Electrotehnica BREV RASP PDF

1) Cleaning the copper foil of a PC board prior to soldering:
is only necessary if the foil appears dirty or dull.

is only necessary if a rosin based flux is not used.
is essential in all instances.
both a and b
2) When soldering on a PC board, the solder is always applied to:
the tip of the soldering iron only.
both the tip of the soldering iron and the component lead.
the junction of the lead and the terminal pad area.
the laminate.
3) For mass production of printed circuit boards, the type of printing process most
often used is:
the photo-etch method.
hand printing.
the print-and-etch technique.
machine printing.
4) When drilling lead access holes in a PC board:
moderate pressure should be applied to the drill.
heavy pressure should be applied to the drill.
the drill must be of a large enough diameter to completely remove the terminal pad copper
foil.
both a and c
5) Large components that require considerable mounting space on a PC board are
usually
integrated on to the board with very small components that require little space.
mounted at 90? to all other components.
shielded to prevent electrical interference.
left off the board completely and hand-wired.
6) A properly-soldered PC board connection will:
Have low resistance.
appear shiny.
have no pin holes.
all of these
7) The most commonly-used solder for soldering component leads to a PC board
is:
20/80 bar solder.
40/40 solid wire solder.
60/40 resin-core wire solder.
50/50 acid-core wire solder.
8) Resist is any material which:
acts like a resistor.
offers resistance to the flow of current in a circuit.
will resist the chemical reaction used to etch copper.
all of these
9) The insulating material on a printed circuit board is called:
the laminate.
the dielectric.
the cladding.
the foil.
10) The foil pattern layout for a PC board shows:
all the interconnecting terminal strip connections.
the exact location of all the component parts.
all necessary conductor routing required for the working circuit.
all of these
11) Sensors are used to detect the presence of and/or measure:
temperature.
position.
light.
all of these
12) In a variable-speed drive for a three-phase motor, which of the following circuits changes
the DC power back to an adjustable frequency AC output?
rectifier
inverter
regulator
modulator
13) Which of the following is not a characteristic of AC motors?
high torque at low speed
lower cost
less maintenance required
physically smaller than DC motors of the same horsepower
14) Motor drive systems are used:
with AC or DC motors.
when operator-controlled variance of speed is required.
to maintain steady motor speed in spite of load fluctuations.
all of these
15) Which of the following applies to stopping a motor by electronically reversing the motor
while it is still running in the forward direction?
dynamic braking
regenerative braking
plugging
jogging
16) Which of the following starters increases the voltage gradually as the motor starts?
primary-resistance starter
autotransformer starter
wye-delta starter
solid-state starter
17) Technician A says a reduced-voltage starter is designed to apply full line voltage to the
motor upon starting. Technician B says reduced-voltage starting produces a lower starting
torque. Who is correct?
Technician A only
Technician B only
both Technician A and Technician B
neither Technician A nor Technician B
18) Which of the following is designed to provide machine operation protection by requiring the
motor to be restarted after a power failure?
phase-reversal protection
ground-fault protection
low-voltage protection
low-voltage release
19) A contactor differs from a relay in that:
it operates on a different principle.
its contacts can interrupt large motor currents.
gravity and spring tension open contacts.
all of these
20) The purpose of overload protection on a motor is to protect:
the motor from sustained overcurrents.
the wire from high currents.
the motor from sustained over voltage.
the motor from short circuits.
21) The current drawn by a motor is:

low on starting.
high on starting.
an accurate measurement of motor load.
both b and c
22) Solid-state relays use ____ as switching devices.
semiconductors
coils
contacts
permanent magnets
23) Which of the following is not an advantage of solid-state relays over electromechanical
relays?
longer life
less electromagnetic interference generated
less susceptible to damage from voltage and current spikes
faster response time
24) Relays with sets of contacts, which are closed by some type of magnetic effect, are called:
electromechanical relays.
solid-state relays.
hybrid relays.
magnetic relays.
25) Relays with no contacts, which are switched entirely by electronic devices, are called:
electromechanical relays.
solid-state relays.
hybrid relays.
magnetic relays.
26) A particular relay is rated as follows: coil-9 V DC, 200 mA; contacts-120 V AC, 10 A. The
resistance of the coil would be:
45 .
24 .
6,000 .
2,400 .
27) For an electromechanical relay, the amount of voltage and current required to energize the
relay coil is:
the same when connected on an AC or a DC source.
the same as the voltage and current ratings of the contacts.
more than what is required to de-energize the coil
less than what is required to de-energize the coil.
28) Which of the following is not a common application for a relay?
change alternating current to direct current

control a 120-V lighting circuit with a 24-V control circuit
control several switching operations by a single separate current
switch a high-current motor circuit ON and OFF with a low current control circuit
29) A particular relay is rated as follows: coil-9V DC, 200 mA: contacts-120 V AC, 10 A. What
maximum number of 100-W, 120-V light bulbs could be safely controlled by this relay?
2
4
5
12
30) An electromechanical relay is basically:
an electromagnet used to switch contacts.
an electromagnet used to operate motors.
an electronic circuit used to control motors.
a device designed to relay information.
31) Relays are primarily used to switch currents in the:
control circuit.
load circuit.
power-distribution circuit.
live circuit.
32) Which of the following can be used to provide information about the shape of a voltage
waveform?
oscilloscope
multimeter
logic probe
neon test light
33) The type of screwdriver designed for use on screws with an "X-shaped" insert in their heads
is:
a Phillips screwdriver
a Robertson screwdriver.
a standard screwdriver.
a hexagon screwdriver.
34) The current flow in a branch circuit is to be checked to determine if it is within the rated
capacity of the circuit. The instrument best suited for this test would be:
a multimeter.
a clip-on ammeter
a neon test light.
either b or c
35) A 555 Timer IC is connected as a free-running oscillator. How can the output frequency be
increased?
decrease the capacitance of the timing capacitor
increase the resistance of the timing resistors
increase the capacitance of the timing capacitor
decrease the input signal frequency
36) Technician A says the duty cycle of a pulse waveform is the percentage of the time the
output is high. Technician B says the duty cycle of a pulse waveform is found by dividing the
total ON time by the total OFF. Who is correct?
Technician A only
Technician B only
37) An IC voltage comparator is basically:
an oscillator operated with a positive feedback circuit.
an oscillator circuit without a feedback circuit.
an op-amp operated with a negative feedback circuit.
an op-amp operated without a feedback circuit.
38) The output power rating of an op-amp:

varies with the type of op-amp used.
is unlimited.
if exceeded, can damage the op-amp by overheating.
both a and c
39) The operational amplifier (op-amp) is:
a high-gain amplifier.
a type of analog IC.
used to amplify AC or DC signals.
all of these
40) Analog ICs contain:
amplifying-type circuitry.
resistors, capacitors, and transistors.
resistors, capacitors, and diodes.
switch-type circuitry.
41) The use of ICs:
is limited because of their high cost.
permits very complex circuits to have small physical dimensions.
is common in high-current circuits.
is common in high-voltage circuits.
42) Digital ICs contain:
amplifying-type circuitry.
resistors, capacitors, and transistors.
resistors, capacitors, and diodes.
switch-type circuitry.
43) Binary counters are usually constructed using XOR gates.
True
False
44) An integrated circuit:
is a series of transistors mounted within a silicon chip.
refers to separately-produced components wired together with conductors to produce a
complete circuit.
is a complete electronic circuit with all components and interconnecting wiring
contained within a single chip of silicon.
is a series of separately-produced components wired within a printed circuit board.

45) Which of the following IC packages is extremely vulnerable to damage from static
electricity?
DIP
digital
analog
MOS
46) In a D flip-flop, the Q output is the same as the D input one clock pulse later.
True
False
47) Asynchronous is the term used to designate control by a clock pulse.
True
False
48) The primary function of a combinational logic circuit is to make decisions.
True
False
49) The only true mathematical operation performed by a computer is division.
True
False
50) The state of a flip-flop is determined by observing its Q output.
True
False
51) To express a number in binary requires fewer digits than in the decimal system.
True
False
52) Most digital logic circuits are constructed using integrated circuits.
True
False
53) Combinational logic circuits have no memory.

True
False
54) Word processing is a type of computer applications software.
True
False
55) In any number system, the position of a digit that represents part of the number has a
weighted value associated with it.
True
False
56) The microprocessor uses only analog signals.
True
False
57) Types of output devices include instrumental displays and actuators.
True
False
58) MS-DOS is an example of a programming language.
True
False
59) All computers are able to get data into and out of memory at approximately the same speed.
True
False
60) The input/output provisions for microprocessor-based systems are all basically the same.
True
False
61) The computing power of a computer is determined by its wattage rating.
True
False
62) Computers are capable of storing large amounts of data.

True
False
63) Nonvolatile memory loses all its information when power is removed.
True
False
64) A computer is basically a digital electronic system.
True
False
65) Which of the listed instruments can be best used to locate a grounded field coil in a
synchronous motor?
Frequency meter
Megohmmeter
Voltmeter
Multimeter
66) A capacitor discolored due to excessive heat should be :
calibrated
replaced
cooled
soldered
67) Which of the electrical properties listed will always be the same for each component in a
parallel circuit?
Impedance
Current
Resistance
Voltage
68) Basically, a magnetic amplifier is a saturable reactor with the addition of :
AC to the bias winding
variable capacitance to all windings
eddy current protectors
a rectifier in the load circuit

69) Which of the procedures listed could result in damaging a transistor beyond repair?
Applying incorrect polarity to the collector circuit.
Applying excessive voltage to the input circuit.
Careless soldering which would overheat the transistor.
All of the above.
70) A switchboard, for a AC electrical distribution system, will be provided with which of the
following components?
Frequency meter.
Ammeter
Voltmeter
All of the above
71) The sub-multiple prefix 'nano' (n) means :
thousandth (10 to the -3rd power)
millionth (10 to the -6th power)
billionth (10 to the -9th power)
trillionth (10 to the -12th power)
72) A suspected 'open' in a motor field can be tested by using a/an :
potentiometer
ohmmeter
wattmeter
ammeter
73) Possible phase relationships between voltage and current in an alternating current circuit
include which of the following conditions?
Current and voltage may be in phase.
Current may lead the voltage.
Current may lag the voltage.
All of the above.
74) Basic operating characteristics of the operational amplifier such as gain and stability are the
function of its :
differential input stage
power output stage
feedback circuit
supply voltages
75) Which of the following actions can be carried out in order to prevent thermal runaway in a
transistor?
Increase the current through the collector-base junction.
Install a heat sink.
Shift the "Q" point to increase collector current.
Increase the potential difference between the emitter and the base.
76) In order to check the performance of a transistor removed from its circuit, the instrument to
be used should be a/an :
voltmeter or transistor tester
impedance meter
ohmmeter or transistor tester
sensitive potentiometer
77) When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance, current leakage along the
surface of the insulation is indicated by the megohmmeter's pointer :
dipping toward zero then raising slowly
continually rising as test voltage is applied
kicking slightly down scale as voltage is applied
fluctuating around a constant resistance reading
78) The resistance of a conductor varies :
directly as its length and inversely as its cross-sectional area
inversely as its length and directly as its cross-sectional area
directly as its length and directly as its cross-sectional area
inversely as its length and inversely as its cross-sectional area
79) To provide its unique characteristics to analog circuits, the operational amplifier is made up
of a/an :
voltage amp, current amp and output amp

input amp, power amp and output amp
scaling amp, power amp and voltage amp
differential amp, voltage amp and output amp
80) When replacing a power transistor fitted with a heat sink in a circuit, a coating of silicone
grease is applied between the transistor case and the heat sink. This is done to :
lubricate the transistor
lubricate the heat sink
aid in the removal of the heat sink
provide maximum heat transfer
81) A capacitor can be tested using a megohmmeter or an ohmmeter. If the meter is connected to
a shorted capacitor, the meter pointer should :
immediately swing to the maximum resistance value for the capacitor
first swing quickly to 'zero', then gradually move up the scale as the capacitor charges
immediately deflect to and remain at zero
immediately swing to a high reading and then gradually decrease
82) One feature of the operational amplifier is that it can have :
up to ten outputs
binary coded decimal inputs
several hundred amps at the output
inverting and non-inverting inputs
83) A signal derived from a controlled function and returned to the initiating point is called a/an
:
monitoring signal
inverse signal
reverse signal
feedback signal
84) A semiconductor is a material with a :
conductivity higher than a normal conductor
conductivity higher than a normal insulator
high conductivity at low temperatures

low conductivity at high temperatures
85) A temperature instrumentation system for an engine room console consists of a resistance
temperature detector (RTD), a measuring bridge circuit, and a meter (or alarm circuit).Which of
the following statements is true concerning the measuring bridge circuit :
The input voltage varies in a linear fashion with temperature.
The voltage across the center of the resistance bridge is always constant.
The resistance bridge is said to be balanced when its output voltage is zero.
The input voltage of the resistance bridge is the constant temperature signal.
86) Which of the following expresses the relationship of the input and output frequencies in a
full wave rectifier?
The output frequency is the same as input frequency.
The output frequency is one-half the input frequency.
The output frequency is twice the input frequency.
The output frequency is four times the input frequency.
87) The total resistance of a parallel circuit is always :
larger than the greatest branch resistance
smaller than the lowest branch resistance
equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances
one-half the sum of the individual branch resistances
88) Reversing the current flow through a coil will :
reduce the amount of flux produced
have no effect on the eddy currents produced
reduce the power consumed
reverse its two-pole field
89) The schematic symbol for an operational amplifier in an analog circuit is a :
circle
square
trapezoid
triangle
90) Capacitors are used on the output of the power supply in today's consoles to :
filter out 'ripple'
prevent overloads
act as a permanent load
decrease the average value of the output voltage
91) Operational amplifiers, used primarily in analog circuits, are characterized by :
high input impedance, high gain and low output impedance
high input impedance, high gain and high output impedance
low input impedance, low gain and high output impedance
low input impedance, high gain and low output impedance
92) Which of the listed conditions describes the effect on intrinsic semiconductor operation as a
result of a temperature increase?
Additional heat sinks will be required
Conductivity will increase
Conductivity will decrease
Resistivity will increase
93) In electronic circuits, DC voltages can be positive (+) or negative (-) when measured with
respect to the :
printed circuit board 'common' trace
chassis, console frame or hull 'ground'
analogue or digital circuitry 'common' bus
all of the above
94) In electronic circuitry, the abbreviation 'PCB' commonly means ______________.
pulse coded binary
printed circuit board
poly-coated braid
personal computer bits
95) In a series circuit, which value will remain unchanged at all places in the circuit?
Voltage
Current
Resistance
Inductance
96) Most conducting materials such as copper, aluminum, iron, nickel, and tungsten :
increase in resistance with increased temperature
increase in resistance with decreased temperature
decrease in resistance with increased temperature
increase in conductance with increased temperature
97) The process, whereby electrons gain sufficient energy to be released from the surface of a
thin, heated metal plate, is known as :
photo electric emission
secondary emission
thermionic emission
regressive emission
98) The basic control action of a magnetic amplifier depends upon :
variations in the load capacitance
changes in inductance
type of core material
construction of the core
99) A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is a solid state device used to change :
DC to AC and control relatively low load current
AC to DC and control relatively high load current
DC to AC and control relatively high load current
AC to DC and control relatively low load current
100) AC circuits develop resistance, inductance, and capacitance. The inductive reactance of a
circuit is expressed in :
ohms
mhos
henrys
farads
101) The purpose of a heat sink, as frequently used with transistors, is to :
prevent excessive temperature rise

compensate for excessive doping
increase the reverse current
decrease the forward current
102) The combined effect of inductive reactance, capacitive reactance, and resistance in an AC
series circuit is known as :
reactance
total reactance
impedance
resonance
103) In a DC series circuit, all the conductors have the same :
power expended in them
voltage drop across them
resistance to current flow
current passing through them
104) The multiple prefix 'kilo' means :
thousand (10 to the 3rd power)
million (10 to the 6th power)
billion (10 to the 9th power)
trillion (10 to the 12 power)
105) An adjustable resistor, whose resistance can be changed without opening the circuit in
which it is connected, is called a :
bleeder resistor
rheostat
bridge
variable shunt strip
106) Copper is often used as an electrical conductor because it :
has high resistance at low temperatures
has a highly polished surface
is able to pass current with little opposition
holds insulation together well

107) The unit of apparent power in a purely inductive circuit is called the :
kva
var
emf
watt
108) A grounded switch or cable will be indicated by a megohmmeter reading of :
infinity
'zero'
being unsteady in the high range
being unsteady in the low range
109) The multiple prefix 'giga' (G) means :
thousand (10 to the 3rd power)
million (10 to the 6th power)
billion (10 to the 9th power)
trillion (10 to the 12th power)
110) The apparent power in a purely inductive circuit is also known as :
true power
lead power
induced power
reactive power
111) The insulation resistance of electric equipment and machinery should be tested for the
lowest normal insulation values :
immediately after shutting down the machine
every time the brush rigging is adjusted
immediately after starting up the machine
every 30 days whether the machine is in use or not
112) A triac thyristor functions as a control device and is basically :
two NPN transistors in parallel with a common base lead
a diode in series with a temperature sensitive capacitor

two back-to-back SCR's with a common gate lead
a triode tube with an extra heavy grid element
113) Which of the following statements represents the important factor that must be considered
when replacing a faulty diode in the exciter rectifier assembly?
Be certain that the replacement diode is the same polarity as the one removed.
Never alter the diode alignment to cause a change in the neutral plane.
Replacement of a diode also requires balancing of the rotor with a one-piece rotor lamination
to be shrunk fit and keyed to the shaft.
The replacement diode must be dipped in varnish prior to installation to protect against
humidity.
114) Alternating current circuits develop resistance, inductance, and capacitance. The
capacitance of individual capacitors is expressed in :
ohms
mhos
henrys
farads
115) An insulation resistance test is performed on a particular piece of electric equipment. In
addition to the resistance reading, what information listed below should be entered in the
electrical log?
The maximum allowable operating temperature of the machine.
The temperature of the machine at the time the resistance reading was taken.
The normal temperature rise of the machine.
The complete nameplate data from the resistance test instrument used to obtain the reading.
116) The basic measuring unit of inductance is the :
coulomb
ohm
farad
henry
117) Alternating current circuits develop resistance, inductance and capacitance. The inductance
of a coil is expressed in :
ohms
mhos
henrys
farads
118) Which of the following statements correctly applies to transistors?
NDN and PNP are the two basic types of transistors.
The three terminals are called the emitter, base, and collector.
The emitter separates the base and collector.
The collector separates the emitter and base.
119) The type of feature afforded auxiliaries vital to the operation of propelling equipment,
where automatic restart after a voltage failure would not create a hazard, is termed :
low voltage protection
high amperage protection
low voltage release
high amperage release
120) In process control terminology values which can change without distinct increments, such
as temperature, pressure, or level are called :
binary values
digital values
bumpless values
analog values
121) Silicon diodes designed for a specific reverse breakdown voltage, become useful as an
electronic power supply voltage regulator, called :
tunnel diodes
hot-carrier diodes
compensating diodes
Zener diodes
122) Which of the listed conditions is an advantage of a PN diode over a vacuum diode?
Longer life.
No warm up time.
Less delicate.
All of the above.

123) The heating of conductors as a result of resistance in a distribution circuit causes a power
loss expressed as :
line droop
line loss
IR drop
hysteresis
124) The first requirement for logical troubleshooting of any system is the ability to :
collect all available data on a casualty
recognize normal operation
identify the probable cause of a symptom
isolate the faulty component
125) A fuse that blows often should be replaced only with a fuse of :
the recommended current and voltage rating
higher current and voltage rating
higher current and lower voltage rating
lower current and higher voltage rating
126) The Wheatstone bridge is a precision measuring instrument utilizing the principle of
changes in :
inductance
capacitance
resistance
amperage
127) Which of the listed logic gates is considered to be a BASIC building block (basic logic
gate) used in logic diagrams?
NAND
OR
NOR
All of the above.
128) Heat sinks are frequently used with :
power transistors
vacuum tubes
tunnel rectifier diodes
all of the above
129) Which of the following statements concerning analog and digital devices are correct?
The variables in digital systems are fixed quantities, and the variables in analog
systems are continuous quantities.
There are no basic differences between the two systems.
Analog devices are superior in accuracy compared to digital devices.
Operations in a digital device are performed simultaneously.
130) The device that most commonly utilizes the principle of electromagnetic induction is the :
diode
transformer
transistor
rheostat
131) Which of the listed devices is used to measure pressure and convert it to an electrical signal
?
Transducer
Reducer
Transformer
Rectifier
132) When troubleshooting electronic equipment, you should use a high impedance multimeter :
to prevent excess current flow through the meter that would damage it
for AC measurements only and a low resistance meter for DC measurements
whenever a low impedance meter is not available, regardless of the components being tested
so as not to load down the circuit and obtain erroneous voltage readings
133) The use of four diodes, in a full-wave bridge rectifier circuit, will :
provide unidirectional current to the load
allow a very high leakage current from the load
convert direct current to alternating current

offer high opposition to current in two directions
134) A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a soft iron core is the description of a
simple :
magnetic shield
electromagnet
piezoelectric device
electromagnetic domain
135) An accidental path of low resistance, allowing passage of abnormal amount of current is
known as a/an :
open circuit
short circuit
polarized ground
ground reference point
136) A resistance in a circuit of unknown value is to be tested using the voltmeter/ammeter
method. Therefore, the meters should be connected with :
both meters in series with the resistance
both meters in parallel with the resistance
the ammeter in series and the voltmeter in parallel with the resistance
the ammeter in parallel and the voltmeter in series with the resistance
137) Which of the following statements represents an application of a silicon controlled
rectifier?
To provide DC power for a main propulsion motor.
For use as a voltage reference diode.
For sensing flame in an automated burner.
To eliminate power supply hum.
138) The shunt used in an ammeter should be connected in.
series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement
parallel with the load and in series with the meter movement
parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement
series with the load and in series with the meter movement
139) External shunts are sometimes used with ammeters to:

increase meter sensitivity
permit shunts with larger resistances to be utilized
prevent damage to the meter movement from heat generated by the shunt
enable the construction of a compact meter with a virtually unlimited range
140) When troubleshooting most electronic circuits, 'loading effect' can be minimized by using a
voltmeter with a/an:
input impedance much greater than the impedance across which the voltage is being
measured
input impedance much less than the impedance across which the voltage is being measured
sensitivity of less than 1000 ohms/volt
sensitivity of more than 1000 volts/ohm
141) A semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an increase in temperature is known as a:
resistor
thermistor
diode
thermopile
142) Breakover voltage of a diac is:
never to be exceeded.
the point at which its resistance changes from high to low.
the same as avalanche voltage.
always less than 0.6 V.
143) An out-of-circuit ohmmeter check of a non-defective 24-V diac should indicate:
a high resistance reading in both directions.
a low resistance reading in both directions.
a high resistance reading in one direction and a low resistance reading in the other.
zero resistance in one direction and infinite resistance in the other.
144) The main difference between the operation of an SCR and a triac is:
an SCR produces less heat than a triac during normal operation.
an SCR is a switching device, while a triac is an amplifying device.

an SCR can be triggered into conduction in only one direction.
an SCR is made of silicon but a triac is not.
145) How is a silicon-controlled rectifier similar to a diode rectifier?
Both conduct current in one direction only.
Both can be classified as thyristors.
Both have one PN junction.
all of these
146) ____ of the positive half-cycle will be conducted to the load, depending on when the SCR
fires.
All
None
Part
all of these
147) In order for an SCR to be triggered into conduction:
the anode must be positive with respect to the cathode.
both the anode and the gate must be positive with respect to the cathode.
the anode must be negative with respect to the cathode.
the gate must be positive with respect to the cathode.
148) SCR phase-shift control circuits are used to vary the ____ between the trigger pulse and the
point in the conducting cycle when the pulse occurs.
power delivered
time relationship
different points
motor speed
149) When an SCR circuit is operated from an AC source:
the gate can be used to switch the circuit ON and OFF at all times.
once switched ON by the gate, the circuit can not be switched OFF by the gate.
the output is always DC.
both a and c
150) The main application for SCRs and triacs is:

as audio amplifiers.
as oscillators.
for control of current in the milliampere range.
for control of power in the watt or kilowatt range.
151) A silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) is normally biased so that it can be turned ON by:
momentarily increasing its forward voltage.
increasing its reverse voltage.
momentarily applying a gate current.
momentarily decreasing its gate current.
152) When a UJT switches to the ON state, current is conducted between:
collector and emitter.
base 1 and base 2.
emitter and base 1.
all of these
153) A unijunction transistor (UJT):
operates similar to a bipolar transistor.
operates similar to a field-effect transistor.
does not amplify.
none of these
154) To protect MOSFETs against static charges:
the leads are coated with a varnish insulation.
the leads are shorted together until they are placed into a circuit.
they are shipped in special static-protection packages.
both b and c
155) An insulated-gate FET will maintain a high input resistance when its gate is made:
positive only.
negative only.
positive or negative with respect to its source.

to conduct a low reverse current.
156) The input resistance of a junction FET will remain extremely high as long as the FET's
gate-to-channel junction is:
biased so that the FET is operating in the enhancement mode.
biased so that the gate current flows.
forward-biased.
reverse-biased.
157) The drain current produced by a properly biased N-channel junction FET will decrease
when the FET's gate is:
made more negative with respect to its source.
made less negative with respect to its source.
shorted to its source to reduce VGS to zero.
subjected to a potential, which decreases the size of the depletion region.
158) A bipolar-junction transistor circuit is operated so that:
a small change in base current controls a large change in collector current.
a small change in collector current controls a large change in base current.
a small change in collector current controls a large change in emitter current.
a small change in emitter current controls a large change in collector current.
159) The PNP transistor is the complement of the NPN transistor. This means:
that the two operate on different principles.
that one can be replaced by the other in a given circuit, and it will still operate.
that the two are electrically similar except that opposite current and voltages are
involved.
that one is designed to operate from an AC source and the other from a DC source.
160) Field-effect transistors (FETs) operate:
on the same principle as magnetic field devices.
with a small input voltage and current.
with a small input voltage but practically no input current.
with high input current.
161) The laser diode has a(n) ____ which is required for lasing production.
optical cavity
depletion area
hole current carriers
electron current carriers
162) The three leads of a bipolar junction transistor are:
the anode, the base, and the cathode.
the emitter, the gate, and the anode.
the base, the collector, and the emitter.
the grid, the anode, and the cathode.
163) A light-emitting diode (LED) will:
conduct a current in one direction only.
give off light when current flows through it.
consume less energy than a filament-type light bulb.
all of these
164) A diode rated for 35-V peak forward-bias voltage is used in a circuit rated for a peak
forward-bias voltage of 24 V. The diode will:
operate normally.
not operate at all.
operate normally but will not last as long.
operate, but with different characteristics.
165) Excessive reverse-bias voltage may cause a silicon diode to:
avalanche.
reverse its polarity.
turn OFF.
become an insulator.
166) When checking a diode with an ohmmeter, a good diode would be indicated by:
a low-resistance reading in both directions.
a high-resistance reading in both directions.
a zero-resistance reading in both directions.

a low-resistance reading in the one direction and a high-resistance reading in the other.
167) A PN-junction diode is said to be forward- or reverse-biased depending on:
the type of dopant used.
the polarity of the AC voltage applied across it.
the polarity of the DC voltage applied across it.
all of these
168) If a germanium crystal is doped with a material having three valence electrons:
a conductor is formed.
an insulator is formed.
a P-type semiconductor is formed.
an N-type semiconductor is formed.
169) In a PN-junction diode, the depletion region is formed by:
applying forward bias across the diode.
heating the diode to a high temperature.
electrons crossing the junction and filling the holes.
current flowing from anode to cathode.
170) If a silicon crystal is doped with a material having five valence electrons:
an insulator is formed.
its resistance goes up.
a P-type semiconductor is formed.
an N-type semiconductor is formed.
171) A covalent bond:
bonds atoms in pure semiconductor materials.
involves the sharing of outer shell electrons.
produces the equivalent of an atom with a full outer shell.
all of these
172) Digital meters measure capacitance by measuring:
the RC time constant

the charge required to charge the capacitor
the time required to charge the capacitor
the energy required to charge the capacitor
173) Digital meters measure frequency by:
measuring the slope of the rising waveform
measuring the slope of the falling waveform
measuring the period of the waveform
counting the cycles per unit of time
174) The sensitivity of a VOM is specified by its:
lowest current range
highest voltage range
Ohm/V rating
A/Ohm rating
175) Testing for minute leakage current in motors, transformers, etc. is done with:
an insulation tester
a high-voltage tester
a high-resistance tester
none of the above
176) Digital meters measure inductance by measuring:
the inductor's cemf
the RL time constant
the rate of the current rise in the inductor
the mmf produced by the inductor
177) The range of an analog ammeter is determined by:
the value of the multiplier resistor
the value of the shunt resistor
neither of the above
both of the above
178) The range of an analog voltmeter is determined by:

the value of the multiplier resistor
the value of the shunt resistor
both of the above
179) A rectifier can convert:
alternating current to pure direct current
direct current to alternating current
alternating current to pulsating direct current
all of the above
180) The meter movement most often used in analog multimeters is the:
d'Arsonval movement
electrodynamometer movement
iron-vane movement
thermocouple movement
181) The meter movement used in the analog wattmeters is the:
d'Arsonval movement
electrodynamometer movement
iron-vane movement
thermocouple movement
182) Determine the power for a dc motor that develops 3 lb-ft of torque at 2500 r/min.
0.941 hp
1.43 hp
2.22 hp
2.81 hp
183) What is the synchronous speed of an eight-pole, 240-V, 50-Hz motor?
750 r/min
1250 r/min
1600 r/min
3600 r/min
184) Which of these motors is synchronous?
permanent-capacitor
reluctance
shaded-pole
split-phase
185) Which of these motors has the least starting torque?
capacitor-starting
permanent-capacitor
shaded-pole
split-phase
186) Which of these motors has the most starting torque?
capacitor-starting
permanent-capacitor
shaded-pole
split-phase
187) With the highest class of insulation, a motor can operate at a temperature of:
105grdC
130grdC
155grdC
180grdC
188) Voltage-rating tolerance for motors is typically:
+/- 1%
+/- 5%
+/- 10%
+/-15%
189) For motor-design, ambient temperature is usually considered to be:
23grdC
30grdC
40grdC
50grdC
190) Determine Z and Phi for the circuit below.
924.6 , 59.4 grd

1.50 k , 89.0 grd
2.52 k , 39.8 grd
22.0 k , 19.9 grd
191) Determine the resonant frequency of a 270-uH inductor and a 220-pF capacitor.
17.0 kHz
540 kHz
599 kHz
653 kHz
192) Motors are not available in this size:
fhp
ihp
mihp
sfhp
193) Motors are usually not rated for:
power factor
duty cycle
service factor
temperature
194) What is the bandwidth of a circuit that is resonant at 470 kHz and has a Q of 90?
1.338 Hz
5.2 kHz
90 kHz
470 kHz
195) In a series RL circuit where XL exceeds R:
IT will lead VT
Phi will be < 45grd
PL will be > PR
none of the above
196) In a parallel RCL circuit where XL = 250 , XC = 400 , and R =300 :
IT will lead VT
Phi will be > 45grd
PT will = PR
all of the above
197) In a series RCL circuit:
both the inductive and the capacitive voltages can exceed the source voltage
the true power can equal the apparent power
angle theta can be zero
all of the above
198) In a parallel RC circuit where XC exceeds R:
IT will lead VT
Phi will be > 45grd
PC will be > PR
none of the above
199) In a series RC circuit where R exceeds XC:
IT will lag VT
Phi will be < 45grd
PC will be > PR
none of the above
200) In a parallel RL circuit where R exceeds XL:
IT will lag VT
Phi will be < 45grd

PL will be > PR
none of the above
201) A 4-Ohm resistive load connected to a source by a transformer with a 9:1 turns ratio will
appear to the source as a:
324-Ohm resistive load
324-Ohm inductive load
36-Ohm resistive load
36-Ohm inductive load
202) In a parallel RC circuit where R exceeds XC:
IT will lag VT
Phi will be < 45grd
PC will be > PR
none of the above
203) A transformer can not be overloaded:
without exceeding its power rating
while using a low PF load
unless the VA rating of one or more windings is exceeded
unless the sum of all winding currents exceeds the total current rating
204) One disadvantage of the autotransformer is:
it can only step up the voltage
it can only step down the voltage
it does not provide electrical isolation
none of the above
205) When a transformer has 100% coupling:
the turns ratio is equal to the voltage ratio
impedance matching occurs
it is 100% efficient
it has an air core
206) Hysteresis loss in a transformer is caused by:

magnetic reluctance
low permeability
residual magnetism
magnetic saturation
207) The currents induced in the core of a transformer are called:
eddy currents
hysteresis currents
secondary currents
none of the above
208) An isolation transformer:
isolates its load from the power distribution system
has equal primary and secondary voltages
is a type of power transformer
all of the above
209) Copper loss in a transformer is also called:
V^2/R loss
I^2R loss
IV loss
none of the above
210) The portion of the primary flux that links with the secondary coil is specified by the:
permeability factor
cutting factor
coefficient of coupling
none of the above
211) IT for the circuit below is:
398 mA
265 mA
159 mA
6.4 mA
212) The primary coil of a transformer:

must have fewer turns than the secondary coil
must have more turns than the secondary coil
must have the same number of turns as the secondary coil
none of the above
213) If the effective resistance is 20 Ohm, the Q of a 2.5-mH inductor at 30 kHz is:
9.4
23.6
9420
none of the above
214) The induced voltage in an inductor is called its:

cemf
bemf
both of the above
215) The reactance of a 0.1-mH inductor at 2.1 MHz is:

2638 Ohm
758 Ohm
1.3 Ohm
none of the above
216) Arcing in switch contacts that control an inductive circuit:

only occurs when the contacts open
is caused by an inductive kick
both of the above
none of the above
217) The resistance of a conductor increases as frequency increases because of the:

heating effect
skin effect
magnetizing effect
none of the above
218) The base unit of inductance is the:

henry
tesla
weber
none of the above
219) The dc resistance of an inductor is also known as its:

quality factor
ESR
ohmic resistance
none of the above
220) According to Lenz?s law, the polarity of a cemf is such that the cemf always:
opposes the force that created it
opposes the source voltage
aids the source voltage
none of the above
221) The energy stored in a 2000-uF capacitor when the capacitor is charged to 150 V is:
22.5 kJ
22.5 J
45 J
0.24 J
222) Inductance opposes any change in:
reluctance
charge
current
voltage
223) CT for the circuit in question 6 will be:
5 uF
1.25 uF
0.8 uF
none of the above
224) The reactance of a 0.022-uF capacitor at 500 Hz will be:
69 Ohm
14.5 mOhm
1450 Ohm
none of the above
225) For the circuit below, XCT will be:
1592 Ohm
796 Ohm
318 Ohm
531 Ohm
226) The relative energy loss of a capacitor is specified by its:
quality rating
power factor rating
dissipation factor rating
any of the above
227) In one time constant, a capacitor charges to:
the source voltage
63.2 % of the source voltage
63.2 % of the available voltage
none of the above
228) In the circuit below, VC2 will be:
20 V
25 V
80 V
none of the above
229) When I = 4 A, P =300 W, and V= 240 V, angle theta will be:
71.8grd
77.0grd
0.77grd
3.2grd
230) A capacitor consists of two conductive plates separated by a(n):
dielectric
insulator
both of the above
231) The base unit of capacitance is the:
farad
tesla
ohm
none of the above
232) Most electrolytic capacitors are:
ac capacitors
very high Q capacitors
polarized capacitors
none of the above
233) Current will lead voltage by 90 degrees when the load is:
pure capacitance
pure inductance
both inductance and resistance
none of the above
234) The numerical value of the cos O when the load contains only resistance is:
zero
0.707
one
infinite
235) When the PF = 90%, the cos O is:
one
0.988
0.900
unknown
236) When P = 500 W, I = 6 A, and V = 120 V, the PF will be:
greater than 1.0
negative
unknown
0.69
237) Current and voltage will be 90 degrees out of phase when the load contains:
nothing but reactance
nothing but resistance
both of the above
238) The magnitude and direction of an electrical quantity can be shown with:
a victor
a pure number
both of the above

239) Power is used by the
resistive part of a load
reactive part of the load
all parts of the load
none of the above
240) The unit for apparent power is the:
apparent watt
apparent joule
apparent dissipation
voltampere
241) Voltage and current are in phase when the load contains:
nothing but reactance
nothing but resistance
both of the above
242) Increasing the capacitance of the filter capacitor will have what effect on the ripple
amplitude?
ripple will increase
ripple will remain the same
ripple will double
ripple will decrease
243) The voltage regulation of a power supply refers to:
the rules applied when wiring it.
the specifications of the components used in wiring it.
the ability of a power supply to maintain a constant output voltage.
the ability of a power supply to withstand overloads.
244) The approximate DC voltage output of a full-wave rectifier is equal to:
the rms value of the peak output value.
the peak value of the output voltage.

0.318 of the peak output voltage.
0.637 of the peak output voltage.
245) Which of the following components is commonly used as a filter device?
a transformer
a resistor
a capacitor
a diode
246) What is the output ripple frequency of a bridge rectifier?
one-half the input frequency
twice the input frequency
the same as the input frequency
one-fourth the input frequency.
247) A standard transformer can safely isolate a 120-V primary circuit from a 10-V secondary
circuit because:
the primary and secondary coils are connected in parallel with each other.
no physical electrical connection exists between the primary and secondary coils.
the primary and secondary coils are connected in series with each other.
the primary and secondary coils are connected so as to lower the input voltage.
248) A step-down transformer will have:
more turns on the secondary than on the primary.
a higher primary than secondary voltage.
a higher primary than secondary current.
all of these
249) A step-up transformer will have:
less turns on the primary than on the secondary.
a higher secondary than primary voltage.
a lower secondary than primary current.
all of these
250) In a power-supply circuit the transformer can be used to:

step up voltages.
electrically isolate circuits.
supply a variable AC voltage.
all of these
251) The purpose of a power supply is:
to amplify weak signals.
to rectify weak signals.
to convert the electrical input voltage to the proper type and value needed to operate
circuits.
all of these
252) A transformer coil can be checked with an ohmmeter for:
continuity.
eddy currents.
overloads.
overheating.
253) The rated input and output voltages of a transformer are checked with a voltmeter.
Technician A says a normal primary voltage reading and no secondary voltage reading is an
indication of an open secondary coil. Technician B says it is normal for the transformer output
voltage to be higher than specified if no load is connected to the output. Who is correct?
Technician A only
Technician B only
254) Power transformers are designed to operate:
from 60-Hz line frequency.
in the audio frequency range.
in the radio frequency range.
all of these
255) Which of these would most likely be used to match a 4- speaker to a 400-- amplifier output?
audio impedance-matching resistor
IF transformer
current transformer
auto transformer
256) Most transformers operate to transfer energy at an efficiency of about:
25 percent.
75 percent.
80 percent.
95 percent.
257) A certain transformer has a turns ratio of 1:1. The transformer is used for:
impedance matching.
changing frequency.
isolation.
stepping-up voltage.
258) A step-down transformer is used to change:
high power to low power.
alternating current to direct current.
high voltage to low voltage.
high current to low current.
259) The transformer used with a certain model car set has 240 turns in its primary coil and 24
turns in its secondary coil. If the transformer is connected to a 120-V wall receptacle the
secondary voltage output would be approximately:
6-V AC.
12-V AC.
18-V AC.
24-V AC.
260) A transformer is a device used to:

rectify voltages from AC to DC.
transfer electric energy by mutual induction.
convert mechanical energy into electric energy.
all of these
261) An iron core is used in a transformer to:

reduce hysteresis loss.
eliminate eddy current losses.
ensure good magnetic linkage between windings.
reduce the counter-emf.
262) Lagging power factor is often produced by:

fluorescent lamp ballasts.
induction motor windings.
solenoid coils in relays.
all of these
263) A 50- F capacitor is connected to a 120-V, 60-Hz source. The capacitive reactance of this
capacitor would be approximately ____ ohms.
2650
265
53
2.65
264) In general, impedance has an effect on an AC circuit similar to:

frequency.
voltage.
current.
resistance.
265) Impedance may be defined as:

the total opposition to current flow in an AC circuit.
the total opposition to current flow in a DC circuit.
the total opposition offered by a capacitor to alternating current flow.
the total opposition offered by an inductor to alternating current flow.
266) Approximately what percentage of the applied voltage does the capacitor charge to at the
end of the first time constant?
70 percent
63 percent
33 percent
15 percent
267) Polarized fixed capacitors must be connected:

in series only.
in parallel only.
with the positive lead of the capacitor connected to the positive lead of the circuit.
with the negative lead of the capacitor connected to the positive lead of the circuit.
268) Which indication on an ohmmeter should you most likely expect when testing a good
capacitor?
no pointer deflection at all
momentary upscale pointer deflection
full-scale deflection of pointer

midscale indication
269) As applied to a capacitor, the word dielectric refers to:

the conducting material of the capacitor.
the metal used as the plate.
the insulating material separating the plates.
the capacitance of the capacitor.
270) In an ideal inductor:

current lags the voltage by 90?.
current leads the voltage by 90?.
current lags the voltage by 180?.
current leads the voltage by 180?.
271) Energy is stored in a capacitor by means of:

its electrolytic field.
its force field.
its magnetic field.
its electrostatic field.
272) Which of the following is not an advantage of high-intensity discharge lamps?

They operate at low current.
They have a very long life expectancy.

They have a high light efficiency.
They have a high watt output from a single fixture.
273) High-intensity discharge lamps:

operate without the use of a ballast.
operate ON and OFF very quickly.
operate at low brightness when first turned on.
both a and c
274) A cycling ballast that turns power OFF and ON is most likely caused by:
an overheated ballast.
the fixture not being adequately grounded.
the tube pins making power contact.
the line voltage being too low.
275) The fluorescent bulb produces light by:

heating a filament to a white-heat temperature.
means of a chemical reaction within the tube.
means of an electron arc established between two cathodes.
means of magnet induction between two electrodes.
276) The instant-start fluorescent tube:

has a single-pin connection at each end.
requires a very high starting voltage.

requires a bulkier and more expensive type of ballast.
all of these
277) Recessed ceiling fixtures require special installation safety procedures because:
they operate at higher current values.
they operate at higher voltage values.
they have very poor ventilation.
they can become grounded very easily.
278) Which of the following is not an advantage of fluorescent lamps over the incandescent
types?
lower initial cost
produce less heat during normal operation
produce more light per watt of power consumed
will last longer
279) The best way to test an incandescent lamp filament is:

to shake it.
to check it for continuity with an ohmmeter.
to check it for voltage with a voltmeter.
to visually inspect it.
280) The resistance of a 200-W, 120-V incandescent lamp would be:
higher than that of a 40-W, 120-V incandescent lamp.

lower than that of a 40-W, 120-V incandescent lamp.
the same as that of a 40-W, 120-V incandescent lamp.
30 Q.
281)
What is the Norton resistance as viewed by RL for the circuit below?
3 Ohm
6A
0.5 A
5V
282)
Find the Thevenin resistance, as viewed by RL, for the circuit drawn below.
30 Ohm
30 V
25 Ohm
25 V
283)
Find the Thevenin voltage, as viewed by RL, for the circuit drawn below.
30 Ohm
30 V
25 Ohm
25 V
284)
What is the Norton current as viewed by RL for the circuit below?
3 Ohm
6A
0.5 A
5V
285) A trilight or dual filament lamp is rated for 40-60-100 W. This bulb would contain:
one 40-W and one 60-W filament.
one 100-W and one 50-W filament.
two 50-W filaments.
two 75-W filaments.
286) Norton's theorem reduces a resistive network to an ideal current source and a parallel
resistance.
True
False
287) If two currents are in opposing directions through a branch of a circuit, the direction of the
net current will be the same as that of the smaller current.
True
False
288) When a Norton equivalent circuit is converted to Thevenin equivalent circuit RTH will be
equal to RN.
True
False
289) A Thevenin equivalent circuit represents an ideal (constant) voltage source.
True
False
290)
When VRL for many values of VL must be determined, a circuit should be thevenized.
True
False
291) Current is independent of load resistance for a current source.
True
False
292)
In a series resonant band-pass filter where: fr = 100 Hz, f1 = 95 Hz, f2 = 105 Hz, the
bandwidth is _____.
10 Hz
10 kHz
200 Hz
20 Hz
293)
A series RLC circuit is _____ when XL is greater than XC.
resonant
capacitive
inductive
none of the above

294) The true power in a resistance is measured in :
Ohms
Watts
Volts
Amperes
295) The total opposition to current flow in an AC circuit is called :
Capacitance
Resistance
Impedance
Resonance
296) The cut-off frequency determines if the filter is a low-pass or high-pass filter.
True
False
297) A resistance of 6 in series with 14 of reactance results in an impedance of 20
.
True
False
298) The capacitive voltage can be higher than the source voltage is a series RLC circuit.
True
False
299) The value of inductance is expressed in ohms.
True
False
300) In AC circuits the ohmic value of resistive elements depends on the frequency of the AC.
True
False
301) In an automobile alternator the three-phase AC stator voltage is converted to DC using:
slip rings.
diodes
a commutator.
a regulator.
302) For any given generator the output voltage varies:
directly with its speed and the strength of the magnetic field.
inversely with its speed and the strength of the magnetic field.
directly with its speed and inversely with the strength of the magnetic field.
directly with the strength of the magnetic field and inversely with its speed.
303) If a sine wave has a peak value of 220 V, what is the rms value?
672 V
311 V
155 V
77 V
304) If a sine wave has a peak-to-peak voltage value of 60 V, what is the rms value?
0V
21.2 V
37 V
74 V
305) The standard frequency of the AC voltage available from the electric outlet in your home
is:
220 V
50 V
50 Hz
220 Hz
306) Generating a voltage by rotating a coil at a constant rate through a magnetic field results in
a voltage that:
varies in magnitude.
varies in polarity.
varies in frequency.
both a and b
307) Which of the following electric devices has, on an average, the highest annual energy
consumption?
a range
a clothes dryer
a dishwasher
an air conditioner
308) Alternating current is current that:
operates from a voltage source that has a fixed polarity.
operates from a voltage source that has a constantly reversing polarity.
flows from negative to positive.
flows from positive to negative.
309) How much energy is consumed when a 2000-W electric device is left on for 1 h?
2 kJ
2000 kJ
2000 kWh
2 kWh
310) The amount of electric energy used for electric appliances depends on:
the physical size of the appliance.
the length of time the appliance is used.
the amount of electric power required to make the appliance operate.
both b and c
311) Technician A says electric energy is measured in joules. Technician B says it is measured
in kilowatthours. Who is correct?
Technician A only
Technician B only
312) An electric lamp transforms electric energy into:
chemical energy.
light energy.
heat energy.
both b and c
313) A wattmeter is connected into a circuit and the pointer moves in the reverse direction. The
problem can be corrected by:
reversing the two voltmeter leads.
reversing the two ammeter leads.
reversing both the voltmeter and ammeter leads.
either a or b
314) A wattmeter is connected:
in series with the load.
in parallel with the load.
with the ammeter section in parallel and the voltmeter section in series with the load.
with the ammeter section in series and the voltmeter section in parallel with the load.
315) What is the power rating of an electric dryer element which has a resistance of 7.2 Ohm
and is rated for 240 V?
1728 W
33.3 kW
7200 kW
17.28 kW
316) When a 12-V battery delivers 18.0 A of current the power supplied is:
180 kW.
180 W
1.25 W.
216 W.
317) The unit used to measure electric power is:
the volt.
the ampere.
the watt.
the watthour.
318) Electrical transmission power-line losses are kept to a minimum by:
using large-diameter conductors.
using a high voltage and a low current.
using a low voltage and a high current.
both a and c
319) The cheapest and most environmentally-safe type of generating station is:
a hydroelectric generating station.
a nuclear power generating station.
a coal power generating station.
a natural gas power generating station.
320) Which of the following converts the sun's energy directly into electrical energy?
steam turbine
water turbine
wind turbine
silicon wafer
321) Transmitting electrical energy from the generating station to the consumer usually takes
place at:
very high AC-voltage levels.
very high DC-voltage levels.
very low AC-voltage levels.
very low DC-voltage levels.
322) Solenoids can be used to operate:
valves.
latches.
switches.
all of these
323) Generating stations are classified according to:
the type of voltage generated.
their location.
the method used to drive their generators.
high voltage or low voltage.
324) Consider the following changes made to an electromagnet: (i) increasing the
number of turns in the coil; (ii) using a copper core instead of an iron core; (iii)
decreasing the current flow in the coil. The strength of the electromagnet is increased
by:
(i) only.
(ii) only.
(iii) only.
(i) and (ii) only.
325) A solenoid can be classified as an electromagnet with:
an air core.
a copper core.
moveable brass core.
a moveable iron core.
326) The magnetic circuit consists of:
electrons traveling from the negative to the positive terminal.
molecular magnets traveling from the north pole to the south pole.
electrons spinning in the same direction.
lines of force travelling from the N pole to the S pole.
327) The advantage of a toroidal core over a straight core is that the toroid is:
self-shielding.
cheaper to operate.
more compact.
easier to mount.
328) If other factors remain constant, which of the following combinations of electric current
and the number of turns in the coil produces the strongest electromagnet?
500 turns and 2 A
700 turns and 2 A
300 turns and 4 A
100 turns and 10 A

329) If the electromagnet is operated with direct current, the polarity of its magnetic poles:
remains fixed.
constantly reverses.
is not affected by the polarity of the DC voltage source.
both b and c
330) Lines of force of two parallel conductors with current flows in opposite directions will:
oppose each other to produce a weaker field.
aid each other to produce a stronger field.
tend to move together.
both a and c
331) The left-hand conductor rule is used for a current-carrying conductor to determine the:
a direction of the lines of force around the current-carrying conductor.
south pole of the magnet by the direction of the thumb.
flux density of a magnetic field.
direction of rotation of the poles.
332) Which of these does not normally have a demagnetizing effect?
DC applied to a coil
AC applied to a coil
heat
mechanical vibration
333) A DC current flow through a conductor will produce:
a magnetic field that acts in a clockwise direction.
a magnetic field that acts in a counter-clockwise direction.
a magnetic field that varies in direction.
either a or b
334) A material that acts as an insulator for magnetic flux is:
glass.
aluminum.
soft iron
unknown today
335) Which of the following is not assumed to be a characteristic of magnetic lines of force?
They travel most easily through air.
They form closed loops.
They repel each other.
They exit at the magnet's N-pole and enter at its S-pole.
336) A permanent ring magnet:
acts like two horseshoe magnets.
acts like two horseshoe magnets placed together with opposite poles touching.
has no designated poles.
both b and c
337) Permanent horseshoe-shaped magnets:
retain their magnetism longer than the bar type.
will not retain their magnetism as well as the bar type.
will not provide as strong a magnetic field as a bar magnet.
provide a much stronger magnetic field than a bar magnet of equal material.
338) The magnetic force between two poles:
is measured using a galvanometer.
is measured using a multimeter.
increases as the distance between the two poles decreases.
decreases as the distance between the two poles decreases.
339) The lodestone is a natural form of a:
temporary magnet.
permanent magnet
soft magnet.
heavy magnet.
340) Soft iron is most suitable for use in a:
permanent magnet.
natural magnet.
temporary magnet.
magneto.
341) Artificial magnets can be produced by:
a.placing a nonmagnetic material in the core of a coil and applying an AC voltage of the coil.
placing magnetic material in the core of a coil and applying a DC voltage to the coil.
placing a magnetic material in the core of a coil and applying an AC voltage to the coil.
placing a nonmagnetic material in the core of a coil and applying a DC voltage of the coil.
342)
The total current flow of the circuit in Figure 5 is:

9A
30 A
10 A
1.5 A
343)
The current flow through resistor R2 in Figure 5 is:
2A
1A
6A
8A
344)
If resistor R1 in Figure 5 becomes short-circuited, the total resistance of the circuit will:
increase.
decrease.
be infinite.
be zero.
345) Three substances that are classified as magnetic materials are:
aluminum, steel, and copper.
gold, silver, and nickel.
steel, nickel, and cobalt.
wood, paper, and glass.

346)
The value of the current flow through R1 Figure 2 would be:
9 mA
6 mA
1.5 mA
15 mA
347)
.Answer the following question with reference to the series-parallel circuit in Figure 3.
10 Ohm
15 Ohm
22.5 Ohm
31 Ohm
348)
The total power dissipated by the circuit in Figure 3 is:
1440 W
240 W
360 mW
240 mW
349)
The total current flow of the circuit in Figure 4 is:

1.33 mA
1.5 mA
12 mA
2 mA
350)
Consider the circuit in Figure 1. The known voltages and currents are as indicated.
Applying Kirchhoff's voltage and current laws, the value of the voltage drop across R2
would be:
60 V
50 V
20 V
40 V
351)
Consider the circuit in Figure 2. The known voltages and currents are as indicated.
Applying Kirchhoff's voltage and current laws, answer the following question. The value
of the applied voltage source would be:
28 V
36 V
24 V
9V
352)
The value of the voltage drop across R4 Figure 2 would be:
24 V
9V
16 V
12 V
353) Technician A says that in a parallel circuit, a shorted resistor shorts out the entire circuit.
Technician B says this can burn out the power supply unless the circuit is protected by a fuse or a
circuit breaker. Who is correct?
Technician A only
Technician B only
354)
Four resistors, 1 k each, are connected in parallel. This group is connected to a 9-V
source. The combined resistance of the group is:
100 Ohm
150 Ohm
200 Ohm
250 Ohm
355)
Four resistors, 1 k each, are connected in parallel. This group is connected to a 9-V
source. The current in the line leading to the group of resistors is:
12 mA
18 mA
36 mA
500 mA
356) The voltage across an open component in a parallel circuit is always equal to:
the source voltage
the dropped voltage.
the lowest circuit voltage.
zero.
357) With a short in one of the branches of a parallel circuit:
the voltage source is shorted out.
the voltage source will deliver its maximum current flow.
the total circuit resistance drops to near zero resistance.
all of these
358)
Resistors of 10 and 30 are connected in parallel to a 120-V supply. The current
flow through the 10 resistor would be:
12 A
8A
4A
3A
359) A three-branch parallel resistor circuit is connected to a 6-V source. The branch currents
are 1.2 A, 800 mA, and 250 mA, respectively. The total current is:
less than 1.2 A
less than 800 mA.
about 1050 mA.
about 2.25 A
360)
With 24 V applied across five 6 resistors in parallel, the total current equals ____.
10 A
6A
20 A
2A
361) With two resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 5 W, the total power supplied
by the voltage source equals:
4W
6W
8W
10 W
362) With two resistances connected in parallel:
the current through each must be the same.
the voltage across each must be the same.
their combined resistance equals the sum of the individual values.
both b and c
363) Two voltage sources are connected series-opposing. Technician A says the two voltages
are added to obtain the total equivalent voltage. Technician B says the equivalent voltage is
given the polarity of the greater voltage. Who is correct?
Technician A only
Technician B only
364) Which resistor of a series circuit receives the largest voltage drop?
the first resistor in the string
the last resistor in the string
the one with the least resistance
the one with the most resistance
365) The polarity of the voltage drop across a resistor depends on:
its resistance value.
its position in the circuit.
the direction of current flow through it.

all of these
366)
How much resistance R1 must be added in series with a 400 R2 to limit the current to
0.25 A with 120 V applied?
50
100
200
80
367)
Resistors R1 - 8 k, R2 - 4 k, R3 - 6 k, and R4 - 2 k are connected in series to a
voltage source. Which resistor will dissipate the most power?
R1
R2
R3
R4
368)
Three resistors with values of 1 k, 5 k, and 3 k, respectively, are connected in
series with a fourth resistor of unknown value. The applied voltage is 120 V and the
current flow is 5 mA. What is the resistance value of the unknown resistor?
15 kOhm
8 kOhm
4.5 kOhm
3.2 kOhm
369) A string of twelve holidy lamps is designed to be connected in series to a 120-V source. If
one of the lamps burned out and was shorted from the circuit, the operating voltage across each
of the other eleven lamps would be:
10.9 V
20 V
32 V
48 V
370) Three resistors (R1, R2, and R3) are connected in series to a 120-V source. The values of
V1 and V3 are measured and found to be 42 V and 8 V, respectively. The value of V2 would
then be:
40 V
24 V
70 V
56 V
371)
If a voltage of 3 V is applied across a resistor of 9 how many watts of power does the
resistor dissipate?
27 W
9W
3W
1W
372) A series circuit has:
one pathway for current flow.
two pathways for current flow
three pathways for current flow.
as many pathways for current flow as there are loads connected in series
373) In a series circuit, the amount of voltage each load receives is:
the same as the applied voltage.
inversely proportional to the resistance value of the load.
directly proportional to the resistance value of the load.
determined by its position in the series string.
374) Technician A says that in a electrical circuit, voltage can exist without current. Technician
B says that current cannot exist without voltage. Who is correct?
Technician A only
Technician B only
375)
How much current will a 0.75 car rear window defogger draw when connected to a
12-V battery source?
9A
12 A
16 A
18 A
376)
The current flowing through a 72 resistor is measured and found to be 0.5 A. How
much voltage is being applied across the resistor?
90 V
9V
360 V
36 V
377) What is the resistance of a soldering iron element that conducts a current of 4 A when
connected to a 120-V electric outlet?
480 ohm
360 ohm
160 ohm
30 ohm
378) A voltage of 0.48 V can be expressed as:
4800 mV.
480 mV.
48 mV.
4.8 mV.
379) Ohm's law states that:
current is directly proportional to the resistance and inversely proportional to the voltage.
voltage is directly proportional to the current and inversely proportional to the resistance.
current is directly proportional to the voltage and inversely proportional to the
resistance
voltage is directly proportional to the resistance and inversely proportional to the current.
380) Converting 1 mA to its base unit produces:
0.1 A.
0.001 A
10,000 A
100,000 A.
381)
A 470,000 resistor may be designated as:
47 M
470 k
47 k
4,7 M
382)
A voltage divider is formed by connecting a 6-k resistor and a 2-k resistor in series
across a 20-V source. The voltage drop across each resistor would be, respectively:
15 V and 5 V
8 V and 12 V.
6 V and 4 V.
4 V and 6 V.
383) The symbol for the prefix micro (metric measure) is:
m.
M
mic
384) Which of these variable resistors would most likely be used to control current in a higher
power-level circuit?
rheostat
trimmer potentiometer
nonlinear potentiometer
linear potentiometer
385) Which resistor would you choose if you were asked to pick a resistor to use on a printedcircuit board circuit in which a large number of identical resistors were required?
precision resistor
resistor network
wire-wound resistor
trim pot
386) When a resistor has a 2-W rating, this means that it:
can safely dissipate 2 W, or less, of power.
always dissipates exactly 2 W of power.
always provides 2 W of power.
all of these
387) Resistance wire is designed primarily to convert electricity energy into:
sound.
heat
mechanical energy
magnetism.
388) Generally, any voltage above ____ V is considered dangerous.
9
48
110
220
389) The severity of an electric shock increases with:
an increase in voltage levels.
an increase in body current flow.
a decrease in body resistance.
all of these
390) One of the factors involved in an electric shock is body resistance. Which of the following
statements about body resistance is not true?
The higher the body resistance, the greater the potential shock hazard.
The lower the body resistance, the greater the potential shock hazard.
The wetter the skin, the greater the potential shock hazard.
The drier the surface that a person is standing on, the greater the body-to-surface electrical
resistance.
391) Replacing a fuse with one of a higher current rating can cause:
lights in a house to flicker.
a short circuit.
wiring to overheat.
all of these
392) If a circuit is constructed to allow the electrons to follow only one possible path, the circuit
is called:
a series-parallel circuit.
an open circuit.
a series circuit
a parallel circuit.
393) Two switches are connected to control a lamp. A ____ can be used to show how the
switches work the lamp.
truth table
wiring sequence chart
block diagram
all of these
394) A string of lamps are connected in series to a voltage source. This connection would result
in:
two voltage paths.
one voltage path
one current path.
two current paths.
395) An AND-type control circuit consists of switches connected in:
parallel.
parallel and series combination.
series.
series and parallel combination.
396) Which of the following electrical diagrams is easiest to read?
pictorial
wiring
perspective
schematic
397) A string of lamps is connected in parallel to a voltage source. If one lamp burns out, all the
other lamps:
will go out.
will get brighter.
will not be affected.
will get dimmer.
398) The purpose of the energy source is to:
protect circuit wiring and equipment.
start, stop, or vary the electron flow.
supply the voltage required to move the free electrons
all of these.
399) A fuse is used to:
protect circuit wiring and equipment.
allow only currents within safe limits to flow.
automatically open the circuit when a higher current flows.
all of these.
400) A poorly made electrical connection:
has a much higher-than-normal resistance.
can produce excessive heat when normal current flows through the circuit.
can reduce the total energy normally available for the load.
all of these
401) For practical purposes, all the circuit resistance is considered to be contained in:
the load device.
the conductors or wires.
the control device.
the protective device.

402) Which of the following is an example of a load?
an electrical wall outlet
a hair dryer
a pushbutton
an extension cord
403) Which of the following is classified as a protective device?
a pushbutton
a fuse
a circuit breaker
both b and c
404) A switch would be classified as:
a control device
a protective device.
a load device.
a voltage source.
405) In a basic electrical circuit, the part that stores electric energy or changes it into other forms
is:
the load.
the source.
the conductor(s).
the switch.
406) Electrical conductors:

have high resistance.
use most of the energy available from the source.
complete the electron path from the source to the load.
all of these
407) Which of the following is an example of a voltage source?
a battery
a light bulb
a switch
copper wire conductors
408) The unit of measurement for the difference of potential between two points is:
the volt
the ampere.
the PD.
the ohm
409) An electric toaster is rated for 220 V and 10 A. Its power rating would be:
2200 W
2200 Wh
2200 kWh
2200 J
410) The force that causes the flow of electrons through a conductor is known as:
the power.
the current.
the voltage.
the resistance
411) Technician A says that when taking measurements with a voltmeter and an ammeter, the
meters are both connected into the circuit in the same way. Technician B says the voltmeter is
connected in series and the ammeter is connected in parallel. Who is correct?
Technician A only
Technician B only
412) In the battery, or voltaic cell, electrons are transferred from one electrode to the other. The
electrode that gains electrons is:
the negative terminal.
the positive terminal.
the electrolyte.
both a and c
413) Large amounts of electricity are usually produced using:
a battery.
a solar cell.
a thermocouple.
a generator.
414) When an alternating current power source is connected to a circuit, it produces a current
that:
changes in direction, but not in magnitude.
changes in magnitude, but not in direction.
does not change in magnitude or direction.
changes in both direction and magnitude.
415) Voltage is produced in a battery by means of:
heat.
light.
a chemical reaction.
a solar cell.
416) A device that produces a voltage when put under pressure is:
a battery.
a generator.
a solar cell.
a crystal.
417) Current electricity:
is an electric charge in motion.
can be classified as being AC.
can be classified as being DC.
all of these
418) When a charge is transferred without direct physical contact, this is known as charging by:
induction.
conduction.
deduction.
friction.
419) The law of electric charges states:
like charges can neither repel nor attract.
like charges repel, unlike charges attract.
unlike charges can neither repel nor attract, whereas like charges can both repel and attract.
unlike charges repel, like charges attract.
420) When a hard rubber rod and a piece of fur are rubbed together, the fur gives up electrons to
the rubber rod. As a result:
the fur and rod become positively charged.
the fur and rod become negatively charged.
the rod becomes positively charged.
the rod becomes negatively charged.
421) A continuity tester is used to check a fuse. When the fuse is connected across the test leads,
a blown fuse is indicated when:
the lamp comes on with full brightness.
the lamp comes on with approximately half the normal brightness.
the lamp does not come on at all.
either a or b
422) Static electricity is:
the same as alternating current.
the same as direct current.
an electrical charge in motion.
an electrical charge at rest.
423) A continuity tester is basically:
a series circuit consisting of a battery, switch, and test leads.
a parallel circuit consisting of a battery, light bulb, and test leads.
a parallel circuit consisting of a battery, switch, and test leads.
a series circuit consisting of a battery, light bulb, and test leads.

424) A good insulator of electricity is a substance that:
is used to conduct an electric current.
is a metal.
has 1, 2, or 3 valence electrons.
is used to prevent the flow of electrons.
425) A transistor can be classified as:
a conductor.
an insulator.
a pure semiconductor.
a specially-treated semiconductor.
426) The outer-shell electrons of an atom:
are called valence electrons.
are set free most easily.
become free electrons once they are set free.
all of these
427) Electrons are held in their orbital path by:
centrifugal forces counterbalancing attraction forces.
centrifugal forces only.
attraction forces only.
unlike electrical forces.
428) The weight of a proton is:
much greater than that of an electron.
much less than that of an electron.
much less than that of a neutron.
much greater than that of a neutron.
429) A negatively charged ion has:
more electrons that protons.
fewer electrons than protons.
a complete outer electron shell.

an incomplete outer electron shell.
430) The particles that can be found within an atom are:
electrons and protons.
protons and neutrons.
neutrons, protons, and electrons.
electrons, molecules, and protons.
431) The smallest negative particle of electricity is called:
an electron.
a neutron.
an element.
a proton.
432) The f of an eight-pole generator rotating at 600 r/min will be:
4800 Hz
2400 Hz
80 Hz
40 Hz
433) In a wye-connected three-phase system, the relationship between the magnitudes of the
phase and the line voltages is:
1.732Vline = Vphase
Vline = 1.732 Vphase
434) The phase voltages in a three-phase system are separated by:
90 electrical degrees
435) When the T = 2 ms, f will equal:
0.5 Hz
50 Hz
500 Hz
none of the above
436) Unless otherwise specified, ac values are assumed to be:
effective values
average values
peak values
none of the above
437) One cycle spans:
438) One cycle of an ac waveform:
has two alternations
reverses polarity once
both of the above
439) The rate at which cycles are produced is called the:
cycle
frequency
period
rapidity
440) One cycle per second is equal to:
a hertz
a period
an alternation
none of the above
441) Magnetic shields are usually made from:

nonmagnetic materials
temporary magnetic materials
permanent magnetic materials
none of the above
442) The most common waveform for ac is the:
triangle wave
sawtooth wave
square wave
sine wave
443) The unit used to specify flux density is the:
ampere-turn
tesla
weber
none of the above
444) The unit for permeability is the:
ampere-turn
tesla
weber
none of the above
445) Increasing the space between the turns in a coil:
increases the flux at the poles
decreases the flux at the poles
does not change the flux at the poles
none of the above
446) The flux associated with a temporary magnetic material after the material is removed from
a magnetic field is called:
resident magnetism
retained magnetism
induced magnetism
none of the above
447) When the currents in two parallel conductors are in the same direction:
the flux produced by one conductor cancels the flux from the other conductor
the conductors attract each other
the conductors repel each other
none of the above
448) The most magnetic element is:
cobalt
nickel
silicon
iron
449) The invisible lines of force around a magnet are called:
magnetic flux
mmf
poles
reluctance
450)
Determine the value of IR2, IR3, and VR2 in the circuit below.
IR2 = 1.25 mA, IR3 = 1.75 mA, VR2 = 3 V

IR2 = 2.05 mA, IR3 = 1.99 mA, VR2 = 3 V
IR2 = 3.98 mA, IR3 = 2.09 mA, VR2 = 4 V
IR2 = 7.90 mA, IR3 = 3.00 mA, VR2 = 5 V
451) The direction of the flux around a conductor can be determined by:
the left-hand rule and the polarity of the applied voltage
the left-hand rule and the direction of the current flow

either of the above
452) The technique that may yield a negative value of current is:
loop equations
superposition theorem
Nortons theorem
all of the above
453) The technique that requires only one calculation to determine the new load current when
the load resistance is changed is:
loop equations
Nortons theorem
none of the above
454) The technique that may not determine all current and voltage values is
loop equations
Nortons theorem
none of the above
455) The technique that may require the use of another technique before it can be applied is:
loop equations
Thevenins theorem
all of the above
456) The technique that cant be used on single-source circuits is:
loop equations
Nortons theorem
none of the above
457) The technique that cant be used on multiple-source circuits is:

loop equations
Thevenins theorem
none of the above
458) The technique that uses only series-parallel rules and procedures is:
loop equations
Nortons theorem
none of the above
459) Solving simultaneous equations requires:
no more than two independent equations
at least three independent equations
as many independent equations as there are unknown variables
one fewer independent equations than unknown variables
460) For the circuit below:

RT = 1 k
PR2 = 533 mW
PT = 1.6 W
all of the above
461) For the circuit below:

IR3 = 4 mA
IR2 = 8 mA
both of the above
462) For the circuit below, PT is equal to:

40 mW
0.04W
320 mW
none of the above
463) The largest resistance always drops the most voltage in:
a series circuit
a parallel circuit
a series-parallel circuit
both a and c above
464) A condition that is necessary for maximum power transfer is:
Rsource = Rload
Rsource = 10Rload
10 x Rsource = Rload
100 x Rsource = Rload
465) The smallest resistance always dissipates the most power in:
a series circuit
a parallel circuit
both b and c above
466) The formula that can be used in any type of circuit is:
IT = IR1 + IR2 + IR3 + etc.
RT = RR1 + RR2 + RR3 + etc.
PT = PR1 + PR2 + PR3 + etc.
none of the above
467)
RT is always greater than R1 in:
a series circuit
a parallel circuit
both B and C above
468)
IR1 is always less than IT in:
a series circuit
a parallel circuit
both A and C above
469) In addition to Ohms law, solving multiple-load circuits requires the use of:
Coulombs laws
Amperes laws
Kirchhoffs laws
none of the above
470) The amount of resistance is expressed in:
watts
ohms
coulombs
volts
471) A current of 0.04 A could also be expressed as:
4 x 10-3 A
400 A
40 mA
0.4 kA
472) A coulomb per second equals the base unit of:
current
power
resistance
voltage
473) Joule per coulomb is the definition of a:
watt
ohm
coulomb
volt
474) The joule is the base unit of:
energy
current
power
resistance
475) Kilowatthour is a unit of:
charge
energy
power
time
476) A wattsecond is equal to a(n):
ampere
coulomb
joule
volt
477) The charge possessed by 6.25 x 1018 electrons equals one:
ampere
coulomb
joule
volt
478) Electrons in the outermost shell of an atom are called:
free electrons
valence electrons
both of the above
479) When an electron becomes a free electron its energy level is:
cut in half
unchanged
doubled
none of the above
480) The base unit of charge is the:
ampere
coulomb
ohm
volt
481) A proton has:
a positive electric charge
a negative electric charge
both of the above
482) A negative ion has an excess of:
electrons
protons
both of the above
483) The nucleus of most atoms contain:
neutrons
protons
both of the above
484) A positive charge can:

attract a negatively charged object
attract and then repel a neutral object
both of the above
485) The joule is the base unit of:
energy
work
both of the above
486) The part of the atom that has no electric charge is the:
neutron
nucleus
both of the above
487) A DC power supply has a rated output of 3 W at 9 V. The maximum current rating of this
power supply would be approximately:
1.8 A.
45 A.
250 mA.
333 mA.
488) Technician A says that a function generator can do all of the things an audio generator can
do. Technician B says the function generator is more compatible with solid-state electronic
circuitry than the audio generator. Who is correct?
Technician A only
Technician B only
489) A digital storage scope allows you to:
display a signal.
store a signal.
analyze a signal.
all of these
490) The control of a signal generator used to adjust the voltage value of the output signal is:
the vernier control.
the amplitude control.
the function selector.
the frequency selector.
491) A dual-trace oscilloscope:
has one set of controls to control two different traces.
has two sets of controls to control one trace.
can only be operated with two different signals applied to it.
has two sets of controls to control two different traces.
492) A signal displayed on the calibrated time base of the oscilloscope covers 1 cycle in 10 DIV
with the TIME/DIV control set at 20 ms. The waveform frequency is:
20 Hz.
15 Hz.
12 Hz.
5 Hz.
493) Technician A says when connecting the test probe of a scope to a grounded circuit, the
grounded conductor of the probe is connected to the grounded side of the circuit. Technician B
says the scope should never be used to test a grounded circuit. Who is correct?
Technician A only
Technician B only
494) The AC/DC switch of an oscilloscope:
selects the AC signal input.
change AC-to-DC.
selects the DC signal.
selects how the input signal is coupled to the oscilloscope.
495) When using the oscilloscope you should avoid:

operating it for long periods of time.
turning it ON and OFF frequently.
operating it with a high-intensity spot displayed.
operating it with high-frequency signal circuits.
496) The waveform displayed on the screen of the oscilloscope represents a plot of:
voltage versus time.
voltage versus current.
current versus time.
current versus resistance.
497) Auto ranging is a feature of a multimeter that:
automatically indicates the polarity of DC measurements
automatically adjusts the meter's measuring circuits to the correct range.
captures a reading and displays it from memory.
responds to the effective heating valve of an AC waveform.
498) Technician A says analog meters are more accurate than digital meters. Technician B says
digital meters that use a light-emitting diode (LED) display have a longer battery life than those
that use a liquid-crystal display (LCD). Who is correct?
Technician A only
Technician B only
499) When using the ohmmeter as a continuity tester, an open circuit is indicated by:
a low-resistance reading.
a high-resistance reading.
an infinite-resistance reading.
a zero-resistance reading.
500) To zero set an analog-type ohmmeter, adjust the zero-set knob for a pointer reading of:
infinity with the meter-test leads open.
infinity with the meter-test leads connected together
zero with the meter-test leads connected together.

zero with the meter-test leads open.
501) A milliammeter is designed measure:
higher values of current than an ammeter does.
lower values of current than an ammeter does.
DC current only.
AC current only.
502) An analog multimeter is connected to measure a DC voltage, and the needle reads below
zero. The most likely cause is:
loss of potential.
an incorrect meter setting.
a damaged needle.
reversed polarity.
503) A DC analog voltmeter can be used to measure an AC voltage if:
the incoming AC voltage is rectified.
the incoming AC voltage is amplified.
an additional multiplier resistor is connected to the circuit.
an additional shunt resistor is connected to the circuit.
504) A reading of 4.7 k on the display of a digital multimeter indicates a resistance
reading of:
47000
4700
470
47
505) The multimeter:
can measure voltage, current, or resistance.
is the most widely used of all test instruments
is a combination ammeter, voltmeter, and ohmmeter in one single, cased instrument.
all of these.
506) Analog meters:
make use of a digital display.

use a mechanical type of meter movement.
usually cost more than the digital type.
give a more accurate reading than the digital type.
507) Functia de transfer pentru un element de ordinul II
- corect
nici-o varianta
508) Functia de transfer pentru un element de ordinul III
nici-o varianta
509) Timpul de raspuns al unui sistem este :
timpul dintre momentul pornirii procesului pana cand marimea de iesire prezinta un maxim
in evolutia ei
timpul dintre momentul pornirii procesului pana cand marimea de iesire prezinta un minim
in evolutia ei
timpul dupa care valoarea absoluta a diferentei dintre marimea de iesire si valoarea ei
de regim stationar devine mai mica si se mentine sub o anumita limita
timpul dintre momentul pornirii procesului pana cand acesta ia sfarsit
510) Functia de transfer pentru un element proportional
- corect
nici-o varianta
511) Functia de transfer pentru un element de ordinul I
- corect
nici-o varianta
512) Clasificarea sistemelor automate dupa natura semnalelor prelucrate de sistemul automat :
sisteme automat conventionale; sisteme adaptive;
sisteme deschise; sisteme inchise;
sisteme monovariabile; sisteme multivariabile
sisteme automate continue; sisteme numerice;
513) Teoria sistemelor automate se ocupa cu :
analiza functionala a sistemelor automate
corectia functionala si structurale a sistemelor automate
sinteza proiectarii sistemelor automate
a,b si c
514) Clasificarea sistemelor automate dupa cantitatea de informatie apriori disponibila :
515) Clasificarea sistemelor automate dupa numarul de variabile de intrare si de iesire :
516) Clasificarea sistemelor automate dupa structura lor

517) Circuitul din figura58 realizeaza functia
Figura 58
- corect
AB+CD
AC+BD
518) Figura52 prezinta simbolul unui
Figura 52
AND (SI)
NAND (SI negat)
EOR (SAU exclusiv)
ENOR (SAU exclusiv negat)
Figura 53
AND (SI)
NAND (SI negat)
EOR (SAU exclusiv)
Figura 54
AND (SI)
NAND (SI negat)
EOR (SAU exclusiv)
Figura 55
AND (SI)
NAND (SI negat)
EOR (SAU exclusiv)
Figura 56
AND (SI)
NAND (SI negat)
OR (SAU)
NOR (SAU negat)
Figura 57
AND (SI)
NAND (SI negat)
OR (SAU)
NOR (SAU negat)
524) O memorie RAM este o memorie cu access de _________:
citire
scriere
citire si scriere
initializare
525) O memorie ROM este o memorie _________

volatila
nevolativa
distructiva
526) Procesoarele sunt automate de ordinul ____
I
II
III sau mai mare
nu sunt automate
527) Arhitectura minimala a unui calculator este formata din :
procesor, memorie (RAM, ROM), bus de semnale, porturi de I/O
procesor, tastatura, monitor
monitor, tastatura
placa de baza, procesor, hard-disk, floppy
528) Porturile de I/O sunt cuplate la procesor prin intermediul _______
firelor
panglici de semnale
bus-ului procesor de date, adrese si semnale de comanda si contro
529) Procesorul este format din :
o unitate aritmetica RALU
o unitate de comenzi
un calculator
a si b
530) Microprocesorul Intel PIV este realizat in tehnologie
LSI
MSI
VLSI
531) Indicatorul Z (zero -Flag) al RALU indica
Registrul acumulator este 0
In urma unei operatii aritmetica sau logice rezultatul a fost nul

RALU a generat o eroare
Lipsa tensiune la RALU
532) Indicatorul CY (Carry -Flag) al RALU indica
A aparut un transport de iesire din cel mai semnificativ bit al rezultatului in urma unei
operatii aritmetice(logice)
Operatie cu operanzi invalizai in RALU
Valoare din registrul acumulator este negativa
Nu exista un astfel de fanion
533) Indicatorul S (S - Sign) al RALU
Bitul cel mai semnificativ al rezultatului ia valoarea 1 in urma unei operatii aritmetice sau
logice
Bitul cel mai semnificativ al acumulatorului este 1, in urma unei operatii de transfer
Acumulatorul contine unnumar negativ
In urma unei operatii aritmetice intre numere cu semn, rezultatul este negativ
534) Indicatorul H (H- Half carry) al RALU
Nu exista un astfel de fanion
S-a realizat un transfer de la bitul 4 la bitul 5 in urma operatiei de scadere
S-a realizat un transfer de la bitul 7 la bitul 8 in urma operatiei de adunare
In urma unei operati logice nu a avut loc nici-un transfer
535) Dimensiunea acumulatorului dintr-un microprocesor de 8 biti
1 Byte
16 biti
1 bit
2 Bytes
536) Cati biti are un Byte
8 biti
7 biti
4 biti
32 biti
537) Cea mai mica unitatea informationala de transport

Byte
Word
bit
mol
538) Unitatea de decodofocare a instructiunilor este ______ .
un circuit logic combinational (CLC)
un buffer
o memorie
un automat programabil
539) Contorul de adrese de program este numit ____ :
Nu exista un astfel de registru
Registru de deplasare
PAC (Programm addressing Counter)
PC ( program counter) register
540) Procesorul acceseza programul executat curent din _______
dispozitivul de lucru cu operatorul
unitatea floppy
segmentul de memorie alocat programului ce se afla in executie
de la tastatura
541) Tastatura este ________
un dispozitiv absolut necesar pentru functionarea calculatorului
un set de butoane conectate la microprocero prin intermediul unui cablu
un periferic de interfata a calculatorului cu operatorul uman
542) Denumirea primului ciclu masina:
DOWNLOAD
RETRIVE DATA
FETCH
LOAD
543) Se aplica un semnal sinusoidal la intrarea unui amplificator functionand in clasa A.
Unghiul de conductie al elementului amplificator este:
360grd;
cuprins intre 180 grd si 360grd;
180grd
mai mic de 180grd;
544) Se aplica un semnal sinusoidal la intrarea unui amplificator functionand in clasa AB.
360grd;
180grd
mai mic de 180grd;
545) Se aplica un semnal sinusoidal la intrarea unui amplificator functionand in clasa B.
360grd;
180grd
mai mic de 180grd;
546) Se aplica un semnal sinusoidal la intrarea unui amplificator functionand in clasa C.
360grd;
180grd
mai mic de 180grd;
547) Figura27 prezinta:
Figura 27
schema bloc a unui amplificator cu reactie serie paralel
schema bloc a unui amplificator cu reactie serie serie
schema bloc a unui amplificator cu reactie paralel paralel
schema bloc a unui amplificator cu reactie paralel serie
Figura
28
Figura 29
Figura 30
551) In mod uzual amplificatorul electronic este definit cu ajutorul schemei bloc din figura 40.
Marimea ?xi? reprezinta
Figura 40
valoarea instantanee a semnalului de intrare sau excitatie
valoarea instantanee a semnalului de iesire sau raspuns
amplificarea amplificatorului
impedanta de intrare
552) Marimea ?xo? din figura 40 reprezinta
Figura 40
553) Marimea ?a? din figura 40 reprezinta
Figura 40
554) in practica, sunt tranzistoarele din amplificatoarele in contratimp clasa B au jonctiunea

baza - emitor prepolarizata direct astfel ca prin fiecare tranzistor sa circule un mic curent de
repaus. Despre aceste amplificatoare se spune ca lucreaza in clasa AB. Prin aceasta se urmareste:
marirea randamentului;
marirea amplificarii in putere
marirea benzii de trecere

reducerea distorsiunii de trecere
555) Variatoarele de tensiune continue sunt de obicei utilizate pentru:

alimentarea motoarelor asincrone
reglarea turatiilor masinilor electrice de curent continuu
alimentarea generatoarelor sincrone
reglarea turatiei motoarelor sincrone
556) Ce particularitate au invertoarele de comutatie fortata fara de cele cu comutatie naturala?

se alimenteaza direct de la retea
au sarcina rezistiva
au circuite auxiliare pentru blocarea dispozitivelor semi-conductoare
se alimenteaza prin intermediul unui transformator coborator de tensiune
557) Ce rol are condensatorul din schema invertorului Wagner?

filtru
de a reduce armonicile de curent
de a mari tensiunea
de a furniza energia reactiva necesara comutatiei
558) Ce caracteristica principala au invertoarele autonome de tensiune trifazate?

pot avea numai sarcina rezistiva
pot fi alimentate numai de la un transformator
sunt necomandate
blocarea tiristorului principal se realizeaza prin amorsarea unui alt tiristor
principal
559) Variatorul de tensiune continua pentru patru cadrane, permite functionarea motorului de
curent continuu astfel
in regim de motor, generator, in ambele sensuri de rotatie
in regim de motor
in regim de generator
in regim de frana
560) Un amplificator operational lucrand in bucla inchisa (cu reactie negativa) are amplificarea
in tensiune intotdeauna:
unitara
subununitara
determinata de reteaua de reactie
foarte mare
561) Figura22 prezinta configuratia standard de stabilizator serie cu reactie. Blocul notat AE
amplificatorul de eroare - are rolul:
Figura 22 Configuraie standard de stabilizator

pentru tensiuni mari
de a asigura reactia negativa
de a compara compara nivelul de tensiune cules de reteaua de reactie cu nivelul de
tensiune al sursei de referinta si a genera un semnal proportional cu diferenta dintre ele
(amplifica semnalul de eroare).
unei rezistente variabile, astfel incat tensiunea pe sarcina sa fie mentinuta constanta
de a asigura un nivel constant al tensiunii pe care o genereaza
562) Figura22 prezinta configuratia standard de stabilizator serie cu reactie. Blocul notat UREF
tensiunea de referinta- are rolul

de a compara compara nivelul de tensiune cules de reteaua de reactie cu nivelul de tensiune

al sursei de referinta si a genera un semnal proportional cu diferenta dintre ele (amplifica
semnalul de eroare).
563) Figura22 prezinta configuratia standard de stabilizator serie cu reactie. Rezistorii R1 si R2
au rolul

de a compara compara nivelul de tensiune cules de reteaua de reactie cu nivelul de tensiune
al sursei de referinta si a genera un semnal proportional cu diferenta dintre ele (amplifica
semnalul de eroare).
564) Figura22 prezinta configuratia standard de stabilizator serie cu reactie. TR tranzistorul
regulator - are rolul

de a compara nivelul de tensiune cules de reteaua de reactie cu nivelul de tensiune al sursei
de referinta si a genera un semnal proportional cu diferenta dintre ele (amplifica semnalul de
eroare).
565) Figura23 prezinta exemplul tipic de stabilizator serie cu reactie. Grupul R3, Dz are rolul
Figur
a 23 Stabilizator cu reacie (exemplu)
de element regulator
de retea de reactie
de sursa de referinta
de amplificator de eroare
566) Figura23 prezinta exemplul tipic de stabilizator serie cu reactie. Grupul R4, T1 are rolul
Figur
de retea de reactie
567) Figura23 prezinta exemplul tipic de stabilizator serie cu reactie. Tranzistorul T2 are rolul
Figur
de retea de reactie
568) Figura23 prezinta exemplul tipic de stabilizator serie cu reactie. Grupul R1, R2 are rolul
Figur
de retea de reactie
569) Figura25 prezinta un stabilizator cu dioda Zener imbunatatit. Cea de a doua celula de
stabilizare are rolul de a
Figura 25
mari curentul de iesire
micsora curentul de iesire
micsora factorul de stabilizare
mari factorul de stabilizare
570) Figura26 prezinta un stabilizator cu dioda Zener imbunatatit. Tranzistorul T are rolul de a
Figura 26
mari curentul de iesire
micsora curentul de iesire
micsora factorul de stabilizare
mari factorul de stabilizare
571) Pentru amplificatorul de tensiune
atat semnalul de excitatie cat si semnalului de raspuns reprezinta tensiuni

atat semnalul de excitatie cat si semnalului de raspuns reprezinta curenti
semnalul de excitatie este curent iar cel de raspuns tensiune
semnalul de excitatie este tensiune iar cel de raspuns curent
572) Pentru amplificatorul de curent
573) Pentru amplificatorul transrezistenta (tranzimpedanta)
574) Pentru amplificatorul transconductanta (transadmitanta)
575) Figura31 prezinta un amplificator cu reactie. in acest caz reactia este de tipul:
Figura 31
serie paralel
serie serie
paralel paralel
paralel serie
Figura 32
serie paralel
serie serie
paralel paralel
paralel serie
Figura 33
serie paralel
serie serie
paralel paralel
paralel serie
Figura 34
serie paralel
serie serie
paralel paralel
paralel serie
579) Figura41 prezinta schema echivalenta ideala pentru
Figura 41
amplificatorul de tensiune
amplificatorul de curent
amplificatorul transrezistenta
amplificatorul transconductanta
Figura 42
Figura 43
Figura 44
583) Figura45 prezinta schema echivalenta uzuala pentru amplificatorul de tensiune. Despre rI si
ro se poate spune:
Figura 45
rI are valori foarte mici in timp ce r0 este foarte mare
rI are valori foarte mari in timp ce r0 este foarte mic
atat rI cat si ro sunt foarte mici
atat rI cat si ro sunt foarte mari
ro se poate spune:
Figura 46
ro se poate spune:
Figura 47
ro se poate spune:
Figura 48
587) Castigul in tensiune al unui amplificator de tensiune se masoara in
dB
Ohm
S
m
588) Castigul in curent al unui amplificator de curent se masoara in
dB
Ohm
S
m
589) Amplificarea transimpedanta a unui amplificator transimpedanta se masoara in
dB
Ohm
S
m
590) Amplificarea transadmitanta a unui amplificator transadmitanta se masoara in
dB
Ohm
S
m
591) Considerand RB>>rz rezistenta de iesire a circuitului de stabilizare din figura 14, este
aproximativ
Figura 14. Stabilizator cu

diod Zener.
RB;
RB+rZ
rz
foarte mare
592) Pentru etajul emitor comun prezentat in figura 15, considerand RC<
Figura 15. Etaj

emitor comun ncrcat la intrare i la ieire
- corect
;
;
593) in prezenta unei reactii negative globale aplicata unui amplificator construit din mai multe
etaje, valoarea raportului S/N (semnal/zgomot) masurata la iesire este:
mai mare;
neschimbata
mai mica
mult mai mare
594) Reactia negativa aplicata unui etaj de amplificare face ca valoarea raportului S/N
(semnal/zgomot) masurata la iesire sa fie:
mai mare;
neschimbata
mai mica
mult mai mare
595) Randamentul unui amplificator ideal in clasa A (figura 16), avand sarcina cuplata prin
transformator este:
Figura 16. Amplificator de

putere n clas A utiliznd transformator de ieire
12,5%;
25%;
50%;
1
596) in figura 17 este reprezentata schema de principiu a unui un amplificator in contratimp cu

tranzistoare identice functionand in clasa B. Excursia maxima de tensiune este:
Figura 4. Etaj de iesire in clasa B. Schema de

principiu.
1/2 EC;
EC;
2EC;
4EC;
597) in figura 17 este reprezentat un amplificator in contratimp cu tranzistoare identice

functionand in clasa B. Randamentul amplificatorului este aproximativ
Figura 4. Etaj de iesire in clasa B. Schema de

principiu.
25 %;
50 %;
78 %;
88 %;
598) Pentru etajul emitor comun prezentat in figura 15 rezistenta de intrare, in regim cvasistatic
de semnal mic, este
Figura 15. Etaj

Rin r
Rin
Rin Rc
599) Pentru etajul emitor comun prezentat in figura 15 rezistenta de iesire, in regim cvasistatic
de semnal mic, este:
Figura 15. Etaj

RoRc
600) Pentru etajul emitor comun prezentat in figura 15 frecventa superioara de lucru este:
Figura 15. Etaj

H
HT
H1
601) Pentru etajul colector comun prezentat in figura 18 amplificarea in tensiune U0/Ein, in
regim cvasistatic de semnal mic, este:
Figura 18.
Etaj colector comun ncrcat la intrare i la ieire
;
- corect
;
602) Pentru etajul colector comun prezentat in figura 18 rezistenta de intrare, in regim cvasistatic
Figura 18.
Rin r
Rin
- corect
Rin RE
603) Pentru etajul colector comun prezentat in figura 18 rezistenta de iesire (cu intrare in
scurtcircuit), in regim cvasistatic de semnal mic, este
Figura 18.
- corect
RoRE
604) Pentru etajul baza comuna prezentat in figura19 amplificarea in tensiune U0/Uin, in regim
cvasistatic de semnal mic (considerand RC<
Figura
19. Schema electric a unui etaj baz comun ncrcat la intrare i ieire
;
;
- corect
605) Pentru etajul baza comuna prezentat in figura 19 rezistenta de intrare, in regim cvasistatic
Figura
Rin r
Rin
- corect
Rin RE
606) Pentru etajul baza comuna prezentat in figura 19 rezistenta de iesire (cu intrare in
scurtcircuit), in regim cvasistatic de semnal mic, este:
Figura
RoRc
607) Pentru etajul baza comuna prezentat in figura 19 frecventa superioara de lucru este:
Figura
H
HT
H1
608) Schema din figura 20 prezinta un amplificator inversor construit cu ajutorul unui
amplificator operational. Amplificarea in tensiune este:
Figura 20 Amplificator inversor

- corect
Au=1
Au este foarte mare
609) Schema din figura 21 prezinta un amplificator neinversor construit cu ajutorul unui
amplificator operational. Amplificarea in tensiune este
Figura 21 Amplificator neinversoare
- corect
Au=1
Au este foarte mare
610) Figura24 prezinta un stabilizator cu dioda Zener. in functionare normala iZ indeplineste
conditia
Figura 24 Stabilizator cu
diod Zener.
- corect
611) Coeficientul de stabilizare al stabilizatorului din figura 24 este aproximativ
diod Zener.
- corect
612) Rezistenta de iesire a stabilizatorului din figura 24 este aproximativ
diod Zener.
- corect
613) Figura35 prezinta schema unui amplificator sumator. Tensiunea de iesire are expresia
Figura 35 Amplificator sumator

- corect
614) Figura36 prezinta schema unui circuit de integrare. Tensiunea de iesire are expresia
Figura 36 Circuit de integrare
- corect
615) Figura37 prezinta schema unui circuit de derivare. Tensiunea de iesire are expresia
Figura 37
- corect
616) Figura38 prezinta schema unui circuit de logaritmare. Tensiunea de iesire are expresia
Figura 38 Circuit de logaritmare
- corect
uO=1
uO=uIN
617) Figura39 prezinta schema unui circuit de antilogaritmare. Tensiunea de iesire are expresia
Figura 39 Circuit de antilogaritmare

uO=1
uO=uIN
- corect
618) Impedanta de intrare in regim cvasistatic de semnal mic a unui amplificator de tensiune se
determina
introducand o sursa de test la intrare, iesirea fiind lasata in gol
introducand o sursa de test la intrare, la iesire introducandu-se o rezistenta sarcina de un 1
kW
introducand o sursa de test la intrare, iesirea fiind scurtcircuitata
introducand o sursa de test la intrare, la iesire introducandu-se o rezistenta sarcina a carei
valoare se determina din calcul
619) Impedanta de intrare in regim cvasistatic de semnal mic a unui amplificator de curent se
determina
kW
620) Impedanta de intrare in regim cvasistatic de semnal mic a unui amplificator transimpedanta
se determina
kW

621) Impedanta de intrare in regim cvasistatic de semnal mic a unui amplificator transadmitanta
se determina
kW
622) Impedanta de iesire in regim cvasistatic de semnal mic a unui amplificator de tensiune se
determina
kW
623) Impedanta de iesire in regim cvasistatic de semnal mic a unui amplificator de curent
se determina
kW
624) Impedanta de iesire in regim cvasistatic de semnal mic a unui amplificator transimpedanta
se determina

kW
625) Impedanta de iesire in regim cvasistatic de semnal mic a unui amplificator transadmitanta
se determina
kW
626) Pentru un tranzistor bipolar in regim de blocare
ambele jonctiuni sunt polarizate invers
ambele jonctiuni sunt polarizate direct
jonctiunea emitorului este polarizata direct, iar jonctiunea emitorului este polarizata invers
jonctiunea colectorului este polarizata direct, iar jonctiunea emitorului este polarizata invers
627) Pentru un tranzistor bipolar in regim saturat
628) Pentru un tranzistor bipolar in regim activ normal inversat
629) In regim de blocare
tranzistorul bipolar se comporta ca un circuit intrerupt
tranzistorul bipolar se comporta ca un scurt circuit
apare efectul de transistor

tranzistorul nu se foloseste
630) In regim saturat
631) In regim activ normal

632) In regim activ normal inversat
633) In conditii normale, o dioda stabilizatoare functioneaza
in regim de polarizare directa
in regim de polarizare inversa la tensiunea de strapungere V(BR)
in regim de polarizare inversa, la o tensiune mai mica decat V(BR);
in regim de polarizare inversa, la o tensiune mai mare decat V(BR);
634) Tranzitia din starea de blocare in starea de conductie (amorsarea sau aprinderea) unui
tiristor se face prin
numai comanda de pe poarta
comanda de pe poarta si polarizarea directa a structurii (plus pe anod minus pe catod).
numai polarizarea directa a structurii (plus pe anod minus pe catod).

comanda de pe poarta si polarizarea inversa a structurii (minus pe anod pe plus catod)
635) Blocarea tiristorului se face
actionand in circuitul de forta prin reducerea curentului principal
polarizind invers jonctiunea poarta (grila) catod
polarizind invers jonctiunea poarta (grila) anod
prin efect duA/dt
Figura 6
TECMOS cu canal initial p
TECMOS cu canal initial n
TECMOS cu canal indus p
TECMOS cu canal indus n
637) Figura7 prezinta simbolul unui:
Figura 7

Figura 8

640) Mecanismul strapungerii intr-o dioda de referinta (stabilizatoare) este:
totdeauna Zener
totdeauna strapungere prin avalansa
uneori strapungere Zener, alteori strapungere prin avalansa dar niciodata o combinatie a
ambelor
uneori strapungere Zener, alteori strapungere prin avalansa si cateodata o combinatie
a ambelor

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1) Cleaning the copper foil of a PC board prior to soldering:

is only necessary if the foil appears dirty or dull.

21) The current drawn by a motor is:

change alternating current to direct current

38) The output power rating of an op-amp:

is a series of separately-produced components wired within a printed circuit board.

53) Combinational logic circuits have no memory.

62) Computers are capable of storing large amounts of data.

a rectifier in the load circuit

voltage amp, current amp and output amp

high conductivity at low temperatures

prevent excessive temperature rise

holds insulation together well

a diode in series with a temperature sensitive capacitor

All of the above.

convert direct current to alternating current

139) External shunts are sometimes used with ammeters to:

an SCR is a switching device, while a triac is an amplifying device.

150) The main application for SCRs and triacs is:

positive or negative with respect to its source.

a zero-resistance reading in both directions.

the RC time constant

178) The range of an analog voltmeter is determined by:

924.6 , 59.4 grd

Phi will be < 45grd

206) Hysteresis loss in a transformer is caused by:

211) IT for the circuit below is:

212) The primary coil of a transformer:

214) The induced voltage in an inductor is called its:

neither of the above

215) The reactance of a 0.1-mH inductor at 2.1 MHz is:

216) Arcing in switch contacts that control an inductive circuit:

217) The resistance of a conductor increases as frequency increases because of the:

218) The base unit of inductance is the:

none of the above

219) The dc resistance of an inductor is also known as its:

228) In the circuit below, VC2 will be:

both of the above

the peak value of the output voltage.

250) In a power-supply circuit the transformer can be used to:

260) A transformer is a device used to:

261) An iron core is used in a transformer to:

262) Lagging power factor is often produced by:

264) In general, impedance has an effect on an AC circuit similar to:

265) Impedance may be defined as:

267) Polarized fixed capacitors must be connected:

full-scale deflection of pointer

269) As applied to a capacitor, the word dielectric refers to:

270) In an ideal inductor:

271) Energy is stored in a capacitor by means of:

272) Which of the following is not an advantage of high-intensity discharge lamps?

They have a very long life expectancy.

273) High-intensity discharge lamps:

275) The fluorescent bulb produces light by:

276) The instant-start fluorescent tube:

requires a very high starting voltage.

279) The best way to test an incandescent lamp filament is:

280) The resistance of a 200-W, 120-V incandescent lamp would be:

higher than that of a 40-W, 120-V incandescent lamp.

none of the above

100 turns and 10 A

The total current flow of the circuit in Figure 5 is:

wood, paper, and glass.