Legal Med

1. The following are authorized to perform autopsies.

a. Barangay health workers
b. Medical officers of the PNP Crime Lab
c. Medical staff of the FBI
d. None of the above
Rationale: The key to this question is whether an official or non-offical autopsy is performed. I
would assume that the following refers to an official autopsy, which is mandated by law, for
unnatural causes of death. Using this line of reasoning, only the following individuals would
be allowed to perform an official autopsy:
Medico-legal of PNP, Medico-legal of NBI, Municipal/Health Officers who are considered ex
officio medical officers, those authorized by an ordinance or thru request from chief of police,
mayor, or prosecutor.
2. After a patient was brought to the hospital, he was pronounced dead after 2 hours of an acute
myocardial infarction. The relatives noted that he was still warm and his body was still supple.
The resident explained that the complete relaxation and softening of all the muscles found
immediately after death is normal and is called:
a. Period of muscular flaccidity
b. Stage of primary flaccidity
c. Cadaveric flaccidity
d. Rigor mortis
Rationale: Since the patient died less than 6 hours, the patient is in the stage of primary
flaccidity. During this stage, the muscles are relaxed and capable of contracting when
stimulated.
3. A body was found dead at a garbage dump in Rizal. At the time, the whole body was found to be
completely stiffened. The time of death is at least:
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 18 hours
d. 24 hours
Rationale: The stage of rigor mortis or gradual stiffening occurs between 6-24 hours.
4. Nurse Ofel decided that her 55 y/o patient had suffered enough from the pain of bronocogenic
carcinoma. She decided to end his suffering by giving him 1000 mg of oxycodone. As a result,
the patient dies. She is most probably guilty of:
a. Infanticide

b. Murder
c. Parricide
d. Homicide
Rationale: The following would fall under the criteria of murder. The doctor played an active
participation in the death of a person and with explicit intent to end his life.
5. Sgt. Tony was found guilty of the crime of espionage. He was sentenced to death. The mode of
judicial death favoured by the military is:
a. Death by tickling
b. Death by electrocution
c. Death my musketry
d. Death by lethal injection
Rationale: Could not find this in any of the sources, but traditionally military death is through
death by firing squad.
6. A dead body must be buried within 48 hours except for the following conditions:
a. If the patient dies of some dangerous communicable disease
b. The body is embalmed
c. When it is still a subject matter legal investigation
d. None of the above
Rationale: The following are the exceptions to burial within 48 hours, including subject of
investigation, authorized by the local health authorities that may be buried more than 48H, and
impliedly when embalmed.
7. A grandmother was insisting that her helper be charged with infanticide for the death of her 5
day old grandson. The assistant City Prosecutor disagreed and said that an infant is defined an
infanticide as:
a. A newborn up to 28 days old
b. A baby up to 2 years old
c. A child less than 3 days old
d. A child less than 2 months old
Rationale: Infanticide is defined as the killing of a child less than 3 days old.
8. Which of the following statements is true regarding Post Mortem Hypostasis
a. It is a result of the inaction of gravity on the blood
b. It is found in the most dependent portions of the body
c. It is accompanied with injuries to the skin
d. It occurs 36 hours after death

Rationale: The followinga are the characteristics of post-mortem hypostasis

Occurs in the most dependent areas, Involves the superficial layer of the skin, Does not appear
elevated from the rest of the skin., Color is uniform, No injury of the skin

9. A dead body must be buried within 48 hours except for the following conditions:
a. If the patient dies of some dangerous communicable disease
b. The body is embalmed
c. When it is still a subject matter of legal investigation
d. None of the above
Rationale: The following are the exceptions to burial within 48 hours, including subject of
investigation, authorized by the local health authorities that may be buried more than 48H, and
impliedly when embalmed.

10. The following is significant in exact determination of death except:

a. Civil personality is extinguished by death
b. Succession happens at the exact moment of death
c. Agency and partnerships survive the death
d. Criminal liability is extinguished
Rationale: The following is false because death causes dissolution/extinction of certain
relationships including marriage, partnership, agencies.
11. This is the deliberate and painless acceleration of death of a person usually suffering from an
incurable and distressing illness:
a. Euthanasia
b. Judicial death
c. Suicide
d. Homicide
Rationale: Euthanasia also known as mercy killing is the acceleration of death of a person who is
suffering from a terminal illness.
12. What manner of death need not be autopsied?
a. Violent death
b. Death from chronic illness
c. Suicide
d. Patients who are dead on arrival

Rationale: For individuals who died from natural causes, autopsies need not to be performed. If
one is performed, it is non-official/non medico legal autopsy.
13. The following are inquest officers who are charged by the state to inquire into the manner and
cause of death:
a. Provincial and City Prosecutors
b. Justices of the Court of Appeals
c. Justices of the Sandiganbayan
d. All of the above

Rationale: The following individuals are responsible for death investigations Provincial and City
Prosecutors, Judges of the RTC, MTC, Director of NBI, SolGen
14. A 65 year old man was rushed to the DLSUMC-ER after suffering severe chest pains while
exercising in the stair climber at Fitness Gym. He was pronounced dead after being diagnosed
with a massive myocardial infarction. The manner of death of the man is:
a. Instantaneous death
b. Violent death
c. Natural death
d. None of the above
Rationale: The following falls under natural death or a fatality caused solely by disease i.e. cancer,
pneumonia, etc.
15. The following are the medicolegal implications of livor mortis:
a. It indicates the position of the body prior to death
b. Color of the lividity is not indicative of the cause of death
c. It may indicate time of death
d. None of the above
Rationale: occurs in the most extensive areas of the most dependent portions of the body to
determine the position of the body when the person died.
16. This is the instantaneous rigidity of the muscles which occurs at the moment of death due to
extreme nervous tension, exhaustion, and injury to the nervous system:
a. Rigor mortis
b. Cadaveric spasm
c. Secondary flaccidity
d. Putrefaction

Rationale: C and D refer to flaccidity so the two are automatically eliminated. A and B are the
only choices left. However, A refers to GRADUAL rigidity while B refers to instantaneous
rigidity. Therefore, the answer is B.
17. The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of two persons compared, the
greater is the probability for the conclusion to be correct is found in:
a. Law of multiplicity of evidence in identification
b. Identification by comparison and exclusion
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
Rationale: The law of multiplicity of evidence is defined as the greater the number of points of
similarities and dissimilarities of 2 persons compared, the great the probability for the conclusion
to be correct.
18. Some scientific methods of identification used are the following, EXCEPT:
a. Finger printing
b. Dental identification
c. Handwriting
d. Identification of skeleton
e. Identification of close friend and relative
Rationale: The following are the scientific methods of identification Fingerprinting, Dental
identification, handwriting, Identification of skeleton, Determination of Sex, Age, Identification of
blood, blood stains, Identification of hair, fibers
19. The art of identification by comparison of fingerprint:
a. Dactylography
b. Dactyloscopy
c. Poroscopy
d. All of the above
Rationale: Dactyloscopy is the art of indentification by comparison of fingerprints. It is the study
and utilization of fingerprints.
20. Instances when the size of the entrance wound is bigger than the caliber of the firearm used
EXCEPT:
a. Contact fire
b. Deformity of the bullet
c. Acute angular approach of the bullet
d. Fragmentation of the bullet

Rationale: The following are the situations wherein the wound of entrance bigger than the caliber:
in contact or near fire, deformity of the bullet which entered, bullet might have entered the skin
sidewise, and acute angular approach of the bullet
21. The following are types of medical evidences, EXCEPT:
a. Personal evidence
b. Testimonial evidence
c. Experimental evidence
d. Autoptic evidence
Rationale: Four types of medical evidences include autoptic or real evidence, testimonial
evidence, experimental evidence or documentary evidence, and physical evidence. Therefore, the
answer is A.
22. The commonly used methods of deception detection are the following, EXCEPT:
a. Use of polygraph or lie detection machine
b. Administration of truth serum
c. Hypnotism
d. Use of electro-encephalogram
Rationale: The following are used to determine deception detection: polygraphic lie detector
machine, word association test, psychological stress evaluator, truth serum, and hypnotism.
23. In identification, the characteristics of an individual that may not easily by changed are the
following, EXCEPT:
a. Structure
b. Speech
c. Mental memory
d. Gait
Rationale: B, C, and D are not easily changed.
24. In determining the sex of a skeleton which bone is NOT used:
a. Pelvis
b. Skull
c. Sternum
d. Tibia
Rationale: For sex the pelvis, skull femur, sternum, and humerus are used to determine sex.
25. Which of the following statements is WRONG?
a. The male pelvis is heavier in construction than the female pelvis

b. The female cranium has a less curved shaft

c. The styloid process is longer and more slender is female bones
d. Mastoid process is longer in male bones
Rationale: The male cranium has less curvature than the female cranium.

26. ?
a.
b.
c.
d.

?
Stab wound
Petechiae
Lacerated wound

27. The following are classified as closed wounds EXCEPT:

a. Hematoma
b. Contusion
c. Sprain
d. Perforating wound
Rationale: Perforating wounds are open wounds. Examples of perforating wounds would be
stab wounds caused by penetration of a sharp-pointed instrument. Other types of open
wounds include abrasions, incisions, and lacerated wounds.
28. The identification of fire arms or ballistics is important in firearms injuries since it helps in the:
a. Differentiation between entrance and exit of gunshot wounds
b. Determination of the distance from the assailant to the victim
c. Determination of relative position of the victim from the assailant
d. Identification of the weapon used
Rationale: The primary person of ballistics testing is for firearm identification, which is to
determine whether the gun that is the subject of the investigation was the same gun used or
fired.
29. The product of combustion produced by the firearms are the following EXCEPT:
a. Smudging
b. Tattooing
c. Singeeing
d. Contusion collar
Rationale: Smudging, Tattooing, Contusion collar, are all products of combustion in close
contact injuries

30. Kinds of death:

a. Somatic death
b. Apparent death
c. Cellular death
d. None of the above
Rationale: A,B,C are the three kinds of death. I think they meant d to be all of the above. If the
following is not changed for the exam, just choose A, B, or C since all three are the types of
death.

31. The following officials of the Government are authorized to make death investigations, EXCEPT:
a. Provincial or City Prosecutors
b. Judges of the Regional Trial Courts
c. Director of the National Bureau of Investigation
d. Director of the Philippine National Police
e. Justices of the Supreme Court
Rationale: The following are authorized to make death investigations: provincial and city
prosecutors, judges of the RTC, MTC, Director of the NBI, SolGen. There was no mention of D and
E, but between the two choices I do not think that justices of the SC are authorized to make death
investigations since they are an appellate court.
32. The different changes that take place in the muscles of the body after death:
a. Stage of primary flaccidity
b. Stage of postmortem rigidity
c. Stage of secondary flaccidity
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Rationale: A, B, C are all changes that take place in the muscles of the body after death.
33. The Medico-Legal importance is to approximate the time of death:
a. Rigor mortis
b. Muscular contraction
c. Cadaveric spasm
d. All of the above
Rationale: The following are used to determine the time of death: pallor mortis, algor mortis, livor
mortis, rigor mortis, and decomposition. Cadaveric spasm is used to determine the nature of
death.

34. The different methods of judicial death are the following, EXCEPT:
a. Death by mercy killing or euthanasia
b. Death by musketry
c. Death by electrocution
d. Death by hanging
e. Death by gas chamber

Rationale: Judicial deaths Art. III Sec.1 Par. 19 Phil. Const. cruel and unusual punishment shall
not be inflicted. ; electrocution, hanging, musketry, gas chamber.
35. Permission for cremation may not be granted when:
a. The deceased is a muslim
b. Death is due to natural causes
c. The identity of the deceased is not yet established
d. Due to infectious diseases
Rationale: Three conditions in which permission for cremation is not granted includes if the
deceased left a note, identity of the person is not definite, and the exact cause of death cannot be
ascertained and the need for further inquiry or examination.
36. Things demanded in a medical witness:
a. Unbiased in his/her testimony
b. Expert in his/her field of specialty
c. Experienced in his/her field of specialty
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Rationale: Digest. A medical witness like any expert witness must possess the following traits.
37. The following officers are authorized to perform autopsies and dissections:
a. Health officers
b. Medical officers of the law enforcement agencies
c. Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Rationale: Unlike question 1, this question seems to pertain to unofficial autopsy. Therefore, any
of the above can perform these.
38. The unburned or partially burned powder grains embedded in the skin surrounding the point of
entry in gunshot wound produce:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Tattooing
Stippling
Peppering
All of the above
None of the above

Rationale: Stippling (tattooing): Unburned powder and debris, causing punctate abrasions on target.
Larger and heavier so travels farther. Does not wipe off.
39. The whole body becomes rigid due to the contraction the muscles appearing three to six hours
after death:
a. Cadaveric spasm
b. Heat stiffening
c. Muscular contraction
d. Rigor mortis
Rationale: Rigor mortis is defined as the symmetrical rigidity of all muscles 3-6 hrs after death
used to determine the approximate time of death.
40. Killing of a child less than three days old:
a. Abortion
b. Murder
c. Infanticidal death
d. Parricidal death
Rationale: Infanticide is defined as a killing of a child less than three days old.
41. When the injuries inflicted will incapacitate an individual is to do his usual activities or medical
attendance from ten to thirty days:
a. Less serious physical injury
b. Serious physical injury
c. Slight physical injury
d. Physical deformity
Rationale: Slight-0-9 days, Less Serious- >9 and <30 days. Serious- >30 days
42. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit found in the body of the victim is even,
the presumption is that no bullet is lodged in the body. If odd, the presumption is that one or
more bullets has been lodged in the body:
a. Law of multiplicity
b. Odd and even rule
c. Law in duplicity

d. Law on numbers
Rationale: Odd and Even Rule in GSW is if the entrance and exit wound is even so presumption
that no bullet is lodged in the body.
43. Pugilistic attitude is found:
a. Drowning
b. Burn
c. Stabbing
d. Gunshot wound
Rationale: Pugilistic attitude refers to the classic flexion of the upper extremities as the body
cools.
44. A young man was stabbed in the abdomen developed generalized peritonitis and died.
Peritonitis is the:
a. Manner of death
b. Proximate cause of death
c. Immediate cause of death
d. Underlying cause of death
Rationale: The stab wound is the primary cause of death. The peritonitis is the secondary cayse of
death, which is defined as the injury or disease that was survived for a longer period of time.
45. A person lost the power of speech after being physically assaulted. The offender is liable for:
a. Mutilation
b. Slight physical injury
c. Less serious physical injury
d. Serious physical injury
Rationale: Serious physical injury involves lost of the use of speech, the power to hear or smell,
lost an eye, a hand, food an arm or leg or lost the use of said member, and incapacitated for the
work in which he was habitually engaged.
46. Which of the following is the characteristic of a gunshot wound of exit?
a. Contusion collar
b. Tattooing or smudging
c. Wound larger than the bullet
d. Edges of the wound are inverted
Rationale: A, B, D refer to the point of entry. C refers to point of exit wounds, which are usually
bigger, irregular, or stellate in shape.

47. Paraffin test is performed at the dorsum of the hands of the suspect/assailant in the shooting
incident:
a. To determine the distance of the muzzle of the wounding gun from the victim
b. To approximate how many times the offender fired the gun
c. To determine the power make and the caliber of the gun used in the killing or inflicting
of injury on the victim
d. The determine whether it is possible that the suspect could have fired the gun
Rationale: The paraffin test is used to determine whether a particular subject or suspect has
recently fired a gun or not.
48. A physician who specializes or is involved primarily with medico-legal duties is known as:
a. Medico-legal officer
b. Medical examiner
c. Coroner
d. None of the above
Rationale: Definition of a medico-legal officer aka medical jurist, medical examiner, or medicolegal expert.
49. Distinction between an ordinary physician and a medico-legal officer are the following:
a. Ordinary physician sees an injury on the viewpoint of treatment, while a medico-legal
officer sees injury on the point of view of cause
b. The purpose of an ordinary physician examining a patient is to arrive at a definite
diagnosis so that proper treatment can be administered, while the purpose of a medicolegal officer is to make a report and testify before a court
c. Minor injuries are ignored by an ordinary physician, while a medico-legal officer records
all bodily injuries
d. All of the above
Rationale: All of the following are the differences between an ordinary physician and a medicolegal officer.
50. A physician witness who testifies in court on matters he perceived from his patient in the course
of physician-patient relationship is considered as an:
a. Expert witness
b. Ordinary witness
c. Paid witness
d. All of the above

Rationale: An ordinary witness is defined as a person who goes to court and testifies on matters
he has perceived.
51. The kind of evidence necessary for conviction which proves the fact in dispute without the aid of
any inference or presumption and which correspond to the precise or actual point at issue:
a. Circumstantial evidence
b. Direct evidence
c. Preponderance of evidence
d. Documentary evidence
Rationale: The following is the definition of direct evidence. Direct evidence is evidence that
proves the fact in dispute without the aid of interference or presumption.
52. Reasons for the inadmissibility to the court of the result of lie detector examination:
a. Polygraph techniques are still in the experimental stage
b. There is no way to assure that a qualified examiner administered the test
c. The test cannot be relied upon because of many errors
d. All of the above
Rationale: All of the following contribute to the inadmissibility
53. It is an expressed acknowledgement by the accused in a criminal case of the truth of his guilt as
to the crime charged:
a. Confession
b. Admission
c. Interrogation
d. All of the above
Rationale: Confession is the expressed acknowledgement by the accused in a criminal case of the
truth of his guilt as to the crime charged.
54. Increase of lactic acid, phosphoric acid, and the reaction become acidic in the muscle after death
is found in:
a. Postmortem rigidity
b. Cadaveric rigidity
c. Rigor mortis
d. All of the above

Rationale: Stage of post-mortem rigidity ( CADAVERIC RIGIDITY ,

DEATH STRUGGLE OF MUSCLES OR RIGOR MORTIS)

= whole body is rigid due to contraction of the muscles

= starts at muscle of neck, lower jaw
= Reaction is acidic due to inc. of lactic acid
= develops 3 to 6 hours after death in temperate, earlier in warm
= last from 2 to 3 days in temperate, warm: 24-48H cold weather
18-36H summer
55. The presence of a weapon is tightly grasped by the hand of a victim of shooting incident is an
example of:
a. Rigor mortis
b. Death stiffening
c. Cadaveric spasm
d. Cadaveric ridgity
Rationale: The presence of tightly grasped hand indicates that muscle rigidity has occurred or rigor
mortis has occurred.
56. It is found in the most dependent portion of the body involving the superficial layer of the skin,
color is dull red, purplish, and uniform, not elevated which appears after death:
a. Postmortem lividity
b. Postmortem suggillation
c. Postmortem hypostasis
d. All of the above
Rationale: All the following refer to the same thing. They are just different names.
57. Which would indicate that a gun was fired at short range:
a. Abrasion collar
b. Tattooing or peppering
c. Edges of gunshot wound are inverted
d. Smaller point of entry in gunshot wound
Rationale: A short range gunshot would is defined as 1-15cm. Evidence of a short range wound
would be edges of the gunshot would are inverted. The other choices refer to close contact/near
contact wounds.
58. The relative position of the assailant to the victim in cases of gunshot wound can be determined
by:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Contusion collar
Tattooing
Peppering
Singering

Rationale: A contusion collar usually determines the point of entry of a bullet and would help to
determine the relative position between the assailant or the victim or the trajectory of bullet.
59. A heavy blunt instrument, when forcible, comes in contact with the skin and underlying tissue
can produce the following, EXCEPT:
a. Contusion
b. Fracture
c. Lacerated wound
d. Incise wound
Rationale: Incise wounds are caused by sharp, bladed instrument causing instrument.
60. Finger printing is considered to be the most valuable method of identification and is universally
used because of the following factors, EXCEPT:
a. There are no two identical fingerprints
b. Fingerprints are not changeable
c. Fingerprints are formed in the fetus in the ninth month of pregnancy
d. Fingers may be wounded or burned but the whole pattern will re-appear
Rationale: Fingerprints are established by the FOURTH MONTH of pregnancy and not nine.
61. Sexual intercourse is not necessary in this crime:
a. Abduction
b. Seduction
c. Adultery
d. Concubinage
Rationale: Sexual intercourse is not necessary in the crime of abduction. If sexual intercourse
occurs, the assailant can be charged with rape with abduction as an aggravating circumstance.
62. This term describes a woman who does not know anything about the sex act with an intact
hymen:
a. Demi-virginity
b. Virgo-intacta
c. Morally virgin
d. Prostitute

Rationale: A moral virgin is a woman who does know the nature of sexual life and not have
experienced sexual relations.
63. The element of deceit is required in cases of:
a. Forcible abduction
b. Consented abduction
c. Simple seduction
d. Qualified seduction
Rationale: Elements of simple seduction include: seduction of a woman, single or widow of good
reputation, <12 and <18 years old, and committed by means of deceit.

64. Virginity is a requirement in this crime:

a. Simple seduction
b. Forcible abduction
c. Qualified seduction
d. White slave trade
Rationale: Elements of qualified seduction: abuse of trust, between the ages of 12-18, a virgin,
and the offender is a person in public authority.
65. Those guilty of adultery who could be prosecuted:
a. Woman alone
b. Man alone
c. Married woman and the paramour who knew her to be married
d. Whole family
Rationale: Digest. Adultery is defined as consensual relations with a MARRIED woman other than
the husband. The woman and the paramour can be prosecuted. Therefore, men should never
admit to being a party to an adulterous relationship.
66. The most important finding in a genital examination is in the
a. Hymen
b. Vaginal canal
c. Vestibular mucosa
d. Labia majora and minora
Rationale: The hymen is used to determine whether there was forcibly entry especially in rape
cases and in cases of child abuse.

67. Technique of interrogating where there are two or more personnel who allegedly participated in
the commission of a crime and are interrogated separately and the results of their individual
statements are not known to one another:
a. Bluff on split-pair technique
b. Mutt and jeff technique
c. Emotional appeal
d. Stern approach
Rationale: Techniques of interrogation. Think BLEMS:
Bluff on split-pair - all suspects are interrogated separately and the results of individual statements are
not known to one another.
Mutt and Jeff - 2 investigators who acts Mutt (arrogant and restless) and Jeff (sympathetic, kind and
friendly)
Emotional appeal - sympathetic and friendly to subject
Stern approach - utilizes harsh language and immediate response is demanded.
68. Technique of interrogation whereby the question must be answered clearly and the interrogator
utilizes harsh language:
a. Mutt and jeff technique
b. Stern approach
c. Emotional appeal
d. Bluff on split-pair technique
Rationale: Techniques of interrogation. Think BLEMS:
Bluff on split-pair - all suspects are interrogated separately and the results of individual statements are
not known to one another.
Mutt and Jeff - 2 investigators who acts Mutt (arrogant and restless) and Jeff (sympathetic, kind and
friendly)
Emotional appeal - sympathetic and friendly to subject
Stern approach - utilizes harsh language and immediate response is demanded.
69. The most practical, useful, and reliable means of preserving evidence is by:
a. Photography
b. Description
c. Sketching
d. Manikin method
Rationale: Digest
70. Stage of execution in which the victim would have died had it not been for timely medical
intervention:
a. Attempted stage

b. Consummated stage
c. Frustrated stage
d. Alternative stage
Rationale: The following refers to the stages in the execution of crime. In the consummated stage, the
act itself has already been executed so immediate medical attention is needed.
71. Victim can live and survive even without medical attention:
a. Attempted stage
b. Consummated stage
c. Frustrated stage
d. Alternative stage
Rationale: The following refers to the stages in the execution of crime. In the attempted stage, the act
itself has not been executed so immediate medical attention is not needed.
72. The most powerful among the three branches of government:
a. Legislative branch
b. Executive branch
c. Judiciary
d. None of the above
Rationale: The doctrine of separation of powers and checks and balances specifies that each
branch of government has unique and specific powers and that no branch reigns supreme
over the others.
73. It mandates all lower courts to follow legal principles in decisions promulgated by the Supreme
Court:
a. Principles of checks and balance
b. Principle of res ipsa loquitor
c. Principle of stare decisis
d. None of the above
Rationale: The principle of stare decisis mandates lower courts to follow legal precedents set
forth by the Supreme Court, which may at times reverse itself.
74. The average time required for death in drowning:
a. 1-3 min
b. 2-5 min
c. 5-10 min
d. 3-6 min

Rationale: Submersion for 1 minutes is considered fatal and the average time required for death
in drowning is 2-5 minutes.
75. Condition of a woman who permits any sexual liberties as long as they abstain from rupturing
the hymen is called:
a. Demi-virginity
b. False physical virginity
c. Virgo intacta
d. True physical virginity
Rationale: A demi virgin refers to a woman who permits any form of sexual liberties as long as
they abstain from rupturing the hymen by a sexual act.
76. If the hymenal laceration involves of of the width of the hymen but does not reach the base,
the degree of laceration is:
a. Superficial
b. Complete
c. Deep
d. Complicated
Rationale: Superficial laceration does not go beyond one-half of the whole width of the hymen. A
complete laceration involves the whole width but not beyond the base of the hymen. A deep
laceration involves more than one-half of the width of the hymen but not reaching the base. A
complicated laceration involves laceration of the hymen and the surrounding tissues.
77. Virginity is an essential element in the crime of:
a. Rape
b. Qualified seduction
c. Simple seduction
d. Statutory rape
Rationale: Virginity is an element required in qualified seduction. Once again, the elements of
qualified seduction are as follow: offended person is virgin, >12 and <18 years old and the
offender is a person of public authority.
78. A bullet that penetrates the skin and hits a bone may be deflected and change direction. Such
trajectory is:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Bullet sporting movement

Russia
Missile disintegrating movement
Ricochet bullet

Rationale: A ricochet bullet is defined as a bullet that hits a hard surface and changes direction
especially when striking a hard surface at an angle.
79. Carnal relation with a female under 12 years old is called:
a. Simple seduction
b. Acts of lasciviousness
c. Qualified seduction
d. Statutory rape
Rationale: Statutory rape specifies carnal or sexual relations with minor as defined by the
statute. Under the old law, it indicates sexual relations with a female under 12 years old,
regardless of consent.
80. Which is not a requisite condition for the crime of seduction:
a. Woman is a virgin
b. Woman is unmarried, above 12, and below 18 years old
c. Sexual intercourse
d. Sexual act was committed by means of deceit
Rationale: In simple seduction, the woman does not need to be virgin, but deceit is a
necessary element. Sexual intercourse e.g. ending up in ejaculation is needed versus carnal
knowledge only in rape (penis touching the tip of the labia). Seduction involves sexual
intercourse between 12-18 years old, abuse of trust, and moral ascendancy. The most
common form of deceit is the promise of marriage.
81. When the bullet traverses an organ filled with fluid, contents within the organ are displaced
radially away from the bullet path producing extensive laceration:
a. Hydrostatic force
b. Bullet trajectomy
c. Muzzle blast
d. Shock waves
Rationale: The term hydrostatic shock describes the observation that a penetrating projectile can
produce remote wounding and incapacitating effects in living targets, in addition to local effects in
tissue caused by direct impact, through a hydraulic effect in liquid-filled tissues. It can either be A or
D.
82. In the examination of an alleged victim of sexual intercourse, hymenal laceration is said to be
compound or complicated:
a. When physician cannot fully determine whether it is laceration or not
b. When laceration is superimposed with infection
c. When laceration not involved the hymen but also the adjacent tissue
d. When there is more than one point of laceration

Rationale: A compound or complicated laceration involves the hymen and also the surrounding
tissues such as the perineum, vaginal canal, urethra, or rectum.
83. The crime of rape is committed in the following circumstances:
a. Insertion of the penis to the ears
b. Offender is a known AIDS carrier
c. Insertion of vibrator in the genital organ of the victim
d. None of the above
Rationale: Rape is defined as the forcibly insertion of the PENIS into the vagina. Insertion of the
penis into ears or other orifices as well as insertion of other objects into the vagina e.g. fingers,
tongue, etc. will fall under the crime of acts of lasciviousness or sexual assault.
84. The condition wherein blood merely gravitates into the most dependent portions of the body
but still fluid in form:
a. Diffusion lividity
b. Hypostatic lividity
c. Both
d. None of the above
Rationale: Hypostatic lividity-blood still in fluid form. Diffusion lividity- blood has already clotted.
85. Immediately after hearing a loud shot coming from the bedroom, the parents forcibly open the
door and find their 25 year old son dead with a gunshot wound at the right temple and with the
butt of the fatal gun held tightly on the palm of the right hand. Such condition of the hand is
known as:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Cadaveric spasm
Post-mortem rigidity
Rigor mortis
Death stiffening

Rationale: The key to the question is the gun is held tightly on his hand. This would indicate
muscle rigidity and stiffening or the stage of rigor mortis, which implies that the person has been
dead for at least 6-24 hours.
86. Which is classified as mutilation:
a. Loss of eye due to stabbing
b. Vasectomy
c. Intentionally cutting off the ear
d. Orchidectomy in a case of prostatic cancer

Rationale: Mutilation is defined as the INTENTIONAL act of looping or cutting any parts of a living
person.
87. When is laceration of the hymen considered superficial?
a. Causes congestion only of the affected area
b. There is diffused abrasion of the affected area
c. Does not go beyond one-half of the whole width of hymen
d. Incomplete and not reach the base of the hymen
Rationale: A superficial lacertaion does not go beyond one-half of the whole width of the hymen.
88. The seduction of a 17 year old student who is a virgin by her high school teacher is called:
a. Consented abduction
b. Simple seduction
c. Ordinary qualified seduction
d. Act of lasciviousness
Rationale: Elements include abuse of trust, between the ages of 12-18, a virgin, and the offender
is a person in public authority.
89. Sexual intercourse by a man with a married woman, committed by means of deceit is
considered:
a. Ac of lasciviousness
b. Simple seduction
c. Qualified seduction
d. Adultery
Rationale: The following represents adultery because it involves sexual intercourse with a married
woman. The following does not qualify under simple seduction because the woman is not single
or a widow of good reputation.
90. A farmer left alone in his farm by his wife for one month and had sexual relations with his dog.
The abnormal sexual act is:
a. Masturbation
b. Homosexual
c. Pedophilia
d. Zoophilia
Rationale: Breakdown the word. Zoo refers to animals and a dog is an animal so the answer is d,
which translates to desire for animals. Other acceptable terms would be bestiality.

91. The children of a priest and a nun are:

a. Adulterous children
b. Illegitimate children
c. Manceres children
d. Sacrilegious children
Rationale: Illegimitae children are children conceived and born outside a valid marriage.
92. Mr. Cruz suspected that his wife was having an affair with their neighbor. Three days after her
delivery, he killed the child. He is guilty of:
a. Parricide
b. Homicide
c. Infanticide
d. Murder
Rationale: The child is not less than 3 days old, but 3 day old already. Therefore, the act is no
longer qualified as infanticide, but parricide.
93. In a paternity suit, a blood typing test:
a. Has no legal importance
b. May prove conclusively that the alleged father is the real father
c. May demonstrate that the alleged father could have been the real father
d. May establish that the alleged father could not have been the real father
Rationale: In paternity suits, blood typing is used to disprove rather than prove paternity.
94. A written record of evidence given orally and transcribed in writing in the form of question by
the interrogator, answered by the subject, and signed by him later is termed:
a. Dying declaration
b. Documentary evidence
c. Oral testimony
d. Deposition
Rationale: A deposition is the out-of-court oral testimony of a witness that is reduced to writing for
later use in court or for discovery purposes.
95. When the evidence presented corresponds to the precise point at issue and proves the fact in
dispute without the aid of any inference, it is called;
a. Hearsay
b. Circumstantial
c. Tracing
d. Direct

Rationale: The following is the definition of direct evidence. D Direct evidence is evidence that
proves the fact in dispute without the aid of interference or presumption.
96. This is quantitative determination of the chloride content of the blood in the right and left
ventricle of the heart:
a. Getllers test
b. Winslows test
c. Takayama test
d. Loords test
Rationale: The Gettlers test is used to measure the amount of chloride in each chamber of the
heart.
97. If the hymenal laceration involves more than one half of the width of the hymen but does not
reach the base, the degree of laceration is:
a. Superficial laceration
b. Deep laceration
c. Complete laceration
d. Complicated laceration
Rationale: Definition of deep laceration. It is defined as a laceration that involves more than onehalf of the width of the hymen, but not reaching the base.
98. A physician witness who testifies in a court on matters he perceived from his patient in the
course of a physician-patient relationship is considered as an:
a. Expert witness
b. Ordinary witness
c. Paid witness
d. All of the above
Rationale: An ordinary witness is a witness that goes to court and testifies on matters he has
perceived while an expert witness is a witness that goes to court to render his expert opinion on
his specialty field.
99. The most prominent sign of death is:
a. Progressive fall of the body temperature
b. Cessation of heart action and circulation
c. Cessation of respiration
d. Insensibility of body loss of power to move

Rationale: Fall of temp. of 15 to 20 degrees Fahrenheit is considered as a certain sign of death.

100.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Injuries sustained in a vehicular accident upon being hit by the bumper is classified as
Lacerated wound
Primary impact injury
Secondary impact injury
Tear/putok

Rationale: Primary impact Contact with vehicle

Secondary impact Subsequent impact of the pedestrian to the ground
- Accounts for the multiple injuries