1-12) You are rigging a stage over the ship's side to serve as a working platform. For
stability of the stage, the downhaul to one end of the stage and the downhaul to the other end, which
are used for lowering the stage, should be led __________.
o
o
o
(A) both to the outboard side of the stage

(B) both to the inboard side of the stage
(C) either both to the inboard or both to the outboard side of the stage
(D) one to the inboard and the other to the outboard
1775. (2.8.2.4C-3) Safety is increased if __________.
o
o
o
(A) all lashings are made up, and the decks are clean and clear
(B) extra line and wire are laid out on deck for emergency use
(C) spare parts are kept on deck for ready access
(D) power tools are kept plugged in for immediate use

Deck General
September 2015
1776. (2.7.1-5) General arrangement plans shall be permanently exhibited on all passenger vessels of
at least __________.
o
o
(A) 200 GT and over

(B) 500 GT and over
(C) 1000 GT and over
(D) 1500 GT and over
1777. (2.7.3.2-8) You must make a written application to obtain or renew your "T" boat's Certificate of
Inspection __________.
o
o
o
(A) at the shipyard where you are hauled out

(B) on form CG-3752
(C) on form CG-835
(D) every time your boat is hauled out
1778. (2.7.1-6) The patrolman, while on duty on a passenger vessel, must have in his possession a(n)
__________.
o
o
o
(A) passenger list showing assigned berths

(B) A-I fire extinguisher
(C) nightstick
(D) flashlight
1779. (2.7.1-7) A passenger vessel is required to have a supervised patrol when __________.
o
o
o
(A) navigating in excess of eight hours

(B) there are passengers berthed on board
(C) there is no automatic fire-detection system installed
(D) the vessel has substantial wood in its construction
1780. (2.7.1-9) If your passenger vessel is fitted with a loudspeaker system, it must be tested at least
once __________.
o
o
o
(A) every week

(B) a watch or once a trip, whichever is shorter
(C) every trip
(D) a day

Deck General
September 2015
1781. (2.7.3.2-18) Each vessel shall be dry-docked or hauled out at intervals not to exceed 2 years if
operated in salt water for a total of more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) 3 months in any 12 month period since it was last hauled out
(B) 6 months in the 3 year period since it was last hauled out
(C) 12 months in the 5 year period since it was last hauled out
(D) whenever ownership or management changes
1782. (2.7.3.8-61) What is the minimum diameter allowed for bilge piping on small passenger vessels
which are more than 65 feet in length?
o
o
o
(A) 1"
(B) 1-1/2"
(C) 2"
(D) 2-1/2"
1783. (2.7.3.2-1) What is the maximum number of passengers a "T-Boat" may carry?
o
o
o
(A) is stated on the vessel's Certificate of Inspection

(B) depends on the number of lifejackets you carry
(C) is the number authorized in the Navigation Rules
(D) is the number authorized by your credential
1784. (2.8.2.3A-32) What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "G"?
o
o
(A) barrel hitch

(B) timber hitch
(C) fisherman's bend
(D) round turn and two half hitches
1785. (2.7.1-10) A passenger vessel is underway. When may passengers visit the pilothouse?
o
o
(A) Passengers are permitted in the pilothouse when they are escorted by a ship's officer.
(B) Passengers are permitted in the pilothouse during daylight hours only.
(C) Passengers are excluded from the pilothouse while underway.
(D) Passengers are permitted to visit the pilothouse when authorized by the Master and officer of
the watch.

Deck General
September 2015
1786. (2.7.1-11) How many means of escape must be provided from passenger areas on a passenger
vessel of 500 GT?
o
o
o
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Two, unless there is an elevator provided
1787. (2.7.3.5-4) A small passenger vessel operating on exposed or partially protected waters may not
have a port light below the weather deck unless __________.
o
o
o
(A) its sill is at least 30 inches above the deepest load waterline
(B) it is made of thick transparent plastic
(C) it opens and has a solid, inside, hinged cover
(D) it is sealed shut
1788. (2.7.1-12) According to the regulations for passenger vessels, a "motor vessel" is one which is
propelled by machinery other than steam and is more than __________.
o
o
o
(A) 16 ft. in length

(B) 34 ft. in length
(C) 45 ft. in length
(D) 65 ft. in length
1789. (2.7.3.2-25) Which type of fire extinguishers are permitted on inspected vessels? (small
o
o
o
(A) Foam
(B) Dry chemical
(C) Carbon dioxide
1790. (2.8.2.2-9) What minimum size manila line is required to hold a weight of 932 pounds, if you use
a safety factor of six?
o
o
o
(A) 2.0"
(B) 2.5"
(C) 3.0"
(D) 3.5"

Deck General
September 2015
1791. (2.7.1-13) A passenger vessel in river service which operates in fresh water at least 6 out of
every 12 months since the last dry dock examination must be dry-docked at intervals not to exceed
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 12 months
(B) 24 months
(C) 48 months
(D) 60 months
1792. (2.7.1-16) When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the means of communication between
the pilothouse and the engine room on a passenger vessel shall be tested by an officer of the vessel
within a period of not more than how many hours prior to departure?
o
o
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 24
1793. (2.8.2.3A-28) Which letter shown in illustration D030DG below represents a clove hitch?
o
o
o
(A) R
(B) U
(C) T
(D) X
1794. (2.7.3.5-5) On small passenger vessels each inlet or discharge pipe penetrating the hull less
than six inches above the deepest load waterline __________.
o
o
o
(A) except for engine exhausts must have a means to prevent water from entering the vessel if
the pipe fails
(B) must have a check valve to prevent water from entering
(C) must be fitted with a gate valve
(D) must be sealed
1795. (2.8.2.4B-2) Which type of line will stretch the most when under strain?
o
o
(A) Dacron
(B) Polypropylene
(C) Nylon
(D) Manila

Deck General
September 2015
1796. (2.7.2-1) On small passenger vessels after loading and prior to departure, the master shall
determine the vessel complies with allI stability requirements in which of these documents?
o
o
o
(A) Load Line Certificate

(C) stability letter
1797. (2.7.3.1-1) Small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross registered tons must be inspected by
the Coast Guard when they carry more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
(A) 50 passengers
(B) 12 passengers
(C) 6 passengers
(D) 1 passenger
1798. (2.7.3.6-41) Life floats and buoyant apparatus may be stowed in tiers, one above the other, to a
height of not more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) 3 feet
(B) 4 feet
(C) 5 feet
(D) 6 feet
1799. (2.7.3.8-55) Spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks on small
passenger vessels should have ventilator ducts that extend to the bilges because __________.
o
o
(A) oil and water mix there

(B) it prevents air from entering or leaving the space
(C) Gasoline vapors are heavier than air, tend to settle in the bilges, and create an explosion
hazard
(D) air is heavier than gas fumes
1800. (2.8.2.3B-8) What is a "square knot" used for?

o
o
o
(A) keeping line from unlaying or fraying

(B) joining two lines of different size
(C) forming temporary eyes in lines
(D) joining two lines of equal size

Deck General
September 2015
1801. (2.7.3.1-2) According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the definition of a ferry includes vessels that
__________.
o
o
o
(A) operate on a short run on a frequent schedule between two points over the most direct water
route
(B) have provisions only for deck passengers, vehicles, or both
(C) operate in other than ocean or coastwise service
1802. (2.7.3.2-2) The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by
applying the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Any or a combination of the above criteria

(B) "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space along the vessel's sides and transom
for each passenger
(C) "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every 10 square feet of deck space
available for passenger use
(D) "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space for each passenger to rest his/her
buttocks upon
1803. (2.7.3.6-54) Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.

o
o
o
(A) may be substituted for 10 percent of the required life preservers

(B) may be used by boat crews and line handlers during lifeboat drills
(C) should be stowed adjacent to lifeboats and emergency stations
(D) should be used when carrying out duties near a weather deck's edge
1804. (2.7.3.1-3) Unless otherwise stated, the term "approved" applied to a vessel's equipment, means
approved by the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) Commandant of the Coast Guard

(B) Congress of the United States
(D) Board of Fire Underwriters
1805. (2.7.3.1-4) In the regulations that apply to small passenger vessels an "open boat" is a vessel
__________.
o
o
(A) that is used for charter fishing or tours and is open to the public
(B) that is docked and open for visitors
(C) that is not protected from entry of water by means of a complete weathertight deck
(D) on which gambling and consumption of alcoholic beverages is permitted

Deck General
September 2015
1806. (2.7.3.9-17) According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) reduce voltage to the branch circuits

(B) prevent overloading the circuits
(C) permit the use of smaller wiring for lighting circuits
(D) allow for cutting out branch circuits
1807. (2.7.3.10-3) As appropriate for the voyage, all vessels must carry adequate and up-to-date
o
o
o
(A) Coast Pilots

(B) charts
(C) Light Lists
1808. (2.7.3.10-6) On small passenger vessels cooking and heating equipment __________.
o
o
o
(A) shall be suitable for marine use

(B) cannot use gasoline
(C) may use liquefied petroleum gas
1809. (2.8.2.1-20) What should be readily available on deck while seamen are working over the side on
a stage?
o
o
o
(A) Fire extinguisher

(B) Stokes basket
(C) First aid kit
(D) Ring buoy
1810. (2.7.3.11-1) A "T-Boat" accident resulting in loss of life, serious injury or more than $25,000
property damage must be reported to __________.
o
o
o
(A) the Coast Guard

(B) the owner or his insurance agent
(C) the Maritime Administration (MARAD)

Deck General
September 2015
1811. (2.7.3.11-4) Who shall test every small passenger vessel's steering gear prior to getting
underway for the day's operations?
o
o
o
(A) a Mate or Designated Duty Engineer

(B) the Master
(C) the Mate on watch
(D) a credential Engineer
1812. (2.7.3.8-41) According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, where practicable carburetor drip collectors
should drain to __________.
o
o
o
(A) the fuel tanks

(B) a separate pipe leading to the bilges
(C) a suitable absorbent material
(D) the engine air intakes
1813. (2.7.3.5-7) On small passenger vessels, which material must not be used in a valve or fitting for a
hull penetration?
o
o
o
(A) Cast iron

(B) Stainless steel
(C) Cast bronze
(D) Plastic
1814. (2.8.2.3A-22) Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a barrel hitch?
o
o
o
(A) O
(B) P
(C) U
(D) E
1815. (2.7.3.8-36) Gasoline fuel tanks on small passenger vessels must be installed __________.
o
o
(A) in a cool and insulated place

(B) so the fuel line to the engine leads from a shut-off valve at the bottom of the tank
(C) independent of the hull
(D) on a level higher than the engine

Deck General
September 2015
1816. (2.7.3.11-5) The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a small passenger vessel involved
in a marine casualty is NOT required to notify the Coast Guard in cases where there is __________.
o
o
o
(A) property damage less than $25,000

(B) death or injury to a shipyard worker or harbor worker not resulting from the vessel casualty
(C) no injury which requires more than first aid treatment
1817. (2.7.3.2-9) When a vessel is not in compliance with its Certificate of Inspection, which certificate
may be issued to allow its movement to a repair facility? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
(A) Temporary Certificate of Inspection

(B) Application for Inspection
(C) Permit to Proceed
(D) Change of Employment
1818. (2.7.3.8-28) A carburetor is required to have a safety device called a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) pressure release

(B) backfire flame arrestor
(C) automatic shut off
(D) flow valve
1819. (2.7.3.11-6) The Master of a small passenger vessel fitted with loading doors must ensure that
the doors are closed, watertight and secured __________.
o
o
(A) at all times, at the dock or underway when the loading door is not actually being used for
passage
(B) when leaving the dock
(C) at all times when underway unless operating on protected or partially protected waters
(D) when loading cargo
1820. (2.7.3.11-8) The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct sufficient drills and give
sufficient instruction as necessary __________.
o
o
o
(A) To ensure that all crew members are familiar with their duties during emergencies
(B) At each crew change
(C) Every week
(D) Every month

Deck General
September 2015
1821. (2.7.3.6-37) Life floats must be equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) paddles
(B) a sea anchor
(C) an EPIRB
(D) a signal mirror
1822. (2.7.3.11-11) A documented vessel's name is marked on a clearly visible exterior area of both
sides of the bow and on the stern in block letters not less than __________.
o
o
(A) 6 inches in height

(B) 5 inches in height
(C) 4 inches in height
(D) 3 inches in height
1823. (2.7.3.7-7) On vessels that are required to have fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems,
the controls to operate the system shall be installed in an accessible location __________. (small
o
o
o
(A) outside the space protected

(B) at the carbon dioxide cylinders
(C) in a padlocked waterproof metal box
(D) inside the space protected
1824. (2.8.2.3B-30) The "rolling hitch" could be used to __________.

o
o
o
(A) join two lines of different sizes

(B) join two lines of equal sizes
(C) add strength to a weak spot in a line
(D) act as a stopper to transfer a line under strain
1825. (2.7.3.11-12) On a documented small passenger vessel, what information must be permanently
affixed in block-type letters and/or numerals to the main beam or other clearly visible interior
structural part of the hull?
o
o
o
(A) The vessel's official number

(B) Draft markings
(C) The vessel's name and home port
(D) The vessel's name and gross tonnage

Deck General
September 2015
1826. (2.7.3.6-27) For emergency communications, vessels operating on oceans, coastwise, or Great
Lakes routes, on runs of more than 30 minutes shall carry in a portable watertight container at or
near the operating station __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) one 3-cell flashlight

(B) six red hand flare distress signals
(C) six orange hand smoke distress signals
(D) six red hand flare distress signals and six orange hand smoke distress signals
1827. (2.7.3.8-40) On small passenger vessels what device must you install under carburetors, other
than the downdraft type, to allow ready removal of fuel leakage?
o
o
o
(A) Suitable absorbent material

(B) A sponge
(C) A funnel and a tin can
(D) A drip collector
1828. (2.7.3.11-13) A small passenger vessel's Official Number must be marked___________.

o
o
o
(A) or mounted so that any alteration, removal, or replacement would be obvious

(B) on some clearly visible interior structural hull part
(C) in block type Arabic numerals not less than 3 inches high
1829. (2.7.3.8-62) Hand tillers are only accepted as an auxiliary means of steering if __________.
o
o
o
(A) they are not operated through a reduction gear

(B) they are found satisfactory by the cognizant OCMI
(C) they are at least 6 feet long
(D) Both A and C above
1830. (2.7.3.6-14) What is FALSE concerning the use of unicellular plastic foam work vests on small
passenger vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) They shall be of an approved type.

(B) They may be substituted for up to 50% of the required life jackets.
(C) They shall be stowed separately from required lifesaving equipment.
(D) They may be worn by crew members when working near or over the water.

Deck General
September 2015
1831. (2.7.3.11-15) According to the "T-Boat" regulations, the permanent marks placed on each side of
a vessel forward, aft, and amidships to indicate the maximum allowable draft and trim are called
__________.
o
o
o
(A) the air draft

(B) Plimsoll marks
(C) depth marks
(D) loading marks
1832. (2.7.3.11-17) All life jackets and life buoys shall be marked with the vessel's name in letters at
least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) Height not specified

(B) 1 inch high
(C) 1/2 inch high
(D) 1-1/2 inches high
1833. (2.7.3.11-18) The Master of a vessel shall make sure the EPIRB is tested __________. (small
o
o
o
(A) daily
(B) weekly
(C) every two weeks
(D) monthly
1834. (2.8.1-2) What is a grapnel?

o
o
o
(A) hook to prevent the anchor cable from slipping

(B) device used to drag for a submerged cable or line
(C) device for securing a chain topping lift
(D) type of clam bucket used for discharging bulk cargo
1835. (2.7.3.11-21) Who is required to prepare and post Emergency Instructions in a conspicuous
place accessible to crew and passengers? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) The U.S. Coast Guard

(B) The classification society
(C) The builder of the vessel
(D) The owner or Master of the vessel

Deck General
September 2015
1836. (2.7.3.11-22) On board small passenger vessels, how often shall the Master test the steering
gear?
o
o
o
(A) Before getting underway for the day's operations

(B) Every 72 operating hours while underway
(C) Once a month
(D) Once a week
1837. (2.7.3.11-24) Which information are you required to report to the Coast Guard when an accident
occurs in which loss of life results? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) Number and name of vessel

(B) Location of the occurrence
(C) Names of owners
1838. (2.7.3.11-25) When would it NOT be necessary to immediately notify the U.S. Coast Guard?
o
o
o
(A) Loss of life

(B) Injury to a person which requires medical treatment beyond first aid
(C) Major damage affecting the seaworthiness of a vessel
(D) Damage amounting to $2,000
1839. (2.8.2.3A-5) Which knot in illustration D030DG below should be used to secure a line to a spar
when the pull is perpendicular to the spar?
o
o
o
(A) E
(B) F
(C) N
(D) P
1840. (2.7.3.2-29) At each initial and subsequent inspection for certification, all carbon dioxide fire
extinguishers aboard a vessel are __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
(A) checked for pressure loss

(B) discharged and recharged
(C) weighed
(D) sent ashore to an approved service facility

Deck General
September 2015
1841. (2.7.3.2-3) No "T-boat", however propelled, may operate with more than six passengers onboard
__________.
o
o
o
(A) until the Boarding Officer has checked the papers

(B) unless the vessel has a valid Permit to Proceed
(C) until a permit is obtained from the Collector of Customs
(D) unless the operator has a Coast Guard Credential
1842. (2.7.3.2-4) A damaged "T-Boat" that is unable to meet the requirements of its Certificate of
Inspection but is able to travel to a shipyard under its own power should __________.
o
o
(A) hire a tug and pilot instead

(B) get underway as soon as possible
(C) make the trip only after obtaining a "Permit to Proceed to Another Port for Repair", Form CG948
(D) request an Expiration Certificate if the vessel displays a tendency to sink
1843. (2.7.3.2-5) On vessels subject to 46 CFR Subchapter T, Certification Expiration Date Stickers
__________.
o
o
o
(A) must be placed on glass or other smooth surfaces where they may be removed without
damage to the vessel
(B) are issued along with a valid Certificate of Inspection (COI) to indicate the date the COI
expires
(C) must be readily visible to each passenger prior to boarding and to patrolling Coast Guard law
enforcement personnel
1844. (2.7.3.8-22) In addition to a portable hand-operated bilge pump, a 55 foot long ferry must have a
fixed power operated bilge pump capable of pumping at least __________.
o
o
(A) 5 GPM
(B) 10 GPM
(C) 25 GPM
(D) 50 GPM

Deck General
September 2015
1845. (2.7.3.2-23) Before issuing an initial Certificate of Inspection, the construction arrangement and
equipment of a vessel must be acceptable to the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) American Bureau of Shipping Surveyor

(B) Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
(C) U.S. Salvage Marine Surveyor
(D) U.S. Customs Collector
1846. (2.7.3.6-20) A vessel carrying passengers for hire shall have on board an approved life jacket
o
o
o
(A) for every person on board, plus 10% childrens life jackets
(B) or buoyant cushion for every person on board plus 10% for children
(C) for every passenger on board
(D) for every person on board, plus 10% additional on upper deck in box
1847. (2.7.3.2-7) A SOLAS passenger ship safety certificate is required on all __________.
o
o
(A) T-Boats carrying more than 49 passengers for hire

(B) large excursion vessels on lakes, bays, sounds, and river routes
(C) T-Boats that carry more than 12 passengers on an international voyage
(D) T-Boats carrying more than 150 passengers for hire
1848. (2.7.3.2-10) A Certificate of Inspection issued to a small passenger vessel describes

__________.
o
o
o
(A) the minimum fire extinguishing equipment, lifejackets, survival and rescue craft she must
carry
(B) the name of the managing operator
(C) any special conditions or restrictions on her operation
(D) All the above
1849. (2.7.3.8-52) On small passenger vessels, drains or outlets for drawing off diesel fuel from water
traps or strainers __________.
o
o
o
(A) are permitted

(B) must be extended to an external area of the hull
(C) must be located at the lowest portion of the tank
(D) must have only a gravity-forced flow

Deck General
September 2015
1850. (2.7.3.2-13) The Certificate of Inspection issued to a vessel carrying more than six passengers
must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
(A) kept on file by the Collector of Customs

(B) retained at the owner's principal place of business
(C) posted on board under glass, if practical
(D) posted on the dock where passengers are embarked
1851. (2.7.3.2-15) How do you know how many passengers you may carry? (small passenger vessel
regulations)
o
o
o
(A) The amount on the Certificate of Inspection

(B) As many as possible
(C) Use your own judgment
(D) No more than 40 passengers
1852. (2.7.3.2-17) A small passenger vessel, operating only on domestic routes, which is operated in
salt water for more than three months in a year must undergo a dry dock and internal structural
examination at least once every __________.
o
o
o
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years
1853. (2.7.3.2-21) The inspection of a 50 ft. vessel of 65 gross tons carrying more than twelve
passengers on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard once in every __________.
o
o
o
(A) four years with a minimum of three re-inspections during the four year period
(B) two years
(C) three years with a minimum of two re-inspections during the three year period
(D) year
1854. (2.7.3.8-57) On small passenger vessels, how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in
each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?
o
o
o
(A) 1 of each
(B) 2 of each
(C) 3 of each
(D) 4 of each

Deck General
September 2015
1855. (2.7.3.6-39) On a life float or buoyant apparatus, the life line is __________. (small passenger
vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) woven into a net and secured in the center of the float
(B) secured around the sides and ends in bights of not longer than three feet
(C) the lanyard for securing provisions
(D) used for securing unconscious persons to the sides
1856. (2.7.3.2-24) Which circumstance concerning an inspected passenger vessel would require
knowledge and approval of the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection? (small passenger vessel
regulations)
o
o
o
(A) A minor overhaul of the propulsion machinery

(B) The removal of a watertight bulkhead
(C) Renewal of a FCC Certificate for a radiotelephone
1857. (2.7.3.8-50) On board small passenger vessels, fittings used in a gasoline supply line must be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) an asbestos covered type

(B) an interlocking type
(C) a silver-soldered type
(D) made of non-ferrous metal, and be a flare or non-bite flareless type
1858. (2.7.3.6-29) Which vessel is required to carry a Category I, 406 MHz EPIRB installed to
automatically float free and activate? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
(A) A vessel operating within 3 miles from the coastline in the Gulf of Mexico.
(B) A vessel operating exclusively on inland waters.
(C) A vessel operating beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes.
(D) A vessel operating on the ocean within 5 miles from the coastline.
1859. (2.8.2.2-5) Using a safety factor of five, determine the safe working load of a line with a breaking
strain of 20,000 pounds.
o
o
o
(A) 4,000
(B) 5,000
(C) 20,000
(D) 100,000

Deck General
September 2015
1860. (2.7.3.7-6) Which portable fire extinguisher is required just outside the exit of the propulsion
machinery space of a 75-ton passenger vessel?
o
o
o
(A) 2 lb. dry chemical extinguisher

(B) 15 lb. CO2 extinguisher
(C) 2-1/2 gallon foam extinguisher
1861. (2.7.3.2-26) A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss
exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) One percent

(B) Five percent
(C) Seven percent
(D) Ten percent
1862. (2.7.3.2-27) The premixed foam agent in fixed and semiportable fire extinguishing systems
should be replaced __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
(A) every 18 months

(B) every 12 months
(C) every 36 months
(D) only when used
1863. (2.7.3.3-2) On small passenger vessels bunks installed in overnight passenger accommodation
spaces __________.
o
o
o
(A) must be immediately adjacent to an aisle leading to a means of escape

(B) must be no less than 74" long and 24" wide with 24" of clear space above
(C) must not be located more than 3 high, fitted with a suitable aid to access bunks more than 5'
above deck with suitable aids to access bunks more than 5' above deck
1864. (2.7.3.6-9) Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from
the coastline of the Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB that __________.
o
o
(A) is in good operating condition and is stowed near its charger

(B) is protected against all physical hazards
(C) will float free and clear of a sinking vessel and automatically activate

Deck General
September 2015
1865. (2.8.2.2-1) What is the breaking strain of steel wire rope with a 5/8" diameter?
o
o
(A) 1.0 tons

(B) 6.6 tons
(C) 9.6 tons
(D) 15.6 tons
1866. (2.7.3.8-34) Which device is required to be installed under the carburetor of a gasoline engine?
o
o
o
(A) Flame arrestor ONLY

(B) Box of sawdust
(C) Vent
(D) Drip collector
1867. (2.7.3.3-3) What is the minimum height of rails on passenger decks of ferryboats, excursion
vessels, and vessels of a similar type? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
(A) 18 inches (.5 m) high

(B) 24 inches (.6 m) high
(C) 39-1/2 inches (1 m) high
(D) 42 inches (1.1 m) high
1868. (2.7.3.7-3) On a small passenger vessel, 58 feet in length, carrying 52 passengers the fire pump
shall have a minimum pumping capacity of __________.
o
o
(A) 25 gallons per minute

(B) 10 gallons per minute
(C) 50 gallons per minute
(D) 100 gallons per minute
1869. (2.7.3.4-1) Fixed ballast, if used, may be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
(A) moved under any condition except extreme emergency

(B) discharged or moved at any time
(C) moved temporarily for examination or repair of the vessel, when done under the supervision
of an inspector
(D) moved under the supervision of the owner, Master or shipyard

Deck General
September 2015
1870. (2.7.3.5-2) A small passenger vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision
bulkhead if it __________.
o
o
o
(A) carries more than 49 passengers

(B) is more than 40 feet in length and operates on partially exposed waters
(C) operates on exposed waters
1871. (2.7.3.5-3) Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a small passenger vessel less
than 100 gross tons must __________.
o
o
o
(A) not contain sluice valves that allow water to flow freely from one watertight compartment to
another
(B) have some means to make them watertight
(C) be kept as high and as far inboard as possible
1872. (2.7.3.5-6) On a small passenger vessel, if an inlet or discharge pipe is not accessible, its shut
off valve __________.
o
o
o
(A) must be operable from the weather deck

(B) must be labeled at its operating point to show its identity and direction of closing
(C) may be operable from any accessible location above the bulkhead deck
1873. (2.7.3.5-8) All inlet and discharge fittings below the waterline shall have __________. (small
o
o
o
(A) an efficient and accessible means of closing

(B) a blank-off flange of similar material
(C) cast-iron shut-off valves
(D) a wooden plug with a 36 inch lanyard
1874. (2.7.3.5-9) What is correct with respect to required watertight bulkheads on small passenger
vessels less than 100 GT?
o
o
o
(A) Sluice valves are not permitted.

(B) Penetrations are prohibited.
(C) Each bulkhead must be stepped at its midpoint.

Deck General
September 2015
1875. (2.7.3.5-10) Hatches on small passenger vessels operating on exposed waters and exposed to
the weather __________.
o
o
o
(A) must be watertight

(B) need not be watertight
(C) must be open at all times
1876. (2.7.3.6-51) Which statement is True for lifejackets on a small passenger vessel?
o
o
o

(B) stowed in locked compartments
(C) tested yearly
(D) readily accessible
1877. (2.7.3.6-53) U.S.C.G. approved buoyant work vests are considered to be items of safety
equipment and may be worn by members of the crew __________.
o
o
o
(A) in lieu of life preservers during an actual emergency

(B) in lieu of life preservers during boat drills
(C) in lieu of life preservers during fire drills
(D) when carrying out duties near a weather deck's edge
1878. (2.8.2.1-7) You are preparing to slush a stay on your vessel by lowering yourself down the stay in
a bosun's chair. The proper way to do this is to ride down the stay on a riding shackle __________.
o
o
o
(A) with the pin of the shackle riding on the stay

(B) with the pin of the shackle through the chair's bridle eye
(C) with a hook attaching the chair to the riding shackle
(D) connected to a second shackle on the chair
1879. (2.7.3.8-37) On small passenger vessels gasoline tanks must be __________.

o
o
o
(A) built without flanged-up top edges

(B) fitted with vertical baffle plates if the tank is longer than 30 inches in any horizontal dimension
(C) electrically bonded to a common ground

Deck General
September 2015
1880. (2.7.3.6-2) Electric generators can be protected against overload __________.

o
o
o
(A) by using heavy wire

(B) with fuses or circuit breakers
(C) with a governor on the engine
(D) with switches
1881. (2.7.3.8-46) On small passenger vessels, cooling water for the exhaust lines from an internal
combustion engine must be __________.
o
o
o
(A) flushed and changed periodically

(B) obtained from a fresh water storage tank or an expansion tank
(C) chemically treated to prevent corrosion
(D) obtained from the engine's cooling water system or from a separate engine-driven pump
1882. (2.7.3.8-14) When a vessel is required to have a power-driven fire pump, the pump may also be
used for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) the drinking water supply system

(B) the bilge pump
(C) engine cooling water
1883. (2.7.3.6-3) Painters fitted to life floats and buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 49 or less
persons must __________.
o
o
o
(A) be made of 90 feet of 3/8" nylon

(B) be of manila rope or equivalent, not less than two inches in circumference and not less than
four fathoms long
(C) be at least 100 feet long and have a breaking strength of 3,000 lbs.
(D) be 100 feet long and have a breaking strength of at least 1500 lbs.
1884. (2.7.3.6-4) You must ensure that lifesaving equipment is __________.

o
o
(A) on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times

(B) inaccessible to passengers
(C) readily accessible for use
(D) locked up

Deck General
September 2015
1885. (2.7.3.6-6) Small passenger vessels on rivers routes in cold water must be provided with life
floats of an aggregate capacity to accommodate __________.
o
o
(A) not less than 50% of all passengers on board at the time
(B) 25% of the crew and 50% of all passengers allowed to be carried
(C) at least 50% of all persons on board or meet certain construction standards
(D) All persons on board (100% of all passengers and crew)
1886. (2.7.3.9-16) On board small passenger vessels, storage batteries containing an electrolyte must
be set in trays constructed of __________.
o
o
o
(A) a material resistant to damage by the electrolyte

(B) a porous material that permits drainage of any acid overflow
(C) a fireproof material
(D) suitably strong to hold the weight of the batteries
1887. (2.7.3.6-7) With certain exceptions a suitable rescue boat is required __________.
o
o
o
(A) on most "T-Boats" regardless of length

(B) on most "T-Boats" more than 65 feet in length
(C) only on "K-Boats"
1888. (2.7.3.8-19) Aboard a 60 foot long small passenger vessel (other than a ferry) which is
certificated to carry 33 persons, the minimum capacity required per bilge pump is __________.
o
o
o

1889. (2.7.3.6-10) Which small passenger vessel(s) is/are NOT required to carry a Category 1 406
MHz EPIRB?
o
o
o
(A) A vessel operating on lakes, bays, sounds, and rivers

(B) A vessel operating within three miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes
(C) A coastwise vessel whose route does not take it more than three miles from shore

Deck General
September 2015
1890. (2.7.3.6-11) Distress flares and smoke signals for small passenger vessels __________.
o
o
o
(A) are not required aboard vessels on runs of less than 30 minutes duration
(B) must be Coast Guard approved and stowed in a portable, watertight container
(C) must be marked with an expiration date not more than 42 months from the date of
manufacture
1891. (2.7.3.6-12) Ring life buoys used aboard a small passenger vessels on oceans or coastwise
routes are required to be what color?
o
o
o
(A) White or international orange

(B) White
(C) Any highly visible color easily seen from the air
(D) Orange
1892. (2.7.3.6-13) Small passenger vessels not limited to service during daylight hours must carry
__________.
o
o
(A) a radar maintained in good operating condition

(B) a collision bulkhead
(C) at least one floating water light
(D) a white 20 point anchor light
1893. (2.7.3.6-15) Regulations require that approved buoyant work vests __________. (small
o
o
o
(A) may be substituted for 10% of the required life jackets

(B) shall be stowed separately from the required life jackets
(C) may not be carried on inspected vessels
(D) shall be stowed in a place inaccessible to passengers
1894. (2.7.3.6-17) When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least
o
o
(A) 120 feet long

(B) 90 feet long
(C) 60 feet long
(D) 30 feet long

Deck General
September 2015
1895. (2.7.3.6-19) Which of these approved lifesaving devices must a small passenger vessel carrying
passengers for hire carry for each person on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
(A) Buoyant vest

(B) Buoyant cushion
(C) Life jacket
(D) Ring buoy
1896. (2.7.3.8-54) On small passenger vessels how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in
each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?
o
o
(A) 4 of each
(B) 3 of each
(C) 2 of each
(D) 1 of each
1897. (2.7.3.6-21) Unless the COI is endorsed for adults only, there shall be provided a number of
approved life jackets suitable for children equal to at least __________. (small passenger vessel
regulations)
o
o
o
(A) 20% of the total number of persons carried

(B) 20% of the passengers carried
(C) 10% of the passengers carried
(D) 10% of the total number of persons carried
1898. (2.7.3.6-24) Aboard small passenger vessels the number of childrens life jackets carried must be
at least what percentage of the total number of persons aboard?
o
o
(A) 4%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
1899. (2.7.3.6-25) The number of approved adult life jackets that shall be carried is equal to
o
o
o
(A) 90% of the number of persons listed in the vessel's Certificate of Inspection
(B) the number of persons on board at the time
(C) 120% of the number of persons listed in the vessel's Certificate of Inspection
(D) 90% of the number of persons on board at the time

Deck General
September 2015
1900. (2.7.3.6-26) Distress flares and smoke signals are not required on vessels operating on short
runs. A "short run" is limited to __________. (small passenger vessel regulation)
o
o
o
(A) water of less than 20 feet in depth

(B) no more than 5 miles
(C) where land is always in sight
(D) about 30 minutes away from the dock
1901. (2.7.3.6-31) How many ring life buoys must a small passenger vessel, of less than 65 feet in
length, carry?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
1902. (2.7.3.6-33) Painters on life floats shall be not less than __________. (small passenger vessel
regulations)
o
o
o
(A) 20 feet in length

(B) 30 feet in length
(C) 70 feet in length
(D) 100 feet in length
1903. (2.7.3.6-34) What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) Water-light, painter, and signal mirror

(B) Two paddles, a light, painter, lifeline and pendants
(C) Two paddles, painter, and six red flares
(D) Water-light and painter only
1904. (2.7.3.6-35) Which equipment is not required for a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) Paddles
(B) Compass
(C) Light
(D) Painter

Deck General
September 2015
1905. (2.7.3.6-36) Each life float on an inspected vessel shall be fitted and equipped with __________.
o
o
(A) two paddles, a light, and a lifeline

(B) a lifeline, a painter, and one paddle
(C) two paddles, a light, a lifeline, a painter and pendants
(D) a lifeline, a painter, and a water light
1906. (2.7.3.6-38) Life floats and buoyant apparatus shall be marked __________. (small passenger
vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) the number of persons capacity the device is equipped for

(B) with the vessel's name
(C) with the vessel's name on all paddles
1907. (2.7.3.6-40) Buoyant apparatus are required to be fitted or equipped with all of the following
equipment EXCEPT __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
(A) water lights

(B) painters
(C) paddles
(D) life lines
1908. (2.7.3.6-42) Survival craft required on a steel small passenger vessel operating in cold water
must __________.
o
o
o
(A) be only inflatable liferafts

(B) international orange in color only for vessels in lakes, bays and sounds service
(C) have sufficient capacity for at least 50% of all persons on board for vessels in ocean service
(D) have sufficient capacity for all persons on board the vessel in ocean service.
1909. (2.7.3.6-43) A wooden small passenger vessel operating on a coastwise route in cold water shall
carry sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for _____________ or meet alternate requirements
regarding collision bulkhead standards and the provision of life floats.(small passenger vessel
regulations)
o
o
o
(A) all persons aboard

(B) 67% of the total number of persons permitted on board.
(C) 50% of all persons aboard
(D) 30% of all persons aboard

Deck General
September 2015
1910. (2.7.3.9-2) The purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to __________.

o
o
(A) permit the use of smaller wiring for lighting circuits

(B) reduce voltage to the branch circuits
(C) prevent overloading the circuits
(D) allow for cutting out branch circuits
1911. (2.7.3.6-44) Vessels in ocean service shall carry sufficient life floats for __________. (small
o
o
o
(A) 25% of all persons on board

(B) 50% of all persons on board
(C) 75% of all persons on board
(D) 100% of all persons on board
1912. (2.7.3.6-45) Vessels in ocean service shall carry __________. (small passenger vessel
regulations)
o
o
o
(A) sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for all persons on board

(B) life floats for 50% of all persons on board
(C) buoyant apparatus for all persons on board
(D) life jackets for 50% of all persons on board
1913. (2.7.3.8-16) When water-cooled engines are installed on small passenger vessels, the cooling
system __________.
o
o
o
(A) pump must operate whenever the engine is operating

(B) must have a suitable hull strainer in the raw water intake
(C) may use a closed fresh water system
1914. (2.7.3.6-46) Vessels operating in warm water whose routes are restricted to 20 miles from a
harbor of safe refuge shall carry life floats or buoyant apparatus for not less than __________. (small
o
o
o
(A) 100% of all persons on board

(B) 25% of all persons on board
(C) 75% of all persons on board
(D) 50% of all persons on board

Deck General
September 2015
1915. (2.7.3.6-49) Small passenger vessels in coastwise service must carry approved __________.
o
o
o
(A) inflatable buoyant apparatus

(B) inflatable liferafts
(C) life floats
1916. (2.7.3.6-50) What is the minimum length of a life floats paddle on a small passenger vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Four feet

(B) Six feet
(C) Three feet
(D) Five feet
1917. (2.7.3.6-52) Lifesaving equipment shall be stowed so that it will be __________.

o
o
(A) on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times

(B) locked up
(C) readily accessible for use
(D) inaccessible to passengers
1918. (2.7.3.6-56) Required lifesaving equipment on existing vessels may be continued in use on the
vessel if __________.
o
o
o
(A) inspected and serviced every 6 months

(B) maintained in good and serviceable condition
(C) destroyed if more than 5 years old
(D) kept on board no more than 2 years
1919. (2.7.3.6-57) The life jackets on all vessels shall be __________.

o
o

(B) worn at all times
(C) readily available
(D) tested yearly

Deck General
September 2015
1920. (2.7.3.6-59) When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 30 feet long

(B) 60 feet long
(C) 90 feet long
(D) 120 feet long
1921. (2.7.3.7-1) Your vessel must have a B-II fire extinguisher. Which extinguisher fulfills this
requirement? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
(A) 4 lb. carbon dioxide

(B) 4 lb. dry chemical
(C) 15 lb. carbon dioxide
(D) 12 gallon foam
1922. (2.7.3.7-5) Which statement is TRUE concerning fire hose on a small passenger vessel?
o
o
(A) One length of fire hose shall be provided for every two fire hydrants.
(B) Fire hose shall be at least 3/4" outside diameter.
(C) A length of hose with nozzle attached shall be attached to each fire hydrant at all times.
(D) All fittings on hoses shall be of steel or other ferrous metal.
1923. (2.7.3.7-8) How many portable fire extinguishers are required to be located inside the machinery
space of a small passenger vessel?
o
o
o
(A) None are required

(B) One B-I, C-I
(C) One B-II, C-II
(D) One B-II
1924. (2.7.3.7-9) Fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems shall be installed to protect enclosed
machinery and fuel tank spaces of all vessels using gasoline or other fuel having a flash point of
o
o
o
(A) 0F or lower
(B) 75F or lower
(C) 90F or lower
(D) 110F or lower

Deck General
September 2015
1925. (2.7.3.7-10) If your vessel is required to have a fire ax on board, where should it be located?
o
o
o
(A) In below-decks passenger accommodations

(B) In or adjacent to the primary operating station
(C) In the galley near the stove
(D) Just outside the engine room access
1926. (2.7.3.8-45) Air-cooled gasoline auxiliary engines are allowed on vessels not more than 65 feet in
length, carrying not more than 12 passengers if __________.
o
o
o
(A) they have a self-contained fuel system and are installed on an open deck
(B) it is not practicable to supply water to the engine
(C) they are rated at not more than 4.5 horsepower
1927. (2.7.3.8-3) What is required for a dry exhaust pipe? (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) A rain spray and spray cap

(B) Noncombustible hangers and supports
(C) An automatic damper
(D) Insulation from combustible material
1928. (2.7.3.8-5) Which is/are required for engine exhaust pipe installations on small passenger
vessels?
o
o
o
(A) Piping must be arranged so that water backflow cannot reach the engine exhaust ports
(B) Protection where people or equipment can contact the pipe.
(C) Dry exhaust pipe ending at the transom should be located as far outboard as possible
1929. (2.7.3.8-6) Gasoline fuel tank vents should terminate __________.

o
o
(A) in the fuel tank space

(B) in the engine compartment
(C) above or outside the hull
(D) at the most convenient location

Deck General
September 2015
1930. (2.7.3.8-7) Which statement is TRUE concerning a power driven fire pump on board a small
passenger vessel?
o
o
o
(A) The hand fire pump shall be located adjacent to the main engine spaces.
(B) It may also serve as a bilge pump.
(C) It shall be painted red.
(D) It shall be of at least 2 gallons per minute capacity.
1931. (2.7.3.8-12) What material is allowed in construction of the hull of a vessel with an integral diesel
fuel tank?
o
o
o
(A) Copper-nickel or copper silicon alloys

(B) Steel or aluminum
(C) Sandwich style fiberglass with a natural rubber core
(D) Any or all of the above
1932. (2.7.3.8-13) If it is impractical to use the fill line to sound the fuel tank, then the tank should be
fitted with __________. (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)
o
o
o
(A) A glass tube to visually observe the fuel

(B) An extra five gallon tank for reserve fuel
(C) A good air vent of sufficient diameter
(D) a separate sounding tube or an installed marine type fuel gauge
1933. (2.7.3.8-17) A gasoline fuel tank vent on a small passenger vessel should terminate
__________.
o
o
o
(A) Midway between the fuel tank and the engine

(B) On the hull exterior as high above the waterline as practicable and remote from any hull
opening
(C) As close to the deck plates as possible
(D) Below the waterline to eliminate the accumulation of explosive vapors
1934. (2.7.3.8-18) On small passenger vessels, which device(s) must be fitted to a fuel line's tank
connection?
o
o
o
(A) A shut-off valve

(B) A fuel strainer
(C) A tubular glass gauge to indicate the fuel level

Deck General
September 2015
1935. (2.7.3.8-20) Why is it necessary to extend ventilators of gasoline powered vessels to the bilges?
o
o
o
(A) To remove fuel vapors which are heavier than air

(B) To cool the machinery areas
(C) To keep them dry, and thus easier to clean
(D) To provide adequate air to the engines
1936. (2.7.3.8-21) On board small passenger vessels, fill lines and sounding pipes of gasoline tanks
must extend directly __________.
o
o
o
(A) Midway between the top and bottom of the tank

(B) to within one-half of their diameter from the bottom of the tank
(C) To within one-half foot from the bottom of the tank
(D) To the tank top
1937. (2.7.3.8-24) Your vessel has a gasoline engine and a mechanical exhaust ventilation system.
BEFORE starting the engine, the exhaust blower should be run long enough to __________.
o
o
o
(A) insure at least one complete change of air in the compartments concerned
(B) warm up the exhaust blower motor
(C) see the system is in good operating condition
(D) provide a proper supply of fresh air for the engine(s)
1938. (2.7.3.8-25) A fill pipe for a gasoline tank on board a small passenger vessel must be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) terminated on the weather deck and extend to within one-half of its diameter from the bottom
of the tank
(B) fitted with a suitably marked watertight deck plate or screw cap
(C) arranged so neither liquid gasoline nor its vapors can overflow or escape inside the vessel
1939. (2.7.3.8-26) On board a small passenger vessel, fuel tank vents should __________.
o
o
o
(A) be connected at the highest point in the tank

(B) be installed with an upward gradient to prevent fuel from being trapped in the line
(C) terminate in a U-bend fitted with a single corrosion resistant wire screen of at least 30x30
mesh

Deck General
September 2015
1940. (2.7.3.8-27) Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are _____________,

o
o
(A) permitted for drawing fuel samples

(B) permitted for bleeding air from lines
(C) prohibited
(D) permitted for draining fuel from lines
1941. (2.7.3.8-29) It is recommended that drip collectors required on all updraft carburetors be drained
by __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) no means whatsoever

(B) a device to automatically return all drip to the engine air intakes
(C) a pump leading to a point outside the hull
(D) a separate pipe leading to the bilges
1942. (2.7.3.8-30) Which device is required in the fuel supply line at the engine?
o
o
o
(A) Flow meter

(B) Shut-off valve
(C) Filter
(D) Pressure gauge
1943. (2.7.3.8-31) The shut off valve at the gasoline tank which can be operated from outside the tank
space __________.
o
o
o
(A) shuts off the gasoline supply at the tank

(B) controls the amount of gasoline to the engine
(C) is used if the gasoline tank leaks
1944. (2.7.3.8-32) Vessels required to be equipped with an approved backfire flame arrester are
__________.
o
o
(A) those with large engines only

(B) those with diesel engines
(C) all those with gasoline engines

Deck General
September 2015
1945. (2.7.3.8-33) Air-cooled radiators for gasoline propulsion engine cooling __________. (small
o
o
o
(A) must have a double fan installation

(B) must be approved for marine use
(C) must be filled with fresh water
(D) are permitted on vessels less than 65 feet carrying not more than 12 passengers
1946. (2.7.3.8-38) What do the small passenger vessel regulations require when installing a hydraulic
accumulator or other unfired pressure vessel?
o
o
o
(A) It be installed to the satisfaction of the cognizant OCMI

(B) Safety and/or relief valves settings be checked at two and one half times normal operating
pressures.
(C) It be operated at one and one half times normal operating pressure for ten minutes.
1947. (2.7.3.8-58) On small passenger vessels, all spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or
gasoline storage tanks must be ventilated with __________.
o
o
o
(A) natural air supply and mechanical exhaust fans

(B) mechanical air supply fans and natural exhaust
(C) cowls and scoops which can be closed during foul weather
(D) air conditioning to control moisture
1948. (2.7.3.8-43) ABYC equipment standards are published by the __________.

o
o
(A) American Boat and Yacht Convention 1991

(B) American Boat and Yacht Club
(C) American Boat and Yacht Council
(D) Association of Boat and Yacht Classifiers
1949. (2.7.3.8-44) On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline
powered machinery must be __________.
o
o
o
(A) ignition protected for use in a gasoline atmosphere

(B) intrinsically safe
(C) explosion-proof

Deck General
September 2015
1950. (2.7.3.8-51) On small passenger vessels, when may a flexible hose be used in gasoline or diesel
fuel lines?
o
o
o
(A) In diesel installations only

(B) In both diesel and gasoline installations
(C) In neither diesel nor gasoline installations
(D) In gasoline installations only
1951. (2.7.3.8-53) On small passenger vessels, outlets in fuel lines are permitted __________.
o
o
o
(A) to tap fuel for cleaning parts and engine wash down
(B) under no circumstances in gasoline installations
(C) for inspection purposes only
(D) to bleed fuel lines
1952. (2.7.3.8-63) Most small passenger vessels have an auxiliary steering arrangement. According to
the regulations, which is acceptable as a substitute for the auxiliary steering system?
o
o
o
(A) A spare rudder, stowed so it can be readily mounted

(B) A suitable hand tiller, approved by the OCMI
(C) A threefold purchase, rove to advantage
1953. (2.7.3.8-64) On a small passenger vessel, backfire flame arrestors are installed on a/an
__________.
o
o
o
(A) gasoline powered engine

(B) natural gas (propane) engine
(C) turbocharged diesel engine
(D) oil fired turbine or reciprocating steam engine
1954. (2.7.3.8-65) On small passenger vessels, backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________.
o
o
o
(A) turbocharged diesel engines

(B) gasoline engines
(C) all electric motors
(D) both A and C

Deck General
September 2015
1955. (2.7.3.9-3) Switchboards shall be ...... (small passenger vessel regulations)

o
o
(A) Equipped with switch locks

(B) Watertight.
(C) The dead-front type, totally enclosed
(D) Grounded to the main engine on a wooden hulled boat.
1956. (2.7.3.9-4) If a vessel is not equipped with an automatically-activated emergency lighting system,
the vessel must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
o
o
o
(A) equipped with individual battery-powered lights

(B) provided with gasoline or kerosene lights
(C) operated only in daylight hours
(D) equipped with luminous tape markings on emergency equipment
1957. (2.7.3.9-7) Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________.
o
o
o
(A) ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation

(B) ventilation supplies extra oxygen for the battery
(C) less water would be used
(D) ventilation avoids CO2 buildup
1958. (2.7.3.9-12) According to the T-Boat regulations the reason for providing adequate ventilation for
a battery storage area is to prevent __________.
o
o
o
(A) mildew or dry rot in the battery box

(B) accumulation of explosive and toxic gases the battery can generate
(C) battery failure including battery case meltdown caused by excessive heat
(D) accumulation of carbon dioxide gas that chokes the battery
1959. (2.7.3.9-13) On small passenger, vessels spaces containing batteries require good ventilation
because it __________.
o
o
o
(A) helps dissipate flammable gas accumulations

(B) allows less soda water to be used in the diodes
(C) supplies extra nitrogen for the battery
(D) adds as much as 2 volts to battery performance

Deck General
September 2015
1960. (2.8.1-4) A "skiff hook" is a device used to do which of the following?

o
o
o
(A) join a towline to a pair of towing bridles

(B) attach a towline to the eye bolt to the bow of a trailer-able boat
(C) shorten the length of catenary in the towline
(D) to create a temporary fairlead
1961. (2.8.1-3) Which of the following is a hook that will release quickly?
o
o
(A) marginal hook

(B) margin hook
(C) pelican hook
(D) longshore hook
1962. (2.8.1-5) Which of the following is a rope ladder with wooden rungs?
o
o
o
(A) drop ladder

(B) jury ladder
(C) life ladder
(D) Jacob's ladder
1963. (2.8.1-6) What is a serving mallet used for?

o
o
o
(A) splicing lines

(B) forcing fids into a line
(C) dogging hatches
(D) covering wire or fiber rope
1964. (2.8.2.1-1) You are preparing to lubricate standing rigging on your vessel. When rigging a
bosun's chair on a stay with a shackle, __________.
o
o
o
(A) connect the shackle to the bosun's chair with a hook

(B) run the gantline through the shackle and then make fast to the bosun's chair
(C) tie the bitter end of the gantline to the shackle before shackling it to the bosun's chair
(D) never allow the shackle pin to ride on the stay

Deck General
September 2015
1965. (2.8.2.1-2) You would properly secure a gantline to a bosun's chair with a __________.
o
o
(A) double blackwall hitch

(B) bowline
(C) double sheet bend
(D) fisherman's bend
1966. (2.8.2.1-4) You have been pulled aloft in a bosun's chair rigged to a mast that you intend to paint.
You are now supporting your weight by seizing the hauling part and the standing part of the gantline
in one hand. Your next procedure in securing the bosun's chair is to __________.
o
o
(A) take a strain on the hauling part by having it led to the gypsy head on a winch
(B) secure the tail of the standing part leading from the becket bend to the mast
(C) dip the bight of the hauling part around your back and up in front of you to form the hitch
(D) secure the standing part of the gantline to the hauling part by taking turns of marlin and tying
off
1967. (2.8.2.1-5) The normal and safest way for a sailor to be lowered in a bosun's chair when
descending vertically is __________.
o
o
o
(A) by leading the bight of the hauling part to a rail and taking several turns, then slacking away
with the bight
(B) for that sailor to feed the hauling part through a bosun's chair hitch
(C) by taking several turns of the gantline on a winch drum and then lower the sailor by backing
off on the winch
(D) to lead the hauling part to a cleat on the mast and slacking the sailor down
1968. (2.8.2.1-8) Which of the following statements concerning the rigging of bosuns' chairs and their
use is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) Any tools, paint pots etc. should be secured by lanyards.

(B) Always have the chair hoisted with at least three turns on a winch drum.
(C) When riding a stay, make sure that the bow of the shackle passes through the becket of the
bridle.
(D) Always secure the gantline to the chair with a bowline.

Deck General
September 2015
1969. (2.8.2.1-10) When rigging a bosun's chair, a tail block or lizard is used to __________.
o
o
o
(A) keep a bosun's chair from swinging with the ship's motion
(B) reeve the gantline through
(C) guide the bosun's chair down a stay when applying a protective coating
(D) run paint or tools up to a sailor in a chair with a heaving line
1970. (2.8.2.1-11) What should you inspect to be sure that it is safe to go aloft in a bosun's chair?
o
o
o
(A) The chair and bridle

(B) The gantline
(C) The tail block
1971. (2.8.2.1-14) You are rigging a stage over the vessel's side and are securing the downhaul with
lowering turns at your end of the stage. When finished, the remainder of the line should be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) lowered down into the water

(B) coiled on the stage with the bitter end on top
(C) coiled on the stage with the bitter end on the bottom
(D) coiled on deck to be slacked down by a seaman as needed
1972. (2.8.2.1-16) The knot used to form the bridle at the standing part of a gantline rigged to a stage is
a __________.
o
o
(A) carrick bend

(B) sheet bend
(C) bowline
(D) fisherman's bend
1973. (2.8.2.1-17) The hitch used to secure the standing part of a gantline to the horns of a stage is a
__________.
o
o
(A) blackwall hitch

(B) Killick hitch
(C) marlinespike hitch
(D) clove hitch

Deck General
September 2015
1974. (2.8.2.1-18) When rigging a stage, the standing part should be fastened to the horns of a stage
with which of the following hitches?
o
o
o
(A) Marlinespike hitch

(B) Timber hitch
(C) Double blackwall hitch
(D) Clove hitch
1975. (2.8.2.1-19) A stage should only be rigged __________.

o
o
(A) over the flat sides of a vessel

(B) over the bow or stern of a vessel
(C) over the open water
(D) over the dockside
1976. (2.8.2.1-21) What equipment is customarily used when seamen are working on a stage rigged
over the side of a vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Manropes
(B) Jacob's ladder
(C) Heaving lines
1977. (2.8.2.1-22) When lowering manropes alongside a stage rigged over the side of a vessel, they
should be allowed to trail in the water __________.
o
o
o
(A) to provide the seaman something to hold onto if he or she falls from the stage into the water
(B) only for short periods of time since they will become waterlogged and be very heavy to pull up
(C) to allow the seamen on the stage to know the direction and strength of the current
(D) to easily remove the kinks that form in the lines
1978. (2.8.2.2-8) A wire rope rove through two single blocks with two parts at the moving block is used
for a boat fall. The weight of the 100-person boat is 5 tons. Compute the required breaking strain.
Safety Factor - 6, weight per person - 165 lbs., 10% friction per sheave (2 sheaves).
o
o
(A) 18.30 tons B.S.

(B) 20.29 tons B.S.
(C) 22.27 tons B.S.
(D) 24.31 tons B.S.

Deck General
September 2015
1979. (2.8.2.2-4) Using a safety factor of 6, determine the safe working load of a line with a breaking
strain of 30,000 pounds.
o
o
o
(A) 5,000 lbs.

(B) 20,000 lbs.
(C) 4,000 lbs.
(D) 100,000 lbs.
1980. (2.8.2.2-6) A nylon line is rated at 15,000 lbs. breaking strain. Using a safety factor of 5, what is
the safe working load (SWL)?
o
o
o
(A) 3,000 lbs

(B) 5,000 lbs
(C) 15,000 lbs
(D) 65,000 lbs
1981. (2.8.2.2-7) A nylon line is rated at 12,000 lbs. breaking strain. Using a safety factor of 5, what is
the safe working load (SWL)?
o
o
o
(A) 2,000 lbs.

(B) 2,400 lbs.
(C) 12,000 lbs.
(D) 60,000 lbs.
1982. (2.8.2.2-10) What is the computed breaking strength of a 4-inch manila line?
o
o
o
(A) 5,280 lbs.

(B) 7,700 lbs.
(C) 12,200 lbs.
(D) 14,400 lbs.
1983. (2.8.2.3A-1) What type of knot is indicated by the Letter "I" in illustration D030DG below?
o
o
(A) square knot

(B) round knot
(C) bowline on a bight
(D) timber hitch

Deck General
September 2015
1984. (2.8.2.3A-2) Which knot in illustration D030DG below should be used to secure a line to a spar
when the pull is parallel to the spar?
o
o
(A) G
(B) F
(C) P
(D) Q
1985. (2.8.2.3A-3) What is the MAIN use of the knot lettered M in in illustration D030DG below?
o
o
o
(A) provide a seat for a man to work over the side

(B) marry two hawsers
(C) secure a heaving line to a hawser
(D) form a temporary eye in the end of a line
1986. (2.8.2.3A-9) What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "R"?
o
o
o
(A) bowline
(B) fisherman's bend
(C) round turn and two half hitches
(D) double becket bend
1987. (2.8.2.3A-11) What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "U"?
o
o
o
(A) round knot

(B) becket bend
(C) plain whipping
(D) half hitch
1988. (2.8.2.3A-12) What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "W"?
o
o
o
(A) square knot

(B) clove hitch
(C) barrel hitch
(D) stopper knot

Deck General
September 2015
1989. (2.8.2.3A-15) Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a double sheet bend?
o
o
o
(A) F
(B) T
(C) L
(D) R
1990. (2.8.2.3A-16) Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a blackwall hitch?
o
o
(A) F
(B) P
(C) S
(D) H
1991. (2.8.2.3A-17) Which knot shown in illustration D030DG below is a French bowline?
o
o
o
(A) L
(B) T
(C) Q
(D) W
1992. (2.8.2.3A-18) Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a half hitch?
o
o
o
(A) K
(B) U
(C) S
(D) H
1993. (2.8.2.3A-19) Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a double blackwall hitch?
o
o
(A) F
(B) G
(C) L
(D) R

Deck General
September 2015
1994. (2.8.2.3A-20) Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a carrick bend?
o
o
o
(A) J
(B) H
(C) L
(D) M
1995. (2.8.2.3A-23) Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a stopper hitch?
o
o
o
(A) N
(B) R
(C) L
(D) M
1996. (2.8.2.3A-26) Which letter in illustration D030DG below represents a bowline on a bight?
o
o
o
(A) H
(B) I
(C) M
(D) W
1997. (2.8.2.3A-27) Which letter in illustration D030DG below represents a plain whipping?
o
o
o
(A) F
(B) V
(C) E
(D) J
1998. (2.8.2.3A-29) What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "O"?
o
o
o
(A) timber hitch

(B) blackwall hitch
(C) carrick bend
(D) barrel hitch

Deck General
September 2015
1999. (2.8.2.3A-31) What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "E"?
o
o
o
(A) blackwall hitch

(B) timber and half hitch
(C) stopper hitch
(D) bowline on a bight
2000. (2.8.2.3A-33) Which of the knots, bends, or hitches shown in illustration D030DG below would
you use to properly secure a bosun chair to a gantline?
o
o
(A) I
(B) P
(C) R
(D) X
2001. (2.8.2.3B-15) What is the best splice for repairing a parted synthetic fiber mooring line?
o
o
o
(A) Long splice

(B) Short splice
(C) Locking long splice
(D) Liverpool splice
2002. (2.8.2.3B-23) Which knot is typically used to join two large lines or hawsers together?
o
o
o
(A) carrick bend

(B) square knot
(C) bowline
(D) sheet bend
2003. (2.8.2.3B-2) Which of the following is a knot used to join two lines of different diameters?
o
o
(A) square knot

(B) sheepshank
(C) becket bend
(D) carrick bend

Deck General
September 2015
2004. (2.8.2.3B-24) What is a "carrick bend" is used for?

o
o
(A) be a stopper to transfer a line under strain

(B) join lines of different sizes
(C) join two hawsers
(D) add strength to a weak spot in a line
2005. (2.8.2.3B-3) The metal, teardrop-shaped object sometimes used within an eyesplice is a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) grommet
(B) thimble
(C) splice form
(D) reinforcement
2006. (2.8.2.3B-4) Which knot reduces the strength of a line by the LEAST amount?
o
o
o
(A) Sheet bend

(B) Carrick bend
(C) Square knot
(D) Bowline
2007. (2.8.2.3B-5) What is a "bowline" used for?

o
o
o
(A) join lines of equal size

(B) form a temporary eye (loop) at the end of a line
(C) keep a line from fraying
(D) be a stopper
2008. (2.8.2.3B-9) Which statement about splices is TRUE?

o
o
o
(A) In splicing fiber rope, you would splice with the lay of the line.
(B) A back splice is used to permanently connect two lines together.
(C) A short splice is used to temporarily connect two lines.
(D) A long splice is used to connect two lines that will pass through narrow openings.

Deck General
September 2015
2009. (2.8.2.3B-10) On a small boat, which knot is best suited for attaching a line to the ring of an
anchor?
o
o
o
(A) Overhand knot

(B) Clove hitch
(C) Figure-eight knot
(D) Fisherman's bend
2010. (2.8.2.3B-12) Which splice is used to connect two separate lines together?
o
o
o
(A) Back splice

(B) Chain splice
(C) Eye splice
(D) Long splice
2011. (2.8.2.3B-17) Which of the following is the strongest way to join the ends of two ropes?
o
o
o
(A) short splice

(B) back splice
(C) carrick bend
(D) square knot
2012. (2.8.2.3B-18) Which of the following describes a fid?

o
o
(A) sharp pointed crow bar used to unlay wire rope

(B) tapered steel pin used to separate wire rope
(C) tapered wooden pin used when splicing heavy rope
(D) mallet used when splicing wire rope
2013. (2.8.2.3B-19) Which bend or knot is used to tie a small line to a larger one?
o
o
o
(A) Lark's head

(B) Bowline
(C) Clove hitch
(D) Becket bend

Deck General
September 2015
2014. (2.8.2.3B-20) Which knot is used to attach two different sized lines together?
o
o
o
(A) Thief knot

(B) Sheet bend
(C) Square knot
(D) Granny knot
2015. (2.8.2.3B-25) Which is a method used to make an eye in a bight of line where it cannot be
spliced?
o
o
o
(A) serving
(B) seizing
(C) plaiting
(D) braiding
2016. (2.8.2.3B-28) What is the purpose for whipping the bitter end of a fiber rope?
o
o
o
(A) makes for easier handling

(B) prevents fraying of the bitter end
(C) prevents moisture from entering the bitter end
(D) increases the circumference of the rope
2017. (2.8.2.3B-31) A "figure eight" knot is used to __________.

o
o
(A) be a stopper
(B) shorten a line
(C) keep a line from passing through a sheave
(D) join lines of equal size
2018. (2.8.2.3B-33) Which knot should be used to send a man over the side when he may have to use
both hands?
o
o
o
(A) Bowline
(B) French bowline
(C) Running bowline
(D) Bowline on a bight

Deck General
September 2015
2019. (2.8.2.3B-34) Which knot is suitable for hoisting an unconscious person?

o
o
o
(A) Fisherman's loop

(B) Bowline in a bight
(C) Spider hitch
(D) French bowline
2020. (2.8.2.3B-38) Which statement concerning a short splice is TRUE?

o
o
o
(A) A short splice decreases the diameter of the line.

(B) A short splice is stronger than two lines joined by a knot.
(C) It is used to temporarily join two lines together.
2021. (2.8.2.3B-39) A long splice in a line __________.

o
o
o
(A) is only used on fiber rope

(B) is used in running rigging
(C) is very weak
(D) doubles the size of the line
2022. (2.8.2.3B-40) Which splice should you use in order to make a permanent loop in a line?
o
o
(A) Long splice

(B) Short splice
(C) Eye splice
(D) Back splice
2023. (2.8.2.3B-43) A smooth, tapered pin, usually of wood, used to open up the strands of a rope for
splicing is called a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) awl
(B) fid
(C) bench hook
(D) batten

Deck General
September 2015
2024. (2.8.2.4A-15) Which of the following may result from improperly coiling manila line?
o
o
(A) number of fishhooks

(B) 50% loss of efficiency of the line
(C) kink in the line
(D) increase in deterioration of the line
2025. (2.8.2.4A-6) Which of the following is the strongest of the natural fibers?
o
o
o
(A) manila
(B) hemp
(C) sisal
(D) cotton
2026. (2.8.2.4A-9) The larger sizes of manila line are measured by their __________.
o
o
o
(A) circumference
(B) weight per foot
(C) diameter
(D) radius
2027. (2.8.2.4A-14) How should manila lines in which the strands are right-hand laid be coiled?
o
o
o
(A) they should be coiled in a clockwise direction

(B) they may be coiled either clockwise or counterclockwise
(C) they should be coiled in a counterclockwise direction
(D) they should never be coiled
2028. (2.8.2.4A-17) As you hold a piece of manila line vertically in front of you, the strands run from the
lower right to the upper left. Which type of line is this?
o
o
(A) Water-laid
(B) Plain-laid
(C) Left-hand laid
(D) Shroud-laid

Deck General
September 2015
2029. (2.8.2.4B-1) Which is NOT a recommended practice when handling nylon line?
o
o
(A) When easing out nylon line, keep an extra turn on the bitt to prevent slipping.
(B) Nylon lines which become slippery because of oil or grease should be scrubbed down.
(C) Manila line stoppers should be used for holding nylon hawsers.
(D) Iced-over nylon lines should be thawed and drained before stowing.
2030. (2.8.2.4B-4) Under identical load conditions, nylon, when compared with natural fiber line, will
stretch __________.
o
o
(A) less and have less strength

(B) less and have greater strength
(C) more and have greater strength
(D) more and have less strength
2031. (2.8.2.4B-5) Which type of line is best able to withstand sudden shock loads?
o
o
o
(A) Manila
(B) Polypropylene
(C) Dacron
(D) Nylon
2032. (2.8.2.4B-8) Nylon line can be dangerous because it __________.
o
o
o
(A) stretches
(B) kinks when wet
(C) breaks down when wet
(D) is not elastic
2033. (2.8.2.4B-9) An advantage of nylon rope over manila rope is that nylon rope __________.
o
o
o
(A) can be stored on decks exposed to sunlight

(B) gives audible warning of overstress whereas manila does not
(C) can be used in conjunction with wire or spring-lay rope
(D) can hold a load even when a considerable amount of the yarns have been abraded

Deck General
September 2015
2034. (2.8.2.4B-13) What is a normal safe working load for used nylon rope in good condition?
o
o
o
(A) 10% of its breaking strain

(B) 25% of its breaking strain
(C) 33% of its breaking strain
(D) 50% of its breaking strain
2035. (2.8.2.4C-30) What type of line melts easiest?
o
o
o
(A) Polypropylene
(B) Dacron
(C) Nylon
(D) Wire
2036. (2.8.2.4C-1) Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) secured or stowed out of the way

(B) left on deck
(C) stowed anywhere
(D) conspicuously marked
2037. (2.8.2.4C-27) Which synthetic rope has the greatest breaking strength?
o
o
o
(A) Polyglycine
(B) Polyethylene
(C) Polypropylene
(D) Polyester
2038. (2.8.2.4C-4) Faking a line means to __________.

o
o
(A) stow it below

(B) put a whipping on it
(C) arrange it on deck in long bights
(D) coil it down on deck

Deck General
September 2015
2039. (2.8.2.4C-6) You should keep clear of __________.

o
o
(A) lines that are coiled down only

(B) lines that are paying out
(C) any line under a strain
(D) None of the above are correct
2040. (2.8.2.4C-7) A rope made of a combination of wire and fiber is known as __________.
o
o
o
(A) lang lay

(B) spring lay
(C) independent
(D) preformed
2041. (2.8.2.4C-8) Coiling new rope against the lay, bringing the lower end up through the center of the
coil, then coiling with the lay, in order to remove the kinks, is known as __________.
o
o
o
(A) faking
(B) flemishing
(C) coiling
(D) thoroughfooting
2042. (2.8.2.4C-10) Right-laid line should be coiled __________.

o
o
o
(A) either clockwise or counterclockwise

(B) on a reel
(C) counterclockwise
(D) clockwise
2043. (2.8.2.4C-11) Laying out a line in successive circles flat on deck with the bitter end in the center
is known as __________.
o
o
(A) coiling
(B) faking
(C) flemishing
(D) lining

Deck General
September 2015
2044. (2.8.2.4C-12) When a line is spirally coiled about its end and lying flat on deck, it is said to be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) faked
(B) seized
(C) coiled
(D) flemished
2045. (2.8.2.4C-14) Roundline is a __________.
o
o
o
(A) three-stranded, right-handed line

(B) small tarred hemp line of three strands laid left-handed
(C) four-stranded, left- or right-handed line
(D) three-stranded, left-handed line
2046. (2.8.2.4C-15) Marline is __________.

o
o
(A) sail twine

(B) four-stranded sisal line
(C) two-stranded hemp cord
(D) three-stranded cotton line
2047. (2.8.2.4C-17) "White Line" is made from __________.
o
o
o
(A) cotton
(B) manila
(C) sisal
(D) hemp
2048. (2.8.2.4C-18) Line is called "small stuff" if its circumference is less than __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1/2"
(B) 1"
(C) 3/4"
(D) 1 3/4"

Deck General
September 2015
2049. (2.8.2.4C-20) During the manufacture of line, yarns are twisted together in the __________.
o
o
o
(A) opposite direction from which the fibers are twisted together forming cables
(B) same direction the fibers are twisted to form strands
(C) opposite direction from which the fibers are twisted together to form the line
(D) opposite direction from which the fibers are twisted together to form strands
2050. (2.8.2.4C-23) In what direction should you coil a right hand laid rope?
o
o
o
(A) a counterclockwise direction

(B) a clockwise direction
(C) alternating clockwise and counterclockwise directions
(D) either a clockwise or counterclockwise directions
2051. (2.8.2.4C-24) Which term describes a rope in which three right-handed strands are laid up lefthanded?
o
o
o
(A) Hawser-laid
(B) Shroud laid
(C) Hard-laid
(D) Soft-laid
2052. (2.8.2.4C-28) Which line would be least likely to kink?
o
o
o
(A) Braided
(B) Right-handed laid
(C) Straight laid
(D) Left-handed laid
2053. (2.8.2.4C-29) Which type of line floats?

o
o
(A) Nylon
(B) Old manila
(C) Polypropylene
(D) Dacron

Deck General
September 2015
2054. (2.8.2.5A-3) In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "B" called?
o
o
o
(A) after breast line

(B) inshore stern line
(C) after spring line
(D) offshore stern line
2055. (2.8.2.5A-5) In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "D" called?
o
o
o
(A) after spring line

(B) waist breast line
(C) stern line
(D) forward spring line
2056. (2.8.2.5A-6) In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "H" called?
o
o
(A) onshore bow line

(B) forward breast line
(C) offshore bow line
(D) offshore spring line
2057. (2.8.2.5A-7) In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "F" called?
o
o
(A) forward spring line

(B) bow line
(C) breast line
2058. (2.8.2.5B-1) An example of a messenger is a __________.

o
o
(A) warp
(B) stay
(C) heaving line
(D) fairlead

Deck General
September 2015
2059. (2.8.2.5B-10) When a line is subject to wear where it passes through a mooring chock, it should
be __________.
o
o
o
(A) wormed, parceled, and served

(B) wrapped in leather
(C) wrapped with heavy tape
(D) wrapped with chafing gear
2060. (2.8.2.5B-2) In order to pay out or slack a mooring line which is under strain, you should
__________.
o
o
(A) stopper the line

(B) sluice the line
(C) surge the line
(D) slip the line
2061. (2.8.2.5B-3) Which method of adjusting mooring lines is MOST useful for leaving a boat free to
rise and fall with the tide?
o
o
o
(A) Slacking all forward running lines while keeping all after running lines taut
(B) Crossing the spring lines
(C) Slacking bow and stern lines
(D) Doubling up on spring or breast lines
2062. (2.8.2.5B-6) Two mooring lines may be placed on the same bollard and either one cast off first if
__________.
o
o
o
(A) the bollard has two horns

(B) one of the lines is a breast line
(C) the mooring lines are doubled
(D) the eye of the second line is dipped
2063. (2.8.2.5B-7) When passing a hawser to the dock you would first use what line?
o
o
o
(A) Heaving line

(B) Warp
(C) Gantline
(D) Preventer

Deck General
September 2015
2064. (2.8.2.5B-8) If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST?
o
o
o
(A) Place the eye from the forward line on the bollard and then place the eye from the second line
directly over the first.
(B) It makes no difference how the lines are placed.
(C) Place both eyes on the bollard, in any manner, but lead both lines to the same winch head on
the vessel and secure them on the winch.
(D) Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the other line up
through the eye of the first, and place it on the bollard.
2065. (2.8.2.5B-9) What should you do to a line to prevent fraying where it passes over the side of the
vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Splice that part of the line.

(B) Install a cleat.
(C) Worm that part of the line.
(D) Cover it with chafing gear.
2066. (2.8.2.5B-12) Chafing gear is normally used __________.

o
o
o
(A) for ground tackle

(B) for portable fenders
(C) on the inside of the hawsepipe
(D) on mooring lines
2067. (2.8.2.5B-14) The usual method of arranging a line on deck so that it will run out easily without
kinking or fouling is __________.
o
o
o
(A) flemishing the line

(B) faking down the line
(C) racking the line
(D) coiling the line
2068. (2.8.2.5B-15) A mooring line that checks forward motion of a vessel at a pier is a __________.
o
o
(A) forward bow line

(B) stern breast line
(C) stern line
(D) bow line

Deck General
September 2015
2069. (2.8.2.5B-16) You want to double the strength of a mooring line by using two lines. To
accomplish this, the second line must __________.
o
o
o
(A) not cross the first

(B) be married to the first
(C) be 1 1/2 times the diameter of the first
(D) be of the same length
2070. (2.8.2.5B-17) A Chinese stopper (two lines) will hold best when you __________.
o
o
o
(A) fasten the bitter ends to the mooring line with half hitches
(B) twist the ends together and hold them in the direction of the pull
(C) twist the ends together and hold them at right angles to the mooring line
(D) twist the ends together and hold them in the direction opposite to the pull
2071. (2.8.2.5B-18) The main advantage of a Chinese stopper over the one line stopper is that it
__________.
o
o
o
(A) will not jam on the mooring line

(B) is safer to use when under heavy tension
(C) is stronger
(D) is easier to use when under heavy tension
2072. (2.8.2.5B-20) Your vessel is to dock bow in at a pier without the assistance of tugboats. Which
line will be the most useful when maneuvering the vessel alongside the pier?
o
o
o
(A) Inshore head line

(B) Bow spring line
(C) Stern breast line
(D) Bow breast line
2073. (2.8.2.5B-24) Nylon line is better suited than manila for __________.
o
o
o
(A) towing astern

(B) towing alongside
(C) holding knots and splices
(D) resisting damage from chemicals

Deck General
September 2015
2074. (2.8.2.5B-25) The line with the most stretch is __________.

o
o
o
(A) polypropylene
(B) nylon
(C) dacron
(D) manila
2075. (2.8.2.5B-26) The rope which is the lightest is __________.

o
o
o
(A) nylon
(B) manila
(C) dacron
(D) polypropylene
2076. (2.8.2.5B-27) You are preparing to moor your cargo vessel. What concerns should you have with
regard to the placement of an off-shore bow line?
o
o
(A) chaffing on the deck of the vessel

(B) chaffing on the stern of the vessel
(C) chaffing on the stem of the vessel
(D) chaffing on the keel of the vessel
2077. (2.8.2.5B-28) The primary function of which line(s) is to hold the vessel snuggly to the dock?
o
o
o
(A) the breast lines

(B) the stern lines
(C) the quarter cross spring lines
(D) the bow cross spring lines
2078. (2.8.2.5B-29) When mooring a vessel the breast lines should lead as far away as possible. What
does the additional length help facilitate?
o
o
o
(A) the fore and aft movement of the vessel

(B) the range of the tide
(C) ease of handling on the dock
(D) ease of faking on deck

Deck General
September 2015
2079. (2.8.2.5B-31) Your vessel is mooring port side to. The after gang has sent out a line that makes
an angle with the dock and leads forward towards amidships. What is the proper term for this line?
o
o
o
(A) the cross spring

(B) the head line
(C) the bow spring
(D) the quarter spring
2080. (2.8.2.5B-32) Your vessel is required to warp up the dock twenty feet for better crane
alignment. Which lines are the most essential to move the vessel forward?
o
o
o
(A) the quarter breast lines

(B) the breast lines
(C) the offshore stern lines
(D) the spring lines
2081. (2.8.2.5B-33) Mooring lines constructed of different material have variable elasticity. Which of the
following is true concerning their combined use for mooring a vessel?
o
o
o
(A) the use of lines of varying elasticity together is recommended as a safety measure
(B) lines of different elasticity should never be used together in the same direction
(C) lines of different elasticity should always be used together in the same direction
(D) the elasticity of mooring lines is of minor concern at most locations
2082. (2.8.2.5B-34) Mooring wires used to tie up a vessel may undergo dynamic shock from passing
ships. What safety measures can be taken to prevent damage to the wires?
o
o
o
(A) install fiber tails on the mooring wires

(B) keep slack in the mooring wires
(C) keep tension on the mooring wires
(D) shackle a smaller wire at the end
2083. (2.8.2.5B-36) Fiber tails on mooring wires deteriorate more quickly than the wires themselves.
What percentage of strength should the fiber tails have?
o
o
o
(A) 25% stronger than the line to which they are attached
(B) 15% stronger than the line to which they are attached
(C) 30% stronger than the line to which they are attached
(D) 10% stronger than the line to which they are attached

Deck General
September 2015
2084. (2.8.2.5B-38) What is the proper term for the mooring line that runs through the bullnose leading
forward?
o
o
o
(A) the bowline

(B) the forward quarter spring line
(C) the bullnose
(D) the forward bow spring line
2085. (2.8.2.5B-39) Which lines primary function is to reduce the fore and aft motion of a docked
vessel?
o
o
o
(A) the bow cross spring lines

(B) the quarter breast lines
(C) the breast lines
(D) the bow and stern lines
2086. (2.8.2.5B-40) Which of the following is the compliment of the stern line?
o
o
o
(A) the breast line

(B) the quarter cross spring line
(C) the bow cross spring line
(D) the head line
2087. (2.8.2.5B-41) Which of the following is utilized to aid in the transfer of a synthetic mooring line
from the gypsy head to the bitts?
o
o
o
(A) a lizard line

(B) a chinese stopper
(C) a double braided line
(D) a chain stopper
2088. (2.8.2.5B-42) Which of the following is true of a stopper is attached to a bitt utilizing an overhand
knot?
o
o
o
(A) the strength of the stopper will decrease

(B) the strength of the stopper will increase
(C) the breaking strain of the stopper increases
(D) the strength of the stopper will remain the same

Deck General
September 2015
2089. (2.8.2.5B-43) You are required to stop off a conventional mooring wire to transfer the load to a
set of bitts. Which of the following stoppers should be used?
o
o
o
(A) a stopper made from manila line

(B) a stopper made from chain
(C) a stopper made from nylon line
(D) a stopper made from wire rope
2090. (2.8.2.5B-44) Chinese stoppers are widely used on merchant vessels because they are safe, and
easy to apply. What additional values are attributed to these stoppers?
o
o
o
(A) they do not easily jam

(B) they are lighter than a standard stopper
(C) they can hold the strain without the aid of a seaman
(D) they increase the breaking strain of the line
2091. (2.8.2.6-1) What is the mechanical advantage of a threefold purchase when rove to disadvantage
and neglecting friction?
o
o
o
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
2092. (2.8.2.6A-1) You are using tackle number 7 in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight of 100
lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the hauling
part required to lift the weight?
o
o
(A) 150 lbs.

(B) 110 lbs.
(C) 55 lbs.
(D) 200 lbs.
o
o
(A) 50 lbs.
(B) 55 lbs.
(C) 60 lbs.
(D) 110 lbs.

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
(A) 50 lbs.
(B) 75 lbs.
(C) 90 lbs.
(D) 112 lbs.
weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook (w) of tackle number 10. What is the
o
o
(A) 4
(B) 9
(C) 20
(D) 5
weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook of tackle number 9. What is the
o
o
o
(A) 20
(B) 9
(C) 5
(D) 4
o
o
o
(A) 20
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 5

Deck General
September 2015
weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook (w) of tackle number 8. Disregarding
friction, what is the mechanical advantage of this rig?
o
o
(A) 11
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 24
o
o
o
(A) 13
(B) 20
(C) 9
(D) 24
o
o
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 21
o
o
o
(A) Gun tackle

(B) Whip
(C) Runner
(D) One-fold purchase

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
o
(A) Double luff tackle

(B) Gun tackle
(C) Topping lift
(D) Three-two purchase
o
o
o
(A) Deck tackle

(B) Threefold purchase
(C) Davit tackle
(D) Gin tackle
o
o
o
(A) 1-2 purchase

(B) Gun tackle
(C) Double whip
(D) Single luff tackle
o
o
o
(A) Luff tackle

(B) Two-fold purchase
(C) 2-2 tackle
(D) Double whip
o
o
o
(A) 3-2 purchase

(B) Two-fold purchase
(C) Four-fold whip
(D) Double luff tackle

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
o
(A) Single purchase

(B) Gun tackle
(C) Single luff tackle
(D) Parbuckle
o
o
o
(A) Luff tackle

(B) Double whip
(C) One-two tackle
(D) Single purchase
D029DG below?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
D029DG below?
o
o
(A) 4.0
(B) 4.5
(C) 5.0
(D) 5.5
D029DG below?
o
o
o
(A) 6.0
(B) 5.5
(C) 7.0
(D) 5.0

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
o
(A) 3.0
(B) 5.5
(C) 6.0
(D) 7.0
D029DG below?
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
D029DG below?
o
o
o
(A) 6.0
(B) 5.5
(C) 5.0
(D) 3.0
D029DG below?
o
o
o
(A) 0.0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1.0
(D) 2.0

Deck General
September 2015
D029DG below?
o
o
o
(A) 0.5
(B) 3.0
(C) 1.5
(D) 1.0
2118. (2.8.2.6B-1) What is the stress on the hauling part when lifting a 4,200 lbs. weight using a
threefold purchase rove to advantage? (Allow 10 percent of the weight per sheave for friction.)
o
o
(A) 571.4
(B) 715.2
(C) 960.0
(D) 1066.7
2119. (2.8.2.6B-2) The sheave diameter to be used with a 3-inch manila rope is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 3 inches
(B) 6 inches
(C) 9 inches
(D) 12 inches
2120. (2.8.2.6B-3) A breeches buoy is being rigged from the shore to a stranded vessel. The initial shot
line passed to the vessel is normally made fast to a __________.
o
o
o
(A) hawser with breeches buoy and harness attached

(B) hawser which is used to pass a tail-block and whip to the vessel
(C) hawser which should be made fast to the vessel below the intended location of the tail-block
(D) tail-block and whip which may be used to pass a hawser to the vessel
2121. (2.8.2.6B-11) To reeve a right-angle threefold purchase start with the __________.
o
o
(A) left sheave bottom block

(B) right sheave bottom block
(C) middle sheave top block
(D) left sheave top block

Deck General
September 2015
2122. (2.8.2.6B-4) How much force would be required to lift a weight of 200 lbs. using a gun tackle
rigged to disadvantage (do not consider friction)?
o
o
o
(A) 50 lbs.
(B) 100 lbs.
(C) 150 lbs.
(D) 200 lbs.
2123. (2.8.2.6B-5) Unless extremely flexible wire rope is used, the sheave diameter should always be
as large as possible, but should never be less than __________.
o
o
o
(A) 2 times the rope diameter

(B) 20 times the rope diameter
(C) the rope diameter
(D) 10 times the rope diameter
2124. (2.8.2.6B-6) How much weight can you lift by applying 100 lbs. of force to a twofold purchase
rigged to disadvantage (do not consider friction)?
o
o
(A) 200 lbs.

(B) 300 lbs.
(C) 400 lbs.
(D) 500 lbs.
2125. (2.8.2.6B-7) What is meant by the term "two-blocked"?

o
o
o
(A) The line has jumped the sheaves.

(B) The bottom block touches the top block.
(C) You have two blocks.
(D) There are turns in the fall.
2126. (2.8.2.6B-9) Separating both blocks of a tackle to prepare it for reuse is called __________.
o
o
o
(A) out-hauling
(B) over-hauling
(C) two-blocking
(D) chockablocking

Deck General
September 2015
2127. (2.8.2.6B-10) To facilitate passing the end of a large rope through a block, you could use a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) reeving line

(B) gantline
(C) sail line
(D) head line
2128. (2.8.2.6B-12) You are ordering a new block to use with a 3-inch circumference manila line.
Which represents a proper size block for this line?
o
o
o
(A) 8-inch cheek, any size sheave

(B) 9-inch cheek, 6-inch sheave
(C) 6-inch cheek, 4-inch sheave
(D) At least a 12-inch sheave
2129. (2.8.2.6B-13) What size block shell should be used with a 4-inch manila line?
o
o
o
(A) 8"
(B) 12"
(C) 16"
(D) 24"
2130. (2.8.2.6B-15) The cheek length of a block in inches should be about __________.
o
o
o
(A) twice the diameter of its sheaves for manila line

(B) twenty times the diameter of a manila line
(C) five times the diameter of a manila line
(D) three times the circumference of a manila line
2131. (2.8.2.6B-16) Which tackle arrangement has the LEAST mechanical advantage?
o
o
o
(A) Twofold purchase

(B) Luff tackle
(C) Gun tackle
(D) Single whip

Deck General
September 2015
2132. (2.8.2.6B-17) A block that can be opened at the hook or shackle end to receive a bight of the line
is a __________.
o
o
o
(A) bight block

(B) snatch block
(C) heel block
(D) gin block
2133. (2.8.2.6B-18) A snatch block is a __________.
o
o
o
(A) hinged block

(B) chock roller
(C) block used only with manila rope
(D) strong block used for short, sharp pulls
2134. (2.8.2.6B-19) A snatch block would most likely be used as a __________.
o
o
o
(A) fairlead
(B) boat fall
(C) topping lift
(D) riding pawl
2135. (2.8.2.6B-21) The grooved wheel inside a block is called a __________.

o
o
o
(A) cheek
(B) gypsy
(C) drum
(D) sheave
2136. (2.8.2.6B-22) A metal ring on the bottom of a block, to which the standing part of a tackle is
spliced, is known as a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) eye
(B) becket
(C) swivel
(D) loop

Deck General
September 2015
2137. (2.8.2.6B-23) The standing part of a tackle is __________.
o
o
o
(A) that part of the falls made fast to one of the blocks
(B) all the fall except the hauling part
(C) that part to which power is applied
(D) the hook that engages the weight to be moved
2138. (2.8.2.6B-24) A small light tackle with blocks of steel or wood that is used for miscellaneous
small jobs is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) snatch block

(B) threefold purchase
(C) chockablock
(D) handy-billy
2139. (2.8.2.6B-25) A block and tackle is "rove to advantage". This means that the __________.
o
o
(A) blocks have been overhauled

(B) hauling part leads through the standing block
(C) hauling part leads through the movable block
(D) hauling parts of two tackles are attached
2140. (2.8.2.6B-26) Safety shackles are fitted with __________.

o
o
(A) round pins and locknuts

(B) a threaded bolt
(C) a threaded bolt, locknuts, and cotter pins
(D) a round pin, with a cotter pin
2141. (2.8.2.7-1) A bench hook is used for __________.

o
o
o
(A) splicing small stuff

(B) sewing canvas
(C) hanging oilskins
(D) handling of cargo cases

Deck General
September 2015
2142. (2.8.2.7-2) A sail hook is used for __________.

o
o
o
(A) parceling
(B) sewing canvas
(C) testing canvas
(D) hoisting a windsail
2143. (2.8.2.7-3) "Herringbone" is a term associated with __________.

o
o
o
(A) mooring
(B) splicing
(C) anchoring
(D) sewing
2144. (2.8.2.8-1) Using illustration D058DG below, which of the figures is the preferred method of
forming a temporary eye splice using wire rope clips?
o
o
(A) A.
(B) B.
(C) C.
(D) D.
2145. (2.8.2.8-2) When securing a hook to the end of a wire rope you should use __________.
o
o
o
(A) a long splice

(B) wire rope clips with a thimble eye
(C) a bowline knot
(D) an overhand knot with a wire rope clip
2146. (2.8.2.8-11) The main function of the core of a wire rope is to __________.
o
o
(A) give flexibility

(B) allow lubrication inside the rope
(C) support the strands laid around it
(D) allow some circulation around the strands

Deck General
September 2015
2147. (2.8.2.8-4) Using illustration D058DG below, which of the figures protects the stress bearing end
of a wire rope from being crushed while forming a temporary eye splice using wire rope clips?
o
o
o
(A) A.
(B) C.
(C) B.
(D) All the above.
2148. (2.8.2.8-3) To find the distance the strands should be unlaid for an eye splice, multiply the
diameter of the wire in inches by __________.
o
o
(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) 48
2149. (2.8.2.8-13) What is an advantage of having wire rope with a fiber core over that of a wire rope of
the same size with a wire core?
o
o
o
(A) Fiber core rope offers greater flexibility.

(B) Fiber core rope offers greater strength.
(C) Fiber core rope can be used at higher operating temperatures.
(D) Fiber core rope is the only type authorized for cargo runners.
2150. (2.8.2.8-5) What is an advantage of the 6X19 class of wire rope over the 6X37 class of wire rope
of the same diameter?
o
o
o
(A) More resistance to elongation

(B) Better for towing
(C) Greater holding power
(D) More resistance to corrosion
2151. (2.8.2.8-6) A metal eye spliced into a wire is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) thimble
(B) fish eye
(C) cyclops
(D) chip

Deck General
September 2015
2152. (2.8.2.8-7) Which is normally used to hold wire rope for splicing?
o
o
(A) Come along

(B) Sealing clamp
(C) Rigger's screw
(D) Jigger
2153. (2.8.2.8-8) Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning wire rope?

o
o
o
(A) Wire rope should be condemned if the fiber core appears moist.
(B) Wire rope should be condemned if the outside wires are worn to one-half their original
diameter.
(C) Wire rope which is right-hand laid should be coiled counterclockwise to prevent kinking.
2154. (2.8.2.8-9) Wire rope should be renewed when the __________.

o
o
o
(A) certification period expires

(B) outer wires are worn to half their original diameter
(C) outer wires are rusted
(D) inner core appears dry
2155. (2.8.2.8-10) The correct way to make an eye in a wire rope with clips is to place the clips with the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) U-bolts of all clips on the bitter end

(B) U-bolts of all clips on the standing part
(C) first and third U-bolts on the bitter end and the second U-bolt on the standing part
(D) first and third U-bolts on the standing part and the second U-bolt on the bitter end
2156. (2.8.2.8-12) Which of the following should you do when using wire rope clips to form a temporary
eye in a wire rope?
o
o
(A) replace the entire wire rope if broken wires are detected around the clips
(B) check the clips after an hour of operation to determine if the clips loosened due to wire rope
expansion
(C) place the U-bolt of the wire rope clips on the dead end of the rope
(D) wire rope clips should never be used to form a temporary eye splice

Deck General
September 2015
2157. (2.8.2.8-14) Temporary seizings on wire rope are made with __________.
o
o
(A) marline
(B) sail twine
(C) wire
(D) tape
2158. (2.8.2.8-15) The ultimate or maximum strength of a wire rope is referred to as the __________.
o
o
o
(A) breaking strength

(B) working load
(C) operating strength
(D) lifting load
2159. (2.8.2.8-16) A temporary wire eye splice made with three wire rope clamps will hold
approximately what percentage of the total rope strength?
o
o
(A) 20%
(B) 50%
(C) 80%
(D) 99%
2160. (2.8.2.8-17) What is the main reason to slush a wire rope?

o
o
(A) Prevent kinking

(B) Prevent rotting
(C) Lubricate the inner wires and prevent wear
(D) Keep the wire soft and manageable
2161. (2.8.2.8-18) Sluicing or slushing wire rope __________.

o
o
o
(A) reduces internal friction within the wire

(B) prevents internal and external rust and corrosion
(C) reduces chafing and increases its useful service life

Deck General
September 2015
2162. (2.8.2.8-19) When cutting wire rope, seizings are put on each side of the cut. The seizings
prevent the wire from unlaying and also __________.
o
o
o
(A) maintain the original balance of the tension in the wires and strands
(B) prevent moisture from entering between the wires at the cut end
(C) forces lubricant from the core to protect the raw, cut end
2163. (2.8.2.8-20) When cutting regular-lay wire rope, what is the minimum number of seizings to be
placed on each side of the cut?
o
o
(A) One
(B) Two, and three on rope diameters over 1 inch
(C) Three, and more on larger diameter wire ropes
(D) Four
2164. (2.8.2.8-21) Which will cause a wire rope to fail?

o
o
o
(A) Using a medium graphite grease as a lubricant

(B) Using a sheave with an undersized throat
(C) Operating a winch too slow
(D) A sheave diameter of 24 times the wire's diameter
2165. (2.8.2.8-23) When you "end for end" a wire rope, you __________.
o
o
o
(A) splice two wire ropes together

(B) cut off the free end and bitter end of the rope
(C) remove the wire rope from the drum and turn it over, so the wire bends in the opposite
direction
(D) remove the wire rope from the drum and reverse it so that the free end becomes the bitter
end
2166. (2.8.2.8-24) What material may be substituted for zinc when making a poured metal socket
ending to a wire rope?
o
o
o
(A) Solder
(B) Lead
(C) Babbitt
(D) Nothing

Deck General
September 2015
2167. (2.8.2.8-25) The strongest method of forming an eye in wire rope is using __________.
o
o
o
(A) three wire rope clamps

(B) an eye splice with four or five tucks
(C) a thimble fastened with four or five tucks
(D) a wire rope socket attached with zinc
2168. (2.8.2.8-26) If you were to pass a stopper on a wire rope, what should the stopper be made of?
o
o
o
(A) Chain
(B) Manila
(C) Nylon
(D) Wire
2169. (2.8.2.8-27) Galvanizing would not be suitable for protecting wire rope which is used for
__________.
o
o
o
(A) mooring wires

(B) shrouds
(C) stays
(D) cargo runners
2170. (2.8.2.8-28) A wire rope that has been overstrained will show __________.
o
o
o
(A) a decrease in diameter where the strain occurred

(B) a kink in the wire where the strain occurred
(C) no visible effects of an overstrain
(D) a bulge in the wire where the strain occurred
2171. (2.8.2.8-29) If kinking results while wire rope is being coiled clockwise, you should __________.
o
o
(A) twist out the kinks under a strain

(B) coil it counterclockwise
(C) take a turn under
(D) not coil it

Deck General
September 2015
2172. (2.8.2.8-30) After splicing an eye in a piece of wire rope, the splice should be parceled and
served to __________.
o
o
o
(A) increase its efficiency

(B) make the line more flexible
(C) strengthen the line
(D) prevent hand injury by covering loose ends
2173. (2.8.2.8-31) When inspecting wire rope before a hoisting operation, one must look for
__________.
o
o
o
(A) fishhooks
(B) worn spots
(C) kinks
2174. (2.8.2.8-32) When working with wire rope, which must be considered?
o
o
(A) The diameter of a sheave over which a rope is worked should be ten times that of the rope.
(B) It should be lubricated annually.
(C) It needs better care than hemp or manila.
(D) Metal sheaves should be lined with wood or leather.
2175. (2.8.2.8-33) Which molten substance is poured into the basket of a wire rope socket being fitted
to the end of a wire rope?
o
o
o
(A) Zinc
(B) Lead
(C) Babbitt
(D) Bronze
2176. (2.8.2.8-34) What is a step in attaching a poured metal socket to a wire rope?
o
o
o
(A) Install a wire seizing on the wire that will be inside the socket.
(B) Pour molten babbitt metal into the socket.
(C) Ensure the fiber core is well lubricated.
(D) Etch the wire with acid.

Deck General
September 2015
2177. (2.8.2.8-35) Which type of stopper should be used to stop off wire rope?
o
o
(A) Polypropylene
(B) Manila
(C) Chain
(D) Wire
2178. (2.8.2.8-36) Galvanizing would be suitable for protecting wire rope which is used for
__________.
o
o
o
(A) cargo runners

(B) stays
(C) topping lifts
2179. (2.8.2.8-37) Wire rope is galvanized to __________.
o
o
o
(A) protect it from corrosion due to contact with saltwater

(B) increase its circumference
(C) increase its strength
(D) make it bend more easily
2180. (2.8.2.8-38) In the manufacture of wire rope, if the wires are shaped to conform to the curvature
of the finished rope before they are laid up, the rope is called __________.
o
o
o
(A) preformed
(B) composite
(C) left-lay
(D) improved

Deck General
September 2015
2181. (2.8.2.8-39) When talking about wire rope, the lay of the wire is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) direction wires and strands are twisted together

(B) material used in the core
(C) number of strands in the wire
(D) direction the core is twisted
2182. (2.8.2.8-40) Serving is __________.

o
o
(A) marline or ratline wound along the grooves of a rope

(B) narrow strips of light canvas or cotton cloth spiral-wrapped along the rope
(C) marline tightly wound on the rope by means of a board or mallet
(D) a splice made by laying the strand of one rope into the vacated grooves of another rope
2183. (2.8.2.8-41) A six-strand composite rope made up of alternate fiber and wire strands around a
fiber core is called __________.
o
o
o
(A) alternate lay

(B) lang lay
(C) cable lay
(D) spring lay
2184. (2.8.2.8-42) A 6x12, two-inch wire rope has __________.

o
o
o
(A) 6 strands and a two-inch circumference

(B) 12 strands and a two-inch circumference
(C) 12 strands and a two-inch diameter
(D) 6 strands and a two-inch diameter
2185. (2.8.2.8-43) A mooring line is described as being 6x24, 1-3/4 inch wire rope. What do the above
numbers refer to?
o
o
(A) Strands, yarns, circumference

(B) Strands, circumference, wires
(C) Strands, wires, diameter
(D) Wires, yarns, diameter

Deck General
September 2015
2186. (2.8.2.8-44) A 6x19 wire rope would be __________.
o
o
o
(A) 6 strands with 19 wires in each strand

(B) 6 inches in diameter and 19 fathoms long
(C) 6 inches in circumference with 19 strands
(D) 19 strands with 6 wires in each strand
2187. (2.8.2.8-45) The size of wire rope is determined by the __________.

o
o
(A) circumference
(B) number of strands
(C) diameter
(D) number of wires in each strand
2188. (2.8.2.8-46) A common class of wire rope is the 6X37 class. What does the 37 represent?
o
o
o
(A) Tensile strength of the wire

(B) Number of wires in the inner core
(C) Number of strands per wire rope
(D) Number of wires per strand
2189. (2.8.2.9-1) What is the disadvantage of using self-tension winches in automatic mode when the
vessel is moored?
o
o
o
(A) they require more power than the generators can produce
(B) they may not always hold the vessel in position at the berth
(C) the constant paying out and taking up will prematurely wear the wire
(D) the winches will overheat if left running unattended
2190. (2.8.2.9-2) Which of the following reduces the holding capacity of a mooring winch brake?
o
o
o
(A) the mooring drum intake rate adjustment

(B) the number of layers of wire on the drum
(C) the setting of the windlass/winch control switch
(D) the setting of the manual intake valve

Deck General
September 2015
2191. (2.8.2.9-3) The holding capacity of a mooring winch can be reduced by moisture on the break
lines. What procedure can be used to remove moisture?
o
o
o
(A) winches have automatic heaters to remove moisture

(B) run the winch with the brake applied lightly
(C) add oil to the drum to displace the moisture
(D) replace the break linings since water cannot be removed
2192. (2.8.2.9-4) A mooring winch is designed to have a specific number of layers of wire on the drum
for optimum brake capacity. How many layers are recommended?
o
o
o
(A) one layer on the drum

(B) two layers on the drum
(C) three layers on the drum
(D) four layers on the drum
2193. (2.8.3-1) You should NOT use a power tool if __________.

o
o
o
(A) it has a three-prong plug

(B) hand tools can be used instead
(C) the power source is alternating current
(D) the insulation of the power wires is worn
2194. (2.8.3-2) When instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, you would
instruct him to __________.
o
o
(A) arch the back to add strength to the muscles

(B) bend his back and stoop
(C) bend his knees and lift with his legs
(D) bend his back and stoop with arms straight
2195. (2.8.3-3) Safety goggles or glasses are NOT normally worn when __________.
o
o
o
(A) handling wire rope or natural fiber line

(B) using a rotary grinder with an installed shield
(C) painting with a spray gun
(D) letting go the anchor

Deck General
September 2015
2196. (2.8.3-4) When chipping rust on a vessel, the MOST important piece of safety gear is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) gloves
(B) goggles
(C) a hard hat
(D) a long sleeve shirt
2197. (2.8.3-5) Which statement about pneumatic chipping tools is TRUE?

o
o
o
(A) The chipping mechanism is made of non-sparking material that is safe to use near explosive
atmospheres.
(B) The equipment must be grounded to prevent shock hazard.
(C) The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted
more than of their diameter.
(D) The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the
tool from becoming accidentally disconnected.
2198. (2.8.3-6) When using a pneumatic chipping tool all of the following are TRUE except?
o
o
o
(A) The equipment is not required to be grounded to prevent shock hazard.

(B) The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the
tool from becoming accidentally disconnected.
(C) It is not intended to be used in an explosive atmosphere.
(D) The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted
more than of their diameter.

Deck General
September 2015
2199. (2.9.2.1-69) It is good practice to use long towlines for ocean tows because the __________.
o
o
o
(A) dip in the towline absorbs shock loads

(B) danger of overriding is reduced
(C) wear on the towline is equalized
(D) weight of the towline increases the towing force
2200. (2.9.2.1-105) You would be most likely to use a fishplate __________.
o
o
o
(A) on a hawser tow

(B) when towing alongside
(C) when running "light boat"
(D) when pushing ahead or in the notch
2201. (2.4.2.4-1) The Safety of Life at Sea Convention was developed by the __________.
o
o
o

(C) American Institute of Maritime Shipping
(D) International Maritime Organization
2202. (2.9.2.1-20) In towing, chocks are used to __________.
o
o
o
(A) protect the towline from chafing

(B) secure the end of the towline on the tug
(C) stop off the towline while retrieving it
(D) absorb shock loading on the towline
2203. (2.4.1.3-29) Your load line certificate expires on 27 May 1988. The vessel is surveyed on that
date and is found satisfactory. You are sailing foreign the same day. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The existing certificate is extended until the first foreign port of call where a new certificate will
be issued by the local surveyor.
(B) A new certificate must be issued before you sail.
(C) The existing certificate is endorsed as valid for a five year period commencing 27 May 1988.
(D) The existing certificate is extended for a period of up to 150 days.

Deck General
September 2015
2204. (2.4.1.5A1.2-4) The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL 73/78 concerning oil
pollution apply to a U.S. flag vessel that sails on which waters?
o
o
o
(A) Inland waters only

(B) International waters
(C) Great Lakes only
2205. (2.4.1.2-5) What condition must be met during a stability test on an inspected vessel?
o
o
o
(A) each tank must be partially full to show it does not leak
(B) water under vessel must be deep enough to prevent grounding
(C) the vessel must be moored snugly
(D) all dunnage, tools, and extraneous items are secured
2206. (2.4.1.6A1-3) According to uninspected vessel regulations which is a B-II fire extinguisher?
o
o
(A) A 2 lb. dry chemical extinguisher

(B) A 2-1/2 gallon water (stored pressure) extinguisher
(C) A 15 lb. CO2 extinguisher
(D) A 1-1/4 gallon foam extinguisher
2207. (2.9.2.1-158) What shape barge offers the least resistance in river towing?
o
o
o
(A) A square ended barge

(B) Ship-shaped barges
(C) Hopper barges
(D) Barges with raked shaped bows
2208. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-12) You are in the North Sea, which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of
MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to throw broken plywood dunnage over the side?
o
o
o
(A) 25 nm
(B) 12 nm
(C) 6 nm
(D) Must be retained aboard

Deck General
September 2015
2209. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-7) According to Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage containing plastic is

permitted to be disposed of by __________.
o
o
o
(A) discharging when at least 12 nautical miles from nearest land

(B) incinerating offshore
(C) grinding to less than 1" and discharging at least 12 nautical miles from nearest land
(D) grinding to less than 1" and discharging at least 25 nautical miles from nearest land
2210. (2.4.1.3-21) The Plimsoll mark on a vessel is used to __________.
o
o
o
(A) determine the vessel's freeboard

(B) determine the vessel's trim
(C) align the vessel's tail shaft
(D) locate the vessel's centerline
2211. (2.4.1.6A4-3) How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long
fishing vessel propelled by engines with 600 brake horsepower?
o
o
o
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
2212. (2.4.1.5A4-18) Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and containers. Which is
an approved method of disposing of the waste oil?
o
o
o
(A) Draining it overboard when the vessel gets underway

(B) Placing it in proper disposal facilities
(C) Adding sinking agents and discharging it into the water
(D) Mixing it with dispersants before draining it overboard
2213. (2.9.2.1-106) Where is a surge line placed in the towing hookup?

o
o
o
(A) Connected between the "H" towing bitts and the main towing hawser
(B) Connected between the main towing hawser and the towing bridle
(C) End of line fastened directly to the drum of the towing winch
(D) As both legs of the towing bridle

Deck General
September 2015
2214. (2.4.1.5B-4) The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water is(are) __________.
o
o
o
(A) booms
(B) chemical dispersants
(C) straw
(D) skimmers
2215. (2.4.1.5A4-29) Where are the transfer procedures for oil products are required to be posted?
o
o
o
(A) in the officer's lounge

(B) where they can be easily seen or readily available
(C) in the pilothouse
(D) in the upper pump room flat
2216. (2.9.2.1-48) To lay out a towing hawser in a fore-and-aft direction so each bight is clear and can
run out freely without snagging describes __________.
o
o
o
(A) spooling
(B) faking
(C) flemishing
(D) worming, parceling and serving
2217. (2.4.1.6A3-6) Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire extinguishing system and a fixed fire
extinguishing system are required to protect the engine room on uninspected towing vessels whose
construction was contracted for on or after what date?
o
o
o
(A) February 1, 2002

(B) August 27, 2003
(C) April 29, 2004
(D) April 29, 2005
2218. (2.9.2.1-14) When towing, a tow hook is used to __________.

o
o
(A) pull a tow alongside

(B) join two hawsers for lengthening a tow
(C) provide quick release of the hawser
(D) attach a hawser to a tow which has no bitts or pad eyes

Deck General
September 2015
2219. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-3) Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another special area as listed in
ANNEX V of MARPOL, how many miles from land must you be to throw garbage including bottles,
rags, and glass that has not been ground up into the sea?
o
o
(A) 3 nm
(B) 6 nm
(C) 12 nm
(D) 25 nm
2220. (2.9.2.1-199) The disadvantage of using three strand nylon line for towing is its __________.
o
o
o
(A) tendency to rot if left damp

(B) strength and shock absorbing abilities
(C) inherent weakness
(D) danger to crew if it parts
2221. (2.9.2.1-80) What does the term "end-for-end" refer to in regard to a wire towing hawser?
o
o
o
(A) Cutting off the bitter and towing ends of the wire rope
(B) Removing the wire rope from the drum and turning it over so that the wire bends in the
opposite direction when rolled on a drum
(C) Splicing two wire ropes together
(D) Removing the wire rope from the drum and reversing it so that the towing end becomes the
bitter end
2222. (2.9.2.1-168) Is tripping limited to harbor and coastal towing?

o
o
(A) Yes. Because of increased water depths, forces required to capsize a tug are not usually
found in ocean towing.
(B) Yes. The long towing hawser used in ocean towing eliminates the danger of tripping.
(C) No. Forces tending to capsize a tug are as dangerous on the high seas as they are in harbor
and coastal work.
(D) No. Tripping is common in ocean towing because of more frequent maneuvering.
2223. (2.4.1.4-2) How long is a credential issued by the U.S. Coast Guard for apprentice mate
(steersman) of Towing Vessels valid for?
o
o
(A) 2 years and must be renewed

(B) 3 years and must be renewed
(C) 5 years and must be renewed

Deck General
September 2015
2224. (2.9.2.1-128) While towing, sudden shock-loading caused during heavy weather can be reduced
by __________.
o
o
o
(A) using a nonelastic type hawser

(B) using a heavier hawser
(C) using a short tow hawser
(D) decreasing the catenary in the hawser
2225. (2.4.1.5A1.4-7) What is the approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
o
o
o
(A) two years

(B) three years
(C) four years
(D) five years
2226. (2.4.1.4-11) What is the period of validity of a Merchant Mariner Credential?

o
o
(A) 2 years
(B) 1 year
(C) 5 years
(D) 3 years
2227. (2.9.1.1-1) In illustration D024DG below, which item is rigged to transmit the thrust from one
barge to another barge when going ahead?
o
o
(A) I
(B) H
(C) E
(D) B
2228. (2.9.2.1-101) An ocean towing bridle whose legs are of equal length, but too short, may
__________.
o
o
(A) cause the bridle legs to jump clear of the chocks or fairleads
(B) cause unequal distribution of the load to one leg
(C) put excessive strain on each leg

Deck General
September 2015
2229. (2.4.1.5A1.2A.1-3) Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) You must keep a record of garbage discharged in port to a shore facility.
(B) You must keep a record of the approximate weight of the garbage dumped.
(C) You need not keep a record of ground garbage dumped into the sea more than 25 miles
offshore.
(D) You need not keep a record of garbage incinerated on the ship.
2230. (2.4.1.5A4-11) A 100-GT vessel, constructed before July 1,1974, is loading diesel fuel. What is
the minimum capacity of the drip pans required for placement under or around each fuel tank vent,
overflow, and fill pipe?
o
o
o
(A) 1 gallon
(B) 5 gallons
(C) 1 barrel
(D) 2 barrels
2231. (2.4.1.5A1.2-1) In the navigable waters of the United States, Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 is NOT
applicable to a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) uninspected towing vessel

(B) uninspected passenger vessel under 100 GT
(C) recreational yacht
(D) U.S. government vessel in non-commercial service
2232. (2.4.1.5A3-5) According to the regulations, what type of gauging is required for a cargo of
butadiene?
o
o
o
(A) Closed
(B) Restricted
(C) Open
(D) None
2233. (2.9.2.1-61) Where should a vessel being towed alongside be positioned for increased
maneuverability?
o
o
o
(A) Stern of the towed vessel aft of the stern of the towing vessel
(B) Bow of the towed vessel even with the bow of the towing vessel
(C) Stern of the towed vessel even with the stern of the towing vessel
(D) Stern of the towed vessel forward of the stern of the towing vessel

Deck General
September 2015
2234. (2.4.1.5A5-13) Who must sign the Declaration of Inspection made before oil transfer operations?
o
o
o
(A) person(s) in charge

(B) Master of the vessel
(C) Captain of the Port
2235. (2.4.1.5A4-32) The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations is NOT required to
keep written records of __________.
o
o
(A) the name of each person designated as a person in charge

(B) hose information not marked on the hose
(C) cargoes carried and dates delivered, including destinations
(D) the date and results of the most recent equipment inspection
2236. (2.9.2.1-79) In securing a towing cable, consideration must be given to letting go in an

emergency. The possible whip of towlines when released can be overcome by __________.
o
o
o
(A) using preventers

(B) increasing the shaft RPM prior to release
(C) using a short chain for the lead through the stern chock
(D) using a pelican hook for quick release
2237. (2.9.2.1-153) A vessel brought alongside should be fended off the towing vessel by __________.
o
o
(A) crew members using their arms

(B) No fending is necessary due to the rugged construction of most towing vessels.
(C) fenders
(D) a boat hook
2238. (2.4.1.5A5-24) What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently connected flange
oil hose coupling?
o
o
o
(A) A bolt must be used in every hole.

(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 3

Deck General
September 2015
2239. (2.4.1.5A2-9) The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is
__________.
o
o
(A) generally safe to sea life

(B) too expensive for common use
(C) authorized only with prior approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator
(D) the most common method used in the United States
2240. (2.9.2.1-49) What equipment is NOT used to protect a towing hawser?

o
o
o
(A) Norman pins and tow spans

(B) Seizing wire, rope yarn and marline
(C) Hawser boards and chafing gear
(D) Halyards and snap hooks
2241. (2.9.2.1-73) The tow makeup that is designed to keep the catenary of the tow hawser to a
minimum is called the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Christmas tree tow

(B) tandem tow
(C) tandem tug tow
(D) British tow
2242. (2.9.2.1-22) How many legs does the bridle for an ocean tow have?
o
o
o
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
2243. (2.9.2.1-151) Fittings used for towing must be __________.

o
o
o
(A) Coast Guard approved

(B) stamped with maximum working loads
(C) positioned exactly at the bow of the towed vessel
(D) securely fastened

Deck General
September 2015
2244. (2.4.1.5A4-3) Who may serve as the "person in charge" of loading and discharge operations
aboard a tankship?
o
o
o
(A) The pumpman who has a tankerman assistant endorsement

(B) A credentialed officer who holds a tankerman-PIC endorsement
(C) The Master
(D) The bosun
2245. (2.4.1.5A2-11) As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the
discharge of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, what must he do FIRST?
o
o
(A) Rig a boom for recovery.

(B) Alert the fire department.
(C) Call the Coast Guard.
(D) Inform the Environmental Protection Agency.
2246. (2.9.2.1-36) Where is the best location to install a towing hook?
o
o
o
(A) Just aft of amidships

(B) Forward of the towing bitts
(C) Near the Norman Pins
(D) On the fantail
2247. (2.4.1.5A4-22) What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT to 400 GT be fitted with for oily
mixtures?
o
o
o
(A) A fixed system to discharge the slops overboard

(B) A portable system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility
(C) A portable system to discharge the slops overboard
(D) A fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility
2248. (2.4.1.5A5-21) Each pressure gauge used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 1 percent
(B) 3 percent
(C) 5 percent
(D) 10 percent

Deck General
September 2015
2249. (2.9.2.1-131) The danger of a towing vessel tripping is increased the closer the towline is
secured to __________.
o
o
o
(A) the quarter

(B) the stern
(C) the bow
(D) amidships
2250. (2.4.1.5A1.3-4) What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?
o
o
(A) Formaldehyde (>50%)

(B) Methyl ethyl ketone
(C) Nonane
(D) Sulfur (molten)
2251. (2.4.1.3-24) What is NOT surveyed at an annual load line survey?

o
o
(A) Main deck hatch covers

(B) Portholes and deadlights in the side plating
(C) The bilge pumping system
(D) The overall structure and layout of the vessel for alterations to the superstructure
2252. (2.9.2.1-150) You should attach a towline to a trailer eye bolt using a(n) _________.
o
o
o
(A) towing hitch

(B) bowline
(C) square knot
(D) eye splice
2253. (2.4.1.6A3-5) Either one approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system or a fixed fireextinguishing system is required to protect the engine room on uninspected towing vessels whose
construction was contracted for before what date?
o
o
o
(A) April 29, 2005

(B) April 29, 2004
(C) February 1, 2002
(D) August 27, 2003

Deck General
September 2015
2254. (2.4.1.5A5-9) What is the FIRST action to take if you detect oil around your tank vessel while
discharging?
o
o
o
(A) call the Master

(B) shut down operations
(C) try to find out where the oil is coming from
(D) have the pumpman check the discharge piping
2255. (2.9.1.2-10) A tow consists of 8 barges: 6 jumbo barges made up 3 abreast and 2 long, with 2
standard barges abreast as lead barges. How long is this tow?
o
o
(A) 525 feet

(B) 545 feet
(C) 565 feet
(D) 595 feet
2256. (2.4.1.5A1.4-9) Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plans must be reviewed __________.
o
o
o
(A) only once every five years, with a letter submitted six months before expiration
(B) annually by the owner, with a letter submitted to the Coast Guard within one month of the
anniversary date of the plan approval
(C) annually by the owner, with a letter submitted six months before expiration
(D) and the entire plan resubmitted for approval once every five years, six months before
expiration
2257. (2.9.1.1-2) In illustration D024DG below, what is the purpose of item "G"?
o
o
o
(A) distribute the vessel's thrust over a wider area

(B) prevent the knee from shifting when the rudder is put hard over
(C) keep the barges from shifting fore and aft
(D) prevent the towboat from capsizing if item I should part
2258. (2.9.1.1-3) In illustration D024DG below, which item is rigged to transmit the thrust from one
barge to another when backing down?
o
o
o
(A) I
(B) B
(C) H
(D) C

Deck General
September 2015
2259. (2.4.1.6A1-11) A 98 GT uninspected towing vessel with a 1500 B.H.P. engine capability would be
required to carry how many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers on board?
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
2260. (2.4.1.6A1-8) According to uninspected vessel regulations what is NOT listed on the metallic
name plate required to be attached to hand portable fire extinguishers?
o
o
(A) The name of the item

(B) An identifying mark of the actual manufacturer
(C) The hydrostatic test date of the cylinder
(D) The rated capacity in gallons, quarts, or pounds
2261. (2.9.2.1-155) To reduce the amount of catenary you may __________.
o
o
o
(A) shorten the hawser or increase the tug's speed

(B) lengthen the hawser or reduce the tug's speed
(C) make a sharp turn
(D) place your tug in irons
2262. (2.9.2.1-72) The Honolulu (Christmas tree) tow was devised to __________.
o
o
o
(A) allow easy removal of a center tow

(B) increase the catenary
(C) reduce hawser length
(D) keep the catenary to a minimum
2263. (2.9.1.1-4) In illustration D024DG below, which item refers to the face wire?
o
o
o
(A) I
(B) H
(C) B
(D) A

Deck General
September 2015
2264. (2.4.1.5A5-32) According to the U.S. regulations, what must be agreed upon by the person-incharge of transfer operations, both ashore and on the vessel?
o
o
o
(A) whether or not the transferring ship is a "Public Vessel of the United States"
(B) the identity of the product to be transferred
(C) the status of the oily water separator
(D) the size of the slop tank required under 155.330
2265. (2.4.1.6A1-13) Which type of fixed fire-extinguishing system is approved for use on board
uninspected vessels?
o
o
(A) Chemical foam

(B) Steam smothering
(C) Carbon dioxide
2266. (2.9.2.1-100) As seen from the tow, what should connect the leading ends of both towing bridle
legs to the main towing hawser?
o
o
o
(A) The towing bitts

(B) A pad eye
(C) A cable clamp
(D) A fishplate, flounder, or towing plate
2267. (2.4.1.3-20) A disk with a horizontal line through its center, equivalent to the summer load line, is
called the __________.
o
o
o
(A) deadrise mark

(B) maximum allowable draft mark
(C) tonnage mark
(D) Plimsoll mark

Deck General
September 2015
2268. (2.4.1.3-13) You are bound from port A governed by the summer load line mark to port B also
governed by the summer mark. The great circle track will take you into a zone governed by the
winter mark. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) You can load so that upon arrival at the pier at port B your freeboard is equal to the summer
mark less any fresh water allowance.
(B) You cannot load beyond the summer mark at port A and must be at the winter mark upon
arrival at port B.
(C) You can only load to the winter mark plus any fresh water allowance and burnout to sea at
port A.
(D) You must be at the winter mark when you enter the winter zone and cannot exceed the
summer mark upon departing port A.
2269. (2.9.2.1-9) Which type of towing hawser is preferred for towing astern?
o
o
o
(A) Polypropylene
(B) Polyester
(C) Manila
(D) Nylon
2270. (2.4.1.3-17) The maximum draft to which a vessel can legally be submerged is indicated by the
__________.
o
o
(A) tonnage mark

(C) load line mark
(D) Muster List ("Station Bill")
2271. (2.4.1.5A5-16) You are inspecting the nonmetallic oil transfer hoses on the vessel you operate.
The maximum allowable pressure of the hose is 70 psi. Your inspection confirms the hose did not
burst, bulge, leak or abnormally distort under the required static liquid pressure of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 70 psi
(B) 105 psi
(C) 140 psi
(D) 210 psi

Deck General
September 2015
2272. (2.9.1.1-5) Which item in illustration D024DG below, parting which item is one of the greatest
hazards of pushing ahead?
o
o
o
(A) A
(B) B
(C) F
(D) I
2273. (2.4.1.3-12) What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter F in illustration D003DG below?
o
o
o
(A) Fresh water load line

(B) Winter load line
(C) Tropical load line
(D) Summer load line
2274. (2.9.1.1-6) In illustration D024DG below what does item "A" represent?
o
o
o
(A) lashing
(B) scissor wire
(C) drag wire
(D) tandem wire
2275. (2.9.2.1-129) When a tug is "in irons", she __________.

o
o
o
(A) is made fast to the dock with engines secured

(B) may be in danger of being overrun by her tow
(C) is in dry dock
(D) should pay out more towline
2276. (2.9.2.1-19) Fairleads perform the same function as __________.

o
o
o
(A) bollards
(B) chocks
(C) bitts
(D) deadeyes

Deck General
September 2015
2277. (2.9.1.2-1) What is NOT considered "jewelry"?

o
o
o
(A) Manila lines

(B) Shackles
(C) Steamboat ratchets
(D) Buttons
2278. (2.4.1.5A4-34) The equipment required to remove an on-deck oil spill on a barge transferring oil
must either be carried on board or __________.
o
o
o
(A) available by contract with the shore facility

(B) on a tug standing by
(C) kept at the shoreside hose connection during transfer
(D) kept in a protected shoreside location readily accessible
2279. (2.4.1.2-1) Which document is NOT required by law to be posted aboard a vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Official Crew List

(B) Muster List
(C) Officer's licenses
2280. (2.9.2.2-1) When working on a tow, a good safety precaution is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) always remove the toothpick after tightening the ratchet

(B) carry loads on your inside shoulder when walking along the outside of a barge
(C) tighten ratchets outboard
(D) walk on the top of covered barges when possible to avoid narrow gunwales

Deck General
September 2015
2281. (2.4.1.5A4-17) What is the minimum fuel-oil discharge-containment needed for a 100 gross ton
vessel constructed after June 30,1974?
o
o
o
(A) At least 5 gallons

(B) At least 1 barrel
(C) At least 2 barrels
(D) At least 3 barrels
2282. (2.4.1.5B-2) Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the
U.S. is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The Department of Interior is responsible for the cleanup of the spill.
(B) The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast Guard.
(C) A warning broadcast must be made by radiotelephone.
(D) The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the cleanup of the spill.
2283. (2.4.1.6A1-7) On an uninspected vessel which sizes of fire extinguishers are considered to be
semi-portable?
o
o
o
(A) I, II, III, IV, and V

(B) I, II, and III only
(C) II, III, and IV only
(D) III, IV, and V only
2284. (2.4.1.6A1-17) How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery
space of an uninspected motor vessel with 1,400 BHP?
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
2285. (2.9.2.1-59) To obtain better steering control when you are towing alongside, your vessel should
be positioned with its __________.
o
o
(A) bow even with the bow of the tow

(B) bow extending forward of the tow
(C) stern extending aft of the tow
(D) stern amidships of the tow

Deck General
September 2015
2286. (2.9.2.1-45) When paying out nylon line from around the bitts __________.
o
o
o
(A) stand clear of the bitts and use two or more round turns under your figure eights
(B) no extra turns are necessary since nylon has a high coefficient of friction
(C) stand in the bight of the line
(D) you can surge the line even with a single turn
2287. (2.4.1.5A2-13) In cleaning up an oil spill, straw is an example of a __________.

o
o
o
(A) chemical agent

(B) sorbent
(C) blocker
2288. (2.9.2.1-171) What imminent danger results from tripping?

o
o
(A) The barge(s) collide with the stern

(B) Your tug being pulled backwards by your tow
(C) Capsizing your tug
(D) The stern of the tug submerges causing flooding into engine room
2289. (2.4.1.5A3-7) According to U.S. regulations what is the maximum allowable working pressure
(MAWP) for each hose assembly used for transferring oil?
o
o
o
(A) more than the sum of the pressure of the relief valve setting
(B) at least four times the sum for the pressure of the relief valve setting
(C) more than the maximum pump pressure when a relief valve is not installed
(D) at least 600 psi (4.14 MPa)
2290. (2.9.1.2-9) A device used to tighten up remaining slack in wire rope when you are making up to a
tow in inland waters is a __________.
o
o
o
(A) norman pin

(B) tripping line
(C) tripping bracket
(D) steamboat ratchet

Deck General
September 2015
2291. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-17) Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red
Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw packing materials that will float into
the sea?
o
o
(A) 12 nm
(B) 3 nm
(C) 25 nm
(D) 6 nm
2292. (2.4.1.6A1-22) The remote control for a fixed fire extinguishing system, on an uninspected
vessel, should be which of the following?
o
o
(A) concealed from the crew

(B) padlocked
(C) painted red and labeled
(D) protected by plexiglass
2293. (2.4.1.5A5-27) According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who makes the final
decision of when oil transfer may begin?
o
o
(A) The captain of the port

(B) The senior deck officer present
(C) The designated person-in-charge
(D) Any local Coast Guard representative
2294. (2.9.1.2-2) The circular steel structure installed around the propeller of a towboat is the
__________.
o
o
(A) strut
(B) hood
(C) nozzle
(D) shroud
2295. (2.9.2.1-97) A towing hook may be released from the __________.

o
o
o
(A) tug's engine room or the bow

(B) forecastle
(C) towing bitts by reaching over and releasing a lever
(D) pilot house or aft steering station

Deck General
September 2015
2296. (2.4.1.6A1-23) On uninspected vessels where shall controls for a fixed carbon dioxide system be
mounted?
o
o
o
(A) on the main deck near the bow

(B) directly outside the space protected by the system
(C) in the pilothouse
(D) as near the gas cylinders as possible
2297. (2.9.2.1-3) To lead the towing hawser over the center of the stern when not under a strain you
could __________.
o
o
o
(A) hold it in the median position by a gob rope

(B) fairlead it through a stern roller chock
(C) lead it through the Norman pins
(D) All of the above when so equipped
2298. (2.4.1.3-3) Your vessel has the symbol shown in illustration D022DG below inscribed on the side.
Which statement concerning this symbol is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) This represents the load line marks when engaged on a voyage upon the Great Lakes.
(B) The applicable gross and net tonnage of the ship will change if this mark is submerged and
the load line mark is visible.
(C) The symbol is the equivalent of a load line marking and is used by government vessels (USN,
MSC, USCG) only.
(D) The line directly under the triangle is at the same level as the summer load line.
2299. (2.9.1.2-3) Kort nozzles are installed around the propellers of some vessels to __________.
o
o
o
(A) increase the thrust of the propeller

(B) prevent the propeller from striking barges towed on the hip
(C) protect the propeller from striking sawyers
(D) prevent the propeller from touching bottom in low water
2300. (2.9.2.1-165) A tug is "in irons" when held in a fixed position by __________.
o
o
(A) an adverse current

(B) the weight of its tow, its being anchored, or grounded
(C) the towing hawser snagged on the bottom
(D) lack of power or an engine breakdown

Deck General
September 2015
2301. (2.9.1.2-4) "Hanging a barge off" means to __________.

o
o
o
(A) remove and deliver a loaded barge from a multiple tow

(B) tow an empty barge astern
(C) remove a barge while locking through
(D) moor a barge to the bank and leave
2302. (2.9.2.1-83) When maneuvering a heavy barge up a wide channel with a tug, the tow may be
most closely controlled by making up to the barge __________.
o
o
o
(A) nearly bow to bow, at a small angle

(B) nearly stern to stern, at a small angle to the barge
(C) with a short tow astern
(D) amidships, parallel to the barge
2303. (2.4.1.5A1.2A.1-7) You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of
garbage disposed must be stated in __________.
o
o
(A) barrels of 55 gallon capacity

(B) both kilos and pounds
(C) cubic meters
(D) both cubic meters and cubic feet
2304. (2.4.1.5A4-21) A vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved means of processing
oily bilge slops or oily ballast must have __________.
o
o
o
(A) a fixed piping system for ballast discharge to a reception facility

(B) one portable adapter for a shore connection to the ballast line
(C) a discharge outlet for the ballast system on each side of the weather deck
2305. (2.4.1.5A4-7) Which of the following best describes the requirement of the emergency pump
control when used as the emergency shutdown on tank vessels?
o
o
(A) stop the flow of oil at the main deck manifold

(B) prevent the oil from leaving the shore facility
(C) prevent the oil from siphoning through the pump

Deck General
September 2015
2306. (2.9.2.1-160) Barges and vessels are ballasted before departure to __________.
o
o
o
(A) allow movement of liquids within the barge for tank cleaning
(B) prevent free surface effects
(C) avoid polluting waters where liquid ballast may not be discharged
(D) improve their stability
2307. (2.4.1.5A5-2) While your vessel is taking on fuel you notice oil on the water around the vessel.
What should you do FIRST?
o
o
(A) Determine the source of the oil.

(B) Notify the terminal superintendent.
(C) Stop the fueling.
(D) Notify the Coast Guard.
2308. (2.4.1.4-8) A credentialed Master of Towing Vessels may NOT serve as the Captain of which
towing vessel?
o
o
o
(A) 99 GRT towing vessel operating on Chesapeake Bay

(B) 199 GRT towing vessel operating in the Gulf of Alaska
(C) 400 GRT towboat operating on the Western Rivers
(D) 375 GRT towing vessel operating between Texas and Puerto Rico
2309. (2.9.1.2-5) A long pole with a hook at one end, used to reach for lines, is known as a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) jack staff

(B) pike pole
(C) hooker
(D) line rod
2310. (2.4.1.5A5-10) The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must
hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer?
o
o
o
(A) The person in charge on the vessel

(B) The person in charge at the facility
(C) The person in charge of either place that is doing the pumping
(D) Both persons in charge

Deck General
September 2015
2311. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-16) Your oceangoing vessel has medical waste to be disposed of ashore. How
many hours advance notice must you give the port or terminal?
o
o
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 48
2312. (2.4.1.5A3-9) According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quickclosing shut off valves?
o
o
o
(A) A fusible link

(B) A water spray actuator
(C) Electrical cut off switch
(D) Manual cut off switch
2313. (2.4.1.5A5-11) Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel?
o
o
o
(A) The American Bureau of Shipping

(B) The person(s) designated in charge
(C) The U.S. Coast Guard
(D) The manager of the shore facility
2314. (2.9.2.1-188) A towing winch, that handles a wire towline, must have all of the following EXCEPT
a _________.
o
o
o
(A) device that evenly spools and tightly winds the towline
(B) source of emergency power to operate the winch
(C) brake with holding power appropriate for the vessel's horsepower or bollard pull
(D) brake that can be operated when there is no power available to drive the winch
2315. (2.9.2.1-162) An advantage of the modified Christmas Tree towing method is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) reduce catenary, allow operation in shallower water, and to release one barge without
breaking up the entire tow
(B) provide rapid delivery of logs from the northwestern United States to Hawaiian sawmills
(C) increase the towing hawser's catenary and provide more spring
(D) enable one tug and its crew without any outside assistance to make up or break down the tow

Deck General
September 2015
2316. (2.9.2.1-33) One reason a tug's towing bitts are located forward of the rudders is because
__________.
o
o
o
(A) this allows more responsive steering

(B) this is where the towhook is located
(C) it is traditional
(D) it makes it easier to hook up the towing hawser
2317. (2.9.2.1-12) On a light tow, what could you substitute for a fishplate?
o
o
o
(A) ring
(B) heart-shaped shackle
(C) swivel
(D) pelican hook
2318. (2.4.1.5B-8) Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.
o
o
(A) major casualties

(B) unforeseeable circumstances
(C) human error
(D) equipment failure
2319. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-2) You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of
MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into
the sea?
o
o
o
(A) 25
(B) 12
(C) 3
(D) Must be retained aboard
2320. (2.9.1.2-6) You would NOT secure a line to a __________.
o
o
o
(A) stand pipe

(B) timber head
(C) kevel
(D) button

Deck General
September 2015
2321. (2.4.1.3-16) Keeping the draft at or below the load line mark will insure that the vessel has
adequate __________.
o
o
o
(A) displacement
(B) ballast
(C) rolling periods
(D) reserve buoyancy
2322. (2.9.1.2-7) The section of each end of a barge which is heavily reinforced to take the pressure of
pushing is called the __________.
o
o
o
(A) collision bulkhead

(B) headlog
(C) bullnose
(D) towhead
2323. (2.9.1.2-8) When barge headlogs do not meet or are not even with one another, the void or
opening between them is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) spacing
(B) notch
(C) gap
(D) hole
2324. (2.9.1.2-11) A tow of 9 barges is made up three abreast and three long. The towboat is faced up
to the center string which is known as the __________.
o
o
o
(A) power string

(B) face string
(C) main string
(D) push string
2325. (2.9.1.2-12) A tow of 9 barges is made up three abreast by three long. The towboat is faced up to
the last barge of the center string. The outer two strings of barges are the __________.
o
o
(A) port and starboard strings

(B) side strings
(C) drag strings
(D) outer strings

Deck General
September 2015
2326. (2.4.1.5A4-14) You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 1,600 gross tons constructed
after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.
o
o
(A) have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area

(B) are opened and the flame screen replaced
(C) have containment capacity for at least one barrel
(D) are not obstructed by on-deck cargo
2327. (2.9.2.1-39) A heavy steel curved arch constructed athwartships and above the after deck on a
towing vessel is sometimes called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) chafing bar

(B) Dutch tow bar
(C) carling
o
o
o
(A) Dodecyl methacrylate

(B) Latex
(C) Sulfur (molten)
(D) Asphalt
2329. (2.9.2.1-85) Why are stern towing bitts placed well forward of the rudder when hawser towing?
o
o
o
(A) To allow the stern to swing more freely when using rudder
(B) To have as much of the towing hawser in use as possible
(C) To keep the hawser from fouling the rudder
(D) To keep the towing bitts as far away as possible from the tugs pivoting point
2330. (2.9.2.1-109) A bridle for an ocean tow consists of __________.
o
o
o
(A) two chains of equal length

(B) two long legs of wire rope shackled to a fishplate
(C) a single length of heavy chain with both ends secured on deck to welded pad eyes
(D) a single nylon pendant rove through a heavy ring free to move on the pendant

Deck General
September 2015
2331. (2.9.1.2-13) You attach a line to a stationary barge lying off your starboard beam in order to
maneuver it into position to make up tow. The line used to do this is a __________.
o
o
o
(A) check line

(B) swing line
(C) jockey line
(D) fore and aft line
2332. (2.4.1.3-30) In the United States, the load line markings are set by the __________.
o
o
o

(B) Coast Guard
(C) Federal Maritime Board
(D) IMO
2333. (2.9.1.2-14) When "checking down" a barge using a check line you should use __________.
o
o
o
(A) a clove hitch around one timber head

(B) at least three figure-eights around the timber heads
(C) one round turn and at least two figure-eights around the timber heads
(D) at least three round turns around one timber head
2334. (2.9.1.2-17) You are in the process of adding a barge to your tow. A line run from your power
capstan and around timber heads on your tow is made fast on the new barge so that it can be pulled
into position. This line is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) spring line

(B) fore and aft line
(C) scissors wire
(D) capstan line

Deck General
September 2015
2335. (2.4.1.5A2-5) A tankerman who permits or causes oil to go into a navigable waterway may be
federally punished with which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) imprisonment
(B) suspension or revocation of tankermans document
(C) fine
2336. (2.4.1.2-6) On an inspected vessel, which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between
perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the after-most points on the waterline at her deepest
operating draft?
o
o
o
(A) LOA
(B) LBP
(C) LWL
(D) LLL
2337. (2.9.1.2-15) A face line is used to __________.

o
o
(A) prevent barge movement in a lock

(B) secure two barges end-to-end
(C) secure barges to the towboat
(D) secure barges side-by-side
2338. (2.9.2.1-111) The biggest problem you generally encounter while towing a single tow astern is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) yaw
(B) swamping of the tow
(C) the tow tending to dive
(D) the catenary dragging on the bottom
2339. (2.9.2.1-28) Your vessel is being towed and back-up wires have been installed. Back-up wires
carry the towing load in the event that the __________.
o
o
o
(A) towing bitt or pad eye fails

(B) main towing hawser parts
(C) bridle legs part
(D) bight ring fails

Deck General
September 2015
2340. (2.9.1.2-16) A "check" line is __________.

o
o
o
(A) a safety line attached to a man working over the side

(B) used to slow the headway of a barge
(C) used to measure the overhead height of a bridge
(D) used to measure water depth
2341. (2.9.2.1-107) If the towing bridle legs are not of equal length __________.
o
o
o
(A) excessive strain is placed on the shorter leg

(B) the longer leg is slack
(C) the shorter leg may fail
2342. (2.9.1.2-18) A lashing used to secure three or four barges at a common corner, lashed in an "X"
fashion, is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) breast wire

(B) scissor wire
(C) towing wire
(D) cross wire
2343. (2.4.1.5A4-37) You are operating an ocean-going vessel of 322 gross tons. If your vessel does
NOT have an oily-water separator then she must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily ballast
to a shore facility. This system must include __________.
o
o
o
(A) at least two pumps that may be put in line

(B) containment capacity for at least 5 gallons at the tank vents
(C) at least two outlets accessible from the weather deck
(D) a means to stop each pump near the discharge outlet
2344. (2.4.1.5A4-2) Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled "Discharge of Oil
Prohibited"?
o
o
(A) It is required on all vessels.

(B) It must be located in a conspicuous place in the wheelhouse.
(C) It must be located at the bilge and ballast pump control station.

Deck General
September 2015
2345. (2.9.2.1-140) With a large tow astern, there is immediate danger to the tug in the event of the
__________.
o
o
(A) bridle twisting

(B) tow broaching
(C) tug losing power
(D) towline parting
2346. (2.4.1.5A4-5) Which vessel is NOT required to have a Pollution Placard posted on board?
o
o
o
(A) 215-foot naval auxiliary vessel

(B) 75-foot towing vessel
(C) 50-foot cabin cruiser used for pleasure only
(D) 150-foot unmanned tank barge
2347. (2.9.2.1-62) The catenary in a towline is __________.

o
o
o
(A) a short bridle

(B) used to hold it amidships
(C) another name for a pelican hook
(D) the downward curvature of the hawser
2348. (2.9.2.1-161) Which type of ballast is most commonly used in barges and ships?
o
o
o
(A) Concrete and barite

(B) Oil
(C) Sand, rock and gravel
(D) Water
2349. (2.4.1.3-33) A load line certificate is valid for how many years?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5

Deck General
September 2015
2350. (2.9.1.3-1) The owner or Master of a vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside must ensure that
each of the following is appropriate for the vessel's horsepower and tow arrangement EXCEPT
__________.
o
o
(A) spring lines

(B) face wires
(C) hydraulic couplings
(D) push gear
2351. (2.4.1.5A4-1) For the purposes of cargo oil containment, the fixed container under the manifold
of an eight-inch loading line must hold a minimum of __________.
o
o
o
(A) three barrels

(B) four barrels
(C) six barrels
(D) eight barrels
2352. (2.9.2.1-47) What is NOT an advantage of a wire towing hawser?
o
o
o
(A) Has more spring and shock resistance than synthetic.

(B) Can be used to tow heavier loads because of its smaller diameter and more manageable size.
(C) Easy to handle when properly spooled on the drum of a towing winch.
(D) Subject to less deterioration than synthetic if properly maintained.
2353. (2.4.1.5A3-2) How is the minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose assembly determined?
o
o
o
(A) the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head
(B) four times the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head
(C) three times the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head
(D) twice the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head
2354. (2.9.2.1-1) In astern towing, a tow span, also called the "tow bar" or "towing arch", is used to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) insure that the hawser leads directly aft as it passes over the stern of the towing vessel
(B) prevent fouling of the hawser on deck gear located on the stern of the towing vessel
(C) increase the stability of the towing vessel by raising the hawser off the deck
(D) reduce chafing of the towing hawser

Deck General
September 2015
2355. (2.9.2.1-11) A chain bridle is used when towing astern because it __________.
o
o
o
(A) makes rigging a swivel unnecessary

(B) is easy to connect
(C) prevents the tow from yawing by the drag of the chains in a seaway
(D) provides an effective catenary and absorbs shock due to its weight
2356. (2.9.2.1-53) The catenary __________.

o
o
o
(A) is the dip in the towing hawser between the tug and the tow
(B) gives an approximation of the amount of strain on the towing hawser
(C) acts as a reserve length of towing hawser when the tug applies more power, and it dampens
the surge effect of the tow
2357. (2.9.2.1-189) A vessel that tows astern must have a/an _________.
o
o
o
(A) towing winch

(B) ax or knife mounted near the towing bitts
(C) oxyacetylene cutting torch
(D) method to easily release the towline
2358. (2.4.1.3-15) The primary purpose of a load line is to establish required __________.
o
o
o
(A) GM
(B) minimum freeboard
(C) transverse stability
(D) fresh water allowances
2359. (2.4.1.5A4-40) Which of the following must be included in the "oil transfer procedures" required
by U.S Pollution Prevention Regulations?
o
o
o
(A) any special procedures inherent to that particular vessel for topping off tanks
(B) the location, size, and barrel capacity of each tank that is capable of carrying oil
(C) the emergency cleanup and containment procedures to be followed in the event of an oil spill

Deck General
September 2015
2360. (2.4.1.5A4-28) The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are NOT required to
contain __________.
o
o
o
(A) the name of each person designated as the person in charge of transfer
(B) special procedures for topping off tanks
(C) a line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping
(D) a description of the deck discharge containment system
2361. (2.9.2.1-35) What purpose does a tow hook serve?

o
o
o
(A) To help pick up the towing hawser from the water

(B) To quickly connect or release the towing hawser
(C) To recover the towing hawser from a barge
(D) To prevent the towing hawser from fouling the propeller
2362. (2.9.2.1-120) With a large ocean tow in heavy weather, you should NOT __________.
o
o
o
(A) use a long towing hawser

(B) keep the low point of the catenary in the water
(C) keep the stern of the tug well down in the water
(D) adjust the towline so the tug is on the crest when the tow is in the trough
2363. (2.9.2.1-95) A towing vessel's capability is BEST measured by horsepower, maneuverability,

displacement, and __________.
o
o
o
(A) bollard pull

(B) towing winch horsepower
(C) propeller design
(D) stability
2364. (2.9.2.1-10) A texas bar __________.

o
o
o
(A) prevents the towing hawser from snagging any equipment or gear on deck
(B) allows the crew access to the fantail
(C) may be equipped with a greased, free sliding spool to fairlead the towing hawser

Deck General
September 2015
2365. (2.4.1.5A2-10) It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by using __________.
o
o
o
(A) suction equipment

(B) a boom
(C) skimmers
(D) chemical agents
2366. (2.9.2.1-89) In towing it is desirable for the tug and the tow to ride wave crests simultaneously
because __________.
o
o
(A) the tow is more visible from the tug

(B) the catenary of the towline is reduced
(C) shock loading on the tow line is reduced
(D) towing speed is improved
2367. (2.9.2.1-43) What does "end for end" mean in regard to a towing hawser?
o
o
o
(A) To increase the catenary

(B) To take the kinks out of the hawser
(C) To fake it down in figure eights
(D) To swap ends of the hawser to minimize wear
2368. (2.9.2.1-41) A towing hawser should be stowed __________.

o
o
(A) by hanging it in the engine room

(B) by faking on a rack
(C) in a sealed locker with adequate air circulation
(D) by spooling it on the winch
2369. (2.9.2.1-55) When towing astern, increased catenary will __________.
o
o
o
(A) reduce shock stress on the towing hawser

(B) increase control of the tow
(C) prevent the towing vessel from going in irons
(D) make the towing vessel less maneuverable

Deck General
September 2015
2370. (2.9.2.1-58) Which statement is TRUE concerning hawser towing?
o
o
o
(A) Shortening the tow hawser generally decreases the maneuverability of the tug.
(B) Increasing speed usually increases the catenary in the hawser.
(C) The hawser is of sufficient length for towing when taut between tug and tow.
(D) The catenary in a hawser should be sufficient so that the hawser just touches the bottom.
2371. (2.9.2.1-56) Catenary as applied to tow lines denotes the __________.
o
o
o
(A) dip of the line

(B) strain on the line
(C) length of the line
(D) stretch of the line
2372. (2.9.2.1-57) On a shallow water tow, the catenary of the towline should be __________.
o
o
(A) adjusted frequently

(B) large
(C) small
(D) eliminated
2373. (2.4.1.5A1.4-2) According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), the shipboard Oil Pollution
Emergency Plan must include __________.
o
o
o
(A) an explanation and purpose of the plan

(B) all information ordinarily provided in the Oil Record Book
(C) the operating instructions for any and all oily-water separators installed aboard the vessel
(D) a one-line schematic of the plan to be implemented
2374. (2.9.2.1-63) A term used to describe the dip in a towline that acts as a shock absorber is
__________.
o
o
(A) step
(B) shock dip
(C) catenary
(D) bight

Deck General
September 2015
2375. (2.9.2.1-136) A towing vessel becomes tripped while towing on a hawser astern. What factor is
LEAST important when assessing the risk of capsizing?
o
o
(A) Length of the barge

(B) Direction of opposing force
(C) Height of the towline connection
(D) Length of the towline
2376. (2.9.2.1-132) What may prevent a tug from tripping or capsizing when towing a large vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Safety shackles

(B) Under riders
(C) Surge lines
(D) Norman Pins
2377. (2.9.2.1-2) When connecting the tow bridle to a tug, the end of the bridle is passed with a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) messenger line

(B) high line
(C) shot line
(D) heaving line
2378. (2.9.2.1-88) What does "in step" refer to in regards to towing?

o
o
o
(A) When turning, both the towed and towing vessels turn at the same time.
(B) Both the towed and towing vessels reach a wave crest or trough at the same time.
(C) The towed vessel follows exactly in the wake of the towing vessel.
(D) There is no catenary in the towing hawser.
2379. (2.4.1.4-12) A mariner whose credential has been revoked shall not be issued another credential
without which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) approval of the Officer-in-Charge, Marine Inspection

(B) approval of an administrative law judge
(C) taking a new examination
(D) approval of the Commandant

Deck General
September 2015
2380. (2.4.1.5A4-25) Fuel for use on a vessel (300 GT or more constructed before July 1, 1974) may
be carried in independent tanks forward of a collision bulkhead if the __________.
o
o
(A) tank is 18 inches inboard of the hull structure

(B) fuel has a flash point above 180F
(C) tanks were designated, installed, or constructed for fuel oil carrying before July 1, 1974
(D) shell of the tank is of the same thickness or greater than that of the vessel's hull
2381. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-13) How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to keep the crew informed
of the regulations concerning the discharging of garbage overboard?
o
o
o
(A) Give each crewmember a copy of ANNEX V of MARPOL.

(B) Have each person read and sign a copy of the regulations.
(C) Call an all hands meeting before sailing.
(D) Keep placards prominently posted.
2382. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-18) If you are operating on the Inland Waters of the United States, which of the
following may you discharge overboard?
o
o
o
(A) bottles
(B) metal
(C) dunnage
2383. (2.9.2.1-34) Where should the foundation supports for towing bitts terminate?
o
o
(A) On the deck plates in the engine room

(B) On deck, aft of the towing winch
(C) In the frames or other substantial structural members below decks
(D) Forward of the towing winch
2384. (2.9.2.1-164) The effect of excessive catenary in shallow water may be __________.
o
o
o
(A) snagging sunken or submerged objects

(B) dragging the towing hawser along the bottom and chafing it
(C) slowing, stopping or endangering the towing operation by placing the tug in irons

Deck General
September 2015
2385. (2.9.2.1-90) A towing vessel should be on the crest of a wave at the same time as its tow and in
the trough at the same time. The term used to describe this is __________.
o
o
o
(A) catenary length

(B) Williamson's Tow
(C) tow strain
(D) being in step
2386. (2.9.2.1-23) An ocean towing bridle should __________.

o
o
o
(A) have a large angle between the legs

(B) have equal legs of sufficient length
(C) be formed on a bight of cable through a ring
(D) never be made up of chain
2387. (2.4.1.3-34) Load lines for U.S. vessels are assigned by __________.
o
o
o
(A) the National Cargo Bureau

(B) the American Bureau of Shipping
(C) Lloyd's Register of Shipping
(D) the U.S. Coast Guard
2388. (2.9.2.1-4) It is NOT advisable to use nylon for alongside towing because it __________.
o
o
o
(A) is too susceptible to mildew

(B) stretches too much
(C) is too difficult to make fast
(D) parts too readily
2389. (2.9.2.1-27) Back-up wires on a towed vessel provide __________.

o
o
o
(A) a factor of safety

(B) a distribution of the towing load
(C) additional strength

Deck General
September 2015
2390. (2.9.2.1-29) The amount of force a tug can exert on a stationary pull is called its __________.
o
o
o
(A) shaft horsepower

(B) indicated horsepower
(C) brake horsepower
(D) bollard pull
2391. (2.9.2.1-5) When towing astern, chafing gear should NOT be used on a hawser which is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) attached to an automatic towing engine

(B) held amidships by a gob rope
(C) attached to an "H" bitt
(D) connected to a swivel
2392. (2.9.2.1-24) On a long ocean tow, the bridle should be made up of two equal lengths of
__________.
o
o
o
(A) wire
(B) chain
(C) nylon
(D) polyester
2393. (2.9.2.1-6) Which towing equipment can be used to prevent the tripping of a tug?
o
o
(A) Drogues
(B) Bridles
(C) Gob ropes
(D) Chafing boards
2394. (2.9.2.1-8) Which statement is TRUE about the use of a "gob rope"?
o
o
o
(A) The gob rope is used to secure the towline aft over the centerline of a tug..
(B) The gob rope is a rope used in mooring a vessel to a buoy.
(C) The gob rope is a mooring line for tying up lighters for working cargo alongside a vessel
anchored in an open roadstead.
(D) The gob rope is a line hung over a vessel's side to assist in boarding.

Deck General
September 2015
2395. (2.9.2.1-13) When making up a tow connection, you should use __________.
o
o
o
(A) plain eye hooks

(B) safety hooks
(C) round pin shackles
(D) screw pin shackles
2396. (2.9.2.1-18) The lead of a tow bridle is usually redirected with a __________.
o
o
o
(A) chock
(B) devil's claw
(C) pad eye
(D) bollard
2397. (2.9.2.1-15) When being towed by one tug, the towing bridle should be connected to towing
__________.
o
o
(A) pad eyes with safety hooks

(B) pad eyes with pelican hooks
(C) bitts with figure eights
2398. (2.4.1.5A1.2-6) Which international body is responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting
marine pollution (MARPOL) ?
o
o
(A) Maritime Advisory Council

(B) International Association of Shipping
(C) International Maritime Organization
(D) Association of Seafaring Nations
2399. (2.4.1.5A4-10) Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have
an inside diameter of eight inches. The container around the loading manifold must hold
__________.
o
o
o
(A) three barrels

(B) four barrels
(C) six barrels
(D) eight barrels

Deck General
September 2015
2400. (2.9.2.1-67) When towing another vessel astern, the length of the towline should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) not over two wave lengths in seas up to 10 feet

(B) as long as possible
(C) such that one vessel will be on a crest while the other is in a trough
(D) such that the vessels will be "in step"
2401. (2.9.2.1-16) When being towed, a fairlead is a __________.
o
o
o
(A) fabricated shape used to change the direction of a flexible member of the tow hookup
(B) line connecting the tow bridle to the towed vessel
(C) line connecting the fishplate to the bridle legs
(D) fabricated shape used to secure the tow hookup to the towed vessel
2402. (2.9.2.1-17) What could be used as fairleads on a towed vessel?

o
o
o
(A) Double bitts

(B) Chocks
(C) Roller chocks
2403. (2.4.1.5A1-4) Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many
location(s)?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
2404. (2.9.2.1-21) Your vessel is being towed and you are using a tripping rope. A tripping rope of fiber
or wire is used to __________.
o
o
o
(A) give added strength to the main tow hawser

(B) retrieve the main tow hawser
(C) open the pelican hook at the fishplate
(D) retrieve the outboard legs of the bridle where they are connected to the fishplate

Deck General
September 2015
2405. (2.9.2.1-25) You are being towed by one tug. As you lengthen the bridle legs you __________.
o
o
o
(A) reduce the spring effect of the tow connection

(B) increase your chances of breaking the towing hawser
(C) increase your chances of breaking the bridle legs
(D) reduce the yawing of your vessel
2406. (2.9.2.1-26) When a tow is trimmed by the stern it is said to __________.

o
o
o
(A) list
(B) hog
(C) sag
(D) drag
2407. (2.9.2.1-30) The static bollard pull of a tug is measured in tons and consists of the brake
horsepower of the tug's engine divided by 100 and multiplied by a factor of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.3
(C) 3.0
(D) 10
2408. (2.4.1.5A4-31) The operator of a vessel subject to the pollution regulations shall keep a written
record available for inspection by the COPT or OCMI. What will this record contain?
o
o
o
(A) hose information including the minimum design burst pressure for each hose
(B) the date and result of the most recent test on the system relief valves
(C) the name of each person currently designated as a person in charge
2409. (2.9.2.1-31) In towing, heaving lines are used for __________.
o
o
o
(A) passing a messenger line

(B) heaving in the tow bridle
(C) passing a tow bridle to the tug
(D) service lines with rocket line throwers

Deck General
September 2015
2410. (2.9.2.1-135) An ocean tow is sinking in deep water. Attempts to sever the towing hawser are
unsuccessful. Which action should now be taken?
o
o
o
(A) Slip the towline and allow it to run off the drum.
(B) Abandon the towing vessel.
(C) Radio for emergency assistance.
(D) Secure all watertight openings on the towing vessel.
2411. (2.9.2.1-116) When making up a long, large coastwise tow, which of the following procedures is
INCORRECT?
o
o
(A) A chain towing bridle is generally preferred

(B) Rig tripping ropes (retrieving lines)
(C) Backup wires are left slack
(D) Safety shackles should be used when connecting to the fishplate
2412. (2.9.2.1-32) Where are the towing bitts best placed for towing purposes?
o
o
o
(A) On each side of the vessel near the stern

(B) Near the centerline and over the rudders
(C) As far aft as possible
(D) Forward of the rudder post and close to the tug's center of pivot
2413. (2.4.1.5A1.2A.1-5) You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that
ship by name and show her __________.
o
o
(A) home port

(B) Master
(C) official number
(D) next port-of-call
2414. (2.9.2.1-37) A heavy steel curved arch constructed athwartships and above the after deck on a
towing vessel is sometimes called a __________.
o
o
(A) jockey bar

(B) main brace
(C) texas bar

Deck General
September 2015
2415. (2.9.2.1-38) Which structural members improve a towing vessel's chance of surviving punctured
shell plating?
o
o
(A) Longitudinals
(B) Stringers
(C) Transverse watertight bulkheads
(D) The rake
2416. (2.9.2.1-40) Of which type of material may a towing hawser be constructed?

o
o
o
(A) Polyester
(B) Nylon
(C) Wire rope
2417. (2.9.2.1-42) A towing hawser is readied for service by __________.

o
o
o
(A) coiling it in a counterclockwise direction on the fantail

(B) faking it on deck in a fore and aft direction
(C) spooling it on a winch cathead
(D) spooling it on a reel lying on its side to prevent rolling
2418. (2.4.1.5A1.4-8) At what frequency do Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard Oil Pollution
Emergency Plan to be reviewed?
o
o
o
(A) annually
(B) once every two years
(C) once every four years
(D) once every five years
2419. (2.9.2.1-46) Wire rope is used in the towing industry __________.

o
o
(A) as stern wires when pushing ahead

(B) for back up wires and main towing hawsers
(C) All of the above
(D) for face wires or jockeys when pushing ahead

Deck General
September 2015
2420. (2.4.1.5A1.2A.1-9) Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) You must keep a record of garbage discharged in port to a shore facility.
(B) You need not keep a record of dumping ground garbage in to the sea more than 25 miles
offshore.
(C) You must keep a record of the approximate weight of the garbage dumped.
(D) You need not keep a record of garbage incinerated on the ship.
2421. (2.9.2.1-122) The MINIMUM acceptable size for a towing bridle would be that size in which the
safe working load (SWL) of each leg of the bridle is equal to __________.
o
o
(A) one-half the SWL of the main towing hawser

(B) three-fourths the SWL of the main towing hawser
(C) that of the main towing hawser
(D) twice that of the main towing hawser
2422. (2.4.1.4-3) When are Operators of Uninspected Passenger Vessels required to keep their Coast
Guard credential aboard their vessel?
o
o
o
(A) only when operating more than one mile from shore
(B) At all times
(C) only when operating at night
(D) only when carrying passengers for hire
2423. (2.9.2.1-50) In a tow made up astern, the fishplate __________.

o
o
o
(A) connects the bridle to the tow

(B) keeps the hawser amidships on the tug
(C) is the capping piece on the "H" bitt
(D) connects the hawser to the bridle
2424. (2.9.2.1-51) Synchronous towing means that the __________.

o
o
o
(A) port and starboard engines on the tug are turning at the same RPM
(B) tug is in the trough while the tow is riding on the crest of a wave
(C) tug is on the crest of a wave while the tow is in the trough
(D) tug and tow are both in the same relative position on different waves at the same time

Deck General
September 2015
2425. (2.9.2.1-186) What is the equipment used to control, protect and connect a towline called ?
o
o
(A) cat head

(B) level wind
(C) terminal gear
(D) poured socket
2426. (2.9.2.1-68) The main reason a long towline is used during an ocean tow is that __________.
o
o
o
(A) there will be less stress on the towline

(B) a margin of safety is provided should the line part
(C) the towline will wear more evenly
(D) a slight increase in speed will be realized
2427. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-4) You intend to discharge medical or hazardous wastes ashore. MARPOL Annex
V requires you to notify a receiving port or terminal in advance. How much advance notice is
required?
o
o
o
(A) 24 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 48 hours
(D) Advance notification is not required.
2428. (2.9.2.1-182) The term "overriding" or "overrunning" when applied to towing, implies that
__________.
o
o
o
(A) the towing hawser comes out of the water

(B) the tow has overtaken its tug
(C) the Norman pins are not effective
(D) there is more crew on board than required
2429. (2.9.2.1-52) Good seamanship while towing in heavy weather requires all of the following
EXCEPT __________.
o
o
o
(A) dogging all hatches and watertight doors

(B) streaming all of your towing hawser
(C) lashing down or stowing all loose gear
(D) reducing speed to reduce surging on the towline

Deck General
September 2015
2430. (2.9.2.1-54) An intermediate spring is __________.

o
o
o
(A) secured at the "H" bitts

(B) generally located between the "fishplate" and the main towing hawser
(C) fitted in each leg of the towing bridle
(D) usually made of manila hawser
2431. (2.9.2.1-174) The size and material used for towline(s) must meet all of the following
requirements, EXCEPT _________.
o
o
(A) be suitable for exposure to the marine environment

(B) be appropriate to the vessel's horsepower or bollard pull
(C) fit any spare wire clips carried on board the vessel for repair purposes
(D) be strong enough to handle any static or dynamic loads expected during its service life
2432. (2.9.2.1-103) Which factor(s) must you consider when making up a towing bridle?
o
o
o
(A) The horsepower of the tug

(B) The beam of the barge
(C) The weight of the tow
2433. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-8) A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located in a MARPOL
designated special area, 14 nautical miles from nearest land. What type of garbage is permitted to
be discharged?
o
o
o
(A) Food waste

(B) Glass ground to less than 1"
(C) Metal ground to less than 1"
(D) Paper products
2434. (2.9.2.1-110) A chain bridle is preferable to a wire rope towing bridle on a long ocean tow
because chain __________.
o
o
o
(A) requires little maintenance

(B) is less subject to wear and damage from abrasion
(C) is more flexible and has the ability to absorb shock because of its weight

Deck General
September 2015
2435. (2.9.2.1-60) When you have a tow alongside, your stern should extend aft of the tow in order to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) let the barge deflect floating objects from your propeller
(B) obtain better steering control
(C) avoid obscuring your stern light
(D) provide a better lead for your lines
2436. (2.9.2.1-138) You are towing a large barge on a hawser. Your main engine suddenly fails. What
is the greatest danger?
o
o
o
(A) The tug and the tow will go aground.

(B) The tow will endanger other traffic.
(C) The tow will block the channel.
(D) The tow will overrun tug.
2437. (2.9.2.1-64) What will NOT reduce yawing of a tow?

o
o
(A) Drogues put over the stern

(B) Increasing the length of the towing hawser
(C) Stowing deck loads forward
(D) Trimming the tow by the stern
2438. (2.9.2.1-66) To reduce stress on the towing hawser when towing astern (ocean tow), the hawser
should be __________.
o
o
(A) just touching the water

(B) as short as possible
(C) underwater
(D) secured to the aftermost fitting on the towing vessel
2439. (2.9.2.1-102) Which statement is FALSE about using a wire bridle on an ocean tow?
o
o
o
(A) None of the above

(B) The strength of each leg should be at least one-half that of the main towing hawser.
(C) Each leg should be at least 60 to 90 feet long.
(D) The inboard end of each bridle leg should have a large eye splice to fit over the bitts.

Deck General
September 2015
2440. (2.9.2.1-184) What safety precautions must you take when maneuvering on a towing hook?
o
o
o
(A) Lash the hook closed so it does not open accidentally.

(B) Clear the afterdeck and fantail of personnel.
(C) The towing winch engine must be running.
(D) The engines must be operated on the slow bell.
2441. (2.9.2.1-191) Which effects listed below does NOT influence stability of a towing vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Towline length

(B) Free surface
(C) Ice
(D) Load heights
2442. (2.9.2.1-70) Which towing method maintains the most control over the tow?
o
o
o
(A) Tandem towing

(B) Breasted tug towing
(C) Honolulu towing
(D) Tandem tug towing
2443. (2.9.2.1-87) When towing another vessel, the length of the towing line should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) such that one vessel will be on a crest while the other is in a trough
(B) such that the vessels will be in step
(C) as long as possible
(D) as short as possible under the circumstances and not over two wave lengths
2444. (2.9.2.1-71) Towing a structure using two tugs approximately side by side, each using one
hawser, is referred to as a __________.
o
o
(A) tandem tug tow

(B) Honolulu tow
(C) breasted tug tow
(D) tandem tow

Deck General
September 2015
2445. (2.4.1.3-31) The annual survey for endorsement of a Load Line Certificate must be held within
__________.
o
o
(A) the three month period immediately following the certificate's anniversary date
(B) the three month period immediately preceding the certificate's anniversary date
(C) three months either way of the certificate's anniversary date
(D) the three month period centered on the certificate's anniversary date
2446. (2.9.2.1-98) Which type of shackle is used for most towing connections?
o
o
o
(A) Heart shaped shackles

(B) Safety shackles
(C) Round pin anchor shackles
(D) Screw pin shackles
2447. (2.9.2.1-74) When tandem tug towing, the more powerful of the two tugs should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) behind the lead tug

(B) towing at a right angle to the smaller tug
(C) the lead tug
(D) towing at a faster speed than the smaller tug
2448. (2.9.2.1-75) Which statement concerning an automatic towing engine is FALSE?

o
o
(A) As tension on the hawser decreases, more line is taken in by the automatic towing engine.
(B) It prolongs the life of the hawser by distributing chafing as the hawser is paid out and taken in.
(C) As tension on the hawser increases, more line is taken in by the automatic towing engine.
(D) It automatically maintains tow line tension.
2449. (2.9.2.1-76) When towing, the least amount of tension will be on each bridle leg when the two
legs __________.
o
o
o
(A) form a small angle with each other

(B) are joined by a fishplate
(C) form a large angle with each other
(D) are of unequal length

Deck General
September 2015
2450. (2.9.2.1-77) When towing, what is the main reason for using a chain bridle on a wire hawser?
o
o
o
(A) It makes for an easy connection.

(B) It gives a spring effect to cushion the shock.
(C) It does not chafe.
(D) It eliminates the necessity of a swivel.
2451. (2.9.2.1-78) Tugs sometimes shackle a length of chain in the towline in order to __________.
o
o
o
(A) put spring in the towline

(B) prevent the towline from whipping should it part
(C) assure that if the towline is overstressed it will part close to the bridle
(D) take the wear should the towline drag bottom
2452. (2.9.2.1-81) When hip towing, a line led from the stern of the towboat forward to the barge
provides the towing pull when __________.
o
o
o
(A) dead in the water

(B) going ahead
(C) in a following current
(D) backing
2453. (2.9.2.1-82) When hip towing, a line led from the bow of the towing vessel aft to the vessel being
towed would be a __________.
o
o
o
(A) towing line

(B) stern line
(C) backing line
(D) breast line
2454. (2.9.2.1-84) A tug is to assist in docking an oceangoing vessel on a hawser. The greatest danger
to the tug is __________.
o
o
o
(A) from the ship's propeller when making up aft

(B) from being overrun if making up forward
(C) hull damage while alongside passing a hawser
(D) getting in a tripping position

Deck General
September 2015
2455. (2.9.2.1-86) When towing in an open seaway, it is important to use a towing line __________.
o
o
o
(A) with little dip to gain maximum control of the tow

(B) that will have the tow on a crest while your vessel is on a crest
(C) made only of wire rope, due to possible weather conditions
(D) that will have the tow on a crest while your vessel is in a trough
2456. (2.9.2.1-91) The term "bollard pull" refers to a towing vessel's __________.
o
o
o
(A) pulling ability at cruise power

(B) pulling ability under static conditions
(C) towing winch capability
(D) propulsion horsepower available
2457. (2.9.2.1-166) Under which condition is a tug likely to be tripped?
o
o
o
(A) When the towing hawser leads forward of the quarter

(B) When the tow "jumps" on the line
(C) While making up to tow a large oil rig
(D) When the tug exerts maximum bollard pull with the tow close astern
2458. (2.9.2.1-92) A tug's horsepower available at the shaft is __________.
o
o
o
(A) brake horsepower

(B) net horsepower
(C) indicated horsepower
(D) dynamic horsepower
2459. (2.9.2.1-93) Indicated horsepower refers to a towing vessel's power which is __________.
o
o
o
(A) measured by dynamometer

(B) theoretically available
(C) developed at the shaft
(D) measured on a test bed

Deck General
September 2015
2460. (2.9.2.1-94) The measurement of the amount of force a towing vessel is capable of applying to a
motionless tow is called __________.
o
o
(A) shaft horsepower

(B) towrope pull
(C) bollard pull
(D) delivered horsepower
2461. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-6) No person on board any vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies
may discharge garbage of any type when __________.
o
o
(A) less than 25 nautical miles from nearest land

(B) less than 12 nautical miles from nearest land
(C) in the navigable waters of the United States
(D) less than 12 nautical miles from the United States
2462. (2.9.2.1-96) The effect of ocean current is usually more evident on a tug and tow than on a tug
navigating independently because the __________.
o
o
o
(A) current causes yawing

(B) current will offset the tow
(C) towline catches the current
(D) speed of the tug and tow is less
2463. (2.4.1.3-4) You are loading in the winter in Albany, N.Y., for a voyage to a port governed by the
tropical load line mark. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Hydrometer reading in Albany
is 1.000)
o
o
(A) You may not exceed the winter load line mark when you finish loading except for the burnout
to sea.
(B) You may calculate the burnout necessary to reach the tropical zone and load extra cargo to
compensate.
(C) The fresh water allowance and burnout to sea may be subtracted from the required freeboard
in Albany.
(D) You may load to the winter mark less the fresh water allowance if you will be at the tropical
mark upon arrival in the tropical zone.

Deck General
September 2015
2464. (2.9.2.1-99) What is an advantage in the use of a towing hook?

o
o
o
(A) To prevent the tug from becoming tripped

(B) To facilitate berthing maneuvers
(C) To quickly connect or release a tow, especially a sinking tow
2465. (2.4.1.4-4) A credential for apprentice mate (steersman) of towing vessels shall be renewed
within what time period before or after the expiration date?
o
o
o
(A) 30 days
(B) 12 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 90 days
2466. (2.9.2.1-104) Which best describes a "fishplate" used in towing?

o
o
(A) A rectangular-shaped piece of heavy steel plate with four holes

(B) A circular piece of heavy steel with three holes forming an equilateral triangle
(C) A triangular-shaped heavy steel plate with a round hole inset from each corner
(D) A steel plate in the shape of a flat fish
2467. (2.9.2.1-197) To overcome the effects of static forces between two vessels of vastly different
tonnages that may potentially part a line, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) rig a bridle at both the bow of the disabled vessel and stern of the towing vessel
(B) commence tow at a slow bell and increase speed incrementally
(C) at slow bell alter course 30 degrees to both sides of disabled tow
(D) pay out extra towline and increase speed rapidly to "jump start" disabled vessel
2468. (2.9.2.1-108) Which type of bridle is the most effective for a heavy ocean tow?
o
o
o
(A) Polypropylene because it floats and is easier to handle

(B) Nylon because of its strength
(C) Wire rope for flexibility and strength
(D) Stud link anchor chain for chafe resistance and strength

Deck General
September 2015
2469. (2.9.2.1-112) When towing astern, one way to reduce yawing of the tow is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) trim the tow by the head

(B) trim the tow by the stern
(C) have the tow on an even keel
(D) list the tow on the side it is yawing
2470. (2.9.2.1-113) A tow that veers to the side on the end of the towline is said to __________.
o
o
o
(A) sway
(B) yaw
(C) surge
(D) swing
2471. (2.9.2.1-114) Yawing can be described as __________.
o
o
o
(A) veering from side to side on the end of the towline

(B) jumping on the towline as the tow pitches
(C) jumping on the towline as the tow slams into waves
(D) corkscrew motion of the tow due to wave action
2472. (2.4.1.4-6) A credentialed Master of Towing Vessels may NOT serve as the person in charge of
which towing vessel?
o
o
o
(A) 99 GRT towing vessel operating on Chesapeake Bay

(B) 199 GRT towing vessel operating in the Gulf of Alaska
(C) 500 GRT towboat operating on the Western Rivers
(D) 349 GRT towing vessel operating between Florida and Puerto Rico
2473. (2.9.2.1-134) When towing astern what equipment should be stowed ready for use near the
towline?
o
o
o
(A) Axe or cutting torch

(B) Chafing gear
(C) Fire extinguisher
(D) First aid kit

Deck General
September 2015
2474. (2.9.2.1-115) A tow astern is veering from side to side on its towline. The best way of controlling
the action is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) list the tow to windward

(B) trim the tow by the stern
(C) trim the tow by the bow
(D) adjust the length of the towing bridle
2475. (2.9.2.1-117) What is used to prevent twisting of a towing bridle?
o
o
o
(A) A fishplate
(B) A bulkhead
(C) A bitt
(D) A V-spring
2476. (2.9.2.1-118) The legs of a tow bridle are joined together with a __________.
o
o
o
(A) fishplate
(B) bridle plate
(C) shackle
(D) tri-link
2477. (2.9.2.1-119) A tow bridle is attached to the main tow hawser at the __________.
o
o
o
(A) fishplate
(B) bight ring
(C) tow hook
(D) swivel
2478. (2.4.1.3-35) The agency which assigns load lines and issues Load Line Certificates is the
__________.
o
o
o

(C) U.S. Customs
(D) Secretary of Commerce

Deck General
September 2015
2479. (2.9.2.1-121) When towing astern, you notice that another vessel is about to pass between the
towing vessel and the tow. You should immediately __________.
o
o
o
(A) slow down and pay out the main tow hawser
(B) turn away from the approaching vessel
(C) sever the towline
(D) shine a spotlight in the direction of the approaching vessel
2480. (2.9.2.1-123) What is NOT suitable for use in making up the towing rig for a heavy, long ocean
tow?
o
o
o
(A) Ring
(B) A fishplate
(C) Solid thimble
(D) Chain
2481. (2.9.2.1-124) You intend to tow a barge with one tug and expect continuous high winds from the
north. To reduce the yaw of your tow, you should __________.
o
o
(A) reduce the draft of the barge

(B) trim the barge down by the bow
(C) shorten one leg of the bridle
(D) place bulky deck loads as far aft as possible
2482. (2.9.2.1-176) How many wire clips must be used to make a temporary repair to a tow wire?
o
o
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) Wire clips are never, under any circumstances, permitted
2483. (2.9.2.1-133) A towing vessel is tripped when __________.

o
o
o
(A) the weight of the towing hawser causes loss of maneuverability

(B) it is pulled sideways by the tow
(C) the propeller is fouled by the towing hawser
(D) it is overtaken by the tow

Deck General
September 2015
2484. (2.9.2.1-125) While towing, bridle legs of unequal lengths may cause __________.
o
o
o
(A) the shorter leg to fail

(B) the bridle to foul
(C) chafing on the fairlead or bitts
(D) a bent swivel
2485. (2.9.2.1-126) The biggest problem encountered when towing bridle legs are too short is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) adjusting tension

(B) hookup to main towline
(C) retrieval
(D) excessive strain
2486. (2.9.2.1-175) When towing astern, each towline must meet all of these requirements, EXCEPT
_________.
o
o
o
(A) being suitable for use as soon as it is removed from its normal stowage location
(B) being free of knots
(C) having wire clips for other than a temporary repair
(D) having the end either spliced with a thimble or fitted with a poured socket
2487. (2.9.2.1-127) The choice of length of tow bridle legs is governed by the __________.
o
o
o
(A) freeboard of the unit being towed

(B) need to reduce yaw
(C) capability of retrieving gear
(D) expected towing forces
2488. (2.4.1.3-1) What is the group of markings shown in illustration D003DG below is called?
o
o
o
(A) loft mark

(B) test mark
(C) water mark
(D) load line mark

Deck General
September 2015
2489. (2.9.2.1-137) You have been towing astern and have just let go the tow. Your deckhands are
pulling in and faking the towline by hand on the stern. The most dangerous action to take is to
__________.
o
o
(A) continue ahead at slow speed

(B) stop your engines
(C) back down on your engines
(D) continue ahead at half speed
2490. (2.9.2.1-139) What is the greatest danger of an overriding tow?

o
o
o
(A) Fouling of the towing hawser

(B) Collision between the tow and the stern of the towing vessel
(C) Tripping
(D) Loss of steering
2491. (2.4.1.3-19) Which factor does NOT affect the required freeboard of a cargo vessel?
o
o
(A) Season of the year

(B) Density of the water
(C) Condition of trim in normal operation
(D) Geographic zone of operation
2492. (2.9.2.1-141) What is the principal danger in attempting to swing a barge on a hawser in order to
slow the barge's speed?
o
o
o
(A) The barge may pass under the hawser and capsize the tug.
(B) The barge may swing too quickly and run over the tug.
(C) Dangerous wakes may result from the swinging barge and capsize the tug.
(D) Free surface effect of liquid inside the barge may rupture the barge bulkheads if the turn is too
quick.
2493. (2.9.2.1-173) When should you conduct a visual inspection of your towline?
o
o
o
(A) At least once a month.

(B) Whenever its serviceability is in doubt.
(C) In accordance with the manufacturer's recommendation.

Deck General
September 2015
2494. (2.9.2.1-183) A tow can override its tug as a result of __________.

o
o
o
(A) adverse tidal current conditions

(B) the tug reducing its speed
(C) a mechanical breakdown on the tug
2495. (2.9.2.1-142) While towing, what is the principal danger in attempting to swing a barge on a short
hawser in order to slow the barge's speed?
o
o
o
(A) The barge may swing too quickly and run over the tug.
(B) The barge may capsize from the sharp turn.
(C) Free surface effect of liquid inside the barge may rupture the barge bulkheads when turning
too quickly.
(D) Dangerous wakes may result from the swinging barge and capsize the tug.
2496. (2.4.1.3-32) Your vessel is issued a load line certificate dated 27 May 1992. What is NOT an
acceptable date for one of the surveys for endorsements?
o
o
(A) 26 August 1994

(B) 27 May 1995
(C) 27 November 1993
(D) 28 February 1993
2497. (2.4.1.3-22) The strictest load line regulations apply to __________.
o
o
o
(A) passenger ships

(B) freighters (break-bulk)
(C) tankers
(D) gas carriers
2498. (2.9.2.1-144) A "loose" tow may cause all of the following EXCEPT __________.
o
o
o
(A) loss of maneuverability

(B) a saving in the transit time
(C) lines to part
(D) damage to the towing vessel and tow

Deck General
September 2015
2499. (2.4.1.3-5) What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter A in illustration D003DG below?
o
o
(A) Fresh Water load line

(B) Plimsoll line
(C) Deck line
(D) Winter North Atlantic load line
2500. (2.9.2.1-190) Which of the following responsibilities should you assume once you have agreed to
assist a disabled vessel?
o
o
(A) All passengers move to the highest point on the disabled vessel to remain clear of towing
gear
(B) Operator of disabled vessel to dump fuel and ballast to improve disabled vessel's towing
movement
(C) All personnel on the disabled vessel don life jackets
(D) Operator of disabled vessel on the bow with a lifejacket and emergency tow disconnect
equipment
2501. (2.9.2.1-157) Which factor(s) can affect the performance of a river towboat?
o
o
o
(A) The presence of flanking rudders and Kort nozzles

(B) The draft of the towboat and the draft of the barges under tow
(C) The placement of the barges within the tow
2502. (2.9.2.1-145) What is used to prevent wear on towlines that bear on hard surfaces?
o
o
o
(A) Grease
(B) Chafing gear
(C) Chocks
(D) Boots
2503. (2.9.2.1-146) Towlines should be inspected for chafing where the towline __________.
o
o
o
(A) passes through chocks

(B) passes over the stern of the towing vessel
(C) is attached to the disabled vessel

Deck General
September 2015
2504. (2.9.2.1-147) Once a towline is connected between the towing vessel and the disabled vessel,
the towing vessel should __________.
o
o
o
(A) come up to speed quickly, then cut back power considerably to ease the strain
(B) come up to speed very slowly and maintain a "safe speed"
(C) not exceed bare steerageway during the transit
(D) take a strain as soon as you can to control the tow
2505. (2.9.2.1-148) The best method to secure a tow line to a cleat is to __________.
o
o
(A) make figure-eights, followed by a half-hitch, then a figure-eight knot

(B) take several turns around the cleat only
(C) take a turn around the cleat, then figure-eights, and a half-hitch
(D) take a turn, a half turn, and a figure-eight
2506. (2.9.2.1-149) A towline should be fastened to __________.

o
o
(A) the most forward, centermost point of a towed vessel such as a sturdy bow rail
(B) the chocks at the bow of a towed vessel
(C) a secure fitting near the bow of the towed vessel
(D) the mast of a towed sailboat
2507. (2.9.2.1-152) When towing a small trailer-able boat, the sturdiest fitting available to attach a tow
rig is the __________.
o
o
(A) towing cleat on the bow

(B) most forward handrail stanchion
(C) trailer eye
(D) chock
2508. (2.9.2.1-159) Which statement describes the motion of a yawing tow?

o
o
o
(A) The tow snakes behind the tug

(B) The tow sheers to one side behind the tug and maintains a position in a line diagonal to the
tug's forward movement
(C) The tow twists, sometimes violently, astern of the tug

Deck General
September 2015
2509. (2.9.2.1-163) When your tug reduces speed to shorten tow, the __________.
o
o
o
(A) tow may continue its momentum and overtake the tug
(B) towing hawser may drag the bottom and put the tug in irons
(C) length of the tow gets shorter as the strain is reduced
2510. (2.9.2.1-169) What is the effect of releasing the towline in a tripping situation?
o
o
(A) There is no effect other than relief.

(B) It frees the tug from its towing responsibilities.
(C) It disconnects the capsizing force and allows the tug to recover from its list.
(D) Yawing
2511. (2.9.2.1-170) How do the height and location of a tug's towing bitts relate to the danger of
tripping?
o
o
o
(A) The further forward and closer to amidships the more readily the tug will trip.
(B) Installing the bitts down low lowers the center of gravity.
(C) The height and position of towing bitts has no significance.
(D) Placement further aft permits more effective pulling, better steering and eliminates the danger
of tripping.
2512. (2.9.2.1-172) The owner or Master of a towing vessel that tows astern must keep records of the
towline(s) that include all of the following information EXCEPT _________.
o
o
o
(A) an invoice showing the cost of the towline

(B) the history of loading of the towline
(C) the towline's initial minimum breaking strength as determined by the manufacturer
(D) the towline's nautical miles of use or time in service
2513. (2.9.2.1-177) The condition of a towline must be monitored by _________.

o
o
o
(A) keeping record of the towline's initial minimum breaking strength

(B) conducting routine visual inspections of the towline
(C) keeping record of each retest of the towline's minimum breaking strength

Deck General
September 2015
2514. (2.9.2.1-178) The owner or Master of a towing vessel must evaluate whether the entire towline,
or a part of it, is no longer serviceable. The towline should be removed from service in all cases
EXCEPT _________.
o
o
o
(A) in accordance with a replacement schedule

(B) when the vessel is underway
(C) depending on the mileage or time that the towline has been in service
(D) when recommended by the manufacturer or an authorized classification society
2515. (2.9.2.1-180) Which factor(s) might indicate that a towline should be removed from service?
o
o
o
(A) Measurements showing a decrease in diameter.

(B) A surface condition of corrosion and discoloration.
(C) Visible damage to the towline, including fishhooks.
2516. (2.9.2.1-181) When must the owner or Master of a towing vessel retest a towline or remove it
from service?
o
o
o
(A) When it has not been used for over 60 days.

(B) After it drags on the bottom.
(C) After it jams on the towing winch.
(D) When the record of its material condition lapses for 3 months or more.
2517. (2.9.2.1-185) Before leaving port on an ocean tow, a tug captain should assure himself of all the
following EXCEPT __________.
o
o
o
(A) an insurance underwriter has prepared a pre-sailing survey

(B) a pick-up wire has been rigged on the tow in case of a breakaway.
(C) the towing hawser can be released quickly in an emergency
(D) the correct navigation lights are rigged and operable on the tug and tow
2518. (2.9.2.1-187) The connection to the towline must be secured with a _________.
o
o
o
(A) shackle secured a nut and cotter pin

(B) galvanized screw-pin shackle
(C) shackle fitted with a swivel piece
(D) hardened steel thimble

Deck General
September 2015
2519. (2.9.2.1-192) What action should you take if your tow sinks in shallow water?
o
o
o
(A) release it immediately

(B) attempt to beach it before it goes under
(C) shorten cable to keep it off the bottom
(D) pay out cable until it's on the bottom and place a buoy on the upper end
2520. (2.9.2.1-194) One advantage of chain over wire rope for a tow bridle is that chain __________.
o
o
(A) is better suited for inland towing

(B) handles more easily
(C) resists damage from chafing
(D) equalizes towing forces better
(2.9.2.1-195) If the towline parts, you should __________.

o
o
o
(A) abandon the towing vessel

(B) start pushing ahead
(C) relieve strain on the retrieving line
(D) retrieve the tow bridle
2521. (2.4.1.2-4) On an inspected vessel, when may a stability test be dispensed with?
o
o
(A) projected cost is unreasonable

(B) vessel is of a proven design
(C) Coast Guard has the approved stability test results of a sister vessel
(D) Coast Guard does not have a qualified inspector available
2522. (2.9.2.1-196) To reconnect a broken tow line, it is better to use a polypropylene messenger line
because it __________.
o
o
o
(A) floats
(B) absorbs shock by stretching
(C) has great strength
(D) is very supple

Deck General
September 2015
2523. (2.9.2.1-198) Nylon rope is often used in the makeup of a towline because it __________.
o
o
o
(A) floats
(B) stretches
(C) handles easily
(D) resists rot
2524. (2.4.1.2-2) Safety equipment on board vessels must be approved by the __________.
o
o
o

(B) Safety Standards Bureau
(C) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
(D) National Safety Council
2525. (2.4.1.2-3) The trim and stability booklet must be approved by the __________.
o
o

(B) Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers
(C) United States Coast Guard
2526. (2.4.1.2-7) Which item do you NOT have to provide for the Coast Guard representative at the
time of a stability test?
o
o
o
(A) General arrangement plans of decks; holds and inner bottoms.

(B) Capacity plans showing the vertical and longitudinal centers of gravity of stowage spaces and
tanks.
(C) Tank sounding tables and draft mark locations.
(D) A stability letter.
2527. (2.4.1.3-2) What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter B in illustration D003DG below?
o
o
(A) Timber summer load line

(B) Tropical load line
(C) Tropical fresh water load line
(D) Summer load line

Deck General
September 2015
2528. (2.4.1.3-6) You are loading at port A, governed by the summer load line mark, for a voyage to
port B, governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 10", and the hydrometer reads
1.020. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) You may load to the summer mark plus 2 inches if you will be at the winter mark when
entering the winter zone.
(B) You may not load beyond the winter mark except for 2 inches brackish water allowance.
(C) You may not load beyond the summer mark and must be at the winter mark upon arrival at
port B.
(D) You may not load beyond the summer mark plus 8 inches brackish water allowance.
2529. (2.4.1.3-8) What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter C in illustration D003DG below?
o
o
o
(A) Summer water line

(B) Winter North Atlantic water line
(C) Tropical water line
(D) Fresh water line
2530. (2.4.1.3-9) What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter E in illustration D003DG below?
o
o
o
(A) Fresh water line

(B) Winter water line
(C) Tropical water line
(D) Summer water line
2531. (2.4.1.3-10) What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter D in illustration D003DG below?
o
o
o
(A) Summer load line

(B) Tropical load line
(C) Winter load line
(D) Fresh load line
2532. (2.4.1.3-14) In addition to the load lines indicated in illustration D003DG below, some vessels
have a Winter North Atlantic line. Which statement about this load line mark is TRUE?
o
o
(A) It is marked above line B in the diagram.

(B) It is applied to vessels on restricted trade routes between the United Kingdom, Iceland, and
Northern European countries.
(C) It applies only to vessels not exceeding 328 ft. navigating in the Winter North Atlantic zones.
(D) It is carried on VLCC/ULCC type vessels and allows reduced freeboard considering their size.

Deck General
September 2015
2533. (2.4.1.3-11) You are loading in a port governed by the tropical load line mark for a voyage to a
port governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 5 inches, and the hydrometer reads
1.005. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) You must load so that each zone mark will not be submerged upon entering the zone.
(B) You may only load to the winter mark plus a brackish water allowance of 4 inches.
(C) Your draft must not exceed the winter mark plus the fresh water allowance upon arrival off the
discharge port.
(D) You may load to the tropical mark plus 1 inch brackish water allowance.
2534. (2.4.1.3-18) The load line regulations are administered by the __________.
o
o
o

(B) Lloyd's Register of Shipping
(C) Maritime Administration
(D) U.S. Coast Guard
2535. (2.4.1.3-23) Which statement about the deck line is TRUE?

o
o
(A) On a vessel with a rounded stringer-sheer plate, the deck line is marked where the stringer
plate turns down from the plane of the deck line.
(B) The deck edge is marked at the intersection of the freeboard deck with the side shell, at the
lowest point of sheer, with the vessel at even trim.
(C) A vessel with wooden planks on a steel deck will have the deck line marked at the
intersection of the upper line of the wood sheathing with the side shell.
(D) The top of the deck line is marked at the highest point of the freeboard deck, including
camber, at the midships point.
2536. (2.4.1.3-25) Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment must be made at intervals NOT
exceeding __________.
o
o
o
(A) 18 months
(B) two years
(C) three years
(D) five years

Deck General
September 2015
2537. (2.4.1.3-26) Which statement concerning dual-tonnage vessels is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) A single-deck vessel may not be assigned dual tonnages.

(B) The tonnages referred to are the displacement tonnage and gross tonnage.
(C) The dual-tonnage mark must never be submerged beyond the freshwater allowance.
(D) The dual-tonnage mark is always marked above the load line marks.
2538. (2.4.1.3-27) The Certificate of Freeboard is the __________.
o
o
o

(B) Forecastle Card
(C) Admeasurer's Certificate
2539. (2.4.1.3-28) Which certificate is issued by the American Bureau of Shipping?

o
o
o
(A) Safety Equipment Certificate

(B) Load Line Certificate
(C) Permit to Proceed for repairs
2540. (2.4.1.4-1) You are in charge of a towing vessel that operates exclusively on inland waters. You
regularly tow barges that provide services (cargo lighters, fuel barges, etc.) to foreign flag vessels in
port. What will be accepted as proper credentials for you and your crew?
o
o
o
(A) Social Security card

(B) State driver's license with photo ID
(C) No credentials are required since you operate on inland waters only
(D) Merchant Mariner Credential
2541. (2.4.1.4-5) How long is a credential issued by the U.S. Coast Guard for Master of Towing
Vessels valid for?
o
o
(A) 3 years and must be renewed

(B) 2 years and must be renewed
(C) 5 years and must be renewed
(D) life and need not be renewed

Deck General
September 2015
2542. (2.4.1.4-9) You operate a harbor craft on inland waters exclusively. If you regularly service or
contact foreign flag vessels in the course of business, which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) Your vessel must be inspected.

(B) Your crew must have identification credentials.
(C) All contacts with a foreign flag vessel must be reported to the U.S. Coast Guard.
(D) A customs official must be on board when contacting a foreign flag vessel.
2543. (2.4.1.4-10) How many months after its expiration date may a Coast Guard credential be
renewed without retaking the complete exam?
o
o
(A) 1 month
(B) 6 months
(C) 12 months
(D) 24 months
2544. (2.4.1.5A-1) Which vessel is required to have a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?
o
o
o
(A) an oil tanker of 150 gross tons or above, or other ship of 400 gross tons or above
(B) an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150 gross tons and above
(C) any barge or other ship which is constructed or operated in such a manner that no oil in any
form can be carried aboard
(D) all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application
2545. (2.4.1.5A1-1) Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil
Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to U.S. Regulations?
o
o
o
(A) The discharge overboard in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery
spaces.
(B) The loading or unloading of any or all oil cargo.
(C) Any internal transfer of oil cargo during a voyage.
2546. (2.4.1.5A1-2) Which vessel is required to have a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?
o
o
o
(A) an oil tanker of 150 gross tons or above, or other ship of 400 gross tons or above
(B) all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application
(C) an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150 gross tons and above
(D) any barge or other ship which is constructed or operated in such a manner that no oil in any
form can be carried aboard

Deck General
September 2015
2547. (2.4.1.5A1-3) International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificates are required for each U.S.
oil tanker at or above how many gross registered tons?
o
o
o
(A) 400 gross registered tons

(B) 100 gross registered tons
(C) 300 gross registered tons
(D) 150 gross registered tons
2548. (2.4.1.5A1-5) According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quickclosing shut off valves?
o
o
(A) Manual cut off switch

(B) A water spray actuator
(C) A fusible link
(D) Electrical cut off switch
2549. (2.4.1.5A1-6) U.S. regulations require all tankships of 150 GT and above and all other ships of
400 GT and above, to prepare and maintain which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) a USCG approved vapor recovery procedures plan

(B) a USCG approved shipboard oil pollution emergency plan
(C) a USCG approved oil discharge plan
(D) a USCG approved synthetic plastic discharge plan
2550. (2.4.1.5A1-7) Which of the following vessels is NOT exempt from mandatory requirements on
ballast water management for control of non-indigenous species in waters of the United States?
o
o
o
(A) A passenger vessel equipped with a USCG approved system designed to kill aquatic
organisms in ballast water.
(B) A crude oil tanker engaged in the coastwise trade.
(C) United States Navy frigate.
(D) A vessel engaged in the foreign export of Alaskan North Slop Crude Oil.
2551. (2.4.1.5A1.1-1) Which would be considered pollution under the U.S. water pollution laws?
o
o
o
(A) Oil
(B) Hazardous substances
(C) Garbage

Deck General
September 2015
2552. (2.4.1.5A1.1-2) Which of the following is considered "discharge" as it applies to the pollution
regulations?
o
o
o
(A) pumping
(B) spilling
(C) leaking
2553. (2.4.1.5A1.2-2) The pollution prevention regulations in MARPOL apply to U. S. flag vessels
__________.
o
o
o
(A) only on the western rivers and international waters

(B) on all international and inland waters
(C) only on international voyages outside U.S. territorial waters
(D) only on the Great Lakes and international waters
2554. (2.4.1.5A1.2-3) Which vessel in ocean service is not subject to Annex V of MARPOL 73/78?
o
o
(A) A 26-foot tug and tow

(B) An uninspected 35-foot passenger vessel
(C) A Navy Destroyer
(D) A 20-foot sailing vessel
2555. (2.4.1.5A1.2-5) A U.S. merchant vessel in ocean service is NOT subject to the requirements of
Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 __________.
o
o
o
(A) A U.S. vessel in ocean service is ALWAYS subject to MARPOL.

(B) outside of the navigable waters of the United States
(C) outside of 25 nautical miles from nearest land
(D) in the waters of those countries not signatory to MARPOL
2556. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-1) Which is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to

MARPOL 73/78?
o
o
(A) The garbage to be discharged will sink.

(B) The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage.
(C) A person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for flotation.
(D) Garbage accumulation on board has exceeded storage space.

Deck General
September 2015
2557. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-5) If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel, which of the following
cannot be discharged anywhere at sea?
o
o
o
(A) metal
(B) paper
(C) glass
(D) plastic
2558. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-9) Which area is designated a special area by Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?
o
o
o
(A) Gulf of Saint Lawrence

(B) Great Lakes
(C) Sargasso Sea
(D) Red Sea
2559. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-10) Under Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage discharged from vessels that are
located between 3 and 12 nautical miles from nearest land must be ground to less than
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 1"
(B) 1-1/4"
(C) 1-1/2"
(D) 2"
2560. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-11) At what distance from shore may plastic material may be thrown overboard
from a vessel?
o
o
o
(A) 25 miles from shore

(B) 12 miles from shore
(C) 3 miles from shore
(D) None of the above are correct.
2561. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-14) You are at sea and not in a special area as defined in ANNEX V of MARPOL.
How many nautical miles from land must you be to discharge ground garbage that will pass through
a one-inch (25 mm) screen into the sea?
o
o
o
(A) 3 nm
(B) 6 nm
(C) 12 nm
(D) 25 nm

Deck General
September 2015
2562. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-15) Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red
Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw wooden dunnage into the sea?
o
o
o
(A) 6 nm
(B) 12 nm
(C) 3 nm
(D) 25 nm
2563. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-19) A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is 24 nautical miles from
the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?
o
o
o
(A) Dunnage
(B) Metal
(C) Crockery
(D) Glass
2564. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-20) A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located 10 nautical
miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?
o
o
(A) Rags ground to less than 1"

(B) Paper ground to less than 1"
(C) Food waste, not comminuted or ground
2565. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-21) What is the MINIMUM distance a vessel subject to the requirements of Annex
V to MARPOL 73/78 must be located from nearest land to legally discharge paper trash?
o
o
(A) 5 nautical miles

(B) 10 nautical miles
(C) 12 nautical miles
(D) 25 nautical miles
2566. (2.4.1.5A1.2A-22) Vessels to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage
containing plastics __________.
o
o
o
(A) 25 nautical miles from nearest land

(B) 12 nautical miles from nearest land
(C) 5 nautical miles from nearest land

Deck General
September 2015
2567. (2.4.1.5A1.2A.1-1) While operating your oceangoing vessel you must keep a record of any
discharge or disposal of garbage. When should these entries be made?
o
o
o
(A) at the time the garbage was disposed

(B) before arriving at your next port
(C) no later than 24 hours after disposal of the garbage
(D) before the end of the voyage
2568. (2.4.1.5A1.2A.1-2) Under the Pollution Regulations, how long must garbage disposal records be
retained onboard for?
o
o
o
(A) until the next Coast Guard inspection

(B) one year
(C) until the end of the voyage
(D) two years
2569. (2.4.1.5A1.2A.1-4) Under the Pollution Regulations, which action is required when you dump
garbage in to the sea?
o
o
o
(A) keep a record for two years

(B) notify the U.S. Coast Guard
(C) No action is required if you are more than 25 miles from land and no plastic materials are
dumped.
(D) make an entry in the Official Logbook
2570. (2.4.1.5A1.2A.1-6) Your oceangoing vessel is required to have a waste management plan. This
plan must be in writing and describe procedures for __________.
o
o
o
(A) disposing waste from marine sanitation devices

(B) reducing the amount of shipboard waste
(C) segregating the different types of shipboard waste
(D) collecting and discharging garbage
2571. (2.4.1.5A1.2A.1-8) You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's
position as required, you must include __________.
o
o
o
(A) latitude and longitude only

(B) latitude, longitude, course, speed, and a copy of that days noon position slip
(C) latitude, longitude and approximate depth of water
(D) latitude, longitude, and estimated distance from shore

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
o
(A) Octanol
(B) Acetonitrile
(C) Hog grease
(D) Cetyl-Eicosyl methacrylate
o
o
o
(A) Dodecanol
(B) Trimethyl phosphite
(C) Sulfur (molten)
(D) Acetonitrile
2574. (2.4.1.5A1.4-3) Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
o
o
o
(A) List of individuals required to respond

(B) Reporting requirements
(C) Removal equipment list
(D) Planned exercises
2575. (2.4.1.5A1.4-4) Which list is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendices of the
Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
o
o
o
(A) A list specifying who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority in
which they must be notified.
(B) A list of personnel duty assignments.
(C) A list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports.
(D) A list of agencies or officials of Coastal State Administrators responsible for receiving and
processing incident reports.
2576. (2.4.1.5A1.4-5) When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan, the
revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________.
o
o
(A) and can be implemented without immediate approval as long as final approval is received
within six months of submission
(B) six months before the end of the approval period
(C) and cannot be implemented without approval
(D) one month before the anniversary date of the plan

Deck General
September 2015
2577. (2.4.1.5A1.4-6) Which of the following is required to have a Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency
Plan?
o
o
(A) any barge or ship constructed or operated in such a manner that no oil in any form can be
carried aboard
(B) an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150 gross tons and above
(C) an oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above, or other ship of 400 gross tons and above
(D) all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application
2578. (2.4.1.5A1.4-10) A ship that, at any time, operates seaward of the outermost boundary of the
territorial sea is required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) vapor recovery procedures plan

(B) shipboard oil pollution emergency plan
(C) synthetic plastic discharge plan
(D) oil discharge plan
2579. (2.4.1.5A2-1) When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?
o
o
o
(A) Any individual connected with the vessel involved in the operation
(B) Credentialed officers only
(C) Master only
(D) Owners only
2580. (2.4.1.5A2-2) Regardless of local requirements, when in a U.S. port, all oil spills must be
reported to which of the following agencies?
o
o

(B) Minerals Management Service
(C) National Response Center (USCG)
(D) All of the Above
2581. (2.4.1.5A2-3) Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention
regulations?
o
o
o
(A) Petroleum and fuel oil

(B) Oil refuse and oil mixed with wastes
(C) Sludge
(D) Oil mixed with dredge spoil

Deck General
September 2015
2582. (2.4.1.5A2-4) What does the term "oil" as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations mean?
o
o
o
(A) fuel oil

(B) oil refuse
(C) sludge
2583. (2.4.1.5A2-6) When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must obtain the approval of the
Federal On-Scene Coordinator before using which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) chemical agents

(B) skimmers
(C) straw
(D) sawdust
2584. (2.4.1.5A2-7) If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, how long may you be imprisoned
for?
o
o
o
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 5 years
2585. (2.4.1.5A2-8) The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel
to immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify the
Coast Guard can lead to a monetary fine and imprisonment up to __________.
o
o
o
(A) 5 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 2 years
(D) 1 years
2586. (2.4.1.5A2-12) When authorized to use chemical agents on an oil spill they would __________.
o
o
o
(A) sink the oil

(B) facilitate the removal of the pollutant from the water
(C) absorb the oil for easy removal
(D) dissolve the oil in the water

Deck General
September 2015
2587. (2.4.1.5A2-15) After making the required notification that a large oil spill into the water has
occurred, what is the FIRST action that should be taken?
o
o
o
(A) have the vessel move out of the spill area

(B) contain the spread of the oil
(C) apply straw or sawdust on the oil
(D) throw grains of sand into the oil
2588. (2.4.1.5A3-1) A cargo hose is marked with which of the following?

o
o
o
(A) bursting pressure

(B) maximum working pressure
(C) safety relief valve setting
(D) maximum temperature
2589. (2.4.1.5A3-3) No vessel may use or carry an oil transfer hose unless it meets certain
requirements. Which of the following is NOT among those requirements?
o
o
o
(A) Metallic reinforcement

(B) A bursting pressure that is at least four times the sum of the relief valve setting and the static
head
(C) A working pressure that is more than the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head
(D) Identification markings
2590. (2.4.1.5A3-4) According to U.S. regulations, normally, where are manholes in LFG located?
o
o
o
(A) there are no requirements in the regulation

(B) above the weather deck
(C) in the ends of each tank
(D) in the expansion trunk of each tank
2591. (2.4.1.5A3-6) According to regulations, a cargo hose used for transferring liquefied gases must
have a bursting pressure of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 5 times the maximum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer
(B) one half the designed working pressure
(C) 4 times the pressure of the cargo pump used for transferring
(D) 5 times the minimum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer

Deck General
September 2015
2592. (2.4.1.5A3-8) According to the regulations, what type of gauging is required for a cargo of
butadiene?
o
o
o
(A) Restricted
(B) Open
(C) Closed
(D) None
2593. (2.4.1.5A3-10) A large metallic device, mounted directly in the piping (usually located at the dock
near the point where the vapor hose is attached), designed to prevent the passage of a rapidly
moving flame through the piping is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) detonation blocker

(B) detonation arrestor
(C) flame arrestor
(D) flame screen
2594. (2.4.1.5A4-6) To serve as a person in charge of transfer operations on board a self-propelled

tank vessel, an individual must hold/be which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) a valid officer credential for inspected vessels

(B) be 30 years old
(C) a letter from the company stating his qualification
(D) a tankerman-PIC endorsement
2595. (2.4.1.5A4-8) What can be done to prevent small oil spills on deck from going overboard?
o
o
o
(A) plugging the sounding pipes

(B) driving wooden plugs into the vents
(C) closing the lids on the vents
(D) plugging the scuppers
2596. (2.4.1.5A4-9) What do pollution regulations require of each scupper in an enclosed deck area?
o
o
o
(A) soft rubber plug

(B) mechanical means of closing
(C) two-piece soft patch
(D) wooden plug

Deck General
September 2015
2597. (2.4.1.5A4-12) Your vessel is carrying 84,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have
an inside diameter of 14 inches. When four hoses are connected to the manifold, the container
around the manifold must hold a total of how many barrels?
o
o
o
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Twelve
(D) Sixteen
2598. (2.4.1.5A4-13) You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 300 gross tons constructed after
June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.
o
o
o
(A) are not obstructed by on-deck cargo

(B) have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area
(C) are opened and the flame screen replaced
(D) have containment capacity for at least one half barrel
2599. (2.4.1.5A4-15) You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 150 gross tons constructed after
June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.
o
o
(A) have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area

(B) are opened and the flame screen replaced
(C) have portable containment capacity for at least 5 gallons
(D) are not obstructed by on-deck cargo
2600. (2.4.1.5A4-16) Which type of vessel shall be required to have an emergency towing arrangement
fitted at both ends?
o
o
o
(A) An 18,000 dwt ton tanker constructed in 1998

(B) A 22,000 dwt ton tanker operated after Jan. 1, 1999
(C) A 30,000 dwt ton oil barge
(D) A 5,000 dwt ton coastal tanker
2601. (2.4.1.5A4-19) You are operating a non-ocean going vessel, how much of the accumulated oily
waste must you be able to retain on board?
o
o
o
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%

Deck General
September 2015
2602. (2.4.1.5A4-20) You are operating a 1,000 GT non-oceangoing tankship. It must be equipped with
__________.
o
o
o
(A) a means on the weather deck to stop each pump used to discharge oily waste
(B) two pumps for discharging oily bilge slops
(C) a fixed piping system for bilge slops with one outlet on each side of the weather deck
2603. (2.4.1.5A4-23) If you must pump bilges while a vessel is in port, you should pump only
__________.
o
o
o
(A) on the outgoing tide

(B) as much as is necessary
(C) during the hours of darkness
(D) if discharge is led to a shore tank or barge
2604. (2.4.1.5A4-24) What must Inland vessels of 100 GT and over be fitted with for oily mixtures?
o
o
o
(A) A fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility

(B) A fixed system to discharge the slops overboard
(C) A portable system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility
(D) A portable system to discharge the slops overboard
2605. (2.4.1.5A4-26) What would you consult to determine the number of persons required on duty
while loading a cargo of leaded gasoline on your tanker?
o
o
o
(A) 46 CFR Part 15 (Manning)

(B) Oil Transfer Procedures Manual
(C) Certificate of Inspection
(D) IOPP Certificate
2606. (2.4.1.5A4-27) What is NOT required to be contained in the oil transfer procedures?
o
o
o
(A) The number of persons on duty during oil transfer operations

(B) The location and capacity of all fuel and cargo tanks on the vessel
(C) Any special procedures for topping off tanks
(D) A line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping

Deck General
September 2015
2607. (2.4.1.5A4-30) During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted
transfer procedures are followed?
o
o
o
(A) The designated person in charge

(B) The oiler
(C) The tankerman
(D) The senior able seaman
2608. (2.4.1.5A4-33) An inland oil barge must have equipment available to remove an on-deck oil spill
of at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) one barrel

(B) two barrels
(C) five barrels
(D) ten barrels
2609. (2.4.1.5A4-35) The transfer procedures required to be followed on tankships shall contain
__________.
o
o
(A) the duties by name of each person in charge required for each transfer operation
(B) a list of each port of discharge
(C) a line diagram of the vessel's transfer piping
(D) a current crew list
2610. (2.4.1.5A4-36) Before operating a non-oceangoing ship greater than 100 gross tons it must have
a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. This system must include __________.
o
o
o
(A) approved oil-water separating equipment

(B) at least one outlet accessible from the weather deck
(C) a spare pump in case the main pump is inoperative
(D) a fixed or portable containment system at the shore connection
2611. (2.4.1.5A4-38) You are operating a ship greater than 400 gross tons. You are NOT permitted to
carry oil or hazardous materials in a(n) __________.
o
o
(A) deep tank

(B) after peak tank
(C) forepeak tank
(D) on-deck portable tank

Deck General
September 2015
2612. (2.4.1.5A4-39) The U.S. regulations require an emergency means of stopping the flow of oil
during oil transfer operations. Where must these emergency means be operable from?
o
o
o
(A) engine room

(B) emergency operating station of the person-in-charge
(C) bridge
(D) usual operating station of the person-in-charge
2613. (2.4.1.5A4-41) An individual must be which of the following to serve as the person in charge of oil
cargo transfer operations onboard a self-propelled tank vessel?
o
o
o
(A) be licensed only

(B) be a certified tankerman (PIC)
(C) be 30 years old
(D) have a letter from the company stating his qualification
2614. (2.4.1.5A5-1) Your vessel is at a dock taking bunkers. If oil begins to flow out of a tank vent, what
should you do FIRST?
o
o
o
(A) Signal the shore control point to shut down.

(B) Close the valve on the tank vent line.
(C) Open the intake valve to an adjacent tank.
(D) Set out drip pans and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill.
2615. (2.4.1.5A5-8) Which statement is TRUE when the Captain of the Port or Officer in Charge,
Marine Inspection issues an order of suspension to the operator of a vessel concerning oil transfer
operations?
o
o
o
(A) it includes a statement of each condition requiring corrective action

(B) it must be in writing before it takes effect
(C) it is always effective immediately
2616. (2.4.1.5A5-5) How long must a "Declaration of Inspection" be kept on board?

o
o
(A) One week

(B) Two weeks
(C) One month
(D) Three months

Deck General
September 2015
2617. (2.4.1.5A5-3) If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel
transfer operations, what action should you take FIRST?
o
o
o
(A) Sound the fire alarm

(B) Close the valves at the transfer manifold
(C) Notify the person in charge of the shore facility
(D) Shut down the transfer operation
2618. (2.4.1.5A5-4) You may not act as person-in-charge of oil transfer operations on more than one
vessel at a time __________.
o
o
(A) under any circumstances

(B) unless radio communication is set up between the vessels
(C) unless authorized by the Captain of the Port
(D) unless the vessels are moored clear of all docks
2619. (2.4.1.5A5-6) How long shall the operator of a vessel employed in the transferring of oil to other
vessels keep the Declaration of Inspection of those transfers?
o
o
(A) 1 week from date of signature

(B) 2 weeks from date of signature
(C) 1 month from date of signature
(D) 6 months from date of signature
2620. (2.4.1.5A5-7) While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose leaks causing a sheen on the water.
What action should you take?
o
o
o
(A) apply dispersants to the sheen

(B) reduce the rate of transfer
(C) repair the leak with duct tape
(D) shut down operations
2621. (2.4.1.5A5-12) How long must the operator of each vessel engaged in a vessel-to-vessel oil
transfer operation keep a signed copy of the declaration of inspection for?
o
o
o
(A) 10 days
(B) 1 month
(C) 6 months
(D) 1 year

Deck General
September 2015
2622. (2.4.1.5A5-14) Hoses used for cargo transfer operations must be tested and inspected at
specified intervals by __________.
o
o
o
(A) the operator of the vessel or facility

(B) a representative of the National Cargo Bureau
(C) a representative of the American Bureau of Shipping
(D) a representative of the Captain of the Port
2623. (2.4.1.5A5-15) During the annual inspection by the owner, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose
must not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under static liquid pressure of at least __________.
o
o
(A) the shoreside pump discharge pressure

(B) the relief valve setting pressure
(C) 1 times the maximum allowable working pressure
(D) 100 pounds per square inch
2624. (2.4.1.5A5-17) 33 CFR 156 deals with matters concerning __________.

o
o
(A) vessel construction and design

(B) operation of nautical school ships
(C) oil and hazardous material transfer operations
(D) lifesaving and firefighting equipment
2625. (2.4.1.5A5-18) Who has the authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil transfer operations?
o
o
o
(A) Area Commander

(B) Captain of the Port
(C) nearest Coast Guard office
(D) Officer-in-Charge, Marine Inspection
2626. (2.4.1.5A5-19) Application for a waiver of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer
operations must be submitted to the __________.
o
o
(A) Commandant
(B) District Commander
(C) Captain of the Port
(D) nearest Coast Guard office

Deck General
September 2015
2627. (2.4.1.5A5-20) How far in advance must applications for waivers of any requirements of the
regulations for oil transfer operations be submitted?
o
o
o
(A) the day before the operations

(B) 5 days before the operations
(C) 10 days before the operations
(D) 30 days before the operations
2628. (2.4.1.5A5-22) What is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporary bolted flange oil
hose coupling?
o
o
o
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 3
(D) A bolt must be used in every hole.
2629. (2.4.1.5A5-23) How many bolts are required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI
(American National Standards Institute) coupling?
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
2630. (2.4.1.5A5-25) While taking on fuel oil from an offshore supply vessel, the transfer hose leaks,
causing a sheen in the water. You should __________.
o
o
o
(A) reduce the rate of transfer

(B) immediately shut down operations
(C) repair the leak with duct tape
(D) continue transfer operations

Deck General
September 2015
2631. (2.4.1.5A5-26) According to U.S. regulations, which of the following describes the declaration of
inspection?
o
o
(A) paper issued by the Coast Guard marine inspector which allows you to conduct a transfer
operation
(B) application you must complete and submit to the Coast Guard to have an inspector visit your
vessel
(C) document signed by vessel and shore facility persons-in-charge declaring that all transfer
requirements have been met
(D) annual report submitted by vessel personnel to the Coast Guard declaring that all transfer
equipment has been inspected
2632. (2.4.1.5A5-28) What type of information is found in 33 CFR part 156?

o
o
o
(A) operation of nautical school ships

(B) oil and hazardous material transfer operations
(C) lifesaving and firefighting equipment
(D) vessel construction and design
2633. (2.4.1.5A5-30) Which of the following applies in determining if all requirements of the Declaration
of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations prior to bunkering from a shoreside facility?
o
o
o
(A) the bunker facility must be inspected by the designated person-in-charge of the vessel and
vice versa for the vessel
(B) vessel and bunker facility must be inspected by a representative of the Coast Guard Captain
of the Port
(C) the vessel is responsible to provide an inspected oil hose
(D) vessel and bunker facility must be independently inspected by the designated persons-incharge
2634. (2.4.1.5A5-31) What shall the transfer procedures required to be followed on tankships contain?
o
o
o
(A) the duties by name of each person in charge required for each transfer operation
(B) a line diagram of the vessel transfer piping
(C) a current crew list
(D) a list of each port of discharge

Deck General
September 2015
2635. (2.4.1.5A5-33) According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), when may a person
serve as the person-in-charge of both a vessel and a facility during oil transfer operations?
o
o
o
(A) When authorized by the Captain of the Port.

(B) Whenever the vessel is short of manpower.
(C) When licensed as a certified refueling officer.
(D) Whenever the facility is unmanned.
2636. (2.4.1.5A5-34) During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the
posted transfer procedures are being followed?
o
o
o

(B) The oiler
(C) The tankerman
(D) The senior able seaman
2637. (2.4.1.5A5-35) U.S. regulations require that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless
which of the following criteria are met?
o
o
o
(A) all unnecessary parts of the transfer system are open and drained
(B) all necessary components of the transfer system are lined up before the transfer begins
(C) the transfer system is connected to an automatic back pressure shutoff nozzle
(D) the transfer system is connected to a flexible overflow fuel hose
2638. (2.4.1.5A5-36) To allow for the rise or fall in tide and for change in draft of a tankship during
cargo transfer, cargo hoses must be suspended with __________.
o
o
o
(A) topping lifts and runners tied off to winches

(B) enough slack in their bight
(C) slings or saddles placed at 25-foot (8 meter) intervals
2639. (2.4.1.5A5-37) According to U.S. regulations, if a cargo hose shows a small leak in its fabric,
when may it be used to transfer oil?
o
o
o
(A) never the hose must be replaced

(B) after the terminal foreman is notified
(C) after the hose leak is securely wrapped
(D) after a drip pan is placed under the leak

Deck General
September 2015
2640. (2.4.1.5A5-38) According to U.S. regulations, how often are you are required to test cargo
discharge piping?
o
o
o
(A) 12 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 24 months
(D) 18 months
2641. (2.4.1.5A5-39) According to U.S. regulations, when a tank vessel is discharging cargo, each sea
suction valve connected to the vessel's oil transfer, ballast, or cargo tank systems must be which of
the following?
o
o
o
(A) sealed or lashed closed

(B) fitted with a blank flange
(C) fitted with an anti-siphon device
(D) lined up for immediate use
2642. (2.4.1.5A5-40) What does Title 33 CFR Part 156 of the Pollution Prevention Regulations
concern?
o
o
(A) pumping equipment design

(B) large oil transfer shoreside facilities
(C) oil and hazmat transfer operations
(D) cargo vessel design
2643. (2.4.1.5A6-1) What does the term, "cargo tank length", as used in part 157 of the Pollution
Regulations, mean?
o
o
o
(A) length from the forward bulkhead of the forwardmost cargo tanks to the after bulkhead of the
aftermost cargo tanks
(B) diagonal measurement of a cargo tank
(C) greatest distance between two opposite cargo tank bulkheads
(D) length of any individual cargo space, from bulkhead to bulkhead
2644. (2.4.1.5A6-2) A oil tanker may not discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank, slop
tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless which of the following conditions is present?
o
o
o
(A) is within "Special Areas" defined in Regulation 1 (10) of Annex I to MARPOL 73/78
(B) at anchor or stopped
(C) more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land
(D) discharging at an instantaneous rate of oil content not exceeding 30 liters per nautical mile

Deck General
September 2015
2645. (2.4.1.5A7-1) Which type of marine sanitation device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of
sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?
o
o
(A) Type I
(B) Type II
(C) Type III
(D) Type IV
2646. (2.4.1.5A7-2) According to U.S. regulations, what vessels are required to have the "Discharge of
Oil Prohibited" placard?
o
o
o
(A) U.S. vessels less than 26 feet in length

(B) foreign vessels not in U.S. navigable waters
(C) Foreign vessels when engaged in noncommercial service
(D) U.S. Vessels 26 feet or more in length
2647. (2.4.1.5B-1) In the event of an oil spill a report must be made to which of the following entities?
o
o
o

(B) U.S. Corps of Engineers
(C) local fire department
(D) local police
2648. (2.4.1.5B-3) Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of __________.
o
o
o
(A) the galley trash can

(B) sewage
(C) an oily mixture of one part per million
2649. (2.4.1.5B-5) When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after
reporting the discharge?
o
o
o
(A) Throw sand on the water to sink the oil.

(B) Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water.
(C) Obtain your permit from the Corps of Engineers
(D) Throw chemical agents on the water to disperse the oil.

Deck General
September 2015
2650. (2.4.1.5B-6) Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?

o
o
(A) It is not covered by the pollution laws.

(B) It does little harm to marine life.
(C) It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill.
(D) It will sink more rapidly than crude oil.
2651. (2.4.1.5B-7) Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?

o
o
(A) They usually stay in a small area.

(B) A small spill is not dangerous to sea life in the area.
(C) They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be cumulative.
(D) They usually disappear quickly.
2652. (2.4.1.6A1-1) In the machinery space of all uninspected motor vessels, there must be one type
B-II hand portable fire extinguisher for which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) 500 S.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof

(B) 1000 S.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof
(C) 500 B.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof
(D) 1000 B.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof
2653. (2.4.1.6A1-2) All uninspected motor vessels constructed after 25 April 1940, which use fuel with
a flash point of 110F (43C) or less, shall have at least what number of ventilator ducts for the
removal of explosive or flammable gases from every engine and fuel tank compartment?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
2654. (2.4.1.6A1-4) In the uninspected vessel regulations what does the "B" on a "B-II" fire extinguisher
refer to?
o
o
o
(A) Class of fire that the extinguisher should be used on

(B) Size of the nozzle
(C) Size of the applicator
(D) Size of the extinguisher

Deck General
September 2015
2655. (2.4.1.6A1-5) Uninspected vessels must have one approved ring life buoy on board if the length
is over how many feet?
o
o
(A) 6 feet
(B) 16 feet
(C) 26 feet
(D) 36 feet
2656. (2.4.1.6A1-6) By regulation, life preservers aboard an uninspected towing vessel must be which
of the following?
o
o
o
(A) stored in sealed containers

(B) securely stowed
(C) stowed with the emergency provisions
(D) readily accessible
2657. (2.4.1.6A1-9) According to uninspected vessel regulations, what is the minimum number of
portable fire extinguishers required on board a 45-foot motorboat having a fixed fire system on
board?
o
o
o
(A) 1 B-I
(B) 2 B-I
(C) 3 B-I
(D) 4 B-I
2658. (2.4.1.6A1-10) What is the number of fire extinguishers required on an uninspected "motor
vessel" based on?
o
o
o
(A) vessel length

(B) vessel gross tonnage
(C) number of crew members
(D) vessel draft
2659. (2.4.1.6A1-12) What is the minimum number of B-II hand portable fire extinguishers required on
board a 105 GT uninspected towboat with a 7500 B.H.P. plant (including the machinery space)?
o
o
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 11

Deck General
September 2015
2660. (2.4.1.6A1-14) What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required on board a
45-foot uninspected towing vessel having a fixed fire system on board?
o
o
o
(A) 1 B-I
(B) 2 B-I
(C) 3 B-I
(D) 4 B-I
2661. (2.4.1.6A1-15) How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery
space of an uninspected towing vessel with 1,400 B.H.P.?
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
2662. (2.4.1.6A1-16) What is the minimum number of Type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers
required to be aboard a 3,000 BHP, 99 GT uninspected harbor tug?
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
2663. (2.4.1.6A1-18) An uninspected 6,000 BHP, 199 GT tug operating on the Great Lakes is required
to carry how many B-II extinguishers?
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 9
2664. (2.4.1.6A1-19) How many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery
space of a 260 GT uninspected tow vessel with 2400 B.H.P.?
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 3

Deck General
September 2015
2665. (2.4.1.6A1-20) What is the minimum number of portable B-II fire extinguishers required in the
machinery space of a 199 GT uninspected motor towing vessel of 8000 B.H.P.?
o
o
o
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9
2666. (2.4.1.6A1-21) Which statement is TRUE concerning the ventilation of engine and fuel tank
compartments on uninspected towing vessels using fuel with a flash point of 100F?
o
o
o
(A) Only vessels using fuel with a flash point above 110F need ventilate engine and fuel
compartments.
(B) At least one exhaust duct shall extend from the open atmosphere to the lower portion of the
bilge.
(C) There shall be at least 3 ventilator ducts open to the atmosphere.
(D) At least one intake duct shall extend from the open atmosphere to the lower portion of the
bilge.
2667. (2.4.1.6A1-24) What does the minimum amount of lifesaving equipment required aboard an 85foot uninspected towing vessel consists of?
o
o
(A) one approved inflatable vest for each person on board

(B) lifeboat capacity equal to 1 1/2 times the number of persons on board
(C) one approved life preserver for each person on board and one lifebuoy
(D) one approved flotation cushion for each person on board
2668. (2.4.1.6A1-25) An 85 foot uninspected towing vessel with a crew of ten (10) persons on board
must carry which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) at least ten approved life jackets and one approved ring life buoy
(B) at least eleven approved life preservers
(C) at least ten approved ring life buoys and ten approved life preservers
(D) at least ten approved work vests

Deck General
September 2015
2669. (2.4.1.6A1-26) Which personal lifesaving device(s) is(are) approved for use on an uninspected
towboat 150 feet in length?
o
o
(A) Buoyant vest or cushion

(B) Special purpose safety device
(C) Life preserver
2670. (2.4.1.6A2-1) On uninspected vessels when may U. S. Coast Guard approved work vests be
substituted life jackets?
o
o
o
(A) aboard towing vessels

(B) aboard sailing vessels
(C) aboard work vessels
(D) under no circumstances
2671. (2.4.1.6A2-3) Which uninspected vessel is required to carry an efficient daylight signaling lamp?
o
o
(A) 299 GT towing vessel on a coastwise voyage

(B) 99 GT towing vessel on Inland Waters
(C) 199 GT towing vessel on an international voyage
(D) 199 GT towing vessel on a coastwise voyage
2672. (2.4.1.6A2-2) On uninspected vessels which statement is TRUE concerning work vests?
o
o
(A) They need not be of an approved type.

(B) They may be worn during drills.
(C) They must be stowed separately from approved life preservers.
(D) They may be substituted for up to 10% of the required lifesaving gear aboard.
2673. (2.4.1.6A3-1) Who may certify a towing vessel's fire detection system to comply with the Coast
Guard's fire protection regulations?
o
o
o
(A) a Coast Guard inspector

(B) a licensed electrician
(C) the owner or Master of the vessel
(D) a registered professional engineer

Deck General
September 2015
2674. (2.4.1.6A3-23) Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require training in all of the
following, EXCEPT __________.
o
o
o
(A) refilling and servicing all expended fire extinguishing equipment

(B) donning a self-contained breathing apparatus, if the vessel is so equipped
(C) activating the general alarm and reporting inoperative alarm systems and fire-detection
systems
(D) putting on a fireman's outfit, if the vessel is so equipped
2675. (2.4.1.6A3-2) Which type of fixed fire protection system is approved for use on board
uninspected vessels?
o
o
(A) Chemical foam

(B) Dry chemical
(C) Water mist
(D) Steam smothering
2676. (2.4.1.6A3-3) You are the operator of a 295 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Which type of fire
extinguishing system is required on your vessel, if its construction was contracted for before August
27, 2003?
o
o
(A) Fixed CO2, AND another fixed fire-extinguishing system

(B) Type B-III semi-portable AND a fixed fire-extinguishing system
(C) Type B-V semi-portable OR a fixed fire-extinguishing system
(D) Type B-IV semi-portable OR a fixed fire-extinguishing system
2677. (2.4.1.6A3-4) You are the operator of a 296 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Its construction was
contracted for after August 27, 2003. In addition to the hand portable fire extinguishers, how much
other fire extinguishing equipment are you required to have on board?
o
o
o
(A) An approved water mist fire protection system and a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system
(B) Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire extinguishing system and an approved water mist
fire protection system
(C) Either an approved B-V semi-portable fire extinguishing system or a fixed fire extinguishing
system
(D) Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire extinguishing system and a fixed fire extinguishing
system

Deck General
September 2015
2678. (2.4.1.6A3-7) You are the operator of a 290 GRT uninspected towing vessel whose construction
was contracted for after August 27, 2003. Which type of semi-portable fire extinguishing system is
required on your vessel?
o
o
o
(A) B-III
(B) B-V
(C) B-IV
2679. (2.4.1.6A3-8) Uninspected towing vessel fire protection regulations apply to which of the
following vessels?
o
o
(A) operating in restricted service such as making up or breaking up larger tows

(B) operating for pollution response
(C) operating on the Western Rivers
(D) operating for assistance towing
2680. (2.4.1.6A3-9) Fire protection regulations apply to those towing vessels __________.
o
o
o
(A) used only for pollution response

(B) used only on inland waters
(C) owned and operated by the US government
(D) used only within a barge fleeting area
2681. (2.4.1.6A3-10) Towing vessel fire protection regulations distinguish between "new" and "existing"
towing vessels. A "new" towing vessel is one that was __________.
o
o
o
(A) contracted for on or after August 27, 2002

(B) built within the last three years
(C) not previously owned
(D) contracted for on or after August 27, 2003

Deck General
September 2015
2682. (2.4.1.6A3-11) When a standard in the fire protection regulations for towing vessels is
"incorporated by reference," it means that the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Coast Guard accepts a commercial or military standard as part of a specific regulation
(B) standard is readily available to the public
(C) standard, and where it can be obtained or referred to, are listed in the Code of Federal
Regulations
2683. (2.4.1.6A3-12) Towing vessel fire protection regulations define a "fixed fire-extinguishing system"
to include all of the following EXCEPT a __________.
o
o
o
(A) halon system

(B) manually-operated water-mist system
(C) manually-operated clean-agent system
(D) carbon-dioxide system
2684. (2.4.1.6A3-13) The regulations for a general alarm system on a towing vessel require all of the
following EXCEPT that it __________.
o
o
o
(A) have a flashing red light in areas that have high background noise
(B) be used instead of the public address system
(C) have a contact maker at the operating station
(D) be capable of notifying persons in any accommodation, work space and the engine room
2685. (2.4.1.6A3-14) The control panel of a fire detection system must have all of the following
EXCEPT __________.
o
o
(A) an audible alarm to notify the crew and identify the origin of the fire
(B) a power-available light
(C) a way to bypass the entire panel if it malfunctions
(D) a means to silence audible alarms while maintaining visible alarm lights

Deck General
September 2015
2686. (2.4.1.6A3-15) In the towing vessel fire protection regulations, all of the following are fire
detection requirements, EXCEPT that __________.
o
o
o
(A) there must be a circuit-fault detector test-switch in the control panel

(B) the control panel must have labels for all switches and indicator lights
(C) the detection system must be powered from two sources, with the switchover being either
manual or automatic
2687. (2.4.1.6A3-16) Which towing vessels are NOT required to have an internal communication
system between the engine room and the operating station?
o
o
o
(A) Fleet boats making or breaking tows

(B) Vessels on limited routes
(C) Vessels serving a single company or facility
(D) Twin-screw vessels that have operating station control for both engines
2688. (2.4.1.6A3-17) Which devices may be used as part of an internal communication system on a
towing vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Sound-powered telephones

(B) Portable radios
(C) Either fixed or portable equipment
2689. (2.4.1.6A3-18) When is direct voice communication allowed in place of an internal

communication system between the engine room and the operating station on a towing vessel?
o
o
o
(A) When the controls at the operation station are within 10 feet of the engine room access
(B) When a person's voice can be heard better than a portable radio with existing background
noise
(C) When the vessel is less than 26 meters in length
(D) When the vessel is ruled to be an "existing vessel"
2690. (2.4.1.6A3-19) When do the towing vessel fire protection regulations allow a towing vessel to
carry portable fuel systems on board?
o
o
o
(A) When permanently attached to portable equipment such as bilge and fire pumps
(B) When used for outboard engines
(C) If the portable tanks used for portable equipment meet published safety standards

Deck General
September 2015
2691. (2.4.1.6A3-20) Fire protection regulations for towing vessels allow all of these types of fuel
piping, EXCEPT __________.
o
o
o
(A) nickel-copper, copper-nickel or annealed copper

(B) aluminum in an aluminum-hulled vessel
(C) steel
(D) schedule 80 fire resistant plastic pipe
2692. (2.4.1.6A3-21) Fire protection regulations for towing vessels allow you to use a nonmetallic
flexible hose in fuel line installations under all of the following conditions EXCEPT when
___________.
o
o
o
(A) fitted with Coast Guard approved garden hose fittings

(B) reinforced with wire braid
(C) used in lengths of not more than 30 inches
(D) visible and easily accessible
2693. (2.4.1.6A3-22) Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require any fuel line subject to
internal head pressure from fuel in the tank to __________.
o
o
o
(A) have a shut-off valve at the top of the tank

(B) have a drain cock at the lowest point in the fuel line
(C) have a gate valve easily accessible in the space where the tank is located
(D) be fitted with a positive fuel shut-off valve located at the tank
2694. (2.4.1.6A3-24) Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require that drills be conducted on
board the vessel as if there were an actual emergency. Drills include all of the following, EXCEPT
__________.
o
o
o
(A) participation by selected crew members

(B) one person putting on protective clothing, if the vessel is so equipped
(C) testing all alarm and detection systems
(D) breaking out and using the vessel's emergency equipment

Deck General
September 2015
2695. (2.4.1.6A3-25) Fire protection and manning regulations for towing vessels state that the Master
or person in charge must ensure that all crew members who have not participated in the drills or
received the safety orientation __________.
o
o
o
(A) receive a safety orientation within 24 hours of reporting for duty

(B) view a videotape on safety procedures within 48 hours of reporting for duty
(C) receive a safety orientation or view a videotape before the vessel gets underway
2696. (2.4.1.6A3-26) Towing vessel fire protection regulations require that all fuel tank vent pipes
comply with all of the following provisions EXCEPT that the vent __________.
o
o
o
(A) must have a positive-acting shut-off valve to prevent water from entering the tank in heavy
weather
(B) be fitted with a 30-by-30 corrosion resistant flame screen
(C) connects to the highest point of the tank
(D) system discharges on a weather deck through a U-shaped 180 degree pipe bend
2697. (2.4.1.6A4-31) A fishing vessel that is required to have a fireman's outfit, must have all of the
following in the outfit except a __________.
o
o
o

(B) flashlight
(C) fire axe
(D) combustible gas indicator
2698. (2.4.1.6A4-1) Cold water, in commercial fishing, means water where the monthly mean low water
temperature is normally __________.
o
o
o
(A) 39Fahrenheit or less

(B) 44Fahrenheit or less
(C) 49Fahrenheit or less
(D) 59Fahrenheit or less
2699. (2.4.1.6A4-2) How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot
long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2300 brake horsepower?
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
2708. (2.4.1.6A4-12) Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered
at the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________.
o
o
o
(A) fire on board

(B) rescuing an individual from the water
(C) minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding
(D) emergency towing
2709. (2.4.1.6A4-13) Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a
fishing vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Steering casualty

(B) Recovering an individual from the water
(C) Loss of propulsion power
(D) Emergency towing

Deck General
September 2015
2710. (2.4.1.6A4-14) A new crew member aboard your fishing vessel, who has not received any safety
instructions or participated in any drills, reports on board. The Master must provide a safety
orientation __________.
o
o
o
(A) before sailing

(B) within 24 hours
(C) within one week
(D) on reporting day if it occurs within normal work hours
2711. (2.4.1.6A4-15) A documented oceangoing fishing vessel is required to have emergency

instructions posted if it __________.
o
o
o
(A) has sleeping accommodations

(B) is over 25 gross tons
(C) exceeds 49 feet in length
(D) carries more than 16 persons
2712. (2.4.1.6A4-18) A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.
o
o
o
(A) a signal mirror

(B) a life line
(C) smoke flares
(D) a hydrostatic release
2713. (2.4.1.6A4-19) After 1 September 1992, in the North Pacific area, a documented 75-foot fishing
vessel operating in cold waters 25 miles off the coast must have at least a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) buoyant cushion for each person on board

(B) inflatable liferaft with a SOLAS pack
(C) inflatable buoyant apparatus with EPIRB attached
(D) approved rescue boat
2714. (2.4.1.6A4-20) The hydrostatic release on the inflatable liferafts on a fishing vessel must be
__________.
o
o
(A) overhauled quarterly

(B) tested monthly
(C) serviced annually
(D) replaced annually

Deck General
September 2015
2715. (2.4.1.6A4-21) You are operating 10 miles offshore with three people aboard. What kind of
survival craft must you carry?
o
o
o
(A) A life float

(B) No survival craft is required.
(C) An inflatable liferaft with a coastal pack
(D) An inflatable buoyant apparatus
2716. (2.4.1.6A4-22) The survival craft carried aboard a commercial fishing vessel must safely
accommodate __________.
o
o
(A) the number of people required by the certificate of inspection

(B) the entire crew
(C) all of the people aboard
2717. (2.4.1.6A4-23) An undocumented vessel with 10 people aboard and operating 25 miles off the
seacoast must carry a survival craft of the __________.
o
o
o
(A) buoyant apparatus type

(B) inflatable buoyant apparatus type
(C) life float type
(D) All of the above types are acceptable.
2718. (2.4.1.6A4-24) What do regulations allow to be marked with EITHER the name of the fishing
vessel OR the name of the person to whom it is assigned?
o
o
o
(A) Ring buoy

(B) Life float
(C) Buoyant apparatus
(D) Immersion suit
2719. (2.4.1.6A4-25) The name of the fishing vessel is NOT required to be marked on a(n)
__________.
o
o
o
(A) inflatable liferaft

(B) EPIRB
(C) life float
(D) buoyant apparatus

Deck General
September 2015
2720. (2.4.1.6A4-26) Each commercial fishing vessel must have at least one immersion suit, exposure
suit, or life preserver for each __________.
o
o
o
(A) person working on deck

(B) person aboard
(C) crew member
2721. (2.4.1.6A4-27) Each life preserver must be readily accessible to the person for whom it is
intended while he or she is __________.
o
o
(A) in his or her berthing area, only

(B) at work, only
(C) BOTH at work and in his or her berthing area
2722. (2.4.1.6A4-28) On a commercial fishing vessel, a wearable personal flotation device must be
marked with the name of the __________.
o
o
o
(A) vessel
(B) assigned individual
(C) owner of the device
2723. (2.4.1.6A4-29) You are on a commercial fishing vessel 78 feet long. At least one of your ring
buoys or throwable flotation devices must have a line of what minimum length attached?
o
o
o
(A) 60 feet
(B) 70 feet
(C) 80 feet
(D) 90 feet
2724. (2.4.1.6A4-30) Your fishing vessel operates more than 25 miles from the coastline on the Great
Lakes. Which distress signal is NOT required to be on board?
o
o
o
(A) 3 red parachute flares

(B) 1 electric distress light
(C) 6 red hand flares
(D) 3 orange smoke signals

Deck General
September 2015
2725. (2.4.1.6A4-32) A vessel must have at least two fireman's outfits aboard if she __________.
o
o
o
(A) has more than 49 people aboard

(B) is documented
(C) is under foreign articles
(D) is over 100 gross tons
2726. (2.4.1.6A4-33) Your fishing vessel is required to have a compass. It must also have a(n)
__________.
o
o
o
(A) electronic position-fixing device

(B) copy of the Sailing Directions
(C) radar reflector
(D) deviation table
2727. (2.4.1.6A4-34) You are on a 92 foot fishing vessel with 35 individuals on board. Which one of the
following items are you NOT required to have on board?
o
o
o
(A) Gyro compass

(B) Electronic position fixing device
(C) Magnetic compass
(D) VHF radiotelephone
2728. (2.4.1.6A4-35) Radar reflectors are required for __________.

o
o
o
(A) all fishing vessels of less than 200 GT

(B) all fishing vessels over 39 feet in length
(C) sail-propelled fishing vessels
(D) wooden hull fishing vessels with a poor radar echo
2729. (2.4.1.6A4-36) The bilge pump on a fishing vessel __________.

o
o
(A) must be portable if there are more than 4 watertight compartments

(B) may be used as a fire pump
(C) must be fixed if the vessel exceeds 12 meters in length
(D) must be capable of pumping at least 450 gpm

Deck General
September 2015
2730. (2.4.1.6A4-37) Which lifesaving equipment must be tested monthly?

o
o
(A) Dated batteries

(B) Hydrostatic releases
(C) EPIRB
(D) Inflatable PFD's
2731. (2.4.1.6A4-38) A vessel operating outside of coastal waters must carry an automatically activated
Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) if she __________.
o
o
(A) is a workboat and her mother ship carries an EPIRB

(B) does not have berthing facilities
(C) has berthing and galley facilities
2732. (2.4.1.6A4-39) Every fishing vessel required to have a general alarm system must test it
__________.
o
o
o
(A) prior to operation of the vessel

(B) once every week that the vessel is operated
(C) once every day that the vessel is operated
(D) Both B and C
2733. (2.4.1.6A4-40) Every injury aboard a commercial fishing industry vessel must be reported to the
__________.
o
o
(A) National Fisheries Service

(B) Coast Guard
(C) vessel owner or owner's agent
(D) Occupational Safety and Health Administration
2734. (2.4.1.6A4-41) Every seaman injured on a fishing vessel must report the injury to the Master,
individual in charge, or other agent of the employer __________.
o
o
o
(A) only if the injury prevents him from working

(B) no later than 24 hours after the vessel docks
(C) before the end of the voyage
(D) no later than 7 days after the injury occurred

Deck General
September 2015
2735. (2.4.1.6A4-42) The Master or other vessel representative must contact the nearest Coast Guard
Marine Safety Office within five days of a(n) __________.
o
o
(A) accident which requires $(SA)2500 of repairs

(B) injury which requires first aid
(C) grounding
2736. (2.4.1.6A4-43) A fishing vessel casualty must be reported to the Coast Guard if it involves
__________.
o
o
(A) loss of equipment which doesn't reduce the vessel's maneuverability

(B) $10,000 in property damage
(C) loss of life
(D) an injury requiring only first aid
2737. (2.4.1.6A4-44) You are in charge of a fishing vessel with 18 individuals on board. You are
required to conduct drills and give safety instruction at least once __________.
o
o
o
(A) every month

(B) before you begin fishing
(C) every 15 days
(D) every week
2738. (2.4.1.6A4-45) A bilge suction line, in a fishing vessel with more than 16 individuals aboard, must
have a strainer with an open area not less than how many times the open area of the suction line?
o
o
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
2739. (2.4.1.6A4-46) Which of the following would be considered downflooding on a fishing vessel as
defined in regulation?
o
o
o
(A) Vessel heels until water enters a hatch.

(B) Vessel takes on water due to the hatches being left open in heavy rain.
(C) Vessel in collision floods through a damaged area above the waterline.
(D) Vessel takes on water by the propeller shaft due to failure of the stern gland.

Deck General
September 2015
2740. (2.4.1.6A4-47) Your vessel is 79 feet long with 20 people aboard. The coaming of a deck above
the lowest weather deck (except an exposed forecastle deck) must be at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 6" high

(B) 12" high
(C) 24" high
(D) Not required
2741. (2.4.1.6A4-48) In commercial fishing, "cold water" means water where the monthly mean low
water temperature is normally __________.
o
o
o
(A) 39Fahrenheit or less

(B) 44Fahrenheit or less
(C) 49Fahrenheit or less
(D) 59Fahrenheit or less
2742. (2.4.1.6A4-49) Category 1 EPIRBs are required to be carried on board __________.

o
o
o
(A) all deep draft vessels

(B) fishing industry vessels
(C) small passenger vessels on the Great Lakes
(D) small passenger vessels
2743. (2.4.1.6A4-50) An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________.
o
o
o
(A) as far forward as possible

(B) so as to float free
(C) with the vessel's emergency equipment
(D) near the wheelhouse
2744. (2.4.1.6A4-51) A documented vessel operating over 50 miles offshore must carry an inflatable
liferaft with a __________.
o
o
(A) coastal pack

(B) SOLAS B pack
(C) SOLAS A pack
(D) small vessel pack

Deck General
September 2015
2745. (2.4.2.2-1) The international body responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine
pollution (MARPOL) is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Association of Seafaring Nations

(B) International Association of Shipping
(C) Maritime Advisory Council
2746. (2.4.2.2-2) Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge into the
marine environment of __________.
o
o
o
(A) oil
(B) garbage
(C) noxious liquid substances
2747. (2.4.2.3-1) SOLAS requires certain information on persons aboard passenger ships be
recorded. Which of the following information sets is required to be communicated to the Master prior
to departure?
o
o
o
(A) details of the number of children aboard and their legal guardians
(B) details of passengers who have declared a need for special assistance in an emergency
(C) details of the crew members assigned to each passenger requiring assistance in an
emergency
(D) details of all passengers who have declared having prescription medications
2748. (2.4.2.3-2) SOLAS requires that all passenger vessels maintain Muster Lists. What information is
required to be contained in this document?
o
o
o
(A) duties assigned to members of the crew in relation to passengers

(B) completion date of the most recent survival craft certification
(C) the distinguished number of adult, children and infant passengers
(D) emergency egress routes for each passenger cabin
2749. (2.4.2.3-3) SOLAS requires Emergency Instructions be posted in conspicuous places throughout
the vessel. On a passenger vessel what language shall these instructions be posted in?
o
o
(A) the principal language of the passengers and in English

(B) English, Spanish, French and German
(C) the language required by the ship's flag State and in English
(D) English because it is the international language

Deck General
September 2015
2750. (2.4.2.3-4) Muster Lists and emergency instructions are required for all SOLAS vessels. The
muster list shall show the duties assigned to different members of the crew including which of the
following?
o
o
(A) the person responsible for bringing water to the survival craft
(B) the person responsible for the instruction on the donning of lifejackets
(C) the person responsible for the muster of passengers
(D) the person responsible for emergency repairs to life saving equipment
2751. (2.4.2.4-2) What is the period of validity of a Cargo Ship Safety Radio Certificate?
o
o
o
(A) 6 months
(B) 12 months
(C) 24 months
(D) 60 months
2752. (2.4.2.4-3) The Safety of Life at Sea Convention was developed by the __________.
o
o
o

(B) International Maritime Organization
(C) American Institute of Maritime Shipping
2753. (2.4.2.4-4) What is the period of validity of the SOLAS required Cargo Ship Safety Construction
Certificate?
o
o
o
(A) 12 months
(B) 24 months
(C) 48 months
(D) 60 months
2754. (2.4.2.4-5) What is the period of validity of a Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate?
o
o
o
(A) 72 months
(B) 60 months
(C) 48 months
(D) 42 months

Deck General
September 2015
2755. (2.4.2.4-6) On U.S. flag vessels, which certificate is always issued by the Coast Guard?
o
o
o
(A) Safety Construction Certificate

(B) Load Line Certificate
(C) Register of cargo gear
(D) Safety Equipment Certificate
2756. (2.4.2.4-7) Due to the nature of a vessel's construction for a particular trade, it does not fully
comply with the provisions of SOLAS. Where will this be indicated?
o
o
o
(A) On the Exemption Certificate

(B) Nowhere; the vessel must comply to engage in international trade.
(C) On the face of the Certificate of Inspection
(D) On the reverse of the particular SOLAS certificate affected
2757. (2.4.2.4-8) The Safety Equipment Certificate shows that the vessel conforms to the standards of
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) American Salvage Association

(B) S.O.L.A.S. Convention
2758. (2.4.2.4-10) SOLAS requires a lifesaving training manual be provided in each crew cabin or in
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) engineering control station

(B) recreation and mess rooms
(C) fire control room
(D) bridge
2759. (2.4.2.4-11) All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how
many Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacons (EPIRB)?
o
o
o
(A) One approved Category 1 EPIRB

(B) Two approved Class B EPIRBs
(C) One approved Class B EPIRB
(D) Three approved Category 1 EPIRBs

Deck General
September 2015
2760. (2.4.3.2-12) Delivery of a vessel to a charterer is called __________.
o
o
o
(A) tendering
(B) dispatching
(C) chartering
(D) fixing
2761. (2.4.3.3-25) If, after examination by the Quarantine Officer, your vessel is found to have a
specific deficiency, you may be issued __________.
o
o
o
(A) Bill of health

(B) Controlled Free Pratique
(C) Notice to Comply
(D) Free Pratique
2762. (2.5.4.3-14) The instructions for launching lifeboats and liferafts on a MODU must be approved
by the __________.
o
o

(B) person-in-charge of the unit
(C) Coast Guard
(D) lease operator
2763. (2.4.3.1A3-4) A document used to indicate suspected cargo damage caused by rough weather
would be the __________.
o
o
(A) hull damage report

(B) cargo report
(C) Master's Note of Protest
(D) Unseaworthy Certificate
2764. (2.4.3.8D-20) The responsibility for maintaining the Official Logbook on voyages between the
Atlantic and Pacific coasts of the United States rests with the __________.
o
o
(A) Chief Mate of the vessel

(B) Purser of the vessel
(C) Master of the vessel
(D) Deck Officer of the watch at the time of the occurrence

Deck General
September 2015
2765. (2.4.3.9B1-8) While assigned to a 90 GRT vessel, you are required to sign "foreign" articles on a
voyage from Philadelphia to which port?
o
o
o
(A) Baltimore, MD
(B) Tampico, Mexico
(C) Montreal, Canada
(D) San Francisco, CA
2766. (2.4.3.6D-7) The Master may have his/her Merchant Mariner Credential suspended or revoked
for which of the following?
o
o
(A) carrying stowaways

(B) sailing shorthanded
(C) being negligent
2767. (2.5.3.1-25) In very deep water drilling, it becomes necessary to reduce tension caused by the
weight of the riser joints. This is accomplished by using a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) aluminum riser

(B) buoyant riser
(C) intermediate tensioner
(D) tapered riser
2768. (2.4.3.6B-7) Following a Serious Marine Incident, a mariner directly involved in the incident is
required to submit to alcohol testing within __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1 hour
(B) 2 hours
(C) 6 hours
(D) 12 hours
2769. (2.4.3.9B2-13) When paying off seamen in a foreign port, where a United States consul is not
available, the release must be executed by the seamen and the __________.
o
o
o

(B) local port authority representative
(C) representative of the foreign country
(D) ship's union delegate

Deck General
September 2015
2770. (2.4.3.9B2-8) Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crew members has
been incarcerated for drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the seaman doesn't have funds
to cover the costs of the fine. Which action should the Master take?
o
o
o
(A) Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a fail to join after the vessel sails.
(B) Pay the seaman's fine.
(C) Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a deserter after the vessel sails.
(D) Inventory his gear and send it and a pay voucher ashore with the agent.
2771. (2.4.3.8D-9) The official logbook is filed with the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection (OCMI)
__________.
o
o
o
(A) at the end of the year with all other official logbooks
(B) at the next Certificate of Inspection
(C) within 30 days of the date of arrival of the first U.S. port
(D) upon completion of the voyage
2772. (2.5.4.1-6) The required fireman's outfits required for MODU's are not to be used for any other
purpose EXCEPT for the __________.
o
o
(A) lifeline, if used by personnel entering a compartment which might be deficient of oxygen
(B) boots and gloves that are made of rubber or electrically non-conductive material, if used when
repairing electrical equipment
(C) self-contained breathing apparatus, when used as protection from gas leaking from a
refrigeration unit
(D) oxygen and explosion meter when it is used for detection of flare gases
2773. (2.5.2.1-18) When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be activated after
abandoning a MODU?
o
o
(A) Only after sunset

(B) After one hour
(C) Immediately
(D) Only when another vessel is in sight
2774. (2.4.3.4-1) The implied condition(s) with respect to the doctrine of deviation in a marine
insurance policy is(are) __________.
o
o
o
(A) that the voyage be pursued over the usual and direct route
(B) that the cargo be discharged from the vessel with customary dispatch
(C) that the voyage be commenced in a reasonable time

Deck General
September 2015
2775. (2.5.3.1-17) A hydraulic accumulator aboard a MODU is designed to __________.

o
o
o
(A) provide overpressure relief

(B) store fluid under pressure
(C) replenish fluid to a system
(D) act as a fluid reservoir
2776. (2.5.2.10-15) To assess the potential for progressive flooding aboard a damaged MODU, you
must know the __________.
o
o
(A) capacity of the water sprinkler systems

(B) operation of the machinery space bilge level alarms
(C) integrity of the watertight boundaries
2777. (2.4.3.1G-11) The figure obtained by dividing the total volume of the ship in cubic feet (after
omission of exempted spaces) by 100 is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) net tonnage

(B) light displacement
(C) bale cubic
(D) gross tonnage
2778. (2.5.3.3-7) Most drill ships and barges have a walled opening below the derrick, open to the
water's surface and through which various drilling tools can pass down to the sea floor called a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) pontoon
(B) keyway
(C) spider deck opening
(D) moon pool
2779. (2.4.3.1E-19) The Certificate of Inspection for a containership __________.

o
o
o
(A) lists all of the stability limitations and conditions imposed on the vessel
(B) shows the due date of the quadrennial test of the cargo gear
(C) is issued by the Coast Guard and is usually valid for 2 years.
(D) must be posted under transparent material in a conspicuous place

Deck General
September 2015
2780. (2.4.3.9B2-4) You are signing on a deck officer, who will be designated as one of the GMDSS
operators, before sailing foreign. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) He/she must present either an FCC-issued license or a Coast Guard-issued license.
(B) His/her Merchant Mariners Credential must have an added endorsement as "Radio
Electronics Officer".
(C) You must consult the "List of Qualifications" on the reverse of his/her FCC-issued license.
(D) He/she must have an STCW certificate endorsed as "Valid for Service on Vessels Operating
in the GMDSS System".
2781. (2.4.3.6D-2) Anyone voluntarily surrendering their Merchant Mariner Credential to a U.S. Coast
Guard investigating officer signs a statement indicating which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) they may be issued a new credential in 5 years after passing another written examination
(B) their rights to a hearing are waived
(C) all title to the credential is given up for 5 years
2782. (2.4.3.3-2) If an alien stowaway is discovered aboard your vessel, his name must be placed on
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Passenger List

(B) separate Passenger List marked stowaways
(C) Alien Crew List
(D) Crew List
2783. (2.4.3.6B-19) On which form do you provide a written report of Marine Casualty to the nearest
Coast Guard Marine Safety Office?
o
o
o
(A) DOT 211

(B) CG 5511
(C) DD 214
(D) CG 2692
2784. (2.4.3.8E-4) Which of the following is not an acceptable unit of measure to be used consistently
throughout an Oil Record Book?
o
o
o
(A) tons
(B) gallons
(C) cubic meters
(D) barrels

Deck General
September 2015
2785. (2.4.3.1E-10) The Certificate of Inspection for your tankship authorizes the carriage of grade A
and lower products. Which chemical may NOT be carried unless it is specifically endorsed on the
Certificate of Inspection?
o
o
o
(A) Vinyl acetate

(B) Amylene
(C) Oleic acid
(D) Diisobutyl Phthalate
2786. (2.4.3.9C-4) On which vessels may credentialed individuals be required to stand watch under the
two-watch system, on voyages of more than 600 miles in length?
o
o
(A) Cargo ships

(B) Offshore supply vessels
(C) Uninspected towing vessels
(D) Tank vessels
2787. (2.4.3.8E-13) The Master must maintain the Oil Record Book on board for at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1 month
(B) 12 months
(C) 24 months
(D) 36 months
2788. (2.4.3.1A1-1) If there is a discrepancy in the cargo totals, between the cargo onboard the vessel
and the cargo listed in the cargo manifest, the more accurate account of cargo totals can be found in
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Bill of Lading

(B) Notice of Readiness
(C) Charter Party
(D) Portage Bill
2789. (2.4.3.3-21) Your vessel is in Charleston, S.C. You need not clear Customs if __________.
o
o
o
(A) you took on no new cargo in Charleston, S.C. and are bound for Puerto Rico and thence
foreign
(B) all the cargo on board is of U.S. origin and destined for New York
(C) you did not load any cargo in Charleston and are bound for Halifax
(D) you did not discharge any cargo in Charleston and are bound for Panama

Deck General
September 2015
2790. (2.4.3.9B3-1) The forecastle card is a copy of the __________.

o
o
o
(A) Muster List ("Station Bill")

(B) unlicensed shipping card from the union
(C) quarters allocation
(D) shipping agreement
2791. (2.5.2.1-11) All personnel boarding a davit-launched liferaft from a MODU should be checked.
Which of the following items is of the highest importance to ensure that they are not in possession of
or wearing?
o
o
o
(A) drugs or paraphernalia not approved by a medical doctor

(B) oil stained shoes or clothing
(C) matches or cigarette lighters
(D) sharp objects that may puncture or damage the liferaft
2792. (2.4.3.9B1-5) A vessel is to make a voyage between New York and San Juan, Puerto Rico, and
return. The crew should be signed on __________.
o
o
o
(A) no articles
(B) Foreign Articles
(C) Intercoastal Articles
(D) Coastwise Articles
2793. (2.5.1-1) Offshore drilling units that are on an international voyage must have a portable radio
apparatus that meets specific requirements. Which of the following organizations mandates these
requirements?
o
o

(C) Federal Communications Commission
(D) Minerals Management Service
2794. (2.4.3.2-7) The Master of a vessel may tender a Notice of Readiness to the charterer when the
vessel __________.
o
o
(A) has completed the terms of the charter party

(B) is in all respects ready to sail
(C) is in all respects ready to load
(D) is safely moored or at a suitable anchorage

Deck General
September 2015
2795. (2.5.2.6-15) The airborne concentrations of substances (such as H2S) under which nearly all
workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects defines which of the following phrases?
o
o
(A) substance limit values

(B) concentration limits
(C) threshold limit values
(D) exposure limits
2796. (2.5.2.1-4) If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a MODU in a survival craft,
which of the following would be the best course of action?
o
o
o
(A) take a vote on which direction you should go

(B) plot a course for the nearest land
(C) go in one direction until the fuel runs out
(D) shut down the engine(s) and set the sea anchor
2797. (2.4.3.3-18) Uncleared crew curios remaining on board during a domestic coastwise voyage after
returning from foreign should be __________.
o
o
(A) retained under locked security by the owner

(B) cleared prior to the next foreign voyage
(C) noted in the Traveling Curio Manifest
(D) listed in the Official Logbook
2798. (2.4.3.6B-16) A vessel is involved in a casualty. The cost of property damage includes the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) damage claims awarded to individuals or companies involved in the casualty, up to a

maximum of $50,000
(B) cost of labor and material to restore the vessel to the service condition which existed before
the casualty
(C) loss of revenue while the vessel is being repaired, up to a maximum of $50,000
2799. (2.5.2.7-9) When hanging off drill pipe in emergency situations aboard a MODU, the preferred
location of the drill bit is __________.
o
o
o
(A) as close to the surface as possible

(B) no deeper than the shoe of the last casing set
(C) on bottom with the full drill string in tension
(D) one stand (approximately 93 feet) off bottom

Deck General
September 2015
2800. (2.4.3.9C-25) The Officers Competency Certificates Convention of 1936 applies to all of these
vessels operating seaward of the boundary line EXCEPT a/an _________.
o
o
o
(A) offshore supply vessel over 200 gross tons

(B) inspected towing vessel of 305 gross tons
(C) passenger vessel of 295 gross tons
(D) uninspected towing vessel of less than 200 gross tons
2801. (2.4.3.2-13) The basic shipping paper that forms an agreement between a ship owner and a
charterer is a __________.
o
o
o
(A) Charter Commission

(B) Charter Party
(C) Cargo Declaration
(D) Letter of Intent
2802. (2.4.3.1B-11) What is the minimum size required before a vessel can be documented?
o
o
(A) 26 feet; end-to-end over the deck excluding sheer

(B) 100 gross tons
(C) 5 net tons
(D) 26 feet between perpendiculars
2803. (2.4.3.1B-3) The document which shows a vessel's nationality, ownership, and tonnage is the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) Bill of Lading Certificate

(B) Certificate of Documentation
(C) Official Logbook
(D) Manifest Certificate
2804. (2.4.3.6B-14) A vessel is involved in a casualty. The cost of property damage includes the
__________.
o
o
(A) loss of revenue while the vessel is being repaired, up to a maximum of $50,000
(B) damage claims awarded to individuals or companies involved in the casualty, up to a
maximum of $50,000
(C) cost of labor and material to restore the vessel to the service condition which existed before
the casualty

Deck General
September 2015
2805. (2.5.2.1-3) The plans, for use during emergencies aboard the DEEP DRILLER, are readily
available in the __________.
o
o
o
(A) ballast control room

(B) wheelhouse under glass
(C) pump room
(D) OIM's office
2806. (2.4.3.9C-27) Which party must ensure that legal work hour limitations (for both officers and crew
members), rest periods and regulations governing work on Sundays and holidays are followed when
the vessel is in a safe harbor?
o
o
o
(A) The owner of the vessel

(B) The Master of the vessel
(C) The company chartering the vessel
(D) The company operating the vessel
2807. (2.4.3.1G-3) Which space(s) is(are) exempt when measuring gross tonnage?
o
o
o
(A) Auxiliary machinery spaces above the uppermost continuous deck

(B) Part of the wheelhouse used to control vessel
(C) Steering gear room
2808. (2.5.2.10-6) The procedure of strengthening damaged structures on a MODU by using wood or
steel is called __________.
o
o
o
(A) shoring
(B) battening
(C) blocking
(D) bracing
2809. (2.5.2.7-6) A tropical storm is building strength some distance from your MODU. Waves are
coming from the east, with periods increasing from 5 seconds to 15 seconds. The swell is from the
east. Where was the storm when these new swells were generated?
o
o
o
(A) To the north of you

(B) To the east of you
(C) To the west of you
(D) To the south of you

Deck General
September 2015
2810. (2.4.3.6A-12) A seaman may have all or part of his wages deposited by allotment to a bank or
savings institution. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for this type of allotment?
o
o
(A) The account must be opened by the seaman and maintained in the seaman's name.
(B) The institution must be insured by the FSLIC or FDIC.
(C) The account must be either a checking or savings account.
(D) All of the above are requirements.
2811. (2.4.3.9C-31) Considering the manning requirements for U.S. vessels, your three watch cargo
vessel has a deck crew of 20 people, exclusive of the officers. How many of these people do the
manning regulations require to be Able Seamen?
o
o
o
(A) 5
(B) 13
(C) 7
(D) 10
2812. (2.4.3.8D-15) Which is NOT a required entry in the ship's Official Logbook?
o
o
o
(A) Medical treatment of an injury

(B) Sale of effects of a deceased crew member
(C) Inspections of cargo gear
(D) Dry docking of the vessel
2813. (2.4.3.1A1-2) The original Bill of Lading, once signed by the Master, is NOT __________.
o
o
o
(A) surrendered to the customs agency of the country where the cargo is discharged
(B) a receipt and proof that goods have been received on board
(C) proof of title or ownership of the cargo
(D) used to transfer ownership of the cargo while the ship is enroute
2814. (2.5.3.3-8) In MODU drilling operations, the term tripping means __________.
o
o
o
(A) welding hard metal to tool joints

(B) hoisting drill pipe out of and returning it to the wellbore
(C) sliding a joint of drill pipe down to the pipe rack ramp
(D) releasing the tongs from the drill pipe

Deck General
September 2015
2815. (2.5.2.6-11) Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours prior to exposure to H2S
can tolerate which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) moderate concentrations of H2S without the usual reactions

(B) smaller than normal concentrations of H2S
(C) longer exposure to H2S concentrations
(D) unusually large concentrations of H2S
2816. (2.4.3.1A2-8) Which cargo would require a dangerous cargo manifest?

o
o
o
(A) Lumber
(B) Wheat
(C) Sugar
(D) Cotton
2817. (2.4.3.9C-16) You are the credentialed operator of a 100 GT towing vessel sailing coastwise.
What percentage of the deck crew must be able to understand the language commonly used
onboard the vessel?
o
o
o
(A) 65%
(B) 100%
(C) 50%
(D) 75%
2818. (2.4.3.9B2-6) Your vessel is on an extended foreign voyage. Several vacancies have occurred in
your unlicensed crew through sickness and repatriation. Which statement is correct?
o
o
o
(A) Aliens may be employed except that all U.S. flag vessels must maintain no less than 90%
U.S. citizens in the crew.
(B) Qualified aliens may be employed to fill the vacancies.
(C) Vacancies can only be filled by U.S. citizens with valid Merchant Mariner's Documents.
(D) Seamen to fill vacancies must be flown from U.S. to join the vessel in the foreign port.

Deck General
September 2015
2819. (2.4.3.1A1-3) A vessel loads 5000 tons of manganese ore. The railroad cars that brought the ore
to the vessel were previously loaded with iron ore so the ore is contaminated. The agent requests
the Master to sign a Clean Bill of Lading and in return the shipper will give him a Letter of Indemnity.
What is the best procedure to follow?
o
o
o
(A) Refuse to sign a Clean Bill of Lading.

(B) Sign a Clean Bill of lading under protest.
(C) Sign the Clean Bill of Lading and have the agent countersign it.
(D) Sign a Clean Bill of Lading and accept the Letter of Indemnity.
2820. (2.5.3.2-9) The storage device for nitrogen-pressurized hydraulic fluid, which is used in closing
the blowout preventers is called the __________.
o
o
(A) actuator
(B) annular preventer
(C) accumulator
(D) annulus
2821. (2.5.3.2-6) A large valve, usually installed above the ram preventers, that forms a seal in the
annular space between the pipe and wellbore or, if no pipe is present, on the wellbore itself is called
the __________.
o
o
(A) accumulator
(B) annulus
(C) annular blowout preventer
(D) automatic choke
2822. (2.4.3.1C-3) The document on a vessel, annually endorsed by an American Bureau of Shipping
surveyor, is called the __________.
o
o
o

(C) Seaworthy Certificate
(D) Classification Certificate
2823. (2.4.3.1B-10) The number or name of a tank barge shall be __________.

o
o
(A) displayed in at least 4 different positions on the barge

(B) carved on a wooden board and attached to the barge's hull
(C) displayed at the highest point of the barge's hull such that it can be seen from either side
(D) displayed as close to the navigation lights as possible

Deck General
September 2015
2824. (2.5.3.3-11) An integral part of a blowout preventer that serves as the closing element on an
open hole, and whose ends do not fit around the drill pipe but seal against each other and shut off
the space below completely is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) shear ram

(B) blind ram
(C) pipe ram
(D) annular ram
2825. (2.5.3.1-1) In the piping systems of a MODU, what type of valve gives the least resistance to fluid
flow when fully open?
o
o
(A) Butterfly valve

(B) Packless valve
(C) Gate valve
(D) Globe valve
2826. (2.5.3.2-12) The connected joints of pipe, usually made of three joints of pipe approximately 90
feet long, racked in the derrick when making a trip are called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) joint
(B) string
(C) standpipe
(D) stand
2827. (2.4.3.1A1-4) A vessel loads 100 tons of glass jars. The mate on watch discovers that some of
the cartons have been damaged and has an exception made on the Bill of Lading. What is this
document called?
o
o
(A) Non-negotiable Bill of Lading

(B) Letter of Indemnity
(C) Unclean Bill of Lading
(D) Damage Bill of Lading
2828. (2.4.3.8D-13) Which entry is NOT required in the Official Logbook?

o
o
o
(A) Closure of hatches and sideports upon sailing

(B) Commencement and termination of cargo operations
(C) Position of the load line and freeboard upon sailing
(D) Steering gear tests

Deck General
September 2015
2829. (2.4.3.8D-5) Which vessel is required by regulations to have an Official Logbook?

o
o
o
(A) A 199-gross ton tug on a coastwise trip of 610 miles.

(B) A 100-gross ton tug on a trip between Baltimore, Maryland, and San Pedro, California.
(C) A 66-gross ton tug operating between states.
2830. (2.4.3.1E-15) What will NOT be found on the Certificate of Inspection of an oceangoing
tankship?
o
o
(A) Manning requirements

(B) Waters upon which the vessel may be operated
(C) Minimum freeboard permitted
(D) Grade(s) of cargoes that the vessel may carry
2831. (2.4.3.8D-11) A seaman assaults the Second Mate and injures him with a beer bottle while the
ship is at sea. The incident is logged in the Official Logbook. In subsequent suspension and
revocation proceedings against the seaman, according to the regulations, __________.
o
o
(A) the Second Mate and the Master must testify as to the facts of the assault
(B) the case will be dismissed if the logbook entries are improperly made
(C) the logbook entry is prima facie evidence of the facts if it complies with the law
(D) the logbook is inadmissible if the logbook entries do not conform to the law
2832. (2.5.2.7-2) The edge of a hurricane has overtaken your MODU in the Gulf of Mexico and the
northwest wind of a few hours ago has shifted to the west. This is an indication that you are located
in the __________.
o
o
o
(A) navigable semicircle

(B) dangerous semicircle
(C) eye of the storm
(D) low pressure area
2833. (2.4.3.1C-1) A vessel's Classification Certificate is issued by the __________.

o
o
(A) United States Coast Guard

(B) United States Customs

Deck General
September 2015
2834. (2.4.3.8D-4) Your vessel (185 GT) is on a voyage between New York and San Francisco. Which
statement is TRUE?
o
o
(A) The vessel must be on foreign articles.

(B) This is considered a coastwise voyage.
(C) An Official Logbook must be maintained.
(D) The maintenance of an Official Logbook is optional.
2835. (2.4.3.1A1-5) A cargo exception would appear on __________.
o
o
o
(A) a Bill of Lading

(B) a Letter of Indemnity
(C) the cargo manifest
(D) the Export Declaration
2836. (2.4.3.6A-11) A seaman may not make an allotment to his __________.

o
o
(A) brother
(B) minor children
(C) mother-in-law
(D) grandparents
2837. (2.4.3.1E-25) Which document will describe lifesaving equipment located aboard your vessel?
o
o
o

(B) Clearance Papers
(C) Forecastle Card
2838. (2.4.3.1A1-6) A vessel has completed loading cargo in the port of San Francisco. What
document is signed by the Master stating the terms that goods were delivered and received by the
ship?
o
o
o
(A) Cargo Manifest

(B) Bill of Lading
(C) Cargo Receipt
(D) Bill of Goods

Deck General
September 2015
2839. (2.5.2.4-3) The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Transit), suffers
minor damage which results in flooding in tank 1S. You may pump from __________.
o
o
o
(A) C1S
(B) 1S
(C) 2S
(D) 10P
2840. (2.4.3.6D-8) Which U.S. Government agency can suspend or revoke a Merchant Mariner
Credential for violating the load line act?
o
o
o

(C) U.S. Maritime Administration
(D) U.S. Customs Service
2841. (2.4.3.6D-5) By law, a user of marijuana shall be subject to which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) reprimand by the US Coast Guard

(B) revocation of Merchant Mariner Credential
(C) loss of pay during the period of such use
(D) termination of employment
2842. (2.5.2.10-3) In plugging submerged holes on a MODU, rags, wedges, and other materials should
be used in conjunction with plugs to __________.
o
o
o
(A) prevent progressive flooding

(B) reduce the possibility of stress fractures
(C) reduce the water pressure on the hull
(D) reduce the water leaking around the plugs
2843. (2.5.3.1-21) For most MODU engines, the fuel is __________.

o
o
o
(A) propane
(B) natural gas
(C) bunker fuel
(D) diesel oil

Deck General
September 2015
2844. (2.4.3.1A1-7) A shipper of cargo aboard your vessel offers a letter of indemnity for the cargo.
This is done in order to obtain a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) Through Bill of Lading

(B) Order Bill of Lading
(C) Straight Bill of Lading
(D) Clean Bill of Lading
2845. (2.5.3.2-23) On an offshore drilling rig, the pumps which circulate drilling fluid through the drill
string while drilling are called the __________.
o
o
o
(A) mixing pumps

(B) mud pumps
(C) centrifugal pumps
(D) circulation pumps
2846. (2.4.3.2-6) On a voyage charter, when a vessel is ready to load cargo, the Master should render
to the charterer a __________.
o
o
(A) Shipmasters Declaration

(B) Vessel Utilization and Performance Report
(C) Notice of Readiness
(D) Master Certificate of Service
2847. (2.4.3.1G-10) Which space(s) is(are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage?
o
o
o
(A) Passenger spaces

(B) Open structures
(C) Galley fitted with range or oven
(D) Boatswain's stores
2848. (2.4.3.9C-35) You are signing on crew members. The minimum number of people required
aboard, and the qualifications of each, is listed on the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Articles of Agreement

(C) fo'c'sle card
(D) Crew list

Deck General
September 2015
2849. (2.4.3.6B-27) Which situation requires you to furnish a notice of marine casualty to the Coast
Guard?
o
o
(A) Storm damage to the cargo winch motors requires repairs costing $19,000.
(B) A seaman slips on ice on deck and sprains his ankle, requiring an ace bandage.
(C) Your vessel is at anchor and grounds at low tide with no apparent damage.
(D) You collide with a buoy and drag it off station with no apparent damage to the vessel or the
buoy.
2850. (2.5.1-6) The generators on your rig have shut down, leaving you without navigation lights.
Which emergency signal would you transmit over the VHF radio to alert vessels in the area of your
predicament?
o
o
o
(A) Mayday, Mayday, Mayday

(B) Security, Security, Security
(C) Pan, Pan, Pan
(D) Lights out, Lights out, Lights out
2851. (2.4.3.1A1-8) An implied warranty of seaworthiness on the part of the vessel's owner lies in the
__________.
o
o
o

(B) Cargo Manifest
(C) Classification Certificate
(D) contract of carriage, i.e. Bill of Lading
2852. (2.4.3.9B2-21) You are signing on a crew. Which person is presenting a Merchant Mariner's
Document (MMD) that you should suspect as being invalid?
o
o
o
(A) A seaman with an MMD only endorsed as "Bosun"

(B) An AB with an endorsement of "Any unlicensed rating in the deck department including Able
Seaman"
(C) A Purser with an MMD only endorsed "See certificate of registry"
(D) A Chief Steward with an MMD only endorsed as "Steward's Dept. (FH)"

Deck General
September 2015
2853. (2.5.3.2-29) A set of clamps that are latched onto the drill pipe to allow the driller to raise or lower
the drill string out of or into the hole are the __________.
o
o
o
(A) lifts
(B) clamps
(C) collars
(D) elevators
2854. (2.5.2.9-1) Survival practice in the mooring system is to slack off the tensions on the leeward
side and __________.
o
o
(A) tighten the anchor buoys on the leeward side anchors

(B) deballast the unit to transit draft
(C) adjust as evenly as practical the windward tensions
(D) release the anchors on the windward side
2855. (2.5.1-7) You are standing a radio watch aboard the rig. A crew boat calls you on VHF channel
16. When you reply with your vessel name and call letters, you should request the crew boat to
switch to which of the following channels?
o
o
o
(A) 6
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
2856. (2.4.3.1A1-9) Which is a negotiable document?
o
o
o
(A) Bill of Lading

(B) Cargo Manifest
(C) Export Declaration
(D) Receiving Report
2857. (2.5.3.2-30) The wire ropes of the riser tensioning system are attached to the __________.
o
o
(A) inner barrel of the telescoping joint

(B) marine riser connector
(C) outer barrel of the telescoping joint
(D) ball joint

Deck General
September 2015
2858. (2.4.3.1E-3) Firefighting equipment requirements for a particular vessel may be found on the
__________.
o
o
o

(B) Classification Certificate
(C) Certificate of Registry
(D) Certificate of Seaworthiness
2859. (2.4.3.8A-1) When a vessel is entering or leaving a port, a record of engine speeds is kept in the
__________.
o
o
(A) deck rough log

(B) engine rough log
(C) bell book
(D) Official Logbook
2860. (2.5.2.1-7) If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when should
you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release?
o
o
o
(A) Upon first wave contact

(B) Only when waterborne
(C) One to three feet before first wave contact
(D) Immediately upon launching
2861. (2.4.3.6B-21) Under the federal regulations, what minimum level of Blood Alcohol Content (BAC)
constitutes a violation of the laws prohibiting Boating Under the Influence of Alcohol (BUI) on
commercial vessels?
o
o
o
(A) .10% BAC

(B) .18% BAC
(C) .06% BAC
(D) .04% BAC
2862. (2.4.3.9B3-5) Which statement is true regarding the forecastle card?

o
o
o
(A) is posted in the crews quarters and lists the emergency stations
(B) advises the crew of the conditions of employment
(C) is also known as a Merchant Mariner's Document
(D) designates the quarters a seaman will occupy during a voyage

Deck General
September 2015
2863. (2.4.3.3-7) A vessel has arrived in a U.S. port from a foreign voyage. Preliminary entry has been
made. Formal entry at the U.S. Custom House must be made within how many hours after arrival
(Sundays and holidays excepted)?
o
o
(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 48
(D) 72 without exception
2864. (2.4.3.1A1-10) A contract of affreightment is a __________.

o
o
(A) Bottomry Bond

(B) manifest
(C) Bill of Lading
(D) Portage Bill
2865. (2.5.2.10-12) When patching holes in the hull of a MODU, pillows, bedding, and other soft
materials can be used as __________.
o
o
(A) strongbacks
(B) caulking
(C) gaskets
(D) wedges
2866. (2.5.2.1-12) Prior to entering a davit-launched liferaft, which of the following checks should make
first?
o
o
o
(A) the liferaft is well ventilated of excess carbon dioxide

(B) all personnel have removed their life preservers to facilitate boarding
(C) the door flap has been cut away and stowed inside the raft
2867. (2.4.3.6B-15) In which casualty case is it UNNECESSARY to notify the local Coast Guard Marine
Safety Office?
o
o
o
(A) A seaman is injured and in the hospital for four days.

(B) Your vessel strikes a pier and does $1,500 damage to the pier but none to the vessel.
(C) A nylon mooring line parts while the vessel is tied up and kills a harbor worker who was on
the pier.
(D) Your vessel is backing from a dock and runs aground, but is pulled off by tugs in 30 minutes.

Deck General
September 2015
2868. (2.5.2.6-7) Accumulations of H2S gas on a MODU can be dangerous. It is imperative

that personnel know that H2S gas possesses which of the listed characteristics?
o
o
o
(A) lighter than air

(B) heavier than air
(C) a yellow gas that is easily recognized
(D) mildly toxic
2869. (2.4.3.8E-15) The Oil Record Book on a vessel NOT engaged on a foreign voyage shall be
maintained on board for not less than __________.
o
o
(A) 12 months
(B) 24 months
(C) 36 months
(D) 48 months
2870. (2.4.3.1A2-1) A vessel arrives in the port of Los Angeles from a foreign port and discharges
some of its inward foreign cargo. What additional manifest is required?
o
o
o
(A) Discharge Manifest

(B) Traveling Manifest
(C) Pro Forma Manifest
(D) Inward Foreign Manifest
2871. (2.5.2.6-17) What is the effect of high concentrations of H2S gas on personnel?
o
o
o
(A) cause dizziness

(B) paralyze your breathing system
(C) cause eye inflammation
(D) cause involuntary muscle contractions
2872. (2.4.3.9B2-7) An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a U.S. port and fails to
return. The first report you make should be to the __________.
o
o
o
(A) local police

(B) Immigration Service
(C) OCMI
(D) Customs Service

Deck General
September 2015
2873. (2.4.3.1A2-2) A "dangerous cargo manifest" is needed for you to carry a combustible cargo. You
should obtain the shipping papers to make this "manifest" from the __________.
o
o
o
(A) ABS
(B) shipper
(C) manufacturer
(D) Coast Guard
2874. (2.5.2.6-18) Why can a person's sense of smell not be depended upon to detect H2S?
o
o
o
(A) it has a smell similar to petroleum products

(B) hydrogen sulfide gas is odorless
(C) it is better to rely on eye irritation as a detector
(D) the sense of smell is deadened by the gas
2875. (2.4.3.6C-1) A majority of the crew requests a survey from the American Consul to determine a
vessel's seaworthiness. The vessel is found unfit to continue her intended voyage. The Consul
allows the vessel to sail to another port where deficiencies can be corrected. The crew must
__________.
o
o
o
(A) be discharged by the American Consul with additional one month's wages until repairs are
made
(B) be discharged and given first class passage back to the original port of signing on in lieu of
one month's wages
(C) be furnished employment on another vessel returning to the United States which is
satisfactory to that crew
(D) comply with the judgment
2876. (2.4.3.1E-13) The number of able seamen required on board is stated in the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Classification Certificate

(B) American Bureau of Shipping code
(C) SOLAS Certificate
2877. (2.4.3.1G-2) What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage?
o
o
(A) Net tonnage is tonnage of cargo compared to tonnage of whole ship.

(B) Net tonnage is gross tonnage minus engine and bunker spaces.
(C) Net tonnage is the gross tonnage less certain deductible spaces.
(D) Net tonnage is the net weight of the ship.

Deck General
September 2015
2878. (2.4.3.1A2-4) Which entry on a dangerous cargo manifest concerning the classification of a
cargo is correct?
o
o
(A) Class 3 - flammable liquid

(B) Division 2.2 - nonflammable gas
(C) Class 8
(D) All of the above are correct
2879. (2.5.3.2-2) What does the term "head" mean when applied to a pump?
o
o
(A) Sum of discharge and suction pressures

(B) Length of its discharge pipe
(C) Difference between the discharge and suction pressures
(D) Height of its discharge pipe
2880. (2.4.3.1A2-5) The dangerous cargo manifest does NOT indicate __________.
o
o
o
(A) UN identification numbers

(B) the net weight of each hazardous cargo
(C) the stowage location of hazardous material aboard the vessel
(D) a description of the packaging (drums, boxes, etc.)
2881. (2.4.3.9C-17) Who is responsible for establishing watches aboard a U.S. vessel?
o
o
(A) The company that operates the vessel

(B) The company that charters the vessel
(C) The Master of the vessel
(D) The owner of the vessel
2882. (2.4.3.1A2-6) Which statement about the dangerous cargo manifest is FALSE?
o
o
o
(A) The manifest must be kept in a designated holder on or near the bridge.
(B) Shipments of hazardous and non-hazardous cargoes may be listed on the manifest if they are
destined for the same consignee.
(C) The hazard class of each cargo must be indicated.
(D) The manifest must be made up by the carrier, agents, and any person designated for this
purpose.

Deck General
September 2015
2883. (2.4.3.1A2-7) Which statement about the dangerous cargo manifest, carried on a ship, is TRUE?
o
o
(A) The type of label(s) required for each cargo must be indicated.
(B) The manifest must be made up by the Master or other designated ship's officer.
(C) The manifest must be kept in a designated holder on or near the bridge.
(D) Shipments of hazardous and non-hazardous cargo may be listed on the manifest if they are
destined for the same consignee.
2884. (2.4.3.9C-19) Who may perform as a lookout?

o
o
o
(A) A member of the Stewards Department

(B) A member of the navigational watch
(C) A member of the engineering watch
2885. (2.4.3.1A2-9) What is NOT accepted as the required shipping papers on a manned and loaded
tank barge?
o
o
o
(A) Bill of Lading

(B) Shipping document
(C) Manifest
(D) Logbook entry
2886. (2.5.2.10-11) The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are
accessibility and the __________.
o
o
o
(A) availability of tools

(B) pressure exerted by the water
(C) threat of progressive flooding
(D) shape of the hull
2887. (2.4.3.1A2-10) What will be accepted as the shipping papers for an unmanned tank barge but will
not be accepted if the tank barge is manned?
o
o
o
(A) Manifest
(B) Logbook entry
(C) Bill of Lading
(D) Shipping document

Deck General
September 2015
2888. (2.4.3.1G-7) Which space(s) is (are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage?
o
o
(A) Passenger spaces

(B) Companions and booby hatches
(C) Boatswain's stores
2889. (2.4.3.9C-15) You are the credentialed Master of a towing vessel operating between New York
and Tampa, FL. If you carry four deckhands onboard, how many must be able seamen?
o
o
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
2890. (2.4.3.3-10) You are Master of a U.S. flag vessel which was dry docked for bottom cleaning in
Rotterdam, Netherlands. Upon return to a U.S. port, you must __________.
o
o
(A) file a report of the dry docking with the U.S.C.G. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
(B) file no extra reports
(C) file a customs' form for duty on this repair
(D) obtain a U.S. Coast Guard diver to certify the work
2891. (2.4.3.4-7) While underway, part of your cargo is damaged by fire. In marine insurance terms this
partial loss is called __________.
o
o
(A) constructive total loss

(B) absolute total loss
(C) particular average
(D) general average
2892. (2.4.3.1A2-11) The exact and complete identification of all cargo on board must be found on the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) Cargo Manifest

(B) Mate's Receipt
(C) Hatch Report
(D) Loading List

Deck General
September 2015
2893. (2.4.3.1A2-12) The shipping papers for the products being carried in your tankship are NOT
required to contain the __________.
o
o
o
(A) name of the consignee(s)

(B) exact quantity of the cargoes
(C) grades of the cargoes
(D) location of the delivery point(s)
2894. (2.4.3.1A2-13) On the cargo manifest, the weight of the cargo inside a box is called __________.
o
o
(A) gross weight

(B) rate weight
(C) net weight
(D) light weight
2895. (2.4.3.1A2-17) On the cargo manifest, the weight of the cargo inside a box is called the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) rate weight

(B) net weight
(C) gross weight
(D) light weight
2896. (2.4.3.1A2-14) On the cargo manifest, the gross weight of a box containing cargo is the weight of
the __________.
o
o
(A) box
(B) rate weight
(C) cargo and box
(D) cargo
2897. (2.4.3.7-7) What statement is true regarding a Contract Salvage Agreement?

o
o
o
(A) There is a "no cure-no pay" agreement

(B) Lloyd's Open Form (LOF) Salvage Agreement is a Contract Salvage Agreement
(C) The crew is allotted the largest percentage of the salvage award
(D) The cost of the salvage is set at a fixed price

Deck General
September 2015
2898. (2.4.3.2-9) The S.S. Hollowpoint has a charter party in which the charterer assumes no
responsibility for the operation of the vessel but pays stevedoring expenses. What is the name of the
charter party?
o
o
o
(A) Voyage
(B) Demise
(C) Dispatch
(D) Bareboat
2899. (2.4.3.1E-7) The number of certificated lifeboatmen required for a vessel is found on the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) Register or Enrollment

(B) lifeboats
(C) Muster List ("Station Bill")
2900. (2.4.3.1F-3) An IOPP Certificate on an inspected vessel is valid for what period of time?
o
o
o
(A) 6 months
(B) 12 months
(C) 18 months
(D) 5 years
2901. (2.4.3.1A2-15) On the cargo manifest, the total weight of an empty cargo box is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) tare weight

(B) gross weight
(C) cargo weight
(D) net weight
2902. (2.4.3.4-5) Which statement about general average is TRUE?

o
o
o
(A) Of the ship, the freight, and the cargo interests, only one need be involved.
(B) Damage to a ship must have been incurred while the ship and/or its machinery was being
used for its intended purpose.
(C) The loss or damage to deck cargo due to heavy weather constitutes general average.
(D) Property must have been sacrificed or an expenditure of money incurred.

Deck General
September 2015
2903. (2.4.3.1A2-16) On the cargo manifest, the total weight of a box containing cargo is the
__________.
o
o
(A) cargo weight

(B) tare weight
(C) gross weight
(D) net weight
2904. (2.5.2.6-4) When H2S has been encountered on a MODU, or is anticipated, monitoring devices
must sound an alarm (which differs from the lower concentration alarm) or otherwise warn
employees when concentration of H2S reaches or exceeds how many parts per million?
o
o
o
(A) 20
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 200
2905. (2.5.2.1-10) In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or
liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side. This procedure is valid except when which of the
following circumstances applies?
o
o
o
(A) a rigid survival craft is in the area

(B) there is a rescue craft in the area
(C) water temperature is below 40F
(D) there is burning oil on the water
2906. (2.4.3.6B-3) You are the person in charge of a vessel involved in a marine casualty. You must
notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Inspection Office if the property damage is over __________.
o
o
(A) $ 1,500
(B) $10,000
(C) $25,000
(D) $50,000
2907. (2.5.2.1-13) If you have to jump in the water when abandoning a MODU, what position should
you maintain your legs?
o
o
(A) in a kneeling position

(B) held as tightly against your chest as possible
(C) extended straight down and crossed at the ankles
(D) spread apart as far as possible

Deck General
September 2015
2908. (2.4.3.1B-9) The name and hailing port of a documented commercial vessel is __________.
o
o
o
(A) required to be marked on the stern with the name of the vessel marked on both bows
(B) required to be marked on both bows and on the keel
(C) not required to be marked anywhere on the vessel
(D) required to be marked on the keel, stern, and both bows
2909. (2.4.3.1A2-18) On the cargo manifest, the gross weight of a box containing cargo is the weight of
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) rate weight

(B) cargo and box
(C) box
(D) cargo
2910. (2.4.3.8E-7) After each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture, an entry shall be
recorded in the Oil Record Book ________.
o
o
o
(A) within 1 hour of completion of the inspection

(B) as the operation permits
(C) within 6 hours of completion of the operation
(D) without delay
2911. (2.5.2.10-17) Repairing damage to the hull of a MODU at or above the waterline reduces the
threat of __________.
o
o
(A) wind overturning moments

(B) free surface effects
(C) continued progressive flooding
(D) capsizing the MODU
2912. (2.5.2.1-8) Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?

o
o
o
(A) Roustabout
(B) Helmsman
(C) Last man aboard
(D) First man aboard

Deck General
September 2015
2913. (2.4.3.1C-4) A vessel operating "in class" has met all the requirements of the __________.
o
o
o
(A) ABS or similar society

(C) U.S. Customs
(D) insurance company
2914. (2.4.3.1A3-1) A declaration made by the Master before a U.S. Consul, giving particulars
regarding heavy weather or other incidents which may have caused damage to the vessel or cargo,
through no fault of the vessel, her officers, or crew is a(n) __________.
o
o
(A) Master's declaration

(B) cargo addendum
(C) note of protest
(D) exception report
2915. (2.4.3.1A3-2) The S.S. Ossel Hitch arrives in Capetown, South Africa, and the Master affects a
note of protest with the U.S. Consul. Why would the Master affect this document?
o
o
o
(A) Inability of vessel to comply with voyage charter

(B) Crew misconduct
(C) Suspicion of cargo pilferage by crew
(D) Suspicion of heavy weather damage to vessel or cargo
2916. (2.4.3.1A3-3) The document that establishes the facts of a casualty and is the prima facie relief
from liability for the damage is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) adjuster's report

(B) invoice
(C) insurance policy
(D) Master's protest
2917. (2.4.3.8D-6) An Official Logbook is required on which vessel?

o
o
o
(A) A 150-G.T. tug going from Boston to New Orleans.

(B) A 100-G.T. tug going from New York to San Pedro, California.
(C) A 50-G.T. tug going from Miami to Seattle.
(D) A 199-G.T. tug on a coastwise trip of 650 miles.

Deck General
September 2015
2918. (2.4.3.6C-5) A complaint of unseaworthiness by a majority of crew members to the American

Consul is found to be justified after a survey is completed. Who must pay the cost of the survey?
o
o
o
(A) Master
(B) Vessel's owners
(C) American Consul
(D) Crew members requesting the survey
2919. (2.4.3.8D-12) What is required to be entered into the Official Logbook?

o
o
(A) The biennial weight test of the lifeboats and falls

(B) The annual required stripping and cleaning of the lifeboats
(C) Opening a sideport at sea to renew a gasket
(D) The drafts on entering port
2920. (2.5.2.6-9) The probability of sulfide stress cracking in the presence of hydrogen sulfide is
greatest for which of the following materials?
o
o
(A) rubber sealing elements

(B) aluminum
(C) high strength steel
(D) low strength steel
2921. (2.5.2.5-3) Which of the following would be the most probable location to encounter explosive
and flammable gasses on a MODU?
o
o
o
(A) at any location

(B) in machinery spaces
(C) in bulk storage tanks
(D) on the drill floor and liquid mud handling areas
2922. (2.4.3.1G-4) Which space(s) is(are) NOT exempt when measuring gross tonnage?
o
o
(A) Galley in a deckhouse

(B) Auxiliary machinery spaces above the deck
(C) Cargo holds
(D) Steering gear room

Deck General
September 2015
2923. (2.4.3.1E-8) Which document shows details of a tank vessel, cargoes it may carry, manning and
safety equipment required?
o
o
o
(A) Safety Construction Certificate

(C) Cargo Gear Certificate
(D) Declaration of Inspection
2924. (2.4.3.3-19) When clearing customs for a foreign voyage, which of the following is processed at
the custom's house and returned to the vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Shipping Articles

(B) Traveling Curio Manifest
(D) Cargo Gear Register
2925. (2.4.3.1E-18) Temporary Certificates of Inspection are effective until the __________.
o
o
(A) Load Line Certificate is renewed

(B) SOLAS Certificate is issued
(C) permanent Certificate of Inspection is issued
(D) classification society approval is issued
2926. (2.4.3.9C-37) A U.S. or foreign flag vessel that does not comply with the Officers Competency
Certificates Convention of 1936 may be detained by certain designated officials. These officials
include all of the following EXCEPT a/an __________.
o
o
o
(A) State Police officer

(B) officer of the U.S. Customs Service
(C) Coast Guard officer
(D) Coast Guard petty officer
2927. (2.4.3.1E-1) Your vessel has completed an inspection for certification and is issued a temporary
certificate. This __________.
o
o
(A) must be posted in the vicinity of the officers' licenses

(B) expires six months after it is issued
(C) has the full force of a regular Certificate of Inspection
(D) must be exchanged for a regular Certificate of Inspection before going foreign or out of state

Deck General
September 2015
2928. (2.4.3.9B2-23) You are signing on a crew. A man presents a Merchant Mariner's Document that
you suspect has been tampered with. Which action should you take?
o
o
o
(A) Confiscate the document and deliver it to the Coast Guard.

(B) Refuse to sign the man on articles until authorized by the Coast Guard.
(C) Refuse to sign the man on and notify the FBI of unauthorized use of a federal document.
(D) Sign the man on and notify the Coast Guard at the first U.S. port of call.
2929. (2.4.3.9C-32) Deckhands onboard towing vessels shall be divided into 3 watches when on a trip
exceeding __________.
o
o
o
(A) 600 miles

(B) 700 miles
(C) 800 miles
(D) 1000 miles
2930. (2.4.3.9A-7) Each crewmember has an assigned firefighting station. This assignment is shown
on the __________.
o
o
o
(A) muster list

(B) fire fighting plan
(D) shipping articles
2931. (2.4.3.8D-14) Which item must be entered in the official log?

o
o
(A) Number of cargo gangs on board

(B) Names of night mates and engineers
(C) Drafts upon leaving port
(D) All engine orders
2932. (2.4.3.1A3-5) The declaration made by the Master when he anticipates hull and/or cargo damage
due to unusual weather conditions is a __________.
o
o
o
(A) Notice of Casualty

(B) Note of Protest
(C) Bottomry Bond
(D) Portage Bill

Deck General
September 2015
2933. (2.4.3.1A3-6) A Master should file a marine note of protest if __________.

o
o
(A) portions of his vessel's cargo were illegally impounded in a foreign port
(B) longshore labor went on strike in the port causing undue vessel delay
(C) the vessel encountered heavy weather which might have caused cargo damage
(D) cargo was received at ship side which was damaged in land transit
2934. (2.4.3.1A3-7) The S.S. Sheet Bend arrives in New York after encountering heavy weather on a
voyage from Cape Town. Who will note the maritime protest for the Master?
o
o
o
(A) Officer in Charge Marine Inspection

(B) Notary Public
(C) Collector of Customs
(D) U.S. Shipping Commissioner
2935. (2.4.3.9C-24) How can the Coast Guard determine that a crew member is "able to understand
any order spoken by the officers"?
o
o
(A) Require a written test

(B) Require that an interpreter be provided
(C) Require a demonstration by the officer and the crew member
2936. (2.4.3.6A-22) A person who willfully violates safety regulations may be fined up to $5,000 and
__________.
o
o
o
(A) no other penalty may be applied

(B) imprisoned for up to a year
(C) forbidden to work in the fishing industry
(D) imprisoned for up to five years
2937. (2.4.3.6A-17) Wages due a seaman may be attached by the court for the __________.
o
o
o
(A) payment of back taxes to the IRS

(B) support of a spouse
(C) payment of any fines imposed by the court

Deck General
September 2015
2938. (2.4.3.1E-21) A Permit to Proceed is issued by the __________.

o
o
o

(B) U.S. Department of Labor
2939. (2.5.1-8) You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call
to your rig, TEXAS STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to answer this call?
o
o
o
(A) 'This is TEXAS STAR. Pick a channel.'

(B) 'Please stand by. We're busy right now.'
(C) 'This is TEXAS STAR on Channel 16. Come back.'
(D) 'This is TEXAS STAR, WSR 1234, reply Channel 10.'
2940. (2.4.3.9B1-2) A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when __________.
o
o
(A) injured
(B) intoxicated
(C) the vessel is overloaded
(D) deductions are made from wages
2941. (2.5.2.5-2) Each person on the rig has a designated area to proceed to in the event of a fire. This
assignment is shown clearly on which of the following documents?
o
o
o
(A) fire fighting plan

(B) Muster List ("Station Bill")
(C) shipping articles
2942. (2.4.3.9B2-9) A vessel arrives in a foreign port and the Master is informed that the vessel is
being sold to foreign interests. The new owners request that the crew remain on board to complete
the voyage. Under these circumstances, the crew __________.
o
o
(A) must remain aboard until the vessel is delivered to the new owners at a mutually agreed upon
port
(B) must remain on board
(C) has the right to an immediate discharge and transportation to original port of engagement
(D) must comply with the decision made by the Master

Deck General
September 2015
2943. (2.4.3.1B-1) Official proof of an American vessel's nationality is contained in the __________.
o
o
o

(B) Official Log
(C) Shipping Articles
(D) Certificate of Documentation
2944. (2.4.3.1D-1) Which U.S. agency issues a Certificate of Financial Responsibility?
o
o
o
(A) Coast Guard

(C) Environmental Protection Agency
(D) Maritime Administration
2945. (2.4.3.4-9) A vessel has been damaged by fire. The survey shows the cost of repairs will exceed
the value of the repaired vessel. This is an example of a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) actual loss

(B) constructive total loss
(C) preferred loss
(D) salvage loss
2946. (2.4.3.6B-8) Following a serious marine incident, who can administer use of the device that tests
an individuals breath?
o
o
o
(A) the marine employer

(B) qualified medical personnel only
(C) any USCG credentialed deck officer
(D) any individual trained to conduct such tests
2947. (2.5.2.1-9) In an emergency, if you must jump from a MODU, what is the best procedure to
follow?
o
o
o
(A) body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the water
(B) holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering
the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together
(C) knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs
(D) both hands holding the life preserver below the chin, with knees bent, and legs crossed

Deck General
September 2015
2948. (2.4.3.8E-11) According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33CFR), each completed page in
the Oil Record Book is to be signed by ________.
o
o
o
(A) oil terminal representative

(B) person(s) in charge of the operation
(C) Coast Guard representative designated by COTP
(D) the master
2949. (2.4.3.1B-2) All U.S. Flag vessels engaged in foreign trade are required to be which of the
following?
o
o
(A) licensed
(B) classed
(C) registered
(D) enrolled
2950. (2.4.3.1B-4) The official identification of a vessel is found in the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Certificate of Documentation

(D) Load Line Certificate
2951. (2.4.3.1F-6) The supplement to the IOPP Certificate contains what type of data?
o
o
(A) A list of the underwriters who will assume financial responsibility in the event of an oil spill.
(B) The grades of cargo that an oil tanker is permitted to carry.
(C) A checklist of the equipment installed for controlling the discharge of oil.
(D) The trade routes upon which the vessel may operate.
2952. (2.4.3.1B-5) A vessel's Certificate of Documentation __________.
o
o
o
(A) must be carried on board

(B) must be posted under transparent material in the pilothouse
(C) may be retained by the owner at the home port OR kept on the vessel
(D) must be kept on file at the corporate offices of the owner or operator

Deck General
September 2015
2953. (2.4.3.1B-6) Which U.S. agency assigns an official number to a vessel?

o
o
o

(B) Treasury Department
(C) Collector of Customs
(D) Coast Guard
2954. (2.4.3.1B-7) A change of a documented vessel's name can only be made by the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Commissioner of Customs

(B) Coast Guard
(C) Treasury Department
o
o
o
(A) Spaces for the exclusive use of the officers or crew

(B) Water ballast spaces
(C) Companions and booby hatches
(D) Open structures
2956. (2.4.3.8B-1) When an azimuth of the Sun has been taken and the deviation of the standard
magnetic compass computed, the watch officer should record the results __________.
o
o
o
(A) in the compass deviation log

(B) on the compass deviation card
(C) in the vessel's Official Logbook
(D) on a Napier diagram
2957. (2.4.3.1E-26) Where would you find a list of the lifesaving equipment onboard your supply boat?
o
o
o
(A) Ship's Articles

(C) U.S. Coast Guard Regulations

Deck General
September 2015
2958. (2.4.3.9C-1) When can the US citizenship requirement for the Master of a US-flag uninspected
towing vessel be waived?
o
o
o
(A) When US credentialed Masters are not readily available

(B) When it costs too much to hire a US credentialed Master
(C) When the towing vessel operates shoreward of the boundary line
(D) Never, under any circumstances
2959. (2.4.3.1B-8) The official number of a documented vessel is __________.

o
o
o
(A) not required to be marked anywhere on the vessel

(B) required to be permanently marked on the vessel's structure
(C) required to be painted on the vessel's stern
(D) required to be painted on the vessel's bow
2960. (2.4.3.1C-2) Which certificate is NOT issued by the Coast Guard?

o
o
(A) Safety Equipment Certificate

(C) Classification of Hull and Machinery
(D) Award of official number
2961. (2.4.3.2-15) The time allowed for loading and discharging cargo in a charter party is referred to
as __________.
o
o
o
(A) charter hire

(B) demurrage
(C) dispatch
(D) lay days
2962. (2.4.3.1D-2) What does a Certificate of Financial Responsibility attest to?
o
o
o
(A) has financial backing to meet any liability resulting from the discharge of oil
(B) has the minimum required amount of P & I and hull insurance
(C) has financial reserves to meet reasonable expected crew costs of an intended voyage
(D) will assume the responsibility for any damage or loss to the shipper

Deck General
September 2015
2963. (2.4.3.2-3) The S.S. Slip Knot has been chartered to the Longline Steamship Company. The
Longline Steamship Company agrees to pay all expenses and employ and pay the crew. Which type
of contract is involved?
o
o
o
(A) Lease Charter Party

(B) Bareboat Charter Party
(C) Time Charter Party
(D) Voyage Charter Party
2964. (2.4.3.9B1-9) While assigned to a 106 GRT vessel, you are required to sign "foreign" articles on
a voyage from San Francisco to which port?
o
o
(A) Mazatlan, Mexico (west coast)

(B) Vera Cruz, Mexico (east coast)
(C) New York, NY
(D) Vancouver, Canada (west coast)
2965. (2.4.3.1E-2) Which document shows the minimum required crew a vessel must have to navigate
from one port in the United States to another?
o
o
o
(A) Register
(B) Articles
(C) Crew List
2966. (2.4.3.1E-4) To determine the number of inflatable liferafts required on a vessel, you should
check the __________.
o
o
o
(A) SOLAS Certificate

(C) Load Line Certificate
(D) Stability Letter
2967. (2.4.3.9B3-3) Which statement about the forecastle card is TRUE?

o
o
(A) It contains copies of the crew's signatures from the articles.

(B) Each crewmember is given a copy of the forecastle card.
(C) Is an exact copy of shipping articles.
(D) The forecastle card is a blank sample of the articles.

Deck General
September 2015
2968. (2.4.3.2-16) The charterer has completed loading the vessel in 3 days instead of the 5 days
agreed to in the charter party. As a result of this, the __________.
o
o
o
(A) ship owner may charge for two lay days

(B) charterer may receive dispatch money
(C) stevedore may collect demurrage
(D) consignee may be required to pay a ceaser fee
2969. (2.5.2.1-15) To assure safe boarding and launching of a davit-launched liferaft from a MODU,
preparation should include which of the following choices?
o
o
(A) testing to assure that the required lamps are functioning properly
(B) load testing the davit arm and the painter system
(C) removing any side protective rails and checking that the overside and surface level are clear
(D) testing the spring loaded drum to assure it will retract the fall release hook
2970. (2.4.3.7-9) A maritime lien may be placed against __________.
o
o
o
(A) a vessel, cargo, or freight

(B) any assets that a ship's owner may have
(C) objects that are fixed and immovable, such as wharves
(D) the vessel only
2971. (2.4.3.1E-5) You are in port A in the United States, and your Certificate of Inspection has
expired. You wish to go to port B in the United States for repairs and to complete the inspection. If
the Officer-in-Charge Marine Inspection deems it safe, he may issue a __________.
o
o
o
(A) Permit to Proceed

(B) Temporary Certificate of Inspection
(C) Certificate of Seaworthiness
(D) Limited Certificate of Inspection
2972. (2.4.3.6A-4) A person is found operating a vessel while under the influence of alcohol. He/she is
liable for __________.
o
o
o
(A) imprisonment for up to three years

(B) a fine of not more than $3,000
(C) a fine of not more than $10,000
(D) a civil penalty of not more than $5,000

Deck General
September 2015
2973. (2.4.3.7-5) Your vessel is disabled and in imminent danger of grounding on a lee shore. The
Master agrees to salvage services using Lloyd's Open Form of Salvage Agreement. Which is
TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The salvage service is on a "no cure-no pay" basis.

(B) The salvor becomes the owner of the vessel until the salvage award, if any, is paid.
(C) The salvage award will be decided by suit in Admiralty Court.
(D) Underwriters will repudiate the agreement if it is unsuccessful, due to their increased liability.
2974. (2.4.3.1E-6) Which document lists all the lifesaving equipment required for a vessel?
o
o
(A) Certificate of Registry

(B) International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
(D) American Bureau of Shipping Classification Certificate
2975. (2.5.2.1-1) When evacuating the DEEP DRILLER, preparations should include __________.
o
o
(A) jettisoning all combustible materials

(B) putting the unit at transit draft
(C) activating the emergency power system
(D) removing all tension from the mooring lines
2976. (2.4.3.1E-27) The Coast Guard inspection required before a Certificate of Inspection can be
issued is conducted________________.
o
o
o
(A) after a formal complaint is filed with the OCMI

(B) after you apply in writing to the nearest Officer in Charge of Marine Inspection (OCMI)
(C) at random from a Coast Guard patrol boat
(D) when deemed necessary by the Regional Inspection Center
2977. (2.4.3.6A-16) A crew has signed on for a 3-month voyage. Fourteen days into the voyage a
seaman is improperly discharged at the first port of call. How much pay is he entitled to receive?
o
o
o
(A) 14 days
(B) double wages (28 days)
(C) 1 month's
(D) 14 days and one month's extra

Deck General
September 2015
2978. (2.4.3.1E-9) To determine the number of portable fire extinguishers required on an inspected
vessel, you should check the __________.
o
o
o

(B) Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
(D) hot work permit
2979. (2.4.3.9C-28) The Master may require part of the crew to work when needed for __________.
o
o
o
(A) maneuvering, shifting berth, mooring and unmooring

(B) performing work necessary for the safety of the vessel, its passengers, crew or cargo
(C) performing fire, lifeboat or other drills in port or at sea
2980. (2.4.3.8D-16) As operator of a 199 GT towing vessel sailing foreign, it shall be your duty to enter
in the Official Logbook or other permanent record __________.
o
o
o
(A) the barges load line and draft readings

(B) all navigational aids to be used
(C) the condition of all towing gear to be used
(D) all information contained on the barge's Certificate of Inspection
2981. (2.4.3.9C-13) You are the credentialed Master of a 100 GT towing vessel sailing coastwise. What
percentage of the deck crew must be able to understand any order spoken by the officers?
o
o
(A) 50%
(B) 65%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
2982. (2.4.3.1E-11) To determine the number of able seamen required on an inspected vessel, you
should check the __________.
o
o
o

(B) operations manual
(C) Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
(D) Load Line Certificate

Deck General
September 2015
2983. (2.4.3.9A-4) Preparation of muster lists and signing of same is the responsibility of the
__________.
o
o
(A) Chief Officer of the vessel

(B) United States Coast Guard
(D) owner of the vessel
2984. (2.4.3.1E-12) The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a vessel is
determined by the __________.
o
o
o
(A) International Maritime Organization

(B) Coast Guard
2985. (2.4.3.6B-11) As Master or person in charge, you must notify the U.S. Coast Guard if an injury
leaves a crewman unfit to perform routine duties for more than which of the following time periods?
o
o
o
(A) Any amount of time

(B) 72 hours
(C) 48 hours
(D) 24 hours
2986. (2.4.3.6C-6) What would be prima facie evidence of unseaworthiness?

o
o
o
(A) Overstowage
(B) Overcarriage
(C) Overbooking
(D) Overloading
2987. (2.4.3.2-18) Dead freight is the charge for the __________.

o
o
(A) carriage of demise cargo

(B) cost of transshipment of over-carried cargo
(C) difference in the amount of cargo loaded and the amount of cargo booked, through no fault of
the vessel
(D) difference in the amount of cargo loaded and the amount of cargo discharged

Deck General
September 2015
2988. (2.4.3.9B2-20) Which action will take place if a crew member is replaced in a U.S. port after
foreign articles have been signed, and the ship proceeds foreign?
o
o
o
(A) The Master will remove the replaced man's name from the Certified Crew List but not from the
articles.
(B) The U.S. Consul will remove the replaced man's name from the Certified Crew List.
(C) The U.S. Consul will add the new man's name to the Certified Crew List.
(D) The name of the new man is added to the articles but not to the Certified Crew List.
2989. (2.4.3.1E-14) You are operating a 150 GT towing vessel. What is NOT required on the vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Your Coast Guard credential

(B) Certificate of Documentation
(C) FCC station license
2990. (2.4.3.1E-16) The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on board is listed
in the __________.
o
o
o

(B) Safety of Life at Sea Convention
(C) American Bureau of Shipping code
2991. (2.4.3.1F-7) You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another country signatory to
MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
(A) The Certificate of Inspection is prima facie evidence of compliance with MARPOL 73/78.
(B) An IOPP Certificate is invalid if the ship carries cargoes outside the classes authorized
thereon.
(C) The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5 years.
(D) AN IOPP Certificate is renewed at each inspection for certification.
2992. (2.4.3.6B-37) A Notice of Marine Casualty to a vessel must include __________.
o
o
o
(A) the name of the owner or agent of the vessel

(B) an evaluation of who was at fault
(C) the estimated cost of damage
(D) the amount of ballast on board

Deck General
September 2015
2993. (2.4.3.1E-17) What is NOT required on an uninspected towing vessel?

o
o
o
(A) Certificate of Documentation

(B) FCC Station License
(C) Operators Credential
2994. (2.4.3.1E-20) At least one re-inspection shall be made on each vessel holding a Certificate of
Inspection valid for two years. This inspection shall be held between the tenth and fourteenth months
of the duration period of the certificate and shall be __________.
o
o
o
(A) equivalent to the inspection required for certification

(B) generally similar in scope to the inspection required for certification, but in less detail
(C) at the discretion of the inspector, but in no lesser detail than required for original certification
(D) at the discretion of the inspector, but in no greater detail than required for original certification
2995. (2.4.3.5-1) What is the period of validity of a Safety Management Certificate?

o
o
o
(A) 42 months
(B) 60 months
(C) 48 months
(D) 36 months
2996. (2.4.3.1E-22) The Certificate of Inspection of a damaged tank barge has expired. What certificate
authorizes the barge to move to a repair facility for repair and inspection?
o
o
o
(A) Application for Inspection

(B) Permit to Proceed
(C) Change of Employment
(D) Temporary Certificate of Inspection
2997. (2.4.3.6B-17) During the course of a voyage, a seaman falls on the main deck and injures his
ankle. The Master should submit a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death if the __________.
o
o
o
(A) injury is the result of misconduct

(B) injured is unable to perform routine duties
(C) injury results in loss of life only
(D) injured needs first aid

Deck General
September 2015
2998. (2.4.3.9C-29) For towing vessels over 100 gross tons that are permitted to maintain a two-watch
system, what percentage of the deck crew must be able seamen?
o
o
o
(A) 50%
(B) 65%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
2999. (2.4.3.1E-23) You are moving a gas free tank barge to dry dock for repairs. The barge must have
onboard a valid __________.
o
o
(A) Gas Free Certificate

(B) Permit to Proceed and Hot Work Permit
3000. (2.4.3.4-3) While a vessel is at sea, the mate on watch discovers a fire in one of the hatches. Fire
hoses are used to put the fire out and some of the cargo is damaged by water. In marine insurance
terms, this partial loss by water is called __________.
o
o
o
(A) general average

(B) particular average
(C) an Act of God
(D) fire and water damage
3001. (2.4.3.1E-24) The Certificate of Inspection on a passenger vessel of over 100 gross tons must be
posted __________.
o
o
o
(A) in the passengers' dining room or, where there is no dining room, in the lounge area
(B) in a conspicuous place where observation by the passengers is likely
(C) on the bridge
(D) in the Master's office
3002. (2.4.3.1E-28) A re-inspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the following months
while the Certificate of Inspection is valid?
o
o
(A) 8 - 12 months
(B) 10 - 12 months
(C) 10 - 14 months
(D) 12 - 14 months

Deck General
September 2015
3003. (2.4.3.8C-1) In writing up the logbook at the end of your watch, you make an error in writing an
entry. What is the proper means of correcting this error?
o
o
(A) Remove this page of the log book, and rewrite all entries on a clean page.
(B) Blot out the error completely and rewrite the entry correctly.
(C) Cross out the error with a single line, and write the correct entry, then initial it.
(D) Carefully and neatly erase the entry and rewrite it correctly.
3004. (2.4.3.3-16) The document that the Master uses to attest to the truth of the manifest of cargo is
called __________.
o
o
o
(A) Owner's Oath

(B) Oath of Entry
(C) Master's Protest
(D) Shipper's Certification
3005. (2.4.3.8D-17) A seaman dies during a voyage. What is NOT required to be entered into the
Official Log?
o
o
o
(A) Statement that the Master has taken custody of the deceased's MMD and passport
(B) Statement of the wages due
(C) An inventory of the money and property
(D) Statement as to the total deductions to be made from the wages
3006. (2.4.3.1F-1) You are the Chief Mate of a 30,000-DWT tankship. The vessel is engaged in trade
with another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The Certificate of Inspection serves as prima facie evidence of complying with MARPOL
73/78.
(B) The IOPP Certificate for an inspected vessel is valid for 5 years.
(C) An IOPP Certificate is renewed at each inspection for certification.
(D) An IOPP Certificate is invalidated if the ship carries cargoes outside the classes authorized
thereon.
3007. (2.4.3.1F-2) A 30,000 DWT tankship is required to have an IOPP certificate when __________.
o
o
o
(A) going foreign

(B) engaged in the coastwise trade
(C) carrying cargoes listed in the MARPOL regulations
(D) calling at ports in another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78

Deck General
September 2015
3008. (2.4.3.8D-18) If a drill required by regulations is not completed, the Master or person in charge
must __________.
o
o
o
(A) conduct two of the required drills at the next opportunity

(B) log the reason for not completing the drill
(C) report this immediately to the Commandant of the Coast Guard
3009. (2.4.3.1F-4) After an IOPP Certificate is issued to an inspected vessel, how many other surveys
of the vessel's pollution prevention equipment are conducted during the period of validity of the
certificate?
o
o
o
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
3010. (2.4.3.1F-5) In which case is the IOPP Certificate of an inspected vessel NOT invalidated?
o
o
o
(A) The ship is transferred to Liberian registry.

(B) The required oily-water separator malfunctions.
(C) An annual survey is conducted fifteen months after the date of certificate issuance.
(D) A 15 ppm oily-water separator is replaced by a 100 ppm oily-water separator.
3011. (2.4.3.1G-1) An International Tonnage Certificate will be issued to a vessel when it meets several
requirements, one of which is that the vessel must __________.
o
o
o
(A) engage in intercoastal or international trade

(B) be issued a Certificate of Inspection
(C) admeasure over 100 GT
(D) be 79 or more feet in length
3012. (2.4.3.1G-5) Which space cannot be deducted from gross tonnage when calculating net
tonnage?
o
o
o
(A) Chain locker

(B) Forepeak ballast tank
(C) Crew mess room
(D) Master's cabin

Deck General
September 2015
3013. (2.4.3.9B2-3) A seaman leaves a vessel before it sails from a foreign port. He informs the Chief
Officer that he won't return. After the vessel sails, the Chief Officer finds the seaman's work clothes
in his locker. How should the Master handle this matter?
o
o
o
(A) Log the seaman as a deserter.

(B) Log the seaman as a fail to join.
(C) Take no action.
(D) Log the seaman for misconduct.
o
o
o
(A) Spaces for the exclusive use of the officers or crew

(B) Chart room
(C) Boatswain's stores
o
o
o
(A) Open structures

(B) Chart room
(C) Companions and booby hatches
3016. (2.4.3.9A-6) Fire and abandon ship stations and duties may be found on the __________.
o
o
o
(A) shipping articles

(C) crewman's duty list
(D) muster list
3017. (2.4.3.1G-12) The term "gross tonnage" refers to __________.
o
o
o
(A) the vessel's approximate volume including all enclosed spaces less certain exempt spaces
(B) the weight of the vessel measured in long tons
(C) the weight of a grossly overloaded vessel
(D) the weight of a vessel with all tanks full

Deck General
September 2015
3018. (2.4.3.6B-32) The operator of an uninspected vessel MUST assist people affected by an accident
if he or she can do so without __________.
o
o
o
(A) serious danger to his or her own vessel

(B) further damaging the other vessel
(C) creating a panic on either vessel
(D) undue delay
3019. (2.4.3.2-1) Which type of carrier accepts without discrimination all legal cargoes of a shipper?
o
o
o
(A) Private
(B) Common
(C) Industrial
(D) Tramp
3020. (2.4.3.3-22) The citizenship of a crew member of a vessel in a U.S. port is determined solely by
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Coast Guard

(B) Immigration Officer
(C) Union Official
(D) Customs Officer
3021. (2.4.3.6C-4) A vessel is found to be seaworthy after a complaint in writing to the American
Consul by the Chief and Second Mates. The cost of the survey is to be paid by the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Chief and Second Mates

(B) vessel's owners
(C) Vessel's agent
(D) American Consul
3022. (2.4.3.2-2) The type of carrier required to file a copy of freight tariffs would be the __________.
o
o
o
(A) public vessel

(B) common carrier
(C) bulk carrier
(D) tramp

Deck General
September 2015
3023. (2.4.3.7-1) What is NOT a requirement for a salvage claim?

o
o
o
(A) The salvage service must be voluntary.

(B) The property saved must be "maritime property."
(C) The property must be in peril.
(D) The salvors must save or attempt to save any life in peril.
3024. (2.4.3.8D-8) Upon completion of a voyage, the official logbook shall be filed with the _________.
o
o
(A) Captain of the Port (COTP)

(B) nearest Regional Exam Center (REC)
(C) the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection (OCMI)
3025. (2.4.3.3-15) The term used in levying customs duties when such are fixed at rates proportioned
to estimated value of goods concerned is __________.
o
o
o
(A) secure
(B) ad valorem
(C) infinite
(D) specific
3026. (2.4.3.2-4) The owners of the S.S. Short Haul agree to a charter with the Longsplice Steamship
Company. The owners stipulate in the charter party that they must approve the Master of the vessel
for the entire life of the contract. Which charter has been affected?
o
o
(A) Voyage
(B) Lease
(C) Bareboat
(D) Time
3027. (2.4.3.2-5) Your vessel is chartered under a time charter party. Under this type of charter party,
your responsibility is __________.
o
o
(A) solely to the cargo shippers and consignees

(B) solely to the owner, as under normal conditions
(C) to the owner for vessel administration and to the charterer for cargo operations and schedule
(D) solely to the charterer for all matters pertaining to cargo and ship administration

Deck General
September 2015
3028. (2.4.3.7-6) What is NOT true regarding a Lloyd's Open Form (LOF) Salvage Agreement?
o
o
(A) The agreement between vessels can be made via VHF

(B) If salvage is not successful, vessel owes salvor nothing
(C) The LOF is subject to the law of the country the two parties agree upon
(D) There is a bonus to the salvage award if environmental casualty is averted
3029. (2.4.3.6A-2) What is the penalty for desertion?
o
o
o
(A) Forfeiture of money and property left on the vessel, and wages due
(B) Revocation of Merchant Mariner Credential and forfeiture of wages due
(C) Imprisonment for not more than 2 years and/or a fine of not more than $2000 dollars
(D) Fine of not more than $2000 dollars and forfeiture of wages
3030. (2.4.3.2-8) A Contract of Affreightment covering the movement of a particular cargo from one
designated port to another at a specified rate for each ton of goods loaded is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) bareboat charter party

(B) voyage charter party
(C) demise charter party
(D) time charter party
3031. (2.4.3.2-10) A vessel has a charter party for one voyage to carry a full load of manganese from
Durban, South Africa, to Baltimore, Maryland, at a stipulated rate per ton. Which type of contract is
involved?
o
o
(A) Time charter party

(B) Demise charter party
(C) Voyage charter party
(D) Bareboat charter party
3032. (2.4.3.2-11) Payment of penalty for a ship's delay after the expiration of lay days due to some
fault of the charterer or his agent is known as __________.
o
o
o
(A) volatility
(B) demurrage
(C) late fee
(D) miscibility

Deck General
September 2015
3033. (2.4.3.2-14) A clause in the charter party requires a vessel's owner to pay dispatch money when
the vessel __________.
o
o
o
(A) changes berths to expedite loading or discharging

(B) does not load and discharge its cargo in the time specified
(C) is not ready to load or discharge cargo
(D) loads and discharges its cargo in less time than specified
3034. (2.4.3.2-17) A charterer is unable to complete the loading of a vessel during the lay days
specified in the charter party. Under these circumstances, the __________.
o
o
o
(A) vessel operator can collect demurrage

(B) effective period of the charter is extended
(C) charterer must pay dispatch money
(D) ship is authorized extra time to discharge the cargo
3035. (2.4.3.2-19) Which is a negotiated charter?

o
o
(A) Bill of Lading

(B) Conference agreement
(C) Fixture
3036. (2.4.3.2-20) A vessel proceeding to London, England, from New York makes an unscheduled call
at the port of Hamilton, Bermuda. What term is used to denote the voluntary departure from the
usual course?
o
o
o
(A) Deviation
(B) Liberty
(C) Alteration
(D) Unscheduled stop
3037. (2.4.3.3-1) Before arriving at the first U.S. port from foreign, you must fill out a Crewman's
Landing Permit for each __________.
o
o
o
(A) unlicensed crew member

(B) nonresident alien crewmember
(C) crew member
(D) alien crewmember

Deck General
September 2015
3038. (2.4.3.3-3) A document which has a list of names, birthplaces, and residences of persons
employed on a merchant vessel bound from a U.S. port on a foreign voyage and is required at every
port is called the __________.
o
o
o

(B) Certified Crew List
(D) Crew Manifest
3039. (2.4.3.3-4) The Immigration and Naturalization Service is concerned with which document on a
vessel making preliminary entry into a U.S. port from a foreign port?
o
o
o
(A) Cargo Manifest

(B) Certified Crew List
(C) Curio List
(D) Shipping Articles
3040. (2.4.3.6B-42) The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a "T-Boat" involved in a marine
casualty causing injury that requires professional medical treatment must __________.
o
o
o
(A) keep all voyage records and make them available to Coast Guard investigators
(B) file a written report (CG2692) of the casualty within five days
(C) immediately notify the nearest USCG MSO, MIO, or Group Office
3041. (2.4.3.3-5) What does a Visaed Alien Crew List which is made and submitted to the U.S. Consul
for visa show?
o
o
(A) All aliens aboard

(B) All crew members
(C) Nonresident aliens aboard
(D) Registered aliens aboard
3042. (2.4.3.3-6) A vessel arrives in San Francisco from a foreign voyage. When MUST the Master
make formal entry at the custom house?
o
o
o
(A) Within 24 hours after arrival

(B) Within 48 hours and before all foreign cargo is discharged for that port
(C) Within 24 hours after arrival, Sundays and holidays excepted
(D) Within 48 hours after arrival, Sundays and holidays excepted

Deck General
September 2015
3043. (2.4.3.3-8) A vessel arrives at the port of San Francisco from Yokohama, Japan. The passengers
fill out the Baggage Declaration and Entry form. A passenger has baggage arriving on another
vessel. How must this baggage be handled for U.S. Customs purposes?
o
o
o
(A) It need not be declared at this time.

(B) It must be declared only if the other vessel's name is known.
(C) It must be declared on another form entitled "Continuation Sheet".
(D) It must be declared on the same form and marked "Unaccompanied Baggage".
3044. (2.4.3.3-9) In some cases, the 50% duty on all foreign repairs made to American flag merchant
vessels may be remitted. Which work does NOT come under the remitting policy of U.S. Customs?
o
o
o
(A) Repairs to hull structural damage

(B) Repairs to the main propulsion machinery
(C) Repairs due to damage done by heavy weather
(D) Chipping, painting, and scaling by foreign labor
3045. (2.4.3.3-11) A vessel puts into the port of Kobe, Japan, to discharge cargo. The vessel contracts
a local shipyard to have the hull chipped and scaled. If the vessel provides the primer and paint,
which statement is TRUE?
o
o
(A) You need NOT declare the cost of labor, since this is considered ship's personnel work.
(B) You need NOT declare the cost of labor, since no duty is involved.
(C) You MUST declare the cost of labor and pay duty.
(D) You MUST declare the cost of labor, but no duty is charged since labor is involved.
3046. (2.4.3.3-12) A vessel puts into the port of Kobe, Japan to discharge cargo. While awaiting
completion of the cargo operation, the vessel contracts with a local shipyard to have the hull
chipped, scaled, and painted. How is the cost of this maintenance handled with the Collector of
Customs?
o
o
o
(A) A declaration is made, but duty is charged on the labor only.

(B) A declaration is made and duty is charged on the materials only.
(C) No declaration is required since this is considered routine maintenance.
(D) A declaration is required and duty is involved on the total cost.

Deck General
September 2015
3047. (2.4.3.6B-44) According to U.S. regulations, when estimating the cost of collision damage to a
tank vessel after a marine accident, which of the following should NOT be included in the repair cost
estimate?
o
o
o
(A) Cost to drydock the vessel

(B) Cost to off-load the current cargo
(C) Cost to gas-free the cargo tanks
3048. (2.4.3.3-13) A vessel sailing from Liverpool to New York puts into Boston, Mass. for emergency
repairs. If no inward foreign cargo is to be discharged at that port, which of the following documents
is required?
o
o
(A) Inward Foreign Manifest

(B) Traveling Manifest
(C) Pro Forma Manifest
(D) Customs Manifest
3049. (2.4.3.8D-7) The Master of a passenger vessel which is not required to maintain an Official
Logbook must keep a record of the number of passengers received and delivered from day to day.
This record must be available for a period of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 6 months
(B) 12 months
(C) 24 months
(D) 36 months
3050. (2.4.3.6B-2) Which situation requires you to furnish a notice of marine casualty to the Coast
Guard?
o
o
o
(A) Your vessel is at anchor and grounds at low tide with no apparent damage.
(B) A seaman slips on ice on deck and sprains his ankle, requiring an ace bandage.
(C) Storm damage to the cargo winch motors requires repairs costing $19,000.
(D) You collide with a buoy and drag it off station with no apparent damage to the vessel or the
buoy.

Deck General
September 2015
3051. (2.4.3.6A-14) Your vessel is required to have a slop chest. Which of the following articles is NOT
required by law to be carried in the slop chest?
o
o
o
(A) Blankets
(B) Candy
(C) Foul weather clothing
(D) Tobacco products
3052. (2.4.3.8E-6) The Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships is the property of the ________.
o
o
o
(A) charterer of the vessel

(B) vessel's owner
(C) master of the vessel
(D) U.S. government
3053. (2.4.3.3-14) U.S. Customs, upon boarding a vessel desiring entry into a U.S. port, would inspect
which document?
o
o
o
(A) Certified Crew List

(B) Cargo Manifest
(C) Stores List
3054. (2.4.3.6B-43) After your vessel has been involved in a casualty, you are required to make your
logbooks, bell books, etc., available to __________.
o
o
o
(A) attorneys for opposition parties

(B) U.S. Coast Guard officials
(C) marine surveyors
3055. (2.4.3.6D-3) Which act would be considered barratry?

o
o
o
(A) A criminal act committed by a crew member ashore in a foreign port

(B) Smuggling with the connivance of the ship owner
(C) Theft of cargo by longshoremen
(D) A criminal act committed by the ship Master in violation of his duty to the ship owner

Deck General
September 2015
Safety Office?
o
o
(A) A nylon mooring line parts while the vessel is tied up and kills a harbor worker who was on the
pier.
(B) A seaman is injured and in the hospital for four days.
(C) Your vessel strikes a pier and does $1,500 damage to the pier but no damage to the vessel.
(D) Your vessel is backing from a dock and runs aground, but is pulled off by tugs in 30 minutes.
3057. (2.4.3.3-17) If you intend to land tulip bulbs from Holland in a U.S. port, they must be inspected
by the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Animal and Plant Health Service Inspector

(B) Captain of the Port personnel
(C) Quarantine Officer
3058. (2.4.3.3-20) When clearing a vessel for a foreign voyage, the original crew list is duly certified by
proper authority. In a U.S. port, this authority is the U.S. __________.
o
o
(A) Public Health Service

(B) Immigration Service
(C) Customs
(D) Coast Guard
3059. (2.4.3.3-23) The agency most concerned with a stowaway is __________.

o
o
o
(A) Customs
(B) Immigration
(C) Public Health
(D) U.S.D.A.
3060. (2.4.3.3-24) "Free pratique" means that __________.

o
o
o
(A) clearance requirements for all regulatory bodies have been met
(B) shipment will be made at no cost
(C) tonnage taxes are not required to be paid
(D) health requirements have been met and no further quarantine formalities are required

Deck General
September 2015
3061. (2.4.3.7-4) When several salvors are on-scene at the same time to assist a vessel that has not
been abandoned, which principal governs the decision as to which one's services will be accepted?
o
o
(A) The first salvor on-scene has the prior claim providing he has adequate facilities to assist the
vessel needing assistance.
(B) The salvors must agree to a division of any salvage among themselves with the major share
allotted to those doing the most work.
(C) The Master of the ship needing assistance has the absolute right to decide.
(D) The first salvor on-scene has the absolute right to provide assistance; however, he is liable if
the ship is lost due to his lack of experience, equipment, etc.
3062. (2.4.3.6B-28) Under federal regulations, what minimum level of Blood Alcohol Content (BAC)
constitutes a violation of the laws prohibiting Boating Under the Influence of Alcohol (BUI) on
commercial vessels?
o
o
o
(A) .18% BAC

(B) .06% BAC
(C) .10% BAC
(D) .04% BAC
3063. (2.4.3.4-13) Which condition would NOT entitle a vessel to carry goods on deck?
o
o
o
(A) The cargo will damage other cargoes by tainting or contamination

(B) Deck stowage is customary in the trade (i.e. timber cargoes)
(C) The shipper agrees to deck stowage
(D) Deck stowage is required by law or regulation
3064. (2.4.3.4-2) The York-Antwerp Rules relate to the __________.

o
o
o
(A) ship owner's responsibilities to provide a well-found vessel in a charter party

(B) settlement of general average claims
(C) navigation regulations that apply in the English Channel
(D) minimum required number of officers and crew
3065. (2.4.3.4-4) One of the requirements for a general average act is __________.
o
o
o
(A) a successful venture

(B) no imminent peril
(C) no losses

Deck General
September 2015
3066. (2.4.3.6B-36) Form 2692 (Notice of Marine Casualty), when required, must be filed to the U.S.
Coast Guard within how many days?
o
o
o
(A) 5 days
(B) 3 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 1 day
3067. (2.4.3.4-6) A fire has damaged 20 bales of cotton on a freighter loaded with general cargo. This
claim would come under __________.
o
o
(A) general average

(B) total loss of a part
(D) constructive total loss
3068. (2.4.3.4-8) Particular average is __________.

o
o
o
(A) the average distance steamed per day over the duration of the voyage
(B) loss sustained by only one party
(C) claimed after all liens against the vessel are settled
(D) charges against all parties in a marine venture to pay for damages
3069. (2.4.3.4-10) An underwriter is liable for __________.

o
o
o
(A) the natural decay of the vessel due to the passage of time
(B) loss caused by heavy weather
(C) loss caused by the ordinary evaporation of liquids
(D) loss arising from the subject itself because of its inherent qualities
3070. (2.4.3.7-2) What is NOT considered maritime property in a salvage claim?

o
o
o
(A) tug boat

(B) cargo
(C) rafts
(D) light-vessels

Deck General
September 2015
3071. (2.4.3.4-11) A ballasted vessel sinks enroute to a dry dock. Under these circumstances, the
vessel's owner can claim __________.
o
o
o
(A) constructive total loss

(B) general average
(D) actual total loss
3072. (2.4.3.4-12) What is an example of the term "Restraint of Rulers, Princes, or Peoples" in a
marine insurance policy?
o
o
(A) Damage caused by riot of the population of a port.

(B) Arrest of a vessel by legal authorities to satisfy claims through exercise of a maritime lien.
(C) A prohibition from loading a cargo from a country's government interference.
(D) Losses caused by fines from polluting the harbor after malfunction of a piping system.
3073. (2.4.3.6A-1) The American Consul has asked the Master of a vessel bound for a port in the U.S.
to transport a destitute seaman back to the U.S. Which action may the Master take?
o
o
o
(A) He may refuse to take the seaman if the seaman has a contagious disease.
(B) He is normally required to take the seaman.
(C) He may refuse to take the seaman if it will violate the Certificate of Inspection.
3074. (2.4.3.6A-21) Following a collision or accident, the Master of each vessel involved must render
assistance to persons affected by the collision or accident __________.
o
o
o
(A) if he can do so without serious danger to his vessel or to individuals on board

(B) without regard to any danger to his vessel
(C) if he can do so without any risk to his vessel
(D) if he can do so without undue delay
3075. (2.4.3.6A-3) Under U.S. law, what is the penalty for assaulting the Master?
o
o
o
(A) Imprisonment for not more than 2 years

(B) Revocation of the Merchant Mariner Credential
(C) Fine of not more than $500 and/or imprisonment for not more than 1 year
(D) Fine of not more than $1000

Deck General
September 2015
3076. (2.4.3.6A-5) After a seaman is discharged, at the end of the voyage, the final payment of wages
due must be made, whichever is earliest, either within 24 hours after the cargo has been discharged,
or __________.
o
o
(A) prior to loading any out-bound cargo

(B) prior to the vessel's departure on the next voyage
(C) within 4 days after the seaman's discharge
(D) prior to any change of Master
3077. (2.4.3.6A-6) What is the penalty for willfully damaging cargo?

o
o
(A) Revocation of Merchant Mariner Credential, fine equal to the value of the damage or
imprisonment for not more than 2 years
(B) Fine not to exceed the value of the damage and/or imprisonment not to exceed 18 months
(C) Forfeiture of wages equal to the value of the damage and, if ordered by the court,
imprisonment for not more than 12 months
(D) Fine equal to the value of the damage plus a 1000 dollar penalty and/or imprisonment not to
exceed 2 years
3078. (2.4.3.6A-7) Your enrolled vessel is bound from Baltimore, MD, to Norfolk, VA, via Chesapeake
Bay. Which statement about the required Pilot is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The Pilot need only be credentialed by the Coast Guard.

(B) The Pilot must be credentialed by Virginia and Maryland.
(C) The Pilot must be credentialed by either Virginia or Maryland.
(D) The Pilot must be credentialed by Virginia, Maryland and the Coast Guard.
3079. (2.4.3.6B-10) What accident situation is considered a Serious Marine Incident?

o
o
o
(A) Damage to property in excess of $100,000

(B) An injury to a crewmember that renders that person unfit to continue working on the vessel
(C) A discharge of 10,000 gallons or more of oil into navigable waters of the U.S.
o
o
(A) He must take the seaman even if the seaman has a contagious disease.
(B) He is always required to take the seaman.
(C) He may refuse to take the seaman if it will violate the Certificate of Inspection.
(D) He may refuse to accept the seaman if the seaman is medically unfit.

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
(A) He may refuse to take the seaman if the ship will not stop at a U.S. port within 30 days.
(B) He is required to take the seaman under any circumstance.
(C) He may refuse to take the seaman if the seaman has a contagious disease.
(D) He is required to accept the seaman only if the seaman is medically unfit.
o
o
o
(A) He must always take the seaman.

(B) He may refuse to take the seaman if he is being held by shore authorities.
(C) He is required to accept the seaman only if the seaman is medically unfit.
(D) He may refuse the seaman if the seaman has a contagious disease.
3083. (2.4.3.8D-3) All entries in the Official Logbook must be signed by the Master and __________.
o
o
o
(A) one other crew member

(B) the Chief Engineer
(C) the person about whom the entry concerns
(D) No other signature is required.
3084. (2.4.3.8D-1) All entries in the Official Logbook must be signed by the Master and __________.
o
o
o
(A) one other crew member

(B) the Union Representative
(C) no one else
(D) the person about whom the entry concerns
3085. (2.4.3.6A-13) A seaman deserts the vessel in a foreign port. What should the Master do with any
of the deserter's personal effects remaining on board?
o
o
o
(A) Transfer them to the appropriate district court of the U.S. at the end of the voyage.
(B) Donate them to a local charity upon return to the United States.
(C) Sell them at auction and deposit the money in the ship's morale or welfare fund.
(D) Inventory them, make an appropriate entry in the Official Logbook and dispose of them at
sea.

Deck General
September 2015
3086. (2.4.3.6A-15) You are Master of a vessel that is sold in a foreign country after discharge of cargo.
What is your responsibility to the crew in regards to return to the United States?
o
o
(A) The crew can be employed on another United States vessel, but only if it is returning to the
port of original engagement.
(B) You must provide air transportation to the nearest port of entry in the United States.
(C) You must provide passage to the port of original engagement.
(D) There is no requirement for return to the United States provided the voyage has exceeded 4
weeks duration.
Safety Office?
o
o
o
(A) Your vessel strikes a pier and does $1,500 damage to the pier but no damage to the vessel.
(B) A nylon mooring line parts while the vessel is tied up and kills a harbor worker who was on the
pier.
(C) Your vessel is backing from a dock and runs aground, but is pulled off by tugs in 30 minutes.
(D) A seaman is injured and in the hospital for four days.
3088. (2.4.3.6A-18) Wages due a seaman may be attached by the court for the __________.
o
o
o
(A) support of a minor child

(B) payment of monthly bills
(C) payment of creditors
3089. (2.4.3.6A-19) You are in charge of a U.S. documented vessel. Under title 46 of the United States
Code, if you fail to report a complaint of a sexual offense, you may be __________.
o
o
o
(A) civilly charged and fined

(B) criminally charged and jailed
(C) held personally liable by the victim and sued
3090. (2.4.3.6A-20) Under title 46 of the United States Code, the person in charge of a documented
vessel who fails to report a complaint of a sexual offense may be __________.
o
o
o
(A) fined up to $5,000

(B) charged with accessory to sexual assault
(C) imprisoned for up to one year

Deck General
September 2015
3091. (2.4.3.6B-1) Following a Serious Marine Incident, a mariner directly involved in the incident is
required to submit a urine specimen for drug testing within __________.
o
o
o
(A) 2 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 24 hours
(D) 32 hours
3092. (2.4.3.6B-9) The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must notify the nearest Coast Guard
Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible?
o
o
o
(A) The person in charge of the vessel at the time of casualty

(B) The Master of the vessel
(C) The owner of the vessel
(D) Any one of the above
3093. (2.4.3.6B-13) You are the Master of a 500-gross ton passenger vessel operating on rivers. Your
vessel accidentally runs aground. Under the regulations for passenger vessels, you must notify the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible
(B) Coast Guard, only if the grounding results in injury to personnel
(C) Coast Guard, only if the grounding results in a loss of life
(D) Coast Guard, only if the grounding results in damage to property in excess of $25,000
3094. (2.4.3.6B-4) Besides the chemical testing of a mariner's breath for alcohol, what other specimen
testing for alcohol is acceptable to be taken onboard the vessel after a Serious Marine Incident?
o
o
(A) Hair
(B) Blood
(C) Saliva
3095. (2.4.3.6B-5) Which type of chemical testing is NOT required of merchant marine personnel?
o
o
(A) Random
(B) Periodic
(C) Annual
(D) Pre-employment

Deck General
September 2015
3096. (2.4.3.6B-6) When underway with a tow, you are required to notify the Coast Guard in which
casualty situation?
o
o
(A) An injury requiring first aid treatment

(B) Damage to property amounting to $12,500
(C) Accidental stranding or grounding
(D) Loss of bridge-to-bridge radio capability
3097. (2.4.3.6B-20) The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must notify the nearest Coast Guard
Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible?
o
o
o
(A) The Master of the vessel

(B) The person in charge of the vessel
(C) The operator of the vessel
3098. (2.4.3.6B-24) You are the Master of a 500-gross ton passenger vessel operating on rivers. Your
vessel accidentally runs aground. Under the regulations for passenger vessels, you must notify the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) Coast Guard, only if the grounding results in damage to property in excess of $25,000
(B) nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible
(C) Coast Guard, only if the grounding results in a loss of life
(D) Coast Guard, only if the grounding results in injury to personnel
3099. (2.4.3.6B-12) When underway with a tow, you are required to notify the Coast Guard in which
casualty situation?
o
o
o
(A) Damage of bridge-to-bridge radio capability

(B) Accidental stranding or grounding
(C) An injury requiring first aid treatment
(D) Damage to property amounting to $12,500

Deck General
September 2015
Safety Office?
o
o
o
(A) Nylon mooring line parts while the vessel is tied up and kills a harbor worker who was on the
pier.
(B) Your vessel strikes and sinks an anchored sailboat costing a total of $20,000 for salvage and
repair.
(C) Your vessel is backing from a dock and runs aground, but is pulled off by tugs in 30 minutes.
(D) A seaman is injured and in the hospital for four days.
3101. (2.4.3.6B-30) The operator of an uninspected vessel MUST assist people affected by an accident
if he or she can do so without __________.
o
o
o
(A) harming persons onboard

(B) further damaging the other vessel
(C) serious danger to his or her own vessel
3102. (2.4.3.6B-23) What requires a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death?

o
o
o
(A) Collision with a bridge

(B) loss of life
(C) Injury beyond first aid
3103. (2.4.3.6B-26) What is considered a Serious Marine Incident?

o
o
(A) an allision that results in $500 damage to a boat dock

(B) grounding of a vessel on a sandbar that does not result in injuries and/or any damage to the
vessel
(C) an injury to a crewmember, passenger, or other person which requires professional medical
treatment beyond first aid
3104. (2.4.3.6B-29) Following a Serious Marine Incident, a mariner involved in the incident is prohibited
from consuming alcohol until after being tested or __________.
o
o
(A) 2 hours following the incident

(B) 4 hours following the incident
(C) 8 hours following the incident
(D) 12 hours following the incident

Deck General
September 2015
3105. (2.4.3.6B-31) You are the operator of an uninspected vessel which is involved in an accident.
You are not required to assist people affected by the accident if __________.
o
o
o
(A) the other vessel did not appear to be sinking

(B) it would cause serious danger to your vessel
(C) the other vessel was at fault
(D) it would unduly delay your voyage
3106. (2.4.3.6B-33) You are operator of a towing vessel which collides with a buoy and drags it off
station. What should you do if the damage to your vessel is not serious?
o
o
o
(A) If the buoy is afloat, no action is necessary.

(B) Immediately notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Inspection Office and no further
action is necessary.
(C) Wait one week and submit form GG-2692 to the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or
Inspection Office.
(D) Immediately notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Inspection Office and then
submit form CG-2692.
3107. (2.4.3.6B-34) By law, the maximum penalty for failing (without reasonable cause) to give aid in
the case of collision is __________.
o
o
o
(A) one year imprisonment or $500

(B) two years imprisonment or $1000
(C) two years imprisonment or $1500
(D) two years imprisonment or $2000
3108. (2.4.3.6B-35) A report of casualty to a vessel must include __________.
o
o
o
(A) the name of the owner or agent of the vessel

(B) the amount of ballast on board
(C) an evaluation of who was at fault
(D) the estimated cost of damage
3109. (2.4.3.6B-38) Who is responsible for providing urine specimen collection kits to be used following
a serious marine incident?
o
o
o
(A) The U.S. Coast Guard

(B) Qualified medical personnel
(C) The local police department
(D) The marine employer

Deck General
September 2015
3110. (2.4.3.6B-39) All inspected vessels on unrestricted ocean routes must have equipment on board
for testing an individual's __________.
o
o
o
(A) urine
(B) breath
(C) blood
3111. (2.4.3.6B-40) As defined in the regulations governing marine casualties a "marine employer" may
be the __________.
o
o
o
(A) agent
(B) owner
(C) Master
3112. (2.4.3.6B-41) A vessel is not required to carry urine specimen collecting kits onboard the vessel
only if the individuals directly involved in a Serious Marine Incident can be tested ashore within
__________?
o
o
(A) 12 hours
(B) 24 hours
(C) 32 hours
(D) 48 hours
3113. (2.4.3.6C-2) The Master of any vessel bound on a voyage must apply to a district court when an
allegation of unseaworthiness has been made to the Master by __________.
o
o
o
(A) the First and Second Officers of the vessel or a majority of the crew
(B) the First Officer of the vessel
(C) any two officers of the vessel and a majority of the crew
(D) any member of the crew of the vessel
3114. (2.4.3.6C-3) As Chief Officer of a vessel underway, it comes to your attention that the vessel is,
in some manner, unseaworthy. Under such circumstances the Master is required to take action upon
receiving __________.
o
o
o
(A) notification of such condition from yourself and the Second Officer
(B) information of such condition from yourself
(C) notification of such condition from yourself or the Second Officer
(D) notification of such condition from yourself and any other member of the crew

Deck General
September 2015
3115. (2.4.3.6D-1) When anyone voluntarily deposits his/her Merchant Mariner Credential with a Coast
Guard investigating officer, which of the following is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) it may be for reasons of mental or physical incompetence

(B) it must be for reason of addiction to narcotics
(C) he/she permanently gives up rights to the credential
3116. (2.4.3.6D-4) Who cannot commit the crime of barratry?

o
o
o
(A) Ship's unlicensed crewmember(s)

(B) Master
(C) Ship's officer(s)
(D) Ship owner
3117. (2.4.3.6D-6) If you are guilty of failure to properly perform your duties as Master of Uninspected
Towing Vessels, which of the following actions may NOT be taken?
o
o
o
(A) Issuance of a letter of warning

(B) A fine placed against your Merchant Mariner Credential
(C) Revocation of your Merchant Mariner Credential
(D) Suspension of your Merchant Mariner Credential
3118. (2.4.3.7-3) What is NOT considered maritime property in a salvage claim?
o
o
o
(A) buoys
(B) semi-submerged shipwreck
(C) sea plane
(D) cargo
3119. (2.4.3.7-8) Which lien against a vessel would be settled FIRST?
o
o
o
(A) Salvage lien

(B) Maintenance and cure
(C) Ship repairer's lien
(D) Vessel mortgage

Deck General
September 2015
3120. (2.4.3.8C-2) The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook is to _________.
o
o
o
(A) erase the entry and rewrite

(B) draw a line through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
(C) draw several lines through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
(D) completely black out the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
3121. (2.4.3.8C-3) A journal kept by the officer of the watch in which day to day happenings are
recorded regarding the deck department is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Official Logbook

(B) cargo record book
(C) bell book
(D) deck rough log
3122. (2.4.3.8D-19) Which logbook is required to be submitted to the Coast Guard?

o
o
o
(A) Smooth log

(B) Official Log
(C) Bell log
(D) Rough log
3123. (2.4.3.8D-2) Every entry required to be made in the Official Logbook shall be signed by the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) Mate on watch

(B) Master and Chief Mate or other member of the crew
(C) Purser, one of the Mates, and some other member of the crew
(D) Master only
3124. (2.4.3.8D-10) When an Official logbook is not required, an unofficial logbook is required to be
kept aboard for review by a marine inspector for __________.
o
o
o
(A) one month

(B) 12 months
(C) six months

Deck General
September 2015
3125. (2.4.3.8D-21) Which log includes a statement of the conduct, ability, and character of each crew
member on the completion of a voyage?
o
o
o
(A) Smooth Logbook

(B) Department Logbook
(C) Crew Logbook
3126. (2.4.3.8D-22) Which is supplied to the vessel by the U.S. Coast Guard?
o
o
o
(A) Cargo gear register

(B) Bell book
(C) Rough Logbook
3127. (2.4.3.8D-23) All of the following records are usually maintained by the watch-standing officers
aboard a vessel EXCEPT the __________.
o
o
o
(A) deck logbook

(B) compass record book
(C) chronometer error book
(D) official logbook
3128. (2.4.3.8E-5) According to 33 CFR, on board which type of vessel described below is required to
maintain Part II (Cargo/Ballast Operations) of the Oil Record Book?
o
o
o
(A) A non-tanker that carries more than 200 cubic meters of oil in bulk.
(B) A ship of 150 gross tons and above, other than an oil tanker.
(C) An oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above on domestic voyages only.
(D) Any oil tanker of 100 gross tons and above.
3129. (2.4.3.8E-1) The oil record book is required to be carried aboard __________.
o
o
o
(A) cargo vessels

(B) passenger vessels
(C) tankers

Deck General
September 2015
3130. (2.4.3.8E-2) According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33CFR), who is to sign the Oil
Record Book after every designated operation?
o
o
(A) person(s) in charge of the operation and a credentialed officer present at the operation
(B) a credentialed officer present at the operation designated by the master
(C) person(s) in charge of the operation
(D) the master
3131. (2.4.3.8E-3) Under normal operating conditions aboard a ship, who has the overall responsibility
in maintaining the Oil Record Book?
o
o
o
(A) Master
(B) Chief Engineer
(C) Chief Mate
(D) First Assistant Engineer
3132. (2.4.3.8E-8) On a passenger vessel over 400 gross tons, routine entries for the Oil Record Book
are recorded in __________.
o
o
(A) Part II (Cargo Oil/Ballast Operations)

(B) Part III (Emergency Discharge/Spillage)
(C) Part I (Machinery Space Operations)
(D) Oil Record Book is not required
3133. (2.4.3.8E-9) Container vessels are required to maintain an Oil Record Book when the vessel is
_________?
o
o
o
(A) 150 gross tons and above

(B) 200 gross tons and above
(C) 300 gross tons above
(D) 400 gross tons and above
3134. (2.4.3.8E-10) The Oil Record Book for all fixed or floating drilling rigs is the property of the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) drilling rig's owner

(B) company leasing the drilling rig
(C) state in whose water the drilling rig is located
(D) U.S. government

Deck General
September 2015
3135. (2.4.3.8E-12) When oil is discharged overboard, an entry is required in the __________.
o
o
(A) engine rough log

(B) deck rough log
(C) Oil Record Book
3136. (2.4.3.8E-14) When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry must be made in the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) deck rough log

(B) Oil Record Book
(D) engine rough log
3137. (2.4.3.9A-1) What is required to be posted in the pilothouse of a vessel?

o
o
(A) Officer's licenses

(B) Company Mission Statement
3138. (2.4.3.9A-2) A new crewman reports on board. He must be trained in the use of the ship's
lifesaving appliances within what time period?
o
o
o
(A) 1 month
(B) 2 weeks
(C) 2 months
(D) Before sailing
3139. (2.4.3.9A-3) Instructions to the crew in the use of all the ship's lifesaving equipment shall be
completed __________.
o
o
o
(A) within any two month period

(B) within one week of sailing
(C) in one month and repeated quarterly
(D) before sailing

Deck General
September 2015
3140. (2.4.3.9A-5) Seeing that all hands are familiar with their duties, as specified in the muster list, is
the responsibility of the __________.
o
o
(A) department heads

(B) safety officer
(C) Master
(D) Chief Mate
3141. (2.4.3.9B1-1) A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when __________.
o
o
o
(A) the vessel is overloaded

(B) there is a change of home port
(C) there is a change of Master
(D) intoxicated
3142. (2.4.3.9B1-3) The Shipping Articles shall be signed by each seaman and the __________.
o
o
(A) U.S. Customs Service

(B) Shipping Commissioner
3143. (2.4.3.9B1-4) A seaman signed on articles on 16 January 1987 and signed off on 2 March 1987.
How should you enter this under the Time of Service column in the articles?
o
o
o
(A) 46 Days
(B) 1 Month 16 Days
(C) 1 Month 18 Days
(D) 2 Months
3144. (2.4.3.9B1-6) Shipping articles are a contract of agreement between the members of the crew
and the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Master
(B) Coast Guard
(C) charterers
(D) vessel's owner

Deck General
September 2015
a voyage from New York City to which port?
o
o
o
(A) Long Beach, California

(B) Veracruz, Mexico
(C) Saint Maarten, Netherlands Antilles
(D) Halifax, Canada
a voyage from New Orleans to which port?
o
o
o
(A) Cristobal Colon, Panama

(B) Kingston, Jamaica
(C) Houston, Texas
(D) Veracruz, Mexico
3147. (2.4.3.9B2-1) You are the credentialed operator of a 100 GT towing vessel making coastwise
runs. Which of the following must you do whenever a crew member is discharged from your vessel?
o
o
o
(A) retain the crew member's Certificate of Discharge onboard

(B) issue a Certificate of Discharge or make an entry in his Continuous Discharge Book
(C) retain the crew member's Continuous Discharge Book onboard
(D) issue a Certificate of Discharge and make an entry in his Continuous Discharge Book
3148. (2.4.3.9B2-25) The master or individual in charge of a vessel prepares a certificate of discharge
for each mariner being discharged from the vessel where the original discharge goes to the
_________.
o
o
o
(A) Officer In Charge, Marine Inspection (OCMI)

(B) Mariner
(C) Shipping Company
(D) National Maritime Center
3149. (2.4.3.9B2-2) You are signing on your crew. Which is NOT authorized?
o
o
o
(A) A man presenting his Chief Mate endorsement to sign on as able seaman
(B) An engineer presenting an MMC endorsed "QMED - any rating" to sign on as an Electrician
(C) A man presenting an MMC endorsed as "Able Seaman" to sign on as Bosun
(D) A man presenting an MMC endorsed "Steward's Department (F.H.)" to sign on as Chief Cook

Deck General
September 2015
3150. (2.4.3.9B2-26) Which statement is FALSE regarding certificates of discharge?

o
o
o
(A) Computer generated signatures are not authorized

(B) The mariner only signs the original copy of the discharge
(C) The mariner receives the original copy of the discharge
(D) Copies of the certificate of discharge are furnished by the shipping company
3151. (2.4.3.9B2-5) While a vessel is in a foreign port where there is no American Consul, a seaman
becomes violent prior to sailing. The Master should __________.
o
o
o
(A) send the seaman ashore and arrange with the agent to repatriate him by armed guard
(B) call local police, put the seaman in prison ashore, and sail the vessel
(C) pay off the seaman and make arrangements with the agent to return him to the original port of
signing on in the U.S.
(D) put the seaman in irons and sail to the next port where there is an American Consul
3152. (2.4.3.9B2-10) A vessel has been surveyed in a foreign port and found unseaworthy as a result
of neglect. A seaman on this vessel is entitled to discharge and __________.
o
o
o
(A) one month's pay only

(B) one month's pay or transportation to the nearest U.S. port, whichever is the greater amount
(C) transportation to the port of engagement
(D) one month's pay or transportation to the nearest U.S. port, whichever is the least amount
3153. (2.4.3.9B2-11) When the vessel is on coastwise articles, the original certificate of the seaman's
certificate of discharge is __________.
o
o
o
(A) retained on board

(B) sent to the shipping company
(C) sent to Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard
(D) given to the seaman
3154. (2.4.3.9B2-12) If there are any changes in the crew in a foreign port, the changes will be made
by __________.
o
o
o
(A) U.S. Consul on the Shipping Articles

(B) the Master on the Shipping Articles
(C) U.S. Consul on the Certified Crew List
(D) the Master on the Certified Crew List

Deck General
September 2015
3155. (2.4.3.9B2-14) In a foreign port with a consulate, the U.S. Consul may excuse the Master from
personally appearing before him to consent to the mutual release of an injured seaman, when the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) injury requires immediate inpatient hospitalization of the seaman

(B) seaman also consents to the absence, and there is no dispute as to the wages due
(C) ship is still in port and the seaman can appear before the Consul after medical treatment
(D) Master authorizes the agent to act in his place
3156. (2.4.3.9B2-15) When may a seaman on a vessel engaged in foreign trade be paid before earning
the wages?
o
o
o
(A) The advance of wages is at the discretion of the master; however, a seaman cannot be in an
overpaid status at signoff.
(B) The seaman may only draw an advance on earned wages.
(C) Wages up to fifty percent of the seaman's base wage maybe advanced upon proof of serious
family illness.
(D) Wages equivalent to three days base wage may be advanced upon arrival in a foreign port.
3157. (2.4.3.9B2-16) A seaman lost his continuous discharge book during the voyage. Upon discharge
from Articles, he should be issued a __________.
o
o
o
(A) Certificate of Discharge with the white copy forwarded to the Commandant
(B) letter of service on company letterhead signed and sealed by the master
(C) Mutual Release (CG-2119), and the articles should be annotated as to the loss
(D) Record of Entry in a Continuous Discharge Book for use in applying for a duplicate book
3158. (2.4.3.9B2-17) A seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book. Which
statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) A Certificate of Discharge Form should be attached to the book.

(B) The record of entry in the book must be submitted to the Coast Guard.
(C) If a vessel was on coastwise articles, the record of discharge will be made in the Official
Logbook.
(D) An entry should be made in the book and a Certificate of Discharge Form issued to the
seaman.

Deck General
September 2015
3159. (2.4.3.9B2-18) A seaman you have just discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book. Which
statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) An entry should be made in the book and a Certificate of Discharge issued to the seaman.
(B) A Certificate of Discharge form should be attached to the book.
(C) If the vessel was on coastwise articles, the record of discharge will be made in the Official
Logbook.
(D) The record of entry in the continuous discharge book shall agree with the entry made in the
Ship's Articles.
3160. (2.4.3.9B2-19) Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the seamen is that of the
__________.
o
o
o

(C) U.S. Custom Service
(D) steamship company
3161. (2.4.3.9B2-22) You are signing on a crew. When they present their Merchant Mariner Credential,
you should suspect a fraudulent document if it has a single endorsement that says __________.
o
o
o
(A) Steward's Department (F.H.)

(B) Bosun
(C) any unlicensed rating in the deck department including AB
(D) see Certificate of Registry
3162. (2.4.3.9B2-24) You are signing on the Purser. He should present a Merchant Mariner Credential
with which endorsement?
o
o
o
(A) See Certificate of Registry

(B) Purser
(C) Steward's Department
(D) Staff Officer
3163. (2.4.3.9B3-2) A copy of the Articles of Agreement, less the signatures, is required to be posted.
What is this document called?
o
o

(B) Voyage Agreement
(C) Forecastle Card
(D) Articles Copy

Deck General
September 2015
3164. (2.4.3.9B3-4) The Articles of Agreement __________.
o
o
o
(A) advises the crew of the conditions of employment

(B) designates the quarters a seaman will occupy during a voyage
(C) is also known as a Merchant Mariner's Document
(D) are signed by each crewmember at the end of the voyage
3165. (2.4.3.9C-8) On a coastwise tugboat of 199 GT, on a voyage over 600 miles, what percentage of
the deck crew (excluding officers) must hold a document of able seaman?
o
o
o
(A) 65%
(B) 50%
(C) 25%
(D) 0%
3166. (2.4.3.9C-10) Your 199 GT tugboat is on a 675 mile coastwise voyage. What percentage of the
deck crew must be Able Bodied Seamen?
o
o
o
(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 65%
3167. (2.4.3.9C-30) Considering the manning requirements for U.S. vessels (100 gross tons and
above), your cargo vessel has a deck crew of 20 men, exclusive of the officers. How many of these
men do the manning regulations require to be Able Seamen?
o
o
o
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 13
3168. (2.4.3.9C-2) You are the credentialed Master of a 199 GT uninspected towing vessel making a
500 mile coastwise trip. You carry a deck crew of six (6). Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) There must be at least 5 able seamen among the deck crew.
(B) Only the able seamen require Merchant Mariner Credentials.
(C) There must be 3 separate watches stood.

Deck General
September 2015
3169. (2.4.3.9C-3) You are the Master of an uninspected diesel towing vessel of 190 GT operating on a
regular run from New York to the Gulf of Mexico. Which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) All crew members must have a Merchant Mariner Credential

(B) A credentialed Chief Engineer is required.
(C) Sailors may stand watch for 6 hours on and 6 hours off.
(D) Able Seamen are not required in the deck crew.
3170. (2.4.3.9C-11) When may foreign credentialed personnel be employed on a US-flag towing
vessel?
o
o
o
(A) While operating above the US outer continental shelf

(B) Never, under any circumstances
(C) On vessels operating on domestic voyages only
(D) While on a foreign voyage and outside US jurisdiction, in order to meet manning requirements
3171. (2.4.3.9C-6) You are onboard a 120 GT uninspected sea going tug which carries one Master and
one Mate of Towing Vessels and four (4) seamen when underway. How many of the four seamen
must have a rating as able seamen if the voyage is under 600 miles?
o
o
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
3172. (2.4.3.9C-12) Considering manning requirements for US flag vessels, your 2 watch cargo vessel
has a deck crew of 20 people, exclusive of officers. How many of these people do the manning
regulations require to be able seamen?
o
o
o
(A) 13
(B) 10
(C) 7
(D) 5
3173. (2.4.3.9C-14) On a sea going towing vessel of 150 gross tons, there are six (6) seamen in the
deck crew. How many certificated able seamen are required if the voyage is over 600 miles?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Deck General
September 2015
3174. (2.4.3.9C-5) Which statement concerning a 298 GRT inspected tug engaged in towing from
Seattle, WA, to Alaska is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) Each crew member must be issued a certificate of discharge at the time of discharge.
(B) Crew must be signed on before a Shipping Commissioner.
(C) No able seamen are required.
(D) A credentialed Master of Towing Vessels may serve as Master.
3175. (2.4.3.9C-7) Which category of able seaman is not authorized to be counted as an able seaman
on a seagoing tug of over 100 gross tons?
o
o
o
(A) Unlimited
(B) Limited
(C) Special
(D) Special (OSV)
3176. (2.4.3.9C-9) If the Master of a US-flag towing vessel replaces any crew member with a non-US
citizen, he/she must ensure that the __________.
o
o
o
(A) replacement holds a credential equivalent in experience and training to a mariner holding US
credentials
(B) vessel is on a foreign voyage, outside US jurisdiction, and not operating above the US outer
continental shelf
(C) replacement can communicate with other crew members to the extent required by regulations
3177. (2.4.3.9C-18) A holder of a credential as Master of towing vessels may work each 24 hours for a
period not to exceed __________.
o
o
o
(A) 6 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 18 hours
(D) 24 hours
3178. (2.4.3.9C-20) In terms of vessel manning, a watch is the __________.

o
o
o
(A) performance of lookout duties

(B) direct performance of deck or engine operations in a scheduled and fixed rotation
(C) direct performance of cargo loading and discharge operations only
(D) performance of maintenance work necessary for the vessel's safe operation, on a daily basis

Deck General
September 2015
3179. (2.4.3.9C-21) Who is responsible for properly manning a vessel in accordance with all applicable
laws, regulations and international conventions?
o
o
o
(A) The (USCG) Officer in Charge of Marine Inspection

(B) The (USCG) Captain of the Port
(C) The owner or operator of the vessel
(D) The Master of the vessel
3180. (2.4.3.9C-22) On vessels over 100 gross tons, whose responsibility is it to ensure that all able
seamen in the vessel's crew have the documents and qualifications required by law and regulation?
o
o
(A) Company's personnel director

(B) Owner or operator of the vessel
(D) USCG Officer in Charge of Marine Inspection
3181. (2.4.3.9C-23) The terminology "able to understand any order spoken by the officers" refers to all
of the following situations EXCEPT __________.
o
o
(A) directing the use of lifesaving equipment

(B) in response to a fire
(C) for deck department crew members to understand the terminology used in the engine room
(D) in response to a man overboard
3182. (2.4.3.9C-26) Which statement, concerning offshore supply vessel operations, correctly defines
the length of a voyage?
o
o
(A) The shortest measurable distance from the port of departure to the port of arrival
(B) The distance from the point of departure to the most distant point offshore
(C) The total distance from the port of departure to the port of arrival, not including stops at
offshore points
(D) The distance from the point of departure to the vessel's first stop
3183. (2.4.3.9C-33) Deckhands onboard towing vessels shall be divided into 3 watches when the trip
exceeds __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1000 miles

(B) 800 miles
(C) 700 miles
(D) 600 miles

Deck General
September 2015
3184. (2.4.3.9C-34) You are signing on a crew. You can determine the minimum number and
qualifications of the crew that you are required to carry by consulting which document?
o
o
o
(A) Articles of Agreement

(C) fo'c'sle card
(D) Crew list
3185. (2.4.3.9C-36) You are signing on crew members. The minimum number of people required
aboard, and the qualifications of each, is listed on the __________.
o
o
o

(B) fo'c'sle card
(C) Articles of Agreement
(D) Crew list
3186. (2.5.1-2) What agency issues the Ship Station license for the VHF marine radio on a mobile
offshore drilling unit?
o
o
(A) Department of Transportation

(C) Federal Communications Commission
(D) Federal Broadcast Authority
3187. (2.5.1-3) You cannot operate a VHF or SSB radiotelephone aboard a rig unless that station is
licensed. Which of the following organizations issues the license?
o
o
o
(A) Federal Communications Commission

(C) Department of Energy
3188. (2.5.1-4) Where would you find the "call sign" or "call letters" of the radio station on your rig?
o
o
(A) In the rig safety manual

(B) On the rig Watch Bill
(C) On the Ship Station License
(D) On the Certificate of Inspection

Deck General
September 2015
3189. (2.5.1-5) What is the international calling and distress channel found on all VHF-FM equipped
drilling rigs?
o
o
(A) Channel 1
(B) Channel 10
(C) Channel 16
(D) Channel 68
3190. (2.5.2.1-2) Which of the following items should all MODU personnel be familiar with?
o
o
o
(A) maintenance schedule

(B) fuel consumption rates
(C) navigational systems
(D) boarding and operating procedures
3191. (2.5.2.1-5) When abandoning a MODU, after launching the survival craft which of the following
choices is your best action to take?
o
o
(A) plot a course for the nearest land

(B) take a vote on which direction you should go
(C) stay in the immediate area
(D) go in one direction until fuel runs out
3192. (2.5.2.1-6) The ship's drawings for use when the DEEP DRILLER is damaged are available in
the __________.
o
o
(A) wheelhouse under glass

(B) OIM's office
(C) ballast control room
(D) toolpusher's quarters
3193. (2.5.2.1-14) The order to abandon a MODU should only be given by the which of the following
personnel?
o
o
o
(A) Offshore Installation Manager

(B) Ballast Control Operator
(C) Rig Safety Supervisor
(D) Barge Engineer

Deck General
September 2015
3194. (2.5.2.1-16) What action should you take if a davit-launched liferaft aboard a MODU cannot be
launched because of damage to the davit?
o
o
(A) go to another liferaft station

(B) inflate the liferaft on deck
(C) roll the liferaft over the side
(D) get a saw and cut the liferaft free
3195. (2.5.2.1-17) Hydrogen sulfide in explosive concentrations has been detected on the drill floor
and the abandon rig signal has been sounded. Which of the following would be the safest way to
evacuate?
o
o
o
(A) launch only the windward liferafts

(B) launch only the leeward survival capsules and liferafts
(C) launch all survival capsules and liferafts
(D) launch only the windward survival capsules
3196. (2.5.2.10-1) The object of plugging holes below the waterline on a MODU should be to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) only plug holes in machinery or other vital spaces

(B) reduce the entry of water as much as possible
(C) plug the largest holes first
(D) eliminate all water entering the hole
3197. (2.5.2.10-2) The two courses of action if the underwater hull of a MODU is severely damaged are
to plug the openings and to __________.
o
o
o
(A) dewater the compartment

(B) counter flood to maintain even keel
(C) secure power to the compartment
(D) establish and maintain flooding boundaries
3198. (2.5.2.10-4) The objective of shoring the damaged area of a MODU is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) force the warped, bulged, or deformed sections back into place
(B) withstand subsequent additional damage
(C) make a watertight seal at the damaged area
(D) support and hold the area in the damaged position

Deck General
September 2015
3199. (2.5.2.10-5) When shoring a damaged bulkhead on a MODU, effort should be taken to spread
the pressure over the __________.
o
o
o
(A) maximum possible area

(B) nearest watertight door
(C) minimum possible area
(D) nearest longitudinal girder
3200. (2.5.2.10-10) The procedure of strengthening damaged structures on a MODU by using wood or
steel is called __________.
o
o
o
(A) shoring
(B) battening
(C) blocking
(D) bracing
3201. (2.5.2.10-13) The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank of a MODU should be
removed in case it is decided to __________.
o
o
(A) use the crossover system

(B) abandon the rig
(C) pump from the damaged tank
(D) fight a fire
3202. (2.5.2.10-14) Progressive flooding on a MODU is controlled by securing watertight boundaries

and __________.
o
o
o
(A) dumping bulk materials

(B) pumping out flooded compartments
(C) evacuating the unit
(D) transferring drill water
3203. (2.5.2.10-16) Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first?
o
o
o
(A) Damage at or just above the waterline

(B) Damage to interior watertight boundaries
(C) Damage below the waterline
(D) Damage to/in machinery rooms

Deck General
September 2015
3204. (2.5.2.2-1) An uncontrolled flow of gas, oil, or other well fluids into the atmosphere is called a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) flow
(B) blowout
(C) kick
(D) breakout
3205. (2.5.2.4-1) If the low side bilge pump fails and the high side bilge pump has insufficient suction to
dewater the low side of the COASTAL DRILLER when afloat, you should use the __________.
o
o
o
(A) raw water tower pumps

(B) saltwater eductor system
(C) mud pumps
(D) preload pumps
3206. (2.5.2.4-2) Failure of both port ballast pumps on the DEEP DRILLER prevents their use. To
deballast from tank 1P, you may use the __________.
o
o
o
(A) port drill water pump

(B) port bilge pumps
(C) port saltwater service pump
(D) starboard ballast pump and the crossover system
3207. (2.5.2.4-4) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4. While the unit is
deballasting, port valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2P by pumping
from tank 9P by also opening valves 6 and __________.
o
o
(A) 35
(B) 21
(C) 20
(D) 8
3208. (2.5.2.5-1) Repair of structures on a MODU in the vicinity of liquid mud handling areas presents
what possible hazard?
o
o
(A) An oxygen-deficient atmosphere may be present.

(B) Liquid muds may flood adjoining spaces.
(C) Flammable gasses may be present.
(D) Toxic gasses may be present.

Deck General
September 2015
3209. (2.5.2.5-4) What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of uncontaminated air?
o
o
o
(A) 12 percent
(B) 15 percent
(C) 18 percent
(D) 21 percent
3210. (2.5.2.6-1) On a MODU, if there is a probability of encountering H2S during the drilling of a well,
where should the air movers (bug blowers) be installed to dilute concentration of the gas?
o
o
o
(A) pipe rack

(B) shale shaker
(C) crown block
3211. (2.5.2.6-8) Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for repair/investigation personnel on
a MODU in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment?
o
o
o
(A) Emergency Escape Breathing Apparatus (EEBA)

(B) Pressure-Demand Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)
(C) U.S. Navy Oxygen Breathing Apparatus (OBA)
(D) Demand Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)
3212. (2.5.2.6-2) Requirements for H2S preparation and equipment usage aboard MODU's in U.S.
offshore waters are administered by the which of the following organizations?
o
o
(A) U.S. Corps of Engineers

(C) Minerals Management Service
(D) American National Standards Institute
3213. (2.5.2.6-3) When H2S is burned (flared) on a MODU, what can you expect to occur?
o
o
o
(A) All of the H2S will be converted to SO2.

(B) Only 80% of the H2S will be converted to SO2 or free sulfur.
(C) All of the H2S will be converted to hydrogen and free sulfur.
(D) The H2S not converted will not be dangerous.

Deck General
September 2015
3214. (2.5.2.6-5) If H2S exposure is anticipated, fixed monitoring devices aboard a MODU should have
a low level concentration alarm to alert personnel. at what concentration level will the alarm activate?
o
o
o
(A) 10 PPM
(B) 20 PPM
(C) 30 PPM
(D) 40 PPM
3215. (2.5.2.6-6) For H2S detection, sensitized tapes indicate H2S presence by means of discoloration
of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on the spot depends upon the concentration
of H2S and which of the following factors?
o
o
o
(A) duration of the exposure

(B) humidity at the time of exposure
(C) air pressure at the time of the exposure
(D) air temperature at the time of the exposure
3216. (2.5.2.6-10) What additional precautions should be taken when making temporary repairs to a
MODU that is operating when hydrogen sulfide is present?
o
o
o
(A) Provide respiratory protection and monitoring.

(B) Remove all bulk materials from the P-tanks.
(C) Seal off all tank and compartment ventilation.
3217. (2.5.2.6-12) What is the minimum concentration of H2S that will cause death with short-term
exposure?
o
o
o
(A) 100 ppm

(B) 200 ppm
(C) 400 ppm
(D) 700 ppm
3218. (2.5.2.6-13) What is the maximum concentration of H2S to which workers may be regularly
exposed without adverse effects?
o
o
o
(A) 10 ppm
(B) 20 ppm
(C) 40 ppm
(D) 80 ppm

Deck General
September 2015
3219. (2.5.2.6-14) What is the minimum concentration of H2S which can cause death if a person is
exposed for even an instant?
o
o
o
(A) 200 ppm

(B) 400 ppm
(C) 600 ppm
(D) 1000 ppm
3220. (2.5.2.6-16) Which of the following conditions would be the worst for the dispersion of H2S?
o
o
o
(A) nearly calm, clear nights or early morning

(B) gusty winds with rain
(C) heavy rain
(D) full sun with high winds
3221. (2.5.2.7-1) During severe storms when survival becomes a major concern, it may become
necessary to relieve high anchor tensions on the windward side of the unit by __________.
o
o
o
(A) ballasting the rig

(B) paying out cable on the windward side
(C) deballasting the rig
(D) paying out cable on the leeward side
3222. (2.5.2.7-3) A hurricane has recurved to the northeast and its forward speed is 20 knots. Your
MODU is located 600 miles northeast of the hurricane's center. How long will it take for the hurricane
center to reach your position if it holds its present course and speed?
o
o
o
(A) 10 hours
(B) 30 hours
(C) 50 hours
(D) 80 hours
3223. (2.5.2.7-4) What danger is presented if a waterspout passes over a MODU?
o
o
o
(A) Personnel may be injured by loose deck gear blown by the wind.
(B) Visibility could be restricted by low clouds.
(C) Large waves could cause structural damage.
(D) Heavy rains could cause downflooding.

Deck General
September 2015
3224. (2.5.2.7-5) What kind of conditions would you observe as the eye of a storm passes over your
MODU's position?
o
o
o
(A) Flat calm seas, heavy rain, light winds, and an extremely low barometer
(B) Huge waves approaching from all directions, clearing skies, light winds, and high pressure
(C) Flat calm seas, heavy rain, light winds, and high pressure
(D) Huge waves approaching from all directions, clearing skies, light winds, and an extremely low
barometer
3225. (2.5.2.7-7) Apparent wind speed blowing across a MODU under tow can be measured by a(n)
__________.
o
o
(A) wind vane

(B) thermometer
(C) anemometer
(D) barometer
3226. (2.5.2.7-8) In a storm, the windward lines of a MODU's mooring system provide __________.
o
o
(A) an increase in KM
(B) a negative restoring force
(C) a positive restoring force
(D) a positive righting moment
3227. (2.5.2.7-10) When preparing a MODU for heavy weather, fuel oil day tanks should be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) filled to ensure that sufficient fuel oil is available during a lengthy emergency
(B) drained to the lower hull to reduce free surfaces
(C) partially drained to increase free surfaces in order to reduce motions
(D) pumped overboard to calm the seas
3228. (2.5.2.7-11) While in transit during heavy weather, the crew aboard a semisubmersible should be
alert to repeated pounding of waves on the lower bracing. If necessary, the unit should be
__________.
o
o
(A) deballasted to a shallower draft

(B) ballasted to a draft in which the KG exceeds the maximum allowed
(C) ballasted to survival draft
(D) towed in the trough of the waves

Deck General
September 2015
3229. (2.5.2.8-1) A survival craft being used to pick up a person who has fallen overboard from a
MODU should approach the person __________.
o
o
o
(A) with the wind

(B) against the wind
(C) under oars
(D) at a high rate of speed
3230. (2.5.2.8-2) On board a mobile offshore drilling unit, the key to the most rapid and effective
response to a man overboard situation is __________.
o
o
o
(A) well-conducted drills

(B) good equipment
(C) a dedicated crew
(D) good communication
3231. (2.5.2.8-3) If you see someone fall overboard from a MODU, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) run to the radio room to send an emergency message

(B) call for help and keep the individual in sight
(C) go to the control room for the distress flares
(D) immediately jump in the water to help the individual
3232. (2.5.2.8-4) If a man falls overboard from a rig under tow, you should FIRST __________.
o
o
o
(A) sound the general alarm

(B) deploy life buoys
(C) launch a boat
(D) notify the tug
3233. (2.5.2.9-2) While the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, the out-of-level alarm indicates that hull
inclination exceeds 0.3. What should you do?
o
o
(A) Raise the high corner.

(B) Raise the low corner.
(C) Confirm operation of out-of-level alarm.
(D) Raise unit to proper air gap and inspect for damage.

Deck General
September 2015
3234. (2.5.3.1-2) What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system on a MODU?
o
o
o
(A) Acts as an accumulator

(B) Provides overpressure protection
(C) Purifies the air
(D) Condenses moisture
3235. (2.5.3.1-3) On a MODU, the possibility of a blowout makes which type of diesel engine shutdown
desirable?
o
o
o
(A) Fuel cutoff valve

(B) Water injector
(C) Overspeed trip
(D) Air inlet shut-off valve
3236. (2.5.3.1-4) Why is electrical power preferred over mechanical power for driving heavy machinery
on drilling rigs?
o
o
o
(A) Lighter
(B) More flexible
(C) Less maintenance
(D) More fuel efficient
3237. (2.5.3.1-5) For well control, the American Petroleum Institute recommends that hydraulic units
have sufficient horsepower to close the annular preventer in __________.
o
o
o
(A) 15 seconds
(B) 30 seconds
(C) 45 seconds
(D) 60 seconds
3238. (2.5.3.1-6) The shear rams of a MODU blowout preventer stack are used in emergency well
control to __________.
o
o
o
(A) close and seal around casing

(B) close and seal around the drill pipe
(C) close and seal around drill collars
(D) cut off pipe inside the preventer stack

Deck General
September 2015
3239. (2.5.3.1-8) In comparison to electric power, hydraulic power for jacking systems has the
advantage of __________.
o
o
o
(A) less preload needed

(B) less maintenance and repair
(C) fewer personnel needed during jacking
(D) better control capabilities
3240. (2.5.3.1-9) On a MODU, an obvious indicator of lost circulation of drilling fluid is __________.
o
o
o
(A) decreased cuttings on the shale shaker

(B) fluid level in the mud pits decreases rapidly
(C) increased cuttings on the shale shaker
(D) fluid level in the mud pits increases rapidly
3241. (2.5.3.1-10) Lost circulation can cause a kick or blowout by __________.

o
o
(A) creating a flow channel outside the casing and back to the surface
(B) lowering the density of the drilling fluid
(C) reducing the mud level in the well
(D) contaminating the drilling fluid
3242. (2.5.3.1-11) The term "lost circulation" refers to situations when drilling fluid is lost by
__________.
o
o
o
(A) an overflow in the mud pits

(B) flowing into drilled formations
(C) overflowing the drill nipple
(D) making drill string connections

Deck General
September 2015
3243. (2.5.3.1-12) Why must the drilled hole be filled with drilling mud when tripping the drill string out
of the hole?
o
o
o
(A) To keep the mud agitated

(B) To prevent reduction of fluid head on the formations
(C) To compensate for MODU heave
(D) To maintain circulation to the mud pits
3244. (2.5.3.1-13) While drilling at 4,000 feet with casing set to 2,000 feet, the well kicks with mud
weight in the hole. Mud pumps are shut down and the blowout preventer is closed. Compared to the
drilling situation, the pressure on the casing seat will be __________.
o
o
o
(A) indeterminable
(B) unchanged
(C) reduced
(D) increased
3245. (2.5.3.1-14) The test for determining the formation fracture pressure after drilling out a seat is
called a __________.
o
o
(A) well test

(B) casing test
(C) leak off test
(D) drill stem test
3246. (2.5.3.1-15) Large quantities of gas in the shale shaker area may be an indication of
__________.
o
o
o
(A) a break in the drill string

(B) high formation pressure
(C) low formation pressure
(D) a break in the riser system
3247. (2.5.3.1-19) The main function of the drawworks on a MODU is to __________.

o
o
o
(A) transport tubulars from the pipe racks to the derrick floor
(B) store and secure the excess drill line
(C) maintain constant tension on the marine riser
(D) lower and hoist the drill string into and out of the drilled hole

Deck General
September 2015
3248. (2.5.3.1-20) In MODU operations, hoisting and lowering pipe in and out of the drilled hole is the
main function of the __________.
o
o
o
(A) swivel
(B) drawworks
(C) stand pipe
(D) cathead spool
3249. (2.5.3.1-22) The element that supports the weight of the drill stem, allows the drill stem to rotate,
and provides a pressure-tight seal and passageway for the drilling mud to be pumped down the
inside of the drill stem is called the __________.
o
o
o
(A) bail
(B) cock
(C) kelly
(D) swivel
3250. (2.5.3.1-23) The element used to keep weight on the bit at a constant value in spite of up-anddown movement of a MODU during floating drilling operations is the heave or drill string
__________.
o
o
o
(A) tensioner
(B) stabilizer
(C) equalizer
(D) compensator
3251. (2.5.3.1-24) A heavy steel device that is set on the sea floor and used as a drilling template in
offshore drilling operations is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) guide frame

(B) foundation template
(C) permanent guide base
(D) temporary guide base
3252. (2.5.3.1-26) The device that allows a floating MODU to sway without bending the marine riser
system is the __________.
o
o
(A) yaw joint

(B) slip joint
(C) flex or ball joint
(D) sway joint

Deck General
September 2015
3253. (2.5.3.1-27) The pipe and special fittings used on floating offshore drilling rigs to establish a
connection between the top of the wellbore, which is on the ocean floor, and the drilling equipment,
located above the surface of the water, is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) guide pipe

(B) marine riser pipe
(C) marine casing
(D) guide base casing
3254. (2.5.3.1-29) When filling fuel-oil tank 6P on the DEEP DRILLER, it is necessary to open valve
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12
3255. (2.5.3.1-30) When filling fuel-oil tank 4S on the DEEP DRILLER, it is necessary to open valve
__________.
o
o
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12
3256. (2.5.3.2-1) What fitting should you install in the rig piping to a pump to facilitate disconnecting the
pump for servicing?
o
o
o
(A) Flange
(B) Coupling
(C) Nipple
(D) Union
3257. (2.5.3.2-3) A hydraulic accumulator aboard a MODU is designed to __________.

o
o
o
(A) act as a fluid reservoir

(B) replenish fluid to a system
(C) provide overpressure relief
(D) store fluid under pressure

Deck General
September 2015
3258. (2.5.3.2-4) What type of test determines the pressure at which the formation immediately below
the last set casing will take fluid?
o
o
(A) Drill stem

(B) Conductor
(C) Leak-off
(D) Production
3259. (2.5.3.2-5) An entry of water, gas, oil, or other formation fluid into the wellbore is called a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) gusher
(B) kick
(C) flow
(D) blowout
3260. (2.5.3.2-7) A low pressure annular preventer which is used to direct flow of kick fluids away from
the rig floor is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) diverter
(B) separator
(C) dump valve
(D) deflector
3261. (2.5.3.2-8) The retrievable subsea units that contain the pilot valves and regulators for operating
the subsea blowout preventers are called __________.
o
o
o
(A) control pods

(B) shuttle controls
(C) accumulators
(D) consoles
3262. (2.5.3.2-10) The heavy three-, four-, or six-sided length of pipe suspended from the swivel
through the rotary table and connected to the topmost joint of drill pipe to turn the drill stem as the
rotary table turns is called the __________.
o
o
o
(A) swivel
(B) bail
(C) cock
(D) kelly

Deck General
September 2015
3263. (2.5.3.2-11) What is the female section of a tool joint called?

o
o
(A) Pin
(B) Stem
(C) Box
(D) Stand
3264. (2.5.3.2-13) The end of the joint with the exterior threads is called the __________.
o
o
o
(A) box
(B) stem
(C) stand
(D) pin
3265. (2.5.3.2-14) A heavy, thick-walled tube, usually steel, used between the drill pipe and the bit in
the drill stem to weight the bit in order to improve its performance is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) heavy-walled drill pipe

(B) drill collar
(C) down hole tool
(D) tool joint
3266. (2.5.3.2-15) An integral part of a blowout preventer that serves as the closing element on an
open hole, and whose ends do not fit around the drill pipe but seal against each other and shut off
the space below completely is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) shear ram

(B) blind ram
(C) pipe ram
(D) annular ram
3267. (2.5.3.2-21) What is a pinion in a jacking system?

o
o
o
(A) Flexible shaft

(B) Gearwheel
(C) Flexible joint
(D) Flexible coupling

Deck General
September 2015
3268. (2.5.3.2-22) The pneumatic containers which store bulk dry mud additives and cement on a
MODU are called __________.
o
o
o
(A) bulk bins

(B) P-tanks
(C) mud tanks
(D) mud hoppers
3269. (2.5.3.2-24) A series of trays with sieves that vibrate to remove cuttings from the circulating fluid
in rotary drilling operations is called the __________.
o
o
o
(A) desander
(B) shale shaker
(C) settling pit
(D) desilter
3270. (2.5.3.2-25) The series of valves used to control the return flow in well control operations is
o
o
o
(A) choke manifold

(B) valve assembly
(C) accumulator manifold
(D) standpipe manifold
3271. (2.5.3.2-26) The platform that supports the derrickman when tripping pipe is called the
__________.
o
o
(A) stabbing board

(B) water table
(C) monkey board
(D) Texas deck
3272. (2.5.3.2-27) A tool consisting of a handle and releasable chain used for turning pipe or fittings of
a diameter larger than that which a pipe wrench would fit is called __________.
o
o
o
(A) makeup tongs

(B) chain tongs
(C) pipe spinner
(D) breakout wrench

Deck General
September 2015
3273. (2.5.3.2-28) What is a grooved pulley?
o
o
o
(A) Sheave
(B) Slip
(C) Reeve
(D) Block
3274. (2.5.3.2-31) A device used to enlarge the size of an existing bore hole, having teeth arranged on
its outside circumference to cut the formation as it rotates is a(n) __________.
o
o
(A) casing opener

(B) casing bit
(C) hole opener
(D) enlarger bit
3275. (2.5.3.3-1) You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to your MODU. If you close off one tank
in the line of tanks being filled, what will happen to the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same
line?
o
o
o
(A) it will increase

(B) it will decrease
(C) it will stabilize
(D) it will stop
3276. (2.5.3.3-2) What is a pinion in a jacking system?

o
o
o
(A) Flexible joint

(B) Gearwheel
(C) Flexible shaft
(D) Flexible coupling
3277. (2.5.3.3-3) What is the chief advantage of an SCR or AC-DC system over a straight DC system
for powering drilling rig machinery?
o
o
(A) Commutators are eliminated.

(B) SCR systems are simpler.
(C) Required power can be drawn from a common AC bus.
(D) Several machines can be operated from a DC bus.

Deck General
September 2015
3278. (2.5.3.3-4) The operation of hoisting the drill stem out of and returning it to the wellbore is called
a __________.
o
o
o
(A) trip
(B) fish
(C) tour
(D) thribble
3279. (2.5.3.3-5) When drilling from a MODU, the conductor casing is landed with its top extending to
just __________.
o
o
o
(A) below the sea floor

(B) below the drill floor
(C) below sea level
(D) above the sea floor
3280. (2.5.3.3-6) The space around a pipe in a wellbore, the outer wall of which may be the wall of
either the borehole or the casing, is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) down hole

(B) annulus
(C) open hole
(D) bore
3281. (2.5.3.3-9) At the instant when a string of casing being run from a MODU is landed in the well
head, __________.
o
o
(A) the weight of the casing string added to the weight of the fill-up mud is removed from the
MODU
(B) the weight of the casing inside the riser is removed from the MODU
(C) the hook load (weight of the casing string) is removed from the MODU
(D) the total weight in air of the casing string is removed from the MODU
3282. (2.5.3.3-10) When drilling from a MODU the weight in air of tubular goods on the racks is
reduced when run into the drilled hole because of the effect of __________.
o
o
o
(A) buoyancy of the mud

(B) vessel motion
(C) drill string compensators
(D) formation pressure

Deck General
September 2015
3283. (2.5.3.3-12) A frame with two, or sometimes four, arms through which are threaded the
guidelines and which is used to keep the drill stem and bit in line with the center opening in the
temporary guide base is the __________.
o
o
(A) drill stem guide

(B) casing guide
(C) guide frame
(D) drill string frame
3284. (2.5.3.3-13) At the instant when a string of casing being run from a MODU is landed in the well
head, __________.
o
o
(A) the total weight in air of the casing string is removed from the MODU
(B) the weight of the casing string added to the weight of the fill-up mud is removed from the
MODU
(C) the hook load (weight of the casing string) is removed from the MODU
(D) the weight of the casing inside the riser is removed from the MODU
3285. (2.5.3.3-15) A large valve, usually installed above the ram preventers, that forms a seal in the
annular space between the pipe and wellbore or, if no pipe is present, on the wellbore itself is called
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) accumulator
(B) annulus
(C) automatic choke
(D) annular blowout preventer
3286. (2.5.3.3-17) The connected joints of pipe, usually made of three joints of pipe approximately 90
feet long, racked in the derrick when making a trip are called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) stand
(B) string
(C) joint
(D) standpipe

Deck General
September 2015
3287. (2.5.3.3-18) A heavy, thick-walled tube, usually steel, used between the drill pipe and the bit in
the drill stem to weight the bit in order to improve its performance is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) heavy-walled drill pipe

(B) down hole tool
(C) tool joint
(D) drill collar
3288. (2.5.3.3-19) The vertical height and density of the drilling fluid are used to determine the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) casing size

(B) diameter of the well
(C) presence of hydrogen sulfide gasses
(D) hydrostatic pressure of the drilling fluid
3289. (2.5.3.3-20) A well kick while drilling from a MODU will cause __________.
o
o
(A) decreased cuttings on the shale shaker

(B) increased cuttings on the shale shaker
(C) increased fluid level in the mud pits
(D) decreased fluid level in the mud pits
3290. (2.5.3.3-21) The most accurate method for measuring drilling mud required to fill the hole when
drill stem is removed is by use of a __________.
o
o
o
(A) mud return flow indicator

(B) pit level change
(C) pump stroke count
(D) trip tank
3291. (2.5.3.3-22) A drilling bit which is doughnut shaped to permit recovery of the center portion of the
hole drilled is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) hole reamer

(B) diverter bit
(C) conventional bit
(D) core bit

Deck General
September 2015
3292. (2.5.3.3-23) Oil well casing will fail when the external pressure exceeds the internal pressure by
a differential equal to the casing's rated __________.
o
o
o
(A) tensile strength

(B) hoop stress
(C) burst pressure
(D) collapse pressure
3293. (2.5.3.3-24) A casing string that is run below the previous casing string, but does not extend to
the wellhead is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) squnch joint

(B) liner
(C) production string
(D) packer
3294. (2.5.3.3-25) A special device that, when fitted into the rotary table, transmits torque to the kelly
and simultaneously permits vertical movement of the kelly to make the hole is called a __________.
o
o
o
(A) rotary bushing

(B) master bushing
(C) kelly slips
(D) kelly bushing
3295. (2.5.3.3-26) To prevent the riser system from buckling under its own weight, upward tension is
provided by the __________.
o
o
(A) guideline tensioning system

(B) riser stabilizers
(C) riser tensioning system
(D) guideline stabilizers
3296. (2.5.3.3-27) The joint of the riser in a marine riser system that compensates for heave, the upand-down motion of a floater, is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) flex joint

(B) slip joint
(C) riser joint
(D) heave joint

Deck General
September 2015
3297. (2.5.3.3-28) For the DEEP DRILLER, the maximum permissible offset which can be tolerated
while drilling is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 10% of water depth

(B) 6% of water depth
(C) 4% of water depth
(D) 2% of water depth
3298. (2.5.3.3-29) What is the weight in long tons of 180 barrels of 15 pound per gallon drilling mud?
o
o
o
(A) 522.67 long tons

(B) 50.63 long tons
(C) 34.84 long tons
(D) 3.38 long tons
3299. (2.5.3.3-30) What is the weight of 100 barrels of 17 pound per gallon drilling mud?
o
o
(A) 24.9 kips

(B) 41.5 kips
(C) 71.4 kips
(D) 93.0 kips
3300. (2.5.3.3-31) The sounding level of 12 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 1S of the COASTAL DRILLER
is 5.5 feet. What is the weight of the mud?
o
o
o
(A) 104.53 kips

(B) 114.37 kips
(C) 116.45 kips
(D) 127.41 kips
3301. (2.5.3.3-32) The sounding level of 17 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 2S of the COASTAL DRILLER
is 7.75 feet. What is the weight of the mud?
o
o
(A) 153.16 kips

(B) 156.13 kips
(C) 194.77 kips
(D) 198.54 kips

Deck General
September 2015
3302. (2.5.4.1-1) After using a CO2 extinguisher on a MODU, it should be __________.

o
o
(A) hydrostatically tested

(B) retagged
(C) recharged
(D) put back in service if some CO2 remains
3303. (2.5.4.1-20) What equipment is included in the fireman's outfit?

o
o
(A) Approved work vest

(B) Chemical protection face shield
(C) Self contained breathing apparatus
(D) Marlinspike
3304. (2.5.4.1-2) On a MODU, a CO2 extinguisher is checked by __________.

o
o
o
(A) reading the gage pressure

(B) seeing if the seal has been broken
(C) discharging a small amount of CO2
(D) weighing the extinguisher
3305. (2.5.4.1-7) A CO2 extinguisher which has lost 10% of its charge must be __________.
o
o
o
(A) recharged
(B) hydro tested
(C) weighed again in one month
(D) used at the earliest opportunity
3306. (2.5.4.1-3) Clean air standards referred to as "Grade D" apply to compressed air for use in
__________.
o
o
o
(A) driving air-powered plunger pumps

(B) bladder-type accumulators
(C) high pressure fluid accumulators
(D) filling open-circuit breathing systems

Deck General
September 2015
3307. (2.5.4.1-4) The record of tests and inspection of firefighting equipment on board a MODU must
include __________.
o
o
(A) the weight of the charge

(B) recommendations for the next test
(C) the name of the person conducting the test
3308. (2.5.4.1-5) Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a MODU must be stowed
__________.
o
o
o
(A) in a separate and accessible location

(B) in an unlocked cabinet in the machinery space
(C) at a fire hydrant location
(D) in a locked cabinet in the machinery space
3309. (2.5.4.1-8) Each hand portable fire extinguisher on a MODU must be marked with __________.
o
o
o
(A) the names of the individuals qualified to use it

(B) an identification number different from other extinguishers on the unit
(C) the date that it was installed on the unit
(D) the name of the unit on which it is located
3310. (2.5.4.1-9) Any firefighting equipment that is carried in addition to the minimum required number
on a MODU must __________.
o
o
o
(A) be stowed in a separate area

(B) meet the applicable standards
(C) be marked as additional equipment
3311. (2.5.4.1-10) The size of fire hydrant hose connections must be either 1-1/2 inches or
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 2-1/2 inches

(B) 3-1/2 inches
(C) 1 inch
(D) 3 inches

Deck General
September 2015
3312. (2.5.4.1-11) Each fire hydrant serving machinery spaces containing oil fired boilers, internal
combustion machinery, or oil fuel units must be equipped with a __________.
o
o
(A) marine strainer

(B) pick axe
(C) low-velocity spray applicator
(D) fireman's outfit
3313. (2.5.4.1-12) On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with at least one
spanner and at least one __________.
o
o
o
(A) fire axe

(B) scupper
(C) sandbag
(D) hose rack
3314. (2.5.4.1-13) On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which
has a nominal diameter of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 3 or 4 inches
(B) 2-1/2 or 3-1/2 inches
(C) 2 or 3 inches
(D) 1-1/2 or 2-1/2 inches
3315. (2.5.4.1-14) Each part of the fire-main system located on an exposed deck must be __________.
o
o
o
(A) protected against freezing

(B) numbered sequentially
(C) locked to prevent theft
(D) pressurized at all times
3316. (2.5.4.1-15) Fire extinguishers used on MODU's are numbered by size I through V, with I being
__________.
o
o
(A) the most effective

(B) used for electrical fires only
(C) the smallest
(D) the most accessible

Deck General
September 2015
3317. (2.5.4.1-16) The international shore connection required on a MODU is designed to __________.
o
o
o
(A) allow hook up of fire fighting water from a dock or another vessel
(B) allow emergency use of the fire main for deballasting
(C) permit discharge of waste oil
(D) satisfy pollution prevention requirements
3318. (2.5.4.1-17) Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for CO2 systems protecting
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) cargo compartments

(B) machinery spaces
(C) living quarters
(D) galley
3319. (2.5.4.1-18) What must be provided on a MODU helicopter deck that is equipped with fueling
facilities?
o
o
o
(A) Foam fire protection system

(B) Fire alarm
(C) Foam testing station
(D) Fuel testing station
3320. (2.5.4.1-19) How many fireman's outfits are required on a MODU?

o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
3321. (2.5.4.1-21) Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed __________.
o
o
o
(A) immediately
(B) following control of flooding
(C) immediately after restoring vital services
(D) following establishment of fire boundaries

Deck General
September 2015
3322. (2.5.4.1-22) A fire in a ballast pump room can be brought under control with minimal impact on
stability by __________.
o
o
o
(A) cooling the outside bulkheads with water

(B) shutting all sources of air into the compartment
(C) flooding the compartment with salt water
(D) closing the sea chest
3323. (2.5.4.1-23) What is best suited for fighting a fire in a ballast control room?
o
o
(A) Dry chemical system

(B) Steam smothering system
(C) Carbon dioxide system
(D) Automatic sprinkler system
3324. (2.5.4.1-24) On a MODU, a fixed carbon dioxide or other approved system must be installed
__________.
o
o
o
(A) where oil or chemical drums are stored

(B) in paint lockers
(C) in all battery storage locations
(D) in all of the above locations
3325. (2.5.4.1-25) The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire on a MODU is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) dry chemical

(B) foam
(C) water
(D) CO2
3326. (2.5.4.1-26) What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system on board an offshore rig?
o
o
o
(A) exposed hard piping

(B) The fire hose
(C) The hydrant valve
(D) The fire pump

Deck General
September 2015
3327. (2.5.4.1-27) Smoking in bed on a MODU is prohibited __________.
o
o
o
(A) at all times

(B) during evening hours
(C) during drilling operations
(D) unless another person is present
3328. (2.5.4.1-28) The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is __________.

o
o
o
(A) loss of the mooring system

(B) burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas
(C) heat damage to helicopter structure
(D) rotating and flying debris
3329. (2.5.4.1-29) The Coast Guard requires machinery spaces and enclosed mud handling spaces to
have __________.
o
o
(A) alternative control stations

(B) smoke and/or fire detection system
(C) remote ventilation shutdowns
(D) remote pump shutdowns
3330. (2.5.4.2-4) On a MODU, the locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus
must __________.
o
o
o
(A) be marked "SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS"

(B) be located in close proximity to the main control station
(C) be equipped with battery powered emergency lighting
3331. (2.5.4.2-1) The signal to man emergency stations on MODU's is __________.

o
o
o
(A) 30 seconds on/30 seconds off alternating signal

(B) announced over PA system
(C) continuous ringing of general alarm signal
(D) intermittent ringing of general alarm for not less than 10 seconds

Deck General
September 2015
3332. (2.5.4.2-2) Which information MUST be entered on the muster list?

o
o
o
(A) Listing of approved emergency equipment

(B) Duties and station of each person during emergencies
(C) Use and application of special equipment
(D) Names of all crew members
3333. (2.5.4.2-13) The MODU has suffered a casualty which requires an orderly evacuation of the unit
using the lifeboats and liferafts. Among the items to accomplish in preparing to evacuate the unit is
__________.
o
o
(A) distributing self-contained breathing devices

(B) taking a soil sample of the bottom
(C) securing the unit as in preparation for a severe storm
3334. (2.5.4.2-3) At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their stations and demonstrate their
ability to perform the duties assigned to them __________.
o
o
o
(A) in the Muster List ("Station Bill")

(B) by the Coast Guard regulations
(C) at the previous safety meeting
(D) by the person conducting the drill
3335. (2.5.4.2-5) A MODU must have on board a first-aid kit that is approved by the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Mine Safety and Health Administration

(B) Occupational Safety and Health Administration
3336. (2.5.4.2-6) Offshore drilling units must have at least two ring buoys with water lights that, when
released from the mounting rack, activate a __________.
o
o
o
(A) smoke signal

(B) steam whistle
(C) radio signal
(D) battery powered horn

Deck General
September 2015
3337. (2.5.4.2-7) The Master or person in charge on a MODU shall insure that line throwing equipment
is not operated __________.
o
o
o
(A) during a rain storm

(B) in an explosive atmosphere
(C) by other than senior rig personnel
(D) near a lifeboat station
3338. (2.5.4.2-8) Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be stowed in a manner which will permit
__________.
o
o
(A) replacement of the battery without exposure to the weather

(B) it to remain attached to the unit
(C) it to float free if the unit sinks
(D) easy access to its storage compartment
3339. (2.5.4.2-9) The immersion suit requirements for MODU's apply to units operating in the Atlantic
Ocean above __________.
o
o
o
(A) 20North and below 20South

(B) 25North and below 25South
(C) 30North and below 30South
(D) 32North and below 32South
3340. (2.5.4.2-10) Where would you find the FCC authorization for transmitting on your rig's EPIRB?
o
o
o
(A) On the side of the EPIRB transmitter

(B) In the radio log
(C) On the Certificate of Inspection
(D) On the Ship Station License
3341. (2.5.4.2-11) The muster list must be posted in conspicuous locations and signed by the
__________.
o
o
(A) safety officer

(B) owner
(C) Master
(D) Coast Guard Officer approving the bill

Deck General
September 2015
3342. (2.5.4.2-12) The routes to be used during evacuation of the MODU are shown in the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) Muster List ("Station Bill")

(B) official log
(C) control room under glass
(D) posted Fire Control/Lifesaving Plan
3343. (2.5.4.3-1) The limit switches on a MODUs survival-craft winch system __________.
o
o
(A) stop the winch in case the craft weighs too much
(B) limit the ascent rate
(C) stop the winch just before the craft reaches the final stowage position
(D) limit the amount of cable on the drum
3344. (2.5.4.3-2) After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been
afloat over a long period require __________.
o
o
o
(A) frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water
(B) regular checks of bilge levels
(C) frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air
(D) use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise
3345. (2.5.4.3-3) When a davit-launched raft is lowered from a MODU, upon becoming waterborne, the
raft is released by __________.
o
o
o
(A) releasing the boarding flap and the bowsing lines

(B) activating the release lock of the hook
(C) pulling smartly on the knobbed cocking lanyard
(D) the effects of buoyancy removing the weight of the raft from the hook
3346. (2.5.4.3-4) What is the primary advantage of a davit-launched liferaft in comparison to an

inflatable liferaft?
o
o
(A) The davit-launched liferaft is made of fire-retardant material.

(B) The davit-launched liferaft is easier to maintain.
(C) The davit-launched liferaft enables personnel to enter the raft without having to enter the
water.
(D) The davit-launched liferaft has a built-in sprinkler system for fire protection.

Deck General
September 2015
3347. (2.5.4.3-5) Prior to boarding from a MODU, a davit-launched liferaft should be well ventilated of
excess __________.
o
o
o
(A) carbon dioxide gas

(B) hydrocarbon gas
(C) carbon monoxide gas
(D) freon gas
3348. (2.5.4.3-6) The davit aboard a MODU is used to __________.

o
o
(A) move equipment around the deck

(B) lower food and water to personnel in a liferaft
(C) lower the liferaft down with its full complement
(D) lower personnel down by a transfer basket
3349. (2.5.4.3-7) The muster list shows each rig hand's muster station, his duties during abandonment,
basic instructions, and __________.
o
o
o
(A) all emergency signals

(B) work schedule
(C) instructions for lowering the survival craft
(D) the time each weekly drill will be held
3350. (2.5.4.3-8) An offshore drilling unit must have enough inflatable liferafts to accommodate at least
what percentage of the persons allowed?
o
o
o
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%
3351. (2.5.4.3-9) On offshore drilling units each inflatable liferaft that is not intended for davit launching
must be stowed so as to float free or be __________.
o
o
o
(A) equipped with a hydrostatic release

(B) replaced every 12 months
(C) located above the main deck area
(D) stowed in approved racks

Deck General
September 2015
3352. (2.5.4.3-10) In how many locations must lifeboats be installed on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
3353. (2.5.4.3-11) The person assigned to command a lifeboat or inflatable liferaft on a MODU shall
have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat or liferaft. The list shall include each person's
__________.
o
o
o
(A) duties
(B) home address
(C) home phone number
(D) nearest relative's address
3354. (2.5.4.3-12) Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be __________.

o
o
o
(A) marked with the name of the unit

(B) Coast Guard approved
(C) equipped with a water light
3355. (2.5.4.3-13) On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?
o
o
o
(A) For use during boat drills

(B) For use during fire drills
(C) To replace a damaged life preserver
(D) At no time
3356. (2.5.4.3-15) According to the MODU regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to be
marked __________.
o
o
o
(A) on the Certificate of Inspection

(B) on a sign next to the liferaft
(C) on the Muster List ("Station Bill")
(D) in the Operations Manual

Deck General
September 2015
3357. (2.5.4.3-16) On offshore drilling units, each EPIRB or SART must be tested once every
__________.
o
o
(A) day
(B) week
(C) month
(D) year
3358. (2.5.4.3-17) The Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each person's lifeboat station, duties during
abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.
o
o
o
(A) the time each weekly drill will be held

(B) work schedule
(C) instructions for lowering the lifeboats
(D) all emergency signals
3359. (2.5.4.3-1) Each person on a MODU carrying immersion suits must wear the immersion suit in a
boat drill, or participate in a drill which includes donning the suit and being instructed in its use at
least once every __________.
o
o
o
(A) month
(B) 2 months
(C) 3 months
(D) 6 months
3360. (2.5.4.3-19) During the required periodic abandon ship drill aboard a MODU, each person not
assigned duties in the muster list is __________.
o
o
o
(A) instructed in the use of life jackets

(B) shown a video demonstrating lifeboat launching
(C) instructed in the use of portable fire extinguishers
(D) not required to attend the boat drill
3361. (2.5.4.3-20) On a MODU, each EPIRB or SART must be tested at least once __________.
o
o
(A) each week

(B) every two weeks
(C) each month
(D) every two months

Deck General
September 2015
3362. (2.5.4.3-21) Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be tested using the integrated test circuit
and output indicator every __________.
o
o
(A) week
(B) two weeks
(C) month
(D) two months
3363. (2.5.4.3-22) On offshore drilling units, the lifeboats must be lowered to the water and
maneuvered at least once every __________.
o
o
o
(A) 2 months
(B) 3 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 12 months
3364. (2.5.4.3-23) On offshore drilling units, the lifeboat motors shall be operated in the ahead and
astern position at least once each __________.
o
o
o
(A) day
(B) week
(C) month
(D) year
3365. (2.5.4.3-24) A life preserver or buoyant work vest is required to be worn on a MODU when a
person is __________.
o
o
(A) working on the rig floor

(B) operating line throwing equipment
(C) working over water
(D) working on the pipe racks

Deck General
September 2015
3366. (2.5.6.1-30) What is the length of the catenary when the DEEP DRILLER is anchored in 600 feet
of water and the anchor line tension is 170 kips?
o
o
(A) 891 feet

(B) 1348 feet
(C) 1493 feet
(D) 1657 feet
3367. (2.5.6.1-16) A permanent chain chasing system is used to __________.

o
o
(A) recover anchors which have lost their buoys

(B) clean anchor chain as it's hauled in
(C) run and retrieve anchors
(D) prepare anchor chain for inspection
3368. (2.5.9-82) While off-loading from an offshore supply vessel with the crane, the wind increases in
strength and changes direction significantly, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) stop off-loading, but keep the offshore supply vessel in the present location
(B) continue off-loading with no changes
(C) expedite off-loading
(D) move the offshore supply vessel to the downwind side
3369. (2.5.5-10) What lighting characteristic is required of an obstruction light on a mobile offshore
drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf?
o
o
o
(A) Quick-flashing
(B) Flashing
(C) Fixed
(D) Occulting
3370. (2.5.6.3-14) Given the same water depth and line tension, the length of the ground cable of a 90
pound/foot mooring chain compared to the length of the ground cable of a 19 pound/ft wire rope
mooring line will be __________.
o
o
o
(A) identical
(B) shorter
(C) indeterminable
(D) longer

Deck General
September 2015
3371. (2.5.6.3-26) Leg penetration to depths which require pullout forces greater than that which can
be supplied by the buoyancy of the hull may exist in __________.
o
o
o
(A) soft to firm clays

(B) soft mud
(C) silt
(D) sand
3372. (2.5.6.3-1) When a MODU is afloat in equilibrium, the horizontal component of mooring line
tensions should equal __________.
o
o
o
(A) drilling forces

(B) environmental forces
(C) weight forces
(D) buoyancy forces
3373. (2.5.9-36) An obstruction on a helodeck is any object that might present a hazard to the
__________.
o
o
(A) pilot's visibility

(B) loading of cargo
(C) rotor blades and landing gear
(D) unloading of passengers
3374. (2.5.6.2-3) Your semisubmersible drilling unit is moving onto a location in shallow water with a
very hard bottom. What is the most effective means of maintaining your position at this location
during severe weather?
o
o
(A) Install fluke angle blocks on all your LWT anchors

(B) Running out all the anchor chain available
(C) Piggyback all anchors and pretension to above the expected tensions
(D) Remove fluke angle blocks on all your LWT anchors
3375. (2.5.6.4-2) When a marine surveyor is employed to assist in the move of a mobile offshore
drilling unit, he __________.
o
o
(A) must be designated as the person in charge of the rig

(B) relieves the Offshore Installation Manager at the moment the rig is free from the bottom
(C) is a specialist who is hired to provide advice and guidance on aspects of the move
(D) becomes responsible for the safe movement of the rig

Deck General
September 2015
3376. (2.5.6.3-29) For stronger leg support when the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, locate a set of
horizontal leg braces as near as possible to the __________.
o
o
o
(A) bottom of the hull

(B) center of each upper hull guide
(C) top of the jack house
(D) center of each lower hull guide
3377. (2.5.6.3-7) The initial tension set in the mooring system of a MODU establishes the __________.
o
o
(A) maximum time it will take to disconnect the riser package in the event of a storm
(B) minimum amount of ballast needed to keep the vessel at operating draft during normal drilling
operations
(C) distance the unit can be offset from the wellbore before the restoring forces oppose the
environmental forces
(D) maximum water depth at which drilling operations can be conducted
3378. (2.5.9-54) The fluke angle of an anchor system is the angle between the __________.
o
o
(A) shank and the sea bottom

(B) flukes and the shackle
(C) flukes and the shank
(D) mooring line and the sea bottom
3379. (2.5.9-7) With adaptor blocks/chocks in place on an LWT stock anchor, the trip angle will be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50
3380. (2.5.6.1-14) Your semisubmersible drilling unit is moored on station and is experiencing winds
from the north. What will be the effect if you increase the length of the anchor chains you have
deployed to the north?
o
o
o
(A) It will increase your draft.

(B) It will increase your operating tensions.
(C) It will significantly reduce your stability.
(D) It will increase the holding power of those chains.

Deck General
September 2015
3381. (2.5.9-29) When transferring personnel with a MODU crane, the weight of the loaded personnel
carrier must not exceed __________.
o
o
(A) 1/2 of the breaking strength of the hoist rope times the parts of line used
(B) 1/3 of the breaking strength of the hoist rope times the parts of line used
(C) 1/3 of the static rated load at the lift radius
(D) 1/2 of the static rated load at the lift radius
3382. (2.5.9-8) What are the two main types of stud link chain?
o
o
o
(A) Flash-butt welded chain and Oil Rig chain

(B) Oil Rig chain and Oil Field Stud Link chain
(C) Flash-butt welded chain and Di-Lok chain
(D) Oil Field Stud Link chain and Flash-butt welded chain
3383. (2.5.6.1-18) Cable tension for catenary calculations is taken at the __________.
o
o
o
(A) contact point of chain with seabed

(B) anchor
(C) chain locker
(D) fairlead
3384. (2.5.9-43) A device commonly used to secure the pendant wire when it is initially passed to an
anchor handling vessel is __________.
o
o
(A) retaining hook

(B) connecting link
(C) pelican hook
(D) shackle
3385. (2.5.5-24) While a MODU is underway, a look-out must be maintained __________.

o
o
o
(A) only during the hours of darkness

(B) only when other vessels are present
(C) only during periods of restricted visibility
(D) at all times

Deck General
September 2015
3386. (2.5.6.3-24) The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 1 degree
and a roll period of 7 seconds. What is the maximum recommended water depth for elevating?
o
o
(A) 50 feet
(B) 100 feet
(C) 150 feet
(D) 200 feet
3387. (2.5.6.2-13) In anticipation of heavy weather, it is decided to deballast the DEEP DRILLER to
survival draft. The marine riser should be disconnected, pulled, and laid down. After doing so, the
riser tension will be __________.
o
o
(A) equal to the weight of the riser

(B) applied at the riser tensioner sheaves
(C) zero
(D) dependent on the water depth
3388. (2.5.5-1) Which shape shown in illustration D016RR below would be displayed by a mobile
offshore drilling unit that is being towed more than 200 meters astern of a towing vessel?
o
o
o
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
3389. (2.5.6.2-2) The overturning forces acting on a floating jack-up are generally dominated by
__________.
o
o
o
(A) wind
(B) tide
(C) current
(D) waves
3390. (2.5.6.3-10) Given the same water depth and line tension, the holding power of a 19 pound/foot
wire rope mooring system in comparison to the holding power of a 90 pound/foot chain mooring
system will be __________.
o
o
(A) greater
(B) indeterminable
(C) weaker
(D) equal

Deck General
September 2015
3391. (2.5.5-20) When would a jack-up drilling rig be considered "underway" under the International
Rules of the Road?
o
o
o
(A) When it is being towed to a new location

(B) When it is elevated and taking on preload
(C) When it is moored to a dock in the shipyard
(D) When it is elevated and engaged in drilling
3392. (2.5.6.4-4) In securing deck loads for an ocean tow, drill pipe should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) provided with bulwarks at both ends of their bays

(B) limited to no more than five courses high
(C) galvanized to protect against corrosion
(D) held in place with heavy materials such as spare pendant wire
3393. (2.5.6.3-12) Given the same water depth and mooring tension, the length of the ground cable of
a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line in comparison to a 90 pound/foot mooring chain will be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) shorter
(B) longer
(C) identical
(D) indeterminable
3394. (2.5.9-6) With adaptor blocks/chocks removed from an LWT stock anchor, the trip angle will be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50
3395. (2.5.6.1-10) What effect is achieved from soaking an anchor?

o
o
(A) It stabilizes the mooring system.

(B) It gives the palms time to trip the anchor.
(C) It allows the bottom soil to consolidate.
(D) It lubricates the anchor for better tripping.

Deck General
September 2015
3396. (2.5.6.3-27) Scouring is the result of __________.

o
o
o
(A) elevating in mud-slide zones

(B) penetrating rapidly through a hard crust into weaker soils
(C) extracting legs from soils with high cohesion
(D) interruption of the normal current flow by the footing
3397. (2.5.6.4-16) The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the
maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical
motion, the motion is __________.
o
o
o
(A) unsatisfactory, ballast to survival draft

(B) satisfactory, continue transit
(C) unsatisfactory, change course and speed
(D) unsatisfactory, place unit in standby
3398. (2.5.6.3-16) Consideration should be given in planning for the mooring orientation in a new
location so that in adverse weather a crane is available to off-load the supply vessel on what side of
the unit?
o
o
(A) Crosswind side

(B) Upwind side
(C) Leeward side
(D) Weather side
3399. (2.5.6.4-9) The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 10 seconds and the
o
o
o
(A) unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft

(B) satisfactory, place unit in standby
(C) satisfactory, continue tripping
(D) unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks

Deck General
September 2015
3400. (2.5.6.1-2) What could cause a significant difference between actual chain tension and the
tension measured by the tensiometer?
o
o
o
(A) A significant difference between air and water temperature

(B) The type of anchor and mooring line being used
(C) The type of bottom in which the MODU is anchored
(D) The chain contacting a chock or fairlead between the tensiometer and the lower swivel
fairlead
3401. (2.5.9-5) The LWT anchor has two angular positions for the flukes. These are __________.
o
o
o
(A) 30 and 40
(B) 30 and 50
(C) 30 and 60
(D) 40 and 60
maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometer is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical
o
o
o
(A) satisfactory, continue tripping

(B) unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks
(C) unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft
(D) unsatisfactory, place unit in standby
3403. (2.5.6.1-5) When piggybacking anchors, the distance between the primary anchor and the
secondary anchor is determined by __________.
o
o
o
(A) water depth

(B) anchor types
(C) bottom conditions
(D) workboat winch capacity
3404. (2.5.6.1-27) The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 700 feet of water. The tension on anchor line #3 is
200 kips. What is the vertical component of chain tension for that line?
o
o
o
(A) 59.1 long tons

(B) 60.9 long tons
(C) 89.3 long tons
(D) 487.2 long tons

Deck General
September 2015
3405. (2.5.9-9) What is a major disadvantage of Di-Lok chain compared with Oil Rig Quality (stud link)
chain in floating drilling rig operations?
o
o
o
(A) Higher weight

(B) Shorter fatigue life
(C) Lower strength
(D) Greater expense
3406. (2.5.6.4-3) A mat-type drilling unit tows more slowly than a jack-up unit due to __________.
o
o
o
(A) the drag of the mat

(B) its tubular legs
(C) the design of the bow
(D) its deeper draft
3407. (2.5.5-31) Under what condition are you allowed to depart from the rules of the road?
o
o
(A) When authorized by the rig superintendent

(B) Under no conditions
(C) To avoid immediate danger
(D) To comply with an operator's requirement
3408. (2.5.5-14) The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the
requirements for __________.
o
o
o
(A) minimum horsepower for tugs involved in rig moves

(B) lighting of mobile offshore drilling units being towed
(C) the display of load line markings
(D) lights that must be displayed on anchor buoys
3409. (2.5.5-11) An obstruction light on a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer
Continental Shelf, shall have a lens that is visible over an arc of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 60
(B) 90
(C) 180
(D) 360

Deck General
September 2015
3410. (2.5.6.1-25) The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 700 feet of water. The average tension on the
mooring lines is 200 kips. What is the total vertical component of chain tension?
o
o
(A) 60.9 long tons

(B) 472.8 long tons
(C) 487.2 long tons
(D) 714.4 long tons
3411. (2.5.6.4-7) When cargo aboard a jack-up in transit becomes adrift, the tow vessel should be
asked to __________.
o
o
o
(A) turn into the seas

(B) turn to be parallel to the seas
(C) reduce speed
(D) increase speed
3412. (2.5.5-2) A jack-up drilling unit elevated on the Outer Continental Shelf must have a fog horn that
will sound __________.
o
o
o
(A) a 2-second blast every 20 seconds

(B) a 4-second blast every 20 seconds
(C) an 8-second blast every 30 seconds
(D) a 10-second blast every 30 seconds
3413. (2.5.5-27) The prohibition against displaying lights which may be confused with required
navigation lights applies __________.
o
o
o
(A) from sunset to sunrise and during restricted visibility

(B) only when operating in a traffic separation scheme
(C) only when other vessels are in the area
(D) only when under tow
3414. (2.5.5-13) To determine what navigation lights and day-shapes must be displayed on mobile
offshore drilling units under tow, you should check the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Minerals Management Service rules

(B) Safety of Life at Sea Convention
(C) American Bureau of Shipping classification rules
(D) International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea

Deck General
September 2015
3415. (2.5.5-3) A mobile offshore drilling unit will show the day-shape shown in illustration D010RR
below to indicate which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) being towed

(B) aground
(C) at anchor
(D) drilling
3416. (2.5.6.1-15) After deploying the anchor, a permanent chain chaser is __________.
o
o
o
(A) connected to a buoy at the anchor

(B) removed from the anchor chain
(C) connected to a buoy halfway down the chain
(D) stripped back to the rig and secured
3417. (2.5.6.3-21) While going on location in 250 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the
COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the single amplitude pitch period should be longer than
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 0.2 second

(B) 0.4 second
(C) 4.9 seconds
(D) 13.9 seconds
3418. (2.5.6.2-15) The DEEP DRILLER is drilling on location at a 60 foot draft. Waves are approaching
within 2 feet of the underside of the spider deck. You should __________.
o
o
o
(A) continue drilling while ballasting to a 20 foot draft maximum air gap
(B) suspend drilling operations and deballast to a 45 foot draft
(C) deballast when the waves just begin to hit the underside of the spider deck
(D) reduce tension on all anchor chains to increase draft
3419. (2.5.6.1-23) An effective braking system for windlasses on rigs in deep water is a(n)
__________.
o
o
o
(A) hydraulic clutch

(B) electrical regenerative braking system
(C) larger chain stopper
(D) disc backstopping brake

Deck General
September 2015
3420. (2.5.9-20) A measurement device for inspecting anchor chain is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) go-no-go gauge

(B) amp probe
(C) slide rule
(D) derrick tape
3421. (2.5.5-4) Obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units on the waters of the U.S. Outer
Continental Shelf must be displayed __________.
o
o
(A) at all times

(B) whenever visibility is restricted
(C) between sunset and sunrise
(D) whenever vessels approach within one-half mile
3422. (2.5.5-5) What agency is responsible for enforcing the rules for obstruction lights on mobile
offshore drilling units?
o
o

(D) Department of Energy
3423. (2.5.6.3-22) While in 150 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 1
degree, the platform pitch period for going on location should be longer than __________.
o
o
(A) 0.2 second

(B) 3.2 seconds
(C) 7.0 seconds
(D) 9.2 seconds
3424. (2.5.5-6) A mobile offshore drilling unit must display obstruction lights when it is on the waters
over the Outer Continental Shelf and is __________.
o
o
o
(A) under tow

(B) fixed to the seabed
(C) underway

Deck General
September 2015
3425. (2.5.6.1-21) When dragging of an anchor occurs, you must either reposition it at greater range or
__________.
o
o
(A) adjust the tensiometer

(B) reduce the conductor tension
(C) use a piggyback (backing) anchor
(D) increase the riser tension
3426. (2.5.5-7) When a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf
has more than one obstruction light, the lights must be operated to flash __________.
o
o
o
(A) at the same time

(B) in sequence at intervals of ten seconds
(C) in sequence at intervals of five seconds
(D) in sequence at intervals of fifteen seconds
3427. (2.5.5-8) What color are obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units that are located on the
waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf seaward of the line of demarcation?
o
o
o
(A) Blue
(B) White
(C) Yellow
(D) Red
3428. (2.5.5-9) The requirements for obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units apply on all
waters __________.
o
o
o
(A) outside the boundary lines that are covered by International Rules of the Road
(B) over the Outer Continental Shelf and on waters under the jurisdiction of the United States
(C) over the prohibited zone defined in the Oil Pollution Control Act of 1961
(D) outside the lines of demarcation that are covered by the U.S. navigational rules
3429. (2.5.5-12) A mobile offshore drilling unit is on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf. It
has a length of 220 feet and a breadth of 190 feet. Where must the obstruction lights be located?
o
o
o
(A) At the bow of the rig

(B) At the bow and stern of the rig
(C) At the top of the drill mast
(D) On each corner of the rig

Deck General
September 2015
3430. (2.5.9-14) What should be done after repairing a surface crack on a link of anchor chain by
grinding?
o
o
(A) Post heat the area

(B) Galvanize the area
(C) Examine the area by magnetic particle inspection
(D) Replace the chain in service
3431. (2.5.6.4-19) While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single
amplitude rolls of 10 with a period of 8 seconds. You should __________.
o
o
o
(A) ballast the rig to a 45 foot draft and check the vessel motions
(B) continue towing operations at a 19.5 foot draft
(C) ballast the rig to a 60 foot draft and continue towing operations
(D) alter course to bring the wind off the starboard beam
3432. (2.5.5-15) Where will you find the requirements for the lights that must be displayed on a mobile
offshore drilling unit that is being towed?
o
o
o
(A) Coast Pilot

(B) COLREGS
(C) Notice to Mariners
(D) Light List
3433. (2.5.5-16) For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a non-self-propelled mobile
offshore drilling unit under tow is considered to be a __________.
o
o
o
(A) vessel
(B) non-displacement vessel
(C) power-driven vessel
(D) limited vessel

Deck General
September 2015
3434. (2.5.6.2-9) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit).
Excessive motion makes it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the
stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet,
and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new margin on the maximum
allowable KG?
o
o
o
(A) 6.23 feet

(B) 5.11 feet
(C) 4.86 feet
(D) 4.06 feet
3435. (2.5.6.2-6) When the air temperature is just below 32F, snow FIRST adheres to __________.
o
o
o
(A) vertical surfaces

(B) leeward surfaces
(C) surfaces near the waterline
(D) horizontal surfaces
3436. (2.5.5-18) For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a jack-up drilling rig under tow
is considered to be a __________.
o
o
o
(A) power-driven vessel

(B) vessel
(C) non-displacement vessel
(D) limited vessel
3437. (2.5.6.2-7) It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which
the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the
current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the bow, the total
environmental force would be __________.
o
o
o
(A) 620 kips

(B) 595 kips
(C) 475 kips
(D) 425 kips

Deck General
September 2015
3438. (2.5.5-17) What would be considered a vessel under the International Rules of the Road?
o
o
o
(A) A semisubmersible drilling rig drifting after breaking a tow line

(B) A semisubmersible drilling rig under tow
(C) A jack-up rig under tow
3439. (2.5.5-19) For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a non-self-propelled,
semisubmersible drilling unit under tow is considered to be a __________.
o
o
o
(A) vessel
(B) limited vessel
(C) power-driven vessel
(D) non-displacement vessel
3440. (2.5.6.2-4) For a semisubmersible moored in heavy weather conditions, the leeward lines should
be paid out, and the windward lines adjusted so that __________.
o
o
o
(A) at least 1,000 feet of chain lie along the bottom

(B) several weather lines carry about the same tension
(C) the unit remains as close to the hole as possible
(D) the vertical component of chain tension at the lower fairlead is not excessive
3441. (2.5.5-21) Where will you find the requirements for the signals that must be sounded by a mobile
offshore drilling unit that is being towed through an area of restricted visibility?
o
o
o
(A) SOLAS Convention

(B) COLREGS
(C) Coast Pilot
(D) MMS Rules
3442. (2.5.6.1-9) Why should you soak an anchor?
o
o
o
(A) It can prevent the anchor from slipping during pre-tensioning.

(B) It will increase the maximum breaking strength of the anchor chain.
(C) It will lubricate all the moving parts of a stock anchor.
(D) It will make it easier to disassemble the anchor for repair.

Deck General
September 2015
3443. (2.5.5-22) When must a MODU display navigation lights while underway?
o
o
o
(A) At all times while being towed

(B) Whenever visibility is restricted
(C) Only between sunrise and sunset
(D) Only when other vessels are in sight
3444. (2.5.5-23) You are on a semisubmersible being towed and are concerned that a fishing vessel is
not taking sufficient action to avoid you. To signal your concern, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) fire a red flare at 15 second intervals

(B) fire a green flare at 15 second intervals
(C) broadcast a Mayday message on the radiotelephone
(D) sound five or more short blasts on the whistle
3445. (2.5.6.3-28) Use of air gaps in excess of that stated in the Limits of Elevated Service for the
COASTAL DRILLER could result in __________.
o
o
o
(A) increased static leg loading

(B) increased overturning moments
(C) reduced exposed area
(D) the hull being in the storm wave zone
3446. (2.5.6.1-28) The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 600 feet of water. The tension on anchor line #8 is
190 kips. What is the vertical component of chain tension for that line?
o
o
o
(A) 53.6 long tons

(B) 55.3 long tons
(C) 84.8 long tons
(D) 442.4 long tons
3447. (2.5.5-25) Your jack-up is being towed along a shipping channel. You are concerned that a
vessel that is overtaking you is coming too close to pass safely. You must __________.
o
o
o
(A) sound five or more short blasts on the whistle

(B) sound the abandon unit signal
(C) prepare the survival craft for launching
(D) broadcast a Mayday message

Deck General
September 2015
3448. (2.5.6.3-23) The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 2 degrees
and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum recommended water depth for elevating?
o
o
(A) 50 feet
(B) 100 feet
(C) 150 feet
(D) 200 feet
maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4. From the standpoint of critical motion, the
motion is __________.
o
o
o
(A) unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft

(B) satisfactory, but prepare to hang off
(C) unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks
(D) satisfactory, continue tripping
Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the
and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new KGL?
o
o
o
(A) 54.76 feet

(B) 55.76 feet
(C) 57.22 feet
(D) 61.16 feet
3451. (2.5.5-26) A jack-up drilling rig being towed must __________.

o
o
o
(A) ring the bell rapidly for five seconds once a minute
(B) turn off all lights that interfere with the navigation lights
(C) turn on all available working lights on deck
(D) display two black diamonds in a vertical line during the day
3452. (2.5.5-28) A mobile offshore drilling unit under tow is approaching a fog bank. When should fog
signals be started?
o
o
o
(A) When the drilling rig enters the fog

(B) Immediately
(C) When the towing vessel can no longer be seen from the rig
(D) When the towing vessel enters the fog

Deck General
September 2015
3453. (2.5.5-29) During a move to a new location, a jack-up drilling unit with personnel on board is
towed through a heavy rainstorm. What signal must be sounded by the drilling rig when visibility is
restricted?
o
o
o
(A) One prolonged and three short blasts

(B) One prolonged blast
(C) Two prolonged blasts
(D) One prolonged and two short blasts
3454. (2.5.6.3-8) Why should you preload a mooring system above your pre-calculated operating
mooring tensions?
o
o
(A) This tests all the components of your mooring equipment.

(B) This allows you to determine existing bottom conditions.
(C) This serves as a benchmark for increasing tensions in rough weather.
(D) This insures that the anchor cable is stretched out in a straight line.
3455. (2.5.5-30) What signal must be sounded by a vessel towing a mobile offshore drilling unit through
an area of restricted visibility?
o
o
(A) One prolonged and three short blasts

(B) Two prolonged blasts
(C) One prolonged and two short blasts
(D) Five or more short blasts
3456. (2.5.6.1-1) The holding power of an anchor increases when the __________.
o
o
o
(A) amount of chain lying along the bottom increases

(B) length of the catenary is reduced
(C) amount of chain lying along the bottom decreases
(D) mooring line tension is increased
3457. (2.5.6.1-3) What determines the minimum size of an anchor buoy?

o
o
o
(A) Deck space on work boat

(B) Water depth
(C) Regulatory bodies
(D) Environmental conditions

Deck General
September 2015
3458. (2.5.6.1-4) The length of chain between the anchor and the end of the pendant line is called the
__________.
o
o
(A) wear chain

(B) thrash chain
(C) crown chain
(D) pigtail chain
3459. (2.5.6.1-19) The tension on an anchor cable increases so that the angle of the catenary to the
seabed at the anchor reaches 10 degrees. How will this affect the anchor in sandy soil?
o
o
o
(A) It will have no effect.

(B) It will cause the anchor to snag.
(C) It will increase the holding power.
(D) It will reduce the holding power.
3460. (2.5.6.1-6) If the water depth is 500 feet, the length of the pendant wire from the anchor to the
buoy is typically __________.
o
o
(A) 400 feet

(B) 500 feet
(C) 600 feet
(D) 1000 feet
3461. (2.5.6.1-7) Installing tandem anchors on the same mooring line is referred to as __________.
o
o
o
(A) piggybacking
(B) doubling
(C) paralleling
(D) pre-tensioning
3462. (2.5.6.1-31) With the DEEP DRILLER anchored in 500 feet of water and with the tension on the
mooring chain of 170 kips, the length of the catenary is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1,378 feet

(B) 1,423 feet
(C) 1,591 feet
(D) 1,624 feet

Deck General
September 2015
3463. (2.5.6.4-8) The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the
maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 7. From the standpoint of critical motion, the
motion is __________.
o
o
(A) unsatisfactory, place unit in standby

(B) satisfactory, put the unit in standby
(C) unsatisfactory, ballast to survival draft
(D) satisfactory, keep the unit at transit draft
3464. (2.5.6.1-8) The process of waiting a period of time before pre-tensioning an anchor is known as
__________.
o
o
o
(A) sinking
(B) soaking
(C) bedding in
(D) settling
3465. (2.5.6.1-24) The indication of a slipping anchor is a(n) __________.

o
o
o
(A) increase in the opposite amperage

(B) increase in the opposite line tension
(C) decrease in mooring line length
(D) decrease in mooring line tension and amperage
3466. (2.5.6.3-6) The motion that can significantly increase mooring line tension is __________.
o
o
(A) yaw
(B) roll
(C) sway
(D) pitch
3467. (2.5.6.1-11) To develop maximum anchor holding power, the optimum angle between the
anchor's shank and the mooring lines is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 0 degrees
(B) 10 degrees
(C) 20 degrees
(D) 30 degrees

Deck General
September 2015
3468. (2.5.6.2-12) Under extremely heavy weather on the DEEP DRILLER, when operating conditions
are too severe to permit the drill string from being tripped out of the hole and laid down in the pipe
racks, it may be __________.
o
o
(A) supported by the tensioners

(B) placed in the setback
(C) hung off
(D) supported by the lower marine riser package
3469. (2.5.6.1-12) What is the "holding power ratio" of an anchor?
o
o
o
(A) Maximum mooring line tension divided by the anchor's weight in air
(B) Operating tension divided by the anchor's weight in air
(C) Preloading tension divided by the anchor's weight in air
(D) Anchor's weight in air divided by the maximum mooring line tension
3470. (2.5.6.1-13) A solution to overcome tripping defects is an arrangement of special plates on either
side of the flukes, designed to set them in the correct tripping position. These special plates are
called __________.
o
o
(A) stabilizers
(B) stocks
(C) palms
(D) trippers
3471. (2.5.6.1-17) What is the purpose of a chain stopper?

o
o
o
(A) Stops off a 6 foot section for inspection

(B) Hydraulically cuts anchor chain
(C) Stops the chain during pay out
(D) Secures the chain after is has been stopped
3472. (2.5.6.3-4) The vessel motion that can significantly affect mooring line tensions on a MODU is
__________.
o
o
(A) yaw
(B) roll
(C) surge
(D) pitch

Deck General
September 2015
3473. (2.5.6.1-20) When dragging of an anchor occurs, you must back it up with a piggyback (backing)
anchor or __________.
o
o
o
(A) reduce the riser tension

(B) reposition it at a greater range
(C) change the winch
(D) change the anchor heading
3474. (2.5.6.3-11) Given the same water depth and mooring tension, the holding power of a 90
pound/foot chain mooring system in comparison to the holding power of a 19 pound/foot wire rope
mooring line will be __________.
o
o
o
(A) indeterminable
(B) weaker
(C) equal
(D) greater
3475. (2.5.6.1-29) While anchored in 700 feet of water, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #4.
Tension on that line is 200 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating Manual, how much of
that chain lies along the bottom?
o
o
o
(A) 1,218 feet

(B) 1,398 feet
(C) 1,752 feet
(D) 1,844 feet
3476. (2.5.6.1-22) An LWT anchor often has difficulty tripping in __________.
o
o
o
(A) soft soil

(B) stiff clay
(C) heterogeneous soil
(D) sand
3477. (2.5.6.1-26) The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 600 feet of water. The average line tension is 190
kips. What is the total vertical component of chain tension?
o
o
(A) 55.3 long tons

(B) 428.8 long tons
(C) 442.4 long tons
(D) 678.4 long tons

Deck General
September 2015
3478. (2.5.6.1-32) While anchored in 600 feet water depth, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #8.
Tension on that line is 220 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating manual, how much of
that chain lies along the bottom?
o
o
o
(A) 994 feet

(B) 1,422 feet
(C) 1,728 feet
(D) 2,550 feet
3479. (2.5.6.2-16) The emergency power system for the DEEP DRILLER should be placed in operation
when the weather forecast predicts winds greater than 90 knots and when __________.
o
o
o
(A) unexpected list and trim exist

(B) evacuating the unit
(C) deballasting
(D) ballasting
3480. (2.5.6.1-33) The DEEP DRILLER is anchoring in 600 feet of water. In the absence of
environmental forces, the mooring lines should be adjusted to __________.
o
o
o
(A) 245 kips

(B) 222 kips
(C) 237 kips
(D) 194 kips
3481. (2.5.6.2-1) In a storm, the leeward lines of a MODU's mooring system will __________.
o
o
o
(A) pull the unit in the same direction that the weather is pushing it
(B) pull the unit in the opposite direction that the weather is pushing it
(C) affect the unit's draft and inclination as maximum mooring tensions are reached
(D) tend to keep the unit on its original location over the well head
3482. (2.5.6.2-5) During a storm, the mooring line on a MODU should be long enough so that the angle
between the anchor shank and the ocean floor is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 0
(B) 30
(C) 60
(D) 90

Deck General
September 2015
Severe motion makes it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check stability at
the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum
of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new GML?
o
o
o
(A) 6.23 feet

(B) 5.11 feet
(C) 4.86 feet
(D) 4.06 feet
3484. (2.5.6.2-10) The time required to ballast the DEEP DRILLER to survival draft, when threatened
with heavy weather, while under tow, is about __________.
o
o
o
(A) 2 hours
(B) 3 hours
(C) 4 hours
(D) 5 hours
3485. (2.5.6.2-11) In case of damage to the DEEP DRILLER on location, the immediate objective is to
reduce the unexpected inclination and return the unit to __________.
o
o
o
(A) survival draft

(B) near its original draft
(C) nearest sheltered port
(D) drilling
3486. (2.5.6.2-14) The KG of the DEEP DRILLER increases from 57 feet to 59 feet while drilling at a 60
foot draft during an ice storm. What action should be taken?
o
o
o
(A) Reduce the deck load until you reach the allowable KG for draft
(B) Deballast to reach the allowable KG
(C) Continue drilling operations while waiting for the ice to melt
(D) Notify the USCG that the rig is temporarily above the allowable KG
3487. (2.5.6.3-9) The most doubtful and unpredictable factor in a mooring system is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) ability of the anchors to hold in a seabed

(B) anchor chain catenary length
(C) variability of the fairlead
(D) angle of the flukes

Deck General
September 2015
3488. (2.5.6.3-13) Given the same water depth and line tension, the catenary length of a 19 pound/foot
wire rope mooring line in comparison to the catenary length of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain will be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) longer
(B) indeterminable
(C) shorter
(D) identical
3489. (2.5.6.3-3) Using high working tensions in the mooring system reduces the __________.
o
o
(A) hook load at drilling depths over 10,000 feet

(B) allowable deck load at operating draft
(C) margin between working tension and breaking strength
(D) possibility of dragging anchors
3490. (2.5.6.3-15) Given the same water depth and line tension, the catenary length of a 90 pound/foot
mooring chain in comparison to the catenary length of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line will be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) indeterminable
(B) longer
(C) identical
(D) shorter
3491. (2.5.6.3-2) Why are symmetric mooring patterns frequently used to keep MODU's on station?
o
o
o
(A) Environmental forces will probably come from the same direction during the time the MODU is
on station.
(B) Environmental forces will probably vary in direction during the time the MODU is on station.
(C) All lines contribute to the holding power of the mooring system.
(D) Governmental regulations require this mooring pattern unless an exemption is issued.
3492. (2.5.6.3-5) The two main types of load cells used in mooring tension gauges are __________.
o
o
o
(A) hydraulic and mechanical

(B) distortion and compression
(C) magnetic and applied torque
(D) frictionless and hydraulic

Deck General
September 2015
3493. (2.5.6.3-17) What pressure must a spring buoy, moored at a 500 foot depth, withstand?
o
o
(A) 100 psig

(B) 150 psig
(C) 225 psig
(D) 300 psig
3494. (2.5.6.3-18) What pressure must a spring buoy, moored at a 500 foot depth, withstand?
o
o
(A) 100 psig

(B) 150 psig
(C) 225 psig
(D) 300 psig
3495. (2.5.6.3-19) A weight of 1,000 kips is equivalent to __________.

o
o
o
(A) 1,000 pounds

(B) 2,000 short tons
(C) 2,240 pounds
(D) 500 short tons
3496. (2.5.6.3-20) The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 3 degrees
and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum water depth that can be used for going on
location?
o
o
o
(A) 45 feet
(B) 95 feet
(C) 145 feet
(D) 245 feet
3497. (2.5.6.3-25) Scouring usually occurs with soils such as __________.

o
o
o
(A) mud
(B) coral
(C) clay
(D) sand

Deck General
September 2015
3498. (2.5.6.4-1) Who has the ultimate responsibility for the safety of a mobile offshore drilling unit
while it is being towed to a new location?
o
o
o
(A) The Offshore Installation Manager

(B) The rig mover
(C) The Pilot
(D) The marine surveyor
3499. (2.5.6.4-17) Among the possible causes of unexpected rapidly increasing inclination of the DEEP
DRILLER while in transit is __________.
o
o
o
(A) consumption of on board variables

(B) flooding due to lower-hull damage
(C) miscalculation of loads
(D) external environmental forces
3500. (2.5.6.4-5) Yawing can be described as __________.

o
o
(A) jumping on the tow line as the rig pitches

(B) jumping on the tow line as the rig slams into waves
(C) veering from side to side on the end of the tow line
(D) corkscrew motion due to wave action
3501. (2.5.6.4-6) In observing rig motion while under tow, the period of roll is the time difference
between __________.
o
o
o
(A) full inclination on one side to full inclination on the other side
(B) full inclination on one side to the next full inclination on the same side
(C) zero inclination to full inclination on one side
(D) zero inclination to the next zero inclination
o
o
(A) unsatisfactory, place unit in standby

(B) unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks
(C) satisfactory, continue tripping
(D) unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft

Deck General
September 2015
3503. (2.5.6.4-14) The DEEP DRILLER is under tow at a 20 foot draft. The rig motions are close to
exceeding the limits for critical pitch and roll. The rig is also experiencing occasional pounding on the
horizontal braces. In this situation you should __________.
o
o
(A) wait until pitch and roll exceed the limits before ballasting down
(B) ballast up to a 15 foot draft and check vessel motions
(C) ballast down to a 45 foot draft and check vessel motions
(D) shorten the tow wire for a smoother tow
3504. (2.5.6.4-15) The DEEP DRILLER is being towed at a 20 foot draft. Vessel motions are within
acceptable limits, but the waves begin to hit the horizontal braces. You should __________.
o
o
o
(A) change course to reduce the wave impact

(B) continue on course at the same draft
(C) ballast to a 60 foot draft and continue on course
(D) shorten the tow wire for a smoother ride
3505. (2.5.6.4-18) While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single
amplitude pitching of 7.5 degrees with an 8 second period. You should __________.
o
o
(A) alter course into the wind to improve motion characteristics

(B) ballast the rig to a 60 foot draft and check vessel motion at the new draft
(C) continue towing operations and carefully monitor vessel motions
(D) ballast the rig to a 45 foot draft and check the vessel motion at the new draft
3506. (2.5.6.4-20) When floating, the appropriate leg horizontal must be aligned in the center of the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) bottom of the hull

(B) center of each upper guide structure
(C) center of each lower hull guide
(D) top of the jack house
3507. (2.5.9-1) Standards for fabrication and testing of chain on mobile offshore drilling units are
o
o
o

(B) American Petroleum Institute
(D) Department of the Interior

Deck General
September 2015
3508. (2.5.9-2) The primary purpose for using stud link chain in a mooring system on a rig is the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) stud link is more economical

(B) stud keeps the chain from kinking
(C) stud link improves the anchor's holding power
(D) stud link chain is the lightest night design
3509. (2.5.9-63) In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the anchor chain is deployed at
the anchor end of the line to __________.
o
o
o
(A) increase the holding power

(B) reduce the catenary
(C) increase fatigue life of the system
(D) reduce the time to retrieve the line
3510. (2.5.9-64) In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the chain is deployed at the
anchor end of the line to __________.
o
o
(A) increase fatigue life

(B) prevent the anchor from fouling
(C) increase the catenary
(D) eliminate the need for mooring buoys
3511. (2.5.9-3) When anchoring in an area with a hard bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be
set at __________.
o
o
o
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50
3512. (2.5.9-4) When anchoring in an area with a soft bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be
set at __________.
o
o
o
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50

Deck General
September 2015
3513. (2.5.9-10) Which grade of anchor chain is generally used on floating drilling vessels?
o
o
o
(A) 303S
(B) Oil Rig Quality (stud link)
(C) Grade 2
(D) Grade 1
3514. (2.5.9-11) Extended cyclical variations in tensions will cause an anchor chain to break due to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) fatigue
(B) corrosion
(C) abrasion
(D) distortion
3515. (2.5.9-12) Prior to magnetic particle inspection of anchor chain, the chain should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) soaked
(B) sandblasted
(C) demagnetized
(D) degaussed
3516. (2.5.9-13) Grinding to eliminate shallow surface defects should be done __________.
o
o
o
(A) parallel to the longitudinal direction of the chain

(B) diagonally across the link of the anchor chain
(C) perpendicular to the direction of the anchor chain
(D) around the circumference of the chain link
3517. (2.5.9-15) The American Petroleum Institute recommends magnetic particle inspection for
__________.
o
o
(A) wire rope

(B) pendant wires
(C) connecting links
(D) anchor chain

Deck General
September 2015
3518. (2.5.9-16) The American Petroleum Institute recommends that connecting links and anchor
shackles be inspected using __________.
o
o
(A) x-ray inspection

(B) dye penetrant inspection
(C) magnetic particle inspection
(D) visual examinations
3519. (2.5.9-17) A link on an anchor chain should be replaced when wear or grinding of surface cracks
has reduced the cross section area by __________.
o
o
o
(A) 6%
(B) 4%
(C) 8%
(D) 10%
3520. (2.5.9-18) When inspecting anchor chain, the American Petroleum Institute recommends
checking the length over 5 links every __________.
o
o
o
(A) 10 feet
(B) 100 feet
(C) 250 feet
(D) 500 feet
3521. (2.5.9-19) The American Petroleum Institute recommends that a new anchor chain should be
inspected after being in service for __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1 year
(B) 3 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 10 years
3522. (2.5.9-21) The maximum angular tolerance for a bent link of an anchor chain is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1 degree
(B) 3 degrees
(C) 5 degrees
(D) 7 degrees

Deck General
September 2015
3523. (2.5.9-22) The chemicals in sacks aboard MODU's are palletized to reduce __________.
o
o
o
(A) pilferage
(B) labor in loading and handling
(C) marking and labeling
(D) contamination
3524. (2.5.9-23) If, during helicopter refueling operations, fuel is spilled on clothing, the person should
first __________.
o
o
(A) see the medic immediately

(B) spray himself with foam or CO2
(C) remove the clothing and wash
(D) complete his task and then see the medic
3525. (2.5.9-24) At a refueling area or fuel facility, smoking or any flame or spark is prohibited
__________.
o
o
o
(A) within 50 feet

(B) during refueling operations
(C) anywhere on the helodeck
(D) within 100 feet
3526. (2.5.9-25) The only type of helicopter that may be refueled with the engine running and the
blades turning is __________.
o
o
(A) a Sikorsky
(B) a helicopter carrying injured personnel in an emergency situation
(C) a turbine-equipped helicopter
(D) a helicopter carrying cargo only
3527. (2.5.9-26) A helicopter making a round trip from a helodeck with refueling capabilities to an
unmanned platform will take 45 minutes each way. The helicopter should be carrying enough fuel to
last __________.
o
o
o
(A) 45 minutes
(B) 1 hour and 15 minutes
(C) 1 hour and 30 minutes
(D) 2 hours

Deck General
September 2015
3528. (2.5.9-27) The hoist line primarily used for lifting personnel on MODU cranes is called the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) whip line

(B) pendant
(C) personnel line
(D) main hoist line
3529. (2.5.9-28) The weight of the loaded personnel carrier, when transferring personnel from a MODU
with a crane, must not exceed __________.
o
o
o
(B) 1/2 of the static rated load at the lift radius
(D) 1/5 of the breaking strength of the hoist rope times the parts of the line used
3530. (2.5.9-30) When hoisting personnel from a vessel, with the MODU cranes, the crane operator
must assure that __________.
o
o
o
(A) he does not swing the load until it is above the landing area
(B) the personnel carrier remains directly over water
(C) all personnel are inside the net type carrier
(D) the personnel carrier remains directly over the vessel
3531. (2.5.9-31) When may a personnel net be used to bring heavy equipment aboard an offshore
drilling unit?
o
o
o
(A) Only during rough weather

(B) Never
(C) Only when the seas are calm
(D) Only when there are no personnel in the net
3532. (2.5.9-32) Before personnel are lifted from a vessel in a personnel basket, the vessel should be
__________?
o
o
o
(A) stopped dead in the water

(B) moving away from the boom
(C) tied to the boom
(D) directly under the boom

Deck General
September 2015
3533. (2.5.9-33) The maximum number of personnel allowed on a personnel transfer basket is
__________.
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
3534. (2.5.9-34) When lowering a personnel basket to pick up personnel from a boat, the personnel
basket should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) tied to the rig with a tag line

(B) dropped in the water
(C) tied to the vessel with a tag line
(D) lowered over open water
3535. (2.5.9-35) When using a crane for transferring personnel in a basket, the load hook must be
equipped with a __________.
o
o
o
(A) safety belt for each rider

(B) safety latch
(C) moused shackle
(D) quick-release device
3536. (2.5.9-37) The length of chain between the anchor and the end of the pendant line is called the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) pigtail chain

(B) wear chain
(C) thrash chain
(D) crown chain
3537. (2.5.9-38) The unit used to measure anchor line tensions in the offshore drilling industry is the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) short ton

(B) long ton
(C) metric ton
(D) Kip

Deck General
September 2015
3538. (2.5.9-39) A J-chaser is used to __________.

o
o
o
(A) clean chain as it is hauled into the rig

(B) lower spring buoys into the water
(C) transfer a pennant wire to the anchor handling vessel
(D) retrieve an anchor after the buoy has been lost
3539. (2.5.9-40) A shepherd's crook is used to __________.

o
o
o
(A) transfer a pennant wire to the anchor handling boat

(B) find an anchor after the buoy has been lost
(C) clean chain as it is hauled into the rig
(D) lower spring buoys into the water
3540. (2.5.9-41) An ideal mooring system would be __________.
o
o
o
(A) symmetrical and in equilibrium

(B) concentric and in flux
(C) distorted and in equilibrium
(D) asymmetrical and in flux
3541. (2.5.9-42) The safest device used to secure the end of the pendant wire when it is initially passed
to the anchor handling vessel is a __________.
o
o
o
(A) hydraulic deck stopper

(B) pelican hook
(C) connecting link
(D) shackle
3542. (2.5.9-44) The design of a spring buoy helps __________.

o
o
o
(A) to mark the rig's approach to the location

(B) to prevent chafing at the lower end of the pendant
(C) an anchor handling vessel back toward the rig
(D) to retrieve the anchor

Deck General
September 2015
3543. (2.5.9-45) A mooring system that results in a spread system without anchor buoys is called a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) wire rope mooring system

(B) shepherd's crook mooring system
(C) spring buoy mooring system
(D) permanent chasing system
3544. (2.5.9-46) The recessed areas on a wildcat are called __________.

o
o
o
(A) devil's claws

(B) pockets
(C) sockets
(D) pawls
3545. (2.5.9-47) The sprocket teeth on a wildcat are known as the __________.
o
o
(A) devil's claws

(B) pockets
(C) whelps
(D) pawls
3546. (2.5.9-48) The machinery associated with heaving in and running out anchor chain is the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) windlass
(B) draw works
(C) dynamic pay out system
(D) winch
3547. (2.5.9-49) A common means of connecting shots of anchor chain in the field is to use a(an)
__________.
o
o
o
(A) end shackle

(B) kenter link
(C) sprocket
(D) swivel

Deck General
September 2015
3548. (2.5.9-50) What line receives the hardest service in the mooring system?
o
o
o
(A) Joining pendant

(B) Guy wire
(C) Wildcat leader
(D) Anchor pendant
3549. (2.5.9-51) What is the primary disadvantage of a permanent chain chaser system?
o
o
o
(A) Chain chasers will not work with piggyback anchors.

(B) It requires anchor handling boats with more horsepower.
(C) It takes longer to deploy anchors using chain chasers.
(D) Chain chasers work in shallow water only.
3550. (2.5.9-52) What is the advantage of a single streamlined fluke anchor over a double fluked
anchor of similar weight?
o
o
o
(A) It has increased holding power.

(B) It holds well with either side down.
(C) It has multiple fluke angle settings.
(D) It is easier to handle on an anchor boat.
3551. (2.5.9-53) Increasing the area of the anchor flukes will __________.
o
o
o
(A) not effect holding power

(B) decrease holding power
(C) make penetration more complete
(D) increase holding power
3552. (2.5.9-55) A chain stripper is used to __________.

o
o
o
(A) flake chain from a boat's chain locker

(B) clean the marine debris from the chain
(C) clean chain prior to an x-ray inspection
(D) prevent chain from clinging to the wildcat

Deck General
September 2015
3553. (2.5.9-56) What is the most important difference between the bow type anchor shackle and the
D-type anchor shackle?
o
o
o
(A) The D-type shackle is weaker than the bow type.

(B) The bow type shackle is weaker than the D-type.
(C) The bow type shackle provides a superior connection.
(D) The D-type shackle provides an inferior connection.
3554. (2.5.9-57) What is the bow type anchor shackle primarily used for?
o
o
o
(A) Chain to anchor connections

(B) Kenter link to anchor connections
(C) Chain to chain connections
(D) Wire rope connections
3555. (2.5.9-58) Most large anchors are manufactured with a __________.
o
o
o
(A) D-type shackle

(B) bow type shackle
(C) U-type shackle
(D) Kenter shackle
3556. (2.5.9-59) Two types of anchor shackles which are currently available are __________.
o
o
o
(A) U-Type and posilok shackles

(B) C-Type and wedge shackles
(C) wedge and kenter shackles
(D) D-Type and bow shackles
3557. (2.5.9-60) The major cause of anchor buoy pendant wire failures is __________.
o
o
o
(A) rough weather

(B) defective sockets
(C) corrosion
(D) mishandling

Deck General
September 2015
3558. (2.5.9-61) Anchor shackles should have a breaking strength that is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 100% more than the chains they are connecting

(B) 25% more than the chains they are connecting
(C) 50% more than the chains they are connecting
(D) equal to the chains they are connecting
3559. (2.5.9-62) When a combination chain and wire rope mooring line is used, the chain is deployed
__________.
o
o
o
(A) at the anchor end of the line

(B) at the wildcat end of the line
(C) midway between the anchor and the wildcat
(D) through the anchor buoy
3560. (2.5.9-65) Which two components pass through the shank of an LWT anchor?
o
o
o
(A) Anchor shackle and stock

(B) Swivel and stabilizer bar
(C) Tripping palm and flukes
(D) Crown and chocks
3561. (2.5.9-66) Connecting elements of a mooring system should be fabricated from __________.
o
o
o
(A) cast steel

(B) forged steel
(C) stainless steel
(D) cast iron
3562. (2.5.9-67) Which problem is virtually impossible to detect during an in-service inspection of used
mooring chain?
o
o
o
(A) Fatigue
(B) Cracks
(C) Elongation
(D) Loose studs

Deck General
September 2015
3563. (2.5.9-68) Thirty-five percent of the breaking strength of an anchor cable is generally accepted as
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) safe operating load

(B) allowable storm load
(C) emergency working load
(D) normal operating tension
3564. (2.5.9-69) What percentage of the breaking strength is the generally accepted safe operating
load of an anchor cable?
o
o
o
(A) 35%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 10%
3565. (2.5.9-70) The only wire rope termination which may be made in the field is __________.
o
o
o
(A) thimbled mechanical splice

(B) hand splice
(C) swaged socket
(D) spelter poured and resin sockets
3566. (2.5.9-71) A common class of wire rope used for mooring is the 6x19 class. What does the 6
represent?
o
o
(A) Factor of safety

(B) Number of wires in the core
represent?
o
o
o


Deck General
September 2015
3568. (2.5.9-73) What is an advantage of the 6x19 class of wire rope over the 6x37 class of wire rope
o
o
o
(A) Resistance to elongation

(B) Greater holding power
(C) Better fatigue life
(D) Resistance to corrosion
o
o
o
(A) Lower weight per foot

(B) Resistance to elongation
(C) Resistance to corrosion
(D) Flexibility
3570. (2.5.9-75) Where do fatigue failures of wire rope mooring lines usually occur?
o
o
o
(A) Near the socketed end fitting adjacent to the anchor

(B) In the middle part of the line length
(C) At the place the anchor buoy is attached to the line
(D) At the point where the line touches the bottom
3571. (2.5.9-76) In a wire rope mooring system, the fairlead sheave should be a minimum of
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 10-18 times the diameter of the wire rope

(B) 18-36 times the diameter of the wire rope
(C) 36-50 times the diameter of the wire rope
(D) 50-75 times the diameter of the wire rope
3572. (2.5.9-77) What happens to the pulling power of a winch when retrieving wire rope?
o
o
o
(A) It remains the same

(B) It fluctuates, depending on the gearing system
(C) It increases
(D) It decreases

Deck General
September 2015
3573. (2.5.9-78) The load chart of a MODU crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with
o
o
o
(A) allowable load

(C) hoist rope strength
(D) maximum counter weight required
3574. (2.5.9-79) On a MODU crane, the load chart relates the allowable load to the combination of
boom length and __________.
o
o
o
(A) cable strength

(B) boom angle
(C) boom strength
(D) load radius
3575. (2.5.9-80) On a MODU crane, the boom indicator tells the operator what the boom angle is
compared to the __________.
o
o
o
(A) minimum radius angle

(B) horizontal position
(C) boom stop angle
(D) vertical position
3576. (2.5.9-81) The boom stops are installed on an offshore crane to __________.
o
o
o
(A) prevent the boom from swinging

(B) prevent the boom from being lowered
(C) support the boom when not in use
(D) prevent the boom from being raised too high
3577. (2.5.9-83) Prior to backloading portable tanks or drums onto an offshore supply vessel, check
that each tank is __________.
o
o
(A) coated with non-corrosive protection

(B) painted yellow with diagonal black striping
(C) capped and checked for leaks
(D) mounted on pallets

Deck General
September 2015
3578. (2.5.9-84) When lifting loads from a boat in heavy weather, the load should be taken when the
boat __________.
o
o
o
(A) begins to rise

(B) reaches the crest
(C) begins to fall
(D) reaches the trough
3579. (2.5.9-85) When loading or discharging dry mud or cement, crew members should use goggles
and __________.
o
o
o
(A) ear plugs

(B) rubberized boots
(C) fireman's outfit
(D) facial respirator mask
3580. (2.5.9-87) When loading or discharging dry mud or cement, crew members should use facial
respirator masks and __________.
o
o
(A) soft-soled boots

(B) ear plugs
(C) goggles

Deck General
September 2015
3581. (2.5.7.2A2-21) Each emergency light on a MODU must be marked with __________.
o
o
(A) a no-smoking symbol

(B) the word "DANGER"
(C) the letter "E"
(D) an arrow pointing to the nearest exit
3582. (2.5.7.2A2-39) Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must meet the
standards of the __________.
o
o
o
(A) National Transportation Safety Board

(C) National Fire Protection Association
(D) Federal Aviation Administration
3583. (2.5.7.1B-6) Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on a MODU is the
responsibility of the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Master or Offshore Installation Manager

(B) Ballast Control Operator
(C) Operators representative
(D) Barge Supervisor
3584. (2.5.7.2A1-15) Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are issued for a period of
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 12 months
(B) 24 months
(C) 36 months
(D) 48 months
3585. (2.5.7.2A2-108) Each buoyant work vest must be __________.

o
o
o
(A) marked with the name of the vessel

(B) U.S. Coast Guard approved
(C) equipped with a water light

Deck General
September 2015
3586. (2.5.7.2A3-11) Who is responsible for insuring that the accommodations on a mobile offshore
drilling unit are maintained in a clean and sanitary condition?
o
o
o

(B) The safety man
(C) The relief toolpusher
(D) The galley personnel
3587. (2.5.7.2A2-83) For means of abandonment of a MODU, which type of embarkation does not
require prior approval by the Coast Guard?
o
o
o
(A) Elevators
(B) Movable ladders
(C) Safety booms
(D) Fixed ladders
3588. (2.5.7.2A3-95) Who is responsible for maintaining the logbook on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
o
o
o
(A) The rig superintendent

(B) The safety man
(C) The driller
(D) The person in charge
3589. (2.5.7.2A2-61) On offshore drilling units, the fire main system must have enough fire hydrants so
that each accessible space may be sprayed with at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) four spray patterns

(B) two spray patterns
(C) three spray patterns
(D) one spray pattern
3590. (2.5.7.2A3-19) On offshore drilling units, the EPIRB on board is required to be tested
__________.
o
o
(A) daily
(B) weekly
(C) monthly
(D) yearly

Deck General
September 2015
3591. (2.5.7.2A3-16) A qualified person must be assigned as the second in command of a lifeboat on a
MODU if the lifeboat has a capacity of more than __________.
o
o
(A) 20 persons
(B) 30 persons
(C) 40 persons
(D) 50 persons
3592. (2.5.7.2A2-101) What must be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?
o
o
o
(A) Pressure gauge

(B) International shore connection
(C) Strainer
(D) Reduction valve
3593. (2.5.7.2B-3) To determine the number of portable fire extinguishers required on a mobile offshore
drilling unit, you should check the __________.
o
o
o
(A) hot work permit

(C) Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
(D) Operations Manual
3594. (2.5.7.2A3-55) Records which must be retained on board after report of casualty to a MODU
include the __________.
o
o
o
(A) tour reports

(B) deck equipment log
(C) hull reports
(D) machinery repair record book
3595. (2.5.7.2A2-38) The helicopter deck on an offshore drilling unit is required to be fitted with
perimeter lights in alternating colors of __________.
o
o
o
(A) yellow and blue

(B) yellow and red
(C) red and white
(D) yellow and white

Deck General
September 2015
3596. (2.5.7.2A3-88) Injuries resulting in loss of life or incapacitation, aboard vessels, must be reported
to the __________.
o
o
o

(C) International Association of Drilling Contractors
3597. (2.5.7.2A3-59) Regulations require certain records to be retained on board for at least 3 months
after a MODU is involved in a casualty or until advised that they are no longer needed on board by
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) person in charge

(C) Master
(D) owner
3598. (2.5.7.2A2-13) Diesel powered industrial trucks on a MODU that are provided with safeguards to
the exhaust, fuel, and electrical systems are designated __________.
o
o
o
(A) DS
(B) DES
(C) DEFE
(D) DE
3599. (2.5.7.2A3-108) How often is a drill on the use of the line throwing appliance required to be held
on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
o
o
o
(A) Once every three months

(B) Once a year
(C) Once a week
(D) Once a month
3600. (2.5.7.2A2-103) Your fireman's outfit includes a(n) __________.
o
o
o

(B) chemical protection face shield
(C) approved work vest
(D) marlinspike

Deck General
September 2015
3601. (2.5.7.2A1-1) A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a MODU must be included in
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) construction portfolio

(B) builder's documentation
(D) general plans
3602. (2.5.7.2A2-77) On a MODU, hand portable extinguishers are size(s) __________.

o
o
o
(A) I only
(B) II and III
(C) II only
(D) I and II
3603. (2.5.7.2A2-26) On offshore drilling units when two means of escape are provided from a space
above the main deck, one means of escape must be required for rapid escape to __________.
o
o
o
(A) a weather deck

(B) the control house
(C) the escape capsules
(D) the main deck
3604. (2.5.7.2A2-62) On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose
which has a nominal length of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 25 feet
(B) 50 feet
(C) 75 feet
(D) 100 feet
3605. (2.5.7.2A2-107) When may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?
o
o
o
(A) To replace a damaged life preserver

(B) For use during fire drills
(C) For use during boat drills
(D) At no time

Deck General
September 2015
3606. (2.5.7.2A2-23) A MODU must have a self-contained breathing apparatus to be used as

protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit. To meet this requirement, you may use
__________.
o
o
o
(A) an oxygen breathing apparatus, provided that the device has been inspected within three
years
(B) a gas mask certified by the Mine Safety and Health Administration
(C) a portable ventilation system that will provide a complete change of air every three minutes
(D) the same self-contained breathing apparatus required with the fireman's outfit
3607. (2.5.7.2A3-27) Prior to burning or welding on a fuel tank on a MODU, regulations require that an
inspection be made. An entry in the unofficial logbook is required if this inspection is made by
__________.
o
o
(A) the National Fire Protection Association

(B) a marine chemist
(C) the Master or person in charge of the MODU
(D) the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
3608. (2.5.7.2A2-110) Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must have a
__________.
o
o
(A) quick-disconnect nozzle

(B) splash guard
(C) static grounding device
(D) vapor recovery system
3609. (2.5.7.2A1-2) A The construction portfolio may be included as part of the MODU __________.
o
o
o
(A) general plans

(B) operating manual
(C) Coast Guard file
(D) builders documentation
3610. (2.5.7.2A2-33) On offshore drilling units, sleeping spaces for the regular personnel employed on
board may not berth more than __________.
o
o
(A) two persons

(B) three persons
(C) four persons
(D) five persons

Deck General
September 2015
3611. (2.5.7.2A3-18) At the required fire drill conducted aboard a MODU, all persons must report to
their stations and demonstrate their ability to perform the duties assigned to them __________.
o
o
o
(A) at the previous safety meeting

(B) by the person conducting the drill
(C) by the toolpusher
(D) in the Muster List ("Station Bill")
3612. (2.5.7.2A3-45) When must the Master or person in charge of a MODU log the position of load
line marks in relation to the surface of the water in the logbook?
o
o
o
(A) At the change of every watch

(B) Once a day
(C) Only when in fresh or brackish water
(D) Prior to getting underway
3613. (2.5.7.2A3-3) Each hand portable, semi-portable and fixed fire extinguishing unit on a MODU
must be tested and inspected at least once every __________.
o
o
(A) six weeks

(B) six months
(C) twelve months
(D) two years
3614. (2.5.7.2A3-36) What must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook after
conducting an abandonment drill?
o
o
o
(A) Which survival craft was used

(B) The name of the lifeboatman in charge of each boat
(C) The names of all crew members participating in the drill
(D) The sea condition at the time of the drill
3615. (2.5.7.2A2-15) The design specifications for cranes and crane foundations on MODU's are set
and published by the __________.
o
o
(A) Society of Petroleum Engineers

(B) American Society of Civil Engineers
(C) American Petroleum Institute
(D) American Society of Mechanical Engineers

Deck General
September 2015
3616. (2.5.7.2A3-64) The Muster List ("Station Bill") of a MODU must be signed by the __________.
o
o
(A) entire crew

(B) company safety director
(C) person in charge
(D) Coast Guard marine inspection officer
3617. (2.5.7.2A3-40) Mobile offshore drilling units not required to have an official logbook shall
__________.
o
o
o
(A) not be required to maintain a logbook

(B) maintain an unofficial logbook
(C) report only major events to the OCMI
(D) maintain a logbook on Form CG-706
3618. (2.5.7.2A2-22) On a MODU, a door that is required to be marked "KEEP CLOSED" is designed
to __________.
o
o
o
(A) prevent the passage of flammable gases

(B) maintain watertight integrity
(C) delay the spread of heat and flames
(D) prevent the passage of poisonous vapors
3619. (2.5.7.2A2-55) Each fire hose coupling on a MODU must have threads that meet the
specifications of the __________.
o
o
o
(A) American Petroleum Institute

(B) National Standard Fire hose Coupling
(C) Underwriter's Laboratories, Inc.
(D) American Society of Mechanical Engineers
3620. (2.5.7.2A3-68) On offshore drilling units, notification shall be given to the Coast Guard of a
casualty if a person is injured and unable to perform routine duties for __________.
o
o
o
(A) any amount of time

(B) more than 24 hours
(C) more than 36 hours
(D) more than 72 hours

Deck General
September 2015
3621. (2.5.7.2A3-29) How long shall the Master or person in charge of a MODU maintaining an
unofficial logbook retain this logbook on board?
o
o
o
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 5 years
(D) Until the next inspection for certification
3622. (2.5.7.2A2-12) The factor of safety, based on the elastic limit of the material, for the forks used
on power operated industrial trucks aboard a MODU must be at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 2 to 1
(B) 3 to 1
(C) 4 to 1
(D) 5 to 1
3623. (2.5.7.2A1-20) What organization is approved by the Coast Guard for certifying cranes on mobile
offshore drilling units?
o
o
o
(A) International Maritime Organization

(C) Lloyd's of London
3624. (2.5.7.2A1-17) When weight-testing a davit-launched liferaft on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the
test weight must be equivalent to the weight of the raft, its required equipment, and __________.
o
o
o
(A) 90% of the allowed capacity of persons for the raft

(B) 100% of the allowed capacity of the persons for the raft
(C) 110% of the allowed capacity of the persons for the raft
(D) 120% of the allowed capacity of the persons for the raft
3625. (2.5.7.2A2-53) How many adult life jackets are required on board a MODU?
o
o
o
(A) Enough for 150 percent of the persons allowed on board

(B) Enough for 100 percent of the persons allowed on board
(C) One for each work station and industrial work site
(D) Both A & B above

Deck General
September 2015
3626. (2.5.7.2A1-3) A The requirements for special welding procedures on a MODU must be contained
in the __________.
o
o
o
(A) construction plans

(B) vessel plans
(C) Coast Guard file
(D) construction portfolio
3627. (2.5.7.2A3-28) The Master or person in charge of a MODU shall ensure the crane record book
shows __________.
o
o
o
(A) date and result of each rated load test

(B) the time of day of the test
(C) the name of the crane operator
(D) an entry each time the crane is used
3628. (2.5.7.2A2-6) Each fire pump on a MODU must have a pressure gauge located at __________.
o
o
(A) the pump station

(B) each fire station discharge
(C) the pump discharge
(D) the manifold connection
3629. (2.5.7.2A3-44) When is the density of the water required to be logged in the logbook of a
MODU?
o
o
o
(A) Only when the vessel moves from fresh water into salt water
(B) The density of the water is not required to be logged in the unofficial logbook
(C) Any time the vessel moves from water of one density into waters of a different density
(D) Prior to getting underway when the vessel is floating in fresh or brackish water
3630. (2.5.7.2A3-62) After conducting a boat drill on a mobile offshore drilling unit, what must the
Master or person in charge enter in the in the logbook?
o
o
o
(A) The time it took to lower the boat

(B) Any inoperative equipment and the corrective action taken
(C) The name of the lifeboatman in charge of each lifeboat
(D) The location of the vessel at the time of the drill

Deck General
September 2015
3631. (2.5.7.2A2-43) What is the minimum number of lifeboats which MUST be carried on a mobile
offshore drilling unit that is allowed to carry more than 30 persons?
o
o
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
3632. (2.5.7.2A3-15) If not attached to the nozzle, each low-velocity spray applicator on a MODU must
be stowed __________.
o
o
o
(A) on a rack inside the quarters near the entrance

(B) next to the fire hydrant to which the fire hose is attached
(C) in a protected area on the main deck
(D) inside a machinery space near the entrance
3633. (2.5.7.2A2-86) On Offshore Drilling units, in addition to the life jackets stowed at each berth
location, life jackets must be stowed at each work station and __________.
o
o
(A) each fire station

(B) each lifeboat
(C) each industrial work site
(D) the mess room
3634. (2.5.7.2A2-51) On a MODU, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?
o
o
(A) One ring life buoy

(B) Three ring life buoys
(C) One ring life buoy on each side of the MODU
(D) Two ring life buoys on each side of the MODU
3635. (2.5.7.2A3-90) It is the responsibility of the person in charge to __________.

o
o
(A) revise the operating manual when rig personnel change

(B) maintain the rig's construction portfolio
(C) be fully aware of the provisions in the operating manual

Deck General
September 2015
3636. (2.5.7.2A3-54) What must be entered in the unofficial logbook by the Master or person in charge
of a mobile offshore drilling unit after conducting a fire drill?
o
o
o
(A) The condition of all firefighting equipment, watertight door mechanisms, and valves used
during each drill
(B) The location of the unit at the time each drill is conducted
(C) The name of each crew member who participated in the drill and their responsibilities
3637. (2.5.7.2A1-8) A welding procedure used for joining dissimilar metals used on a MODU would be
recorded in the __________.
o
o
o
(A) welding plan

(B) construction portfolio
(C) ASTM specifications
(D) Coast Guard file
3638. (2.5.7.2A1-4) A For MODU's operating under the U.S. flag, the construction portfolio must contain
__________.
o
o
o
(A) approved welding procedures and welding test procedures

(B) loading conditions and limitations
(C) chemical and physical properties of ABS approved steels
(D) detailed construction plans
3639. (2.5.7.2A3-114) The required portable radio shall be stored in the proper location and be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) readily accessible for transfer to a lifeboat

(B) equipped with an approved carrying case
(C) equipped with spare batteries
(D) in a waterproof enclosure
3640. (2.5.7.2A1-5) A What repair or modification to a MODU would most likely require consulting the
construction portfolio?
o
o
o
(A) Replacing a service pump foundation

(B) Replacing watertight doors in quarters
(C) Repair of drill pipe racks on deck
(D) Repair of leg-to-can connection on a jack-up

Deck General
September 2015
3641. (2.5.7.2A3-76) On a MODU, watertight doors should be operated __________.

o
o
(A) during abandon drill

(B) when the rig is being moved
(C) during fire drill
(D) weekly
3642. (2.5.7.2A3-75) During a fire drill on a MODU, what action is required?
o
o
o
(A) Start each fire pump

(B) Inspect fire hoses
(C) Inventory rescue and fire equipment
(D) Launch and run a lifeboat
3643. (2.5.7.2A1-21) How often must a rated load test be performed on a crane on a MODU?
o
o
o
(A) Every 12 months

(B) Every 24 months
(C) Every 36 months
(D) Every 48 months
3644. (2.5.7.2A1-19) All fire hoses on mobile offshore drilling units must be tested to a pressure of at
least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 100 psi

(B) 110 psi
(C) 120 psi
(D) 130 psi
3645. (2.5.7.2A3-86) Under the regulations for mobile offshore drilling units, you must submit a
casualty report for which occurrence?
o
o
o
(A) A man overboard

(B) Loss of an emergency generator
(C) Property damage in excess of $20,000
(D) Accidental grounding

Deck General
September 2015
3646. (2.5.7.2A3-60) A casualty report of an intentional grounding of a MODU is required under what
condition?
o
o
o
(A) If it creates a hazard to the environment

(B) If the grounding lasts over 24 hours
(C) Under any condition
(D) At the owner's discretion
3647. (2.5.7.2A1-6) A simplified construction plan may be included in the MODU construction portfolio
provided it adequately defines the __________.
o
o
o
(A) type and strength of materials used

(B) hazardous areas
(C) location of emergency repair equipment
(D) areas where special materials are used
3648. (2.5.7.2A2-28) On offshore drilling units where natural ventilation is provided, each porthole or
window must be fitted with __________.
o
o
o
(A) curtains
(B) covers
(C) portlights
(D) screens
3649. (2.5.7.2A2-80) To enable tying down a helicopter on the landing area of a MODU, the landing
deck must be fitted with __________.
o
o
o
(A) hydraulically lifted bitts

(B) recessed tie down points
(C) air tuggers
(D) fixed cleats
3650. (2.5.7.2A1-7) A In the MODU construction portfolio, materials which do not conform to ASTM or
ABS specifications must also include the __________.
o
o
o
(A) manufacturer or origin of the material

(B) name of the alternative standard or specification
(C) the ASTM or ABS specification the material approximates
(D) chemical and physical properties of the material

Deck General
September 2015
3651. (2.5.7.2A1-9) The stamped full weight of a 100 lb. CO2 bottle is 314 lbs. What is the minimum
weight of the bottle before it has to be recharged?
o
o
o
(A) 282 lbs.

(B) 294 lbs.
(C) 300 lbs.
(D) 304 lbs.
3652. (2.5.7.2A2-78) What is the minimum required number of fire axes that must be carried on a
mobile offshore drilling unit?
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
3653. (2.5.7.2A3-50) According to regulations, a Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to

submit a report of a loss of life __________.
o
o
o
(A) to the next of kin

(B) only when it happens while underway
(C) to the nearest coroner
(D) to the nearest Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office
3654. (2.5.7.2A1-10) When testing fire hoses on offshore drilling units, each hose must be subjected to
a test pressure of at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 100 psi

(B) 110 psi
(C) 120 psi
(D) 150 psi
3655. (2.5.7.2A2-74) Where foam extinguishing systems are provided on a MODU, each machinery flat
in the protected space must have a(n) __________.
o
o
(A) alarm
(B) drain
(C) coaming
(D) fire sensor

Deck General
September 2015
3656. (2.5.7.2A2-48) Each liferaft, which does not have an indicated maximum stowage height
indicated on the liferaft, must be __________.
o
o
o
(A) inspected every six months

(B) stowed not more than 59 feet above the lightest waterline
(C) limited to carry no more than 10 persons
(D) stowed in quick release racks
3657. (2.5.7.2A1-11) Except as provided by approved special examinations, each offshore drilling unit
must be dry-docked at least once during every __________.
o
o
(A) 12 month period

(B) 18 month period
(C) 24 month period
(D) 36 month period
3658. (2.5.7.2A2-2) An extinguisher with 15 lbs. of CO2 or 10 lbs. of dry chemical is a size
__________.
o
o
o
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
3659. (2.5.7.2A1-12) According to the regulations for mobile offshore drilling units, "industrial
personnel" are considered to be all persons carried on the MODU for the sole purpose of carrying
out the industrial business of the unit, except for __________.
o
o
(A) the operator's representative

(B) the galley personnel
(C) the crew required by the Certificate of Inspection
(D) the designated person in charge
3660. (2.5.7.2A1-13) A construction portfolio prepared for each new offshore drilling unit must be
approved by the __________.
o
o
o


Deck General
September 2015
3661. (2.5.7.2A2-66) On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must
discharge at least 85 percent of the required amount of CO2 within __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1 minute
(B) 2 minutes
(C) 3 minutes
(D) 4 minutes
3662. (2.5.7.2A2-64) A fire pump on a MODU requires 175 psi discharge pressure to maintain the
required 50 psi pitot tube pressure at the two highest hydrants. The maximum setting for the relief
valve is __________.
o
o
(A) 125 psi

(B) 175 psi
(C) 200 psi
(D) 225 psi
3663. (2.5.7.2A1-14) Temporary Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are effective until
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) classification society approval is issued

(B) permanent Certificate of Inspection is issued
(C) Operations Manual is approved
(D) Minerals Management Service approval is issued
3664. (2.5.7.2A3-58) With regard to accommodation spaces on board mobile offshore drilling units,
what must the Master or person in charge log?
o
o
o
(A) The date of each inspection of each space

(B) The number of persons assigned to each space
(C) The condition of each space at the beginning of a trip
(D) The name of each person berthed in each space
3665. (2.5.7.2A3-63) In the case of a casualty involving a MODU, the Master, owner, agent or person
in charge shall make the records required by regulation available upon request to __________.
o
o
(A) anyone involved in the casualty

(B) the local Captain of the Port
(C) any Coast Guard official authorized to investigate the casualty

Deck General
September 2015
3666. (2.5.7.2A3-67) A CO2 extinguisher on a MODU which has lost 10% of its charge must be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) used at the earliest opportunity

(B) recharged
(C) hydro-tested
(D) weighed again in one month
3667. (2.5.7.2A2-9) The relief valve on a fire pump is set at 25 psi above the pressure necessary to
maintain required fire streams, or __________.
o
o
(A) 50 psi
(B) 75 psi
(C) 125 psi
(D) 150 psi
3668. (2.5.7.2A2-5) The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a __________.
o
o
o
(A) check valve

(B) strainer
(C) gate valve
(D) pressure gauge
3669. (2.5.7.2A3-13) On offshore drilling units, boat drills must be conducted at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) monthly
(B) quarterly
(C) daily
(D) annually
3670. (2.5.7.2A1-16) If a fixed foam firefighting system on a MODU is not of the premix type, a sample
of the foam liquid must be tested by __________.
o
o
o
(A) the safety man aboard the unit

(B) the designated person in charge of the unit
(C) a Coast Guard inspection officer
(D) the manufacturer or his authorized representative

Deck General
September 2015
3671. (2.5.7.2A1-18) When weight-testing a davit launched liferaft on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the
deadweight equivalent for each person in the allowed capacity of the raft is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 155 pounds

(B) 165 pounds
(C) 175 pounds
(D) 185 pounds
3672. (2.5.7.2A1-22) After cranes have been installed on offshore drilling units the hooks, hook block,
slings, rib and other rigging must be load tested. This test must be performed once each
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 12 months
(B) 24 months
(C) 36 months
(D) 48 months
3673. (2.5.7.2A2-106) Which data is NOT painted on the bow of a lifeboat?

o
o
o
(A) Name of the vessel

(B) Weight of the boat
(C) Port of registry
(D) Number of persons allowed
3674. (2.5.7.2A1-23) A weathertight door on a MODU must not allow water to penetrate into the unit in
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 50 knot winds

(B) 70 knot winds
(C) 100 knot winds
(D) any sea condition
3675. (2.5.7.2A1-24) The person or company, either proprietor or lessee, actually operating an oil well
or lease is the __________.
o
o
(A) drilling contractor

(B) production company
(C) operator
(D) company representative

Deck General
September 2015
3676. (2.5.7.2A3-14) Fire axes required on MODU's must be stored in the enclosure for fire hoses with
the location marked "________".
o
o
(A) Hose Station No. ____

(B) Firefighting Equipment
(C) Fire Station No. ____
(D) Fire Axe Location
3677. (2.5.7.2A2-93) Size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered __________.
o
o
o
(A) all purpose

(B) semi-portable
(C) fixed extinguishers
(D) hand portable
3678. (2.5.7.2A2-88) The locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must be
__________.
o
o
(A) located in close proximity to the bridge

(B) equipped with battery powered emergency lighting
(C) marked "SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS"
3679. (2.5.7.2A2-99) A fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________.
o
o
(A) no relief valves are installed

(B) the other services are run off a reducing station with a pressure gage
(C) one of the required pumps is kept available for use on the fire main system at all times
(D) all of the above conditions are met
3680. (2.5.7.2A2-1) All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being __________.
o
o
(A) recharged in the field

(B) carried or rolled to a fire
(C) carried by hand to a fire
(D) used on class "B" fires

Deck General
September 2015
3681. (2.5.7.2A2-25) For use as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit, each MODU must
be equipped with a __________.
o
o
o
(A) portable ventilation system

(B) self-contained breathing apparatus
(C) flame safety lamp
(D) gas mask
3682. (2.5.7.2A2-46) On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of
being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and
with the unit listed not less than __________.
o
o
o
(A) 14
(B) 20
(C) 26
(D) 32
3683. (2.5.7.2A2-94) Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________.
o
o
o
(A) IV and V
(B) III, IV, and V
(C) I, II, and III
(D) II, III, and IV
3684. (2.5.7.2A2-95) Fire extinguishers of sizes III, IV, and V are designated as __________.
o
o
(A) fixed
(B) disposable
(C) semi-portable
(D) portable
3685. (2.5.7.2A2-3) Size I and II fire extinguishers are designated as __________.

o
o
(A) compact
(B) fixed
(C) portable
(D) semi-portable

Deck General
September 2015
3686. (2.5.7.2A3-20) The person on a MODU who is responsible for maintaining the engineering
spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Chief Engineer, or engineer in charge if no chief engineer is required

(B) senior mechanic, or mechanic on duty if no senior mechanic designated
(C) senior electrician, or electrician on duty if no senior electrician designated
(D) Master, or person in charge
3687. (2.5.7.2A2-4) What must be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?
o
o
o
(A) International shore connection

(B) Reduction valve
(C) Strainer
(D) Pressure gauge
3688. (2.5.7.2A2-96) Fire extinguishers on inspected vessels are numbered by size I through V, with I
being __________.
o
o
o
(A) the most accessible

(B) the smallest
(C) used for electrical fires only
(D) the most effective
3689. (2.5.7.2A3-26) Each emergency generator on a mobile offshore drilling unit, when tested, must
be run under a full load for at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) one hour

(B) two hours
(C) ten hours
(D) four hours
3690. (2.5.7.2A2-7) Multiple fire pumps may be used for other purposes provided that one pump is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) capable of being connected to the fire main

(B) on line to the fire main
(C) rated at or above 125 psi
(D) kept available for use on the fire main at all times

Deck General
September 2015
3691. (2.5.7.2A2-56) Control valves of a CO2 system may be located within the protected space when
__________.
o
o
o
(A) an automatic heat-sensing trip is installed

(B) the CO2 cylinders are also in the space
(C) it is impractical to locate them outside
(D) there is also a control valve outside
3692. (2.5.7.2A2-8) On a MODU, a fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________.
o
o
o
(A) all other services are operated by a manifold near the pump
(B) a separate fire pump is available for use on the fire main
(C) the other services are run off a reducing station with a pressure gage
3693. (2.5.7.2A2-10) When fire pumps are used for other than firefighting service, each pipe
connecting the other service (except for branch lines used for deck washing) must have a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) check valve installed in the line

(B) regulator in the line set at 125 psi
(C) quick disconnect union within ten feet of the pump
(D) shut off valve at a manifold near the pump
3694. (2.5.7.2A3-7) The person-in-charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must be designated by the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) operator or his agent

(B) owner or his agent
(C) Coast Guard
3695. (2.5.7.2A2-11) A fire main system must have enough fire hydrants so that each accessible space
may be sprayed with __________.
o
o
o
(A) at least two spray patterns of water

(B) a water spray or solid stream
(C) a low velocity spray applicator
(D) at least 25 psi delivered pressure

Deck General
September 2015
3696. (2.5.7.2A2-14) Power operated cranes used on a MODU must not be powered by __________.
o
o
o
(A) electric motors

(B) chargeable batteries
(C) diesel engines
(D) gasoline engines
3697. (2.5.7.2A2-16) On offshore drilling units each fire station is identified by letters and numbers at
least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 2 inches high

(B) 3 inches high
(C) 5 inches high
(D) 8 inches high
3698. (2.5.7.2A2-17) On a self-elevating drilling unit, draft marks must be located __________.
o
o
(A) at bow and stern on the centerline

(B) at frame O, port and starboard
(C) near each corner of the hull
(D) on each leg
3699. (2.5.7.2A2-18) A branch line valve of a fire extinguishing system on a MODU must be marked
with the __________.
o
o
o
(A) date of the last maintenance inspection

(B) name of the space or spaces which it serves
(C) pressure needed to maintain an effective stream at that point
(D) maximum pressure allowed at that branch
3700. (2.5.7.2A2-19) On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed
firefighting system must be __________.
o
o
o
(A) painted with red and black diagonal stripes

(B) equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting
(C) ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches
(D) posted with instructions on the operation of the system

Deck General
September 2015
3701. (2.5.7.2A2-82) A MODU helicopter landing deck on which fueling operations are conducted must
have a fire protection system that is capable of discharging at 100 psi pressure a foam spray of at
least __________.
o
o

3702. (2.5.7.2A2-104) The instructions for the launching of lifeboats and liferafts must be approved by
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Coast Guard

(B) lease operator
(C) person-in-charge of the unit
3703. (2.5.7.2A2-20) How must each storage tank for helicopter fuel on a MODU be marked?
o
o
o
(A) DANGER - KEEP AWAY

(B) DANGER - NO SMOKING
(C) DANGER - EXPLOSIVE VAPORS
(D) DANGER - FLAMMABLE LIQUID
3704. (2.5.7.2A2-24) The litter on a MODU must be able to __________.
o
o
o
(A) be used on the types of helicopters serving the unit

(B) carry at least two injured persons
(C) float for at least two hours
3705. (2.5.7.2A2-27) On offshore drilling units, the minimum number of inclined ladders which must be
fitted between each weather deck is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 4

Deck General
September 2015
3706. (2.5.7.2A2-29) What class of bulkhead is required around the galley on a MODU?
o
o
o
(A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
(D) Class D
3707. (2.5.7.2A3-8) On offshore drilling units, a fire drill must be conducted at least once a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) year
(B) week
(C) month
(D) quarter
3708. (2.5.7.2A3-6) Which record must be retained on board after a report of casualty to a mobile
offshore drilling unit?
o
o
o
(A) Personnel list

(B) Oil Record Book
(C) Hull report
(D) Chart catalogs
3709. (2.5.7.2A2-30) On all mobile offshore drilling units, the deckhead of each accommodation space
must be located above __________.
o
o
o
(A) the operating draft

(B) the deepest load line
(C) the transit draft
(D) the survival draft
3710. (2.5.7.2A2-91) Any firefighting equipment that is carried in addition to the minimum required must
__________.
o
o
o
(A) meet the applicable standards

(B) be marked as additional equipment
(C) be stowed in a separate area

Deck General
September 2015
3711. (2.5.7.2A2-31) On offshore drilling units all sleeping areas, mess areas, recreational and hospital
areas that are adjacent to or immediately above a storage area or machinery space, paint locker,
washroom, or toilet space must be made __________.
o
o
o
(A) soundproof
(B) watertight
(C) weathertight
(D) odorproof
3712. (2.5.7.2A2-32) Where are self-closing doors required on a MODU?

o
o
o
(A) To the engine room

(B) In the galley
(C) To each sleeping room
(D) In each stair tower
3713. (2.5.7.2A2-34) Locations on a MODU where flammable hydrocarbon gas or vapors may
accumulate due to drilling operations are defined as __________.
o
o
o
(A) designated locations

(B) gaseous locations
(C) hazardous locations
(D) classified locations
3714. (2.5.7.2A2-35) Each ventilation system for an enclosed classified location on a MODU must
provide a complete change of air every __________.
o
o
o
(A) 3 minutes
(B) 5 minutes
(C) 7 minutes
(D) 10 minutes
3715. (2.5.7.2A2-36) Offshore drilling units that carry twelve or more persons on a voyage of more than
three days must have a __________.
o
o
o
(A) hospital space

(B) navigation space
(C) recreation room
(D) radar room

Deck General
September 2015
3716. (2.5.7.2A2-37) Each drilling unit equipped with helicopter fuel storage tanks must have the tanks
installed as far as practicable from the __________.
o
o
o
(A) landing area and sources of vapor ignition

(B) engine room
(C) main deck
(D) drill floor
3717. (2.5.7.2A2-97) The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2
inches or __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1 inch
(B) 2-1/2 inches
(C) 3 inches
(D) 3-1/2 inches
3718. (2.5.7.2A2-40) All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being __________.
o
o
o
(A) recharged in the field

(B) carried by hand to a fire
(C) used on class "B" fires
(D) carried or rolled to a fire
3719. (2.5.7.2A2-41) On a MODU with lifeboats stowed in two different locations, if all the lifeboats are
lost in one location then the remaining lifeboats must accommodate what percentage of the persons
permitted on board?
o
o
o
(A) 50%
(B) 75%
(C) 90%
(D) 100%
3720. (2.5.7.2A2-42) In how many locations must lifeboats be installed on a mobile offshore drilling
unit?
o
o
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
o
(A) 16
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 30
3722. (2.5.7.2A2-98) On inspected cargo vessels, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose
which has a nominal diameter of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1-1/2 or 2-1/2 inches

(B) 2 or 3 inches
(C) 2-1/2 or 3-1/2 inches
(D) 3 or 4 inches
o
o
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 25
3724. (2.5.7.2A2-47) For a MODU not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an
impulse projected rocket-type line throwing appliance is a __________.
o
o
o
(A) heaving line

(B) shoulder-type line throwing gun
(C) spring loaded line thrower
(D) hand thrown buoyant line
3725. (2.5.7.2A3-4) After a report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit, what record must be kept
on board?
o
o
o
(A) The Oil Record Book

(B) The crane record book
(C) The machinery maintenance logbook
(D) All chart catalogs

Deck General
September 2015
3726. (2.5.7.2A2-49) An offshore drilling unit must be equipped with a first aid kit approved by the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) Mine Safety and Health Administration

(C) Minerals Management Service
(D) Coast Guard
3727. (2.5.7.2A2-50) Of the required ring life buoys for a MODU, how many must be equipped with a
water light?
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 8
3728. (2.5.7.2A2-52) What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on a MODU?
o
o
o
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16
3729. (2.5.7.2A2-54) Each fire hydrant must have at least one spanner and at least one __________.
o
o
o
(A) pick axe

(B) hose rack or reel
(C) all purpose nozzle
(D) foam applicator
3730. (2.5.7.2A2-57) On a MODU, size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered __________.
o
o
o
(A) hand portable

(B) semi-portable
(C) fixed extinguishers
(D) all purpose

Deck General
September 2015
3731. (2.5.7.2A2-58) Semi-portable extinguishers used on MODU's are sizes __________.

o
o
o
(A) I, II, and III

(B) II, III, and IV
(C) IV and V
(D) III, IV, and V
3732. (2.5.7.2A2-59) On a MODU, size I and II extinguishers are considered __________.

o
o
(A) steam generated

(B) fixed systems
(C) hand portable
(D) semi-portable
3733. (2.5.7.2A2-92) Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with __________.
o
o
(A) the names of the individuals qualified to use it

(B) the name of the vessel on which it is located
(C) an identification number
(D) the date that it was installed
3734. (2.5.7.2A2-60) On a MODU, an extinguisher with 15 lbs. of CO2 or 10 lbs. of dry chemical is a
size __________.
o
o
o
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
3735. (2.5.7.2A2-87) What information must be entered on the MODU's muster list?
o
o
o
(A) Use and application of special equipment

(B) Duties and station of each person during emergencies
(C) Listing of approved emergency equipment
(D) Names of all crew members

Deck General
September 2015
3736. (2.5.7.2A2-63) The connection facilities for the international shore connection required on board
offshore drilling units in international service must be located to provide access __________.
o
o
o
(A) to each side of the drilling unit

(B) on each level of the accommodation space
(C) as close as possible to the control house
(D) on the drill floor
3737. (2.5.7.2A2-89) On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with the
__________.
o
o
(A) builder
(B) drilling location
(C) name and port of the unit
(D) owner and port of the unit
3738. (2.5.7.2A2-65) On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must
withstand a bursting pressure of at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 5,000 pounds per square inch

(B) 6,000 pounds per square inch
(C) 8,000 pounds per square inch
(D) 10,000 pounds per square inch
3739. (2.5.7.2A2-67) Before releasing the CO2 into the space, the alarm for a fixed CO2 system must
sound for at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 20 seconds
(B) 30 seconds
(C) 40 seconds
(D) 60 seconds
3740. (2.5.7.2A2-68) On offshore drilling units fitted with CO2 systems, each space that contains a
cylinder must be vented and designed to keep temperature in the space at not more than
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 130F
(B) 150F
(C) 180F
(D) 200F

Deck General
September 2015
3741. (2.5.7.2A2-69) Operation of the valve control release on a fixed CO2 system must immediately
__________.
o
o
o
(A) release CO2 to the protected space

(B) secure all mechanical ventilation in the protected space
(C) sound an alarm in the ballast control room
(D) sound the rig's general alarm signal for a fire
3742. (2.5.7.2A2-102) The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a __________.
o
o
(A) strainer
(B) check valve
(C) pressure gauge
(D) gate valve
3743. (2.5.7.2A2-70) A fixed CO2 system on a MODU with a capacity of over 300 lbs (136 kilograms)
CO2 which protects spaces other than tanks must have __________.
o
o
o
(A) an audible and visible alarm

(B) two or more releasing stations
(C) automatic release in event of a fire
(D) an audible alarm and time delay
3744. (2.5.7.2A2-71) Portable Halon extinguishers used on MODU's may use __________.
o
o
o
(A) HALON 1211 only

(B) HALON 1301 only
(C) HALON 22 only
(D) HALON 1301 or 1211
3745. (2.5.7.2A2-72) Due to the hazards involved with Halon extinguishers on a MODU, the size II
extinguisher may only be used __________.
o
o
o
(A) outside
(B) in an emergency
(C) on class B fires
(D) on class C fires

Deck General
September 2015
3746. (2.5.7.2A2-73) On offshore drilling units where foam systems are installed on the heliport, the
system must be able to discharge continuously for at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 5 minutes
(B) 6 minutes
(C) 8 minutes
(D) 10 minutes
3747. (2.5.7.2A2-75) If a mobile offshore drilling rig has four hand portable fire extinguishers that can
be recharged by personnel on the unit, how many spare charges must be carried?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
3748. (2.5.7.2A2-76) The minimum number of portable C-II fire extinguishers required on the drill floor
of a MODU is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
3749. (2.5.7.2A2-79) The helicopter deck of a MODU must be marked with the units identification,
appropriate aiming circles, and a continuous line on the perimeter which is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 8 inches wide

(B) 16 inches wide
(C) 24 inches wide
(D) 32 inches wide
3750. (2.5.7.2A2-81) How wide must the safety net be that is required on the unprotected perimeter of
the helicopter landing deck on a MODU?
o
o
o
(A) 2.0 meters

(B) 1.5 meters
(C) 1.0 meter
(D) 2.5 meters

Deck General
September 2015
3751. (2.5.7.2A2-84) What is the minimum number of hand held, rocket propelled, parachute, red flare,
distress signals required on board offshore drilling units?
o
o
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16
3752. (2.5.7.2A2-85) On offshore drilling units each ring life buoy must be marked, in a contrasting
color, with the unit's __________.
o
o
(A) owner and port of registry

(B) port of registry and identification number
(C) name and port of registry
(D) name and owner
3753. (2.5.7.2A2-90) A cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting
system must be __________.
o
o
o
(A) equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting

(B) painted with red and black diagonal stripes
(C) ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches
(D) posted with instructions on the operation of the system
3754. (2.5.7.2A2-105) Each emergency light must be marked with __________.

o
o
(A) a no-smoking symbol

(B) an arrow pointing to the nearest exit
(C) the letter "E"
(D) the word "DANGER"
3755. (2.5.7.2A2-109) The light on a life jacket must be replaced __________.
o
o
o
(A) when it is no longer serviceable

(B) each year after installation
(C) when the power source is replaced
(D) every six months

Deck General
September 2015
3756. (2.5.7.2A3-1) An offshore drilling unit is required to carry on board an operations manual
approved by the __________.
o
o
o

(B) Coast Guard
(D) builder
3757. (2.5.7.2A3-113) The required portable radio apparatus on an international voyage must be
stowed in __________.
o
o
o
(A) the ship's office

(B) the Master's quarters
(C) an unlocked cabinet next to the Muster List ("Station Bill")
(D) the radio room, bridge, or protected location
3758. (2.5.7.2A3-2) Which record must be retained on board after a report of casualty to a MODU?
o
o
o
(A) Preventive maintenance log

(B) Oil Record Book
(C) Repair record book
(D) Storage plans
3759. (2.5.7.2A3-5) The person responsible for maintaining clean and sanitary conditions in the
accommodation spaces of a MODU is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) Master or person in charge

(B) Chief Engineer
(C) Tool Pusher
(D) Chief Steward
3760. (2.5.7.2A3-9) The person in charge of a MODU shall insure that the fuel tank of each motor
propelled lifeboat is emptied, and the fuel is changed at least once every __________.
o
o
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 12 months
(D) 24 months

Deck General
September 2015
3761. (2.5.7.2A3-10) The person in charge shall insure that each lifeboat on a MODU is lowered to the
water, launched, and operated at least once every __________.
o
o
(A) month
(B) 2 months
(C) 3 months
(D) 6 months
3762. (2.5.7.2A3-12) How many people on board a MODU must be trained in the use of the fireman's
outfit?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
3763. (2.5.7.2A3-17) On a MODU, each emergency generator must be tested at least once each
__________.
o
o
o
(A) week
(B) month
(C) three months
(D) six months
3764. (2.5.7.2A3-21) On offshore drilling units, emergency lighting and each emergency power system
must be tested at least once a __________.
o
o
o
(A) day
(B) week
(C) month
(D) year
3765. (2.5.7.2A3-22) Where must you record the date of each emergency training drill conducted on a
MODU?
o
o
o
(A) On the Certificate of Inspection

(B) In the logbook
(C) On the muster list
(D) In the Operations Manual

Deck General
September 2015
3766. (2.5.7.2A3-23) On offshore drilling units, each storage battery for emergency lighting and power
systems must be tested every six months under actual connected load for a period of at least
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 1 hour
(B) 2 hours
(C) 3 hours
(D) 4 hours
3767. (2.5.7.2A3-24) Where must the Master or person in charge of a MODU record the date of each
test of emergency lighting and power systems and the condition and performance of the equipment?
o
o
o
(A) In the Operations Manual

(B) On the Muster List ("Station Bill")
(C) On the Certificate of Inspection
(D) In either the official or unofficial log
3768. (2.5.7.2A3-25) How often must the emergency generator be tested on a mobile offshore drilling
unit?
o
o
(A) Once each day

(B) Once each week
(C) Once each month
(D) Once each year
3769. (2.5.7.2A3-30) How long must the records of tests and inspections of fire fighting equipment on
board a MODU be retained on board?
o
o
o
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 3 years
(D) Until the next inspection for certification
3770. (2.5.7.2A3-31) The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to log __________.
o
o
o
(A) the names of all persons on board

(B) the date and hour of each fire drill
(C) only casualties which occur while underway
(D) every event occurring on board

Deck General
September 2015
3771. (2.5.7.2A3-32) The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to log __________.
o
o
o
(A) only the names of passengers on board

(B) information on emergency training drills
(C) only the names of the crew members on board
(D) the names of all persons on board
3772. (2.5.7.2A3-33) Lifeboat winches on a MODU are required to be inspected and an entry made in
the logbook. What should this entry include?
o
o
o
(A) The time required to lower a lifeboat

(B) The date of inspection and condition of the winch
(C) The time required to raise a lifeboat
3773. (2.5.7.2A3-34) The Master or person in charge of a MODU shall ensure the crane record book
shows the __________.
o
o
o
(A) date and description of each failure

(B) average load in pounds for each usage
(C) total number of lifts for each usage
3774. (2.5.7.2A3-35) After conducting an abandonment drill, the Master or person in charge of a
MODU shall log __________.
o
o
(A) the length of time that each motor propelled lifeboat was operated in the drill
(B) the time it took to lower the boat
(C) the names of crew members who participated in the drill
(D) the length of time the lifeboat was in the water
3775. (2.5.7.2A3-37) On offshore drilling units, the Muster List ("Station Bill") must be posted in
conspicuous locations and signed by the __________.
o
o
o
(A) driller
(B) Master or person in charge
(C) owner
(D) company man

Deck General
September 2015
3776. (2.5.7.2A3-38) With regard to the opening and closing of watertight integrity appliances not fitted
with a remote operating control or alarm system, what must the Master or person in charge of a
MODU enter in the logbook?
o
o
(A) The fact that the hull indicators functioned or not

(B) The name of the person performing the opening and closing of such appliances
(C) The reason for opening or closing each appliance
(D) The time required to close the appliances
3777. (2.5.7.2A3-39) What must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook after
conducting a boat drill?
o
o
o
(A) The number of each lifeboat not lowered during each drill
(B) The length of time an oar propelled lifeboat is rowed
(C) Only the number of each motor propelled lifeboat that is lowered
(D) Which survival craft was used in the drill
3778. (2.5.7.2A3-41) Prior to getting underway, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must
__________.
o
o
o
(A) conduct a fire drill

(B) log the fore and aft draft marks
(C) conduct a boat drill
(D) test the emergency generator
3779. (2.5.7.2A3-42) Prior to getting underway in fresh or brackish water, the Master or person in
charge of a MODU must __________.
o
o
o
(A) take on fresh water ballast

(B) log the density of the water
(C) secure all overboard discharges
(D) clean the sides with fresh water
3780. (2.5.7.2A3-43) When are fore and aft draft readings required to be entered in the unofficial
logbook of a MODU?
o
o
(A) Once a week

(B) Only when entering waters of different density
(C) Prior to getting underway
(D) Once a day

Deck General
September 2015
3781. (2.5.7.2A3-46) In the event of a casualty to a MODU, who is responsible to make records
available to the Coast Guard official authorized to investigate the casualty?
o
o
o
(A) The owner

(C) The person who caused the casualty
(D) The company man
3782. (2.5.7.2A3-47) The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report
of an intentional grounding under what condition?
o
o
o
(A) If it creates a hazard to navigation

(B) At the owner's discretion
(C) If the grounding lasts over 48 hours
(D) Under any condition
3783. (2.5.7.2A3-48) The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report
of an intentional grounding when it __________.
o
o
(A) will last longer than 48 hours

(B) will last longer than 24 hours
(C) creates a hazard to the vessel
(D) occurs in international waters
3784. (2.5.7.2A3-49) According to regulations, a Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to

submit a report of a loss of life __________.
o
o
o
(A) to the nearest OCMI

(B) to the next of kin
(C) to the nearest coroner
(D) only when it happens while underway
3785. (2.5.7.2A3-51) Regulations require that line throwing equipment on mobile offshore drilling units
be tested at regular intervals. What entry should be made in the logbook?
o
o
o
(A) An entry is required only if there is a failure.

(B) Only the date of the test
(C) No entry is required unless it is an official logbook.
(D) The name of the person making the test

Deck General
September 2015
3786. (2.5.7.2A3-52) When a MODU is involved in a casualty, the cost of property damage includes
__________.
o
o
o
(A) the damage claims awarded to individuals or companies involved in the casualty, up to a
maximum of $50,000
(B) the cost of labor and material to restore the property to the service condition which existed
prior to the casualty
(C) the loss of revenues while the unit is being repaired, up to a maximum of $50,000
3787. (2.5.7.2A3-53) The notice of casualty to a MODU must include __________.

o
o
o
(A) a request for assistance

(B) the location of the unit at the time of the casualty
(C) an estimate of the cost to repair damages
(D) the amount of fuel remaining
3788. (2.5.7.2A3-56) Regulations require certain records to be retained on board a MODU for how long
after the report of a casualty?
o
o
o
(A) 1 month
(B) 3 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 12 months
3789. (2.5.7.2A3-57) If a drill required by regulations is not completed on a mobile offshore drilling unit,
the Master or person in charge must __________.
o
o
o
(A) log the reason for not completing the drill

(B) conduct two of the required drills at the next opportunity
(C) report this immediately to the OCMI
(D) report this immediately to the Commandant of the Coast Guard
3790. (2.5.7.2A3-61) A written report of casualty to a MODU shall be made __________.

o
o
o
(A) only if the damage exceeds $1,500

(B) on Form CG 2692
(C) within 12 hours of the casualty
(D) to the Commandant of the Coast Guard

Deck General
September 2015
3791. (2.5.7.2A3-65) The signal for fire alarm on a MODU must be indicated __________.
o
o
o
(A) at each alarm bell

(B) near all exits
(C) at each alarm actuator
(D) on the Muster List ("Station Bill")
3792. (2.5.7.2A3-66) Lifeboat winches on mobile offshore drilling units are required to be inspected and
an entry made in the logbook. How often should this entry be made?
o
o
o
(A) Every 3 months

(B) Every 6 months
(C) Every year
(D) Only after conducting a boat drill
3793. (2.5.7.2A3-69) On a MODU, CO2 extinguishers must be weighed __________.

o
o
o
(A) monthly
(B) quarterly
(C) semiannually
(D) annually
3794. (2.5.7.2A3-70) Who is responsible for reporting a casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit?
o
o
(A) The engineer

(B) The surveyor
(C) The owner
(D) The pilot
3795. (2.5.7.2A3-71) Cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguishers used on MODU's should have the
propellant cartridge weighed every __________.
o
o
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 12 months
(D) 2 years

Deck General
September 2015
3796. (2.5.7.2A3-72) On a MODU, firefighting equipment must be inspected once every __________.
o
o
(A) three months

(B) six months
(C) twelve months
(D) eighteen months
3797. (2.5.7.2A3-73) Who shall insure that all records required by regulations are retained on board a
mobile offshore drilling unit involved in a casualty?
o
o
o
(A) Pilot
(B) Owner
(C) Engineer
(D) Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
3798. (2.5.7.2A3-74) On a MODU, a fire drill shall be conducted once every __________.
o
o
o
(A) week
(B) month
(C) crew change
(D) other week
3799. (2.5.7.2A3-77) In the case of an injury causing a person to be incapacitated, the Master or
person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must submit a report to the __________.
o
o
o

(B) nearest Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office
(C) Department of Energy
(D) nearest hospital
3800. (2.5.7.2A3-78) The inspection of portable extinguishers on a MODU must be __________.

o
o
o
(A) accomplished by an authorized servicing representative

(B) recorded by the person in charge
(C) completed every six months

Deck General
September 2015
3801. (2.5.7.2A3-79) It is the responsibility of the Master or person in charge of a MODU to ensure that
__________.
o
o
o
(A) names of crew members are listed on the Muster List ("Station Bill")
(B) the Muster List ("Station Bill") is posted in each compartment
(C) no changes are made to the Muster List ("Station Bill")
(D) temporary personnel and visitors are advised of emergency stations
3802. (2.5.7.2A3-80) Fires on a MODU must be reported to the Coast Guard if there is death, injury
resulting in more than 72 hours incapacitation, or property damage in excess of __________.
o
o
(A) $ 5,000
(B) $10,000
(C) $25,000
(D) $50,000
3803. (2.5.7.2A3-81) On a MODU, where MUST the fire control plan be posted?
o
o
(A) Crew lounge

(B) Mess Area
(C) Control Center
3804. (2.5.7.2A3-82) On a MODU, where Must the fire control plan be posted?
o
o
(A) Mess Area

(B) Crew Lounge
(C) Pilot house
3805. (2.5.7.2A3-83) A report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit must include __________.
o
o
o
(A) the name of the owner or agent of the unit

(B) an evaluation of who was at fault
(C) the estimated cost of damage to the unit
(D) the amount of ballast on board

Deck General
September 2015
3806. (2.5.7.2A3-84) On offshore drilling units, any reports of a casualty that are made are required to
be retained on board for a period of at least __________.
o
o
o
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 12 months
(D) 24 months
3807. (2.5.7.2A3-85) After reporting a casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit, which record must be
retained on board?
o
o
(A) Hull reports

(B) Machinery repair book
(C) Record of drafts
(D) Anchor record
3808. (2.5.7.2A3-87) A report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit must be made in writing to
which office?
o
o
o
(A) Commandant of the Coast Guard

(B) Nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office
(C) Owner of the unit
(D) Captain of the nearest port
3809. (2.5.7.2A3-89) When a fire drill is conducted on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the designated
person in charge must ensure that __________.
o
o
o
(A) all personnel report to their stations

(B) at least three portable extinguishers are activated
(C) each hose is brought to full pressure at the nozzle
3810. (2.5.7.2A3-91) The person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must insure that
__________.
o
o
o
(A) the date of each fire extinguisher test is recorded

(B) the Muster List ("Station Bill") is approved by the Coast Guard
(C) a fire drill is held at least once each day
(D) all personnel are trained to launch the survival craft

Deck General
September 2015
3811. (2.5.7.2A3-92) Who is responsible for insuring that each survival craft on a mobile offshore
drilling unit is cleaned and inspected once a year?
o
o
(A) The certificated able seaman assigned to that craft

(B) The certificated lifeboatman assigned to that craft
(C) The designated person in charge of the rig
(D) The Coast Guard inspecting officer
3812. (2.5.7.2A3-93) Which casualty involving a mobile offshore drilling unit would require a report to
be filed?
o
o
o
(A) An occurrence materially and adversely affecting the vessel's fitness for service
(B) Damage to property of $20,000
(C) An injury treated by first aid
3813. (2.5.7.2A3-94) The person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must insure that
__________.
o
o
o
(A) the date and hour of each fire drill is recorded in the log
(B) whistles and general alarm bells are tested once each day
(C) each bilge pump is operated at least once a week
(D) all personnel are provided with work vests
3814. (2.5.7.2A3-96) If there is unsafe machinery on a mobile offshore drilling unit, who is responsible
for reporting the existence of the unsafe condition to the Coast Guard?
o
o
o
(A) The chief mechanic

(B) The designated person in charge
(C) The port engineer
(D) The rig superintendent
3815. (2.5.7.2A3-97) On a mobile offshore drilling unit it is required to __________.

o
o
o
(A) insure that engineering spaces are in a clean and sanitary condition
(B) check the Certificate of Inspection of any support vessel bringing hazardous materials to the
rig
(C) inspect the lifesaving gear provided in any helicopter landing on the rig
(D) record the length of each abandonment drill in the rig's log book

Deck General
September 2015
3816. (2.5.7.2A3-98) How often must CO2 systems be inspected to confirm cylinders are within 10% of
the stamped full weight of the charge?
o
o
(A) quarterly
(B) semiannually
(C) annually
(D) biannually
3817. (2.5.7.2A3-99) On offshore drilling units, each hand-held portable fire extinguisher, semi-portable
fire extinguisher, and fixed fire extinguisher must be tested and inspected at least once every
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 12 months
(B) 24 months
(C) 36 months
(D) 48 months
3818. (2.5.7.2A3-100) How often are fire hoses required to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
o
o
(A) Once a week

(B) Once a month
(C) Once a year
(D) During each drill
3819. (2.5.7.2A3-101) On offshore drilling units, the minimum number of persons required to be trained
in the use of fireman's outfits is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
3820. (2.5.7.2A3-102) The Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit shall ensure the
crane record book shows __________.
o
o
o
(A) the name of the operator

(B) the American Petroleum Institute name plate data
(C) the average load in pounds each usage

Deck General
September 2015
3821. (2.5.7.2A3-103) Two individuals authorized to serve as a lifeboatman must be assigned to any
lifeboat that has a capacity of more than __________.
o
o
o
(A) 10 persons
(B) 20 persons
(C) 30 persons
(D) 40 persons
3822. (2.5.7.2A3-104) A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must __________.
o
o
o
(A) be the first individual to board the craft

(B) have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat
(C) drain the hydraulic pressure before lowering the craft
3823. (2.5.7.2A3-105) When a survival craft drill is held, the person in charge must insure that
__________.
o
o
(A) all survival craft are lowered to the water, launched, and operated for thirty minutes
(B) each emergency position indicating radio beacon is tested for thirty minutes
(C) all davits used for launching liferafts are operated
(D) the helicopter pad landing lights are operating in a quick-flashing mode
3824. (2.5.7.2A3-106) Visual inspections of survival craft on offshore drilling units, to ensure
operational readiness, must be conducted at least once a __________.
o
o
o
(A) week
(B) month
(C) quarter
(D) year
3825. (2.5.7.2A3-107) On offshore drilling units, each inflatable liferaft must be serviced every
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 12 months
(B) 24 months
(C) 36 months
(D) 48 months

Deck General
September 2015
3826. (2.5.7.2A3-109) A mobile offshore drilling unit crane certificate is required to be maintained
__________.
o
o
o
(A) on the unit

(B) in the company office
(C) on file with the OCMI
(D) on file with the American Bureau of Shipping
3827. (2.5.7.2A3-110) On offshore drilling units, the lifeboats' fuel tanks must be emptied and the fuel
changed at least once every __________.
o
o
o
(A) 12 months
(B) 24 months
(C) 36 months
(D) 48 months
3828. (2.5.7.2A3-111) Who is charged with appointing persons to be in command of the lifeboats
and(or) liferafts on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
o
o
o
(A) Tool Pusher

(B) Designated person in charge
(C) Company man
(D) Rig superintendent
3829. (2.5.7.2A3-112) A CO2 portable extinguisher is annually checked by __________.

o
o
o
(A) discharging a small amount of CO2

(B) reading the gage pressure
(C) seeing if the seal has been broken
(D) weighing the extinguisher
3830. (2.5.7.2A3-115) Each EPIRB shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator
every __________.
o
o
o
(A) two weeks

(B) week
(C) quarter
(D) month

Deck General
September 2015
3831. (2.5.7.2A3-116) Each life jacket light that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced
__________.
o
o
o
(A) on or before the expiration date of the power source

(B) every 6 months after initial installation
(C) every 12 months after initial installation
(D) every 24 months after initial installation
3832. (2.5.7.2A3-117) When must the Master of a vessel log the position of load line marks in relation
to the surface of the water in the Official Logbook?
o
o
(A) Only when in fresh or brackish water

(B) Once a day
(C) Prior to getting underway
(D) At the change of every watch
3833. (2.5.7.2A3-118) Prior to getting underway in fresh or brackish water, the Master must
__________.
o
o
o
(A) log the density of the water

(B) take on fresh water ballast
(C) secure all overboard discharges
(D) clean the sides with fresh water
3834. (2.5.7.2A3-119) It is the responsibility of the Master to ensure that __________.

o
o
o
(A) no changes are made to the muster list

(B) temporary personnel and visitors are advised of emergency stations
(C) the muster list is posted in each compartment
(D) names of crew members are listed on the muster list
3835. (2.5.7.2A3-120) A mobile offshore drilling unit crane certificate is required to be maintained
__________.
o
o
o
(A) on the unit

(B) on file with the American Bureau of Shipping
(C) in the company office
(D) on file with the OCMI

Deck General
September 2015
3836. (2.5.7.2A3-121) A MODU must report a collision with an aid to navigation maintained by the
Coast Guard to which office?
o
o
(A) The Marine Safety Center at Coast Guard Headquarters

(B) Nearest Oceanographic office
(C) Nearest Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
(D) National Ocean Service
3837. (2.5.7.2B-1) To determine the number of industrial personnel allowed on a mobile offshore
drilling unit, you should check the __________.
o
o
(A) Safety of Life at Sea Certificate

(B) Operations Manual
3838. (2.5.7.2B-2) To determine the number of inflatable liferafts required on a mobile offshore drilling
unit, you should check the __________.
o
o
(A) stability letter

(B) Operations Manual
(D) load line certificate
3839. (2.5.7.2B-4) On offshore drilling units, the number of industrial personnel permitted to be on board
during drilling operations is found on the __________.
o
o
o
(A) U.S. Coast Guard Certificate of Inspection

(C) Owner's Operation Manual
(D) Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
3840. (2.5.7.2C-1) To meet the regulations governing manning requirements outside U.S. jurisdiction, a
person holding a foreign credential can serve in any of the following positions EXCEPT which of the
following?
o
o
o
(A) ballast control operator

(B) barge supervisor
(C) able seaman
(D) offshore installation manager

Deck General
September 2015
3841. (2.5.7.2C-2) The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is
determined by the __________.
o
o
o

(C) Corps of Engineers
(D) Coast Guard
3842. (2.5.7.2C-3) The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is
stated in the __________.
o
o
o

(B) American Bureau of Shipping code
(C) Safety of Life at Sea Convention
(D) Minerals Management Service regulations
3843. (2.5.7.2C-4) Which of the following will the certificate of inspection of a MODU specify?
o
o
o
(A) maximum water depth for drilling

(B) next date for an inclining experiment
(C) maximum load line draft
(D) number of credentialed personnel required on board
3844. (2.5.7.2C-5) A person who holds a foreign credential can serve as the ballast control operator to
meet manning requirements on a MODU, on waters outside U.S. jurisdiction, until what point in
time?
o
o
o
(A) Certificate of Inspection is renewed

(B) Operations Manual is revised
(C) MODU's contract is completed
(D) MODU returns to a U.S. port
3845. (2.5.7.2C-6) To have the ultimate authority for a mobile offshore drilling unit while it is under tow,
a rig mover must __________.
o
o
o
(A) hold an endorsement as Offshore Installation Manager and be held as the person in charge of
the rig
(B) be certified by the Minerals Management Service and be designated as the person in charge
of the rig
(C) be certified by an approved classification society and be designated as the person in charge
of the rig
(D) hold an Able Seaman endorsement and be designated as the person in charge of the rig

Deck General
September 2015
3846. (2.5.7.2D-1) A MODU crane which has been idle for a period of over six months shall be
inspected to the same standards as a __________.
o
o
o
(A) yearly inspection

(B) quarterly inspection
(C) monthly inspection
(D) weekly inspection
3847. (2.5.7.2D-2) Annual inspection of MODU cranes shall be conducted by __________.
o
o
o
(A) a qualified inspector

(B) the person in charge
(D) the crane operator
3848. (2.5.7.2E-1) A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration located 10
nautical miles from nearest land MAY discharge which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) food, ground to less than 1"

(B) paper, ground to less than 1"
(C) food waste
3849. (2.5.7.2E-2) A MODU which is required to carry an Oil Record Book must log in the book
__________.
o
o
o
(A) discharge of ballast or cleaning water from fuel tanks

(B) the grade and specific gravity of all fuel oil carried
(C) sounding levels of all fuel tanks on a daily basis
(D) fuel consumption rates on a weekly basis
3850. (2.5.7.2E-3) A MODU required to carry an Oil Record Book must maintain the book on board for
__________.
o
o
(A) one year

(B) two years
(C) three years
(D) four years

Deck General
September 2015
3851. (2.5.7.2E-4) You are aboard a vessel which is near a platform engaged in oil exploration. Under
U.S. pollution regulations, you may NOT discharge garbage if you are within __________.
o
o
o

3852. (2.5.7.2E-5) The regulations regarding Oil Record Books do not apply to MODU's that
__________.
o
o
o
(A) have a valid National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit

(B) have a valid International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate
(C) are on an international voyage
(D) are on a voyage of more than 24 hours
3853. (2.5.7.2E-6) A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration MAY discharge
food waste into the sea when the distance from the nearest land is at least __________.
o
o
(A) 3 nautical miles

(B) 5 nautical miles
(C) 12 nautical miles
(D) 25 nautical miles
3854. (2.5.7.2E-7) Under the regulations implementing MARPOL, a mobile offshore drilling unit is
required to have an International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate when the unit
__________.
o
o
(A) moves to a new drilling location in U.S. waters

(B) is drilling on the Outer Continental Shelf
(C) engages in a voyage to a port of another country which is a party of MARPOL
3855. (2.5.7.2E-8) The requirement to carry an Oil Record Book does not apply to a MODU that
__________.
o
o
o
(A) is on an international voyage to a country that is a party to MARPOL

(B) has an International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate
(C) has an oily water separator of sufficient capacity for the oil wastes generated
(D) is not equipped to discharge overboard any oil or oily mixture

Deck General
September 2015
3856. (2.5.7.2E-9) The International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate required by MARPOL is
issued to U.S. flag MODUs by the __________.
o
o

3857. (2.5.7.2E-10) The International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate on a MODU is valid for a
period of __________.
o
o
o
(A) one year from the date of issue

(B) two years from the date of issue
(C) three years from the date of issue
(D) four years from the date of issue
3858. (2.5.7.2E-11) If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel
transfer operations on a MODU, what action should you take FIRST?
o
o
o
(A) Sound the fire alarm.

(B) Shut down the transfer operation.
(C) Notify the ballast control operator.
(D) Wait for the person in charge to act.
3859. (2.5.7.2E-12) A small fuel spillage has occurred during helicopter refueling. After the leak has
been stopped and fire-control personnel have been notified and are standing by, the next step is to
__________.
o
o
(A) have helicopter move to a safer location

(B) proceed with fueling operation
(C) wash spilled fuel away with a flood of water
(D) clean spilled fuel with rags
3860. (2.5.7.2E-13) When pumping fuel between an offshore supply vessel (OSV) and a MODU, there
must be direct VHF radio contact between the offshore supply vessel engineer and the __________.
o
o
o
(A) barge superintendent

(B) person in charge of the fuel transfer
(C) ballast control operator
(D) crane operator

Deck General
September 2015
3861. (2.5.7.2E-14) On the COASTAL DRILLER, when afloat, oily bilge discharge should be pumped
through the __________.
o
o
o
(A) raw water header

(B) skimmer tanks
(C) overboard discharge
(D) dump valves
3862. (2.5.7.2E-15) On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case the bilge discharge is oily, the bilge water
should be discharged through the __________.
o
o
o
(A) sump valves

(B) skimmer tank
(C) dump valves
(D) overboard discharge
3863. (2.5.7.1A-1) Beyond the area of state ownership in the U.S. outer continental shelf, the right to
drill is controlled by the __________.
o
o
o
(A) U.S. Corps of Engineers

3864. (2.5.7.1B-1) A load line for a MODU is assigned by the __________.

o
o
(A) Department of Energy

(C) A recognized classification society approved by the Coast Guard
3865. (2.5.7.1B-2) The maximum draft to which a MODU can legally be submerged is indicated by the
__________.
o
o
o

(B) Tonnage mark
(D) Load Line mark

Deck General
September 2015
3866. (2.5.7.1B-3) Load line regulations are designed to insure that a MODU has adequate structural
strength and sufficient __________.
o
o
o
(A) lifesaving equipment

(B) stability
(C) riser tension
(D) mooring tension
3867. (2.5.7.1B-4) The document that certifies the correctness of the load line marks on a MODU is
o
o
o

(B) SOLAS Certificate
(C) Certificate of Documentation
(D) Load line certificate
3868. (2.5.7.1B-5) A load line is assigned to a MODU to insure adequate stability and __________.
o
o
o
(A) structural strength

(B) riser tension
(C) mooring tension
(D) lifesaving equipment
3869. (2.5.7.1B-7) Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a MODU must be made at
intervals not exceeding __________.
o
o
o
(A) 18 months
(B) 2 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 5 years
3870. (2.5.7.1B-9) Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and center of gravity
locations for the changes to lightweight shown in the permanent record for the Deep Driller are
treated as __________.
o
o
(A) basic load

(B) gross tonnage
(C) variable load
(D) fixed load

Deck General
September 2015
3871. (2.5.7.1B-8) The prohibition against exceeding the load line draft may be considered temporarily
not applicable when __________.
o
o
(A) column-stabilized units are operating in waters outside U.S. jurisdiction

(B) column-stabilized units are operating in water depths over 600 feet
(C) bottom supported units are being raised or lowered to the sea bed
(D) bottom supported units are being towed on a move of less than 12 hours
3872. (2.5.7.1C-1) The International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate on a MODU is valid for a period
of __________.
o
o
o
(A) one year from the date of issue

(B) two years from the date of issue
(C) three years from the date of issue
(D) four years from the date of issue
3873. (2.5.7.1C-2) The International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate required by MARPOL is
issued to U.S. flag MODUs by the __________.
o
o

(B) International Maritime Organization
3874. (2.5.7.1C-3) Under the regulations implementing MARPOL, a mobile offshore drilling unit is
required to have an International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate when the unit
__________.
o
o
o
(A) engages in a voyage to a port of another country which is a party of MARPOL

(B) moves to a new drilling location in U.S. waters
(C) is drilling on the Outer Continental Shelf

Deck General
September 2015
3875. (2.10.1.1D-22) The primary purpose of the stud is to prevent the anchor chain from
__________.
o
o
o
(A) distorting
(B) kinking
(C) elongating
(D) breaking
3876. (2.10.1.1D-41) The angle at which the fluke penetrates the soil is called the __________.
o
o
o
(A) tripping angle

(B) holding angle
(C) penetration angle
(D) fluke angle
3877. (2.10.8.2-18) A twin-screw ship going ahead on the starboard screw only tends to move
__________.
o
o
o
(A) to starboard
(B) to port
(C) from side to side
(D) in a straight line
3878. (2.10.1.1B-7) You are coming to anchor in 8 fathoms of water. In this case, the __________.
o
o
o
(A) anchor may be dropped from the hawsepipe

(B) anchor should be lowered to the bottom then the ship backed and the remainder of the cable
veered
(C) scope should be less than 3 times the depth of the water
(D) anchor should be lowered to within 2 fathoms of the bottom before being dropped
3879. (2.10.1.2B-2) You are docking a ship with a single-screw tug assisting on your starboard bow.
How should the tug be tied up if you are anticipating that she will have to hold your bow off while you
stem the current?
o
o
(A) The tug would need at least two head lines.

(B) The tug should put a spring line up, leading astern on the ship.
(C) The tug should put a stern line up, leading ahead on the ship.
(D) One head line would be sufficient.

Deck General
September 2015
3880. (2.10.2-2) The bow thruster generally is ineffective at __________.

o
o
(A) over 1 knot sternway

(B) at any speed ahead
(C) over 3 knots headway
(D) at any speed astern
3881. (2.10.1.1E-22) How many feet are there in 2 shots of anchor chain?
o
o
(A) 50
(B) 60
(C) 180
(D) 360
3882. (2.10.9-3) As a ship moves through the water, it causes a wake, which is also moving forward
relative to the sea. In addition to a fore and aft motion, this wake also has a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) downward and inward flow

(B) upward and inward flow
(C) downward and outward flow
(D) upward and outward flow
3883. (2.10.1.1E-1) When anchoring, it is a common rule of thumb to use a length of chain
__________.
o
o
o
(A) twice the depth of water

(B) seven to ten times the depth of water
(C) twice the depth of water plus the range of tide
(D) five to seven times the depth of water
3884. (2.10.3.1-9) How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel
proceeding along a narrow channel?
o
o
(A) It pulls the bow toward the bank.

(B) It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank.
(C) It pulls the stern toward the bank.
(D) It heels the vessel toward the bank.

Deck General
September 2015
3885. (2.10.3.1-6) A wedge of water building up between the bow and nearer bank which forces the
bow out and away describes __________.
o
o
o
(A) bank cushion

(B) combined effect
(C) bank suction
(D) bend effect
3886. (2.10.1.2A-3) You are using the anchor to steady the bow while maneuvering. You have the
proper scope of anchor cable when the __________.
o
o
o
(A) anchor is just touching the bottom

(B) scope is not more than 5 times the depth of the water
(C) cable enters the water at an angle between 60 and 85 from the horizontal
(D) bow is held in position with the engines coming slowly ahead
3887. (2.10.8.1-14) You are on a large vessel fitted with a right-handed controllable-pitch propeller.
When making large speed changes while decreasing pitch, which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) You may lose rudder control until the ship's speed has dropped to correspond to propeller
speed.
(B) You will probably have full directional control throughout the speed change.
(C) The stern will immediately slew to starboard due to unbalanced forces acting on the propeller.
(D) The stern will immediately slew to port due to unbalanced forces acting on the propeller.
3888. (2.10.3.2-31) Multiple factors will have an effect on your vessel when it is maneuvering in
restricted waters. Which of the following factors is the combination of sinkage and trim of the vessel?
o
o
(A) bank suction

(B) bank cushion
(C) squat
(D) heel
3889. (2.10.1.1D-40) Metal plates that cover the top of the hawsepipe are called __________.
o
o
o
(A) buckler plates

(B) stop waters
(C) plugs
(D) footings

Deck General
September 2015
3890. (2.10.6.1-7) You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your
vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light with the results as
shown. Based on this information, what is the advance for a turn of 90? Illustration D034DG
o
o
o
(A) 820 yards

(B) 870 yards
(C) 930 yards
(D) 975 yards
3891. (2.10.4-1) You are heading into the sea during rough weather. Having too much weight forward
can cause your small boat to __________.
o
o
o
(A) broach
(B) plunge into the wave
(C) rise rapidly over the wave
(D) list
3892. (2.10.1.1D-11) A Danforth lightweight anchor does NOT hold well in which type of bottom?
o
o
o
(A) Sand
(B) Mud
(C) Clay
(D) Grass
3893. (2.10.6.5-9) You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the
radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in
illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 60?
o
o
o
(A) 105 yards

(B) 155 yards
(C) 205 yards
(D) 255 yards
3894. (2.10.1.1B-32) When weighing an anchor that was under a heavy strain, a check of the anchor
chain can be done by striking each link with a hammer. What sound would indicate that a link is
good?
o
o
(A) it produces a flat tone

(B) it will not produce a sound
(C) it produces a ringing tone
(D) it produces an echo

Deck General
September 2015
3895. (2.10.3.1-1) You are aboard vessel "A" in a narrow channel and the pilot is approaching vessel
"B" as shown in illustration D037RR below. Which of the following is the reason he has not
previously changed course to the starboard side of the channel?
o
o
o
(A) to avoid the effects of bank cushion and bank suction

(B) to avoid vessel squat in the shallower water near the bank
(C) because there is less chance of striking submerged objects in mid-channel
(D) because the current has less eddies in mid-channel
3896. (2.10.1.1E-16) You are arriving in port and are assigned to anchor in anchorage circle B-4. It has
a diameter of 500 yards and your vessel's LOA is 484 feet. If you anchor in 8 fathoms at the center
of the circle, what is the maximum number of shots of chain you can use and still remain in the
circle?
o
o
o
(A) 3 shots
(B) 4 shots
(C) 6 shots
(D) 5 shots
3897. (2.10.1.1D-26) The riding pawl is __________.
o
o
o
(A) a stopper that prevents the anchor cable from running free if the cable jumps the wildcat
(B) the device that locks the deck lashings of the Peck and Hale system
(C) the lug that rides on the eccentric rib and engages the locking ring on the windlass
(D) a safety interlock in a cargo winch that prevents the runner from overspeeding
3898. (2.10.1.1E-13) To safely anchor a vessel there must be sufficient "scope" in the anchor cable.
Scope is the ratio of __________.
o
o
o
(A) weight of cable to weight of vessel

(B) weight of cable to weight of anchor
(C) length of anchor to depth of water
(D) length of cable to depth of water
3899. (2.10.1.2B-3) When a tug is pulling on a hawser at right angles to the ship, and the pilot wants to
come ahead or astern on the ship's engine, care must be taken that the pilot __________.
o
o
o
(A) turns the ship toward the direction of pull

(B) keeps a steady course so the towline will remain tight
(C) does not break the towline
(D) does not get too much way on the vessel

Deck General
September 2015
3900. (2.10.1.1B-28) A vessel is wind rode when it is __________.

o
o
o
(A) backing into the wind

(B) necessary to apply a leeway correction to the course
(C) carrying lee rudder
(D) at anchor and heading into the wind
3901. (2.10.3.1-22) Your vessel is proceeding through a narrow channel. What actions can you take to
avoid any sudden sheers of the vessel?
o
o
o
(A) reduce speed and stay in the deepest part of the channel
(B) reduce speed and stay to the out limits of the channel
(C) put your offshore anchor well in the water
(D) increase speed and stay to the outer limits of the channel
3902. (2.10.1.2B-8) When a tug makes up to a large vessel, the spring line should lead from the
forwardmost part of the tug so that __________.
o
o
o
(A) the head line and spring line can be worked simultaneously
(B) friction on the spring line is minimized
(C) the length of the spring line is minimized
(D) the tug can pivot freely
3903. (2.10.3.2-34) You are the officer on watch and have taken the final drafts of your vessel prior to
getting underway. The vessel takes departure and proceeds outbound in a narrow channel. As the
vessel increases speed and gains momentum, what will be the effect on the mean draft?
o
o
(A) it will decrease in comparison to the sailing drafts

(B) it will increase if you decrease speed
(C) it will increase in comparison to the sailing drafts
(D) it will remain the same as the sailing drafts
3904. (2.10.1.1D-36) An example of a modern anchor which has a stock is a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) articulated anchor

(B) Baldt anchor
(C) Flipper Delta anchor
(D) Danforth anchor

Deck General
September 2015
3905. (2.10.3.1-11) Two vessels are abreast of each other and passing port to port in a confined
waterway. What should you expect as your bow approaches the screws of the other vessel?
o
o
(A) Your bow will sheer away from the other vessel.
(B) Your draft will significantly decrease.
(C) Your bow will sheer towards the other vessel.
(D) Your speed will significantly increase.
3906. (2.10.3.2-18) Water may boil up around the stern of a vessel in a channel due to __________.
o
o
o
(A) a cross current

(B) shallow water
(C) slack water when upbound
(D) a head current
3907. (2.10.1.3-6) When using a Mediterranean Moor, the vessel is moored with her __________.
o
o
o
(A) stern to the pier

(B) bow to the pier
(C) anchors crossed
(D) anchor chains forward, side to the pier
3908. (2.10.3.2-7) A common occurrence when a vessel is running into shallow water is that
__________.
o
o
(A) the wake is less pronounced

(B) the vessel is more responsive to the rudder
(C) "squat" will cause a decrease in bottom clearance and an increase in draft
3909. (2.10.1.1D-15) A stopper used in securing the ground tackle for sea that consists of a grab
attached to a turnbuckle is a __________.
o
o
o
(A) riding pawl

(B) devil's claw
(C) locking ring
(D) buckler

Deck General
September 2015
3910. (2.10.4-10) When the period of beam seas equals the natural rolling period of a vessel, what will
most likely occur?
o
o
(A) Excessive yawing

(B) Excessive pitching
(C) Excessive rolling
(D) No change should be evident
3911. (2.10.3.2-13) Insufficient space between the hull and bottom in shallow water will prevent normal
screw currents resulting in __________.
o
o
o
(A) sudden sheering to either side

(B) sluggish rudder response
(C) waste of power
3912. (2.10.1.1D-24) Anchors are prevented from running out when secured by the __________.
o
o
o
(A) pawls
(B) devil's claw
(C) brake
3913. (2.10.1.1D1-6) In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter
"J"?
o
o
o
(A) tip
(B) bill
(C) shank
(D) crown
3914. (2.10.4-15) You are steaming in a heavy gale and find it necessary to heave to. Under most
circumstances, this is best done by __________.
o
o
o
(A) taking the sea fine on the bow and reducing the speed to the minimum to hold that position
(B) stopping the engines and drifting beam to the seas
(C) going slow astern and taking the seas on the quarter
(D) maintaining speed and taking the sea broad on the bow

Deck General
September 2015
3915. (2.10.3.2-22) A V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing upstream in a river may indicate a
__________.
o
o
(A) submerged rock, not dangerous to navigation

(B) sunken wreck, not dangerous to navigation
(C) towed-under buoy
3916. (2.10.1.1A-1) When anchoring in a clay bottom, what is one hazard that may cause the anchor to
drag?
o
o
(A) The flukes may dig in unevenly and capsize the anchor when under stress.
(B) The anchor will tend to dig in and come to rest near the vertical.
(C) The anchor may get shod with clay and not develop full holding power.
(D) The flukes may not dig in.
3917. (2.10.1.1B-11) When steaming through an anchorage, a shipmaster should __________.

o
o
o
(A) avoid crossing close astern of the anchored ships

(B) avoid crossing close ahead of the anchored ships
(C) keep the ship moving at a good speed to reduce set
(D) transit only on a flood tide
3918. (2.10.1.1B-8) You are anchoring in 16 fathoms of water. On a small to medium size vessel, the
__________.
o
o
(A) scope should always be at least ten times the depth of the water
(B) scope should always be less than 5 times the depth of the water
(C) anchor should be lowered to within 2 fathoms of the bottom before being dropped
(D) anchor may be dropped from the hawsepipe
3919. (2.10.1.1D1-4) In illustration D038DG below, which letter indicates the anchor shackle?
o
o
o
(A) J
(B) K
(C) F
(D) H

Deck General
September 2015
3920. (2.10.3.2-9) Which effect does speed through the water have on a vessel which is underway in
shallow water?
o
o
o
(A) An increase in speed results in the stern sucking down lower than the bow.
(B) A decrease in the speed results in a decrease in steering response and maneuverability.
(C) An increase in speed results in the vessel rising on an even plane.
(D) A decrease in speed results in the vessel sucking down on an even plane.
3921. (2.10.1.1A-6) What provides little or no indication that a vessel is dragging anchor?
o
o
o
(A) Changing bearings to distant fixed objects abeam

(B) Increasing radar range to a fixed object ahead
(C) Vibrations felt by placing a hand on the anchor cable
(D) Drift lead with the line leading perpendicular to the centerline
3922. (2.10.1.1D-4) The locking pin that joins the parts of a detachable link is held in position by
__________.
o
o
o
(A) a cotter pin

(B) a lead plug
(C) the self-locking characteristics of its taper
(D) a tack weld
3923. (2.10.3.2-21) For the deepest water when rounding a bend in a river, you should navigate your
vessel __________.
o
o
o
(A) in the river's center

(B) toward the center of the river just before the bend, then change course for the river's center
after the bend
(C) toward the inside of the bend
(D) toward the outside of the bend
3924. (2.10.1.1A-2) If your vessel is dragging her anchor in a strong wind, you should __________.
o
o
(A) shorten the scope of anchor cable

(B) put over a stern anchor
(C) increase the scope of anchor cable
(D) put over the sea anchor

Deck General
September 2015
3925. (2.10.1.1D-50) Before being certified by the American Bureau of Shipping, anchor chain must
undergo __________.
o
o
(A) USCG inspection

(B) x-ray inspection
(C) a breaking test
(D) spectroanalysis
3926. (2.10.3.1-10) You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel. As you approach the other
vessel's stern __________.
o
o
o
(A) the vessels will drift together

(B) you will gain speed
(C) the vessels will drift apart
(D) both vessels will gain speed
3927. (2.10.1.2-3) You are docking a vessel. Wind and current are most favorable when they are
__________.
o
o
o
(A) crossing your course in opposite directions

(B) setting you on the pier
(C) crossing your course in the same direction
(D) parallel to the pier from ahead
3928. (2.10.1.1D1-3) In illustration D038DG below, which letter indicates the tripping palm?
o
o
o
(A) F
(B) G
(C) H
(D) J
3929. (2.10.6.2-3) The distance that a ship moves forward with each revolution of its propeller, if there
is no slip, is called __________.
o
o
o
(A) pitch
(B) head reach
(C) advance
(D) transfer

Deck General
September 2015
3930. (2.10.4-9) In which situation could a vessel most easily capsize?

o
o
(A) Anchored with your bow into the seas

(B) Running into head seas
(C) Running in the trough
(D) Running with following seas
3931. (2.10.1.1B-1) When dropping anchor, you are stationed at the windlass brake. The most
important piece(s) of gear is(are) __________.
o
o
o
(A) goggles
(B) a hard hat
(C) gloves
(D) a long sleeve shirt
3932. (2.10.3.1-16) Your vessel is proceeding up a narrow channel. What is the effect on squat if you
meet another vessel on a reciprocal course?
o
o
o
(A) the squat is additive

(B) the squat is subtractive
(C) squat will remain the same
(D) squat will be cancelled out
3933. (2.10.1.3-7) The anchor chain should be kept moderately taut during a Mediterranean moor to
__________.
o
o
(A) provide a steady platform for the gangway between the fantail and pier
(B) facilitate speed of recovery during the weighing process
(C) prevent damage to the stern in the event of a headwind
(D) indicate the anchor's location to passing or mooring ships
3934. (2.10.1.1A-3) The best method of determining if a vessel is dragging anchor is to note
__________.
o
o
o
(A) changes in bearings of fixed objects onshore

(B) how much the vessel sheers while at anchor
(C) the amount of line paid out
(D) any change in the tautness of the anchor chain

Deck General
September 2015
radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are listed in
illustration D035DG. Based on this data what is the advance for a turn of 30? Illustration D035DG
o
o
(A) 380 yards

(B) 420 yards
(C) 470 yards
(D) 525 yards
shown. Based on this information, what is the advance for a turn of 45? ILLUSTRATION D034DG
o
o
(A) 590 yards

(B) 635 yards
(C) 690 yards
(D) 740 yards
3937. (2.10.1.1B-12) While anchoring your vessel, the best time to let go the anchor is when the vessel
is __________.
o
o
o
(A) moving slowly astern over the ground

(B) moving fast astern over the ground
(C) dead in the water
(D) moving fast ahead over the ground
3938. (2.10.1.1B-24) You are anchoring in a river where the current is from one direction only. The best
way to lay out two anchors is to have them __________.
o
o
o
(A) directly in line with the bow

(B) on top of one another
(C) side by side, with their lines on the port and starboard side
(D) so that their lines form an angle
3939. (2.10.9-5) In order to reduce your wake in a narrow channel you should __________.
o
o
(A) apply enough rudder to counter the effect of the current

(B) shift the weight to the stern
(C) reduce your speed
(D) change your course to a zigzag course

Deck General
September 2015
3940. (2.10.4-11) When making way in heavy seas you notice that your vessel's screw is being lifted
clear of the water and racing. One way to correct this would be to __________.
o
o
o
(A) increase speed

(B) decrease speed
(C) move more weight forward
(D) shift the rudder back and forth several times
3941. (2.10.6.1-2) The distance a vessel moves parallel to the original course from the point where the
rudder is put over to any point on the turning circle is called the __________.
o
o
o
(A) pivoting point

(B) drift angle
(C) transfer
(D) advance
3942. (2.10.1.1D-31) Which is part of the ground tackle?

o
o
(A) Charlie noble

(B) Gooseneck
(C) Devil's claw
(D) Rat's tail
3943. (2.10.1.1E-30) When anchored, increasing the scope of the anchor chain normally serves to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) prevent fouling of the anchor

(B) reduce strain on the windlass
(C) decrease swing of the vessel
(D) prevent dragging of the anchor
3944. (2.10.1.1A-7) A drift lead indicates that the vessel is dragging anchor when the line is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) leading under the hull

(B) slack
(C) leading out perpendicular to the centerline
(D) taut and leading forward

Deck General
September 2015
3945. (2.10.1.1B-19) Before letting the anchor go, you should check that the __________.
o
o
o
(A) chain is clear

(B) wildcat is disengaged
(C) anchor is clear of obstructions
3946. (2.10.1.1E-23) Forty-five fathoms is marked on the anchor chain by __________.

o
o
(A) two turns of wire on the second stud from each side of the detachable link
(B) four turns of wire on the fourth stud from each side of the detachable link
(C) three turns of wire on the third stud from each side of the detachable link
(D) one turn of wire on the first stud from each side of the detachable link
3947. (2.10.1.1A-4) The best method to stop a vessel from dragging anchor in a sand bottom is to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) reduce the length of the cable

(B) swing the rudder several times to work the anchor into the bottom
(C) back the engines
(D) pay out more anchor cable
3948. (2.10.1.1A-5) You have anchored in a mud and clay bottom. The anchor appears to be dragging
in a storm. What action should you take?
o
o
o
(A) Drop the second anchor, veer to a good scope, then weigh the first anchor.
(B) Drop the other anchor underfoot.
(C) Veer cable to the anchor.
(D) Shorten the scope of the cable.
circle?
o
o
o
(A) 6 shots
(B) 5 shots
(C) 3 shots
(D) 4 shots

Deck General
September 2015
3950. (2.10.1.1D-58) The vessel's anchor chain consists of shots of chain connected by detachable
links. What is the predominant piece that holds the detachable link together?
o
o
o
(A) the led plug

(B) the closing cap
(C) the C-link
(D) the taper pin
3951. (2.10.1.1D-46) What part of the ground tackle is the most likely to develop fractures due to
extensive anchor use?
o
o
o
(A) Jews' harp

(B) Fluke
(C) Anchor shank
(D) Swivel
3952. (2.10.1.1A-8) What provides little or no indication that a vessel is dragging anchor?
o
o
o
(A) The cable alternates between slack and heavy tension

(B) Changing range to an object abeam
(C) Drift lead with the line tending forward
(D) Changing bearing to a fixed distant object abeam
3953. (2.10.1.1A-9) Your vessel is anchored in an open roadstead with three shots of chain out on the
port anchor. The wind freshens considerably and the anchor begins to drag. Which action should
you take FIRST?
o
o
o
(A) Put the engines slow ahead to help the anchor.

(B) Sheer out to starboard using the rudder, then drop the starboard anchor with about four shots
of chain.
(C) Drop the starboard anchor short with about one shot of chain.
(D) Veer out more chain on the port anchor.
3954. (2.10.3.2-17) Which will most likely occur when entering shallow water?
o
o
o
(A) The vessel's list will change.

(B) The vessel's trim will change.
(C) An increase in speed will occur.
(D) Rudder action will become more effective.

Deck General
September 2015
3955. (2.10.1.1E-8) Using a scope of 5, determine how many feet of cable you should put out to anchor
in 5 fathoms of water.
o
o
o
(A) 100 feet

(B) 150 feet
(C) 200 feet
(D) 250 feet
3956. (2.10.1.1E-6) When anchoring a vessel under normal conditions, which scope of chain is
recommended?
o
o
o
(A) Five to seven times the depth of water

(B) Four times the depth of water
(C) Fifteen times the depth of water
(D) Two and one-half times the depth of water
3957. (2.10.1.1B-25) You are riding to a single anchor. The vessel is yawing excessively. Which action
should be taken to reduce the yawing?
o
o
o
(A) Drop the second anchor at the extreme end of the yaw and veer the riding anchor
(B) Drop the second anchor at the extreme end of the yaw, then adjust the cables until the scope
is equal
(C) Veer chain to the riding anchor
(D) Heave to a shorter scope of chain on the riding anchor
3958. (2.10.4-13) Which action reduces the yawing of a vessel in a following sea?
o
o
(A) Shifting weights to the bow

(B) Increasing GM
(C) Shifting weights to the stern
(D) Pumping out tanks aft
3959. (2.10.6-5) Most of your vessel's superstructure is forward. How will the vessel lie when drifting
with no way on?
o
o
(A) With the wind off the starboard beam

(B) With the wind from ahead
(C) With the wind from abaft the beam
(D) With the wind off the port beam

Deck General
September 2015
3960. (2.10.6-9) When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, it is normally best to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) turn so that the tendency to back into the wind can be used, if on a single-screw vessel
(B) take advantage of the tendency to back to port, if on a twin-screw vessel
(C) back down with the rudder hard to one side, if on a single-screw vessel
(D) go ahead on both engines with the rudder hard to one side, if on a twin-screw vessel
3961. (2.10.1.1D-10) When attempting to free an anchor jammed in the hawsepipe, the simplest
method of freeing it may be __________.
o
o
(A) to grease the hawsepipe

(B) rigging a bull rope to pull it out
(C) starting the disengaged windlass at high speed
(D) to pry it loose with a short piece of pipe
3962. (2.10.1.1D-5) Before being certified by the American Bureau of Shipping, anchor chain must
undergo __________.
o
o
o
(A) a breaking test

(B) x-ray inspection
(C) spectroanalysis
(D) USCG inspection
3963. (2.10.1.1B-2) Which type of bottom is best suited for holding an anchor of a small boat?
o
o
o
(A) Mud and clay

(B) Gravel
(C) Rocky
(D) Sandy
3964. (2.10.1.1B-3) Generally speaking, the most favorable bottom for anchoring is __________.
o
o
o
(A) a mixture of mud and clay

(B) rocky
(C) loose sand
(D) very soft mud

Deck General
September 2015
3965. (2.10.3.1-19) What effect does bank cushion have on the hull of a vessel in shallow water?
o
o
o
(A) the hull has a lesser pressure on the land side of the stern
(B) the hull has a greater pressure on the land side of the stern
(C) the hull has a lesser pressure on the land side of the bow
(D) the hull has a greater pressure on the land side of the bow
3966. (2.10.1.1B-20) Which safety check(s) should be made before letting go the anchor?
o
o
o
(A) See that the wildcat is disengaged.

(B) See that the chain is all clear.
(C) See that the anchor is clear of obstructions.
3967. (2.10.1.3-5) You are making mooring lines fast to bitts, stern to, as in some Mediterranean ports.
A swell is liable to make the vessel surge. How should you tie up?
o
o
o
(A) Use wires only from the stern and each quarter.
(B) Use synthetic fiber and/or manila hawsers as required.
(C) Use wires from each quarter and manila hawsers from the stern.
(D) Use manila or synthetic fiber hawsers only.
3968. (2.10.6-8) The effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel is most noticeable when
__________.
o
o
o
(A) going full ahead

(B) turning
(C) going slow ahead
(D) backing
3969. (2.10.3.2-35) Which of the following would cause an increase in a vessel's draft?
o
o
o
(A) discharging 100 tons of cargo

(B) entering shallow water at the mouth of a river
(C) transiting from fresh to salt water
(D) shifting 100 tons of cargo vertically ten feet

Deck General
September 2015
3970. (2.10.3.1-18) While transiting a channel your vessel's bow swings away from the bank. What is
the term for this effect?
o
o
o
(A) bank suction

(B) bank cushion
(C) sheer force
(D) Yaw
3971. (2.10.1.1B-10) The BEST holding ground for conventional anchors is __________.
o
o
o
(A) rock
(B) very soft mud
(C) shale
(D) hard mud
3972. (2.10.6-7) Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as
compared with those of a light vessel is FALSE?
o
o
o
(A) A fully loaded vessel will be slower to respond to the engines.

(B) A light vessel loses more rudder effect in shallow water.
(C) A light vessel will be more affected by the wind.
(D) A fully loaded vessel will maintain her headway further.
3973. (2.10.1.1B-13) The BEST holding ground for conventional anchors is __________.
o
o
o
(A) very soft mud

(B) rock
(C) shale
(D) sand
3974. (2.10.1.1E-26) The next-to-last shot of an anchor cable is usually painted __________.
o
o
o
(A) yellow
(B) international orange
(C) red
(D) white

Deck General
September 2015
3975. (2.10.3.1-20) What effect does bank suction have upon the hull of a vessel in shallow water?
o
o
o
(A) the hull has a greater pressure on the land side of the bow
(B) the hull has a lesser pressure on the land side of the stern
(C) the hull has a lesser pressure on the land side of the bow
(D) the hull has a greater pressure on land side of the stern
"K"?
o
o
o
(A) bending shot

(B) crown
(C) shank
(D) ring
3977. (2.10.1.1B-4) Which is the correct procedure for anchoring a small to medium size vessel in deep
water?
o
o
o
(A) Let the anchor fall off the brake right from the hawsepipe, but keep a slight strain on the
brake.
(B) Let the anchor fall free from the hawsepipe, but apply the brake at intervals to check the rate
of fall.
(C) Back the anchor slowly out of the hawsepipe a few feet, and then let it fall in the normal
fashion.
(D) Under power, back the anchor out until it is near, but clear, of the bottom before letting it fall.
3978. (2.10.1.1D-19) The wheel on the windlass with indentations for the anchor chain is the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) wildcat
(B) pawl
(C) locking ring
(D) grabber
3979. (2.10.1.4-1) After casting off moorings at a mooring buoy in calm weather, you should
__________.
o
o
o
(A) go half ahead on the engines and pass upstream of the buoy
(B) back away a few lengths to clear the buoy and then go ahead on the engines
(C) go half ahead on the engines and put the rudder hard right
(D) go full ahead on the engine(s)

Deck General
September 2015
3980. (2.10.3.2-24) A condition where two currents meet at the downstream end of a middle bar can be
determined by a __________.
o
o
o
(A) small whirlpool

(B) V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing downstream
(C) V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing upstream
(D) smooth patch of water
3981. (2.10.3.1-21) You are piloting your vessel in a narrow channel. How will the vessel react to a
steep bank on your starboard side?
o
o
o
(A) the vessel will be bodily pushed away from the bank
(B) the bow will swing away from the bank, and stern will swing into the bank
(C) the bow will swing toward the bank, and the stern will swing away from the bank
(D) the vessel will be bodily drawn into the bank
3982. (2.10.1.1D-57) The anchor chain has one entire shot of chain painted red. What is the bitter end
of this shot attached to?
o
o
o
(A) a ring in the deck or the bitter end of the other chain
(B) a wire bridle system for emergency towing
(C) a pelican hook made up to an emergency marker buoy
(D) a spare chain for emergency use
3983. (2.10.3.2-12) A vessel will "squat" when it proceeds underway __________.

o
o
o
(A) only in shallow water

(B) only in narrow channels
(C) only in deep water
(D) in all depths of water
3984. (2.10.1.2-1) The best time to work a boat into a slip is __________.
o
o
o
(A) at slack water

(B) with a cross current
(C) when the wind is against you
(D) with the current setting against you

Deck General
September 2015
3985. (2.10.1.1E-14) In determining the scope of cable to be used when anchoring, what would NOT
be considered?
o
o
o
(A) maintenance cost for the chain

(B) Type of anchor cable
(C) Depth of the water
(D) Character of the holding ground
3986. (2.10.3.2-15) You are on a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller, and you are
making headway. When you enter shallow water, __________.
o
o
(A) your speed will increase without a change in your throttle

(B) your vessel will tend to ride higher
(C) your rudder response will become sluggish
(D) you will have better rudder response
3987. (2.10.1.2B-10) Your vessel must moor port side to a berth limited by vessels ahead and astern
using a single tug. You are stemming a slight current and there is a light breeze off the dock. Where
should the tug make up to the vessel?
o
o
o
(A) bow
(B) quarter
(C) waist
(D) stern on a hawser
3988. (2.10.3.1-13) A predictable result of a vessel nearing a bank or edge of a channel is that the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) vessel continues in a straight line, but with greatly reduced maneuverability
(B) bow sheers toward the bank
(C) vessel will be drawn bodily into the bank unless the engines are stopped
(D) stern is drawn to the bank as the bow sheers off
3989. (2.10.1.1B-5) You are going astern (single-screw, right-handed propeller) with the anchor down
at a scope of twice the depth of the water. As the anchor dredges, you should expect the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) stern to walk to port at a faster rate than normal

(B) stern to walk to port but at a reduced rate
(C) vessel to back in a straight line
(D) stern to walk to the same side as the anchor being used

Deck General
September 2015
3990. (2.10.1.1B-21) Which would you NOT use to report the amount of anchor chain out? "Three
shots __________."
o
o
o
(A) well in the water

(B) on the bottom
(C) at the water's edge
(D) on deck
3991. (2.10.1.1B-27) What is meant by veering the anchor chain?

o
o
o
(A) Locking the windlass to prevent more chain from running out
(B) Heaving in all the chain
(C) Bringing the anchor to short stay
(D) Paying out more chain
3992. (2.10.1.1C-1) When a small craft's anchor fouls in a rocky bottom, the first attempt to clear it
should be made by __________.
o
o
o
(A) reversing the angle and direction of pull, with moderate scope
(B) hauling vertically on the line
(C) making the line fast to the bitt and bringing the vessel further forward
(D) increasing the scope and running slowly in a wide circle with the anchor line taut
3993. (2.10.1.1B-6) Which type of bottom provides most anchors with the best holding ability?
o
o
(A) Soft sand

(B) Soft mud
(C) Sandy mud
(D) Clay and rocks
3994. (2.10.4-16) When a vessel is swinging from side to side off course due to quartering seas, the
vessel is __________.
o
o
o
(A) yawing
(B) pitchpoling
(C) rolling
(D) broaching

Deck General
September 2015
3995. (2.10.1.2A-5) You are the Master of a single-screw vessel. You are docking at a port which has
no tugs available. You decide to drop the offshore anchor to help in docking. The amount of chain
you should pay out is __________.
o
o
(A) 5 to 7 times the depth of the water

(B) equal to the depth of the water
(C) 1 1/2 to 2 times the depth of the water
(D) you should NEVER use the anchor to help in docking
3996. (2.10.1.4-3) You are mooring to a buoy. You should approach the buoy with the current from
__________.
o
o
(A) abeam
(B) astern
(C) ahead
(D) broad on the bow
3997. (2.10.1.1E-27) The last shot of an anchor cable is usually painted __________.
o
o
o
(A) red
(B) white
(C) international orange
(D) yellow
3998. (2.10.1.1B-23) When anchoring in a current, you should __________.

o
o
(A) back your vessel into the current

(B) drop the anchor with the bow headed downstream
(C) anchor while stemming the current
3999. (2.10.1.1B-22) The easiest way to anchor a vessel in a current is to __________.

o
o
o
(A) stop all headway through the water and keep the current astern when the anchor is dropped
(B) stem the current and endeavor to make neither headway nor sternway when the anchor is
dropped
(C) stem the current and make very slow headway when the anchor is dropped
(D) stem the current and be falling aft very slowly when the anchor is dropped

Deck General
September 2015
4000. (2.10.1.1B-9) You are on a 120,000 DWT loaded bulk carrier. When anchoring without the aid of
tugs, your maximum speed should not exceed how many feet per second?
o
o
o
(A) 1.75 (1.0 knot)

(B) 1.0 (0.6 knot)
(C) 1.3 (0.8 knot)
(D) 0.5 (0.3 knot)
4001. (2.10.1.1B-26) Lifting the anchor from the bottom is called __________.
o
o
o
(A) shifting the anchor

(B) weighing the anchor
(C) broaching the anchor
(D) walking the anchor
4002. (2.10.3.1-17) What effect will bank suction have on a vessel?

o
o
o
(A) the bow swings away from the bank

(B) the stern swings towards the bank
(C) the stern swings away from the bank
(D) the bow swings towards the bank
4003. (2.10.1.1D-1) An anchor winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding
__________.
o
o
o
(A) the full breaking strength of the mooring line

(B) 50% over the working tension of the mooring line
(C) half the breaking strength of the mooring line
(D) the maximum expected tension of the mooring line
4004. (2.10.1.3-4) To ensure the best results during the Mediterranean moor, the chains should
__________.
o
o
o
(A) tend aft 60 from each bow

(B) tend out at right angles to the bow
(C) be crossed around the bow
(D) tend forward 30 on either bow

Deck General
September 2015
4005. (2.10.1.1D-18) A wildcat is a __________.

o
o
o
(A) line that has jumped off the gypsyhead while under strain
(B) nylon line that parts under strain and whips back in a hazardous manner
(C) winch that is running out of control due to a failure of the overspeed trips
(D) deeply-grooved drum on the windlass with sprockets which engage the links of the anchor
chain
4006. (2.10.1.1D-29) The purpose of the stripping bar on an anchor windlass is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) fairlead the chain from the hawsepipe to the wildcat

(B) prevent the chain from fouling the wildcat
(C) engage or disengage the wildcat
(D) clean off any mud that may have accumulated on the chain
4007. (2.10.1.1B-14) When anchoring a vessel, it is best to release the anchor when __________.
o
o
(A) going full astern

(B) dead in the water
(C) going slow astern
(D) going full ahead
4008. (2.10.1.1B-15) When anchoring in calm water, it is best to __________.

o
o
o
(A) wait until the vessel is dead in the water before letting go the anchor
(B) maintain slight headway when letting go the anchor
(C) let the anchor go from the stern with the anchor cable leading from the bow
(D) have slight sternway on the vessel while letting go the anchor
4009. (2.10.1.1B-16) You have arrived at your anchorage location. You have put the engines astern
prior to letting go the anchor. How will you know when the vessel has stopped making way?
o
o
(A) An azimuth bearing on the beam remains steady

(B) The ship's Doppler log reads zero
(C) The backwash of the propeller reaches amidships

Deck General
September 2015
4010. (2.10.1.1B-17) When preparing to hoist the anchor, you should FIRST __________.
o
o
o
(A) put the brake in the off position

(B) engage the wildcat
(C) take the riding pawl off the chain
(D) take off the chain stopper
4011. (2.10.1.4-2) When picking up your mooring at the buoy, the correct method is to __________.
o
o
(A) approach the buoy with the wind and current astern
(B) approach the buoy with wind and sea abeam
(C) approach the buoy with the wind and current ahead
(D) stop upwind and up current and drift down on the buoy
4012. (2.10.1.1E-11) Using a scope of 6, determine how many feet of anchor cable you should put out
to anchor in 12 feet (3.7 meters) of water.
o
o
o
(A) 2 feet (0.6 meters)

(B) 18 feet (5.5 meters)
(C) 48 feet (14.6 meters)
(D) 72 feet (21.9 meters)
4013. (2.10.1.1D-6) What does the proof test load of an anchor chain demonstrate?
o
o
(A) The breaking strength of the anchor chain

(B) Safe working load of the anchor chain
(C) Strength of the anchor chain to a specified limit
(D) Adequate holding power for new bottom conditions
4014. (2.10.1.1B-18) When weighing anchor in a rough sea, how would you avoid risk of damaging the
bow plating?
o
o
o
(A) Heave it home as fast as you can.

(B) Leave the anchor under foot, until the vessel may be brought before the sea.
(C) Heave it home intermittently, between swells.
(D) Wait for a calm spot between seas, then house it.

Deck General
September 2015
4015. (2.10.1.1B-31) What effect does lifting the shank of a Baldt Stockless anchor that is set on the
bottom have?
o
o
o
(A) the flukes will dig deeper increasing the holding power
(B) the flukes will break free of the bottom
(C) the probability of fouling the chain increases
(D) the probability of fouling the chain decreases
4016. (2.10.1.4-4) What best describes an anchor buoy?

o
o
o
(A) A buoy attached to the scope of an anchor chain

(B) A buoy attached to the anchor
(C) A mark of the number of fathoms in an anchor chain
(D) A black ball that is hoisted when the ship anchors
4017. (2.10.1.1B-29) A vessel is tide rode when it is __________.
o
o
o
(A) at anchor and stemming the current

(B) carrying extra rudder to compensate for the current
(C) necessary to adjust the course steered to allow for the current
(D) being forced off of a pier by the hydraulic effect of the current
4018. (2.10.1.1B-31) Mooring with two bow anchors has which major advantage over anchoring with
one bow anchor?
o
o
o
(A) The radius of the vessel's swing will be shortened.

(B) A mooring approach may be made from any direction.
(C) The vessel will not reverse direction in a tidal current.
(D) The vessel will not swing with a change in wind.
4019. (2.10.1.1B-33) While heaving in the anchor prior to entering the wildcat you observe four white
links on each side of a red link. What does this indicate?
o
o
o
(A) there are four shots in the chain locker

(B) there are eight shots in the chain locker
(C) there are eight shots on deck
(D) there are four shots on deck

Deck General
September 2015
4020. (2.10.3.1-3) The effect known as "bank cushion" acts in which of the following ways on a singlescrew vessel proceeding along a narrow channel?
o
o
o
(A) It forces the entire vessel away from the bank.

(B) It forces the stern away from the bank.
(C) It heels the vessel toward the bank.
(D) It forces the bow away from the bank.
4021. (2.10.1.1B-34) While heaving in the anchor prior to entering the wildcat you observe three white
links on each side of a blue link. What does this indicate?
o
o
o
(A) there are three fathoms on deck

(B) there are three shots on deck
(C) there are six shots on deck
(D) there are three fathoms in the water
4022. (2.10.3.1-4) A vessel traveling down a narrow channel, especially if the draft is nearly equal to
the depth of the water, may set off the nearer side. This effect is known as __________.
o
o
(A) bank suction

(B) smelling the bottom
(C) bank cushion
(D) squatting
4023. (2.10.1.1C-2) You are planning to anchor in an area where several anchors have been lost due
to fouling. As a precaution, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) anchor with scope of 8 or more to 1

(B) anchor using both anchors
(C) use a stern anchor
(D) fit a crown strap and work wire to the anchor
4024. (2.10.1.1D-49) The part of a windlass which physically engages the chain during hauling or
paying out is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) bull gear

(B) devil's claw
(C) cat head
(D) wildcat

Deck General
September 2015
4025. (2.10.1.1E-10) Using a scope of 6, how much cable would have to be used in order to anchor in
24 feet of water?
o
o
o
(A) 4 feet
(B) 18 feet
(C) 30 feet
(D) 144 feet
4026. (2.10.1.1D-2) The holding capability of an anchor is primarily determined by the __________.
o
o
o
(A) anchor's ability to dig in

(B) size of the vessel and its draft
(C) shape of the anchor
(D) stowage of the anchor on board
4027. (2.10.1.1D-20) How is the size of chain determined?

o
o
(A) Links per fathom

(B) Length of link in inches
(C) Diameter of metal in link in inches
(D) Weight of stud cable in pounds
4028. (2.10.1.1D-3) The holding capabilities of an anchor are determined PRIMARILY by the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) design of the anchor

(B) weight of the anchor
(C) size of the vessel
(D) scope of the anchor chain
4029. (2.10.1.1D-7) What happens to the efficiency of an anchor when it is moved from sand to mud?
o
o
o
(A) The efficiency increases.

(B) The efficiency decreases.
(C) The efficiency remains the same.
(D) The efficiency cannot be determined.

Deck General
September 2015
4030. (2.10.1.1D-8) The holding power of an anchor is the __________.

o
o
o
(A) maximum sustained horizontal load an anchor will resist before the mooring line breaks
(B) maximum sustained vertical load an anchor will resist before the mooring line breaks
(C) maximum sustained vertical load an anchor will resist before dragging
(D) maximum sustained horizontal load an anchor will resist before dragging
4031. (2.10.1.1D-9) The angle between the flukes and the shank of an anchor is called the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) shank angle

(B) fleet angle
(C) holding angle
(D) fluke angle
4032. (2.10.1.1E-12) In determining the scope of anchor line to pay out when anchoring a small boat,
one must consider the __________.
o
o
o
(A) depth of water, including tidal differences

(B) charted depth of water only
(C) type of line being used for the anchor rope
(D) type of anchor being used
4033. (2.10.1.1D-12) Tripping defects in anchors frequently occur in __________.

o
o
o
(A) shallow water

(B) soft soils
(C) deep water
(D) stiff soils
4034. (2.10.1.1D-13) Which is NOT a part of an anchor?

o
o
(A) Palm
(B) Bill
(C) Devil's claw
(D) Crown

Deck General
September 2015
4035. (2.10.3.1-15) You are proceeding along the right bank of a narrow channel aboard a righthanded single-screw vessel. The vessel starts to sheer due to bank suction/cushion effect. You
should __________.
o
o
(A) back full with rudder amidships

(B) decrease speed and put the rudder right full
(C) increase speed and put the rudder right full
(D) stop engines and put the rudder left full
4036. (2.10.1.1D-14) The purpose of a devil's claw is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) act as a chain stopper

(B) prevent the chain from fouling on deck
(C) prevent the windlass from engaging
(D) control the wildcat
4037. (2.10.1.1D-16) The sprocket wheel in a windlass, used for heaving in the anchor, is called a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) wildcat
(B) dog wheel
(C) fairlead
(D) capstan
4038. (2.10.1.1D-17) On an anchor windlass, the wheel over which the anchor chain passes is called a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) winchhead
(B) devil's claw
(C) brake compressor wheel
(D) wildcat
4039. (2.10.1.1D-21) On stud-link anchor chain the addition of the stud increases the strength of the
link by about __________.
o
o
o
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 50%
(D) 20%

Deck General
September 2015
4040. (2.10.1.1D-23) A design modification of an anchor chain which prevents kinking is the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) Kenter link

(B) connecting link
(C) detachable link
(D) stud link
4041. (2.10.1.2B-9) A tug would NOT assist a ship to steer if the tug is made up to the large vessel
__________.
o
o
o
(A) by a tow line ahead of the vessel

(B) approximately amidships of the vessel
(C) on the vessel's quarter
(D) forward on either bow of the vessel
4042. (2.10.1.1D-25) If the winch should fail while you are hauling in the anchor, what prevents the
anchor cable from running out?
o
o
(A) Chain stopper

(B) Hawse ratchet
(C) Riding pawl
(D) Devil's claw
4043. (2.10.1.1D-27) The safety stopper that prevents the anchor cable from running free if the cable
jumps the wildcat is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) buckler plate

(B) devil's claw
(C) spill pipe
(D) riding pawl
4044. (2.10.1.2B-4) You are docking an oceangoing single-screw vessel under normal circumstances
with a single tug. The tug is usually used to __________.
o
o
(A) push the ship bodily alongside and is tied to the offshore side amidships
(B) control the stern and is tied to the stern on the offshore side
(C) control the bow and is tied to the offshore bow
(D) pull the vessel into the slip and is tied to the bow

Deck General
September 2015
4045. (2.10.1.1D-28) The part of an anchor which takes hold on the bottom is the __________.
o
o
(A) base
(B) arm
(C) fluke
(D) stock
4046. (2.10.1.1D-30) A chain stripper is used to __________.

o
o
o

(B) clean chain prior to an x-ray inspection
(C) clean the marine debris from the chain
4047. (2.10.1.1D-32) Which part of the patent anchor performs the same function as the stock of an old
fashioned anchor; that is, forces the flukes to dig in?
o
o
o
(A) Shank
(B) Tripping Palm
(C) Bill or pea
(D) Arm
4048. (2.10.1.1D-33) Which part of an anchor actually digs into the bottom?
o
o
o
(A) Fluke
(B) Stock
(C) Crown
(D) Shank
4049. (2.10.1.2A-2) The use of an anchor to assist in turning in restricted waters is __________.
o
o
o
(A) to be used only with a single-screw vessel

(B) good seamanship
(C) a last resort
(D) the sign of a novice shiphandler

Deck General
September 2015
4050. (2.10.1.2B-1) You are docking a vessel starboard side to with the assistance of two tugs. You are
attempting to hold the vessel off by operating both tugs at right angles to the vessel and at full
power. You must ensure that __________.
o
o
o
(A) the ship has no headway at the time

(B) the bow closes the dock first
(C) steerageway is not taken off
(D) the bow doesn't close the dock first
4051. (2.10.1.1D-34) The anchors on the bow are known as __________.
o
o
o
(A) bower anchors

(B) spare anchors
(C) kedge anchors
(D) stream anchors
4052. (2.10.1.1D-35) Which type of link is generally used to connect shots of anchor chain?
o
o
o
(A) Open
(B) Detachable
(C) Pear shaped
(D) Stud link
4053. (2.10.1.1D-37) An example of an anchor which has a stock is a __________.

o
o
o
(A) Dunn anchor

(B) Danforth anchor
(C) Hook anchor
(D) Bruce anchor
4054. (2.10.1.2B-6) When using two tugs to assist in mooring a large, deeply laden ship, the most
powerful tug is usually placed __________.
o
o
o
(A) amidships to move the entire vessel evenly

(B) forward to control the bow
(C) aft to assist the ship's rudder and propeller
(D) anywhere, since the maneuverability of the tug governs the placement not the power

Deck General
September 2015
4055. (2.10.1.1D-38) In small craft terminology, all of the anchor gear between a boat and her anchor is
o
o
(A) chock
(B) scope
(C) rode
(D) stock
4056. (2.10.2-1) Which statement about a tunnel bow thruster is TRUE?

o
o
(A) It can be used to slow the ship in addition to backing down.

(B) It will allow you to hold a position when the current is from astern.
(C) It provides lateral control without affecting headway.
(D) It is fully effective at speeds up to about six knots.
4057. (2.10.1.1D-39) Buckler plates are __________.

o
o
(A) faired shell plates with curvature in two directions

(B) sheets of dunnage used to prevent heavy cargo from buckling the deck plates
(C) metal plates secured over the tops of the hawsepipes
(D) triangular-shaped plates connecting the bull chain to the topping lift
circle?
o
o
o
(A) 4 shots
(B) 5 shots
(C) 7 shots
(D) 6 shots
4059. (2.10.1.1D-42) The opening in the deck beneath the anchor windlass that leads to the chain
locker is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) hawsepipe
(B) drop-pipe
(C) fallpipe
(D) spill pipe

Deck General
September 2015
4060. (2.10.1.1D-43) What is a spill pipe?
o
o
o
(A) A pipe under the anchor windlass leading to the chain locker
(B) An opening in the deck leading outside the hull
(C) A chute, usually over the stern, to lead dumped garbage clear of the hull
(D) A drainage pipe that carries rain or spray from an upper deck to a lower deck
4061. (2.10.1.1D-44) The opening in the deck that leads the anchor cable outside the hull is the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) hawsepipe
(B) fall pipe
(C) spill pipe
(D) drop-pipe
4062. (2.10.1.1D-45) The best method of protecting that portion of a fiber anchor line nearest the
anchor from chafing on the bottom is by __________.
o
o
o
(A) using a hockle to keep that portion of the anchor line off the bottom
(B) replacing that portion with a short length of chain
(C) using a synthetic line
(D) using a small scope ratio
4063. (2.10.1.1D-47) When inspecting ground tackle, fractures are most frequently found in the
__________.
o
o
(A) fluke
(B) anchor shank
(C) end links
(D) swivel
4064. (2.10.1.1D-48) Fracture damage to the end links of the anchor cable, or to the Jews' harp may
be eliminated by __________.
o
o
(A) ensuring the swivel is well lubricated and free to turn

(B) installing the connecting shackle with the bow towards the anchor
(C) securing a piece of wood to the Jews' harp
(D) using a small diameter connecting shackle

Deck General
September 2015
4065. (2.10.1.1D-51) What does the proof test load of an anchor chain demonstrate?
o
o
o
(A) Adequate holding power for new bottom conditions

(B) Safe working load of the chain
(C) Breaking strength of the chain
(D) Strength of the chain to a specified limit
4066. (2.10.1.1D-52) The wildcat is linked to the central drive shaft on most windlasses by
__________.
o
o
o
(A) a mechanical coupling where lugs engage detents

(B) aligning the keyways on both and inserting a key
(C) a hydraulic coupling
(D) an electromagnetic brake
4067. (2.10.1.1D-53) You are using a hammer as part of an anchor chain inspection. During the
inspection you hear a flat tone when striking one of the links. What does this tone indicate?
o
o
o
(A) the link is rusty and requires preservation

(B) the link is good but the hammer is no longer in tune
(C) you have identified the detachable link
(D) the link is suspect and requires further inspection
4068. (2.10.1.1D1-7) In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "I"?
o
o
o
(A) bill
(B) tripping palm
(C) stock
(D) fluke
4069. (2.10.1.1D-54) What is the main function of the center stud in an anchor chain?
o
o
(A) it is designed to add holding power to the chain

(B) it is designed to aid in the placement of the chain on the wildcat
(C) it prevents the links from closing under strain
(D) it prevents the links from fouling on each other

Deck General
September 2015
4070. (2.10.1.1D-55) The anchor chain has one entire shot of chain painted yellow. What does this
indicate on a merchant vessel?
o
o
o
(A) this is the next to the last shot of chain

(B) this is the first shot of chain
(C) this is the middle shot of chain
(D) this is the last shot of chain
4071. (2.10.1.1D-56) The anchor chain has one entire shot painted red. What would that indicate on a
merchant vessel?
o
o
(A) the color has no significance

(B) this is the first shot of chain
(C) this is the last shot of chain
(D) this is the next to the last shot of chain
4072. (2.10.1.1D1-2) In illustrations D038DG below the crown of the anchor shown is indicated by
which letter?
o
o
o
(A) J
(B) G
(C) K
(D) H
4073. (2.10.1.1D1-5) In illustration D038DG below, which letter indicates the pea?
o
o
(A) F
(B) H
(C) J
(D) G
4074. (2.10.1.1E-7) Using a scope of five, determine how many shots of chain you should put out to
anchor in 5 fathoms of water?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5

Deck General
September 2015
"H"?
o
o
o
(A) shank
(B) crown
(C) tripping palm
(D) fluke
"G"?
o
o
o
(A) tripping palm

(B) shank
(C) fluke
(D) crown
4077. (2.10.1.1D1-10) In illustration D038DG below, what type of anchor is depicted?

o
o
o
(A) Old-fashioned
(B) Patent
(C) Stock
(D) Danforth
4078. (2.10.1.1E-32) When the anchor is brought to and holding, the horizontal component of anchor
cable tensions should equal the __________.
o
o
(A) displacement tonnage

(B) buoyancy forces
(C) environmental forces
(D) weight forces
4079. (2.10.1.1E-2) What is the best guide for determining the proper scope of anchor chain to use for
anchoring in normal conditions?
o
o
o
(A) One shot of chain for every ten feet of water

(B) One shot of chain for every fifteen feet of water
(C) One shot of chain for every thirty feet of water
(D) One shot of chain for every ninety feet of water

Deck General
September 2015
4080. (2.10.1.1E-33) The holding power of an anchor at a given scope of cable increases when the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) mooring line tension is increased

(B) amount of chain lying along the bottom increases
(C) length of the catenary is reduced
(D) amount of chain lying along the bottom decreases
4081. (2.10.1.2-4) You are 15 feet off a pier and docking a vessel using only a bow breast line and
stern breast line. Once the slack is out of both lines you begin to haul in on the bow breast line. What
is the effect on the vessel?
o
o
(A) The bow and stern come in equally closer toward the pier.
(B) The stern will come in and the bow will remain the same distance off the pier.
(C) The bow will come in and the stern will remain the same distance off the pier.
(D) The bow will come in and the stern will go out.
4082. (2.10.1.1E-3) When anchoring, good practice requires 5 to 7 fathoms of chain for each fathom of
depth. In deep water you should use __________.
o
o
o
(A) less chain for each fathom of depth

(B) more chain for each fathom of depth
(C) two anchors with the same ratio of chain
(D) the same ratio
4083. (2.10.1.1E-4) In bad weather, what length of chain should be used with a single anchor?
o
o
o
(A) 3 times the depth of water

(B) 15 times the depth of water
(C) 6 times the depth of water
(D) 10 times the depth of water
4084. (2.10.1.2A-1) You are approaching a pier and intend to use the port anchor to assist in docking
port side to. You would NOT use the anchor if __________.
o
o
o
(A) the wind was blowing from the starboard side

(B) there is shallow water enroute to the berth
(C) the current was setting you on the pier
(D) another vessel is berthed ahead of your position

Deck General
September 2015
4085. (2.10.1.1E-5) In moderate wind and current what should be the length of chain with a single
anchor?
o
o
o
(A) 10 times the depth of the water in shallow water

(B) 5 times the depth of the water in good holding ground
(C) 2 times the depth of the water in poor holding ground
(D) 8 times the depth of the water in deep water
4086. (2.10.1.1E-19) How many fathoms are in a shot of anchor cable?

o
o
o
(A) 6
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 30
4087. (2.10.1.1E-9) Using a scope of five, determine how many feet of chain you should put out to
anchor in 12 fathoms of water.
o
o

4088. (2.10.1.1E-28) By paying out more anchor cable, you __________.
o
o
o
(A) increase the holding power of your anchor

(B) decrease the swing of your vessel while at anchor
(C) increase the possibility that your vessel will drag anchor
(D) decrease the holding power of your anchor
4089. (2.10.1.1E-29) If you shorten the scope of anchor cable, your anchor's holding power
__________.
o
o
o
(A) decreases
(B) remains the same
(C) has no relation to the scope
(D) increases

Deck General
September 2015
circle?
o
o
o
(A) 4 shots
(B) 5 shots
(C) 6 shots
(D) 7 shots
4091. (2.10.1.1E-20) The length of a standard "shot" of chain is __________.

o
o
o
(A) 12 fathoms
(B) 15 fathoms
(C) 18 fathoms
(D) 20 fathoms
4092. (2.10.1.1E-21) One shot of anchor chain is equal to how many feet (meters)?
o
o
o
(A) 6 (1.8 meters)

(B) 15 (4.6 meters)
(C) 45 (13.7 meters)
(D) 90 (27.4 meters)
4093. (2.10.1.1E-24) The marking on an anchor chain for 30 fathoms is __________.

o
o
(A) only the detachable link is painted red

(B) three links on each side of the 30 fathom detachable link are painted white
(C) two links on each side of the 30 fathom detachable link are painted white
(D) one link on each side of the 30 fathom detachable link is painted white
4094. (2.10.1.1E-25) How many turns of wire normally mark either side of the detachable link 45
fathoms from the anchor?
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Deck General
September 2015
4095. (2.10.1.1E-31) A sufficient amount of chain must be veered when anchoring a vessel to ensure
__________.
o
o
o
(A) the vessel has enough room to swing while at anchor

(B) there is a sufficient scope of chain to keep the anchor on the bottom
(C) there is more chain out than there is in the chain locker
(D) the anchor flukes bite into the ocean bottom
4096. (2.10.1.1E-34) When anchoring, what results from having the proper scope of anchor chain in
line with the shank of the anchor?
o
o
o
(A) the anchor chain will become foulded and reduce holding power
(B) the strain on the wildcat and windless will be reduced
(C) the anchor will drag on the bottom
(D) the designed holding power of the anchor will be achieved
4097. (2.10.1.2-2) You are docking a vessel. If possible, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) go in against the current

(B) approach the dock at a 90 angle and swing to
(C) pass a mooring line to the dock with a heaving line and let the crew pull the vessel in
(D) go in with the current
4098. (2.10.1.2-5) Your vessel is port side to a pier with a spring line led aft from the bow. In calm
weather, putting the engines ahead with the rudder hard left should bring __________.
o
o
o
(A) the bow in and the stern out

(B) both the bow and stern in
(C) both the bow and stern out
(D) the bow out and the stern in
4099. (2.10.1.2-6) You are on a 120,000 DWT loaded bulk carrier. What is the maximum safe docking
speed when coming alongside?
o
o
(A) 0.75 foot per second (0.44 knot)

(B) 0.5 foot per second (0.30 knot)
(C) 0.2 foot per second (0.12 knot)
(D) 0.1 foot per second (0.06 knot)

Deck General
September 2015
4100. (2.10.1.2A-4) When using the anchor to steady the bow while approaching a dock you must be
aware of the fact that __________.
o
o
(A) the vessel will tend to take a large sheer towards the side where the anchor is down
(B) the anchor cable must never lead under the hull
(C) using an offshore anchor decreases the chances of the anchor holding
(D) steering control is ineffective in trying to turn to the side opposite to that of the anchor being
used
4101. (2.10.1.2B-5) You are docking a vessel in a slip which has its entrance athwart the tide. You land
the ship across the end of the pier, stemming the tide, preparatory to breaking the ship around the
corner. You have one tug to assist. Where would you generally tie up the tug?
o
o
o
(A) Tie her up on the offshore bow.

(B) Tie her up on the inshore quarter to lift the stern.
(C) Tie her up on the inshore bow to hold the ship off the end.
(D) Have her on a hawser from the stern.
4102. (2.10.1.2B-7) You are taking the bow line from the port bow of a large vessel that is underway
when the stern of your tug comes in contact with the vessel. The forward motion of both vessels
causes your tug to be turned toward the other vessel and contact the stem thereby being
"stemmed". You should immediately __________.
o
o
o
(A) go full ahead with the rudder amidships

(B) go full astern with rudder amidships
(C) go full ahead with the rudder hard over to starboard
(D) stop engines and the vessel's wake will push you clear of the bow
4103. (2.10.1.3-1) When moored with a Mediterranean moor, the ship should be secured to the pier by
having __________.
o
o
o
(A) a stern line, 2 bow lines, and 2 quarter lines leading aft to the pier
(B) a stern line and two quarter lines crossing under the stern
(C) all regular lines leading to the pier in opposition to the anchor
(D) two bow lines and two midship lines leading aft to the pier

Deck General
September 2015
4104. (2.10.1.3-2) A "Mediterranean moor" should be used when __________.

o
o
(A) when anchoring in the Mediterranean

(B) when docking bow to a berth
(C) when docking stern to a berth
(D) when anchoring in a strong current
4105. (2.10.1.3-3) The anchors should be dropped well out from the pier while at a Mediterranean moor
to __________.
o
o
(A) increase the anchor's reliability by providing a large catenary in the chain
(B) prevent damage to the stern caused by swinging against the pier in the approach
(C) permit the ship to maneuver in the stream while weighing anchors
(D) eliminate navigational hazards by allowing the chain to lie along the harbor bottom
4106. (2.10.2-3) Which statement about tunnel bow thrusters fitted to large vessels is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) When going astern at slow speed, they provide effective steering control.
(B) Because of their location, most modern installations have as much power as a tug.
(C) They are fully effective at all drafts.
(D) They are effective on most vessels at speeds up to 10 knots.
4107. (2.10.3.1-2) You are proceeding at a slow speed with your starboard side near the right bank of a
channel. If your vessel suddenly sheers toward the opposite bank, the best maneuver would be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) full ahead, hard left rudder

(B) full ahead, hard right rudder
(C) full astern, hard right rudder
(D) full astern, hard left rudder
4108. (2.10.3.1-5) Your vessel is proceeding along a narrow channel. The effect called bank cushion
has which effect on the vessel?
o
o
o
(A) Forces the stern away from the bank

(B) Forces the bow away from the bank
(C) Forces the entire vessel bodily away from the bank
(D) Decreases the draft at the bow

Deck General
September 2015
4109. (2.10.3.1-7) A vessel proceeding along the bank of a river or channel has the tendency to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) increase speed

(B) hug the bank
(C) continue in line with the bank
(D) sheer away from the bank
4110. (2.10.3.1-8) How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel
proceeding along a narrow channel?
o
o
o
(A) It pulls the bow toward the bank.

(B) It pulls the stern toward the bank.
(C) It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank.
(D) It heels the vessel toward the bank.
4111. (2.10.3.1-12) When a wedge of water builds up between the head of the barge and the bank it is
referred to as __________.
o
o
(A) bow wave

(B) veering cushion
(C) bank cushion
(D) bank suction
4112. (2.10.3.1-14) When hugging a bank in a narrow channel, you should take precautions against
__________.
o
o
o
(A) striking underwater obstructions close to the bank

(B) bank suction, squat and the effects of vessels passing close aboard
(C) clogged sea chests, plugged sea strainers and overheated machinery
4113. (2.10.3.1-23) You are proceeding in a channel, your vessel is requiring a significant amount of
right rudder and your bow is still falling off to port. What can you conclude from this information?
o
o
o
(A) your vessel's turn rate indicator requires calibration

(B) your vessel is at the outer limits of the channel
(C) your vessel has lost a blade on the screw
(D) your vessel is in the deepest section of the channel

Deck General
September 2015
4114. (2.10.3.2-1) A deep draft VLCC (100,000 DWT+) navigating in a narrow channel or canal
__________.
o
o
o
(A) draws more water than when underway in deep water

(B) draws less water with an increase in speed
(C) steers better under full power
(D) requires less power for a given speed
4115. (2.10.3.2-25) While towing in shallow water you should consider __________.
o
o
o
(A) using a short towing hawser

(B) the catenary and the effect it may have on the tow
(C) using a floating hawser
4116. (2.10.3.2-23) A snag or other underwater obstruction may form a __________.

o
o
o
(A) V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing downstream

(B) V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing upstream
(C) small patch of smooth water on a windy day
(D) smoothing out of the vessel's wake
4117. (2.10.3.2-2) River currents tend to __________.

o
o
o
(A) run slower in the center of the channel

(B) cause the greatest depth of water to be along the outside of a bend
(C) pick up speed where the channel widens
(D) hug the inside of a bend
4118. (2.10.3.2-3) When piloting a vessel, how are visual references used to establish a constant rate
of turn?
o
o
(A) Keep the fixed object's relative bearing opening, for a constant rate of turn.
(B) Begin the turn when the fixed object is on the beam.
(C) Fixed objects that stay on the same relative bearing when the ship is turning indicate a
constant rate of turn.
(D) Visual references cannot be used to maintain a constant rate of turn.

Deck General
September 2015
4119. (2.10.3.2-4) You are making a sharp turn in a channel and using a buoy four points on the bow to
gauge your rate of turn. If you observe the buoy moving aft relative to you, what should you do?
o
o
o
(A) Decrease the rate of turn

(B) Decrease speed
(C) Maintain a constant rate of turn
(D) Increase the rate of turn
4120. (2.10.3.2-5) You are making a sharp turn in a channel and using a buoy four points on the bow to
gauge your rate of turn. If you observe the buoy moving forward relative to you, what should you do?
o
o
o
(A) Increase the rate of turn

(B) Maintain a constant rate of turn
(C) Increase speed
(D) Decrease the rate of turn
4121. (2.10.3.2-6) Conditions for crossing a rough bar are usually best at __________.
o
o
o
(A) low water slack

(B) high water flood
(C) high water ebb
(D) high water slack
4122. (2.10.3.2-8) You notice that your speed has decreased, the stern of your vessel has settled into
the water, and your rudder is sluggish in responding. The MOST likely cause is __________.
o
o
o
(A) shallow water

(B) loss of lubricating oil in the engine
(C) mechanical problems with the steering gear
(D) current
4123. (2.10.3.2-10) Which shallow water effect will increase dramatically if you increase your ship's
speed past its "critical speed"?
o
o
o
(A) Sinkage
(B) Smelling the bottom
(C) Bank cushion
(D) Squatting

Deck General
September 2015
4124. (2.10.3.2-11) Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern
sinks into a depression of its transverse wave system. What is this called?
o
o
(A) Broaching
(B) Fish tailing
(C) Squatting
(D) Parallel sinkage
4125. (2.10.3.2-14) In most cases, when a large merchant vessel enters shallow water at high speed
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) speed will increase

(B) vessel will rise slightly, on a level plane
(C) maneuverability will increase
(D) bow will squat farther than the stern
4126. (2.10.3.2-16) When you enter shallow water, you would expect your rudder response to
__________.
o
o
(A) improve and your speed to decrease

(B) improve and your speed to increase
(C) be sluggish and your speed to decrease
(D) be sluggish and your speed to increase
4127. (2.10.3.2-19) When turning a vessel in shallow water, which statement is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) The turning diameter remains the same.

(B) The turning diameter increases.
(C) The rate of turn is decreased.
(D) The rate of turn is increased.
4128. (2.10.3.2-20) Most very large ocean going vessels, such as bulk carriers and large tankers, tend
to squat __________.
o
o
(A) by the stern

(B) evenly fore and aft
(C) by the bow
(D) at the end nearest the bottom

Deck General
September 2015
4129. (2.10.3.2-26) A tug is best positioned for towing and maneuvering on rivers and other restricted
waters where wave action is limited when __________.
o
o
o
(A) towing on the hip

(B) towing alongside and parallel to the vessel it is towing
(C) towing on a hawser
(D) directly astern and pushing the tow
4130. (2.10.3.2-27) What affect does shallow water have on a vessel's stopping distance?
o
o
o
(A) There is no difference in the stopping distance.

(B) The stopping distance is longer.
(C) The propeller is more effective when going astern in shallow water.
(D) The stopping distance is shorter.
4131. (2.10.3.2-28) In the context of shiphandling, what would be the definition of shallow water?
o
o
(A) Under keel clearance of less than 10 feet

(B) Under keel clearance of twice a vessel's draft
(C) Water depth of less than twice a vessel's draft
(D) Water depth of less than 1 times a vessel's draft
4132. (2.10.3.2-29) How does a vessel's rate of turn change when entering shallow water?
o
o
o
(A) It is faster.
(B) It remains constant for varying propeller revolutions.
(C) It is slower.
(D) There is no change.
4133. (2.10.3.2-30) Which factor has the GREATEST influence on the squat of a vessel in shallow
water?
o
o
o
(A) the course of the vessel over the ground

(B) the speed of the vessel over the ground
(C) the course of the vessel through the water
(D) the speed of the vessel through the water

Deck General
September 2015
4134. (2.10.3.2-32) When maneuvering in restricted waters the effect of squat on a vessel varies
proportionally to the speed. Which factor is utilized for general calculations?
o
o
(A) the square of the speed over the ground

(B) a factor of two times the speed over the ground
(C) the square of the speed through the water
(D) a factor of two times the speed through the water
4135. (2.10.3.2-33) Squat is a natural phenomena as a ship moves through a restricted channel due to
what basic principle?
o
o
o
(A) decreased pressure on the hull resulting from decreased speed

(B) increased pressure on the hull resulting from increased speed
(C) increased pressure on the hull resulting from decreased speed
(D) decreased pressure on the hull resulting from increased speed
4136. (2.10.3.2-36) Your vessel is preparing to proceed up a river. Which of the following is true
concerning the handling of the vessel in shallow water?
o
o
(A) there will be no difference in the steering of the vessel

(B) steering will be more responsive in shallow water as opposed to deep water
(C) steering will be sluggish in shallow water as opposed to deep water
(D) the steering is sluggish in deep water as opposed to shallow water
4137. (2.10.4-2) Usually the most gentle way of riding out a severe storm on a larger vessel is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) head on at slow speeds

(B) to rig a sea anchor
(C) hove to
(D) running before the seas
4138. (2.10.4-5) When running before a heavy sea, moving weights aft will affect the handling of a
vessel by __________.
o
o
o
(A) reducing yawing

(B) increasing yawing
(C) increasing rolling
(D) reducing rolling

Deck General
September 2015
4139. (2.10.4-3) Which measure should NOT be taken to reduce the pounding of a vessel in a head
sea?
o
o
o
(A) Reduce speed.

(B) Add ballast in the after peak.
(C) Alter course.
(D) Add ballast forward.
4140. (2.10.4-7) When a boat turns broadside to heavy seas and winds, thus exposing the boat to the
danger of capsizing, the boat has __________.
o
o
o
(A) yawed
(B) pitchpoled
(C) trimmed
(D) broached
4141. (2.10.4-4) You are underway in heavy weather and your bow is into the seas. To prevent
pounding, you should __________.
o
o
(A) secure all loose gear

(B) change course, in order to take the seas at an 85 degree angle from the bow
(C) decrease speed
(D) increase speed
4142. (2.10.4-6) Your vessel is off a lee shore in heavy weather and laboring. Which action should you
take?
o
o
o
(A) Put the bow directly into the sea and proceed at full speed.
(B) Put the sea and wind on either quarter and proceed at increased speed.
(C) Heave to in the trough of the sea.
(D) Put the sea and wind about two points on either bow and reduce speed.
4143. (2.10.4-8) With a following sea, a vessel will tend to __________.
o
o
o
(A) yaw
(B) pound
(C) reduce speed
(D) heave to

Deck General
September 2015
4144. (2.10.4-12) If your propeller is racing in rough weather, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) increase your engine speed

(B) decrease your engine speed
(C) stop your engine until the rough weather passes
(D) ignore it
4145. (2.10.4-14) What is meant by the term "broaching to"?

o
o
(A) Having the vessel filled with water

(B) Running before a sea
(C) Being turned broadside to the sea
(D) Having the vessel head toward the sea
4146. (2.10.4-17) Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the danger of
capsizing by __________.
o
o
o
(A) rigging a sea anchor

(B) moving all passengers to the stern
(C) moving all passengers to one side of the boat
(D) constantly shifting the rudder
4147. (2.10.4-18) In a following sea, a wave has overtaken your vessel and thrown the stern to
starboard. To continue along your original course, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) use more left rudder

(B) use more right rudder
(C) decrease speed
(D) increase speed
4148. (2.10.6-1) "An electronic or electric device that indicates the rate of turn of a vessel," defines a/an
__________.
o
o
o
(A) swing meter

(B) odometer
(C) magnetic compass
(D) gyro-compass

Deck General
September 2015
4149. (2.10.6-3) As a rule, ships of most configurations, when drifting in calm water with negligible
current, will lie __________.
o
o
o
(A) bow to the wind

(B) stern to the wind
(C) with the wind on the quarter
(D) beam to the wind
4150. (2.10.6-2) Leeway is the __________.

o
o
o
(A) displacement of a vessel multiplied by her speed

(B) difference between the true course and the compass course
(C) momentum of a vessel after her engines have been stopped
(D) lateral movement of a vessel downwind of her intended course
4151. (2.10.6-6) You are drifting in a locale where there is no current. As a rule, your vessel will lie
__________.
o
o
o
(A) beam to the wind

(B) bow to the wind
(C) with the wind on the quarter
(D) stern to the wind
4152. (2.10.6-4) A VLCC (100,000 DWT+) with a 30,000 Shaft Horsepower Steam Turbine is slow to
respond to engine movements and has less stopping power than normal ships because it has a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) smaller propeller

(B) larger power to weight ratio
(C) bigger propeller
(D) smaller power to weight ratio
4153. (2.10.6-10) Which statement about stopping a vessel is TRUE?

o
o
o
(A) A vessel is dead in the water when the back wash from astern operation reaches the bow.
(B) A tunnel bow thruster can be used in an emergency to reduce the stopping distance.
(C) A lightly laden vessel requires as much stopping distance as a fully laden vessel when the
current is from astern.
(D) When a vessel is dead in the water any speed displayed by Doppler log reflects the current.

Deck General
September 2015
4154. (2.10.6-11) A vessel reduces speed without backing. The rate that her speed through the water
decreases depends primarily on the __________.
o
o
o
(A) number of propellers

(B) vessel's horsepower
(C) sea state
(D) vessel's displacement
4155. (2.10.6-12) The maneuvering information required to be posted in the wheelhouse must be
based on certain conditions. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions?
o
o
o
(A) There must be calm weather-wind 10 knots or less and a calm sea.
(B) The hull must be clean.
(C) There must be no current.
(D) The depth of the water must be at least one and one-half times the draft.
4156. (2.10.6.1-4) You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking radar
ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as shown. Based on
this data what is the advance for a turn of 60? Illustration D035DG
o
o
o
(A) 665 yards

(B) 710 yards
(C) 745 yards
(D) 780 yards
4157. (2.10.6.1-6) In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "advance" means the distance
__________.
o
o
o
(A) moved sidewise from the original course when the rudder is first put over
(B) around the circumference of the turning circle
(C) gained at right angles to the original course
(D) gained in the direction of the original course
shown. Based on this information, what is the advance for a turn of 75? ILLUSTRATION D034DG
o
o
o
(A) 825 yards (754 meters)

(B) 860 yards (774 meters)
(C) 910 yards (819 meters)
(D) 955 yards (860 meters)

Deck General
September 2015
4159. (2.10.6.1-9) In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "kick" means the distance
__________.
o
o
o
(A) around the circumference of the turning circle

(B) or throw of a vessel's stern from her line of advance upon putting the helm hard over
(C) gained at right angles to the original course
4160. (2.10.6.1-8) You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking radar
ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as shown. Based on
this data what is the advance for a turn of 90? See Illustration D035DG
o
o
o
(A) 490 yards

(B) 790 yards
(C) 885 yards
(D) 350 yards
4161. (2.10.7-1) When taking a Pilot from a pilot vessel in a seaway, which way should you head your
vessel if the ladder is on the leeward side?
o
o
o
(A) Sea on the quarter with sternway on the ship

(B) Sea on the weather bow and ship moving ahead slowly
(C) Bow to the sea and no way on your vessel
(D) Sea on the lee quarter with ship moving ahead slowly
4162. (2.10.7-2) You are approaching the pilot station with the wind fine on the starboard bow and
making about 3 knots. You can help to calm the seas by taking what action just before the pilot boat
comes along on the port side?
o
o
(A) Giving right full rudder

(B) Stopping the engines
(C) A short burst of ahead full with left full rudder
(D) Backing full
4163. (2.10.9-1) As a ship moves through the water, it drags with it a body of water called the wake.
The ratio of the wake speed to the ship's speed is called __________.
o
o
o
(A) speed of advance

(B) propeller velocity
(C) wake distribution
(D) wake fraction

Deck General
September 2015
4164. (2.10.9-2) Which statement is TRUE concerning the vessel's slipstream?

o
o
o
(A) It has no effect on the steering of the vessel.

(B) Its velocity is the same as that of the wake.
(C) It has no effect on the rudder when the helm is amidships.
(D) The propeller gives it a helical motion.
4165. (2.10.9-4) A stream of water immediately surrounding a moving vessel's hull, flowing in the same
direction as the vessel is known as __________.
o
o
o
(A) wake current

(B) forward current
(C) propeller current
(D) directional current
4166. (2.10.6.2-1) In stopping distances of vessels, "head reach" can best be described as the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) speed at which a vessel should proceed to ensure that she will run a predetermined distance,
once her engines have been stopped
(B) distance the vessel has actually run through the water since a change of speed was ordered
(C) difference between the vessel's speed through the water at any instant and the new speed
ordered on the telegraph
(D) distance the vessel will run between taking action to stop her and being stationary in the
water
4167. (2.10.6.2-2) The distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engines full
astern until the vessel is dead in the water is known as __________.
o
o
o
(A) transfer
(B) head reach
(C) advance
(D) surge
4168. (2.10.6.3-1) When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, the pivot point
tends to __________.
o
o
(A) move lower

(B) move aft
(C) move forward
(D) remain stationary

Deck General
September 2015
4169. (2.10.6.3-2) When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is __________.
o
o
o
(A) aft of the propellers

(B) about one-third of the vessel's length from the bow
(C) at the bow
(D) about one-quarter of the vessel's length from the stern
4170. (2.10.6.3-3) The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea
speed is __________.
o
o
o
(A) one-third the length of the vessel from the bow

(B) one-half the length of the vessel from the bow
(C) right at the bow
(D) two-thirds the length of the vessel from the bow
4171. (2.10.6.4-1) The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of
180 has been completed, is called the __________.
o
o
o
(A) tactical diameter

(B) pivoting point
(C) advance
(D) kick
illustration D035DG. Based on this data what is the tactical diameter of the turning circle? D035DG
o
o
o
(A) 755 yards

(B) 780 yards
(C) 820 yards
(D) 880 yards
o
o
o


Deck General
September 2015
4174. (2.10.6.5-2) In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "transfer" means the distance
__________.
o
o
o
(A) gained at right angles to the original course

(B) around the circumference of the turning circle
(C) the ship moves sidewise from the original course away from the direction of the turn after the
rudder is first put over
vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are
shown in illustration D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 45?
o
o
o
(A) 130 yards

(B) 165 yards
(C) 195 yards
(D) 230 yards
o
o
o
(A) 875 yards

(B) 910 yards
(C) 975 yards
(D) 1015 yards
4177. (2.10.6.5-5) You are on a course of 000T and put the rudder right 30. In which direction will the
transfer be measured?
o
o
o
(A) 000T
(B) 090T
(C) 180T
(D) 270T

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
(A) 745 yards

(B) 770 yards
(C) 850 yards
(D) 890 yards
o
o
o
(A) 140 yards

(B) 190 yards
(C) 230 yards
(D) 40 yards
o
o
o
(A) 410 yards

(B) 455 yards
(C) 355 yards
(D) 380 yards
vessel. While making a turn you take the ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are
o
o
o


Deck General
September 2015
4182. (2.10.6.5-11) You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking
o
o
o
(A) 400 yards

(B) 430 yards
(C) 485 yards
(D) 525 yards
illustration D035DG. Based on this data what is the tactical diameter of the turning circle?
o
o
o
(A) 755 yards

(B) 780 yards
(C) 820 yards
(D) 880 yards
4184. (2.10.6.6-2) The turning circle of a vessel is the path followed by the __________.
o
o
o
(A) center of gravity

(B) tipping center
(C) outermost part of the ship while making the circle
(D) bow
4185. (2.10.6.6-3) The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees is the path followed by
the __________.
o
o
o

(B) centerline
(C) bridge
(D) bow
4186. (2.10.6.6-4) The turning circle of a vessel making a turn of over 360 degrees is the path followed
by the __________.
o
o
(A) bridge
(B) bow
(C) center of gravity
(D) centerline

Deck General
September 2015
4187. (2.10.8-1) As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the trailing and leading edges of the
propeller blades causing a loss of propulsive efficiency, pitting of the blades, and vibration. These
voids are known as __________.
o
o
o
(A) cavitation
(B) edging
(C) advance
(D) slip
4188. (2.10.8-2) The force exerted by a propeller which tends to throw the stern right or left is called
__________.
o
o
(A) slip
(B) rotational force
(C) sidewise force
(D) thrust
4189. (2.10.8-3) Sidewise force of the propeller tends to throw a vessel's stern to the right or left,
depending on rotation. This force is caused by __________.
o
o
o
(A) torque from the velocity and angle at which the surrounding water impinges upon the propeller
blades
(B) lower pressure on the right or left side of the propeller, depending on rotation
(C) back current from the rudder
(D) greater pressure on the right or left side of the propeller, depending on rotation
4190. (2.10.8-4) Which type of rudder may lose its effectiveness at angles of 10 or more degrees?
o
o
o
(A) Flat plate

(B) Unbalanced
(C) Contra-guide
(D) Balanced spade
4191. (2.10.8-5) If a tug equipped with flanking rudders is to be turned in a confined circle, when going
astern, the stern will move to port the quickest if __________.
o
o
o
(A) the rudder is hard to port and the flanking rudders are hard to starboard
(B) the rudder is hard to port and the flanking rudders are hard to port
(C) the rudder is amidships and the flanking rudders are hard to port
(D) all rudders are hard to starboard

Deck General
September 2015
4192. (2.10.8-6) Flanking rudders effect a vessel's heading because of the __________.
o
o
o
(A) water flow due to the vessel's movement through the water
(B) effect of the propeller flow on the rudders
(C) discharge current being channeled to impinge on the vessel's deadwood
(D) tunnel affect of the water flow past opposing rudders
4193. (2.10.8-7) Generally, you can best keep a vessel under steering control when the vessel has
__________.
o
o
o
(A) no way on, with engines stopped

(B) no way on, with engines full ahead
(C) sternway
(D) headway
4194. (2.10.8-8) The pitch of a propeller is a measure of the __________.

o
o
(A) angle that the propeller makes with the surface of the water
(B) positive pressure resulting from the difference of the forces on both sides of the moving
propeller in still water without slip
(C) number of feet per revolution the propeller is designed to advance in still water without slip
(D) angle that the propeller makes with a free stream of water
4195. (2.10.8.1-1) You are on a single-screw vessel with a left-handed propeller making no way in the
water. How will your vessel react when you apply right rudder?
o
o
o
(A) Rudder alone has no effect on the vessel

(B) Bow will kick to port
(C) Stern will kick to port, then slowly swing to starboard
(D) Bow will kick to starboard
4196. (2.10.8.1-3) You are aboard a single-screw vessel (right-hand propeller) going full ahead with
good headway. The engine is put astern and the rudder is placed hard left. The stern of the vessel
will swing to __________.
o
o
o
(A) port until headway is lost and then may possibly swing to starboard
(B) port slowly at first and then quickly to port
(C) port
(D) starboard until headway is lost and then to port

Deck General
September 2015
4197. (2.10.8.1-2) A single-screw vessel going ahead tends to turn more rapidly to port because of
propeller __________.
o
o
(A) discharge current

(B) thrust
(C) sidewise force
(D) suction current
4198. (2.10.8.1-6) Your ship is dead in the water with the rudder amidships. As the right-handed screw
starts to turn ahead, the bow will tend to go __________.
o
o
(A) to starboard
(B) straight ahead
(C) to port
(D) as influenced by the tide and sea
4199. (2.10.8.1-15) You are on a large vessel fitted with a right-handed controllable-pitch propeller set
at maximum forward pitch. Which statement about reversing is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) When the pitch is reversed, the stern will slew to port even with headway.
(B) The vessel will have full rudder control throughout the speed change from ahead to astern.
(C) The vessel will respond to the rudder until sternway is developed, then the stern will slew to
starboard.
(D) There will probably be a loss of steering control.
4200. (2.10.8.1-8) You are on a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller. The vessel is going
full speed astern with full right rudder. The bow will swing __________.
o
o
o
(A) slowly to port, then quickly to starboard

(B) probably to port
(C) quickly to port, then more slowly to port
(D) probably to starboard

Deck General
September 2015
4201. (2.10.8.1-16) A large vessel is equipped with a controllable pitch propeller. Which statement is
TRUE?
o
o
(A) When the vessel has headway and the propeller is in neutral, there is no effect on rudder
control.
(B) When maneuvering in port, full ahead or astern power can usually be obtained without
changing shaft RPM.
(C) When dead in the water, it is often difficult to find the neutral position and slight headway or
sternway may result.
(D) When going directly from full ahead to full astern, there is complete steering control.
4202. (2.10.8.1-4) When a vessel with a single right-hand propeller backs to port the __________.
o
o
(A) vessel moves to starboard without changing heading

(B) bow swings to port
(C) bow falls off to starboard
(D) vessel moves to port without changing heading
4203. (2.10.8.1-17) Which characteristic is a disadvantage of a controllable- pitch propeller as

compared to a fixed-pitch propeller?
o
o
(A) Lack of directional control when backing

(B) Inefficient at high shaft RPM
(C) Some unusual handling characteristics
(D) Slightly higher fuel consumption
4204. (2.10.8.1-10) You are aboard a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller. The vessel is
dead in the water and the rudder is amidships. If you reverse your engine you would expect your
vessel to __________.
o
o
(A) swing its stern to starboard, then to port

(B) kick its stern to starboard
(C) kick its stern to port
(D) move astern without swinging

Deck General
September 2015
4205. (2.10.8.1-5) On a single-screw vessel, when coming port side to a pier and being set off the pier,
you should __________.
o
o
(A) swing wide and approach the pier so as to land starboard side to
(B) approach the pier on a parallel course at reduced speed
(C) make your approach at a greater angle than in calm weather
(D) point the vessel's head well up into the slip and decrease your speed
4206. (2.10.8.1-12) You are aboard a right-handed single-screw vessel with headway on. The engine is
put full astern and the rudder hard left. What will the bow do?
o
o
(A) The bow will swing to the right.

(B) It will swing to the left without increasing or decreasing its swing.
(C) It will swing to the left, straighten out and then swing to the right as the vessel loses way.
(D) It will swing to the left, and will swing left faster as the vessel loses way.
4207. (2.10.8.1-7) On a vessel with a single propeller, transverse force has the most effect on the
vessel when the engine is put __________.
o
o
o
(A) half ahead

(B) full ahead
(C) slow astern
(D) full astern
4208. (2.10.8.1-9) In order to back a right-handed, single-screw vessel in a straight line, you will
probably need to use __________.
o
o
o
(A) some right rudder

(B) full left rudder
(C) some left rudder
(D) very little rudder

Deck General
September 2015
4209. (2.10.8.1-11) You are landing a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller port side to a
dock. As you approach the dock, you back down on your engine with rudder amidships. You would
expect the vessel to __________.
o
o
(A) lose headway without swinging

(B) swing its stern away from the dock
(C) swing its stern towards the dock
(D) drift away from the dock
4210. (2.10.8.1-13) Your vessel is a single-screw ship with a right-hand propeller. There is no current.
The easiest way to make a landing is __________.
o
o
o
(A) dropping anchor and swinging the ship in to the pier

(B) port side to
(C) starboard side to
(D) either port or starboard side to, with no difference in degree of difficulty
4211. (2.10.8.1-18) You are landing a single-screw vessel, with a right-hand propeller, starboard side to
the dock. When you have approached the berth and back the engine, you would expect the vessel to
__________.
o
o
(A) lose headway without swinging

(B) head into the wind, regardless of the side the wind is on
(C) turn her bow toward the dock
(D) turn her bow away from the dock
4212. (2.10.8.1-19) You are landing a single-screw vessel with a left-handed propeller, starboard side
to the dock. As you approach the dock you back your engine with your rudder amidships. You would
expect the vessel to __________.
o
o
o
(A) turn its stern towards the dock

(B) turn its bow towards the dock
(C) drift away from the dock
(D) lose headway without swinging
4213. (2.10.8.1-20) It is easier to dock a right-hand, single-screw vessel __________.

o
o
o
(A) stern to the wharf

(B) port side to the wharf
(C) either side to the wharf
(D) starboard side to the wharf

Deck General
September 2015
4214. (2.10.8.2-1) Which of the following is an inherent advantage possessed by a twin-screw vessel in
opposition to a single-screw vessel?
o
o
o
(A) The drag effect will be cancelled out

(B) The vessel's speed will be increased
(C) The correct trim will be obtained more easily
(D) The side forces will be cancelled out
4215. (2.10.8.2-25) The BEST way to steer a twin-screw vessel if you lose your rudder is by using
__________.
o
o
o
(A) both engines at the same speed

(B) one engine and a steering oar
(C) one engine at a time
(D) one engine running at reduced speed and controlling the vessel with the other
4216. (2.10.8.2-2) You are backing on twin engines with rudders amidships, when your port engine
stalls. To continue backing on course, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) keep your rudder amidships

(B) apply right rudder
(C) apply left rudder
(D) increase engine speed
4217. (2.10.8.2-3) A twin-screw vessel is easier to maneuver than a single-screw vessel because the
twin-screw vessel __________.
o
o
(A) can suck the water away from the rudder

(B) permits the rudder to move faster
(C) can turn without using her rudder
(D) generates more power
4218. (2.10.8.2-4) You are backing on twin engines with rudders amidships. Your starboard engine
stalls. To continue backing on course, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) apply left rudder

(B) increase your engine speed
(C) keep your rudder amidships
(D) apply right rudder

Deck General
September 2015
4219. (2.10.8.2-5) When comparing twin screw tug to single-screw tugs, which statement about a twinscrew tug is FALSE?
o
o
o
(A) If one engine fails, you do not lose control of the tow.
(B) It develops more bollard pull for the same horsepower.
(C) It is generally subject to more propeller damage from debris in the water.
(D) It is more maneuverable.
4220. (2.10.8.2-6) Your twin-screw vessel is moving ASTERN with rudders amidships. The starboard
screw suddenly stops turning. Your vessel's head will __________.
o
o
(A) go to starboard
(B) suddenly drop down
(C) go to port
(D) remain stationary
4221. (2.10.8.2-7) A vessel is equipped with twin propellers, both turning outboard with the engines half
ahead. If there is no wind or current and the rudders are amidships, what will happen?
o
o
o
(A) The vessel will steer a fairly straight course.

(B) The bow will swing to port.
(C) The bow will swing to starboard.
(D) The vessel will steer a zigzag course.
4222. (2.10.8.2-8) You are going ahead on twin engines with rudder amidships. Your starboard engine
stalls. To continue on course, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) keep your rudder amidships

(B) apply left rudder
(C) increase engine speed
4223. (2.10.8.2-9) A twin-screw vessel with a single rudder is making headway. The engines are full
speed ahead. There is no wind or current. Which statement is FALSE?
o
o
o
(A) With the rudder amidships, the ship will steer a fairly steady course.
(B) The principal force which turns the ship is set up by the wake against the forward side of the
rudder.
(C) If one screw is stopped, the ship will turn toward the side of the stopped screw.
(D) Turning response by use of the rudder only is greater than on a single-screw vessel.

Deck General
September 2015
4224. (2.10.8.2-10) You are going ahead on twin engines with rudders amidships. Your port engine
stalls. To continue your course you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) increase engine speed

(B) keep your rudder amidships
(C) apply left rudder
4225. (2.10.8.2-11) You are operating a twin-screw vessel and lose your port engine. You continue to
operate on your starboard engine only. Which action would you take to move your vessel ahead in a
straight line?
o
o
o
(A) Compensate with left rudder.

(B) Compensate with right rudder.
(C) Rudder amidships - no compensation is necessary on a twin-screw vessel.
(D) Surge the starboard engine.
4226. (2.10.8.2-12) With rudders amidships and negligible wind, a twin-screw vessel moving astern
with both engines backing will back __________.
o
o
o
(A) to starboard
(B) in a fairly straight line
(C) to port
(D) in a circular motion
4227. (2.10.8.2-13) A twin screw vessel, making headway with both engines turning ahead, will turn
more readily to starboard if you __________.
o
o
o
(A) reverse starboard engine, apply right rudder

(B) reverse port engine, apply right rudder
(C) reverse port engine, rudder amidships
(D) reverse starboard engine, rudder amidships
4228. (2.10.8.2-14) You are going ahead on twin engines when you want to make a quick turn to port.
Which actions will turn your boat the fastest?
o
o
o
(A) Reverse starboard engine; rudder amidships

(B) Reverse starboard engine; apply left rudder
(C) Reverse port engine; rudder amidships
(D) Reverse port engine; apply left rudder

Deck General
September 2015
4229. (2.10.8.2-15) On a twin-screw, twin-rudder vessel, the most effective way to turn in your own
water, with no way on, is to put __________.
o
o
o
(A) one engine ahead and one engine astern, with full rudder
(B) one engine ahead and one engine astern, with rudders amidships
(C) both engines ahead, with full rudder
(D) both engines astern, with full rudder
4230. (2.10.8.2-16) Your vessel is backing on the starboard screw, and going ahead on the port screw.
The bow will __________.
o
o
o
(A) swing to port

(B) back on a straight line
(C) move ahead on a straight line
(D) swing to starboard
4231. (2.10.8.2-17) You may BEST turn a twin-screw vessel about, to the right, in a narrow channel by
using __________.
o
o
(A) both engines ahead and helm

(B) one engine only
(C) port engine ahead and the starboard engine astern
(D) both engines astern and use helm
4232. (2.10.8.2-19) The rudders are amidships and both screws are going ahead. What will happen if
the starboard screw is stopped?
o
o
o
(A) The bow will go to starboard.

(B) The bow will go to port.
(C) The bow will remain steady.
(D) The stern will go to starboard.
4233. (2.10.8.2-20) With rudders amidships and negligible wind, a twin-screw vessel moving ahead on
the port screw and backing on the starboard screw will __________.
o
o
o
(A) pivot to port

(B) pivot to starboard
(C) walk sideways to starboard
(D) move in a straight line

Deck General
September 2015
4234. (2.10.8.2-21) A twin-screw vessel can clear the inboard propeller and maneuver off a pier best by
holding a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) forward spring line and going slow ahead on the outboard engine
(B) forward spring line and going slow ahead on both engines
(C) after spring line and going slow astern on the outboard engine
(D) forward spring line and going slow ahead on the inboard engine
4235. (2.10.8.2-22) You are conning a twin-screw vessel going ahead with rudders amidships. If the
port screw stops turning the bow will __________.
o
o
o
(A) go to port
(B) go first to port and then to starboard
(C) go to starboard
(D) not veer to either side
4236. (2.10.8.2-23) You are stopped with no way upon your vessel at the pilot station. Your vessel is a
large twin-screw ship. You must come around 180 to board your Pilot. How should you use the
engines and rudder to turn the ship fastest in the least amount of space?
o
o
o
(A) Slow ahead with hard over rudder

(B) Full ahead on the engines and hard over rudder
(C) Full ahead on one engine, full astern on the other
(D) Half ahead with hard over rudder, then full astern on inboard engine
4237. (2.10.8.2-24) In twin-screw engine installations while going ahead, maneuvering qualities are
most effective when the tops of the propeller blades both turn __________.
o
o
o
(A) to port
(B) outboard from the center
(C) inboard toward the center
(D) to starboard

Deck General
September 2015
Although winds are less than 70 knots, excessive motion requires ballasting to survival draft.
Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet, and upon arrival at
45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 are slack. What will be the new margin on the
maximum allowable KG?
o
o
o
(A) 7.08 feet

(B) 8.12 feet
(C) 8.44 feet
(D) 8.96 feet
4239. (2.5.8.4-1) To what distance below the hull must the legs of the COASTAL DRILLER be lowered
in order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements during the wind speeds greater than 70
knots?
o
o
o
(A) 0.0 feet

(B) 1.2 feet
(C) 25.0 feet
(D) 60.5 feet
4240. (2.5.8.10-13) During a long ocean tow of a jack-up the clearance in the upper guide should be
reduced to zero to restrain the leg and eliminate the impact loads from dynamic responses. This is
best done by __________.
o
o
o
(A) tapering the upper guides and building up the teeth

(B) remove certain lengths of leg
(C) raising the spud cans into hull recesses
(D) lowering the spud cans below the hull
4241. (2.5.8.1-19) On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting
from ballast tank 8S is valve __________.
o
o
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 17
(D) 18

Deck General
September 2015
4242. (2.5.8.7A-18) What is the maximum weight that can be placed in the setback area on the
COASTAL DRILLER?
o
o
(A) 1000 kips

(B) 750 kips
(C) 450 kips
(D) 375 kips
4243. (2.5.8.7B-7) Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading
hoses, derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, all machinery with liquids to normal
operating level, and __________.
o
o
o
(A) normal food supplies for 79 persons

(B) mooring chain
(C) eight anchor buoys
(D) lower hull fuel
4244. (2.5.8.5-27) If the charted water depth is 200 feet, the limits of service for the COASTAL
DRILLER require an air gap of __________.
o
o
(A) 35 feet
(B) 32 feet
(C) 30 feet
(D) 25 feet
4245. (2.5.9-27) The hoist line primarily used for lifting personnel on MODU cranes is called the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) whip line

(B) pendant
(C) personnel line
(D) main hoist line

Deck General
September 2015
4246. (2.5.8.5-19) Preloading tests the soil to the vertical leg reaction that would be imposed by
__________.
o
o
(A) environmental forces

(B) static forced and drilling loads
(C) the design storm
(D) a severe storm
4247. (2.5.8.7B-16) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit).
According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit?
o
o
o

4248. (2.5.8.7B-13) Under ideal conditions, the DEEP DRILLER can pick up and place pipe in the rack
at a rate of about __________.
o
o
(A) 600 feet per hour

(B) 800 feet per hour
(C) 1,000 feet per hour
(D) 1,200 feet per hour
4249. (2.5.8.7A-12) A mat-type jack-up drilling unit is the best selection for __________.
o
o
o
(A) deep water

(B) uneven bottoms
(C) hard bottoms
(D) soft mud bottoms
4250. (2.5.9-60) The major cause of anchor buoy pendant wire failures is __________.
o
o
o
(A) rough weather

(B) defective sockets
(C) corrosion
(D) mishandling

Deck General
September 2015
4251. (2.5.8.8-45) The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig
Move). While in field transit, the wind speeds are predicted to increase above 70 knots. What would
be the change in KGL if the legs are lowered to the recommended value?
o
o
o
(A) 12.75 feet

(B) 13.65 feet
(C) 59.30 feet
(D) 60.50 feet
4252. (2.5.8.1-1) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival). While
the unit is deballasting, port valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2P by
pumping from tank 1P after opening valves 6 and __________.
o
o
o
(A) 35
(B) 7
(C) 4
(D) 2
4253. (2.5.9-20) A measurement device for inspecting anchor chain is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) go-no-go gauge

(B) amp probe
(C) slide rule
(D) derrick tape
4254. (2.5.8.8-51) While elevated, the COASTAL DRILLER prepares for a severe storm. When the
setback is lowered and placed in the pipe racks, it is considered as part of the __________.
o
o
(A) basic loads

(B) storm loads
(C) variable loads
(D) fixed loads
4255. (2.5.8.2-21) The COASTAL DRILLER, with a draft of 10 feet 3 inches in seawater, has a
displacement of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 13,011 kips

(B) 13,336 kips
(C) 13,445 kips
(D) 14,637 kips

Deck General
September 2015
4256. (2.5.9-44) The design of a spring buoy helps __________.

o
o
o
(A) to mark the rig's approach to the location

(B) to prevent chafing at the lower end of the pendant
(C) an anchor handling vessel back toward the rig
(D) to retrieve the anchor
4257. (2.5.8.2-6) The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 200 long tons on board.
What is the new draft?
o
o
o
(A) 56.55 feet

(B) 59.45 feet
(C) 60.00 feet
(D) 75.41 feet
4258. (2.5.8.7B-9) If the maximum amount of weight is stored in the pipe racks of the DEEP DRILLER,
what is the weight per square foot?
o
o
(A) 250.0 pounds per square foot

(B) 312.5 pounds per square foot
(C) 350.0 pounds per square foot
(D) 400.0 pounds per square foot
4259. (2.5.8.5-22) When elevating the COASTAL DRILLER in 200 feet of water, the unit should be
placed at an air gap of __________.
o
o
(A) 35 feet
(B) 32 feet
(C) 30 feet
(D) 25 feet
4260. (2.5.8.3-8) Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center
of gravity of a MODU yields __________.
o
o
o
(A) KGL
(B) KG
(C) GML
(D) FSCL

Deck General
September 2015
4261. (2.5.8.5-8) You are operating a liftboat. Before starting jacking operations you should
__________.
o
o
o
(A) put the crane in a vertical position

(B) have all personnel don life jackets
(C) put a watch in the engine room
(D) close the wheelhouse doors
4262. (2.5.8.7A-19) What is the maximum weight permitted on the cantilever pipe racks for the
COASTAL DRILLER?
o
o
o
(A) 450 kips

(B) 500 kips
(C) 750 kips
(D) 1000 kips
4263. (2.5.8.1-37) When the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, the water for the saltwater eductor
system is provided by __________.
o
o
o
(A) bilge pumps

(B) mud pumps
(C) fire pumps
(D) raw water tower pumps
4264. (2.5.8.8-11) In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the starboard bow of the DEEP
DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the offset is 8%. Completely slacking mooring lines 7 and 8
reduces the offset to __________.
o
o
o
(A) 6.5%
(B) 5.0%
(C) 2.5%
(D) 0.0%
4265. (2.5.8.7A-23) The Cantilever Beam Load Chart for the COASTAL DRILLER shows the load limits
in the hook, setback, conductor tension, and __________.
o
o
(A) wave loads

(B) wind loads
(C) rotary loads
(D) pipe rack loads

Deck General
September 2015
4266. (2.5.8.8-48) What maximum wind velocity is assumed when determining the limits of elevated
service for the COASTAL DRILLER?
o
o
(A) 70 knots
(B) 50 knots
(C) 100 knots
(D) It varies with the Allowable Wind and Wave charts.
4267. (2.5.8.3-17) The DEEP DRILLER is operating at a draft of 60 feet. There is 11.5 feet of drill water
in each of the drill water tanks (5P and 5S). What would be the improvement in KGL if 5S is filled
from 5P?
o
o
o
(A) 0.56 foot

(B) 0.49 foot
(C) 0.18 foot
(D) 0.08 foot
How much additional deck load can be placed aboard without exceeding the deck load limit?
o
o
o
(A) 1,335.6 long tons

(B) 1,086.6 long tons
(C) 585.4 long tons
(D) 435.6 long tons
4269. (2.5.8.8-36) Because of the presence of 75 knot winds, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft.
KGL is 1.24 feet less than the maximum allowed. What is the value of GML?
o
o
o
(A) 0.15 foot

(B) 1.00 foot
(C) 1.24 feet
(D) 1.39 feet
4270. (2.5.8.7A-29) When preloading the COASTAL DRILLER, the minimum total weight shall not be
less than __________.
o
o
o
(A) 21,497 kips

(B) 21,297 kips
(C) 17,700 kips
(D) 14,400 kips

Deck General
September 2015
What are the new LM (longitudinal moments) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P
and 1S are discharged?
o
o
o
(A) 5,191 ft-tons

(B) 13,414 ft-tons
(C) 31,992 ft-tons
(D) 69,175 ft-tons
4272. (2.5.8.2-25) The height of the transverse metacenter of the Coastal Driller at a displacement of
13,050 kips is __________.
o
o
(A) 143.81 feet

(B) 144.61 feet
(C) 144.93 feet
(D) 145.73 feet
4273. (2.5.8.8-59) While on a normal tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a
severe storm. Including the time required to place the generators on-line, the approximate time
required to lower the legs from a TOC (tip-of-can) position of 1.20 feet to 60.50 feet is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 32 minutes
(C) 47 minutes
(D) 55 minutes
4274. (2.5.8.8-31) While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long
tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet.
Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the rise in the height of the center of gravity corrected for
longitudinal free surface effects?
o
o
(A) 2.62 feet

(B) 2.20 feet
(C) 1.03 feet
(D) 0.71 foot

Deck General
September 2015
Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are
added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet, and upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks
1, 3, and 8 are slack. What is the new KGL?
o
o
(A) 51.65 feet

(B) 52.67 feet
(C) 55.16 feet
(D) 62.24 feet
4276. (2.5.8.4-33) The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load
Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The
preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the starboard
leg reaction?
o
o
o
(A) 7,026 kips

(B) 7,099 kips
(C) 7,144 kips
(D) 7,180 kips
4277. (2.5.9-1) Standards for fabrication and testing of chain on mobile offshore drilling units are
o
o
o

(D) Department of the Interior
4278. (2.5.8.8-14) In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the port bow of the DEEP
o
o
o
(A) 6.5%
(B) 5.0%
(C) 2.5%
(D) 0.0%

Deck General
September 2015
4279. (2.5.8.1-2) When removing the cap from a sounding tube on a MODU, the sound of air escaping
indicates the tank __________.
o
o
o
(A) level has dropped

(B) may be partially flooded
(C) is completely flooded
(D) is full
4280. (2.5.8.1-26) Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast
from Tank 1P to Tank 10S using #1 ballast pump, is valve __________.
o
o
o
(A) 33 Starboard
(B) 33 Port
(C) 44 Port
(D) 44 Starboard
4281. (2.5.8.1-21) On the DEEP DRILLER, among the port-side valves to open when deballasting from
ballast tank 2P is valve __________.
o
o
o
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
4282. (2.5.8.4-31) The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 200 feet of water with 2 knots current, 30 foot
waves, and wind speeds of 60 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than
__________.
o
o
(A) 5,700 kips

(B) 5,790 kips
(C) 5,870 kips
(D) 5,990 kips
4283. (2.5.8.8-27) In the event the motion of the DEEP DRILLER is such that critical motion limits are
exceeded, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) shift loads to increase KG

(B) place the unit at 45 foot draft
(C) place the unit in standby
(D) place the unit at 65 foot draft

Deck General
September 2015
4284. (2.5.8.1-3) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival). While
the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2S
by pumping from tank 1S after opening valves 6 and __________.
o
o
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 2
(D) 1
4285. (2.5.8.2-14) The lightweight transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.
o
o
o
(A) 9,733 ft-long tons

(B) -5,937 ft-long tons
(C) 000 ft-long tons
(D) 680,914 ft-long tons
4286. (2.5.8.8-38) If a severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated as shown in the
Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), the variable loads would have to be reduced by __________.
o
o
(A) 3,282.5 kips

(B) 2,381.0 kips
(C) 1,000.0 kips
(D) 901.5 kips
4287. (2.5.8.8-60) While on a normal tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a
severe storm. The legs should be lowered so that the TOC (tip-of-can) is lowered from 1.20 feet to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 2.20 feet

(B) 12.38 feet
(C) 48.12 feet
(D) 60.50 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4288. (2.5.8.4-18) The COASTAL DRILLER, while elevated in 200 feet of water, has 2 knots of current,
50 knots of wind, and 30 foot seas. What is the maximum leg reaction for drilling?
o
o
o
(A) 6,090 kips

(B) 5,980 kips
(C) 5,540 kips
(D) 5,320 kips
4289. (2.5.8.7B-17) How much additional solid weight could be loaded at a VCG of 189.7 feet on the
DEEP DRILLER while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling)? Assume ballast
added or discharged to maintain draft is done so at 15 feet above the baseline.
o
o
o
(A) 279.2 long tons

(B) 314.2 long tons
(C) 404.2 long tons
(D) 461.9 long tons
4290. (2.5.8.7A-6) While going on location in 200 feet water depth when the roll angle of the COASTAL
DRILLER is 2.5 degrees, the roll period should be longer than __________.
o
o
(A) 0.8 second

(B) 6.2 seconds
(C) 13.0 seconds
(D) 17.0 seconds
4291. (2.5.8.4-29) The COASTAL DRILLER is drilling while weighing 15,436 kips. LM are 2,006,680 ftkips, and TM are -7,718 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?
o
o
(A) 3,806 kips

(B) 5,751 kips
(C) 5,879 kips
(D) 7,549 kips
4292. (2.5.9-30) When hoisting personnel from a vessel, with the MODU cranes, the crane operator
must assure that __________.
o
o
o
(A) he does not swing the load until it is above the landing area
(B) the personnel carrier remains directly over water
(C) all personnel are inside the net type carrier
(D) the personnel carrier remains directly over the vessel

Deck General
September 2015
4293. (2.5.8.1-4) In ballasting to survival draft, while in transit, due to extreme wind and wave loads,
thrusters or propulsion, if available, should be used to __________.
o
o
o
(A) maintain vessel heading

(B) reduce windward mooring tensions
(C) maximize accelerations
(D) increase speed of advance
4294. (2.5.8.1-9) Starboard ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. To deballast from tank
C2SA using starboard ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open the manual valve and which motor
driven valves?
o
o
o
(A) 15, 34, 35, 36, 46, 48

(B) 14, 34, 35, 36, 46, 48
(C) 16, 27, 32, 35, 36, 48
(D) 15, 33, 43, 48
4295. (2.5.8.8-3) During a storm, the chance of fatigue failure of a mooring line will increase as
__________.
o
o
o
(A) KG increases
(B) vessel motions increase
(C) KG decreases
(D) mooring tensions decrease
4296. (2.5.8.7A-30) During preloading or elevating the COASTAL DRILLER, jacking-up may continue if
the total weight is less than __________.
o
o
o
(A) 21,497 kips

(B) 21,297 kips
(C) 17,700 kips
(D) 14,400 kips
4297. (2.5.8.4-28) While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling),
200 kips are discharged from 60 feet AF0 and 30 feet to starboard of the centerline. What is the
starboard leg reaction?
o
o
o
(A) 4,271 kips

(B) 5,393 kips
(C) 5,410 kips
(D) 5,571 kips

Deck General
September 2015
4298. (2.5.9-14) What should be done after repairing a surface crack on a link of anchor chain by
grinding?
o
o
(A) Post heat the area

(B) Galvanize the area
(C) Examine the area by magnetic particle inspection
(D) Replace the chain in service
4299. (2.5.9-12) Prior to magnetic particle inspection of anchor chain, the chain should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) soaked
(B) sandblasted
(C) demagnetized
(D) degaussed
4300. (2.5.8.1-27) On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when flooding
through the overboard discharge into ballast tank 1S is valve __________.
o
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 7
(D) 37
4301. (2.5.8.1-25) When taking soundings on a MODU, coating the tape with chalk helps to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) reduce possibility of sparks

(B) better identify the correct reading
(C) make the tape roll easier
(D) show the depth of any water in an oil tank
4302. (2.5.8.1-5) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). While the
unit is deballasting, starboard valve 17 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 8S
by pumping from tank 9S and opening valves 18 and __________.
o
o
(A) 35
(B) 21
(C) 20
(D) 17

Deck General
September 2015
4303. (2.5.8.1-6) When taking soundings on a floating MODU, the tape should be lowered and brought
back quickly to __________.
o
o
(A) reduce the time the sounding tube is open

(B) lessen the effect of heave on the reading
(C) lessen the effect of roll or pitch on the reading
(D) avoid creating a spark
4304. (2.5.9-13) Grinding to eliminate shallow surface defects should be done __________.
o
o
o
(A) parallel to the longitudinal direction of the chain

(B) diagonally across the link of the anchor chain
(C) perpendicular to the direction of the anchor chain
(D) around the circumference of the chain link
4305. (2.5.8.3-12) If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity,
there will always be an increase in the __________.
o
o
o
(A) righting arm

(B) righting moment
(C) metacentric height
(D) vertical moments
4306. (2.5.8.7A-1) While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER experiences a single amplitude roll
of 5 degrees. What is the minimum roll period that does not exceed the design limits of the legs?
o
o
o
(A) 2.7 seconds

(B) 4.0 seconds
(C) 6.5 seconds
(D) 7.2 seconds
4307. (2.5.8.5-26) The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 200 feet of water, has two knots of current and
70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,840 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 20 feet
(B) 30 feet
(C) 35 feet
(D) 40 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4308. (2.5.8.2-1) A semisubmersible floating in sea water displaces 717,500 cubic feet. What is the
displacement?
o
o
o
(A) 11,211 long tons

(B) 11,498 long tons
(C) 19,977 long tons
(D) 20,500 long tons
4309. (2.5.8.5-28) It is vital to the safety of the elevated COASTAL DRILLER that the hull be kept
above __________.
o
o
o
(A) wave action

(B) the charted water depth plus tidal corrections
(C) the charted water depth
(D) the still water level
4310. (2.5.8.8-49) Use of air gaps in excess of that stated in the Limits of Elevated Service for the
COASTAL DRILLER could result in __________.
o
o
(A) the hull being in the storm wave zone

(B) reduced exposed area
(C) increased overturning moments
(D) increased static leg loading
4311. (2.5.8.1-7) Starboard ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. If you want to deballast
from the forward-starboard column using starboard pump #2, it is necessary to open valves
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 3, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48

(B) 4, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48
(C) 3, 34, 36, 46, and 48
(D) 4, 34, 36, 46, and 48
4312. (2.5.8.5-23) While elevated as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), winds are 57 knots and
current is 2 knots. What is the maximum wave height allowed for drilling?
o
o
(A) 30 feet
(B) 33 feet
(C) 35 feet
(D) 40 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4313. (2.5.8.4-26) The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG
is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the port leg reaction?
o
o
(A) 5,063 kips

(B) 5,104 kips
(C) 5,233 kips
(D) 5,345 kips
4314. (2.5.8.4-10) The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are
1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?
o
o
(A) 4,060 kips

(B) 5,145 kips
(C) 5,559 kips
(D) 5,816 kips
4315. (2.5.8.2-5) The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 200 long tons. What
is the new draft?
o
o
o
(A) 55.55 feet

(B) 56.55 feet
(C) 57.05 feet
(D) 59.45 feet
4316. (2.5.8.1-8) In deballasting to survival draft because of extreme wind and wave loads, thrusters or
propulsion, if available, should be used to __________.
o
o
(A) maintain constant mooring line tensions

(B) reduce leeward mooring line tensions
(C) reduce windward mooring line tensions
(D) increase leeward mooring line tensions
4317. (2.5.8.8-33) For planning purposes, the time required to place the DEEP DRILLER at survival
draft from the drilling mode to counter heavy weather is __________.
o
o
(A) 2 hours
(B) 4 hours
(C) 6 hours
(D) 8 hours

Deck General
September 2015
4318. (2.5.8.5-12) Air gap is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and the __________.
o
o
o
(A) still water level

(B) wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal corrections
(C) wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal correction and storm surge
(D) wave crest
4319. (2.5.8.5-11) During jacking operations and transit, empty void spaces in the hull of a jack up
MODU provide __________.
o
o
(A) reduced stability

(B) additional tank capacity
(C) buoyancy
(D) extra storage space
4320. (2.5.8.8-24) While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), a
severe storm threatens. What is the improvement in KGL if all the mud is dumped?
o
o
o
(A) 4.59 feet

(B) 3.27 feet
(C) 2.37 feet
(D) 1.60 feet
4321. (2.5.8.8-61) While on an ocean tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of
a severe storm. The legs should be lowered so that the TOC (tip-of-can) is lowered from 12.38 feet
to __________.
o
o
o
(A) 48.12 feet

(B) 60.50 feet
(C) 68.50 feet
(D) 78.50 feet
4322. (2.5.9-64) In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the chain is deployed at the
anchor end of the line to __________.
o
o
(A) increase fatigue life

(B) prevent the anchor from fouling
(C) increase the catenary
(D) eliminate the need for mooring buoys

Deck General
September 2015
4323. (2.5.9-5) The LWT anchor has two angular positions for the flukes. These are __________.
o
o
o
(A) 30 and 40
(B) 30 and 50
(C) 30 and 60
(D) 40 and 60
4324. (2.5.8.2-20) The COASTAL DRILLER, with a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, has a displacement of
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 13,662 kips

(B) 13,553 kips
(C) 13,011 kips
(D) 12,252 kips
4325. (2.5.8.2-15) The lightweight longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.
o
o
o
(A) -6,716 ft-long tons

(B) 9,733 ft-long tons
(C) 680,914 ft-long tons
(D) -5,937 ft-long tons
4326. (2.5.8.8-2) Especially in adverse weather, risk of collision with an offshore supply vessel
increases when the vessel is moored to what side of the unit?
o
o
(A) Downwind
(B) Crosswind
(C) Upwind
(D) Downcurrent
preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the bow leg
reaction?
o
o
o
(A) 7,026 kips

(B) 7,099 kips
(C) 7,144 kips
(D) 7,180 kips

Deck General
September 2015
4328. (2.5.8.8-7) When clear ice is present when the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, the vertical moments
are increased by __________.
o
o
o

4329. (2.5.8.1-10) Port ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. If you want to deballast the
forward-port column using port ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open valves __________.
o
o
o
(A) 4, 34, 36, 46, and 48

(B) 4, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48
(C) 3, 34, 36, 46, and 48
(D) 3, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48
4330. (2.5.8.7A-28) If the maximum leg penetration of the COASTAL DRILLER is 75 feet, the water
depth value in the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts must be increased by __________.
o
o
o
(A) 75 feet
(B) 50 feet
(C) 25 feet
(D) 0 feet
4331. (2.5.8.1-12) To effectively use the crossover system on the DEEP DRILLER to pump from the
low side using a high side ballast pump, transverse inclinations should not exceed __________.
o
o
o
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 2
4332. (2.5.8.8-47) When threatened with a severe storm while operating in 250 feet of water, the
COASTAL DRILLER should be placed at an air gap of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 35 feet
(B) 32 feet
(C) 30 feet
(D) 25 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4333. (2.5.8.8-5) During storm conditions on a MODU, the mooring tensions should be adjusted so that
__________.
o
o
(A) all horizontal tension forces on the windward lines are no greater than the vertical tension
forces
(B) the leeward lines have higher tension than the windward lines
(C) the maximum tension of the most heavily loaded line does not exceed the safe working load
(D) all mooring lines have a different tension
4334. (2.5.8.1-24) On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from
Tank 1S to Tank 10P using the #1 ballast pump is valve __________.
o
o
o
(A) 33 Port
(B) 44 Port
(C) 33 Starboard
(D) 44 Starboard
4335. (2.5.9-4) When anchoring in an area with a soft bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be
set at __________.
o
o
o
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50
o
o
o
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
4337. (2.5.8.5-13) The distance from the still water level (corrected for tides and storm surge) to the
bottom of the hull of a MODU is the __________.
o
o
o
(A) air gap

(B) freeboard
(C) water depth
(D) penetration

Deck General
September 2015
4338. (2.5.8.1-13) A non-symmetrical tank aboard a MODU contains 390 tons of ballast at a VCG of
9.85 feet. Ballast weighing 250 tons and a VCG of 12.0 feet is discharged. The vertical moments for
the remaining ballast is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 842 ft-long tons

4339. (2.5.8.4-27) While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling),
236 kips are discharged from 80 feet AF0 and 19.79 feet to port of the centerline. What is the
resulting starboard leg reaction?
o
o
(A) 4,281 kips

(B) 5,382 kips
(C) 5,459 kips
(D) 5,537 kips
4340. (2.5.8.1-14) On the DEEP DRILLER, when using the starboard #2 ballast pump to provide water
to the main deck from the sea, it is necessary to open valves __________.
o
o
(A) 38, 47, 45, 46

(B) 37, 36, 46, 47
(C) 37, 35, 36, 45
(D) 38, 47
4341. (2.5.8.3-1) For a jack-up, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle
of __________.
o
o
o
(A) deck edge immersion

(B) loll
(C) downflooding
(D) the load line
4342. (2.5.8.1-15) What port-side valves must be open to transfer ballast from Tank 1P to Tank 10P on
the DEEP DRILLER using the Port #1 ballast pump?
o
o
(A) 1, 34, 35, and 23

(B) 1, 33, 44, 45, and 23
(C) 1, 33, 43, and 24
(D) 1, 33, 43, 48, and 23

Deck General
September 2015
4343. (2.5.8.8-15) A semisubmersible is more likely to experience structural stresses during heavy
weather when __________.
o
o
o
(A) operating at drilling draft

(B) deballasting to survival draft
(C) when at survival draft
(D) when at transit draft
4344. (2.5.8.1-16) What port-side valves must be open to transfer ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1P on
the DEEP DRILLER, using the Port #1 ballast pump?
o
o
o
(A) 23, 35, 34, 33, 43, and 1

(B) 23, 35, 34, 33, 43, and 2
(C) 23, 33, 43, and 1
(D) 23, 43, 33, and 1B
__________.
o
o
(A) 6,180 kips

(B) 6,320 kips
(C) 6,440 kips
(D) 6,520 kips
4346. (2.5.8.1-17) Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER which may be opened when using the
Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into Tank 1P is __________.
o
o
(A) 33
(B) 36
(C) 46
(D) 48
4347. (2.5.8.7A-3) The COASTAL DRILLER, while in an ocean transit, experiences a single amplitude
roll of 8 degrees. What is the minimum period of motion which does not exceed the design limits of
the legs?
o
o
o
(A) 10 seconds
(B) 8 seconds
(C) 6 seconds
(D) 4 seconds

Deck General
September 2015
4348. (2.5.8.5-3) You are operating a liftboat. In preparation for jacking you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) make sure walkway is hanging over the bow

(B) make sure that all boats alongside are securely fast
(C) have all personnel remain in their quarters
(D) check that all equipment on deck is secured
4349. (2.5.8.8-30) During the passage of a severe storm the maximum vertical moments, including free
surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 998,942 ft-tons

(B) 996,522 ft-tons
(C) 990,430 ft-tons
(D) 889,555 ft-tons
4350. (2.5.8.7A-15) The maximum transverse extension of the cantilever for the COASTAL DRILLER
places the rotary __________.
o
o
o
(A) at the vessel TCG

(B) within 10 feet of the centerline
(C) 40 feet aft of the transom
(D) at the leg centroid
4351. (2.5.8.1-18) Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER to open when using the Salt-Water
Service Pump to pump water into tank 10S is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 48
(B) 47
(C) 37
(D) 23
4352. (2.5.8.1-20) When two ballast pumps used for deballasting a single tank start cavitating, you
should __________.
o
o
(A) close the valve on the discharge side of the pump to re-acquire suction
(B) open all valves on the discharge side to permit improved flow
(C) shut down one pump
(D) close the valve on the suction side of the ballast pump to re-prime the pump

Deck General
September 2015
4353. (2.5.8.4-36) While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM
are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are 6,206 ft-kips. What is the bow leg reaction?
o
o
o
(A) 7,099 kips

(B) 7,134 kips
(C) 7,151 kips
(D) 7,203 kips
4354. (2.5.8.1-34) In case of minor damage to lower-hull tank 1P while the DEEP DRILLER is in transit,
you should pump from tank 1P using __________.
o
o
o
(A) both port-side ballast pumps

(B) drill water pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps
(C) all four ballast pumps
(D) saltwater service pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps
4355. (2.5.8.2-8) The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 275.8 long tons.
o
o
o
(A) 56 feet
(B) 58 feet
(C) 60 feet
(D) 62 feet
Tank 10P to Tank 1S using the #2 ballast pump is valve __________.
o
o
(A) 33 Port
(B) 33 Starboard
(C) 36 Starboard
(D) 36 Port
Tank 10S to Tank 1P using the #2 ballast pump is valve __________.
o
o
o
(A) 34 Port
(B) 33 Starboard
(C) 33 Port
(D) 44 Starboard

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
o
(A) 8
(B) 19
(C) 20
(D) 48
4359. (2.5.8.7B-1) The longitudinal distance between draft marks for the DEEP DRILLER is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 122'-09"
(B) 164'-00"
(C) 260'-00"
(D) 260'-05"
4360. (2.5.8.5-14) When leveling the elevated COASTAL DRILLER, you may raise the low corner
instead of lowering the high corner __________.
o
o
o
(A) in all cases, it is optional

(B) if lowering the high corner places the unit in the wave action
(C) if proper air gap has been exceeded
(D) if a potential punch-through threatens
4361. (2.5.8.1-30) Among the valves to open when deballasting using tanks 1P and 10P of the DEEP
DRILLER is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 44 Port
(B) 24 Port
(C) 2 Port
(D) 48 Port
4362. (2.5.8.1-32) The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Transit), suffers
minor damage which results in flooding in tank 1P. You may pump from __________.
o
o
(A) 2P
(B) C1P
(C) 1P
(D) 10S

Deck General
September 2015
4363. (2.5.8.1-35) In case of major damage to column C1P while the DEEP DRILLER is on location,
you should pump from port-forward lower-hull tanks using __________.
o
o
o
(A) drill water pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps

(B) saltwater service pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps
(C) all four ballast pumps
(D) both port-side ballast pumps
4364. (2.5.8.1-36) When the COASTAL DRILLER is afloat, the water for the saltwater eductor system
is provided by __________.
o
o
o
(A) mud pumps

(B) fire pumps
(C) bilge pumps
(D) raw water tower pumps
4365. (2.5.8.2-2) The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, loads 200 long tons. What is the
new displacement?
o
o

4366. (2.5.8.2-10) The draft of the DEEP DRILLER in the lightweight condition is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 16.19 feet

(B) 17.71 feet
(C) 17.96 feet
(D) 18.35 feet
4367. (2.5.8.7A-25) What are the maximum acceptable levels of ice and snow accumulations on the
COASTAL DRILLER?
o
o
o
(A) 3 inches
(B) 1 1/4 inches
(C) 2 inches
(D) none

Deck General
September 2015
4368. (2.5.8.2-26) When the COASTAL DRILLER is level at a draft of 10.5 feet, what is the value of the
LCG?
o
o
(A) 00.0 feet

(B) 111.35 feet
(C) 119.44 feet
(D) 120.59 feet
Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are
added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet. What would be the value of uncorrected KG?
o
o
o
(A) 51.65 feet

(B) 52.67 feet
(C) 55.15 feet
(D) 62.24 feet
4370. (2.5.8.2-3) The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 200 long tons. What
is the new displacement?
o
o
o

4371. (2.5.8.2-4) While in transit at a draft of 20.5 feet, the DEEP DRILLER has a KGT of 65.00 feet.
What is the GMT?
o
o
o
(A) 7.55 feet

(B) 5.42 feet
(C) 5.30 feet
(D) 5.10 feet
4372. (2.5.8.2-7) The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 275.8 long tons on board.
o
o
(A) 56 feet
(B) 58 feet
(C) 60 feet
(D) 62 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4373. (2.5.8.2-9) The DEEP DRILLER is operating at the maximum allowable KGT at 60 feet draft.
What is the value of GMT?
o
o
o
(A) 0.05 foot

(B) 1.02 feet
(C) 2.63 feet
(D) 4.34 feet
4374. (2.5.8.2-11) What is the lightweight of the DEEP DRILLER?

o
o
o

(B) 9,733 long tons
(C) 5,937 long tons
(D) 6,716 long tons
4375. (2.5.8.2-12) The lightweight longitudinal free surface moments for the DEEP DRILLER are
__________.
o
o
o

(B) 000 ft-long tons
(C) -5,937 ft-long tons
4376. (2.5.8.2-16) The lightweight vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.
o
o
o

(B) -5,937 ft-long tons
4377. (2.5.8.2-13) The lightweight transverse free surface moments for the DEEP DRILLER are
__________.
o
o
o

(B) 000 ft-long tons

Deck General
September 2015
4378. (2.5.8.2-17) The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft in sea water
at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The KML is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 286.27 feet

(B) 299.09 feet
(C) 316.67 feet
(D) 355.42 feet
4379. (2.5.8.7B-2) The transverse distance between draft marks for the DEEP DRILLER is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 122'-09"
(B) 164'-00"
(C) 217'-01"
(D) 260'-05"
4380. (2.5.8.2-18) The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft in sea water
at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The KMT is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 153.73 feet

(B) 160.42 feet
(C) 179.41 feet
(D) 203.97 feet
4381. (2.5.8.2-19) The COASTAL DRILLER, with a displacement of 13,553 kips, has a draft of
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 10 feet 5 inches

(B) 11 feet 6 inches
(C) 11 feet 2 inches
(D) 10.5 feet
4382. (2.5.8.8-6) When assuming the maximum ice weight accumulation on the DEEP DRILLER at
survival draft, the vertical moments are increased by __________.
o
o


Deck General
September 2015
4383. (2.5.8.2-22) The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet. It discharges 216.43 kips
of weight. What is the new draft?
o
o
(A) 10.7 feet

(D) 10.3 feet
4384. (2.5.8.3-20) While underway in a field move with the lower hulls awash, a semisubmersible has a
maximum allowable KG of 63.69 feet; KMT is 65.12 and KML is 64.92. The KGT is 56.13 and KGL is
55.89. What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG?
o
o
o
(A) 1.43 feet

(B) 7.56 feet
(C) 7.80 feet
(D) 8.99 feet
4385. (2.5.8.7B-8) The DEEP DRILLER's lightweight is the condition prior to loading __________.
o
o
(A) deck load, lower-hull liquids, and external loads

(B) deck load and lower-hull liquids
(C) deck load, lower-hull liquids, external loads, and deploying anchors
(D) deck load
4386. (2.5.8.2-23) The height of the longitudinal metacenter of the COASTAL DRILLER at a
displacement of 13,810 kips is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 256.51 feet

(B) 255.11 feet
(C) 254.60 feet
(D) 253.20 feet
4387. (2.5.8.4-15) The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated to an air gap of 25 feet in 250 feet of water.
The current is 2 knots and the waves are 30 feet. The maximum leg reaction is 6,120 kips. What is
the maximum wind for drilling operations?
o
o
o
(A) 100 knots

(B) 70 knots
(C) 60 knots
(D) 40 knots

Deck General
September 2015
4388. (2.5.8.2-24) The height of the transverse metacenter of the COASTAL DRILLER at a
displacement of 13,011 kips is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 144.21 feet

(B) 145.33 feet
(C) 267.98 feet
(D) 270.13 feet
4389. (2.5.8.7B-14) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing
to Drill). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added to the
unit?
o
o
o

4390. (2.5.8.7B-3) The DEEP DRILLER as currently configured is limited to a maximum water depth of
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 400 feet

(B) 600 feet
(C) 800 feet
(D) 1,000 feet
4391. (2.5.8.2-27) The longitudinal location of the center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER has a
value of __________.
o
o
(A) 207.33 feet AF0

(B) 160.33 feet AF0
(C) 119.44 feet AF0
(D) 38.33 feet AF0
what is the new KG?
o
o
(A) 54.76 feet

(B) 55.76 feet
(C) 57.22 feet
(D) 57.76 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4393. (2.5.8.3-4) Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface
effects from the height of the longitudinal metacenter of a MODU yields __________.
o
o
o
(A) GML
(B) GM
(C) KML
(D) KGL
4394. (2.5.8.3-5) Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface
effects from the height of the transverse metacenter of a MODU yields __________.
o
o
o
(A) KMT
(B) KGT
(C) GM
(D) GMT
Additional deck load may be placed aboard. If the maximum permissible deck load were placed in
the pipe racks at a VCG of 130 feet, the KG increases __________.
o
o
(A) 1.43 feet

(B) 1.89 feet
(C) 2.23 feet
(D) 2.43 feet
4396. (2.5.8.4-25) The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG
is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the bow leg reaction?
o
o
(A) 4,737 kips

(B) 4,916 kips
(C) 5,063 kips
(D) 5,145 kips
4397. (2.5.8.5-2) The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival
draft when __________.
o
o
o
(A) critical motion limits have been exceeded

(B) waves approach within two feet of the spider deck
(C) the maximum wave height is greater than 64 feet
(D) winds are less than 70 knots

Deck General
September 2015
4398. (2.5.8.3-10) Adding the transverse free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center
of gravity of a MODU yields __________.
o
o
o
(A) KGT
(B) FSCT
(C) GMT
(D) KG
4399. (2.5.8.7B-12) The DEEP DRILLER as currently configured is limited to a maximum drilling depth
of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 18,400 feet

(B) 20,600 feet
(C) 22,800 feet
(D) 25,000 feet
4400. (2.5.8.3-11) The DEEP DRILLER is drilling at 60 feet draft at a corrected KG of 54.0 feet. Ballast
added or discharged to remain at a constant draft is at a VCG of 10 feet. How much non-liquid load
would have to be removed from an average height of 130 feet above the keel to meet the maximum
allowable KG at a draft of 60 feet for winds greater than 70 knots?
o
o
o
(A) 1283 long tons

(B) 817 long tons
(C) 679 long tons
(D) 302 long tons
4401. (2.5.8.3-13) The DEEP DRILLER is planning to operate while loaded as shown in the Sample
Load Form #3 ( Preparing to Drill). What is the margin between KGT and maximum allowable KG?
o
o
(A) 0.66 foot

(B) 2.58 feet
(C) 5.24 feet
(D) 7.87 feet
4402. (2.5.8.3-14) When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of
gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.
o
o
o
(A) the height of the metacenter

(B) zero
(C) the height of the center of gravity
(D) the same as half the height of the metacenter

Deck General
September 2015
What is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if the
entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?
o
o
o
(A) 67.04 feet

(B) 68.02 feet
(C) 68.72 feet
(D) 69.21 feet
4404. (2.5.8.7A-20) Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and moments shown
in the Changes to Lightweight Record of the COASTAL DRILLER are treated as __________.
o
o
o
(A) stationary loads

(B) variable loads
(C) fixed loads
(D) basic loads
4405. (2.5.8.3-16) The DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling).
Assume ballast added or discharged to remain at a constant draft is at a VCG of 10 feet. How much
non-liquid load would have to be removed from an average height of 130 feet above the keel to meet
the maximum allowable KG at a draft of 60 feet for winds greater than 70 knots?
o
o
o
o
(A) 373 long tons

(B) 457 long tons
(C) 484 long tons
(D) 524 long tons
(E) D
If choice E is selected set score to 1.
4406. (2.5.8.3-18) The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling),
discharges all the cement in the P-Tanks. See Table 7. What is the change in KG?
o
o
o
(A) 0.24 foot downward

(B) 0.49 foot downward
(C) 0.88 foot downward
(D) 1.02 feet downward

Deck General
September 2015
4407. (2.5.8.7A-16) Where the seabed consists of sand or silt, the most severe potential problem for an
independent-leg jack-up can result from __________.
o
o
o
(A) penetration
(B) scour
(C) insufficient preload
(D) marine growth
4408. (2.5.8.3-19) The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long
tons, LM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What
is the transverse free surface correction to KG?
o
o
o
(A) 0.00 feet

(B) 1.03 feet
(C) 1.69 feet
(D) 2.22 feet
4409. (2.5.8.3-21) While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit, stability is acceptable provided that
neither the KGL nor the KGT exceed __________.
o
o
(A) KML or KMT

(B) GML or GMT
(C) maximum allowable KG
(D) the height of the righting arm
are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are -6,206 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?
o
o
o
(A) 7,099 kips

(B) 7,134 kips
(C) 7,151 kips
(D) 7,203 kips
4411. (2.5.8.4-8) What device is used to measure the force exerted on the rig by a leg of the mooring
system?
o
o
(A) Hole position indicator

(B) Advanced stability computer
(C) Load cell
(D) Fathometer

Deck General
September 2015
4412. (2.5.8.7A-8) The COASTAL DRILLER, while in a normal transit, experiences single amplitude
rolling of three degrees. What is the minimum period of roll which does not exceed the design limits
of the legs?
o
o
(A) 1.5 seconds

(B) 3.0 seconds
(C) 5.5 seconds
(D) 7.0 seconds
4413. (2.5.8.7A-11) The center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER is located at the geometric
center of the __________.
o
o
o
(A) waterplane area

(B) amidships section
(C) underwater volume
(D) above water volume
4414. (2.5.8.4-9) The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is
120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 foot to port of the centerline. What is the starboard leg
reaction?
o
o
(A) 4,956 kips

(B) 5,063 kips
(C) 5,104 kips
(D) 5,233 kips
4415. (2.5.8.4-12) The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must
lower the legs to 60.5 feet below the hull in order to meet the requirements for leg strength and
__________.
o
o
o
(A) variable load

(B) stability
(C) load line
(D) environmental load

Deck General
September 2015
4416. (2.5.8.4-16) The elevating system of the COASTAL DRILLER is normally limited to __________.
o
o
o
(A) 14,158 kips

(B) 14,400 kips
(C) 17,280 kips
(D) 21,297 kips
4417. (2.5.8.4-19) The total leg load reactions on an independent leg, self-elevating unit include static
and __________.
o
o
(A) variable loading

(B) fixed loading
(C) environmental loading
(D) basic loading
4418. (2.5.8.5-10) Buoyancy associated with empty or partly empty ballast tanks in the mat of a mat
supported jack-up MODU during jacking operations can cause __________.
o
o
(A) progressive flooding

(B) negative buoyancy
(C) capsizing
(D) delays
4419. (2.5.8.4-20) When elevated, placing the LCG and TCG at the leg centroid provides __________.
o
o
o
(A) equal leg reactions

(B) reduced scour rates
(C) higher variable loading during preloading
(D) higher drilling loads
4420. (2.5.8.5-17) Sea water temporarily pumped into tanks to simulate the increased vertical loading
of environmental forces is termed __________.
o
o
o
(A) fixed load

(B) basic load
(C) liquid variable load
(D) preload

Deck General
September 2015
4421. (2.5.8.5-18) The COASTAL DRILLER, following discharge of preload, should __________.
o
o
o
(A) remove dump valves

(B) close all dump valves
(C) replace dump valves
(D) leave dump valves open
4422. (2.5.8.4-21) When the COASTAL DRILLER is properly preloaded, each of the leg reactions
should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) 7,200 kips

(B) 7,099 kips
(C) 4,720 kips
(D) 3,381 kips
4423. (2.5.8.4-22) What is the port leg reaction for the COASTAL DRILLER if the total weight is 15,000
kips, LCG is 120 feet, and TCG is 1.0?
o
o
o
(A) 4,909 kips

(B) 4,931 kips
(C) 4,950 kips
(D) 5,160 kips
__________.
o
o
(A) 5,940 kips

(B) 6,020 kips
(C) 6,080 kips
(D) 6,520 kips
preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the port leg
reaction?
o
o
(A) 7,026 kips

(B) 7,099 kips
(C) 7,144 kips
(D) 7,180 kips

Deck General
September 2015
4426. (2.5.8.4-35) When preloading the COASTAL DRILLER, the maximum total weight shall not
exceed __________.
o
o
o
(A) 21,497 kips

(B) 21,297 kips
(C) 17,700 kips
(D) 14,400 kips
are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are -6,206 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?
o
o
o
(A) 7,099 kips

(B) 7,134 kips
(C) 7,151 kips
(D) 7,203 kips
4428. (2.5.8.5-1) You are operating a liftboat. When jacking down and a leg becomes stuck on the
bottom, you should __________.
o
o
(A) raise the free legs all the way

(B) use the engines to rotate about the leg that is stuck
(C) jack the barge down part way to pull the leg free
(D) submerge the barge completely to give added pull
4429. (2.5.8.5-4) The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival
draft when __________.
o
o
o
(A) the maximum wave height is greater than 64 feet

(B) critical motion limits have not been exceeded
(C) winds are greater than 70 knots
(D) waves approach within two feet of the spider deck
4430. (2.5.8.5-5) To maintain a high state of readiness against the possibility of damage and
subsequent flooding while aboard the DEEP DRILLER, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) cap sounding tubes except when in use

(B) post a watch in the pump room
(C) keep bilge pumps operating continuously
(D) keep tanks no more than half filled

Deck General
September 2015
4431. (2.5.8.5-6) You are operating a liftboat. When jacking down and free of the bottom you should
__________.
o
o
o
(A) have the crane standing upright

(B) raise one leg at a time
(C) not be concerned about any list
(D) raise all legs simultaneously
4432. (2.5.8.5-7) You are operating a liftboat. When beginning to jack down you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) jack down one leg at a time

(B) undog doors to the engine room
(C) assemble all personnel on the main deck
(D) jack up first, then down
4433. (2.5.8.5-9) For optimum stability during jacking operations, mat ballast tanks or spud cans should
be __________.
o
o
o
(A) fully ballasted

(B) empty
(C) sealed
(D) partially ballasted
4434. (2.5.8.5-15) If uniformly distributed in the cantilever pipe rack of the COASTAL DRILLER, how
much pipe can be placed in the cantilever pipe rack area when the cantilever has been extended 40
feet aft of the transom?
o
o
(A) 630 kips

(B) 609 kips
(C) 500 kips
(D) 479 kips
4435. (2.5.8.5-16) Lowering the hull of the COASTAL DRILLER and refloating should be done in
favorable weather conditions with wave heights not more than __________.
o
o
o
(A) five feet

(B) three feet
(C) four feet
(D) six feet

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
o
(A) 35 feet
(B) 32 feet
(C) 30 feet
(D) 25 feet
o
o
o
(A) 35 feet
(B) 32 feet
(C) 30 feet
(D) 25 feet
4438. (2.5.8.7A-13) A mat-supported jack-up is best suited for drilling in locations with bottom
conditions which are __________.
o
o
o
(A) sloping
(B) firm and uneven
(C) coral
(D) soft and level
4439. (2.5.8.5-24) The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 192 feet of water. Leg penetration is 83 feet.
The maximum leg reaction is 5,940 kips. The waves are 30 feet and the current is 2 knots. What is
the maximum wind for drilling?
o
o
o
(A) 45 knots
(B) 50 knots
(C) 57 knots
(D) 62 knots
4440. (2.5.8.5-25) Which data is NOT used in the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL
DRILLER?
o
o
o
(A) Total weight

(B) Leg penetration
(C) Wave height
(D) Current

Deck General
September 2015
4441. (2.5.8.5-29) Environmental loading consists of the forces caused by wind, waves, and
__________.
o
o
(A) drilling
(B) temperature
(C) current
(D) soil reactions
4442. (2.5.8.7A-2) While the COASTAL DRILLER is in normal transit, the roll period is 8 seconds. What
would be the limiting angle of pitch which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?
o
o
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
4443. (2.5.8.7A-4) While in 150 feet water depth when the single amplitude roll angle of the COASTAL
DRILLER is 1 degree, the safe platform roll period for going on location should be longer than
__________.
o
o
(A) 0.2 second

(B) 3.2 seconds
(C) 7.0 seconds
(D) 9.2 seconds
4444. (2.5.8.7A-5) While in 150 feet water depth when the single amplitude roll angle of the COASTAL
DRILLER is 2 degrees, the safe platform roll period for going on location should be longer than
__________.
o
o
(A) 0.5 second

(B) 5.0 seconds
(C) 10.0 seconds
(D) 13.5 seconds
4445. (2.5.8.7A-7) While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of 9 seconds. What
is the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limits of the legs in good
weather?
o
o
o
(A) 14
(B) 11
(C) 9
(D) 7

Deck General
September 2015
4446. (2.5.8.7A-9) While the COASTAL DRILLER is in a normal transit, the roll period is 9 seconds.
What is the limiting angle of roll which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?
o
o
(A) 11
(B) 9
(C) 7
(D) 5
4447. (2.5.8.7A-10) The COASTAL DRILLER, while in normal transit, experiences a single amplitude
roll of 6 degrees. What is the minimum roll period which does not exceed design limits of the legs?
o
o
o
(A) 10.5 seconds

(B) 8.0 seconds
(C) 4.5 seconds
(D) 1.0 second
4448. (2.5.8.7A-14) On the COASTAL DRILLER, the maximum aft extension of the cantilever places
the rotary __________.
o
o
o
(A) 68.33 feet aft of the transom

(B) 40.00 feet aft of the transom
(C) 38.33 feet aft of the transom
(D) 28.33 feet aft of the transom
4449. (2.5.8.7A-17) The independent-leg drilling unit is the best jack-up rig selection for drilling at
locations with __________.
o
o
(A) shallow water

(B) deep water
(C) firm uneven bottoms
(D) soft even bottoms
4450. (2.5.8.7A-21) The Cantilever Beam Load Chart for the COASTAL DRILLER shows the limits in
the hook setback conductor tension, and __________.
o
o
o
(A) wind loads

(B) rotary loads
(C) current loads
(D) wave loads

Deck General
September 2015
4451. (2.5.8.7A-22) The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 250 feet of water, experiencing 2 knots
current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,760 kips, the maximum wave height for
drilling is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 15 feet
(B) 20 feet
(C) 25 feet
(D) 30 feet
4452. (2.5.8.7A-24) The maximum combined drilling load for the COASTAL DRILLER consisting of the
combined hook, rotary, setback, and conductor tension, shall not exceed __________.
o
o
o
(A) 500 kips

(B) 1000 kips
(C) 450 kips
(D) 750 kips
4453. (2.5.8.7A-26) What information must be available to use the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts
for the COASTAL DRILLER?
o
o
o
(A) Water depth

(B) Specific gravity of the sea water
(C) Overturning moment
(D) Soil conditions
4454. (2.5.8.7A-27) In using the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER, leg
penetration is assumed to be less than __________.
o
o
o
(A) 55 feet
(B) 45 feet
(C) 35 feet
(D) 25 feet
4455. (2.5.8.7B-4) Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the derrick,
traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal
operating level, and __________.
o
o
o
(A) loading hoses

(B) normal food supplies for 79 persons
(D) lower-hull fuel

Deck General
September 2015
hoses, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to
normal operating level, and __________.
o
o
o
(A) normal food supplies for 79 persons

(B) eight anchor buoys
(C) lower hull fuel
(D) derrick
hoses, derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to
normal operating level, and __________.
o
o
o
(A) lower hull fuel

(B) anchors
(D) normal food supplies for 79 persons
4458. (2.5.8.7B-10) The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the
ball joint angle will exceed 10 or the mooring line tensions will exceed __________.
o
o
(A) 348 kips

(B) 500 kips
(C) 522 kips
(D) 600 kips
4459. (2.5.8.7B-11) The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the
mooring line tensions will exceed 522 kips or the ball joint angle will exceed __________.
o
o
o
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 10
4460. (2.5.8.7B-15) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling).
According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit?
o
o
o


Deck General
September 2015
4461. (2.5.8.7B-19) You should consider placing the drilling operations of the DEEP DRILLER in
standby when __________.
o
o
o
(A) sustained winds exceed 50 knots

(B) winds exceed 70 knots
(C) waves are greater than 64 feet
(D) critical motion limits have been exceeded
4462. (2.5.8.8-1) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4, (Drilling). In
preparing for approaching heavy weather, the four leeward mooring lines are slacked. These actions
reduce the __________.
o
o
(A) metacentric height

(B) height of the righting arm
(C) natural pitch period
(D) righting moment
4463. (2.5.8.8-8) For a semisubmersible moored in heavy weather conditions, the weather lines should
be adjusted so that several lines carry about the same tension, and the leeward lines are
__________.
o
o
o
(A) adjusted so that at least 1,000 feet of chain lie along the bottom
(B) paid out to reduce weather mooring line tensions
(C) tensioned to reduce weather mooring line tensions
(D) adjusted so that the vertical component of chain tension at the lower fairlead is not excessive
4464. (2.5.8.8-9) When clear ice is present while drilling, the vertical transverse moments of the DEEP
DRILLER are increased by __________.
o
o
o

4465. (2.5.8.8-10) In storm conditions, when the DEEP DRILLER is in 600 feet water depth, and the
high-line tension (HLT) is 350 kips, completely slacking the two leeward mooring line tensions
reduces the HLT to __________.
o
o
o
(A) 375 kips

(B) 275 kips
(C) 245 kips
(D) 220 kips

Deck General
September 2015
4466. (2.5.8.8-12) In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the starboard bow of the DEEP
o
o
(A) 6.5%
(B) 5.0%
(C) 4.0%
(D) 2.5%
4467. (2.5.8.8-13) In storm conditions in 600 feet of water, completely slacking the leeward mooring
line of the DEEP DRILLER reduces the tension in that line to about __________.
o
o
o
(A) 25 kips
(B) 50 kips
(C) 75 kips
(D) 100 kips
DRILLER in 400 feet water depth, the tensions in mooring lines 1 and 2 are 400 kips. Completely
slacking the mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the tension in mooring lines 1 and 2 to about
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 220 kips

(B) 330 kips
(C) 375 kips
(D) 275 kips
DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the tensions in mooring line 1 and 2 are 400 kips. Completely
slacking the mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the tension in mooring lines 1 and 2 to about
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 375 kips

(B) 330 kips
(C) 275 kips
(D) 220 kips

Deck General
September 2015
current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the bow, the
environmental force due to the wind would be __________.
o
o
o
(A) 595 kips

(B) 475 kips
(C) 425 kips
(D) 300 kips
current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the beam, the total
environmental force would be __________.
o
o
o
(A) 620 kips

(B) 595 kips
(C) 475 kips
(D) 425 kips
4472. (2.5.8.8-23) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If
weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival, how much ballast would be
required?
o
o
o

(C) 4,188.0 long tons
(D) 5,087.0 long tons
4473. (2.5.8.8-26) In storm conditions, when the environmental conditions are such that the DEEP
DRILLER has disconnected the marine riser, the two leeward mooring lines should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) adjusted to give the same line tensions as the windward lines
(B) completely slacked
(C) tightened
(D) slacked slightly

Deck General
September 2015
4474. (2.5.8.8-28) The DEEP DRILLER is engaged in wire line logging. You have 10,000 feet of drill
pipe and bottom hole assembly in the set back. Marine weather forecasts are predicting weather
with winds in excess of 70 knots. Your first step to prepare for the storm should be to __________.
o
o
(A) increase tension on all anchor chains to minimize movement of the rig
(B) continue wire line operations and bring the rig to a 45 foot draft
(C) suspend wire line operations and run the drill string into the hole
(D) suspend wire line operations and dump your mud pits overboard
4475. (2.5.8.8-29) During the passage of a severe storm, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft.
Strong winds are blowing from the starboard. A careful load form calculation determined that,
although the unit is level, the TCG is 2.0 feet to starboard. The value of the wind heeling moment is
__________.
o
o
o

4476. (2.5.8.8-32) Before deballasting to survival draft in the event of predicted heavy weather, the
DEEP DRILLER Operations Manual recommends that the mooring lines be slacked __________.
o
o
o
(A) 10 feet
(B) 20 feet
(C) 30 feet
(D) 40 feet
4477. (2.5.8.8-34) For the DEEP DRILLER, in deballasting to survival draft when threatened with heavy
weather from 100 knot winds, a load form should be calculated to determine that __________.
o
o
o
(A) GM remains the same

(B) the maximum allowable KG is exceeded
(C) KG corrected for free surface effects does not exceed 62.24 feet
(D) KG corrected for free surface effects does not exceed 62.09 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4478. (2.5.8.8-35) The DEEP DRILLER is on location during a storm. Windward anchor tensions begin
to exceed the test tensions. To reduce tensions while minimizing offset over the well, you should
__________.
o
o
(A) increase tension on the leeward chain

(B) pay out more chain on the windward side
(C) reduce tension on the leeward chains
(D) connect an emergency tow wire to the work boat
4479. (2.5.8.8-37) The principal action in changing from transit to survival draft in the event heavy
weather threatens is __________.
o
o
o
(A) hanging off

(B) deballasting
(C) disconnecting
(D) ballasting
4480. (2.5.8.8-39) In a severe storm while elevated, the drilling loads on the COASTAL DRILLER must
be considered as __________.
o
o
(A) setback loads

(B) hook loads
(C) variable loads
(D) rotary loads
4481. (2.5.8.8-40) During a severe storm while the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, on board loads
must be shifted so that the TCG is on the centerline and the LCG is __________.
o
o
(A) 40.00 feet AF0

(B) 68.33 feet AF0
(C) 119.44 feet AF0
(D) 160.33 feet AF0

Deck General
September 2015
Move). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG if winds increase to greater than 70 knots,
and the TOC is changed to the recommended value?
o
o
o
(A) 0.0 foot

(B) 1.0 foot
(C) 37.0 feet
(D) 38.0 feet
Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds remain less than 70
knots?
o
o
o
(A) 0 kips
(B) 200 kips
(C) 600 kips
(D) 1,000 kips
Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds increase to greater
than 70 knots?
o
o
o
(A) 0 kips
(B) 200 kips
(C) 600 kips
(D) 1,000 kips
Move). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG if winds remain less than 70 knots?
o
o
o
(A) 0.00 feet

(B) 14.35 feet
(C) 14.82 feet
(D) 65.00 feet

Deck General
September 2015
Move). While in field transit, the wind speeds are predicted to increase above 70 knots. What would
be the new KGL if the legs are lowered to the recommended value?
o
o
o
(A) 50.65 feet

(B) 37.00 feet
(C) 36.53 feet
(D) 13.65 feet
4487. (2.5.8.8-50) If a severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated, the setback in
the derrick should be lowered and placed in the pipe rack. Its weight should be accounted for as
__________.
o
o
(A) fixed weight

(B) drilling loads
(C) variable loads
(D) environmental loads
4488. (2.5.8.8-52) The maximum weight for the COASTAL DRILLER in severe storm conditions is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 14,158 kips

(B) 14,400 kips
(C) 15,158 kips
(D) 17,280 kips
4489. (2.5.8.8-53) A severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER, and a decision is made to
evacuate the unit. If practical, all non-essential personnel should be off the unit in advance of the
storm's predicted arrival by __________.
o
o
o
(A) 12 hours
(B) 24 hours
(C) 36 hours
(D) 48 hours

Deck General
September 2015
4490. (2.5.8.8-54) While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL
DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The bow leg reaction is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 4,536 kips

(B) 4,716 kips
(C) 4,748 kips
(D) 4,866 kips
DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The starboard leg
reaction is __________.
o
o
(A) 4,536 kips

(B) 4,698 kips
(C) 4,725 kips
(D) 4,890 kips
DRILLER is 14,150 kips. LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The port leg reaction is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 4,536 kips

(B) 4,716 kips
(C) 4,824 kips
(D) 4,890 kips
4493. (2.5.8.8-57) While on an ocean tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of
a severe storm. Including the time required to place the generators on-line, the approximate time
required to lower the legs from a TOC (tip-of-can) position of 12.38 feet to 60.5 feet is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 32 minutes
(C) 40 minutes
(D) 47 minutes

Deck General
September 2015
lower the legs so that the can tips are __________.
o
o
o
(A) 60.5 feet below the hull

(B) 48.5 feet below the hull
(C) 11.6 feet below the hull
(D) 1.2 feet below the hull
lower the legs to 60.5 feet below the hull in order to meet the requirements for stability and
__________.
o
o
o
(A) variable load

(B) leg strength
(C) environmental load
(D) load line
4496. (2.5.8.8-63) In an emergency, the jacking system on the COASTAL DRILLER is capable of
elevating the unit with a loading of __________.
o
o
(A) 14,158 kips

(B) 14,400 kips
(C) 17,280 kips
(D) 21,297 kips
4497. (2.5.8.8-64) The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated while preparing for the passage of a severe
storm. With ideal loading, the static loading on each of the three legs would be 4,715 kips. However,
the LCG is 121 feet AFO and TCG is 0.5 foot to starboard of the centerline. By how many kips does
the starboard leg reaction exceed the ideal loading?
o
o
(A) 00 kips
(B) 32 kips
(C) 149 kips
(D) 181 kips

Deck General
September 2015
4498. (2.5.9-2) The primary purpose for using stud link chain in a mooring system on a rig is the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) stud link is more economical

(B) stud keeps the chain from kinking
(C) stud link improves the anchor's holding power
(D) stud link chain is the lightest night design
4499. (2.5.9-63) In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the anchor chain is deployed at
the anchor end of the line to __________.
o
o
o
(A) increase the holding power

(B) reduce the catenary
(C) increase fatigue life of the system
(D) reduce the time to retrieve the line
4500. (2.5.9-6) With adaptor blocks/chocks removed from an LWT stock anchor, the trip angle will be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50
4501. (2.5.9-3) When anchoring in an area with a hard bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be
set at __________.
o
o
o
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50
4502. (2.5.9-7) With adaptor blocks/chocks in place on an LWT stock anchor, the trip angle will be
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50

Deck General
September 2015
4503. (2.5.9-8) What are the two main types of stud link chain?
o
o
o
(A) Flash-butt welded chain and Oil Rig chain

(B) Oil Rig chain and Oil Field Stud Link chain
(C) Flash-butt welded chain and Di-Lok chain
(D) Oil Field Stud Link chain and Flash-butt welded chain
4504. (2.5.9-9) What is a major disadvantage of Di-Lok chain compared with Oil Rig Quality (stud link)
chain in floating drilling rig operations?
o
o
o
(A) Higher weight

(B) Shorter fatigue life
(C) Lower strength
(D) Greater expense
4505. (2.5.9-10) Which grade of anchor chain is generally used on floating drilling vessels?
o
o
o
(A) 303S
(B) Oil Rig Quality (stud link)
(C) Grade 2
(D) Grade 1
4506. (2.5.9-11) Extended cyclical variations in tensions will cause an anchor chain to break due to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) fatigue
(B) corrosion
(C) abrasion
(D) distortion
4507. (2.5.9-15) The American Petroleum Institute recommends magnetic particle inspection for
__________.
o
o
(A) wire rope

(B) pendant wires
(C) connecting links
(D) anchor chain

Deck General
September 2015
4508. (2.5.9-16) The American Petroleum Institute recommends that connecting links and anchor
shackles be inspected using __________.
o
o
(A) x-ray inspection

(B) dye penetrant inspection
(C) magnetic particle inspection
(D) visual examinations
4509. (2.5.9-17) A link on an anchor chain should be replaced when wear or grinding of surface cracks
has reduced the cross section area by __________.
o
o
o
(A) 6%
(B) 4%
(C) 8%
(D) 10%
4510. (2.5.9-18) When inspecting anchor chain, the American Petroleum Institute recommends
checking the length over 5 links every __________.
o
o
o
(A) 10 feet
(B) 100 feet
(C) 250 feet
(D) 500 feet
4511. (2.5.9-19) The American Petroleum Institute recommends that a new anchor chain should be
inspected after being in service for __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1 year
(B) 3 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 10 years
4512. (2.5.9-21) The maximum angular tolerance for a bent link of an anchor chain is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1 degree
(B) 3 degrees
(C) 5 degrees
(D) 7 degrees

Deck General
September 2015
4513. (2.5.9-22) The chemicals in sacks aboard MODU's are palletized to reduce __________.
o
o
o
(A) pilferage
(B) labor in loading and handling
(C) marking and labeling
(D) contamination
4514. (2.5.9-23) If, during helicopter refueling operations, fuel is spilled on clothing, the person should
first __________.
o
o
(A) see the medic immediately

(B) spray himself with foam or CO2
(C) remove the clothing and wash
(D) complete his task and then see the medic
4515. (2.5.9-24) At a refueling area or fuel facility, smoking or any flame or spark is prohibited
__________.
o
o
o
(A) within 50 feet

(B) during refueling operations
(C) anywhere on the helodeck
(D) within 100 feet
4516. (2.5.9-25) The only type of helicopter that may be refueled with the engine running and the
blades turning is __________.
o
o
(A) a Sikorsky
(B) a helicopter carrying injured personnel in an emergency situation
(C) a turbine-equipped helicopter
(D) a helicopter carrying cargo only
4517. (2.5.9-26) A helicopter making a round trip from a helodeck with refueling capabilities to an
unmanned platform will take 45 minutes each way. The helicopter should be carrying enough fuel to
last __________.
o
o
o
(A) 45 minutes
(B) 1 hour and 15 minutes
(C) 1 hour and 30 minutes
(D) 2 hours

Deck General
September 2015
4518. (2.5.9-28) The weight of the loaded personnel carrier, when transferring personnel from a MODU
with a crane, must not exceed __________.
o
o
o
(B) 1/2 of the static rated load at the lift radius
(D) 1/5 of the breaking strength of the hoist rope times the parts of the line used
4519. (2.5.9-29) When transferring personnel with a MODU crane, the weight of the loaded personnel
carrier must not exceed __________.
o
o
(B) 1/3 of the breaking strength of the hoist rope times the parts of line used
(D) 1/2 of the static rated load at the lift radius
4520. (2.5.9-31) When may a personnel net be used to bring heavy equipment aboard an offshore
drilling unit?
o
o
o
(A) Only during rough weather

(B) Never
(C) Only when the seas are calm
(D) Only when there are no personnel in the net
4521. (2.5.9-32) Before personnel are lifted from a vessel in a personnel basket, the vessel should be
__________?
o
o
o
(A) stopped dead in the water

(B) moving away from the boom
(C) tied to the boom
(D) directly under the boom
4522. (2.5.9-33) The maximum number of personnel allowed on a personnel transfer basket is
__________.
o
o
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Deck General
September 2015
4523. (2.5.9-34) When lowering a personnel basket to pick up personnel from a boat, the personnel
basket should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) tied to the rig with a tag line

(B) dropped in the water
(C) tied to the vessel with a tag line
(D) lowered over open water
4524. (2.5.9-35) When using a crane for transferring personnel in a basket, the load hook must be
equipped with a __________.
o
o
o
(A) safety belt for each rider

(B) safety latch
(C) moused shackle
(D) quick-release device
4525. (2.5.9-36) An obstruction on a helodeck is any object that might present a hazard to the
__________.
o
o
(A) pilot's visibility

(B) loading of cargo
(C) rotor blades and landing gear
(D) unloading of passengers
4526. (2.5.9-37) The length of chain between the anchor and the end of the pendant line is called the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) pigtail chain

(B) wear chain
(C) thrash chain
(D) crown chain
4527. (2.5.9-38) The unit used to measure anchor line tensions in the offshore drilling industry is the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) short ton

(B) long ton
(C) metric ton
(D) Kip

Deck General
September 2015
4528. (2.5.9-39) A J-chaser is used to __________.

o
o
o
(A) clean chain as it is hauled into the rig

(B) lower spring buoys into the water
(C) transfer a pennant wire to the anchor handling vessel
(D) retrieve an anchor after the buoy has been lost
4529. (2.5.9-40) A shepherd's crook is used to __________.

o
o
o
(A) transfer a pennant wire to the anchor handling boat

(B) find an anchor after the buoy has been lost
(C) clean chain as it is hauled into the rig
(D) lower spring buoys into the water
4530. (2.5.9-41) An ideal mooring system would be __________.
o
o
o
(A) symmetrical and in equilibrium

(B) concentric and in flux
(C) distorted and in equilibrium
(D) asymmetrical and in flux
4531. (2.5.9-42) The safest device used to secure the end of the pendant wire when it is initially passed
to the anchor handling vessel is a __________.
o
o
o
(A) hydraulic deck stopper

(B) pelican hook
(C) connecting link
(D) shackle
4532. (2.5.9-43) A device commonly used to secure the pendant wire when it is initially passed to an
anchor handling vessel is __________.
o
o
(A) retaining hook

(B) connecting link
(C) pelican hook
(D) shackle

Deck General
September 2015
4533. (2.5.9-45) A mooring system that results in a spread system without anchor buoys is called a
__________.
o
o
o
(A) wire rope mooring system

(B) shepherd's crook mooring system
(C) spring buoy mooring system
(D) permanent chasing system
4534. (2.5.9-46) The recessed areas on a wildcat are called __________.

o
o
o
(A) devil's claws

(B) pockets
(C) sockets
(D) pawls
4535. (2.5.9-47) The sprocket teeth on a wildcat are known as the __________.
o
o
(A) devil's claws

(B) pockets
(C) whelps
(D) pawls
4536. (2.5.9-48) The machinery associated with heaving in and running out anchor chain is the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) windlass
(B) draw works
(C) dynamic pay out system
(D) winch
4537. (2.5.9-49) A common means of connecting shots of anchor chain in the field is to use a(an)
__________.
o
o
o
(A) end shackle

(B) kenter link
(C) sprocket
(D) swivel

Deck General
September 2015
4538. (2.5.9-50) What line receives the hardest service in the mooring system?
o
o
o
(A) Joining pendant

(B) Guy wire
(C) Wildcat leader
(D) Anchor pendant
4539. (2.5.9-51) What is the primary disadvantage of a permanent chain chaser system?
o
o
o
(A) Chain chasers will not work with piggyback anchors.

(B) It requires anchor handling boats with more horsepower.
(C) It takes longer to deploy anchors using chain chasers.
(D) Chain chasers work in shallow water only.
4540. (2.5.9-52) What is the advantage of a single streamlined fluke anchor over a double fluked
anchor of similar weight?
o
o
o
(A) It has increased holding power.

(B) It holds well with either side down.
(C) It has multiple fluke angle settings.
(D) It is easier to handle on an anchor boat.
4541. (2.5.9-53) Increasing the area of the anchor flukes will __________.
o
o
o
(A) not effect holding power

(B) decrease holding power
(C) make penetration more complete
(D) increase holding power
4542. (2.5.9-54) The fluke angle of an anchor system is the angle between the __________.
o
o
(A) shank and the sea bottom

(B) flukes and the shackle
(C) flukes and the shank
(D) mooring line and the sea bottom

Deck General
September 2015
4543. (2.5.9-55) A chain stripper is used to __________.

o
o
o

(B) clean the marine debris from the chain
(C) clean chain prior to an x-ray inspection
4544. (2.5.9-56) What is the most important difference between the bow type anchor shackle and the
D-type anchor shackle?
o
o
o
(A) The D-type shackle is weaker than the bow type.

(B) The bow type shackle is weaker than the D-type.
(C) The bow type shackle provides a superior connection.
(D) The D-type shackle provides an inferior connection.
4545. (2.5.9-57) What is the bow type anchor shackle primarily used for?
o
o
o
(A) Chain to anchor connections

(B) Kenter link to anchor connections
(C) Chain to chain connections
(D) Wire rope connections
4546. (2.5.9-58) Most large anchors are manufactured with a __________.
o
o
o
(A) D-type shackle

(B) bow type shackle
(C) U-type shackle
(D) Kenter shackle
4547. (2.5.9-59) Two types of anchor shackles which are currently available are __________.
o
o
o
(A) U-Type and posilok shackles

(B) C-Type and wedge shackles
(C) wedge and kenter shackles
(D) D-Type and bow shackles

Deck General
September 2015
4548. (2.5.9-61) Anchor shackles should have a breaking strength that is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 100% more than the chains they are connecting

(B) 25% more than the chains they are connecting
(C) 50% more than the chains they are connecting
(D) equal to the chains they are connecting
4549. (2.5.9-62) When a combination chain and wire rope mooring line is used, the chain is deployed
__________.
o
o
o
(A) at the anchor end of the line

(B) at the wildcat end of the line
(C) midway between the anchor and the wildcat
(D) through the anchor buoy
4550. (2.5.9-65) Which two components pass through the shank of an LWT anchor?
o
o
o
(A) Anchor shackle and stock

(B) Swivel and stabilizer bar
(C) Tripping palm and flukes
(D) Crown and chocks
4551. (2.5.9-66) Connecting elements of a mooring system should be fabricated from __________.
o
o
o
(A) cast steel

(B) forged steel
(C) stainless steel
(D) cast iron
4552. (2.5.9-67) Which problem is virtually impossible to detect during an in-service inspection of used
mooring chain?
o
o
o
(A) Fatigue
(B) Cracks
(C) Elongation
(D) Loose studs

Deck General
September 2015
4553. (2.5.9-68) Thirty-five percent of the breaking strength of an anchor cable is generally accepted as
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) safe operating load

(B) allowable storm load
(C) emergency working load
(D) normal operating tension
4554. (2.5.9-69) What percentage of the breaking strength is the generally accepted safe operating
load of an anchor cable?
o
o
o
(A) 35%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 10%
4555. (2.5.9-70) The only wire rope termination which may be made in the field is __________.
o
o
o
(A) thimbled mechanical splice

(B) hand splice
(C) swaged socket
(D) spelter poured and resin sockets
represent?
o
o
(A) Factor of safety

(B) Number of wires in the core
represent?
o
o
o


Deck General
September 2015
o
o
o
(A) Resistance to elongation

(B) Greater holding power
(C) Better fatigue life
(D) Resistance to corrosion
o
o
o
(A) Lower weight per foot

(B) Resistance to elongation
(C) Resistance to corrosion
(D) Flexibility
4560. (2.5.9-75) Where do fatigue failures of wire rope mooring lines usually occur?
o
o
o
(A) Near the socketed end fitting adjacent to the anchor

(B) In the middle part of the line length
(C) At the place the anchor buoy is attached to the line
(D) At the point where the line touches the bottom
4561. (2.5.9-76) In a wire rope mooring system, the fairlead sheave should be a minimum of
__________.
o
o
o
(A) 10-18 times the diameter of the wire rope

(B) 18-36 times the diameter of the wire rope
(C) 36-50 times the diameter of the wire rope
(D) 50-75 times the diameter of the wire rope
4562. (2.5.9-77) What happens to the pulling power of a winch when retrieving wire rope?
o
o
o
(A) It remains the same

(B) It fluctuates, depending on the gearing system
(C) It increases
(D) It decreases

Deck General
September 2015
4563. (2.5.9-78) The load chart of a MODU crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with
o
o
o
(A) allowable load

(C) hoist rope strength
(D) maximum counter weight required
4564. (2.5.9-79) On a MODU crane, the load chart relates the allowable load to the combination of
boom length and __________.
o
o
o
(A) cable strength

(B) boom angle
(C) boom strength
(D) load radius
4565. (2.5.9-80) On a MODU crane, the boom indicator tells the operator what the boom angle is
compared to the __________.
o
o
o
(A) minimum radius angle

(B) horizontal position
(C) boom stop angle
(D) vertical position
4566. (2.5.9-81) The boom stops are installed on an offshore crane to __________.
o
o
o
(A) prevent the boom from swinging

(B) prevent the boom from being lowered
(C) support the boom when not in use
(D) prevent the boom from being raised too high
4567. (2.5.9-82) While off-loading from an offshore supply vessel with the crane, the wind increases in
strength and changes direction significantly, you should __________.
o
o
o
(A) stop off-loading, but keep the offshore supply vessel in the present location
(B) continue off-loading with no changes
(C) expedite off-loading
(D) move the offshore supply vessel to the downwind side

Deck General
September 2015
4568. (2.5.9-83) Prior to backloading portable tanks or drums onto an offshore supply vessel, check
that each tank is __________.
o
o
(A) coated with non-corrosive protection

(B) painted yellow with diagonal black striping
(C) capped and checked for leaks
(D) mounted on pallets
4569. (2.5.9-84) When lifting loads from a boat in heavy weather, the load should be taken when the
boat __________.
o
o
o
(A) begins to rise

(B) reaches the crest
(C) begins to fall
(D) reaches the trough
4570. (2.5.9-85) When loading or discharging dry mud or cement, crew members should use goggles
and __________.
o
o
o
(A) ear plugs

(B) rubberized boots
(C) fireman's outfit
(D) facial respirator mask
4571. (2.5.9-87) When loading or discharging dry mud or cement, crew members should use facial
respirator masks and __________.
o
o
(A) soft-soled boots

(B) ear plugs
(C) goggles
4572. (2.5.8.10-2) The effect of ocean currents is usually more evident on a rig being towed than on a
tug navigating independently because the __________.
o
o
o

(B) current will offset the rig
(C) tow line catches the current
(D) speed of the tow is less

Deck General
September 2015
4573. (2.5.8.10-7) In towing it is desirable for the tug and the MODU to ride wave crests simultaneously
because __________.
o
o
o
(A) towing speed is improved

(B) the catenary of the tow line is reduced
(C) the MODU is more visible from the tug
(D) shock loading on the tow line is reduced
4574. (2.5.8.10-3) If a MODU under tow starts jumping on its tow line, the most appropriate action to
alleviate the condition is to __________.
o
o
(A) slow down

(B) change course
(C) adjust tow line length
(D) heave to
4575. (2.5.8.10-4) With a rig in tow, there is immediate danger to the tug in the event of the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) tow line parting

(B) rig broaching
(C) bridle twisting
(D) tug losing power
4576. (2.5.8.10-5) In selecting a tug for moving a MODU, consideration should be given to its
__________.
o
o
o
(A) indicated horsepower, bollard pull, and displacement

(B) indicated horsepower, maneuverability, and displacement
(C) indicated horsepower, bollard pull, and maneuverability
(D) bollard pull, displacement, and maneuverability
4577. (2.5.8.10-6) A semisubmersible rig under tow should be ballasted down if __________.
o
o
o
(A) period of roll exceeds 12 seconds

(B) forward progress is halted by head wind
(C) water begins to break over the pontoons
(D) motion begins to be excessive

Deck General
September 2015
4578. (2.5.8.10-8) The type of shackle used in making up tow lines to a MODU should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) anchor
(B) screw pin
(C) chain
(D) safety
4579. (2.5.8.10-9) When a semisubmersible rig under tow veers from side to side on its tow line, the
best way of controlling the action is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) trim by the stern

(B) trim by the bow
(C) play out stern anchor chain
4580. (2.5.8.10-10) The condition where a MODU on the end of a tow line is riding a wave crest at the
same time as its tug rides a wave crest is known as riding in __________.
o
o
o
(A) harmony
(B) synchronism
(C) check
(D) step
4581. (2.5.8.10-11) When a semisubmersible rig under tow experiences pounding on the forward
transverse brace, the surest way to alleviate the condition would be to __________.
o
o
o
(A) have the tug slow down

(B) change course
(C) adjust the length of the tow line
(D) ballast down
asked to __________.
o
o
o
(A) reduce speed

(C) increase speed
(D) turn into the seas

Deck General
September 2015
4583. (2.5.8.10-14) The COASTAL DRILLER is in ocean transit in which the winds are not expected to
exceed 70 knots. In order to meet the leg strength requirements, the tip of can (TOC) position should
be at __________.
o
o
(A) 0.00 feet (flush with bottom of hull)

(B) 1.20 feet
(C) 12.38 feet
(D) 60.50 feet
4584. (2.5.8.10-15) The COASTAL DRILLER, while in transit, expects the winds to increase to 75
knots. In order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements, the tip-of-can (TOC) position
should be at __________.
o
o
o

(B) 1.20 feet
(C) 12.38 feet
(D) 60.50 feet
4585. (2.5.8.10-16) While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of four seconds.
What would be the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limit of the
legs?
o
o
o
(A) 6.3 degrees

(B) 5.0 degrees
(C) 3.5 degrees
(D) 2.0 degrees
4586. (2.5.8.10-17) The motions of the COASTAL DRILLER during a normal transit when wind speeds
are less than 70 knots are limited by __________.
o
o
o
(A) leg strength

(B) stability
(C) wave heights
(D) deck edge immersion
4587. (2.5.8.10-18) Curve A in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual,
shows the operating limits during severe storm conditions during transit based on __________.
o
o
o
(A) environmental load

(B) stability and leg strength
(C) variable load
(D) load line

Deck General
September 2015
4588. (2.5.8.10-19) Curve B in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual,
shows the operating limits during normal transit based on __________.
o
o
o
(A) load line

(B) variable load
(D) leg strength

Deck General
September 2015
4589. (2.5.10.3A-18) While drilling ahead with 60 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER encounters lost
circulation and loses 460 barrels of 16 pounds per gallon mud to the hole. What is the resulting draft
if no additional ballast is taken on?
o
o
(A) 57 feet
(B) 58 feet
(C) 59 feet
(D) 60 feet
4590. (2.5.10.3A-34) For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of
action of the buoyant force __________.
o
o
o
(A) only when there is neutral stability

(B) only when there is negative stability
(C) only when there is positive stability
(D) at all times
4591. (2.5.10.5B1-41) The DEEP DRILLER is operating with KGL at the maximum allowable value (70
knots) at a 60 feet draft. What is the value of GML?
o
o
o
(A) 0.05 foot

(B) 1.02 feet
(C) 1.06 feet
(D) 2.63 feet
4592. (2.5.10.1-15) Deck beams on a MODU are generally spaced at equal intervals and run
__________.
o
o
o
(A) intermittently
(B) longitudinally
(C) vertically
(D) transversely
4593. (2.5.10.4B-8) The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), suffers
major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
o
o
(A) counterflood in 1P
(B) pump from C3S
(C) pump from 8S
(D) pump from 10S

Deck General
September 2015
4594. (2.5.10.4B-23) The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4
(Drilling), suffers damage to the port center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from which
you should pump is tank __________.
o
o
o
(A) 9P
(B) C1S
(C) 9S
(D) 2S
4595. (2.5.10.4A-11) A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates
__________.
o
o
o
(A) negative GM
(B) structural failure
(C) an immediate need to counterflood
(D) progressive flooding
4596. (2.5.10.5B-76) A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 foot to port, displaces 20,000 long tons.
Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is loaded in P-tanks located 50 feet starboard to the centerline. What
is the new TCG?
o
o
o
(A) 0.49 foot starboard of centerline

(B) 0.51 foot starboard of centerline
(C) 0.99 foot starboard of centerline
(D) 1.49 feet starboard of centerline
4597. (2.5.10.3C-9) In the DEEP DRILLER, VCG is obtained from the sum of the vertical moments by
__________.
o
o
o
(A) adding displacement

(B) dividing by displacement
(C) multiplying by displacement
(D) subtracting displacement
4598. (2.5.10.4B-30) The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the port pump room. If both port
bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you should use the __________.
o
o
o
(A) starboard ballast pumps and crossover system

(B) port ballast pumps
(C) port saltwater service pump
(D) port drill water pump

Deck General
September 2015
4599. (2.5.10.4B-27) While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling),
casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard aft inclination is slowly
increasing, which tank is probably damaged?
o
o
o
(A) 10P
(B) 9S
(C) 8S
(D) 10S
4600. (2.5.10.4B-2) The analysis of damaged stability for the DEEP DRILLER, disregards the beneficial
effects of countermeasures and __________.
o
o
(A) horizontal area of the platform

(B) vertical area of the platform
(C) mooring system
(D) wind strength
4601. (2.5.10.5B1-8) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown is Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What
would be the change in vertical moments for Fresh Water if the entire contents of Drill Water Tank
5P are transferred to Drill Water Tank 5S?
o
o
o
(A) 5,683 ft-tons

(B) 2,689 ft-tons
(C) 306 ft-tons
(D) 000 ft-tons
4602. (2.5.10.5B-37) The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same
time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal
moment 51,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the transverse
location of the missing load?
o
o
o
(A) 36.67 feet

(B) 0.56 foot
(C) -0.55 foot
(D) -36.67 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4603. (2.5.10.3A-32) The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5, loads
275.8 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at
the starboard aft draft mark?
o
o

(D) 48 feet 6 inches
4604. (2.5.10.5B-69) The transverse free surface correction of a floating MODU displacing 24,000 long
tons is 1.0 foot. When the MODU is deballasted by discharging 8,000 long tons of ballast, the FSMT
decreases by 4,000 ft-long tons. What is the new FSCT?
o
o
o
(A) 1.50 feet

(B) 1.25 feet
(C) 1.00 foot
(D) 0.83 foot
4605. (2.5.10.5B-41) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting
to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if 100.76
long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?
o
o
(A) 6.46 feet

(B) 7.09 feet
(C) 7.72 feet
(D) 8.39 feet
4606. (2.5.10.3A-10) What is the displacement of the DEEP DRILLER with a draft of 19.5 feet in fresh
water?
o
o
o

(C) 12,602.9 long tons
(D) 18,919.8 long tons

Deck General
September 2015
4607. (2.5.10.5B-88) What is the decrease in longitudinal moments for the Deep Driller if 2.0 feet of
ballast is transferred from 1S to 10P?
o
o
o
(A) 15,265 ft-tons

(B) 14,609 ft-tons
(C) 7,293 ft-tons
(D) 5,174 ft-tons
4608. (2.5.10.1-32) Where is thicker plating usually found in the construction of integral tanks on a
MODU?
o
o
o
(A) On the outside of the tank

(B) At the center of the tank
(C) At the top of the tank
(D) At the bottom of the tank
(Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from
which you should pump is tank __________.
o
o
o
(A) 2P
(B) C1S
(C) 9P
(D) 9S
4610. (2.5.10.4A-6) Fighting a rig fire in a watertight compartment with hoses could reduce the stability
of the rig by __________.
o
o
o
(A) reducing the KG to minimum allowable

(B) reducing the level of drill water from the storage tanks
(C) progressive downflooding
(D) causing a list due to the water in the compartment

Deck General
September 2015
4611. (2.5.10.3A-21) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If
the maximum permissible deck load were placed aboard at a VCG of 130 feet, what would be the
new draft?
o
o
o

4612. (2.5.10.3C-10) On a semisubmersible drilling unit, decreasing riser tension reduces __________.
o
o
(A) GM
(B) free surface moments
(C) KG
(D) KM
4613. (2.5.10.4B-6) A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the
righting arm (GZ) is __________.
o
o
o
(A) zero
(B) vertical
(C) positive
(D) negative
4614. (2.5.10.1-27) Compared to internal structural plating, the exterior hull plating on a MODU is
usually __________.
o
o
o
(A) stronger
(B) thinner
(C) more corrosion resistant
(D) a lower grade steel

Deck General
September 2015
(Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks
2S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list. You should consider counterflooding
in tank __________.
o
o
o
(A) C2BP
(B) 9P
(C) C2BS
(D) 2P
4616. (2.5.10.4B-9) The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), suffers
major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Your best countermeasure is to pump from
__________.
o
o
o
(A) C2P
(B) 1P
(C) C1P
(D) 3P
4617. (2.5.10.1-1) In MODU construction, bulkheads in the quarters are generally __________.
o
o
o
(A) continuous
(B) watertight
(C) structural
(D) non-structural
4618. (2.5.10.3A-28) A semisubmersible in transit is at a draft of 19 feet. The depth of the lower hulls is
21 feet. How much bunker fuel at 54.0 lbs/cu ft could be taken on and still provide one foot of
freeboard if the TPI is 52.3?
o
o
(A) 255.2 long tons

(B) 843.9 long tons
(C) 627.6 long tons
(D) 648.0 long tons

Deck General
September 2015
4619. (2.5.10.4B-29) While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling),
casing is accidentally dropped on the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard aft
inclination are slowly increasing, you decide that tank 10S has minor damage. Among the possible
corrective actions is __________.
o
o
o
(A) counterflood into 2P

(B) deballast from tank 9P
(C) dump the mud
(D) place a wooden plug into the vent of tank 10S
4620. (2.5.10.5B-18) The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGL of 55.4 feet and an LCG of
2.43 feet. What is the trim angle?
o
o
o
(A) 2 by the stern

(B) 4 by the head
(C) 4 by the stern
(D) 2 by the head
4621. (2.5.10.4B-14) The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to
Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the
vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) counterflood in 10S

(B) counterflood in 1P
(C) pump from C1P
(D) pump from C3S
4622. (2.5.10.5B-3) The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 3,765 ft-tons of transverse
moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 1S to level the unit in list?
o
o
o
(A) 25.1 long tons

(B) 50.2 long tons
(C) 62.8 long tons
(D) 252.1 long tons

Deck General
September 2015
4623. (2.5.10.3A-13) The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 19.5 feet. What will
be the draft in sea water?
o
o
o
(A) 18.7 feet

(B) 19.1 feet
(C) 19.4 feet
(D) 19.8 feet
to Survival). What is the new height of the transverse metacenter if all the bulk materials are
discharged?
o
o
(A) 63.14 feet

(B) 64.05 feet
(C) 64.30 feet
(D) 66.09 feet
4625. (2.5.10.5B-7) The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 45 feet and total vertical moments of 981,567 ftlong tons, floods 2068.7 long tons of sea water through the overboard discharge into tanks 3 and 8
on both sides. The VCG of the added ballast is 7.22 feet. The shift in the height of the center of
gravity is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 0.93 foot

(B) 6.16 feet
(C) 6.95 feet
(D) 7.88 feet
4626. (2.5.10.3A-19) While drilling ahead with 60 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER encounters lost
circulation and loses 900 Bbls. of 16 pounds per gallon mud to the hole. How much ballast must be
taken on to maintain 60 foot draft?
o
o
o
(A) 220 long tons

(B) 270 long tons
(C) 330 long tons
(D) 440 long tons

Deck General
September 2015
4627. (2.5.10.3C-3) For a floating MODU, the center of flotation is the point in the waterplane
__________.
o
o
o
(A) about which the MODU lists and trims

(B) which is shown in the hydrostatic tables as VCB
(C) which, in the absence of external forces, is always vertically aligned with the center of gravity
(D) which coincides with the center of buoyancy
4628. (2.5.10.5B-49) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (transit).
What is the new metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if the entire contents
of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KMT = 375.38 feet)
o
o
o
(A) 375.38 feet

(B) 345.23 feet
(C) 319.66 feet
(D) 306.79 feet
4629. (2.5.10.4B-40) The most important consideration in the event the Deep Driller suffers damage is
__________.
o
o
o
(A) counterflood on the opposite corner

(B) preserve reserve buoyancy
(C) pump from adjacent undamaged compartments
(D) advise authorities
4630. (2.5.10.3A-9) The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 60 feet, has a two-foot trim by the head
and a three foot list to starboard. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark?
o
o
o
(A) 57.5 feet

(B) 59.5 feet
(C) 60.5 feet
(D) 62.5 feet
4631. (2.5.10.1-20) Support of MODU side plating is provided primarily by transverse __________.
o
o
o
(A) girders
(B) beams
(C) bulkheads
(D) frames

Deck General
September 2015
4632. (2.5.10.1-16) In MODU construction, beam brackets are triangular plates that join the deck beam
to a __________.
o
o
o
(A) deck longitudinal

(B) frame
(C) stanchion
(D) bulkhead
4633. (2.5.10.3C-1) A quick and rapid motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a(n)
__________.
o
o
(A) excessive free surface

(B) small GZ
(C) large GM
(D) high center of gravity
4634. (2.5.10.1-2) A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU is normally also a(n) __________.
o
o
o
(A) joiner bulkhead

(B) centerline bulkhead
(C) exterior bulkhead
(D) structural bulkhead
4635. (2.5.10.1-3) Joiner bulkheads on a MODU provide __________.

o
o
o
(A) watertight integrity

(B) compartmentalization
(C) structural support
(D) tank boundaries
4636. (2.5.10.3A-4) The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 20 feet. What will be
the draft in sea water?
o
o
(A) 19.0 feet

(B) 19.3 feet
(C) 19.6 feet
(D) 20.4 feet

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
o
(A) 0.2 by the stern

(B) 0.3 by the stern
(C) 0.4 by the stern
(D) 0.5 by the stern
to Survival). What is the shift in LCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to
replace the discharge of all bulk materials?
o
o
o
(A) 0.06 foot aft

(B) 0.14 foot aft
(C) 0.27 foot aft
(D) 0.40 foot aft
4639. (2.5.10.3A-38) Movement of liquid in a tank when a drilling barge inclines causes an increase in
__________.
o
o
o
(A) height of the uncorrected KG

(B) natural rolling period
(C) metacentric height
(D) righting arm
(Drilling), suffers severe damage to the starboard aft column below the waterline. You should pump
from tank __________.
o
o
o
(A) 9S
(B) 2S
(C) 2P
(D) C1S
4641. (2.5.10.4A-14) A flooded leg on a liftboat would adversely affect the vessel's stability underway
by __________.
o
o
(A) increasing the reserve buoyancy

(B) decreasing the vessel's displacement
(C) shifting the CG (center of gravity) off center
(D) increasing the righting moment

Deck General
September 2015
4642. (2.5.10.3B-3) A semisubmersible displacing 700,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64
pounds per cubic foot) weighs __________.
o
o
(A) 8,929 long tons

4643. (2.5.10.5B-70) The longitudinal free surface correction of a floating MODU displacing 12,000 kips
is 1.20 feet. What would be the new FSCL if 2,400 kips of solid variable loads are added?
o
o
(A) 1.50 feet

(B) 1.20 feet
(C) 1.00 foot
(D) 0.83 foot
4644. (2.5.10.5B-35) What is the shift in KG if all the liquid mud is dumped when the DEEP DRILLER is
loaded as shown in the Sample Load #3 (Preparing to Drill)?
o
o
o
(A) 1.26 feet downward

(B) 1.51 feet downward
(C) 2.77 feet downward
4645. (2.5.10.1-7) Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called __________.
o
o
(A) brackets
(B) intercostals
(C) stiffeners
(D) side longitudinals
4646. (2.5.10.1-4) Vertical partitions which provide strength and compartmentalization on a MODU are
called __________.
o
o
o
(A) joiner work

(B) decks
(C) walls
(D) bulkheads

Deck General
September 2015
4647. (2.5.10.4B-11) The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers
major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the
damage has proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) counterflood in 1P
(B) pump from C3S
(C) pump from C1P
(D) counterflood in 10S
4648. (2.5.10.1-5) Structural bulkheads on a MODU are usually __________.

o
o
o
(A) transverse
(B) watertight
(C) continuous
(D) non-watertight
4649. (2.5.10.5B-56) A semisubmersible 300 feet long and an LCF of 0 (amidships) is in transit with
hulls awash and an MT1" of 87.67 foot-tons. Work on the BOP (weight 263 long tons) requires that it
be moved aft 12 feet. What is the resulting trim change?
o
o
o
(A) 1.5 feet

(B) 3.0 feet
(C) 6.0 feet
(D) 7.3 feet
4650. (2.5.10.5B-55) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What
would be the new sum of FSML for Fresh Water if the entire contents of Drill Water Tank #5P are
transferred to Tank #5S?
o
o
(A) 3,645 ft-tons

(B) 3,328 ft-tons
(C) 317 ft-tons
(D) 0 ft-tons
4651. (2.5.10.1-6) Bulkheads which form part of the tanks on a MODU are stiffened to withstand
__________.
o
o
o
(A) deck loads from above

(B) hydrostatic pressure
(C) dynamic forces while afloat
(D) over-pressurization

Deck General
September 2015
4652. (2.5.10.1-18) Stanchions prevent the entire deck load on a MODU from being carried by the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) stringers
(B) frames and beam brackets
(C) bulkheads
(D) deck longitudinals
4653. (2.5.10.5B-66) What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are
placed 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and
displacement 9,000 short tons?
o
o
o

(C) 0.23 foot port of centerline
(D) 0.20 foot port of centerline
to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if 100.76
long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?
o
o
o
(A) 10.42 feet

(B) 10.87 feet
(C) 11.50 feet
(D) 12.13 feet
4655. (2.5.10.5B-54) In the DEEP DRILLER, VCG is obtained from the sum of the vertical moments by
__________.
o
o
o
(A) multiplying by displacement

(C) subtracting displacement
(D) adding displacement
4656. (2.5.10.3A-22) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting
to Survival). What is the new draft if all the bulk materials are discharged?
o
o
o
(A) 36.23 feet

(B) 44.27 feet
(C) 45.73 feet
(D) 53.77 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4657. (2.5.10.4A-8) The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on
maintaining a watertight integrity, KGL and KGT less than maximum allowed, level attitude, and
displacement less than __________.
o
o
(A) 11,777 kips

(B) 13,158 kips
(C) 14,158 kips
(D) 17,280 kips
4658. (2.5.10.4A-5) Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.
o
o
o
(A) after flooding

(B) before collision
(C) at survival draft
(D) which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots
4659. (2.5.10.1-8) In MODU construction, a greater number of watertight bulkheads results in

__________.
o
o
o
(A) greater deck load capacity

(B) increased capacity to set flooding boundaries
(C) decreased capacity to set flooding boundaries
(D) reduced compartmentation
4660. (2.5.10.1-9) Where is the keel generally located on a MODU?
o
o
o
(A) Along the centerline of the lower hulls

(B) Along the axis of rotation of the hull
(C) Along the roll axis of the hull
(D) Along the midships axis
4661. (2.5.10.5B-30) The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 55 feet, has a KGT of 53.05 feet and TCG of
0.5 foot to starboard. What is the list angle?
o
o
o
(A) 2.0Starboard
(B) 2.9Starboard
(C) 3.2Starboard
(D) 3.5 starboard

Deck General
September 2015
4662. (2.5.10.1-19) The deck loads on a MODU are distributed through the deck beams to the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) plates
(B) hull
(C) stringers
(D) frames
4663. (2.5.10.4A-2) Control of flooding on a MODU should be addressed __________.

o
o
(A) following restoration of vital services

(B) first
(C) following control of fire
(D) only if a threat exists
4664. (2.5.10.3A-41) In the DEEP DRILLER, TCG is obtained from the sum of the transverse moments
by __________.
o
o
o
(A) subtracting the free surface correction

(C) multiplying by displacement
(D) adding the free surface correction
4665. (2.5.10.3A-33) For a MODU with trim, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) stabilize at an angle of loll

(B) increase
(C) remain constant
(D) decrease
4666. (2.5.10.1-30) Horizontal subdivision decks forming watertight compartments in the columns of a
semisubmersible MODU increase the unit's __________.
o
o
(A) towing speed

(B) tank capacities
(C) stability in the event of damage
(D) anchor holding ratio

Deck General
September 2015
4667. (2.5.10.1-10) The central longitudinal structural hull strength member of the lower hulls of
semisubmersible MODU's is called the __________.
o
o
o
(A) rider plate

(B) keel
(C) stress plate
(D) main beam
4668. (2.5.10.5B-2) The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has -3,600 ft-tons of transverse
moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 10P and 10S to level the unit in
list?
o
o
o
(A) 25.1 long tons

(B) 50.2 long tons
(C) 62.8 long tons
(D) 252.1 long tons
4669. (2.5.10.3C-14) A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.
o
o
o
(A) using fuel from a pressed fuel tank

(B) emptying a partially filled tank
(C) transferring pipe from the setback area to the pipe rack
(D) filling a partially filled tank
4670. (2.5.10.3C-11) In the DEEP DRILLER, the longitudinal free surface correction (FSCL) is obtained
from the total of the longitudinal free surface moments (FSML) by __________.
o
o
o
(A) multiplying by displacement

(B) adding the LCG
(C) subtracting the LCG
(D) dividing by displacement
(Drilling), suffers damage to the port aft column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 8P and 9P
is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list and stern down trim. You should consider
counterflooding in tank __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1S
(B) C2BS
(C) 1P
(D) 10S

Deck General
September 2015
4672. (2.5.10.1-11) On a MODU, the keel is the primary strength member of the lower hull form in
which direction?
o
o
o
(A) transverse
(B) longitudinal
(C) diagonal
(D) vertical
to Survival). What is the VCG of the added liquid if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast
Tank #8S?
o
o
o
(A) 1.35 feet

(B) 6.95 feet
(C) 8.30 feet
(D) 15.26 feet
to Survival). What is the new height of the longitudinal metacenter if all the bulk materials are
discharged?
o
o
(A) 61.34 feet

(B) 62.13 feet
(C) 62.35 feet
(D) 64.00 feet
4675. (2.5.10.3A-6) The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 58.0 feet loads 68.94 long tons of ballast. What is
the new draft?
o
o
(A) 52.0 feet

(B) 57.5 feet
(C) 58.5 feet
(D) 64.0 feet
4676. (2.5.10.3A-3) The free surface effects of a partially-full tank in a floating MODU increase with the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) displacement volume of the MODU

(B) draft of the MODU
(C) height of the tank above the keel
(D) surface area of the fluid in the tank

Deck General
September 2015
4677. (2.5.10.1-12) The decks of a MODU are supported by transverse members called __________.
o
o
(A) trusses
(B) web frames
(C) deck beams
(D) deck longitudinals
4678. (2.5.10.3B-1) Keeping the draft of a MODU at or below the load line mark will insure that the unit
has adequate __________.
o
o
o
(A) lightweight displacement

(B) reserve ballast
(C) critical motions
(D) reserve buoyancy
4679. (2.5.10.1-13) Between the side frames on a MODU, support for the deck beams is provided by
__________.
o
o
o
(A) stanchions
(B) web frames
(C) deck stringers
(D) brackets
4680. (2.5.10.1-14) In MODU construction, beams are transverse girders which provide support to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) deckhouse structures

(B) decks
(C) vertical frames
(D) bulkheads
4681. (2.5.10.4B-5) Fighting a rig fire in the ballast pump room with hoses would adversely affect the
stability of the rig most by __________.
o
o
o
(A) a reduced KG caused by water filling the compartment

(B) increasing the permeability of the pump room
(C) reduction of drill water from the storage tanks
(D) a list caused by water filling the compartment

Deck General
September 2015
4682. (2.5.10.1-17) The deck plating on a MODU is supported primarily by deck longitudinals and deck
__________.
o
o
o
(A) girders
(B) stanchions
(C) frames
(D) beams
4683. (2.5.10.5B-9) With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the forward
drafts is 59.0 feet, and the average of the aft drafts is 61.0 feet. KGL is 51.13 feet. What is the value
of LCG?
o
o
(A) -0.12 foot

(B) 0.12 foot
(C) 2.11 feet
(D) 2.35 feet
4684. (2.5.10.1-21) When the longitudinal strength members of a MODU are continuous and closely
spaced, the vessel is __________.
o
o
(A) intermittently framed

(B) transversely framed
(C) longitudinally framed
(D) web framed
4685. (2.5.10.1-22) Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called
__________.
o
o
(A) intercostals
(B) side frames
(C) stringers
(D) side stiffeners
4686. (2.5.10.1-23) A MODU having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is
__________.
o
o
(A) web framed

(B) cellular framed
(C) transversely framed
(D) longitudinally framed

Deck General
September 2015
4687. (2.5.10.1-24) The heavier outboard strake of deck plating on a MODU is called the deck
__________.
o
o
o
(A) beam
(B) stiffener
(C) doubler
(D) stringer
4688. (2.5.10.1-25) On a MODU, the deck stringer is the outboardmost deck __________.
o
o
o
(A) beam
(B) stanchion
(C) stiffener
(D) plating
(Drilling), suffers severe damage to the port aft column below the waterline. You should pump from
tank __________.
o
o
(A) C1S
(B) 2S
(C) 10P
(D) 9S
4690. (2.5.10.3A-39) A MODU with the TCG off the longitudinal centerline inclines to an angle of
__________.
o
o
o
(A) loll
(B) heel
(C) trim
(D) list
4691. (2.5.10.4B-4) Fighting a rig fire in a watertight compartment with hoses could reduce the stability
of the rig by __________.
o
o
o
(A) reducing the level of drill water from the storage tanks
(B) causing a list due to the water in the compartment
(C) progressive downflooding
(D) reducing the KG to minimum allowable

Deck General
September 2015
4692. (2.5.10.3A-12) The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 20.5 feet. What will
be the draft in sea water?
o
o
(A) 18.2 feet

(B) 19.4 feet
(C) 19.7 feet
(D) 22.8 feet
4693. (2.5.10.1-26) In order to withstand fluid head pressure on a MODU, stiffeners are often attached
to the bulkhead __________.
o
o
(A) brackets
(B) framing
(C) plating
(D) penetrations
4694. (2.5.10.4B-28) While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling),
casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port aft inclination is slowly increasing, which
tank is probably damaged?
o
o
o
(A) 1P
(B) 10P
(C) 10S
(D) 9P
4695. (2.5.10.1-28) In a semisubmersible MODU, the columns contain void spaces above the waterline
that used principally for __________.
o
o
(A) elevators
(B) equipment storage
(C) reserve buoyancy
(D) machinery
4696. (2.5.10.3A-37) A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft angles of trim is likely to
have __________.
o
o
o
(A) KML greater than KMT

(B) an off-center LCG
(C) LCG greater than LCB
(D) KML less than KGL

Deck General
September 2015
(Drilling), suffers damage to the port forward column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 2P and
3P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list and bow down trim. You should consider
o
o
(A) 9S
(B) 2S
(C) 10S
(D) C2BS
4698. (2.5.10.4A-4) The stability which exists after the unintentional flooding of a compartment on a
MODU is called __________.
o
o
o
(A) initial stability

(B) intact stability
(C) immersion stability
(D) damage stability
4699. (2.5.10.1-29) On a semisubmersible MODU, reserve buoyancy is increased by the presence of

void spaces above the waterline in the __________.
o
o
o
(A) columns and upper structure

(B) submerged hulls
(C) submerged connecting structures
(D) quarters
(Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard forward column below the waterline. Pumping from tank
2S and 3S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list and bow down trim. You should
consider counterflooding in tank __________.
o
o
(A) 9P
(B) C2BP
(C) 10P
(D) 2P

Deck General
September 2015
4701. (2.5.10.4A-12) The best information on the nature and extent of damage on a MODU is obtained
from __________.
o
o
o
(A) person in charge of the affected spaces

(B) personnel at the scene of the damage
(C) the toolpusher
(D) alarms and monitoring devices
Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank 1S. Your best countermeasure is to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) pump from 2S

(B) pump from 1S
(C) pump from C1S
(D) counterflood in 10P
(Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard aft column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 8S
and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list and stern down trim. You should consider
o
o
o
(A) C2BP
(B) 10P
(C) 1S
(D) 1P
4704. (2.5.10.1-31) The stability of a semisubmersible MODU would be seriously reduced if flooding
occurred in the __________.
o
o
o
(A) ballast tanks

(B) column void spaces
(C) dry mud tanks
(D) submerged hulls

Deck General
September 2015
4705. (2.5.10.1-33) Structural stress on a MODU can be reduced by __________.
o
o
o
(A) even and symmetrical variable loading

(B) increasing the metacentric height
(C) lessening the effect of environmental forces
(D) local concentration of heavy consumables
4706. (2.5.10.1-34) Structural stress levels in a MODU are the sum of loading stresses and stresses
due to __________.
o
o
o
(A) variable loads

(B) mooring loads
(C) ballast loading
(D) environmental loads
4707. (2.5.10.3A-1) The mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.
o
o
o
(A) midway between the forward and aft draft marks

(B) at the center of flotation
(C) at the load line
(D) at the center of buoyancy
4708. (2.5.10.5B-4) The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 50,000 ft-tons of longitudinal
moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 10P to level the unit
longitudinally?
o
o
o
(A) 45.3 long tons

(B) 90.6 long tons
(C) 118.1 long tons
(D) 236.1 long tons
4709. (2.5.10.3A-2) The true mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.
o
o
o
(A) at the center of buoyancy

(B) midway between drafts forward and aft
(C) at the load line
(D) at the center of flotation

Deck General
September 2015
4710. (2.5.10.3A-5) The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60.0 feet discharges 68.94 long tons of ballast.
o
o
(A) 66.0 feet

(B) 60.5 feet
(C) 59.5 feet
(D) 55.0 feet
4711. (2.5.10.3A-7) The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 58.0 feet discharges 1,792.44 long tons of
ballast. What is the new draft?
o
o
o
(A) 40 feet
(B) 45 feet
(C) 50 feet
(D) 55 feet
4712. (2.5.10.3A-8) The DEEP DRILLER at survival draft loads 2,068.1 long tons of ballast. What is the
new draft?
o
o
(A) 30.0 feet

(B) 45.0 feet
(C) 60.0 feet
(D) 75.0 feet
4713. (2.5.10.4B-1) A semisubmersible with a negative GM flops to an angle of __________.

o
o
(A) heel
(B) list
(C) loll
(D) trim
4714. (2.5.10.3A-11) The DEEP DRILLER, in transit at a seawater draft of 19 feet, enters a fresh water
port. What is the new draft?
o
o
o
(A) 19.03 feet

(B) 19.40 feet
(C) 19.63 feet
(D) 21.16 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4715. (2.5.10.3A-14) The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load #5, discharges
275.8 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at
the port aft draft mark?
o
o
o

4716. (2.5.10.3A-15) The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5,
discharges 137.88 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is
the draft at the starboard forward draft mark?
o
o
o

4717. (2.5.10.3A-16) The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5
(Survival) loads an additional 137.88 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 2 feet and the list to
port is 3 feet. What is the draft at the port forward draft mark?
o
o

4718. (2.5.10.4A-16) The intact volume above the waterline of a floating MODU is __________.
o
o
o
(A) displacement volume

(B) gross tonnage
(C) reserve buoyancy
(D) net tonnage
4719. (2.5.10.3A-17) The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 45 feet, has a three-foot trim by the stern
and a two-foot list to port. What is the draft at the starboard forward draft mark?
o
o
o
(A) 42.5 feet

(B) 44.5 feet
(C) 45.5 feet
(D) 47.5 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4720. (2.5.10.3A-20) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit).
stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. How much ballast is required to ballast to 32 feet?
o
o
(A) 2,094 long tons

(B) 2,194 long tons
(C) 2,294 long tons
(D) 3,294 long tons
4721. (2.5.10.3A-23) How much non-liquid deck load can the DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the
sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), accept if the weight is placed at a VCG of 130 feet? Ballast added or
discharged to maintain draft at 60 feet is done so at 10 feet.
o
o
o
(A) 461.9 long tons

(B) 457.5 long tons
(C) 388.8 long tons
(D) 323.1 long tons
4722. (2.5.10.3B-4) The maximum draft to which a drilling unit may be safely loaded is called
__________.
o
o
o
(A) calculated draft

(B) load line draft
(C) deep draft
(D) mean draft
4723. (2.5.10.3A-24) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing
to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft?
o
o
o
(A) 60 feet 9.6 inches

(B) 59 feet 2.7 inches
(C) 57 feet 11.5 inches
(D) 56 feet 10.9 inches
4724. (2.5.10.3A-25) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing
to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #1 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft?
o
o
(A) 60 feet 9.6 inches


Deck General
September 2015
4725. (2.5.10.4A-17) When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same
__________.
o
o
(A) roll period increases

(B) roll amplitude is dampened
(C) synchronous rolling occurs
(D) roll period decreases
4726. (2.5.10.3A-43) A semisubmersible with a positive GM, and TCG located starboard of the
centerline, inclines to an angle of __________.
o
o
o
(A) heel
(B) loll
(C) trim
(D) list
4727. (2.5.10.3A-26) While loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid
mud is dumped. What would be the new draft?
o
o
o
(A) 56.69 feet

(B) 58.14 feet
(C) 59.14 feet
(D) 63.31 feet
4728. (2.5.10.3A-27) A semisubmersible at a draft of 19 feet 9 inches arrives on location planning to

deploy eight mooring lines. Each anchor weighs 15 long tons and each mooring line consists of
3,000 feet of 3-inch chain (89.6 lbs/ft). If no ballast corrections are made, what is the expected draft
if the average TPI is 60?
o
o
o

4729. (2.5.10.3A-29) A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet
aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard
Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the list?
o
o
o
(A) 10 feet to port

(B) 5 feet to port
(C) 5 feet to starboard
(D) 2.5 feet to port

Deck General
September 2015
aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-9"; Port Aft 68'-9"; Starboard Forward
59'-9"; and Starboard Aft 63'-9". What is the true mean draft?
o
o
o
(A) 64.25 feet

(B) 64.45 feet
(C) 64.75 feet
(D) 64.90 feet
4731. (2.5.10.3A-31) With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the forward
drafts is 61.0 feet, and the average of the aft drafts is 59.0 feet. KGL is 51.13 feet. What is the value
of LCG?
o
o
o
(A) -0.12 foot

(B) 0.12 foot
(C) 2.11 feet
(D) 2.35 feet
4732. (2.5.10.3A-35) For a MODU with longitudinal inclination, an increase in GML causes
__________.
o
o
o
(A) trim to increase

(B) trim to decrease
(C) trim to stabilize at an angle of loll
(D) list to stabilize at an angle of loll
major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) counterflood in 10S

(C) pump from C3S
(D) pump from 9S
4734. (2.5.10.4A-20) The maximum angle at which the intact stability curves are valid for MODU's is
the angle for __________.
o
o
(A) the limit of positive stability

(B) maximum offset
(C) downflooding
(D) the limit of small-angle stability

Deck General
September 2015
4735. (2.5.10.3A-36) When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the center of buoyancy will
__________.
o
o
o
(A) remain stationary

(B) move to the height of the metacenter
(C) move toward the high side
(D) move toward the low side
4736. (2.5.10.3A-40) In the DEEP DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal
moments by __________.
o
o
o
(A) dividing by displacement

(B) multiplying by displacement
(C) adding the free surface correction
(D) subtracting the free surface correction
4737. (2.5.10.3A-42) In the DEEP DRILLER, the transverse free surface correction (FSCT) is obtained
from the total of transverse free surface moments (FSMT) by __________.
o
o
(A) subtracting the TCG

(B) adding the TCG
(C) dividing by displacement
(D) multiplying by displacement
4738. (2.5.10.3C-2) One way to increase the period of roll on a semisubmersible rig while under tow is
to __________.
o
o
o
(A) plug ballast tank vents

(B) dump deck tanks into lower hulls
(C) head into the waves
(D) increase tank free surface
4739. (2.5.10.3C-4) A semisubmersible which flops between port and starboard angles of list is likely to
have __________.
o
o
o
(A) KMT less than KGT

(B) an off-center LCG
(C) KMT greater than KML
(D) TCG greater than level-vessel TCB

Deck General
September 2015
4740. (2.5.10.4B-3) When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly less than the angle of loll, she
will __________.
o
o
o
(A) incline less

(B) return to the angle of loll
(C) capsize
(D) flop to the other side
4741. (2.5.10.4A-15) The downflooding angle for a MODU is the maximum angle at which
__________.
o
o
(A) neutral equilibrium exists

(B) the load line is not submerged
(C) intact stability curves are valid
(D) stability is positive
4742. (2.5.10.3C-5) On a semisubmersible drilling unit, increasing riser tension increases __________.
o
o
o
(A) KG
(B) GM
(C) free surface moments
(D) KM
4743. (2.5.10.3C-6) Laying down drill pipe from the derrick of a semisubmersible on location reduces
the __________.
o
o
o
(A) waterplane area

(B) metacentric height
(C) righting moment
(D) natural roll period
4744. (2.5.10.3C-7) A semisubmersible which will not remain upright and will assume a list either to
port or starboard is likely to have __________.
o
o
o
(A) a large TCG

(B) a negative GM
(C) excessive ballast
(D) insufficient deck load

Deck General
September 2015
4745. (2.5.10.3C-8) Semisubmersibles A and B are identical. However, "A" is more tender than "B".
This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.
o
o
o
(A) smaller GM
(B) larger GZ
(C) smaller roll angle
(D) lower KG
4746. (2.5.10.3C-13) On a semisubmersible drilling unit, decreasing riser tension increases

__________.
o
o
o
(A) free surface moments

(B) GM
(C) KM
(D) KG
4747. (2.5.10.3C-15) A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.
o
o
o
(A) transferring pipe from the setback area to the pipe rack
(B) filling a partially filled tank
(C) emptying a partially filled tank
(D) using an on board crane to lift a freely swinging heavy object
4748. (2.5.10.3C-16) A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft trim angles is likely to
have __________.
o
o
o
(A) an off-center TCG

(B) LCG greater than level-vessel LCB
(C) KMT greater than KML
(D) KML less than KGL
4749. (2.5.10.3C-17) An inclined semisubmersible with a very short rolling period about a constant
angle of list is likely to have __________.
o
o
o
(A) an off-center TCG

(B) a negative GM
(C) an LCG greater than level vessel LCB
(D) excessive free surfaces

Deck General
September 2015
4750. (2.5.10.4A-19) The angle of loll is a stability term which applies to a floating MODU with
__________.
o
o
o
(A) stiff characteristics

(B) excessive pitch or roll
(C) off-center loading
(D) negative initial stability
4751. (2.5.10.3C-18) The jettisoning of topside weight from a MODU serves what purpose?
o
o
o
(A) It returns the MODU to an even keel.

(B) It raises the center of gravity.
(C) It reduces free surface effect.
(D) It lowers the center of gravity.
4752. (2.5.10.3C-18) Adding the FSCL to KG yields __________.

o
o
(A) KGT
(B) GM
(C) KGL
(D) KM
4753. (2.5.10.3C-19) Subtracting FSCT from KGT yields __________.

o
o
o
(A) BL
(B) KG
(C) GMT
(D) FSCT
4754. (2.5.10.4A-1) Repair of vital machinery and services on a MODU should be accomplished
__________.
o
o
o
(A) after control of fire, but before control of flooding

(B) after control of fire, flooding, and structural repairs
(C) immediately
(D) after stability is restored

Deck General
September 2015
4755. (2.5.10.4A-3) The order of importance in addressing damage control on a MODU is __________.
o
o
o
(A) control fire, control flooding, repair structural damage

(B) restore vital services, control fire, control flooding
(C) control flooding, control fire, repair structural damage
(D) control fire, restore vital services, control flooding
4756. (2.5.10.4A-7) The COASTAL DRILLER has sufficient reserve stability to overcome damage due
to flooding of any one watertight compartment in winds to __________.
o
o
o
(A) 36 knots
(B) 50 knots
(C) 70 knots
(D) 100 knots
4757. (2.5.10.4A-9) The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on
maintaining watertight integrity, displacement less than 14,158 kips, level attitude, and KGT and
KGL less than __________.
o
o
(A) GMT and GML

(B) the height of the righting arm
(C) the maximum allowed
(D) BMT and BML
4758. (2.5.10.4A-10) Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.

o
o
(A) ballast control alarms

(B) excessive list or trim
(C) a continual worsening of list or trim
(D) excessive draft
4759. (2.5.10.4A-13) The downflooding angle for a MODU is the minimum angle at which __________.
o
o
o
(A) offset becomes excessive

(B) a non-watertight opening is at still water level
(C) the load line becomes submerged
(D) reserve buoyancy is a maximum

Deck General
September 2015
4760. (2.5.10.4A-18) The jettisoning of topside weight from a MODU serves what purpose?
o
o
o
(A) It returns the MODU to an even keel.

(B) It lowers the center of gravity.
(C) It reduces free surface effect.
(D) It raises the center of gravity.
4761. (2.5.10.4B-7) In the analysis of damaged stability for the DEEP DRILLER, disregarded are the
beneficial effects of moorings and __________.
o
o
(A) wind strength

(B) vertical area of the platform
(C) countermeasures
(D) horizontal area of the platform
major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the
damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
o
o
(A) pump from C3S

(B) pump from C1P
(C) counterflood in 1P
(D) counterflood in 10S
major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) pump from C1P

(B) counterflood in 10S
(C) counterflood in 1P
(D) pump from 2P
Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank 10S. Your best countermeasure is
to __________.
o
o
o
(A) pump from C3S

(C) pump from 10S
(D) pump from 9S

Deck General
September 2015
casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard
inclination are rapidly increasing, you decide that tank 1S is damaged. Your best countermeasure is
to __________.
o
o
o
(A) counterflood into 9P

(B) place a wooden plug into the vent of tank 2S
(C) dump the mud
(D) deballast from tank 2S
casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. Because the tank sounding level and port forward
inclination are rapidly increasing, you decide that tank 1P is damaged. Your best countermeasure is
to __________.
o
o
o
(A) dump the mud

(B) counterflood into 9S
(C) counterflood into C3S
(D) deballast from tank 2P
(Drilling), suffers severe damage to the starboard forward column below the waterline. You should
pump from tank __________.
o
o
o
(A) 2P
(B) 1S
(C) C1S
(D) 8S
casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. Because the sounding level and port aft inclination
are slowly increasing, you decide that tank 10P has minor damage. Among the possible corrective
actions is __________.
o
o
(A) dump the mud

(B) counterflood into 10P
(C) deballast from tank 9P
(D) counterflood into 2S

Deck General
September 2015
4769. (2.5.10.4B-21) While the DEEP DRILLER is operating loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4
(Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port forward inclination is slowly
increasing, which tank is probably damaged?
o
o
o
(A) 3P
(B) 1P
(C) 2P
(D) 1S
4770. (2.5.10.4B-26) While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Load Form #4
(Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard forward inclination
is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?
o
o
(A) 3S
(B) 1P
(C) 1S
(D) 2S
4771. (2.5.10.4B-31) Failure of both port-side ballast pumps on the DEEP DRILLER prevents their use.
To dewater from the port forward tanks, you should use the __________.
o
o
o
(A) port drill water pump

(B) port saltwater service pump
(C) port bilge pumps
(D) starboard ballast pump and crossover system
4772. (2.5.10.4B-33) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling).
While the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 19 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from
tank 9S by pumping from tank 8S by opening valves 20 and __________.
o
o
(A) 35
(B) 21
(C) 18
(D) 17

Deck General
September 2015
(Drilling), suffers damage to the port center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2P and
9P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list. You should consider counterflooding in tank
__________.
o
o
o
(A) C2BP
(B) C2BS
(C) 9S
(D) 2S
4774. (2.5.10.4B-41) In the event of damage to the DEEP DRILLER which results in flooding to one of
the lower-hull tanks, pump from __________.
o
o
o
(A) nearby undamaged tanks containing ballast

(B) tanks on the opposite corner
(C) the opposite trim tank
(D) nearby damaged tanks
4775. (2.5.10.4B-42) If the DEEP DRILLER is damaged, the unit is designed to avoid downflooding in
wind speeds up to __________.
o
o
o
(A) 50 knots
(B) 70 knots
(C) 90 knots
(D) 100 knots
4776. (2.5.10.4B-43) A floating MODU with an initial negative metacentric height __________.
o
o
o
(A) may lie at an angle of loll

(B) will capsize
(C) will incline further
(D) may be initially level

Deck General
September 2015
4777. (2.5.10.4B-44) The angle to which a floating MODU, with a negative initial metacentric height,
lies while at rest in still water is the angle of __________.
o
o
o
(A) yaw
(B) heel
(C) trim
(D) loll
4778. (2.5.10.5B-1) The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 35,000 ft-tons of longitudinal
moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 10P to level the unit
longitudinally?
o
o
(A) 25.5 long tons

(B) 50.2 long tons
(C) 165.3 long tons
(D) 330.2 long tons
4779. (2.5.10.5B-5) The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 60 feet in calm water. What is the value of
the righting moment?
o
o
o
(A) 18,118 foot-tons

(B) 9,059 foot-tons
(C) 4,529 foot-tons
(D) 0 foot-tons
4780. (2.5.10.5B-6) The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet and a total vertical moment of 1,012,598
foot-tons, pumps 2,068.7 long tons of ballast overboard. The VCG of the discharged ballast is 15.0
feet. What is the new height of the center of gravity?
o
o
o
(A) 50.62 feet

(B) 55.89 feet
(C) 60.56 feet
(D) 61.16 feet
4781. (2.5.10.5B-8) The DEEP DRILLER has a KGL of 53.16 feet while at a draft of 58.0 feet. Although
there are no environmental forces, trim is 2.0 feet by the stern. What is the value of LCG?
o
o
o
(A) 2.16 feet

(B) 2.26 feet
(C) 2.36 feet
(D) 2.46 feet

Deck General
September 2015
o
o
o
(A) 0.2 by the stern

(B) 0.3 by the stern
(C) 0.4 by the stern
(D) 0.5 by the stern
2.37 feet. What is the trim in feet?
o
o
o
(A) 2.0 feet by the head

(B) 4.0 feet by the head
(C) 4.0 feet by the stern
(D) 8.0 feet by the stern
0.5 foot to port. What is the list angle?
o
o
o
(A) 2 port
(B) 3 port
(C) 4 port
(D) 5 port
0.5 foot to port of the longitudinal centerline. What is the list in feet?
o
o
o
(A) 2.7 feet to port

(B) 5.4 feet to port
(C) 5.7 feet to port
(D) 10.8 feet to port
4786. (2.5.10.5B-32) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). If
port valves 24 and 2 are mistakenly opened, the change in inclination will be increasing trim by the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) stern
(B) bow
(C) stern with starboard list
(D) bow with port list

Deck General
September 2015
4787. (2.5.10.5B-33) The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the starboard pump room. If both
starboard bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you should use the __________.
o
o
o
(A) starboard drill water pump

(B) starboard saltwater service pump
(C) port ballast pumps and crossover system
(D) starboard ballast pumps
4788. (2.5.10.5B-34) The DEEP DRILLER is planning to operate while loaded as shown in the Sample
Load Form #3 ( Preparing to Drill). What is the margin between KGT and maximum allowable KG?
o
o
(A) 0.66 foot

(B) 2.58 feet
(C) 5.24 feet
(D) 7.87 feet
4789. (2.5.10.5B-36) While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing
to Drill), all of the casing is discharged. What is the change in LCG?
o
o
o
(A) 0.45 foot

(B) -0.45 foot
(C) -1.78 feet
(D) -2.68 feet
moments 51,466 foot-tons, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-tons. What is the longitudinal
location of the missing load?
o
o
(A) -0.61 feet

(B) 0.62 feet
(C) -40.57 feet
(D) 40.45 feet

Deck General
September 2015
moments 51,466 foot-tons, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-tons. What is the weight of
the missing load?
o
o
o
(A) 220.7 long tons

(B) 235.3 long tons
(C) 253.7 long tons
(D) 272.7 long tons
to Survival). What is the shift in TCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to
o
o
o
(A) 0.01 foot starboard

(B) 0.18 foot starboard
(C) 0.27 foot starboard
(D) 0.39 foot starboard
4793. (2.5.10.5B-47) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to
Survival). What is the new longitudinal location of the center of buoyancy if all the bulk materials are
discharged?
o
o
o
(A) 2.34 feet

(B) 2.48 feet
(C) 2.50 feet
(D) 2.53 feet
What is the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if the entire
contents of salt water ballast 1anks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KML = 348.58)
o
o
o
(A) 261.11 feet

(B) 279.37 feet
(C) 283.37 feet
(D) 301.12 feet

Deck General
September 2015
What is the new transverse free surface correction (FSCT) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast
Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?
o
o
o
(A) 0.46 foot

(B) 0.71 foot
(C) 1.08 feet
(D) 1.44 feet
What is the new longitudinal free surface correction (FSCL) if the entire contents of Salt Water
Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?
o
o
o
(A) 1.06 feet

(B) 1.09 feet
(C) 3.30 feet
(D) 3.38 feet
What are the new vertical moments if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are
discharged?
o
o
o
(A) 12,662 ft-tons

(B) 794,346 ft-tons
(C) 795,025 ft-tons
(D) 795,704 ft-tons
What are the new TM (transverse moments) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P
and 1S are discharged?
o
o
o
(A) -3,436 ft-tons

(B) 3,446 ft-tons
(C) 3,594 ft-tons
(D) 22,682 ft-tons

Deck General
September 2015
4799. (2.5.10.5B-57) The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling),
discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet
forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting trim angle?
o
o
(A) 3.49 degrees to the stern

(B) 4.69 degrees to the stern
(C) 5.18 degrees to the stern
(D) 5.68 degrees to the stern
forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting list angle?
o
o
(A) 2.11 degrees to port

(B) 1.43 degrees to starboard
(C) 2.87 degrees to starboard
(D) 3.02 degrees to starboard
forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new LCG?
o
o
o
(A) 0.59 foot

(B) 1.64 feet
(C) 2.23 feet
(D) 2.82 feet
forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new GML?
o
o
(A) 5.98 feet

(B) 6.48 feet
(C) 6.84 feet
(D) 7.11 feet

Deck General
September 2015
forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new TCG?
o
o
(A) -0.26 foot

(B) -0.46 foot
(C) 0.46 foot
(D) 0.61 foot
forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KGT?
o
o
o
(A) 52.60 feet

(B) 53.65 feet
(C) 54.31 feet
(D) 54.92 feet
4805. (2.5.10.5B-63) The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long
tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT =
18,732 foot-long tons. What is TCG?
o
o
o
(A) 0.00 feet

(B) 1.03 feet
(C) 2.22 feet
(D) 3.91 feet
4806. (2.5.10.5B-64) The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long
18,732 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the LCG?
o
o
(A) 0.00 feet

(B) 1.69 feet
(C) 2.22 feet
(D) 3.91 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4807. (2.5.10.5B-65) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What
would be the new sum of transverse moments for the Stores & Supplies (Table 6) if paint weighing
3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?
o
o
o
(A) 592 foot-tons

(B) 296 foot-tons
(C) 148 foot-tons
(D) 000 foot-tons
4808. (2.5.10.5B-67) What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are
discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships,
and displacement 9,000 short tons?
o
o
o
(A) 0.88 foot forward of amidships

(B) 0.85 foot forward of amidships
(C) 0.82 foot forward of amidships
(D) 0.79 foot forward of amidships
4809. (2.5.10.5B-68) What is the shift in the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are
discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships,
and displacement 9,000 short tons?
o
o
o
(A) 0.62 foot aft

(B) 0.65 foot aft
(C) 0.68 foot aft
(D) 0.71 foot aft
4810. (2.5.10.5B-71) A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet
Forward 69'-09"; and Starboard Aft 73'-09". What is the trim?
o
o
(A) -1.0 foot

(B) -2.0 feet
(C) -4.0 feet
(D) -8.0 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4811. (2.5.10.5B-72) A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet
Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the trim?
o
o
o
(A) 8 feet by the stern

(B) 2 feet by the stern
(C) 4 feet by the head
(D) 4 feet by the stern
4812. (2.5.10.5B-73) The righting moment created by a MODU that displaces 15,000 tons with a
righting arm (GZ) of 0.02 foot is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 3,000 foot-tons

(B) 750 foot-tons
(C) 600 foot-tons
(D) 300 foot-tons
4813. (2.5.10.5B-74) A semisubmersible displacing 18,000 long tons has an LCG 2 feet forward of
amidships. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50.8 feet aft of
amidships. What is the new LCG?
o
o
o

(B) 1.20 feet forward of amidships
(C) 3.11 feet forward of amidships
(D) 3.20 feet forward of amidships
4814. (2.5.10.5B-75) A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 feet to port, displaces 20,000 long tons.
Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50 feet starboard of the centerline.
What is the new TCG?
o
o
(A) 0.53 foot port of centerline

(B) 1.03 feet starboard of centerline
(C) 1.53 feet port of centerline
(D) 0.53 foot starboard of centerline
4815. (2.5.10.5B-77) What is the longitudinal shift in the center of gravity if 200 short tons is moved ten
feet to port and 30 feet forward on a MODU with a displacement of 8,960 long tons?
o
o
(A) 0.20 foot

(B) 0.22 foot
(C) 0.67 foot
(D) 0.84 foot

Deck General
September 2015
4816. (2.5.10.5B-78) A semisubmersible displacing 17,600 long tons has an LCG 3.2 feet forward of
amidships. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is loaded into P-tanks located 50.8 feet aft of amidships.
What is the new LCG?
o
o

4817. (2.5.10.5B-79) What is the transverse shift in the center of gravity if 200 short tons are placed 10
feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and the
displacement is 9,000 short tons?
o
o
(A) 0.03 foot

(B) 0.20 foot
(C) 0.23 foot
(D) 0.62 foot
4818. (2.5.10.5B-80) A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 20,000 long tons. LCB is 3.0
feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 40 feet aft of
o
o
(A) 3.64 feet forward of amidships

4819. (2.5.10.5B-81) A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 18,000 long tons. Bulk,
weighing 400 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 80 feet to starboard of the centerline. What is
the new TCG?
o
o

(C) 1.74 feet starboard of centerline
(D) 1.78 feet starboard of centerline

Deck General
September 2015
4820. (2.5.10.5B-82) A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 25,000 long tons. LCG is 2 feet
forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 50 feet aft of
o
o
o
(A) 1.43 feet forward of amidships

(C) 0.62 foot forward of amidships
4821. (2.5.10.5B-83) While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all
of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity?
o
o
o
(A) 1.71 feet

(B) 1.94 feet
(C) 2.09 feet
(D) 2.23 feet
of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new position of the longitudinal center of buoyancy?
o
o
o
(A) 0.00 feet

(B) 1.69 feet
(C) 2.25 feet
(D) 2.29 feet
of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new longitudinal free surface correction?
o
o
(A) 1.63 feet

(B) 1.65 feet
(C) 1.67 feet
(D) 1.69 feet
4824. (2.5.10.5B-86) What is the change in longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48
long-tons of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?
o
o
o
(A) 21,913 foot-tons decrease

(B) 13,414 foot-tons decrease
(C) 10,944 foot-tons decrease
(D) 6,707 foot-tons decrease

Deck General
September 2015
4825. (2.5.10.5B-87) What is the change in transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 longtons of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?
o
o
o
(A) 15,522 foot-tons increase

(B) 15,181 foot-tons increase
(C) 3,594 foot-tons increase
(D) 1,797 foot-tons increase
4826. (2.5.10.5B-89) The DEEP DRILLER has a KGT of 52.90 feet while at a draft of 58.0 feet. List is
2.0 feet to port. What is the value of TCG?
o
o
(A) -0.10 foot

(B) -0.13 foot
(C) -0.16 foot
(D) -0.19 foot
4827. (2.5.10.5B-90) The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental
forces. What is the value of TCG?
o
o
o
(A) 0.00 on the centerline

4828. (2.5.10.5B-91) The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental
forces. What is the value of LCG?
o
o
(A) 0.00 (amidships)

4829. (2.5.10.5B-92) With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the
starboard drafts is 59.0 feet, and the average of the port drafts is 61.0 feet. KGT is 52.84 feet. What
is the value of TCG?
o
o
(A) -2.00 feet

(B) -1.00 foot
(C) -0.16 foot
(D) -0.10 foot

Deck General
September 2015
4830. (2.5.10.5B-93) What is the value of KML for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet?
o
o
o
(A) 59.63 feet

(B) 60.16 feet
(C) 61.68 feet
(D) 61.13 feet
4831. (2.5.10.5B-94) The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig
Move). What is the new trim angle if 500 kips of weight are shifted aft 60 feet?
o
o
o
(A) 2.02 degrees by the stern

(B) 1.51 degrees by the stern
(C) 0.98 degrees by the stern
(D) 0.61 degrees by the stern
4832. (2.5.10.5B1-1) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #3 (Preparing
to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new uncorrected
height of the center of gravity?
o
o
(A) 50.72 feet

(B) 51.25 feet
(C) 51.87 feet
(D) 53.22 feet
4833. (2.5.10.5B1-2) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing
to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the
center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?
o
o
o
(A) 50.29 feet

(B) 53.55 feet
(C) 53.92 feet
(D) 54.24 feet
4834. (2.5.10.5B1-3) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to
Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the
center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects?
o
o
(A) 51.50 feet

(B) 52.54 feet
(C) 52.88 feet
(D) 53.54 feet

Deck General
September 2015
to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the
longitudinal metacenter?
o
o
o
(A) 61.13 feet

(B) 61.19 feet
(C) 61.22 feet
(D) 62.94 feet
to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the transverse
metacenter?
o
o
o
(A) 61.19 feet

(B) 62.80 feet
(C) 62.99 feet
(D) 62.94 feet
4837. (2.5.10.5B1-6) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing
to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric height
corrected for transverse free surface effects?
o
o
o
(A) 11.26 feet

(B) 10.07 feet
(C) 9.67 feet
(D) 8.30 feet
4838. (2.5.10.5B1-7) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing
to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric
height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?
o
o
(A) 10.07 feet

(B) 8.80 feet
(C) 7.59 feet
(D) 5.45 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4839. (2.5.10.5B1-9) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting
to Survival). What is the shift in VCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to
o
o
(A) 0.19 foot down

(B) 0.44 foot down
(C) 0.63 foot down
(D) 1.19 feet down
4840. (2.5.10.5B1-10) The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling),
forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the improvement in KGL?
o
o
(A) 0.67 foot

(B) 0.98 foot
(C) 1.15 feet
(D) 2.06 feet
discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the centerline. What
is the improvement in KGT?
o
o
(A) 0.68 foot

(B) 0.99 foot
(C) 1.16 feet
(D) 2.07 feet
forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new GMT?
o
o
o
(A) 5.98 feet

(B) 6.84 feet
(C) 7.11 feet
(D) 9.24 feet

Deck General
September 2015
forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KGL?
o
o
(A) 52.60 feet

(B) 53.65 feet
(C) 54.32 feet
(D) 54.92 feet
4844. (2.5.10.5B1-14) The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long
tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free
surface effects?
o
o
(A) 5.66 feet

(B) 7.37 feet
(C) 8.02 feet
(D) 54.82 feet
tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM =3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT =
18,732 foot-long tons. What is the metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?
o
o
o
(A) 5.66 feet

(B) 6.31 feet
(C) 7.37 feet
(D) 55.47 feet
18,732 foot-long tons. What is the longitudinal free surface correction to KG?
o
o
(A) 0.00 feet

(B) 1.03 feet
(C) 1.69 feet
(D) 2.22 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4847. (2.5.10.5B1-17) While underway in a field move with the lower hulls awash, a semisubmersible
has an allowable KG of 63.69 feet; KMT is 65.12 and KML is 64.92. The KGT is 56.13 and KGL is
55.89. What is the GML?
o
o
o
(A) 1.43 feet

(B) 7.56 feet
(C) 7.80 feet
(D) 9.03 feet
tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT
18,732 foot-long tons. What is the KG corrected for transverse free surface effects?
o
o
o
(A) 53.78 feet

(B) 54.82 feet
(C) 55.47 feet
(D) 56.01 feet
18,732 foot-long tons. What is the KG corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?
o
o
(A) 53.78 feet

(B) 54.82 feet
(C) 55.47 feet
(D) 56.01 feet
18,732 foot-long tons. What is the uncorrected height of the center of gravity?
o
o
o
(A) 52.14 feet

(B) 53.78 feet
(C) 55.03 feet
(D) 58.50 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4851. (2.5.10.5B1-21) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling).
What would be the new sum of vertical moments for the Stores & Supplies if paint weighing 3.48
tons is added to the paint locker?
o
o
o

(B) 5,054 foot-tons
(C) 964 foot-tons
(D) 292 foot-tons
4852. (2.5.10.5B1-22) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling).
What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for the Stores & Supplies (Table 6) if paint
weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?
o
o
o
(A) 5,996 foot-tons

(B) 1,688 foot-tons
(C) 495 foot-tons
(D) 115 foot-tons
4853. (2.5.10.5B1-23) While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling),
all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new longitudinal metacentric height?
o
o
(A) 5.02 feet

(B) 5.65 feet
(C) 7.33 feet
(D) 7.63 feet
4854. (2.5.10.5B1-24) What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are
discharged from 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the
centerline, and the displacement is 9,000 short tons?
o
o
o

(B) 0.47 foot port of centerline
(C) 0.23 foot port of centerline
(D) 0.94 foot starboard of centerline

Deck General
September 2015
4855. (2.5.10.5B1-25) The height of the transverse metacenter for a MODU is 62.44 feet. The height of
the center of gravity is 56.10 feet, and the transverse free surface correction is 1.21 feet. What is the
value of the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?
o
o
o
(A) 5.13 feet

(B) 6.34 feet
(C) 8.76 feet
(D) 12.10 feet
4856. (2.5.10.5B1-26) A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long
tons is discharged from a VCG 150 feet. The change in KG is __________.
o
o
(A) 1.09 feet

(B) 1.60 feet
(C) 1.64 feet
(D) 2.73 feet
4857. (2.5.10.5B1-27) A semisubmersible, displacing 20,500 long tons, has vertical moments of
1,060,000 foot-long tons. What is the change in KG if 500 long tons are discharged from a VCG of
120 feet?
o
o
o

4858. (2.5.10.5B1-28) A MODU displacing 29,500 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long
tons is added at a VCG of 150 feet. What is the change in KG?
o
o
(A) 2.5 feet upward

(B) 2.0 feet upward
(C) 1.5 feet upward
(D) 1.0 foot upward

Deck General
September 2015
4859. (2.5.10.5B1-29) A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and KG of 52 feet

discharges 300 long tons of barite from P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. Ballast added to
maintain draft has a VCG of 20 feet. What is the change in KG?
o
o
(A) 0.49 foot increase

(B) 0.50 foot decrease
(C) 1.50 feet decrease
(D) 1.80 feet decrease
4860. (2.5.10.5B1-30) A semisubmersible with displacement of 19,700 long tons and KG of 50.96 feet
loads 300 long tons of barite into P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. What is the change in
KG?
o
o
(A) 0.79 foot upward

(B) 1.00 foot upward
(C) 1.04 feet upward
(D) 1.83 feet upward
all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new height of the longitudinal metacenter?
o
o
(A) 61.24 feet

(B) 61.22 feet
(C) 61.20 feet
(D) 61.13 feet
all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new uncorrected KG?
o
o
o
(A) 52.09 feet

(B) 52.20 feet
(C) 53.23 feet
(D) 55.36 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4863. (2.5.10.5B1-33) What is the change in the vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 2.0 feet of
ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 3P to an empty ballast tank 10P?
o
o
(A) 43 ft-tons increase

(B) 69 ft-tons decrease
(C) 556 ft-tons decrease
(D) 5,575 ft-tons decrease
4864. (2.5.10.5B1-34) What is the change in vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long
tons of ballast is discharged from a full ballast tank 1P?
o
o
(A) 6,707 foot-tons decrease

(B) 4,984 foot-tons decrease
(C) 1,914 foot-tons decrease
(D) 155 foot-tons decrease
4865. (2.5.10.5B1-35) Because of the presence of 75 knot winds, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival
draft. KGT is 3.24 feet less than the maximum allowed. What is the value of GMT?
o
o
o
(A) 5.32 feet

(B) 5.17 feet
(C) 3.39 feet
(D) 3.24 feet
4866. (2.5.10.5B1-36) The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has VM of 942,120 ft-tons, and FSML
of 36,235 ft-tons. What is the KGL?
o
o
(A) 52.0 feet

(B) 53.0 feet
(C) 54.0 feet
(D) 55.0 feet
4867. (2.5.10.5B1-37) The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 58 feet, has VM of 900,000 ft-tons, and FSMT
of 20,000 ft-tons. What is the KGT?
o
o
o
(A) 51.6 feet

(B) 52.3 feet
(C) 53.8 feet
(D) 55.0 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4868. (2.5.10.5B1-40) While in transit at a draft of 20.5 feet, the DEEP DRILLER has a KGL of 65.00
feet. What is the GML?
o
o
o
(A) 7.55 feet

(B) 5.42 feet
(C) 5.30 feet
(D) 5.10 feet
4869. (2.5.10.5B1-42) What is the minimum required GML for the DEEP DRILLER in winds less than
70 knots while at a draft of 60 feet?
o
o
o
(A) 0.17 foot

(B) 2.63 feet
(C) 4.34 feet
(D) 9.12 feet
4870. (2.5.10.5B1-43) What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments,
permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft if the winds are greater than 70 knots?
o
o

(B) 942,120 foot-tons
(C) 996,522 foot-tons
(D) 998,927 foot-tons
4871. (2.5.10.5B1-44) What are the maximum vertical moments including free surface moments
permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if the winds are greater than 70 knots?
o
o
o
(A) 1,059,885 foot-tons

(D) 974,441 foot-tons
4872. (2.5.10.5B1-45) What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments,
permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if the winds are less than 70 knots?
o
o
o

(D) 1,059,885 foot-tons

Deck General
September 2015
4873. (2.5.10.5B1-46) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit).
What is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects if the
entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?
o
o
o
(A) 65.95 feet

(B) 66.85 feet
(C) 67.66 feet
(D) 68.59 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4874. (2.10.5-43) Which is NOT a potential hazard of approaching close to an iceberg?
o
o
o
(A) The brash ice in the vicinity may clog sea intakes.
(B) The berg may calve with the bergy bit hitting the vessel.
(C) The berg may suddenly tilt or capsize due to uneven melting and hit the vessel.
(D) There may be underwater rams extending out from the berg.
4875. (2.5.10.5A-6) A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AF0 has a true mean draft
(draft at LCF) of 10 feet. If the trim is 3 feet by the stern, what is the draft at the stern?
o
o
(A) 8.0 feet

(B) 9.0 feet
(C) 11.0 feet
(D) 12.0 feet
4876. (2.5.8.11-20) While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP
DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to starboard and forward. Strong winds and high
waves are from the port quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.
o
o
o
(A) failure of mooring lines 7 or 8

(B) ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1S
(C) failure of mooring lines 3 or 4
(D) leak in ballast tank 2S
4877. (2.10.5-12) Which single-letter signal, when used by icebreakers on the Great Lakes, may be
made by using the ship's whistle?
o
o
o
(A) I
(B) M
(C) E
(D) None
4878. (2.5.10.2A-12) The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft at the
forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The draft at the center of flotation is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 7.00 feet

(B) 8.58 feet
(C) 9.00 feet
(D) 9.42 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4879. (2.5.10.2A-29) In the COASTAL DRILLER, TCG is obtained from the sum of the transverse
o
o
o
(A) multiplying by the sum of the weights

(B) subtracting the sum of the weights
(C) adding the sum of the weights
(D) dividing by the sum of the weights
4880. (2.5.10.5A-40) A floating MODU displacing 20,000 long tons with a VCG of 50 feet loads 100
long tons at 100 feet above the baseline and 200 long tons at 130 feet above the baseline. What is
the new KG?
o
o
(A) 49.0 feet

(B) 50.0 feet
(C) 51.0 feet
(D) 51.8 feet
4881. (2.5.8.6-15) The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the port pump room while in transit. If
both port bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may __________.
o
o
o
(A) use port drill water pump

(B) use port ballast pumps
(C) use port saltwater service pump
(D) use starboard ballast pumps and crossover system
4882. (2.5.10.5A-23) A floating jack-up with displacement of 16,200 kips has its LCG 110.37 feet aft of
frame zero (AF0). If 200 short tons are discharged from 120 feet AF0 and 400 short tons are
discharged from 150 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?
o
o
o
(A) 108.0 feet

(B) 109.2 feet
(C) 110.4 feet
(D) 115.8 feet
4883. (2.5.10.2B-1) The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 34 feet aft of the transom and 2
feet to port of the centerline. With the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the
maximum allowable hook load is __________.
o
o
(A) 1000 kips

(B) 875 kips
(C) 854 kips
(D) 776 kips

Deck General
September 2015
4884. (2.5.10.2A-32) Weights added or discharged at the center of flotation on the COASTAL DRILLER
while floating will change the __________.
o
o
o
(A) TPI
(B) true mean draft
(C) list
(D) trim
4885. (2.5.10.2A-7) A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which
results in a port draft of 11 feet. What is the new starboard draft?
o
o
o
(A) 12 feet
(B) 11 feet
(C) 10 feet
(D) 9 feet
4886. (2.5.8.10-13) During a long ocean tow of a jack-up the clearance in the upper guide should be
reduced to zero to restrain the leg and eliminate the impact loads from dynamic responses. This is
best done by __________.
o
o
o
(A) tapering the upper guides and building up the teeth

(B) remove certain lengths of leg
(C) raising the spud cans into hull recesses
(D) lowering the spud cans below the hull
4887. (2.5.10.2C-17) The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 1
(Rig Move). If the contents of 6 and 7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new VCG?
o
o
o
(A) 47.21 feet

(B) 47.69 feet
(C) 48.41 feet
(D) 49.16 feet
4888. (2.5.10.5A-4) A jack-up 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the
bow. How much weight should be applied at the bow to level the jack-up if 150 kips are loaded at the
transom?
o
o
o
(A) 50 kips
(B) 75 kips
(C) 100 kips
(D) 200 kips

Deck General
September 2015
4889. (2.5.8.6-8) Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to provide drill water to
the deck and __________.
o
o
o
(A) supplement the bilge pumps

(B) provide saltwater service to the deck
(C) emergency fuel-oil recovery
(D) supplement the ballast pumps
(Rig Move). If the contents of 6 and 7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the
center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?
o
o
(A) 48.41 feet

(B) 49.16 feet
(C) 50.79 feet
(D) 51.40 feet
4891. (2.10.5-36) You are on an ice-reinforced vessel about to enter pack ice. You should
__________.
o
o
(A) trim to an even keel or slightly down by the bow to take maximum benefit of the ice
reinforcement
(B) enter the pack on the windward side where there is a well defined ice edge
(C) look for areas of rotten ice and enter perpendicular to the ice edge
(D) take maximum advantage of coastal leads caused by offshore winds
4892. (2.5.8.6-23) On the COASTAL DRILLER, except when pumping from a tank, the bilge system
valves should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) closed
(B) in the check-stop position
(C) opened for draining
(D) cracked open
4893. (2.10.5-26) While being assisted by an icebreaker on Lake Superior, you receive a single letter
code instructing you to slow your vessel. Which signal could you use to signify that you are
complying with the request?
o
o
o
(A) The code flag "A" (Alpha) displayed from a halyard

(B) Three blasts of the whistle
(C) The code flag "L" (Lima) displayed from a halyard
(D) Four blasts of the whistle, namely 1 short 2 long and 1 short

Deck General
September 2015
4894. (2.5.10.2A-27) For a MODU with transverse inclination, an increase in GMT causes __________.
o
o
o
(A) list to stabilize at an angle of loll

(B) list to decrease
(C) trim to decrease
(D) list to increase
4895. (2.5.10.5A-35) Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full
fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank 14 to tank 13. See COASTAL DRILLER
Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in transverse moments with
this transfer?
o
o
o
(A) 56 ft-kips
(B) 979 ft-kips
(C) 1035 ft-kips
(D) 2010 ft-kips
4896. (2.10.5-45) During a period of "whiteout", you should expect which of the following?
o
o
o
(A) Snowfall or blowing snow

(B) Lack of ability to estimate distance
(C) Hazy horizons with extensive mirage effects
(D) Harsh contrast between sun-illuminated snow cover and the background
4897. (2.10.5-1) Which statement about ships operating in ice is FALSE?

o
o
o
(A) Traditionally, operating ships light in the ice has been effective in the spring.
(B) Light and partly loaded ships should be ballasted as deeply as possible.
(C) Good searchlights should be available in the event of night navigation with or without
icebreaker escort.
(D) In brash-filled channels, operating with a shallow draft forward is most effective.
results in a starboard draft of 11 feet 6 inches. What is the heel?
o
o
o
(A) 3 feet to starboard

(B) 1 foot 6 inches to port
(C) 3 feet to port
(D) 1 foot 6 inches to starboard

Deck General
September 2015
4899. (2.10.5-22) Which type of ice is the most difficult to combat and presents the greatest hazard to
shipping on the Great Lakes during the winter months?
o
o
(A) Fast ice

(B) Icebergs
(C) Pack slush ice
(D) Slow ice
4900. (2.5.10.2B-6) On the COASTAL DRILLER, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom and two
feet to starboard of the centerline, limits the maximum hook load to __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1000 kips

(B) 875 kips
(C) 750 kips
(D) 450 kips
4901. (2.10.5-2) An icebreaker assisting a vessel through an ice field would display a visual signal
consisting of the code letter "E" (Echo) to signify that "__________".
o
o
o
(A) I am altering my course to starboard

(B) My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water
(C) I am altering my course to port
(D) I am operating astern propulsion
4902. (2.5.10.2C-15) The existence of liquids in partially full tanks or compartments of a MODU causes
a virtual rise in the height of the __________.
o
o
o

(B) center of buoyancy
(C) metacenter
(D) center of flotation
4903. (2.10.5-50) What is NOT a form used by ice support services to disseminate information?
o
o
(A) Ice Forecasts

(B) Ice Outlooks
(C) Ice Bulletins
(D) Ice Analyses

Deck General
September 2015
4904. (2.5.10.2A-31) In the COASTAL DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal
o
o
(A) subtracting the sum of the weights

(B) multiplying by the sum of the weights
(C) dividing by the sum of the weights
(D) adding the sum of the weights
4905. (2.5.10.2C-7) The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds
greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum
allowable KG is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 2.6 feet

(B) 4.1 feet
(C) 26.3 feet
(D) 26.8 feet
4906. (2.5.10.2A-19) The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 1
(Rig Move). If the drill water in drill water tanks 6 and 25 are discharged, what is the new draft?
o
o
o
(A) 8.26 feet

(B) 10.66 feet
(C) 10.88 feet
(D) 11.10 feet
4907. (2.5.10.2B-13) When the COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample load form
Number 3 (drilling), the hook load is placed in the pipe racks. What would be the new variable load?
o
o
(A) 2,381.0 kips

(B) 3,381.0 kips
(C) 3,658.8 kips
(D) 4,381.0 kips
4908. (2.10.5-37) What should NOT be used as an indicator that ice may be nearby?
o
o
o
(A) A yellowish glare in the sky

(B) A gradual drop in sea water temperature to below 32F
(C) The presence of seals or certain type birds
(D) A dark appearance of the sky

Deck General
September 2015
(Rig Move). If the contents of 6 and 7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the
center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects?
o
o
(A) 47.49 feet

(B) 49.16 feet
(C) 50.82 feet
(D) 50.93 feet
4910. (2.5.10.2C-2) When underway at a draft of 10.5 feet in a severe storm, the COASTAL DRILLER
has a maximum allowed KG of __________.
o
o
o
(A) 40 feet
(B) 50 feet
(C) 55 feet
(D) 65 feet
4911. (2.10.5-42) When operating in an area where sea ice and icebergs are present, which statement
is TRUE?
o
o
o
(A) Both icebergs and sea ice will move in approximately the same direction and at the same
speed.
(B) Icebergs and sea ice will move in the same direction, but at different speeds due to the sail
effect of the berg.
(C) Icebergs and sea ice will move in the same direction, but the iceberg will move slower
because of its underwater bulk.
(D) Icebergs may travel in a direction many degrees different from the sea ice.
4912. (2.5.10.5A-16) A jack-up with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,200 footkips intends to transfer 100 kips of weight in a transverse direction. How far should the weight be
transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.5 to 11.0 feet?
o
o
o
(A) 12 feet
(B) 48 feet
(C) 120 feet
(D) 144 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4913. (2.5.10.2C-23) What is the decrease in vertical moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill
water is discharged from a full drill water tank 23?
o
o
(A) 3,464 ft-kips

(B) 2,982 ft-kips
(C) 482 ft-kips
(D) 161 ft-kips
4914. (2.5.10.2B-5) For the COASTAL DRILLER, what is the maximum rotary load that can be used
when the rotary has been extended 40 feet aft of the transom?
o
o
(A) 750 kips

(B) 630 kips
(C) 609 kips
(D) 531 kips
4915. (2.10.5-34) Ice concentration is measured in tenths. What concentration range of ice
corresponds to "Close Pack"?
o
o
o
(A) 7 - 8 tenths
(B) 9 - 10 tenths
(C) 1 - 3 tenths
(D) 4 - 6 tenths
4916. (2.10.5-16) What is NOT a basic shiphandling rule for navigating in ice concentrations on the
Great Lakes?
o
o
o
(A) Keep moving - even very slowly, but keep moving.

(B) Transit ice along pressure ridges when possible.
(C) Work with the ice movement, not against.
(D) Excessive speed means ice damage.
4917. (2.10.5-13) Adequate horsepower is of great importance when a ship is navigating independently
in ice. Adequate horsepower is generally considered to exist when the horsepower to length ratio is
at least __________.
o
o
(A) 8 to 1 or better
(B) 4 to 1 or better
(C) 6 to 1 or better
(D) 5 to 1 or better

Deck General
September 2015
4918. (2.5.10.5A-14) A jack-up level at 12.5 feet draft transfers 100 kips of drill water from a tank with a
TCG of -30 feet to a starboard tank with a TCG of 70 feet. The resulting starboard draft is 13 feet.
The moment required to change list one inch (MCL1") is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 667 foot-kips

(B) 833 foot-kips
(C) 1,400 foot-kips
(D) 1,667 foot-kips
4919. (2.5.10.2B-11) Drilling loads on the COASTAL DRILLER are the combined loads arising from
conductor tension, rotary, hook, and __________.
o
o
o
(A) basic loads

(B) setback loads
(C) fixed loads
(D) variable loads
4920. (2.5.10.2B-3) Considering the changes to lightweight shown in Section 5 of the COASTAL
DRILLER Manual, with the rotary 36 feet aft of the transom and 4 feet to port of the centerline, and
with 300 kips in the setback, the maximum hook load is limited to __________.
o
o
o
(A) 870 kips

(B) 635 kips
(C) 335 kips
(D) 314 kips
4921. (2.10.5-30) For operations in pack ice, a vessel should __________.

o
o
o
(A) be on an even keel

(B) be ballasted so the forefoot is near the surface
(C) be trimmed slightly by the head
(D) have a drag of not more than 2 to 3 feet
4922. (2.5.10.2C-4) While in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet, the Coastal Driller has a maximum
allowed KG of __________.
o
o
(A) 42 feet
(B) 44 feet
(C) 65 feet
(D) 70 feet

Deck General
September 2015
consisting of the code letter "M" (Mike) to signify that "__________".
o
o
o

(B) I am operating astern propulsion
(C) I am altering my course to port
(D) my vessel is stopped and making no way through the water
4924. (2.10.5-4) A vessel which is being assisted by an icebreaker should indicate that he is ready to
cast off the towline (if one is used) by __________.
o
o
o
(A) displaying code numeral "5"

(B) displaying code letter "Y" (Yankee)
(C) sounding five short blasts of his whistle
(D) sounding one prolonged blast of his whistle
4925. (2.5.10.2A-26) When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) righting moment equals the wind-heeling moment

(B) deck-edge immersion occurs
(C) downflooding point is below water
(D) centers of buoyancy and gravity are in the same vertical line
4926. (2.5.10.5A-39) A MODU displacing 30,500 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long
tons is discharged from a VCG of 150 feet. What is the change in KG?
o
o

(D) 1.0 foot downward
4927. (2.5.10.5A-12) A jack-up has 8 inches of trim by the stern. Calculations show that the moment
required to change trim one inch is 500 foot-kips. To level the unit, how far must a weight of 50 kips
be transferred toward the bow?
o
o
(A) 10.0 feet

(B) 62.5 feet
(C) 80.0 feet
(D) 100.0 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4928. (2.5.8.6-2) To pump bilge water out of the port pump room on the DEEP DRILLER, using
the number 2 bilge pump, open port-side valve __________.
o
o
o
(A) 28
(B) 36
(C) 41
(D) 42
4929. (2.5.10.2C-9) The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit during a severe storm while at a draft of 9 feet
6 inches, has a KGT of 39.1 feet and a KGL of 39.9 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG
is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 2.6 feet

(B) 3.4 feet
(C) 25.1 feet
(D) 25.9 feet
consisting of the code letter "S" (Sierra) to signify that "__________".
o
o
o
(A) I am altering my course to port

(B) I am operating astern propulsion
(C) My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water
(D) I am altering my course to starboard
consisting of the code letter "I" (India) to signify that "__________".
o
o
o

(B) I am altering my course to port
(C) My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water
(D) I am operating astern propulsion
4932. (2.5.10.2A-10) For a MODU with trim, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to
__________.
o
o

(B) decrease
(C) increase
(D) remain constant

Deck General
September 2015
4933. (2.5.10.5A-11) The draft at the forward draft mark of a jack-up is 11 feet 3 inches while the draft
at the aft draft mark is 12 feet 9 inches. The value of trim is __________.
o
o
o
(A) six inches to the stern

(B) 1 foot 6 inches to the stern
(C) 3 feet to the stern
(D) 24 feet to the stern
4934. (2.5.10.2C-25) Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full
Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in vertical moments with this
transfer?
o
o
o
(A) 26 ft-kips decrease

(B) 31 ft-kips increase
(C) 47 ft-kips decrease
(D) 81 ft-kips increase
4935. (2.5.10.2C-24) Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full
Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in transverse free surface
moments?
o
o
o
(A) 1492 ft-kips

(B) 674 ft-kips
(C) 404 ft-kips
(D) 270 ft-kips
4936. (2.10.5-7) When more than one vessel is being assisted by an icebreaker, distances between
vessels should be constant. Which signal should be given by a vessel which is ahead of another and
whose speed suddenly begins to drop?
o
o
o
(A) A flag hoist consisting of the code figure "4"

(B) A flag hoist consisting of the code figure "5"
(C) Four short blast on the whistle
(D) A flag hoist consisting of the code letters "FE" (Foxtrot-Echo)

Deck General
September 2015
4937. (2.10.5-14) Your vessel is being assisted through an ice field in Thunder Bay by the Canadian
Coast Guard icebreaker Alexander Henry. The starboard lookout reports that the icebreaker has run
up the code flag "N" (November). What action should you take?
o
o
o
(A) Stop your engines

(B) Reduce speed
(C) Stop your vessel instantly
(D) Reverse your engines
4938. (2.5.10.2C-32) A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a

__________.
o
o
o
(A) small GM
(B) stiff vessel
(C) large GZ
(D) low center of gravity
4939. (2.5.10.2C-12) While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe
storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 520,462 ft-kips, FSML are 26,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are
25,000 ft-kips. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the
maximum allowable KG criteria?
o
o
o
(A) 26.90 feet

(B) 25.00 feet
(C) 1.90 feet
(D) 0.00 feet
4940. (2.5.10.2C-22) The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form
Number 1 (Rig Move). What would be the new KGT if, during the move, 170.9 kips of fuel oil is
consumed from Diesel Oil Tanks 13 and 14?
o
o
(A) 48.98 feet

(B) 50.08 feet
(C) 50.70 feet
(D) 51.21 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4941. (2.10.5-44) Snow has obliterated surface features and the sky is covered with uniform,
altostratus clouds. There are no shadows and the horizon has disappeared. What is this condition
called?
o
o
o
(A) Whiteout
(B) Aurora reflection
(C) Ice blink
(D) Water sky
(Rig Move). If the contents of the No.1 drill water tank are discharged, what would be the new LCG?
o
o
o
(A) 118.46 feet AF0

(B) 119.44 feet AF0
(C) 119.98 feet AF0
(D) 120.42 feet AF0
4943. (2.5.10.5A-30) What is the increase in transverse moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of
drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank 23 to an empty drill water tank 6?
o
o
o
(A) 4783 foot-kips

(B) 3446 foot-kips
(C) 2109 foot-kips
(D) 1234 foot-kips
4944. (2.10.5-21) A vessel which is being assisted by an icebreaker would display a flag hoist
consisting of the code numeral "4" when the vessel __________.
o
o
o
(A) stops
(B) receives ice damage
(C) speed begins to drop
(D) becomes icebound

Deck General
September 2015
4945. (2.10.5-8) An icebreaker may use the code letter "K" to remind ships of their obligation to listen
continuously on their radio. This signal may be made by any of the following EXCEPT __________.
o
o
(A) light signal

(B) sound signal
(C) radiotelephone
(D) visual signal
4946. (2.5.10.2C-3) During an ocean tow when the winds are less than 70 knots, the maximum
allowable KG for the COASTAL DRILLER is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 38.75 feet

(B) 42.00 feet
(C) 44.00 feet
(D) 65.00 feet
4947. (2.10.5-9) An icebreaker displaying a flag hoist which consists of the code letters "WO" (Whiskey
Oscar) is indicating that __________.
o
o
(A) the icebreaker is icebound

(B) icebreaker support is commencing
(C) icebreaker support is finished
(D) the icebreaker is beset
4948. (2.5.10.5A-27) What is the change in longitudinal moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of
o
o
o
(A) 15,565 foot-kips increase

(B) 7,585 foot-kips increase
(C) 16,041 foot-kips decrease
(D) 15,565 foot-kips decrease
4949. (2.5.10.5A-8) What is the trim of a jack-up with forward draft of 11 feet and aft draft of 13.75 feet?
o
o
(A) 1.38 feet by the stern

(B) 1.45 feet by the stern
(C) 2.75 feet by the stern

Deck General
September 2015
4950. (2.5.10.5A-1) A jack-up with displacement of 10,000 kips has its LCG 100 feet aft of frame zero
(AFO). If 200 kips are loaded at 60 feet AFO and 100 kips are discharged from 20 feet AFO, what is
the new LCG?
o
o
o
(A) 100.0 feet

(B) 100.4 feet
(C) 100.8 feet
(D) 101.2 feet
4951. (2.10.5-23) Which statement concerning the navigation of a vessel in ice is FALSE?
o
o
o
(A) Towing a vessel through an ice field is not recommended except in an emergency.
(B) When anchoring in ice, it is advisable to increase the scope of the chain over what is normally
used for non-icing conditions.
(C) The "Free and Proceed" system of escorting a beset vessel cuts down on the number of
freeing operations.
(D) Anchoring in the presence of ice is not recommended except in an emergency.
4952. (2.10.5-10) What is the meaning of a flag hoist consisting of the code letters "WM" (Whiskey
Mike) when displayed by an icebreaker?
o
o
o
(A) "Icebreaker support is now commencing."

(B) "Icebreaker support is finished."
(C) "You should stop your vessel instantly."
(D) "I am going ahead; follow me."
4953. (2.10.5-11) Which vessel, if navigating independently in ice, is more likely to become beset due
to inadequate horsepower?
o
o
o
(A) A 254 ft. "Whaleback" tanker with 1800 H.P.

(B) A 309 ft. cement carrier with 2000 H.P.
(C) A 385 ft. shallow draft tanker with 2400 H.P.
(D) A 630 ft. bulk ore carrier with 3500 H.P.
4954. (2.5.10.5A-20) An elevated jack-up weighs 17,000 kips. Its center of gravity is located 110 feet
aft of frame zero (AF0). What would be the new LCG if the cantilever (weight 900 kips) and drill floor
(weight 800 kips) were skidded 70 feet aft?
o
o
(A) 103.0 feet AF0

(B) 113.4 feet AF0
(C) 117.0 feet AF0
(D) 180.0 feet AF0

Deck General
September 2015
4955. (2.5.10.5A-19) An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to port of the
centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jack-up if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded
10 feet to starboard?
o
o
o
(A) 9.00 feet starboard

(B) 1.0 foot port
(D) 0.50 foot port
4956. (2.5.10.2A-30) Forces within a drilling unit have caused a difference between the starboard and
port drafts. This difference is __________.
o
o
o
(A) list
(B) heel
(C) trim
(D) flotation
4957. (2.5.10.2C-6) The COASTAL DRILLER, in field transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds
less than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum
o
o
o
(A) 3.0 feet

(B) 3.4 feet
(C) 26.0 feet
(D) 26.4 feet
4958. (2.10.5-15) A U.S. Coast Guard icebreaker, while escorting ships in ice, may sound four short
and one long blasts on the whistle to indicate that the icebreaker __________.
o
o
o
(A) is increasing speed; watch for broken ice

(B) has its engines full astern
(C) is increasing the distance between vessels
(D) has become beset in fast ice
4959. (2.10.5-17) Which statement is TRUE with respect to shiphandling procedures in ice?
o
o
o
(A) Enter ice at medium speeds to reduce impact.

(B) Go astern in ice with extreme care - always with rudder amidships.
(C) The presence of a snow cover on the ice assists a vessel's progress through an ice field.
(D) Never go "full astern" at any time while in ice.

Deck General
September 2015
4960. (2.10.5-18) Ice is often strong enough to halt navigation through the St. Lawrence Seaway by
mid- __________.
o
o
o
(A) November
(B) January
(C) October
(D) December
4961. (2.10.5-28) A vessel which is being assisted by an icebreaker should indicate that she is ready to
cast off the towline by __________.
o
o
o
(A) displaying code letter "Y" (Yankee)

(B) sounding five short blasts on his whistle
(C) displaying code numeral "5"
(D) sounding one prolonged blast on his whistle
4962. (2.5.10.2A-14) The maximum load line draft for the COASTAL DRILLER is __________.
o
o

4963. (2.10.5-19) Your ship is navigating independently in heavy ice when it becomes beset. Which
statement is FALSE?
o
o
o
(A) The vessel will most likely require an icebreaker to free her.
(B) The vessel may be able to free herself by pumping ballast from side to side.
(C) It is advisable to clear the rudder area of ice by using ahead turns before backing down.
(D) The propeller is more susceptible to ice damage when turning slowly than when stopped.
4964. (2.10.5-20) Commercial ships or other persons or agencies requiring the assistance of Canadian
Coast Guard icebreakers should first contact __________.
o
o
o
(A) Ice Sarnia

(B) the Canadian Coast Guard
(C) the Ice Navigation Center
(D) the icebreaker assigned to the area

Deck General
September 2015
4965. (2.10.5-24) How does an icebreaker normally free a ship which has become beset while
navigating independently?
o
o
(A) By backing down the track and cutting out ice on either bow
(B) By approaching the vessel from astern and towing the beset vessel stern first
(C) By approaching from the stern and crossing ahead at an angle of 20 to 30 to the beset
ship's course
(D) By overtaking the beset ship, running ahead and then backing down the track to the beset
vessel
4966. (2.5.10.5A-42) While in 150 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is
2 degrees, the platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.
o
o
(A) 0.5 second

(B) 5.0 seconds
(C) 10.0 seconds
(D) 13.5 seconds
less than 70 knots, has a KGT of 50.6 feet and a KGL of 51.4 feet. The margin on the maximum
o
o
o
(A) 13.6 feet

(B) 14.4 feet
(C) 40.0 feet
(D) 65.0 feet
4968. (2.10.5-25) A U.S. Coast Guard icebreaker may use all of the following distinctive lights when
escorting ships in ice EXCEPT __________.
o
o
o
(A) a single blue rotating light

(B) a single amber rotating light
(C) a single red rotating light
(D) red aircraft warning lights
4969. (2.5.10.2A-13) The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. If the draft at the
forward draft marks is 8.0 feet, the draft at the after draft marks is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 7.00 feet

(B) 9.00 feet
(C) 9.42 feet
(D) 10.13 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4970. (2.10.5-27) Which publication would give detailed information on the commercial vessel traffic
reporting system for connecting waters from Lake Erie to Lake Huron?
o
o
(A) U.S. Coast Guard Light List - Vol. VII

(B) The appropriate Great Lakes Navigation Chart
(C) Code of Federal Regulations - Title 33
(D) United States Coast Pilot Number 6 - Great Lakes
greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 38.7 feet and a KGL of 38.2 feet. The margin on the maximum
o
o
o
(A) 26.8 feet

(B) 26.3 feet
(C) 1.8 feet
(D) 1.3 feet
4972. (2.10.5-29) Before entering an ice area, the ship should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) trimmed down by the stern

(B) trimmed down by the head
(C) on an even keel
(D) either trimmed by the head or the stern
4973. (2.5.10.5A-17) A jack-up 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the
bow. How much weight should be applied at the stern to re-level the jack-up if 75 kips is applied at
the bow?
o
o
o
(A) 50 kips
(B) 75 kips
(C) 100 kips
(D) 150 kips
corresponds to "Open Pack"?
o
o
o
(A) 1 - 3 tenths
(B) 7 - 8 tenths
(C) < 1 tenth
(D) 4 - 6 tenths

Deck General
September 2015
corresponds to 1- 3 tenths?
o
o
o
(A) Close Pack

(B) Very Open Pack
(C) Open Pack
(D) Very Close Pack
4976. (2.10.5-33) In general, an un-reinforced vessel can safely navigate in ice provided the
concentration does not exceed how many tenths?
o
o
o
(A) 9 - 10 tenths
(B) 1 - 3 tenths
(C) 4 - 6 tenths
(D) 6 - 8 tenths
4977. (2.10.5-35) In general, a reinforced vessel can safely navigate in ice provided the concentration
does not exceed how many tenths?
o
o
(A) 1-2 tenths

(B) 3-4 tenths
(C) 5- 7 tenths
(D) 8- 9 tenths with icebreaker assistance
4978. (2.10.5-38) The proximity of pack ice may be indicated by __________.

o
o
(A) icebergs
(B) changes in seawater salinity
(C) glare on clouds on the horizon
(D) changes in air temperature
4979. (2.10.5-39) What is NOT an indication that pack ice may be nearby?
o
o
(A) Sighting a walrus in the Arctic

(B) Ice blink
(C) The presence of icebergs
(D) Absence of wave motion

Deck General
September 2015
4980. (2.10.5-40) "Ice blink" is __________.

o
o
o
(A) "water sky"

(B) the yellowish-white glare on the underside of a cloud layer
(C) the soft light appearance on the underside of a cloud layer due to reflection from a surface of
open water
(D) the dark appearance of the underside of a cloud layer due to reflection of a surface of open
water
4981. (2.10.5-41) Small floes of rough, hummocky sea ice capable of damaging a vessel __________.
o
o
o
(A) are usually seen at night before they are close enough to provide a radar echo
(B) are indistinguishable from sea return on the PPI
(C) are invisible to radar when covered with a thick layer of snow
(D) can usually be detected by radar in a smooth sea at a range of 4 to 6 kilometers
4982. (2.5.10.2A-22) The COASTAL DRILLER, with no trim, is at a true mean draft of 10 feet and 10
inches. TM is -6,800 ft-kips. Using only tanks 1, 25, and 26, how many kips of drill water must be
transferred to level the jack-up?
o
o
o
(A) Transfer 53.1 kips each from 25 and 26 forward to 1

(B) Transfer 200 kips from 25 to 26
(C) Transfer 100 kips from 26 to 25
(D) Transfer 100 kips from 25 to 26
4983. (2.5.10.5A-24) While in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet, the COASTAL DRILLER has a KGT of 60.0
feet. What is the GMT?
o
o
o
(A) 139.92 feet

(B) 138.89 feet
(C) 79.92 feet
(D) 78.89 feet
4984. (2.5.10.5A-9) What is the trim of a jack-up with a forward draft of 12 feet and an after draft of 13
feet?
o
o
o
(A) 1.0 foot by the stern

(B) 0.5 foot by the stern
(C) 0.5 feet by the head

Deck General
September 2015
4985. (2.5.10.2A-23) The COASTAL DRILLER, with no list, is at a true mean draft of 10 feet and 10
inches. LM is 1,699,463 ft-kips. Using only tanks 1, 25, and 26, how many kips of drill water must be
transferred to level the jack-up?
o
o
o
(A) Transfer 106.2 kips aft from 1 to 25 and 26

(B) Transfer 53.1 kips each from 25 and 26 forward to 1
(C) Transfer 612 kips from 25 to 26
(D) Vessel is level; no need to transfer
4986. (2.5.10.5A-29) What is the change in the vertical moments (excluding free surface effects) for the
COASTAL DRILLER if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank 23 to an empty
drill water tank 6?
o
o
(A) 253 foot-kips

(B) 56 foot-kips
(C) -253 foot-kips
(D) -411 foot-kips
4987. (2.5.10.2A-4) The COASTAL DRILLER has a change of trim by the head of 2.0 feet. What is the
change of draft at the forward draft marks?
o
o
(A) 0.66 feet

(B) 1.00 feet
(C) 1.33 feet
(D) 2.00 feet
4988. (2.5.10.2A-21) What is the change in transverse moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill
water is discharged from drill water tank 23?
o
o
o
(A) 1,671 ft-kips

(B) -161 ft-kips
(C) -1,800 ft-kips
(D) -2,982 ft-kips
4989. (2.5.10.5A-5) A jack-up, 180 feet in length, has the center of flotation at 110 feet aft of frame
zero. The draft at the bow is 11.0 feet and the draft at the stern is 13.0 feet. What is the true mean
draft?
o
o
(A) 11.78 feet

(B) 12.00 feet
(C) 12.22 feet
(D) 12.78 feet

Deck General
September 2015
4990. (2.10.5-46) In polar regions you should NOT expect to see __________.
o
o
o
(A) false horizons

(B) mirage effects
(C) sea smoke
(D) extensive snowfall
4991. (2.10.5-47) Multi-year ice is the hardest sea ice and should be avoided if possible. It is
recognizable because of what tone to its surface color?
o
o
o
(A) Bluish
(B) Greenish
(C) Grey
(D) Grey-white
4992. (2.10.5-48) Which type of ice is a hazard to navigation?
o
o
o
(A) Growlers
(B) Frazil ice
(C) Pancake ice
(D) Ice rind
4993. (2.5.10.2A-28) A MODU lists and trims about the __________.

o
o
(A) centroid of the underwater volume

(B) center of buoyancy
(C) center of flotation
(D) center of gravity
4994. (2.5.10.5A-25) How much drill water is required for transfer between drill water tanks 25 and 26
in order to correct the list of the COASTAL DRILLER with total transverse moments of -6,800 ft-kips?
o
o
(A) 200 kips from tank 26 to tank 25

(B) 200 kips from tank 25 to tank 26
(C) 100 kips from tank 25 to tank 26
(D) 100 kips from tank 26 to tank 25

Deck General
September 2015
drill water is discharged from drill water tank 23?
o
o
o
(A) 1,671 ft-kips

(B) -161 ft-kips
(C) -4,708 ft-kips
(D) -20,052 ft-kips
4996. (2.10.5-49) What form of ice is of land origin?

o
o
o
(A) Floe
(B) Bergy bit
(C) Spicule
(D) Shuga
4997. (2.5.10.5A-2) An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to starboard of
the centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jack-up if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is
skidded 10 feet to port?
o
o
o
(A) 9.00 feet port

(C) 0.50 foot port
(D) 1.00 foot port
(Rig Move). If the contents of the No.7 drill water tank are discharged, what would be the new TCG?
o
o
(A) -0.15 foot

(B) 0.00 foot
(C) 0.15 foot
(D) 0.29 foot
4999. (2.5.10.5A-3) An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. The drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is
skidded 10.0 feet to starboard. The change in TCG is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 9.00 feet starboard

(D) 1.00 foot starboard

Deck General
September 2015
5000. (2.5.10.2A-1) The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet. It discharges 216.43
kips of weight. What is the new draft?
o
o
o

(B) 10.7 feet
(C) 10.3 feet
5001. (2.5.10.5A-41) A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 long tons and a KG of 52 feet
discharges 300 long tons of barite from P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. What is the change
in KG?
o
o
(A) 0.79 foot downward

(B) 1.00 foot downward
5002. (2.5.10.5A-7) A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a true mean draft
(draft at LCF) of 10 feet. If the trim is 3 feet by the stern, what is the draft at the stern?
o
o
(A) 8.0 feet

(B) 9.0 feet
(C) 11.0 feet
(D) 12.0 feet
o
o
o
(A) 7,990 foot-kips increase

(B) 7,990 foot-kips decrease
(C) 8,502 foot-kips decrease
(D) 16,041 foot-kips decrease
5004. (2.5.10.5A-10) A jack-up is trimmed six inches by the bow. The moment required to change trim
one inch is 1200 foot-kips. Transferring 200 kips of drill water from a tank with an LCG of 20 feet to a
tank with an LCG of 140 feet results in a final trim of __________.
o
o
o
(A) zero trim (level)

(B) 1 foot 2 inches by the stern
(C) 2 feet 2 inches by the stern
(D) 1 foot 8 inches by the stern

Deck General
September 2015
5005. (2.5.10.5A-13) A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at
the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the trim by the stern?
o
o
(A) 2.0 feet

(B) 2.4 feet
(C) 3.0 feet
(D) 6.0 feet
5006. (2.5.10.5A-15) A jack-up with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,350 footkips intends to transfer drill water from a tank with a TCG of 82 feet to a tank with a TCG of 18 feet.
How much weight should be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.0 to 11.5 feet?
o
o
o
(A) 67.5 kips

(B) 81.0 kips
(C) 126.6 kips
(D) 253.1 kips
5007. (2.5.10.5A-18) A jack-up displacing 350,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per
cubic foot) weighs __________.
o
o
(A) 21,841 kips

(B) 10,000 kips
(C) 22,400 kips
(D) 18,169 kips
5008. (2.5.10.5A-21) A floating jack-up with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 108 feet aft of
frame zero (AFO). If 400 kips are loaded at 120 feet AFO and 800 kips are loaded 150 feet AF0,
what is the new LCG?
o
o
(A) 100.0 feet

(B) 109.2 feet
(C) 110.4 feet
(D) 119.2 feet
5009. (2.5.10.5A-22) A floating jack-up with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 106 feet aft of
frame zero (AF0). If 200 short tons are loaded at 20 feet AF0 and 400 short tons are loaded 149 feet
AF0, what is the new LCG?
o
o
o
(A) 105.5 feet

(B) 106.0 feet
(C) 108.3 feet
(D) 111.8 feet

Deck General
September 2015
5010. (2.5.10.5A-26) How much drill water should be transferred from tanks 23 and 24 to tank 1 to level
the COASTAL DRILLER, in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, if the total longitudinal moments are
1,700,000 ft-kips?
o
o
o
(A) 438 kips

(B) 451 kips
(C) 521 kips
(D) 537 kips
5011. (2.5.10.5A-31) What is the increase in transverse free surface moments for the COASTAL
DRILLER if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank 23 to an empty drill water
tank 6?
o
o
o
(A) 9,172 foot-kips

(B) 3,914 foot-kips
(C) 2,109 foot-kips
(D) 932 foot-kips
Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal moments with
this transfer?
o
o
o
(A) 565 ft-kips

(B) 900 ft-kips
(C) 2603 ft-kips
(D) 3168 ft-kips
5013. (2.5.10.5A-37) While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form 3 (drilling),
all of the casing is discharged. What is the change in LCG?
o
o
(A) 1.98 feet forward

(B) 1.95 feet forward
(C) 0.02 foot forward
(D) 0.02 foot aft

Deck General
September 2015
Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal free surface
moments?
o
o
(A) 1492 ft-kips increase

(B) 1034 ft-kips increase
(C) 674 ft-kips increase
(D) 404 ft-kips increase
5015. (2.5.10.2A-2) The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at the load line draft. It discharges 279.93
kips of weight. The new draft is __________.
o
o
(A) 10.88 feet

(B) 10.0 feet
(D) 10.8 feet
5016. (2.5.10.2A-3) The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10.0 feet. It loads 216.43 kips of
weight aboard. What is the new draft?
o
o
o
(A) 10.2 feet

5017. (2.5.10.2A-5) For a floating MODU, true mean draft is always the __________.
o
o
o
(A) draft corresponding to the calculated displacement

(B) mean of the calculated drafts
(C) average of the observed drafts
(D) draft at the center of flotation
5018. (2.5.10.2A-6) The number of kips necessary to change the true mean draft of a MODU one inch
is known as __________.
o
o
o
(A) KPI
(B) MT1 inch
(C) MH1 inch
(D) KMD

Deck General
September 2015
results in a port draft of 11 feet. What is the heel?
o
o
o
(A) 2 feet to port

(B) 1 foot to port
(C) 1 foot to starboard
(D) 2 feet to starboard
5020. (2.5.10.2A-11) For a MODU with list, a decrease in GM will cause the angle of inclination to
__________.
o
o
o
(A) decrease
(B) increase
(C) remain constant
(D) stabilize at an angle of loll
(Rig Move). If the contents of the four bulk tanks are back-loaded to a supply boat, what would be
the new draft?
o
o
(A) 7.16 feet

(B) 10.31 feet
(C) 10.57 feet
(D) 11.19 feet
Forward 69'-09"; and Starboard Aft 73'-09". What is the list?
o
o
(A) -1.0 foot

(B) -2.5 feet
(C) -5.0 feet
(D) -10.0 feet
5023. (2.5.10.2A-25) For a MODU with list, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to
__________.
o
o
o

(B) increase
(C) remain constant
(D) decrease

Deck General
September 2015
5024. (2.5.10.2A-33) Aboard a MODU, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center
of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.
o
o
o
(A) inclining moment

(B) transverse moment
(C) righting moment
(D) LCG
5025. (2.5.10.2B-2) The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 38 feet aft of transom and 6 feet
to starboard of the centerline. With the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the
maximum allowable hook load is __________.
o
o
(A) 1000 kips

(B) 445 kips
(C) 424 kips
(D) 346 kips
5026. (2.5.10.2B-4) Considering the changes to lightweight shown in section 5 of the COASTAL
DRILLER Manual, the maximum allowable combination of hook, rotary, and setback load for the
COASTAL DRILLER with the rotary located 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to port of the
centerline is __________.
o
o
(A) 1000 kips

(B) 875 kips
(C) 854 kips
(D) 755 kips
5027. (2.5.10.2B-7) What is the maximum permitted hook load for the COASTAL DRILLER when 450
kips are in the setback and no other loads are on the cantilever?
o
o
o
(A) 450 kips

(B) 529 kips
(C) 550 kips
(D) 750 kips

Deck General
September 2015
5028. (2.5.10.2B-8) Considering the lightweight changes to the COASTAL DRILLER, what is the
maximum permitted hook load permitted when 450 kips are in the setback and 200 kips are in the
cantilever pipe rack?
o
o
o
(A) 350 kips

(B) 529 kips
(C) 550 kips
(D) 750 kips
5029. (2.5.10.2B-9) On the COASTAL DRILLER, hook load includes the weight of the __________.
o
o
o
(A) drill string

(B) conductor tension
(C) rotary load
(D) setback load
5030. (2.5.10.2B-12) The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 36 feet aft of the transom and 6
feet to starboard of the centerline. The hook load is 300 kips. Considering the changes to lightweight
shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum amount of setback is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 545 kips

(B) 450 kips
(C) 245 kips
(D) 224 kips
5031. (2.5.10.2C-1) The maximum allowable KG for the COASTAL DRILLER in normal transit at a draft
of 10.5 feet is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 40 feet
(B) 45 feet
(C) 55 feet
(D) 65 feet
5032. (2.5.10.2C-10) The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds less than 70 knots, has a draft of
10 feet 8 inches. The VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 24,000 ft-kips.
The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.
o
o
(A) -2.3 feet

(B) 0.0 feet
(C) 23.7 feet
(D) 26.0 feet

Deck General
September 2015
storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips and FSMT are
24,000 ft-kips. How much should the KGL be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?
o
o
o
(A) 23.04 feet

(B) 1.96 feet
(C) 0.62 foot
(D) 0.00 feet
storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 546,462 ft-kips, FSML are 18,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are
32,000 ft-kips. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the
maximum allowable KG criteria?
o
o
o
(A) 22.66 feet

(B) 2.34 feet
(C) 1.32 feet
(D) 0.00 feet
storm is predicted within 12 hours. GMT is 98.89 feet. How much should the KG corrected for free
surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?
o
o
o
(A) 3.66 feet

(B) 2.34 feet
(C) 1.32 feet
(D) 0.00 feet
5036. (2.5.10.2C-16) The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form Number 3
(Rig Move). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for the liquid variables if the entire
contents of tank 20 are transferred to tank 13?
o
o
o
(A) 2,365 ft-kips

(B) 2,244 ft-kips
(C) 2,195 ft-kips
(D) 170 ft-kips

Deck General
September 2015
(Rig Move). If the contents of 6 and 7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new height
of the longitudinal metacenter?
o
o
(A) 249.47 feet

(B) 250.16 feet
(C) 252.92 feet
(D) 253.90 feet
(Rig Move). If the contents of 6 and 7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new height
of the transverse metacenter?
o
o
(A) 134.95 feet

(B) 135.91 feet
(C) 136.38 feet
(D) 136.89 feet
5039. (2.5.10.2C-26) The height of the metacenter above the keel will vary depending on the
__________.
o
o
(A) displacement and deadweight of the drilling unit

(B) tonnage and deadweight of the drilling unit
(C) draft and beam of the drilling unit
(D) buoyancy and trim of the drilling unit
5040. (2.5.10.2C-27) If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.
o
o
o
(A) be tender
(B) be stiff
(C) have a slow and easy motion
(D) have a tendency to yaw
5041. (2.5.10.2C-28) If the metacentric height is small, a floating MODU will __________.
o
o
o
(A) yaw
(B) be tender
(C) have a quick and rapid motion
(D) be stiff

Deck General
September 2015
5042. (2.5.10.2C-29) The natural rolling period of a drilling barge increases when __________.
o
o
o
(A) the setback is placed in the pipe racks

(B) GM increases
(C) free surfaces are reduced
(D) ice accumulates above deck
5043. (2.5.10.2C-30) The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased
__________.
o
o
(A) density of the liquid

(B) placement of the tank above the keel
(C) displacement volume of the MODU
(D) size of the surface area in the tank
5044. (2.5.10.2C-31) The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the
free liquids and the __________.
o
o
o
(A) displacement of the MODU

(B) volume of liquid in the tank
(C) height of the center of gravity of the MODU
(D) location of the tank in the MODU
5045. (2.5.10.2C-33) On a semisubmersible drilling unit, increasing riser tension reduces __________.
o
o
o
(A) GM
(B) list
(C) KG
(D) KM
5046. (2.5.10.2C-34) In the COASTAL DRILLER, VCG is obtained from the sum of the vertical
o
o
o
(A) subtracting the sum of the weights

(B) dividing by the sum of the weights
(C) multiplying by the sum of the weights
(D) adding the sum of the weights

Deck General
September 2015
5047. (2.5.10.2C-35) What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments,
permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if the winds are less than 70 knots?
o
o
o

(D) 1,059,885 foot-tons
5048. (2.5.8.6-1) On the DEEP DRILLER, to pump bilge water out of the starboard pump room using
both bilge pumps, it is necessary to open valves __________.
o
o
o
(A) 39 and 40
(B) 41 and 42
(C) 39, 40, 41, 42, 26, and 28
(D) 39, 40, 41, and 42
5049. (2.5.8.6-3) Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the bilge pumps take suction from the pump rooms,
cofferdam, void area, access trunk, and __________.
o
o
o
(A) primary salt-water service tank

(B) backup drill water tank
(C) forward and after column chain lockers
(D) center column chain lockers
5050. (2.5.8.6-4) On the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to supplement the bilge
pumps. Its normal pumping rate is __________.
o
o

5051. (2.5.8.6-5) While at operating draft, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room.
Both port bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge
pumps with the __________.
o
o
(A) port saltwater service pump

(B) port ballast pump
(C) port drill water pump

Deck General
September 2015
5052. (2.5.8.6-6) While in transit, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the starboard pump room.
Both starboard bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the
performance of the bilge pumps by using the __________.
o
o
o
(A) starboard drill water pump

(B) starboard ballast pump
(C) port ballast pump and crossover system
(D) starboard saltwater service pump
5053. (2.5.8.6-7) While in transit, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room. Both port
bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge pumps by
using the __________.
o
o
o
(A) port saltwater service pump

(B) port drill water pump
(C) starboard ballast pump
5054. (2.5.8.6-9) What pump may be used to supplement the bilge pump on the DEEP DRILLER?
o
o
o
(A) Drill water

(B) No.2 Ballast
(C) No.1 Ballast
(D) Salt-Water Service
5055. (2.5.8.6-10) On the DEEP DRILLER, to use the drill water pump to supplement the bilge pumps,
it is necessary to open valves 28 and __________.
o
o
o
(A) 29
(B) 25
(C) 48
(D) 26
5056. (2.5.8.6-11) Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, to use the drill water pump to supplement the bilge
pumps, it is necessary to open valves 26 and __________.
o
o
(A) 41
(B) 29
(C) 28
(D) 25

Deck General
September 2015
5057. (2.5.8.6-12) Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water
out of the port pump room using both bilge pumps is valve __________.
o
o
o
(A) 26
(B) 28
(C) 36
(D) 41
5058. (2.5.8.6-13) Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water
out of the port pump room using the number 1 bilge pump is valve __________.
o
o
(A) 28
(B) 36
(C) 41
(D) 42
5059. (2.5.8.6-14) The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the starboard pump room while in
transit. If both starboard bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may use __________.
o
o
o
(A) starboard ballast pumps

(B) starboard saltwater service pump
(C) port ballast pumps and crossover system
(D) starboard drill water pump
5060. (2.5.8.6-16) How many independent bilge systems is the COASTAL DRILLER equipped with?
o
o
o
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
5061. (2.5.8.6-17) On the COASTAL DRILLER, the level of water in each of two pump bilge pits is
monitored by hydrostatic alarm switches connected to a remote panel located in the __________.
o
o
o
(A) OIM's quarters

(B) OIM's office
(C) SCR room
(D) control house

Deck General
September 2015
5062. (2.5.8.6-18) On the COASTAL DRILLER, the level of water in each of two pump bilge pits is
monitored by __________.
o
o
o
(A) OSS units (overflow sequence selector units)

(B) low and high level alarms
(C) visual sight gages
(D) hydrostatic alarm switches
5063. (2.5.8.6-19) On the machinery deck of the COASTAL DRILLER, each watertight compartment
has at least one sump valve that can be remotely operated from the __________.
o
o
o
(A) bilge pit

(B) OIM's office
(C) OIM's quarters
(D) control house
5064. (2.5.8.6-20) On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case one of the two bilge pits is flooded, the other
can operate through a(n)__________.
o
o
(A) separate bilge discharge manifold

(B) six-inch line connected to the independent isolation valves to the sea chest
(C) crossover arrangement
(D) independent scavenger manifold
5065. (2.5.8.6-21) On the COASTAL DRILLER, the start/stop station for the bilge pumps is located
__________.
o
o
o
(A) in the OIM's office

(B) near the bilge pits
(C) in the control house
(D) in the MCC
5066. (2.5.8.6-22) On the COASTAL DRILLER, the bilge discharge is normally through the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) skimmer tank

(B) sump valves
(C) dump valves
(D) overboard discharge

Deck General
September 2015
5067. (2.5.8.10-2) The effect of ocean currents is usually more evident on a rig being towed than on a
tug navigating independently because the __________.
o
o
o

(B) current will offset the rig
(C) tow line catches the current
(D) speed of the tow is less
5068. (2.5.8.10-7) In towing it is desirable for the tug and the MODU to ride wave crests simultaneously
because __________.
o
o
o
(A) towing speed is improved

(B) the catenary of the tow line is reduced
(C) the MODU is more visible from the tug
(D) shock loading on the tow line is reduced
5069. (2.5.8.10-3) If a MODU under tow starts jumping on its tow line, the most appropriate action to
alleviate the condition is to __________.
o
o
(A) slow down

(B) change course
(C) adjust tow line length
(D) heave to
5070. (2.5.8.10-4) With a rig in tow, there is immediate danger to the tug in the event of the
__________.
o
o
o
(A) tow line parting

(B) rig broaching
(C) bridle twisting
(D) tug losing power
5071. (2.5.8.10-5) In selecting a tug for moving a MODU, consideration should be given to its
__________.
o
o
o
(A) indicated horsepower, bollard pull, and displacement

(B) indicated horsepower, maneuverability, and displacement
(C) indicated horsepower, bollard pull, and maneuverability
(D) bollard pull, displacement, and maneuverability

Deck General
September 2015
5072. (2.5.8.10-6) A semisubmersible rig under tow should be ballasted down if __________.
o
o
o
(A) period of roll exceeds 12 seconds

(B) forward progress is halted by head wind
(C) water begins to break over the pontoons
(D) motion begins to be excessive
5073. (2.5.8.10-8) The type of shackle used in making up tow lines to a MODU should be __________.
o
o
o
(A) anchor
(B) screw pin
(C) chain
(D) safety
5074. (2.5.8.10-9) When a semisubmersible rig under tow veers from side to side on its tow line, the
best way of controlling the action is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) trim by the stern

(B) trim by the bow
(C) play out stern anchor chain
5075. (2.5.8.10-10) The condition where a MODU on the end of a tow line is riding a wave crest at the
same time as its tug rides a wave crest is known as riding in __________.
o
o
o
(A) harmony
(B) synchronism
(C) check
(D) step
5076. (2.5.8.10-11) When a semisubmersible rig under tow experiences pounding on the forward
transverse brace, the surest way to alleviate the condition would be to __________.
o
o
o
(A) have the tug slow down

(B) change course
(C) adjust the length of the tow line
(D) ballast down

Deck General
September 2015
asked to __________.
o
o
o
(A) reduce speed

(C) increase speed
(D) turn into the seas
5078. (2.5.8.10-14) The COASTAL DRILLER is in ocean transit in which the winds are not expected to
exceed 70 knots. In order to meet the leg strength requirements, the tip of can (TOC) position should
be at __________.
o
o

(B) 1.20 feet
(C) 12.38 feet
(D) 60.50 feet
5079. (2.5.8.10-15) The COASTAL DRILLER, while in transit, expects the winds to increase to 75
knots. In order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements, the tip-of-can (TOC) position
should be at __________.
o
o
o

(B) 1.20 feet
(C) 12.38 feet
(D) 60.50 feet
5080. (2.5.8.10-16) While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of four seconds.
What would be the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limit of the
legs?
o
o
o
(A) 6.3 degrees

(B) 5.0 degrees
(C) 3.5 degrees
(D) 2.0 degrees
5081. (2.5.8.10-17) The motions of the COASTAL DRILLER during a normal transit when wind speeds
are less than 70 knots are limited by __________.
o
o
o
(A) leg strength

(B) stability
(C) wave heights
(D) deck edge immersion

Deck General
September 2015
5082. (2.5.8.10-18) Curve A in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual,
shows the operating limits during severe storm conditions during transit based on __________.
o
o
o
(A) environmental load

(B) stability and leg strength
(C) variable load
(D) load line
5083. (2.5.8.10-19) Curve B in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual,
shows the operating limits during normal transit based on __________.
o
o
o
(A) load line

(B) variable load
(D) leg strength
5084. (2.5.8.11-1) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 5
(Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing starboard list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in
1S is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2S and 3S, the inclination slowly decreases. The
increase in the transverse free surface corrections is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1.25 feet

(B) 0.90 foot
(C) 0.84 foot
(D) 0.22 foot
5085. (2.5.8.11-2) After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only
cause of this list must be a flooded leg. To keep adequate stability you should __________.
o
o
(A) proceed with all legs half raised to lower KG

(B) pump out all ballast to increase reserve buoyancy
(C) jack back up and ballast the vessel's high side as necessary
(D) get underway with the flooded leg ONLY half raised to reduce KG
5086. (2.5.8.11-9) If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should
FIRST __________.
o
o
o
(A) assume the shift is due to off-center loading

(B) assume the cause is environmental forces
(C) counterflood on the side opposite the list or trim
(D) determine the cause before taking countermeasures

Deck General
September 2015
5087. (2.5.8.11-3) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 5
(Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing starboard list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in
1S is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2S and 3S, the inclination slowly decreases. The
increase in the longitudinal free surface correction is __________.
o
o
(A) 1.25 feet

(B) 0.90 foot
(C) 0.83 foot
(D) 0.34 foot
cause of this list must be a flooded leg. Raising the flooded leg further would adversely affect the
boats stability by __________.
o
o
o
(A) raising the KG and increasing the draft which may put you in an unsafe operating condition
(B) causing the vessel to yaw when underway
(C) increasing the righting arm on the high side
(D) increasing GM and causing a fast roll
5089. (2.5.8.11-14) Among the possible causes of unexpected rapidly increasing inclination of the
DEEP DRILLER while on location is __________.
o
o
o
(A) consumption of on board variables

(B) flooding due to column damage
5090. (2.5.8.11-5) While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form Number 4 (Drilling), the DEEP
DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing starboard and forward inclination. The wind
and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.
o
o
o
(A) ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1S

(B) the failure of mooring lines 7 and 8
(C) the drilling crew dumping the mud
(D) the drill string breaking

Deck General
September 2015
cause of this list must be a flooded leg. The list caused by a flooded leg means your vessel has a(n)
__________.
o
o
(A) increase in the waterplane and the metacentric height

(B) negative GM (metacentric height)
(C) decrease in the GZ (righting arm)
(D) less chance of deck edge immersion
5092. (2.5.8.11-24) Among the possible causes of unexpected rapid increasing inclination of the
floating COASTAL DRILLER is __________.
o
o
(A) miscalculation of loads

(B) consumption of on board liquids
(C) flooding due to hull damage
cause of this list must be a flooded leg. Your next course of action should be to __________.
o
o
o
(A) jack the vessel back up to a safe height

(B) proceed on to your next destination since the list is unimportant
(C) notify the U. S. Coast Guard
(D) pump out all ballast to gain reserve buoyancy
DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing port and forward inclination. The wind and
waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.
o
o
o
(A) ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1P

(B) the drilling crew dumping the mud
(C) the failure of mooring lines 5 and 6
(D) the drill string breaking
DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing port and aft inclination. The wind and waves
are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.
o
o
o

(B) the drilling crew dumping the mud
(C) the drill string breaking
(D) the failure of mooring lines 2 and 3

Deck General
September 2015
DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing starboard and aft inclination. The wind and
waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.
o
o
(A) the drill string breaking

(B) the failure of mooring lines 6 and 7
(C) ballast tanks equalizing into tank 10S
(D) the drilling crew dumping the mud
5097. (2.5.8.11-12) During counterflooding to correct a severe list or trim aggravated by an off-center
load, a MODU suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side. You should __________.
o
o
o
(A) deballast from the low side

(B) continue counterflooding in the same direction
(C) continue counterflooding, but in the opposite direction
(D) immediately stop counterflooding
DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected starboard and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light.
What might have caused the inclination?
o
o
(A) Mooring lines 6 and 7 have failed.

(B) The drill string has broken.
(C) The drilling crew has dumped the mud.
(D) Ballast tanks have equalized into tank 10S.
5099. (2.5.8.11-15) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival)
when an unexpected slowly increasing port list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in C1P is found.
By deballasting from ballast tanks 2P and 3P, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the
transverse free surface correction is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 1.25 feet

(B) 0.82 foot
(C) 0.34 foot
(D) 0.18 foot

Deck General
September 2015
5100. (2.5.8.11-16) The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival),
when an unexpected, slowly increasing port list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in C1P is found.
By deballasting from ballast tanks 2P and 3P, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the
longitudinal free surface correction is __________.
o
o
o
(A) 0.90 foot

(B) 0.83 foot
(C) 0.57 foot
(D) 0.49 foot
DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected forward inclination. The wind and waves are light from the
starboard bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.
o
o
o
(A) failure of mooring lines 2 and 3

(B) the drill string has broken
(C) drilling crew has dumped the mud
(D) ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1P
DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to port and aft. Strong winds and high waves are
from the starboard bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.
o
o
o

(B) failure of mooring lines 3 or 4
(C) leak in ballast tank 9P
(D) failure of mooring lines 1 or 2
DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to starboard and aft. Strong wind and high waves
are on the port bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.
o
o
o
(A) ballast tanks equalizing into tank 10S

(B) leak in ballast tank 9P
(C) failure of mooring lines 5 or 6
(D) failure of mooring lines 1 or 2

Deck General
September 2015
5104. (2.5.8.11-21) When extracting the legs from the soil, the hull of the COASTAL DRILLER may be
pulled down until the draft is __________.
o
o
o
(A) one foot deeper than calculated afloat draft

(B) one foot less than maximum load line draft
(C) at the maximum load line draft
(D) one foot deeper than maximum load line draft
5105. (2.5.8.11-22) On the COASTAL DRILLER, a noticeable increase in the level indicator while
extracting the legs from the soil indicates __________.
o
o
o
(A) one or two legs are stuck

(B) the legs are being extracted through a punch-through soil layer
(C) a punch-through is occurring
(D) the legs are free
5106. (2.5.8.11-23) Among the possible causes of unexpected constant inclination of the floating
COASTAL DRILLER is __________.
o
o
(A) liquid transfer through open valves

(B) flooding due to hull damage
(D) consumption of on board liquids
5107. (2.5.8.11-25) The COASTAL DRILLER is operating with a wave clearance of about 20 feet. The
out-of-level alarm sounds and the unit is found to be inclined 0.5 degree bow down. The
recommended course of action is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) jack the hull down on the aft two legs

(B) transfer weight, such as drill water, toward the stern
(C) prepare to take action in case inclination increases
(D) jack the hull up on the bow leg
5108. (2.5.8.11-26) The COASTAL DRILLER, while operating with minimal wave clearance, is inclined
0.5 degrees bow down. Lowering the stern may place the hull in the wave action. The recommended
course of action is to __________.
o
o
o
(A) jack the hull down on the aft two legs

(B) jack the hull up on the bow leg
(C) transfer weight, such as drill water, toward the stern
(D) prepare to take action in case inclination increases

Deck General August 2015

Enviado por

Dados do documento

Descrição original:

Direitos autorais

Formatos disponíveis

Compartilhar este documento

Compartilhar ou incorporar documento

Opções de compartilhamento

Você considera este documento útil?

Este conteúdo é inapropriado?

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

Deck General August 2015

Enviado por

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

United State Coast Guard

National Maritime Center

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

(A) The jib sheet

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

(2.11.1.2B-6) Before a Master relieves a Pilot of the conn, the __________.

(A) Master should agree to sign a release of liability form

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

(2.1.1-13) To prevent a wooden hull from leaking you caulk it __________.

(A) after dry docking, while the hull is moist

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

(A) Salt water - Intermediate

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

United State Coast Guard

(A) FWD 13'-03 5/8", AFT 15'-03 1/8"

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

(2.1.4-15) A stay is __________.

(A) standing rigging

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

(2.11.1.2-3) Bilge soundings indicate __________.

(A) the amount of condensation in the hold

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

(A) Luffed sails

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

(A) 1010 tons each

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

United State Coast Guard

(A) 785 tons each

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

(A) becomes less

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

(A) quickly above then quickly below the horizon

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

(A) 124 feet

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

United State Coast Guard

(A) Shut down any cargo transfer that's in progress.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

(A) Marine Weather Log

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

18. (2.1.1-39) You can slow or stop a sailing vessel by __________.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

(A) automatic gyro

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

(A) It will remain unchanged

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

United State Coast Guard

(A) FWD 18'-08", AFT 21'-06"

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

22. (2.1.4-10) A sloop is a sailing vessel with __________.

(A) one mast

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

(A) flood current

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

(A) When sailing with the wind aft

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

25. (2.1.4-27) Which statement is TRUE concerning the gooseneck?

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

United State Coast Guard

(A) When it first takes the shape of an airfoil

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

(A) 1550 tons