DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO T.B.C. : B-OEBB-N-HBS Test Booklet Series s TEST BOOKLET GENERAL ABILITY TEST Time Allowed : Two Hours and Thirty Minutes _ Maximum Marks : 600 INSTRUCTIONS 1, IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2, Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/ discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet Hable for rejection. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions) in two Parts : PART—A and PART—B. Each item in PART—B is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the ‘Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. S. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the ‘Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate, 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the ‘Gxamination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer ‘Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY THE CANDIDATE IN ‘THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There aré four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) Ifa candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even ifone of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (ii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question, DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO ware & : oa a RA ware ge Geta & Reed ee oe TIPART—A SPOTTING ERRORS Directions : In this section, each question has @ sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the cdrresponding letter, i., (aor (b) or (¢). Ifyou find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d). 1. Itwas nearly thirty years ago, since this magazine was first published. No error f@) fb) (c) (a) 2. Ten years ago he was having an income of over ten thousand rupees a month; (a) w he must indeed be a wealthy man by how. No error to) @ 3. In spite of the fact that the meeting Was about to end, @ @ he insisted to ask several questions. [No error (co) (a) 4. Hardly had he entered into the room | and taken his seat, (a) e) when the girls began to giggle. No ertor () (aj) B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 2)5. [was disappointed when I came for seeing you last evening (a) (b) but could not find you at home. No error (CJ (a) 6. The number of jobs that would be satisfactory in all respects are small. (a) @ ed No error @ 7. Lhave found the man whom I know the thief. No error @ @ ed) a) 8. There is no reason why he should not come since he is in town and is free. (a) @) @ No error (a) 9. It is high time we cried a halt to the existing corrupt practices fa) fe) followed in the educational sphere, No error ) (d) 10. The situation is perilous but if we are prepared promptly to act, fa) fb) there is still one chance of escape. _No error ) (@ B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 3 [P.7.0,SYNONYMS Directions : In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. For each underlined part, four words are listed below. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet. 11, We should always try to maintain 13. True religion does not require one to and promote communal amity. proselytise through guile or force. . (a) bondage (a) translate (b) contention ) hypnotise (6) friendship (o) attack (a) understanding (a) convert 12. Many species of animals have become extinct during the last hundred years. 14, ‘That the plan is both inhuman and preposterous needs no further proof. (a) aggressive (a) heartless (b) non-existent (b) impractical (0) scattered () absurd (a) “feeble (4) abnormal B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 415. The attitude of the Western countries 18, Whatever opinion he gives is sane. towards the third-world countries is rather callous to say the least. (a) ‘rational (a) passive @) obscure (b) unkind fo) wild fo) cursed (@) arrogant (a) unfeeling 19. The story is too fantastic to be 16. Whatever the verdict of history may credible. be, Chaplin will occupy a unique —— place in its pages. (a) believable (@) judgment (b) false (b) voice () readable fc) outcome (a) praiseworthy (a) prediction 20. Catching snakes can be hazardous 17. He corroborated the statement of his for people untrained in the art, brother. (2) confirmed (a) tricky (b) disproved @) harmful () condemned (6) difficult (a) seconded (a) dangerous B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 5 [P.T.0.ANTONYMS Directions : In this section, each item consists of a sentence with an underlined word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet 21. His short but pointed speech was applauded by all sections of the audience, (a) disapproved (o) misunderstood (0) praised (a) welcomed 22, In ancient India, scholars had no interest in political power or material growth, (@) internal (©) spiritual (0) psychic (a) celestial B-OPBB-N-HBS/59A 23. A friendly dog met us at the farm gate. (a) helpful (®) understanding (©) gitiet (a) hostile 24, He is extremely intelligent but proud. (@) dull () weak fo) ignorant (d) arrogant25, The young leader was reluctant to 1 shoulder the responsibilities of the ministerial office. (a) wanting (&) wilting (6) anxious (d) eager 26. He abandoned his family. (a) supported (b) encouraged (c) pleased (a) saved. 27. History abounds in instances of courage. (a) shines () lacks (9) suffices (4) fails B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 28. 29. 30. Adversity teaches man to be humble and self-reliant. (a) Sincerity (2) Animosity () Curiosity (a) Prosperity Like poverty, sometimes create its own problems. affluence can (a) indigence (@) opulence (©) sorrow (d) exuberance The habit of squandering money should not be encouraged. (@) discarding (&) hoarding (¢) donating (a) stealing [P.7.0,SELECTING WORDS Directions : In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given after the sentence, Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space anc 31, You haven't had your lunch yet, — you? (a) are () aren't (have (@) haven't Life is to death as pleasure is to —. (@) poverty () suffering () anguish (@) pain B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A \dicate your response on the Answer Sheet. 33, The French — reputed to have a very good sense of humour fa) is (®) was fe) are (a) will be 34, ‘Please’ and ‘Thank you’ are the little courtesies by which we keep the — of life oiled and running smoothly. (a) path (®) machine () garden (a) river35. Many of the advances of civilization have been conceived by young people just on the —— of adulthood. (a) boundary (0) threshold (co) peal (4) horizon 36. The more your action and thought are allied and —, the happier you grow. (a) divergent (b) unraveled (co) integrated (4) invincible 97, He — in wearing the old-fashioned coat in spite of his wife’s disapproval. (a) insists (®) persists (co) desists (a) resists B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 38. It is not what you say that —, but what you do. (a) matches ) implies fc) matters (@) moves 39. Physically we are now all neighbours, but psychologically we are — to each other. (a) primitives (®) complementary (©) strangers (d) cowards 40. The old ‘Nature’ versus — debate regarding crime continues even today. (a) ‘Man’ () Universe’ (©) ‘Culture’ (d) ‘Nurture’ [P.T.0.SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT Directions : In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, ie., (a), (0) or (co) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (¢). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet, Thus a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (4), a. 42, 'B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A As the parties failed to reach any agreement, the meeting broke through. ~~ (a) broke out (b) broke away (¢) broke up () No improvement If I have reached there by this time tomorrow, I will write to you immediately. (a) reached (b) reach (©) am reaching (@) No improvement 10 43, My friend met me, unexpectedly, when I looked for a taxi, desperately. {a) had looked (b) was looking (©) had been looking (@) No irnprovement Her learning makes up towards her want of beauty. (a) for {b) to (©) against (d) No improvement45. 47. If he got his enemy in his hand, he would have crushed him to death, fa) has got (®) was getting {fo} had got (@) No improvement Please ask your son to tum off the radio o that itis not quite so loud. fa) in (b) back fo) down (d) No improvement He said that when I have worked for him for six months 1 would get a pay rise. (a) had worked fo) have had worked fo) did work (a) No improvement B-OFBB-N-HBS/59A 1 48. I am looking forward to joining your organization, (a) join () join in (c) having joined (a) No improvement 49. I am not sure why she is wanting to see him. (a) she wants (b) is she wanting (9) she want (4) No improvement Everybody who finished writing can go home. (a) had finished (®) have finished (o) has finished (2) No improvement [P.T.0.‘PART—B Directions = ‘The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement I You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Code (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement I is the correct explanation of Statement (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement Il is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false (dj Statement 1 is false but Statement II is true 51, Statement I: Grand Banks are one of the major fishing grounds of the world due to the presence of a vast continental shelf. Statement Il Planktons grow in the shallow waters. 52. Statement I : Amoeba is a unicellular organism and the single cell performs all functions of a living organism. Statement I: Cell is the fundamental unit of living organism, B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 12 53. 54. 56. Statement I: The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Kushenas. Statement I: ‘The first gold coins were issued by the Kushanas. Statement I Jahandar Shah's reign came to an early end in January 1713. Statement Il : He was defeated at Agra by Farrukhsiyar, his nephew. Statement I: The defects of the Regulating Act and the exigencies of “British politics necessitated the passing of the Pitt’s India Act. Statement Il: ‘The Pitt's India Act gave , the British Government — supreme control over the Company's affairs and its administration in India. Statement I : It is not necessary that every bar magnet has one North Pole and ‘one South Pole. Statement I Magnetic poles occur in pair.am—B i fin: Frater ere (7) seal Ha ee, OL she ail, sea Ge a wea a Tae vate aa 8 oft AS Re me a aT IT a wrist see ga E : : (@) Mt we afi a & ot Re, Bea] wr a eat o) Ri we afi: are, RL, Ra at we eta watt (co) FOR wea 8, Fey REA se z (a) Fer-] see 8, fe ee ae ‘Sl. Ha: Fe mantha Tew A Rome & eT fre tga fea & sga ren gH R we . won: wae wed aa Hot 52, 50HI: onftar cattfis ata tote sic Attn sifa ata al sel a et a uM: aftr sift eto gt ed Bi B-OEBB-N-HBS/S9A 13 53, A: areal & am ott fa ae at ae orga Fh poet arr ard Be we: Bh & wed PR Gael ore sr ee a 54, FU: arte we S mee a ie a ‘wratt 1713 4 aa OT Wel: A, we wit waite 3 arm Ft era 88. wr: adler tae A ged otk Haft HY A acne sreraaral 35 ar Ree a te ota ed A oa I wee: fige eee tee 3 fafen ween wt ona 3 eerf & amare oh oe ee water aftrer Rey 56, FR: ag eres ati 8 Ps wes owe eae We set ge afte am aed a eH: gata aga BL ‘ ([P.T.0,57. Statement 1: ‘A body moving in a circular path is acted upon by the centripetal force. Statement I Centripetal force acting on the body is doing work to keep it rotating in the circular path. 58. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1, The tropical cyclones of China Sea are called typhoons. 2. The tropical cyclones of the West Indies are called tornadoes, 3. The tropical cyclones of Australia are called willy- willies. 4. Formation of an anticyclone results in stormy weather condition. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) 1,2,3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only fo) 1 and 3 only (a) 3 only 89. Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member? (@) Cambodia (b) () Myanmar (dj Laos Taiwan -B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 14 60. Heat given to a body which raises its temperature by 1 °C is known as {a} water equivalent (®) thermal capacity (6) specific heat (d) temperature gradient 61. Consider the following reaction : A883 + YOy > ZA8,03 + wSOy What is y (the coefficient for 02) when this equation is balanced using whole number coefficients? @s 0) 7 i 9 @u 62. Growth and repair of damaged tissue involve (a) mitotic cell division only both mitotic and meiotic cell divisions e {o) meiotic cell division only (a) amitotic cell division only87. FGA: iran va ita Re ae sie wai ardette Tea 81 HI: fog Tarde sifting aa seh Fea a oat ca fhe wed ee 88. Pevfeftra #8 ata-ai/a wer wal 8/8? 1, Sa arn % sores saad A cag Be 2. ae edie & sores seat FAs Fe 81 3. Siegen & sorafeacia amare a farch-factin wet 81 4. Sear we & ohoreey aor shee aan Ut 21 Wim Ae Rw afr (a) 1,2, 39m4 (by Fam 1, 23% 4 (9 Fra 1 he 3 (a) Faas 89. fiofefaa # 8 a-m G] ASEAN # wee Tet RP (a) waif (o) asia fo) Pai (a) ae B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A “15 60, Pel fies a a ng Sen, st see TET Bcc ag 2, an eRe a? a) 3a ys (b) wera ere (fre ser (@) wore ware 61, Pratt after wx fran A : XAS82S3 + YO. 4 ZA8203 + WSO, a ge aati Bt qatar gaia an adit ac waft Pen aia 8, ay (0, Wis) en 8? fa) 5 @u 62, afr sas A gfe sh mo A aT mite 8? (a) eax el aire Roa () A att onkgh aren fess at (o) Fae ongh ste fe (a) Fore ore wife FT RTO.63. Rotterdam of Netherlands is largely famous for (a) textiles (®) dairying () shipbuilding (dj paper industry 64. If the motion of an object is represented by a straight line parallel to the time axis in a distance-time graph, then the object undergoes (a) an accelerated motion (b) a decelerated motion () a uniform non-zero velocity motion (d) a zero velocity motion 65. How many grams of MgCO, contain 24-00 g of oxygen? (The molar mass of MgCO3 is 84-30 g mol”) (a) 4215 g () 8430 g fo) 12600 g {dj 154-00 g B-OEBB-N-HBS/S9A 16 66. Which one of the following is not a function of liver? (2) Conversion of glucose glycogen into () Production of urea (co) Destruction of dead and worn- out red blood cells (d) Absorption of food and excess water from the undigested food 67. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of economic sectors in terms of _ their contribution to the GDP of India in decreasing order? (a) Service—Industry—Agriculture (®) Agriculture—industry—Service (6) Industry—Service—Agriculture (@) Agricutture—Service—Industry 68. A force F, acting on an electric charge g, in presence of an electro- magnetic field, moves the charge parallel to the magnetic field with velocity @. Then F is equal to (where B and B are electric field and magnetic field respectively) (a) gE &) a@xB (ax (@ oB263, atecdrau wr ecb arin: Pa Fe ‘wire 8? wa &) gue fo a-Pain (@) ara za 64. af Peat five On at e-em ode H wra-o WMA AT ae ay ‘Prefta fear ara 2, at foes war ee 8? (a) ate af fo) Han (e) Tea Aen Bet ey (a) Tan 65, fm a MgO, # 24-00 g aitecian am? (Mgco, = tet eA 84:30 g mol”? 8) (a) 4215 ¢ ) 8430 g (9) 12600 g (@ 154-00 g B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 17 66, Fiaftitie 4a aaa oe aga at ete? fa) RBA a TEA BSTC 0) Ben see (mG ww a A aa aK Rifenst a fara (a) ara ar att ontel omen A 8 aa fs 1 eter 67, Praftian 4 & ata em, safle drat a, an & GDP aS ew sr va, wel wa Hah orga 87 fg) tae @) PRs lo sitar (@) Bf —aen—se 68, fiat Rangedta as A ARIA A Figg onde g ake om aa F, onde garda & aren Fan a he cwaer 81 at F faa amr 47 (E oh B som: Pray da otk qaéia da) (a) aE &) aéxB @ a@@x¥) ( ab [P. 170.69, What is the oxidizing agent in the 73. Which one of the following following equation? substances is most likely to be used ° HAsO {aq) + Sn?* (aq) +H* aq > 8 soap’ a A +80" faq + 10.0) {a} CH3(CH,},2COOCH, @) CHis(CHg}5O(CHy}5CH, (2) HAsO, faq) (ce) CH3(CH2)2COONa () sn2* faq) (a) CH3(CHy),2CHCly fo Heo 74, Which one of the following animals is cold-blooded? (d) Sn** faq) (a) Dolphin (b) Shark 70. Which one of the following is not a fo) Whale part of female reproductive system? (a) Porpoise (a) Fallopian tube 78. Match List-I with List-Il and select (b) Cervix the correct answer using the code fo) Urethra given below the Lists : (a) Vagina List List-tt (Geographical (Type of geographic 71. If a news is broadcast from London Feature) Process) at 1:45 p.m. on Monday, at what A. Cirque 1, Erosional feature time and on what day it will be of wind heard at Dhaka (90° 5)? B. Yardang 2. Depositional (a) 7:45 p.m. on Monday feature of glacier ©. Barkhan 3. Depositional feature of wind () 7:48 p.m. on Tuesday D. Drumlin Erosional feature (d) 7:45 a.m. on Sunday of glacier () 7:45 am. on Monday 72, Which of the following are the ee enamine, ae the @a Boob domestic power supply in India? wa Boe Db (b) 220 V, 50 Hz (@ A B C D 110 V, 220 Hz 2 3 ‘ ‘ @ , @A Bc D (d) 110 V, 50 Hz 2 1 3 4 B‘OPBB-N-HBS/59A 18 :69. fieaitfaa ata % sraes eT 8? HAsO; (aq) + Sn?* (aq) +H? (aq) As (a) +Sn** (aq) +H,00 (a) HAsO, (aq) (0) sn?* (aq) ©) Hed (@) sn** aq) 70, frafiiaa 4 & ahaa oH ot oaR-da aT am adi 8? (a) Sabie eas () sierra (co) Hat (ay at 71, We aa 8 dima BT 1:45 8 ory aT GH waTaN wenfta fear omen &, a ara (90° &) 3 38 fore fa otk fee wr GT ‘aren? fa) Ai 7:45 3S BUTE (bo) aman 7:45 = gale fo) RTA 7:45 TH SrTTE (ay tira 7:45 38 Tate 7a. sora ae te, Pe wee fhe Satefiea #@ ate-8 wea we fa} 220 V, 110 He fb) 220 V, 50 Hz fe) 110 V, 220 He (4) 110 V, 50 Hz B-OEBB-N-HBS/S9A 19 73, frfaftra #8 ater ved args & eH es Fry a9 & fe ees aoa 7 (a) 0) co) (a) CH, (CH}),COOCH, CHg(CHp} ,0(CH)5CHy CH3(CH2};,COONa CHg(CHp);2CHCl 74, Prafefiea 4-8 Sa we sh oreTar Fy (a) (bh) tc) {d) 75. Ta safer we a te wa a gite Fife sk BRAS AR Rees St aha ain (stitferes (strife sire mam) xen) A wh 1 agkonef cen B. aren 2. are & Ra sem cman 3. aga Aden wea D. gia 4. fear & orect ce Rm fa) A B c D 41 3 2 A B c D 493 1 2 a Boo D 23 1 4 ma BC D 2 13 4 1P.T.0.76. A ray of light travels from a medium of refractive index m toa medium of refractive index nj. If angle of incidence is i and angle of refraction i sini is r, then sine is equal to (a) m (bj ng fy (ay 77. A sainple of gas is to be identified by means of its behaviour in the presence of a glowing splint. Which of the following gases will neither itself burn nor cause the splint to burn? (a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen (co) Hydrogen (4) Methane 78. Leprosy is caused by (a) virus (@) bacteria (protozoa (@) retrovirus B-OEBB-N-HBS/S9A 20 79. A topographical map with stale 1: 50000 indicates 1 cm to (a) 50 km (&) 500 m (©) 50 m (a) 5 km 80. Light waves projected on oil surface show seven colours due to the phenomenon of (a) polarization (®) refraction (o) reflection (d) interference 81. A monatomic species that has 18 electrons and a net charge of 2 has (a) the same number of electrons as a neutral’ argon atom (b) more protons than electrons () 2 unpaired electrons (d) 20 protons76. Fa AU Frm n, ores wm Bong Sadie 3 OH nea H ach 81 aie saree aio 8 ate areas on 8, EL fe aca BP fa) my 0) ng na . (o) 77. Ped ta & ww aR A, de Bae A saat a, ae oR om wear at 8) firafitied Fe A faa a ei sata a Raw Fae aT arm ah? (a) siete @) TERR (6) ORR (a) 3 78. He Pads aren aor 87 fa) ey, () Sarg, fo) staan (a) aay B-OPBB-N-HBS/59A 79. 1:50000 art aren ow rater 1 com a erat eatin 8? (a) 50 km (®) 500 m fo) 80.m (dS km 80. feet te ame Te wefia ear Te aT Tit i fae aferen & are aah &7 fa) Er (bo) ada oe fo wats (ay afer 81, fe Garena vita 4, fat 1s wah € ot fz an 2° 8, feat fa) orate ome sary & Fat agi den fb) reat 8 siftrs ste fo) 2 stern weag (dj) 20 ster [P.T.04,82. Which one among the following is @ plant hormone? (@) Insulin fo) Thyroxin (¢) Gibberellin (a) Estrogen 83. Quartzite is metamorphosed from (a) limestone (b) plutonic rock (©) sandstone (a) shale 84. Which one of the following processes explains the splitting of a beam of white light into its constituent colours? (a) Dispersion (fo) Reflection fo) Diffraction (@) Polarization 85. The very high heat of vaporization of water is mainly a result of (a) van der Waals forces () covalent bonds (¢} interionic attraction (a) hydrogen bonding B-OEBB-N-HBS/S9A 22 86. Which of the following groups of plants can be used as indicators of SOq pollution of air? {a} @) fo} (a) Ferns Mentha Lichens Hornworts 87. The permanent wind that blows from the horse latitude to the equatorial region is known as @ o () ) westerly trade wind doldrum easterly 88. Two bodies A and B having masses m and 4m respectively are moving with equal linear ‘momentum. The ratio of kinetic energies between Aand Bis @ e) © (d) asa 4rd et 1:2 89. Optical glass “used inthe construction of spectacles is made by (a) ®) ‘o (a) ‘tint glass Crookes glass quartz glass hard glass82, fraftftaa a a ahaa ow ey ah 8? (a) Fae (o) aR (oy Frets (@) we 83, erdaree Pesta #8 freer aera ev (a) We (o) Pacha ta (o) Fer eM (ay te 84. a vem % ww fais & sab wes aril # rar at Arafitiaa #& aah we strat araret 87 fa) vitae (b) wat to) Prada (a) am 85. Fa} ae A srafes Fa Sen TEM: ewer oftormt 8? (a) are aR at (o) ih omrara fo) Seaa-srerh srt (a) ergo area B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A, 23 86, Prafefta 4 8 aan ceLaNE ay a $0, FRITS eae A aT GT a waa 8? @ wi &) Fen () we (ay ead 87. td sain a fgaq stn A oink safer earl war wT ee 8? (a) aT eH (0) mart ear () Bega gat 88, FT: m oi 4m Fem & 2 five A stk B wera tela dB ators HL A oh Bs ta nite walot at aga 8 fq is4 @) 4s1 fist (dy 1:2 89, Fen aa A wate fear ort aren were ata fred ara 8? (a) Freie ata ) aE ae (o) erie (area) Is (a) RR Te [PeT2o90. Which one of the following cell organelles is absent in animal cell? (a) Cell membrane (b} Endoplasmic reticulum fo} Cell wall (d) Mitochondria 91. Which one of the following is a warm ocean current? (a) Labrador current (@®) Kuroshio current (©) Peru current (4) Benguela current 92. A force applied on a body is represented as F = 61-8} + 108 and accelerates it at 1 m/s”. The mass of the body is (a) 10 kg, (6) 10V2 ke (fo) 270 kg (a) 8 kg B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 24 93. The burning sensation of a beesting can be stopped by rubbing the affected area with soap. This is because (a) a beesting is acidic and soap, an alkali, neutralizes it : (b) a beesting is alkaline and soap, an acid, neutralizes it () soap cleans the affected area and removes the sting (@) soap acts as an anesthetic and dulls the sensation 94, Consider the following statements 1. Carbohydrates are the only source of energy to humans. 2. Fats give maximum energy on oxidation as compared to other foods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only () Both 1 and 2 (@) Neither 1 nor 2 98. The place located. at the confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers (a) Badrinath (b) Rishikesh fo) Rudraprayag (4) Devprayag90. Rrafeft #8 ah-e we aifraiy oft 93, wr a7 8 eA ae vem, uaa Oa ay ft H orga eter 87 agi a eet 8, A an weet Bi ee er are t? (a) Sierra (a) waa en ona Bar t ote ATER, sate etter Han, v8 Ga a rt (o) ve a ae atta ae 8 oi ag, fo) aaa We ares, 3 fea ax Bare ca) eee (Wa vata ba a are a Ba @ ate er fart 2 (4) Fae TH Rear a AH ae 91, Rrafean a & aaah ge ae mere he aia a He wer ‘werent 2? (a). Aare aera 94, afin sat x fan fi: 1 ae a & te a a (o) aed sae wan ati 2. wrath A ater ae, Fr teaeee 3% aafteray oat B81 (a) te saeRT ‘wef sort FB ata-ar/a wel 2/8? (a) Fea 92. five ge TT AM ) Baa2 Be 6i-a}+i08 (ish 2 ai ( Ta omeah2 wu frefa fen ven 2, st a m/s? cates seer Ri ve FTE & 95, srr ote untied a sBeeet wr srr (a) 10 kg of (a) aera 10 0) tee (oy ition fo) 2Y10 ke © or (d) Bke (a) tar B-OBBB-N-HBS/59A 25 [P.7:.0.96. Light waves are (a) electro-mechanical waves (b) electro-magnetic waves (c) electro-optical waves (d) magneto-optical waves 97. A sample of carbon dioxide that undergoes a transformation from solid to liquid and then to gas would undergo (a) a change in mass () a change in density () a change in composition (d) no change in _ physical properties 98. Which one of the following pairs of power projects is not correctly matched? (2) Papanasam—Hydropower (b) NeyveliHydropower () Ukai—Therma! power (4) Rana Pratap Sagar—Hydro- power B-GEBB-N-HBS/S9A 26 99, A particle is moving in @ circular path of radius r at @ constant speed v. Which one of the following graphs correctly represents its acceleration a? (a) tb) >r an (C] |) (@ >r 100. Which of the following element combinations will form ionic ‘compounds? 1. Ca (2 = 20) and Ti (Z = 22) 2. Si (Z= 14) and Br (Z = 35) 3. Mg (Z = 12) and Cl (Z= 17) Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 2 only (b) 3 only (ce) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 101. In the term GIS, (a) fo} © (a) Global Geographic Goodness Geological96. SHIT Te (a) Faaeaifitia we fb) Pre-gertta wet oy Pre senna cet (a) Gaeta ae 97. du 8 xa aa aa 8 fa A erate oF ad an ayatemgs & wg a eT aftada am? fa) wear aie (o) waa A ahaa fe) ate Hota (a) Sher geil H ah ated ae 98, afte sfctsrnst % frattitinr gut ta AH -aT GH Tel Aer TE A? (@) wera —aeraes +) Fh areas (©) sae ara (2) To are ere B-OEBB-N-HBS/S9A fa) (b) 99, af am, wea we va fiom re gare ou Haare 1 Rrafeira Aa aH onda Fe BU a HUES ‘een me 87 or or a an «© |) (@ KO or =>r 100. wat a/% e-w/a dase ort Ais wane? 1. Ca(Z =20) 7m Ti (2 = 29) 2 Si (Z=14) TH Br (Z =39 3. Mg (Z = 12) 7H Cl (Z = 17) om EA ww Ah afr (a) Fra 2 (o) Fra 3 fo) Baa 2 oie 3 (a) 1,233 101. GIS wee Gfarm wee & fry a? (a) wae (oy Parte () Wee (a) Rrbeiert [P.7.0.102. A thermodynamic process where 106. Which one among the following no heat is exchanged with the contains the most neutrons? surroundings is (a) isothermal (a) Sore (®) adiabatic (6) isobaric acu (a) isotropic ©) So2n 103. A compound X,0, contains 31-58% ‘oxygen by weight. The atomic mass . of X is (a 22n? -(@) 34-66 g mol @) 4501 g mol 107. Movements of tides are mostly (©) 52:00 g mol? determined by 1 (@) 104-00 g mol (a) albedo effect 104, Which one of the following is the correct sequence of oil refineries in India in respect of their time of (b) wind velocity establishment (starting from the (¢) rotation of the Earth earliest}? (2) Barauni—Haldia (d) revolution of the Earth —Guwahati—Mathura (©) Barauni—Mathura 108, Fahrenheit and Celsius are the two —Guwahati—Haldia scales used for measuring () Guwahati—Haldia temperature. If the numerical value —Mathure—Barauni of a temperature recorded in both the scales is found to be same, what (d) Guwahati—Bara (4) Guwahat he is the temperature? —Haldia—Mathura 108. Which one of the following circuit fa) ~40" elements is an active component? (a). Resistor (b) +40" (b) Transistor +m () Inductor (4) Capacitor (a) - 72" B+OEBB-N-HBS/S9A 28 wos102. serie wien, fred ofa & ae ag 106. Frafeften #2 fra walftrs -agis at 2? ‘sear fatter at etn 8, en Beet 27 (@ wat (a) S2Fe . o ee om Sea fo) arent fay wots ( $h2n 103. ws ae x,0, 4 x % om H (a) 82m? 31-58% stadt 81 XC aT TA FTE at (a) 3466 g mol” 107, sat a dae sitter fom arm Frater (%) 4501 g mol” Bat? (} 52:00 g mol"! fa) Yea vere (4) 104-00 g mol ) waa 104. ane @ dathes aard a1 Arafat a a ahem we age, Hh ene-are & yaa pA weal A ad 8 (sre @ are Be)? () gata stom (q) athena aT (by ahaa afm aed Raat tos. sitiere afk Aer, om Aa AA ° carat €) Pet ry a até fe ar (2) Treat —afeen RT wonere a a Sei anf fear a, ae aaa aa a? 105. Pafafsa ses saudi Ha aha TH, wer aia az (a) 40° (a) fares ) +40" (a) sence (a) -72° B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 29 &W . [pewo!109. Turpentine oil in paints is used as a 111, Kerosene oil rises in a wick of lantern because of (a) pigment {a} buoyancy of air {b) film-forming material (2) diffusion of the oll through the wiok (thinner (©) capillary action in the wick (a) drier - (4) gravitational pull of the wick 112, If the reaction of 1-0 mol NH (g) and 110. Match List-I with List-l and select 10 mol O, (a) the correct answer using the code given below the Lists ANH, (8) + 502 (g) + 4NO (g) + 6H,0(!) List List-t is carried to completion, then (Textile industry) (Place) A. Woolen textile 1, Sualkuchi (a) all the O2 (g} is consumed B. Cotton textile 2. Rishra ®} 40 mol NO (g) is produced C. Silk textile 3. Ludhiana + © VS mol HO (t) is produced D, Jute textile 4, Davangere (d) all the NH, (@) is consumed Code : 113. Which of the following sequences is correct for rainfall? (a) Slow ascent of air + slow fa) A B c D condensation -» heavy downpour oA Bo cD (&) Rapid ascent of air + large 2 1 4 3 raindrops —> heavy downpour fo) Pressure decreased > air compressed ~> heavy downpour (A B Cc D mai Bs (d) Descent of air air warmed > heavy downpour so vo B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 30109. tz i aria da fea wa F age erat k? 111, creel Ft ad Fade Je fees a aK se 8? (a) ae () 7A aE (Prem aaa A () wha er da a Pert fo te (o) aH rer Be (@) wh eet aia @) 1 112, a 10 mol NH, (g) 3% 1-0 mol 110, a @ gh & Bite APR oh 02 (oA afi aa oa Ree ag a a ANH ) + 50 (@) > 4NO@) + 640.09 ae ge: ae a8 ow ot cara 8, a um s (a) Bt 0, g) THR WaT R asta 1 preg (6) 40 mat NO sain ht B. alae 2. fos (o} 1S mol H,0(9 eafea eA & Cena 3. afta (a) WANE, @) Tyw A are Dae 4, amt is. af & ary 4 feafefas Fa ee-w al ‘sen we 8? A B c D as Boe? fa) aq wth ate vn ae mt aT a on Be? () ara eon > Re a -P mt gene aH @aA Bc D (9 a Bay aH > wT ag 2 4 1 3 mrt Agere @a Bc D (a) aq water nf ear ond 3 i 4 2 yearn asf B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 31 . o > pP.ToO.114. The working of a microwave oven involves (a) absorption of microwaves by matter fo) reception of microwaves by optical fibre (o) microwave amplification by stimulated emission of radiation (d) transmission of microwaves through a metal 115. What would be the total population at the end of the year if population at the beginning of the year is 5000 and population changed during the year is—birth 250, death 60, immigration 30 and emigration 15? (a) 5205 (b) 5238 () 5310 (@) 5180 116. Two cars A and B have masses mM, and mg respectively, with mj > mg. Both the cars are moving in the same direction with equal kinetic energy. If equal braking force is applied on both, then before coming to rest (a) Awill cover a greater distance () Bwill cover a greater distance () both will distance cover the same (@) distance covered by them will depend on their respective velocities B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A If the length of the Equator is about 40000 km and the velocity of rotation is about 1700 km per hour, what would be the velocity of rotation at the Pole? (a) Zero (©) 850 km/hr fe) 1700 km/hr (4) 3400 km/hr 118. A bullet is fired vertically up from 2 400 m tall tower with a speed 80 m/s. If gis taken as 10 m/s?, the time taken by the bullet to reach the ground will be (@ 8s () 16s 208 (d) 248 119. A cyclotron accelerates particles of mass m and charge q. The energy of particles emerging is proportional to (a) @? fm () qm? (0) @? fm? @@11a, age ae oer ard wa A aT ie Bar 8? (ey end ar et ae a ra oy wren ae wr TET eT fo) Pita % sai sens a aE a saa a) vig 8 da qeR ao a ea 1s, af Sora ga orden fat oe, a ad & wren # serie $000 * am ad & aim yon arte stadia 250, Fe 60, Sma 30 atk sa 15 47 (a) 5205 (b) 5238 fo} 5310 (4) 5180 116, FARA HAT: my IK ms AA TTA ate B 8, BH HT aR my > mg BI Set at ert afi sal 8 oe at Rem nftart &) aft al a wera nie fniorr a aT we &, a foe fafa 3 om a @ fa) A site afte yl rt a Ht (o) Bsrternpe aftr at we a at (o) St er gh oa ett (4) FR ar we Aa GT: aim rena er B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 33 17.7 fee A wal ann 40000 km & atk aia a at ore 1700 kn Wf Ber 8, hs eA aaa ain? a) (o) 850 km/hr () 1700 km/hr (4) 3400 km/hr 118, 400 m Sah sae B WH aie 80 m/s ae 8 crater ae fh sit ae are 21 a g B10 m/s? a oe, at ich age wes Ge ear a a? (@ 8s ) 16s fc) 208 (a) 248 119, we TRH m zea oft g SAT are ara ah cata anon 81 frie SR ara wt Baal Pat gaa 47 (a) q? jm ) g/m? () g? |m? oq120. The electric field inside a perfectly 128. The dimension of ‘impulse’ is the conducting hollow object is same as that of fa) 4n (a) pressure (®) angular momentum (b) infinite (0) work (c) zero (@) linear momentum {d) dependent upon the shape of 124. Consider the following statements : the object 1. China won both Thomas Cup and Uber Cup Badminton Tournaments, 2014. 2. The Uber Cup is the World Team Championship for women and the Thomas Cup 121, The densities of three liquids are D, 2D and 3D, What will be the density of the resulting mixture if equal volumes of the three liquids saa ve is for men. Which of the statements given fa 6D above is/are correct? fo) 14D (a) 1 only (b) 2 only fe) 2D (6) Both 1 and 2 (d 3D (@ Neither 1 nor 2 128. Consider the following statements 122, A particle is moving with uniform about Drishti system acceleration along a straight line 1, It is a sophisticated instrument ABC, where AB= BC. The average velocity of the particle from A to Bis 10 m/s and from Bto Cis 15 m/s. The average velocity for the whole to assess the runway visual range. 2. This system is developed by journey ftom A te Gin m/s ie Airports Authority of India. Which of the statements given (a) 12 above is/are correct? 125 (a) 1 only @) 2 only ) 13 (@) (¢) Both 1 and 2 (@) 135 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 34120, ret pi sree aha’ flee & ore Page & (a) 4x2 (b) HAE ( war (4) Ree A ompit Bok tai, da zai & waa D, 2p aik ap Fi aR det sai & em ora frome ord, at ‘attoreh Pero ay ara aT gM? fa} 6D (e) 4D ( 2D (a) 3D 122, 48 30 UeeeR wT} eer wT tar ABC % ager Tei we 8, ae AB= BC 81 aor a ahaa an Aa Bee 10 m/s MBE CTH 15 m/s ATCT A qt aim am ar afte Bo m/s HR (a) 12 (bo) 125 fe 13 (a 135 B-OEBB-N-HBS/S9A 38 123, ‘onde’ A fae ae 2 st FH a) wae fo) rea war at B oe wie (@ ease 124, Prafatiea srt x fran afr, 1 ta 8 aa ae oe st we aafires Gz, 2014, drt sel 2. SH wy, fe ae eRe, afters & fag & ok aime aa FS et ‘wean seri 3 ate a/S wa 8/8 (a) aa 1 () FA 2 ( iste 2a (a) AA saaARe 128. ‘gt’ sonet & at f Prafited seat oe ‘fara fire 1 wea ge wR & orm ey we aftga seat tt 2. me wort area argIa mrfeeT wa ferefaa HA ng ty gage wut 4 8 ate-an/2 we 8/8? (a) FA 1 ) FaI2 32a @ ami saee [P.7.0.126. Which of the following about Malavath Poorna is correct? (a) First Indian swimmer to cross Suez Canal (b) Youngest woman to scale Everest () First Indian to win FIDE World Junior Championship (4) Winner of Young Scientist Award, 2014 127. Which one among the following countries was the top contributor to India’s FDI for the year 2013-14? (a) Mauritius (b) Singapore (ec) USA (@) Japan 128, Which of the following statements about SIMBEX 14 is/are correct? 1, Itwas a bilateral naval exercise between Indian navy and Sri Lankan navy. 2. It was the 21st in the series. It was conducted in the Andaman Sea. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (2) 1,2and3 fb) 2 and 3 only fe) 2 only (4) 1 and 3 only B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 129. Consider the following statements : 1, Mobile Seva, the National Mobile Governance Initiative of Department of Electronics and Information Technology of India, has won the United Nations Public Service Award, 2014. 2. The innovative initiative is aimed at mainstreaming mobile governance in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? fa) 1 only () 2 only () Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 130. Consider the following statements about Prithvi-lI Missile = 1. It is a nuclear-capable ballistic missile.’ 2. It has a maximum range of "100 km. * 3. It is India’s first native made ballistic! missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1,2 and 3 (2) 1 only () 1 and 3 only (4) 2 and 3 only126. menaa qo & att Prefer # a 129, Refefan sat w fran Alfie aha we owe aR wer gat (a) er wre te, Fee a TRE shat) fem AL ue tance a fires wee, ‘share Bar, 3 @ ete THR ah ad EA egw uy a chs Be GREAT, 2014 after te 8 3 2, we varadaend ea a ata 2a @ ze moe, Se FIDE ee : = i H id) 2014 *% am aah gan A fata aa we Ha ata-an/d ae 1/87 a7, farateftaa 4 8 e-a ww wf 2013-14 (a) Fae 1 Homa & FDI a waits: atrereat 2 t (o) Fra 2 al 1s 2 et to) Feerge www (@ adisteate (a) aT 190, yeti ware 3 Faye & Prato wet 128, SIMBEX 14 % frat Prater # a ae Rea PRE : . r-ai/3 es a VE? 1. we eH aiehe an ater aR 1. a omar Aa ger cad ait wat a ARs sere sea neha 2. anata et 100 ken BL a 2, me fan § ort am 3, aE NA aI Geet Bella wT a A matte ora 1 3. Fe sosHer aR A erenfere fre me a rede west #8 whew /2 at 1/87 Fe Re me ge a seh ae Te TT fr (a) 1.23% 3 (a) 1,233 ¥a1 (o) Fr 293 () ¥aa2 (o) Fam 1 tks (a) Frais () Frases B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 37 ” (PTO.131, Consider the following statements * about Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS} 133. From which one among the following countries has India recently (May 2014) recalled its troops, who went 1, _IRNSS is @ constellation of five for a joint combat exercise in the satellites, which were launched country? by PSLV. (a) Malaysia 2. It ig an independent regional () ‘Thailand navigation satellite system designed to provide position fo) Eeypt information in the Indian : region (d) Singapore Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 134, Who among the following was associated with the formulation of the basic ideas of the Mahayana (a) 1 only Buddhism? (a) Nagaxjuna (o) Kashyapa Matanga (b} 2 only () Both 1 and 2 (¢) Menander (@) Neither 1 nor 2 (@) Kanishka 192. The National Defence Academy has foreign cadets from which of the following countries? 135. Consider the following statements about Harappan Culture : 1, The Harappan: Culture 1. Bhutan matured in Sind and Punjab. 2. Bangladesh 2. It spread from there to 3. Nepal Southwards and Eastwards. 4. Afghanistan 3. The area, where it spread, was bigger than Egypt and Select the correct answer using the Mesopotamia. code given below. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (@) 1,2, 3.and4 (a) 1 and 2 only (6) 2 and 3 only () 3 only (@) 1,2 and3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only () 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 38131, sndia asa water Tue yoreh (IRNSS) & fem a fiefafea art ow fran Afar : 1. IRNSS va sur Hm GH a, feqer waw PSLV ant feat eT ane wad 43 te a/a wa t/t? (@) Fa () Fae 2 fo) 19h 2 et (@ Vai shkTa2 132. Tata en sreraht ft fieafeftaa HS fie ‘eat & facet Ste aa BF 1. RF ‘arenes ATs arama #8 Rem aw Ral aK af fa) 1,2, 334 (bo) Far 1, 3 a (co) Fa 3 aie + (@) Fra 1 2 B-OEBB-N-HBS/S9A 39 133, Profits 4 8 fra ue ta 8 oa 3 oer a (Rg 2014) ara Afal a, ot we aa a dgn Gerare & Bre me a, ane arr fen? (a) wate ) wR (Fe (ay Fema 134, 34 8 ata ‘agen’ athena & ys Fran & few 3 ae a? (ay aga () ec TT fo) Feria (a) ire 135, cea weple & fea 3 Rates set far fifi : 1. gem aephh flw ate ia fs @ 2. ae @ ag cia an yt A ot ett 3. 78 a, set ae teh, Ra ar ‘Fahaeien & zg eT) sues wert #2 ath-aT/8 ah 8/87 (a) Fat 1 sD o) FIA 2 se 3 () Fas (a) 1,233136. Megasthenes was a 139, Who among the following did not bring trading ships to the port of (a) Greek ambassador to the court ‘Surat in pre-British times? of Chandragupta Maurya (b) Greek trader during Ashoka’s (a) Portuguese and English time () Greek trader in the Gupta period (b) Russian and German (d) Chinese pilgrim during Harsha’s time (©) English and Arab 197. By the late 19th century, India was one of the largest producers and (@) French and Arab exporters of (a) cotton yarn and wheat (b) sugar and rice (o) sugar and alcohol 140, The Factory Act of 1891 in India was, (d) iron and steel enacted to 138, Which one of the following is the correct sequence of appearance of (a) improve the condition of labour the poet-saints of the Bhakti-Sufi in India tradition? (a) Basavanna—Appar (®) ensure greater governmental Mira Bai—Lal Ded control over industry in India () Appar—Mira Bai ~tal Ded—Basavanna (c) provide a level playing field for f¢) Appar—Besavenna English manufacturers —Lal Ded—Mira Bai (4) Basavanns—Mira Bai (d) enable greater political control —Lal Ded—Appar over Indian industry B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 40136. aera aan? 137. fa) qed A re Haat gE (bj sraiteraretta aarf sree Co) rare aA sara (a) Whats st aedart rodl waned % sag a ame fat Ow ‘wad aq seaem ae Pata 2x on? (a) ag aa AE ) Aaa are fo) St war eter (@) oie an gers 138, fafafar # a ah-m we afti-gh sort fi satiny afar a1 ad age a (a) reason —airat—erate (&) sansa ameter (6) sear erate — stra (4) arent arte seo B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 41 199, Ratha da ate Bite ara ord ae Steer ee 3 eae 7 (a) ch she ok ) Sat wo () sia rn oem (a) wick re 3a, 140, et F 1801 a1 ararn sfifem sat a far en? (a) Ts eet A RAR A Que Re fo) ra A ae a steam ree fram afta 8 3 fee () stra sereat fee wer wae weer aR & fea, (a) a seca sew ntioe cuatttftes Ferm fia on ea [P.T.0.141. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected every year (b) The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected for a term of 5 years () The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected for a term of 6 years (d) The Vice President of India is the Ex Officio Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha 142. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India? (a) B.R, Ambedkar () K. M. Munshi () Krishnaswamy lyer (d) M. K Gandhi 143. Who among the following was not a member of the ‘Big Four’ in the Congress of Vienna (1815)? (a) Great Britain (b) Russia (o) Austria (d) France B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 144, The Stamp Act Congress consisting of delegates from nine of the thirteen colonies met in 1765 at (a) Philadelphia (b) New York City (6) Boston (a) Providence 145. Which of the following American colonies did not attend the first Continental Congress held in Philadelphia? (a) Rhode Island (6) Connecticut (©) Georgia (d) Maryland 146. The Bolshevik Revolution started in Russia during the reign of (a) Czar Alexander (®) Czar Alexander II (©) Czar Alexander Il (@) Czar Nicholas It141, frafeferd 4 8 ahaa se aa 8? (a) 3 aH ow Ser after aft cad Praifae ear & (o) Ts wn a fants aftent 5 ae Ft arate & fore Fraffea gar 8 @) Tam & ferit aftent 6 a At orate & fare fratfaa ear 8 (aj Fa a STE eT aT aT eH tarda fired ato 8 142. vi a sha ara & afta A ureer RA, ar eae ai am? (a) Ae ame saa (o) %o Go Bh (cj Hooray area, (4) Wo Fo meh 143, frafaftrs # & ata fee arte (1815) i ag are a ace ot on? (a) Be fier () FH () 3ifear (a) Fe B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 43 144. OH te site A, Dae aA afiani & sia @ frre feof a aria xq Herd ‘eaten Hart ag ferer ar? fa) team (b) wrtedtne (ce) sia (a) ers 146. 7a 4 dette aie frat aaa 9 ees af? fa) 3 aes L (eam aera Co) si seis TM (ayn Freeh (P.T.0.147. Which of the following is/are not 149. The President of India can issue related to fundamental duties? proclamation of Emergency 1. To cherish and follow the noble fa) on the advice of the Prime ideals which inspired our Minister national struggle for freedom () on the advice of the Council of 2. To value and preserve the rich Ministers heritage of our composite culture {)_ in his own discretion 3. To promote the educational @ and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issue of such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing 4. To protect all monuments of historic interest and national 159, Which of the following statements importance is/are correct about the working of the Permanent Settlement in Select the correct answer using the Bengal? code given below. 1. The traditional Zamindars lost their lands, (a) 1 and 2 2. The reason for the Zamindars’ inability to pay up land (b) 2and3 revenues was that the Ryots defaulted on payment of (co) 3 and 4 revenue. 3. A new group of farmers—the (a) 4 only Jotedars—became influential. 4. The Collector replaced the 148. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Zamindars as the alternative Indian Parliament are held to focus of authority. Select the correct answer using the (a) elect the President of India code given below. (b) elect the Vice President of India (a) 1 only () adopt a _—_—_Constitution fb) 1 and 4 only Amendment Bill () 2 and 3 only (a) consider and pass a Bill on which the two Houses disagree (4) 1, 2,3 and 4 B-OEBB-N-HBS/59A 44147. freafefiar 4 a ate-m/a wifes ada a 149, una a oEsfe sera A see afta el 8/87 . 1. wR ata eam sretes a ha (a) werneh A were «a wae 8 ad sam oneal @ daly ca wa aT ST FT fb) HBtag A were we a RAT e 2. ret afin dept A aye ude 25 we en Tez] ARG TT () ae Fate care 3. was} a wi, fea . aa agate wa safer (_) wa wm Ha t, aa seater sernfea, Saute va Se 0 Tas Reus abren a toe feat an agra 21 3A feftaa ee eights fae en et 4. 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