4th Class Part A Review Questions

1
Testbank PE4PARTA
Introduction to Power Engineering
010100020021000D
Which of the following is not a definition of a power plant?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Any one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is

generated at more than 103 kPa (15 psi).
Any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a
working pressure exceeding 1100 kPa (160 psi).
Any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a
working temperature exceeding 121 degrees Celsius (250
degrees Fahrenheit).
Any one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour
is generated at less than 57 kPa (8 psi).
Any engine run from one or more boilers containing liquid
and having a working pressure exceeding 1100 kPa (160 psi).
010100020021000D
Early government involvement in certification of power
engineers became more important for the following reasons
except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
efficiency
labour mobility
safety
pollution
technological advancements
010100020021000C
Which of the following is not characteristic of increased
automation in power plants?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
computerised control stations

increased mechanisation
manual flame checking
continuous monitoring of processes
continuous monitoring of costs
010100020021000A
"Power plant" means
a)
b)
c)
d)
any one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is

any one or more boilers in which steam or other liquid is
any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a
working pressure exceeding 1,200 kPa (160 psi), and a
temperature exceeding 121 degrees C (250 degrees F).
working pressure exceeding 1,200 kPa (160 psi), and a
temperature not exceeding 121 degrees C (250 degrees F).
2
e)

working pressure not exceeding 1,100 kPa (160 psi), and
a temperature exceeding 121 degrees C (250 degrees F).
010100020021000C
Power engineers are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
safety code officers in a power plant automatically.

qualified to perform any welding jobs in a power plant.
skilled workers who operate and maintain the equipment
in a power plant.
qualified to perform any electrical jobs in a power
plant.
qualified to make design changes in a power plant.
010100020021000D
In the early days, owners of power plants hired __________
workers, who started out doing manual labour and through
acquired experience they were promoted to jobs with gradually
increasing levels of skill.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
qualified
highly educated
trained
unskilled
college trained
010100020021000B
In order to produce greater efficiency, higher boiler
pressures were used and this led to __________ due to
employing of unqualified operators in a power plant.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
economic gains
serious accidents
higher efficiency
safer working conditions
less labour disputes
010100020021000B
Which of the following is not a common work schedule for
power engineers?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Year round employment

Seasonal lay-offs
Eight hour days
Twelve hour days
Rotating day and night shifts
010100020021000A
When oil mixes with water in the boiler the resultant effect
is:
a)
b)
c)
serious foaming
accumulation of very hard scale resulting in tube burnout
accumulation of soot
3
d)
e)
decrease in water level

shifting and loosening of baffles
010100020021000C
The holder of a Certificate of Competency, the
classification of which authorizes him or her to act as a
engineer, may sketch, construct, install, operate, repair,
and give advice on all things pertaining to any __________ in
which that person is employed.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
welding shop
automotive shop
power plant
fish plant
hydro plant
010100020021000E
Power engineers can usually expect to work
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
straight
straight
straight
straight
rotating
8 hour day shifts.

12 hour day shifts.
8 hour night shifts.
12 hour night shifts.
shifts.
010100020021000E
In a power plant, the power engineer may function as a
supervisor who directs others in the __________ operation on
a shift.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
simple and economical

welding and electrical
administrative and cooperative
production and receiving
safe and efficient
010100020021000C
Committees which establish standards are composed primarily
of which of the following elements?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
only experts from the industry and government

one government appointed standards board
experts from the industry, professional and insurance
groups and all levels of government
only multi-National power corporations
one independent safety and standardisation board
010100020021000D
Which of the following certificates of competency qualifies
the holder to take charge of the general care and operation
of any power plant as chief steam engineer, and to supervise
the engineers in that plant and take charge of a shift in any
power plant as shift engineer?
a)
b)
c)
Third Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency

Building Operator's Certificate of Competency
Pressure Welder's Certificate of Competency
4
d)
e)
First Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency

Fireman's Certificate of Competency
010100020021000A
Which of the following duties is a holder of a Fourth Class
Engineer's Certificate of Competency not qualified to
perform?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity

of more than 10,000 kW, as shift engineer.
Take charge of the general care and operation of a power
plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless
boilers having an aggregate capacity not over 5,000 kW,
when only in use for the purpose of subterranean thermal
flooding in oil fields, as chief engineer.
Take charge of the general care and operation of a power
plant having a capacity of not more than 1,000 kW as
chief steam engineer, and to supervise the engineers in
that plant.
Take charge of a shift in a power plant consisting of one
or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate
capacity of not more than 10,000 kW, when used only for
underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as shift
engineer.
Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity
of not more than 5,000 kW, as shift engineer.
010100020021000E
Which of the following is required in order to progress to a
higher certificate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Experience only
Education only
Hold the next lower level certificate only
Both education and the next lower level certificate
Education, experience, and the next lower level
certificate.
010100020021000D
The IAO is an organisation who's primary concern is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
lowering of
lowering of
increase in
lowering of
increase in
regulation
maintenance costs through standardisation

production costs through increased automation
safety awareness through public education
insurance costs through standardisation
equipment quality through tougher government
010100020021000B
In the early days, the following two agencies got involved in
the certification of both power plant operators and equipment
due to the many accidents that were caused by employing
unqualified operators and improper use of equipment in power
plants:
5
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
owners and governments

insurance underwriters and governments
educational institutions and owners
governments and educational institutions
owners and insurance underwriters
010100020021000D
Unqualified individuals operating a power plant or pressure
plant risk the __________ of the plant and the general
public.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
health
comfort
resources
safety
economy
010100020021000C
In Alberta, the Safety Codes Act established the following
classes of Power Engineer's certificates (Other provinces and
territories have also established the same structure for
these certifications.)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
A, B, C, and D
1, 2, 3, and 4
First, Second, Third, and Fourth
Operators A, B, C, and D
Boiler maker first, second, third, and fourth year
010100020021000D
A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency
qualifies the holder to take charge of a shift in a power
plant having a capacity of not more than __________ kW, as a
shift engineer.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
8,000
9,000
7,000
5,000
6,000
010100020021000A
qualifies the holder to take charge of a shift in a power
plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers
having an aggregate capacity of not more than __________ kW,
when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal
flooding in oil fields, as shift engineer.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
10,000
20,000
30,000
40,000
50,000
010100020021000E
6
A Fourth Class Power Engineer's Certificate of Competency
qualifies the holder to take charge of the general care and
operation of a power plant having a capacity of not more than
__________ kW as chief steam engineer, and to supervise the
engineers in that plant.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5,000
4,000
3,000
2,000
1,000
010100020021000E
qualifies the holder to take charge of the general care and
operation of a power plant consisting of one or more coil
type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity of not
more than __________ kW, when used for the sole purpose of
underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as chief steam
engineer.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,000
2,000
3,000
4,000
5,000
SI Units
010100020021000E
Which of the following is a symbol for a unit of
thermodynamic temperature?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
m
mol
kg
cd
K
010100020021000B
A mole refers to a quantity of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Time
Amount of substance
Luminous intensity
Electric current
Length
010100020021000D
The basic unit of mass in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
newtons
cubic metres
pounds
kilograms
7
e)
cubic centimetres
010100020021000C
The basic unit of length in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
newtons
cubic metres
metres
kelvin
mole
010100020021000C
The basic unit of time in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
metre
kilograms
seconds
ampere
kelvin
010100020021000D
The basic unit of electrical current in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
metre
kilograms
seconds
ampere
kelvin
010100020021000E
The basic unit of thermodynamic temperature in the SI system
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
metre
kilograms
seconds
ampere
kelvin
010100020021000C
The symbol for the basic unit of electrical current is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
m
kg
A
K
s
010100020021000E
The symbol for the basic unit of time is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
m
kg
A
K
s
010100020021000B
The symbol for the basic unit of mass is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
m
kg
A
K
s
010100020021000D
Which of the following is a symbol for a unit of luminous
intensity?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
m
mol
kg
cd
K
010100020021000C
One thousand of a base unit is indicated by the prefix:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
mega
micro
kilo
hecto
milli
010100020021000A
One hundredth of a gram is called a:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
centigram
megagram
milligram
ton
kilogram
010100020021000B
One million of a base unit is indicated by the prefix
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
giga
mega
kilo
hecto
deca
010100020021000A
One billion of a base unit is indicated by the prefix
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
giga
mega
kilo
hecto
deca
9
010100020021000D
One millionth of a base unit is indicated by the prefix
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
centi
deci
nano
micro
milli
010100020021000B
One hundredth of a base unit is indicated by the prefix
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
deci
centi
milli
micro
nano
010100020021000D
One hundred of a base unit is indicated by the prefix
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
giga
mega
kilo
hecto
deca
010100020021000D
Convert 2,365 cm into kilometres.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2.365 km
0.002365 km
23.65 km
0.02365 km
236.5 mg
010100020021000E
Find the volume of a rectangular prism 3 m long, 5 m wide and
2 m high.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
30
3 cubic metres
30 square metres
30 metres
30 cubic metres
010100020021000A
If a box has side lengths of 3.5 m, 6.2 m and 1.8 m
respectively its volume is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
39.06 cubic metres

3,906 cubic metres
39.06 cubic feet
39.06 cubic centimetres
125 cubic metres
10
010100020021000C
The unit of area in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3
2
4
5
010100020021000C
The __________ is the base unit of volume in SI.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2
3
4
5
010100020021000A
In the SI system force is expressed as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
newtons
pounds
kilograms
newton metres
Joules
010100020021000E
In the SI system capacity (volume) is expressed as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
m/s
litre per second
joule
watt
litres
010100020021000C
Units of volume in the SI system are:
1. tonnes
2. cubic metres
11
3.
litres
3
dm
millilitres
kilograms
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
2,
2,
2,
1,
3,
3,
3,
3,
4,
4
4
4, 5
5, 6
6
010100020021000E
The unit of pressure used in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
kilogram / square metre

kilojoules
kg / square centimetre
dyne
kilopascal
010100020021000D
A pascal is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
1
1
1
1
joule
kg / square cm
kg / square m
N / square m
dyne / square cm
010100020021000B
One kilopascal is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
1
1
1
1
kg / square m
kN / square m
bar
m / s
kW
010100020021000C
The unit of power in the SI system is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
kg
pascal
watt
newton-metre
Joule
010100020021000C
One watt is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
1
1
1
1
joule
newton-metre
joule/second
ampere/second
12
e)
1 newton/second
010100020021000B
The unit of work in the SI system is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
watt
joule
newton-metre/second
pascal
newton/second
010100020021000A
One joule per second is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
one
one
one
one
746
newton-metre/second
kg/square metre
watt/second
kW
watts
010100020021000D
The base unit for speed in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
one
one
one
one
one
newton-metre/second
metre/hour
metre/minute
metre/second
metre/24 hours
010100020021000C
The base unit for acceleration in the SI system is:
2
a)
metre / hour
b)
metre / minute
c)
metre / second
d)
metre / 12 hour
e)
metre / day
2
2
2
2
010100020021000C
The base unit of mass density in the SI system is:
2
a)
kg/m
b)
g/m
13
3
c)
kg/m
d)
N/m
e)
N/m
3
2
010100020021000A
An alternate unit for force in the SI system is
2
a)
kg m / s
b)
N / s
c)
N m / s
d)
kg / s
e)
m / s
2
2
2
2
010100020021000D
The base unit for energy in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
Nm/s
N/s
kgm/s
Nm
e)
Nm
2
010100020021000D
One cubic metre is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1 litre
10 litres
100 litres
1,000 litres
10,000 litres
010100020021000A
19.90 km/hr is __________ in m/s.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5.5 m/s
331.7 m/s
10 m/s
40 m/s
1.5 m/s
14
010100020021000D
One bar of pressure in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,000 pascals
100 pascals
10 pascals
100 kpa
10 kpa
010100020021000B
15 miles is equal to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,609 m
24,135 m
29,260 m
5,277 m
7,509 m
010100020021000A
10 km is equal to __________ miles.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
6.215
5.215
1.609
1609
3.28
010100020021000C
12 in is equal to __________ cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
25.40
35.48
30.48
39.37
32.80
010100020021000D
15 square cm is equal to __________ square inches.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
13.950
10.750
2.953
2.325
2.590
010100020021000A
20 cubic feet is equal to __________ cubic metres.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.565
0.061
0.164
0.028
0.353
010100020021000A
15
28 square feet is equal to __________ square metres.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2.590
1.075
0.155
3.704
4.340
010100020021000E
3
3
150 cm is equal to __________ in .
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
19.15
20.15
16.39
35.34
9.15
010100020021000B
20 litres is equal to __________ imperial gallons.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2.2
4.4
8.8
5.4
2.272
010100020021000C
10 gallons is equal to __________ litres.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
22
44
45.46
88
22.72
010100020021000B
15 kg is equal to __________ lb.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
30
33
45
75
90
010100020021000E
1,000 lbs is equal to __________ kgs.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
4540
45.4
4400
4.45
454
010100020021000C
14.7 psi is equal to __________ kPa.
16
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,000
100
101.3
10
147
010100020021000B
6,200 kPa is equal to approximately __________ psi.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,000
900
800
689
1,451
010100020021000C
2 kPa is the same as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.145 psi
0.069 bar
0.02 bar
6.895 lb/square inch
1.451 psi
010100020021000D
If a rectangle has two sides measuring 6 m in length and two
sides measuring 2 m in length what is the area in square
metres?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1.115 square metres

18 square metres
129 square metres
12 square metres
4.8768 square metres
010100020021000A
Area = L x W, if L = 15 cm & W = 2 m, then Area = ?
2
a)
3,000 cm
b)
300 cm
c)
30 cm
d)
300 m
e)
30 m
2
2
2
2
17
010100020021000B
Volume = L x W x H.
If L = 10 cm, W = 120 mm, & H = 5 m, then Volume = ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
600 litres
60 litres
60 cubic metres
600 cubic metres
600 cubic centimetres
010100020021000E
One square metre is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1 square cm
10 square cm
100 square cm
1,000 square cm
10,000 square cm
010100020021000C
100 square cm is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1 square m
0.1 square m
0.01 square m
0.001 square m
10 square m
010100020021000A
3
One m is equal to
a)
1,000 litres
b)
1 yard
c)
10,000 millilitres
d)
10 dm
e)
10 cm
3
3
010100020021000D
One cubic cm is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
10 millilitres
1 dm
1 mm
1 millilitre
1 mm/s
18
Basic Arithmetic Operations

020100020021000E
Add 1,785 + 36 + 291
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,221
1,912
2,102
1,112
2,112
010100020021000A
Subtract 74 from 101
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
27
37
30
33
24
030500020033000
Calculate:
1)
###### - #####
= ______________
2)
###### - #####
= ______________
3) ####### - ###### = ______________

.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(100000,999999,1)
NUM2(10000,99999,1)
NUM3(100000,999999,1)
NUM4(10000,99999,1)
NUM5(1000000,9999999,1)
NUM6(100000,999999,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1-NUM2;
ANS2=NUM3-NUM4;
ANS3=NUM5-NUM6;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.0
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.0
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,0.0
030500020033000
Calculate:
1)
###### + #####
= ______________
2)
###### + #####
= ______________
3) ####### + ###### = ______________

.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(100000,999999,1)
NUM2(10000,99999,1)
NUM3(100000,999999,1)
19
NUM4(10000,99999,1)
NUM5(1000000,9999999,1)
NUM6(100000,999999,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1+NUM2;
ANS2=NUM3+NUM4;
ANS3=NUM5+NUM6;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.0
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.0
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,0.0
010100020021000D
Multiply 94 by 8
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
722
7,532
7,232
752
760
010100020021000B
Divide 4,035 by 15
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
335
269
127
326
103
010100020021000D
Multiply 365.24 by 92.1
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
33,605.831
33,638.649
32,538.504
33,638.604
33,791.219
040500020033000
Calculate:
1)
## x ##
= ______________
2)
## x ###
= ______________
3) #.## x ##.## = ______________

.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(12,99,1)
NUM2(22,99,1)
NUM3(12,99,1)
NUM4(112,999,1)
NUM5(1.22,9.99,0.01)
20
NUM6(12.01,99.99,0.03)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1*NUM2;
ANS2=NUM3*NUM4;
ANS3=NUM5*NUM6;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.0
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.0
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,0.0001
040500020033000
Calculate the following:
1)
#### / ###
= ______________
2)
####### / ####
= ______________
3) ##### / ###
= ______________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(1001,9999,1)
NUM2(101,999,1)
NUM3(1000001,9999999,1)
NUM4(1001,9999,1)
NUM5(10001,99999,1)
NUM6(101,999,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1/NUM2;
ANS2=NUM3/NUM4;
ANS3=NUM5/NUM6;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01
020100020021000C
Add (-56) + 39
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
95
17
-17
-95
-26
010100020021000C
Multiply (-21.6) by (-54.2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,160.65
-1,170.62
1,170.72
1,170.62
-1,160.65
010100020021000A
Divide (-378) by 14
21
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
-27
16.2
-31.61
29
20.05
020100020021000B
2
Solve the expression: (-3)

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2
- [54/18(-5 + 3)] + [11 - (-2) ]
15
22
25
18
17
020100020021000B
Solve the expression:
2
3
[(3.2) - (-4) ] [(75/15) - (-10 + 15)] + (-19/3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
-543.93
-6.33
748.73
-60.09
12.07
040500020021000
Evaluate:
(### - ###) + (### x #) + #
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(400,800,10)
B(100,390,10)
C(100,200,10)
____________________
D(2,9,1)
E(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A-B)+(C*D)+E;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANS:3,.02
040500020021000
Evaluate:
###
#
--- x ## x - = ____________________
3
#
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(30,120,3)
B(2,8,2)
C(1,9,1)
D(2,8,2)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A/3)*C*(B/D);
22
.RESULTS
040500020021000
Evaluate:
(## + ## - #) + (## - # - #)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(1,30,1)
B(1,30,1)
C(1,9,1)
D(1,30,1)
E(1,9,1)
F(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A+B-C)+(D-E-F);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANS:3,0.0
____________________
040500020021000
Evaluate:
(## - 7) - {(# x #)/(# x #)} - # x #
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(7,56,7)
C(1,4,1)
D(2,8,1)
E
F
G(1,9,1)
H(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
E=D;
F=C;
ANS=A-7-((C*D)/(E*F))-(G*H);
.RESULTS
____________________
"Answer =",ANS:3,0.0
040500020021000
Calculate:
## + ### + (# + ## x # - ##)/# + ### = ____________________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(10,20,1)
NUM2(100,200,1)
NUM3(1,9,1)
NUM4(10,90,10)
NUM5(2,8,2)
NUM6(10,20,2)
NUM7(2,8,2)
NUM8(100,300,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANSW=NUM1+NUM2+(NUM3+NUM4*NUM5-NUM6)/NUM7+NUM8;
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",ANSW:3,.01
23
040500020021000
Evaluate:
## x ## x ## x ##
----------------- = ____________________
## x ## x ##
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(3,99,3)
B(10,90,10)
C(20,80,2)
D(2,60,2)
E(5,40,5)
F(3,45,3)
G(5,10,5)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A*B*C*D)/(E*F*G);
ANSR=INT(ANS+.5);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANSR:3,.01
040500020021000
Solve the following problem:
(Answer as a decimal)
(# + #/#)/[(# + #/#)(# + #/#)]
.SUBSTITUTIONS
I1(5,8,1)
N1(1,5,1)
D1
I2(2,4,1)
N2(1,5,1)
D2
I3(1,5,1)
N3(1,5,1)
D3
.SOLUTIONS
D1=N1+1;
____________________
D2=N2+2;
D3=N3+3;
ANSW=(I1+N1/D1)/(I2+N2/D2)/(I3+N3/D3);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANSW:3,.01
030500020021000
Evaluate:
(## + ## - #) + (## - # - #)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
N1(10,99,1)
N2(10,99,1)
N3(1,9,1)
N4(10,99,1)
N5(1,9,1)
N6(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
___________________
24
ANS=(N1+N2-N3)+(N4-N5-N6);
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",ANS:0,.01
030500020021000
Evaluate:
###/# x # x #/# = ____________________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
N1(100,990,10)
N2(2,9,1)
N3(2,9,1)
N4(2,9,1)
N5(2,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=N1/N2*N3*N4/N5;
.RESULTS
03030002004200022 %;10 %;
Solve:
1)
[4(3 + 4 - 2)] + [60/(6 x 5)]
2)
2(4 x 5)/2(4 - 2)
Answers:
1) = _______________
2) = _______________
Fractions, Decimals, and Percentages

010100020021000D
Which of the following is an improper fraction?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
37/39
6 3/4
65/100
3/2
1/2
010100020021000C
Which of the following is a mixed number?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
32/36
19/5
3 1/5
6/24
35/7
05030002004400041/6;21/5;68/7;21/2;
Convert the following mixed numbers to improper fractions.
(Enter your answer in this style 2 2/3 = 8/3)
25
1)
6 5/6
= __________
2)
4 1/5
= __________
3)
9 5/7
= __________
4)
10 1/2
= __________
020100020021000E
Evaluate the following
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3/8 + 2/3 - 1/2 to lowest terms.
12/24
6/12
6/24
6/13
13/24
020100020021000A
Evaluate the following 3/10 x 5/2 - 2/3 to lowest terms.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1/12
11/20
5/60
33/60
3/6
040500020021000
Evaluate:
## x ## x ## x ##
----------------- = ____________________
## x ## x ##
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(3,99,3)
B(10,90,10)
C(20,80,2)
D(2,60,2)
E(5,40,5)
F(3,45,3)
G(5,10,5)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A*B*C*D)/(E*F*G);
ANSR=INT(ANS+.5);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANSR:3,.01
0303000200880001/4;1/5;1/8;1/48;8/25;1 23/112;68 2/5;51 3/7;
Evaluate the following fractional problems. (Reduce to lowest
terms)
1)
3/8 x 3/4 x 8/9
= __________
2)
1/2 x 3/7 x 14/15
= __________
3)
3/8 x 2/3 x 4/5 x 5/8
= __________
26
4)
3/10 x 5/6 x 1/9 x 3/4
= __________
5)
21/16 x 12/35 x 32/45
= __________
6)
27/35 x 5/16 x 15/3
= __________
7)
2 1/2 x 7 3/5 x 3 3/5
= __________
8)
4 2/3 x 8 4/7 x 1 2/7
= __________
010100020021000B
In lowest terms 0.04 is equal to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1/5
1/25
1/40
4/10
4/100
010100020021000C
19/12 is equal to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2
9.6
1.583
6.931
7
040500020044000
Change the following fractions to decimals:
1)
#/# = __________
2)
#/# = __________
3)
#/# = __________
4) #/# = __________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A1(1,3,1)
A2(3,5,1)
B1(3,3,1)
B2(6,7,1)
C1(5,6,1)
C2(8,9,1)
D1(7,8,1)
D2(9,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
A3=A1/A2;
B3=B1/B2;
C3=C1/C2;
D3=D1/D2;
A4=INT(A3*1000+.5)/1000;
B4=INT(B3*1000+.5)/1000;
27
C4=INT(C3*1000+.5)/1000;
D4=INT(D3*1000+.5)/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1
"Answer 2
"Answer 3
"Answer 4
=",A4:3,.01
=",B4:3,.01
=",C4:3,.01
=",D4:3,.01
040500020077000
Convert the following common fractions to decimal numbers.
1)
#/#
= _________
2)
#/##
= __________
3)
##/###
= _________
4)
##/#
= __________
5)
##/###
= __________
6)
##/#
= __________
7) ###/#### = __________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(2,9,1)
DEM1(2,9,1)
NUM2(2,9,1)
DEM2(11,99,1)
NUM3(11,99,1)
DEM3(101,999,1)
NUM4(11,99,1)
DEM4(2,9,1)
NUM5(11,99,1)
DEM5(101,999,1)
NUM6(11,99,1)
DEM6(2,9,1)
NUM7(101,999,1)
DEM7(101,999,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1/DEM1;
ANS2=NUM2/DEM2;
ANS3=NUM3/DEM3;
ANS4=NUM4/DEM4;
ANS5=NUM5/DEM5;
ANS6=NUM6/DEM6;
ANS7=NUM7/DEM7;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",ANS4:3,.01
"Answer 5 =",ANS5:3,.01
"Answer 6 =",ANS6:3,.01
"Answer 7 =",ANS7:3,.01
010100020021000A
95% of 63 litres of gasoline equals:
a)
59.85 litres
28
b)
c)
d)
e)
599 litres
0.663 litres
66.32 litres
95 litres
010100020021000E
62% of 85,362 equals:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
22,932.64
13.768
5,292.492
137,680.65
52,924.44
010100020021000A
An elastic is stretched by 86% to a length of 5.8 m.
Calculate the original length.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3.118
0.067
4.988
2.903
8.675
m
m
m
m
m
010100020021000D
63 is what percent of 260?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
41.27%
2.42%
0.24%
24.23%
4.12%
050500020033000
Change the following fractions to percentages:
decimal places)
1)
#
----#
---------- %
2)
#
----#
---------- %
#
----- = ---------- %
#
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A1(1,4,1)
A2(5,8,1)
B1(2,5,1)
B2(6,8,1)
C1(4,7,1)
C2(3,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
A3=(A1/A2)*100;
3)
(Round to 3
29
B3=B1/B2*100;
C3=C1/C2*100;
A=(INT(A3*100+.5))/100;
B=INT(B3*100+.5)/100;
C=INT(C3*100+.5)/100;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",A:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",B:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",C:3,.01
040500020088000
Convert the following fractions into percentages.
1)
##/##
= __________ %
2)
##/##
= __________ %
3)
##/##
= __________ %
4)
##/##
= __________ %
5)
##/##
= __________ %
6)
##/##
= __________ %
7)
##/##
= __________ %
8)
##/##
= __________ %
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(2,20,1)
DEM1(25,40,1)
NUM2(2,20,1)
DEM2(25,40,1)
NUM3(10,20,1)
DEM3(25,60,1)
NUM4(30,50,1)
DEM4(60,90,1)
NUM5(2,10,1)
DEM5(12,20,1)
NUM6(2,6,1)
DEM6(8,12,1)
NUM7(2,20,1)
DEM7(25,30,1)
NUM8(2,20,1)
DEM8(22,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1/DEM1*100;
ANS2=NUM2/DEM2*100;
ANS3=NUM3/DEM3*100;
ANS4=NUM4/DEM4*100;
ANS5=NUM5/DEM5*100;
ANS6=NUM6/DEM6*100;
ANS7=NUM7/DEM7*100;
ANS8=NUM8/DEM8*100;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",ANS4:3,.01
"Answer 5 =",ANS5:3,.01
"Answer 6 =",ANS6:3,.01
"Answer 7 =",ANS7:3,.01
"Answer 8 =",ANS8:3,.01
30
05030002008800019/20;3/4;1/10;3/20;17/50;39/50;1/1&1;111/200;
Convert the following percentages into fractions. (Reduce to
lowest terms)
1)
95%
= __________
2)
75%
= __________
3)
10%
= __________
4)
15%
= __________
5)
34%
= __________
6)
78%
= __________
7)
100%
= __________
8)
55.5% = __________
050500020021000
A steam line will increase in length by #.##% when heated to
operating temperature. Determine the original length of the
line, if it increased in length by ##.# cm when heated.
(Round your answer to 3 decimal places).
Answer = _______________ cm
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PRCT(1,3,0.01)
STRC(5,10,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
LGTH=STRC*100/PRCT;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",LGTH:3,.01
Ratio and Proportion

010100020021000E
What is the ratio between a mass of 36 kg and 928 L?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
232 to 9
45.6
0.088 kL
4.59
None of the above
010100020021000B
What is the ratio between 75 L and 1.5 L in lowest terms?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
75 to 15
50 to 1
0.2
5 to 1
None of the above
31
010100020021000B
What is the ratio between a mass of 4,500 kg and 150 kg?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
20
30
40
50
55
to
to
to
to
to
1
1
1
1
1
010100020021000A
What is the ratio between the lengths of two pipes that are
150 m and 100 m?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1.5
2.5
3.5
4.5
5.5
to
to
to
to
to
1
1
1
1
1
010100020021000D
What is the ratio between the areas of two objects that are
25 square metres and 5 square metres?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2
3
4
5
6
to
to
to
to
to
1
1
1
1
1
010100020021000B
What is the ratio between the temperatures 15 degrees C and 5
degrees C?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2
3
4
5
6
to
to
to
to
to
1
1
1
1
1
010100020021000E
What is the ratio between the volumes 24 cubic metres and 3
cubic metres?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
4
5
6
7
8
to
to
to
to
to
1
1
1
1
1
010100020021000E
Find the last (x) term of the proportion
a)
b)
c)
d)
2
3
10
11
8:4 = 26:x
32
e)
13
010100020021000C
Find the second (x) term of the proportion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
2
3
4
5
010100020021000E
Find the first (x) term of the proportion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
x:1850 = 25:37
950
1050
1150
1200
1250
010100020021000D
Find the third (x) term of the proportion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
21:x = 35:5
27:15 = x:360
450
550
650
648
756
010100020021000A
A certain chemical mixture should be in the ratio of 4 parts
A, 6 parts B, and 2 parts C. If a 15 kg batch is to be
mixed, what quantities in kgs of A, B, and C should be used in
the batch?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
A
A
A
A
A
=
=
=
=
=
5, B
4, B
5, B
4.5,
3.5,
=
=
=
B
B
7.5, and C
6, and C =
6, and C =
= 6.5, and
= 5.5, and
= 2.5
5
4
C = 4
C = 6
010100020021000D
In the following expression 4:8::2:4 which term(s) is(are)
the extreme(s)?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
8 only
Both 8 and 2
4 only
4 and 4
Both 2 and 4
010100020021000A
In the expression 8:x::16:8, x equals:
a)
b)
4
16
33
c)
d)
e)
2.5
32
16
010100020021000B
A chemical mixture should be in the ratio of 9 parts A, 2
parts B and 5 parts C. A 64 kg batch is to be mixed. What
quantity of A is required?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
52.36 kg
36 kg
20 kg
8 kg
2.25 kg
010100020021000C
Concrete must be mixed with the ratio of 5 parts cement, 3
parts gravel and 4 parts water. If 6 tons of concrete is to
be mixed how much gravel is required?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2.4 tons
2.5 tons
1.5 tons
2 tons
1,865 tons
010100020021000A
Public swimming pools require 3 parts chlorine liquid and 2
parts salt water to every 100 parts water to kill bacteria.
How much chlorine liquid is required in a 4,000 L pool?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
114.29 L
76.19 L
100 L
3,809.52 L
89.23 L
010100020021000D
If mass is inversely proportionate to cost then
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
as
as
as
as
as
mass
mass
cost
mass
cost
increases
increases
decreases
increases
increases
cost will double

cost will increase directly
mass will decrease
cost will decrease
the mass will double
010100020021000E
A gear wheel 65 cm in diameter revolving at 225 r/min drives
a wheel 85 cm in diameter. What is the speed of the second
gear?
a)
b)
c)
d)
3.46 r/min
150 r/min
206.39 r/min
97.5 r/min
34
e)
172.06 r/min
010100020021000B
A gear has 1,000 teeth and revolves at 50 r/min.
gear has 32 teeth. How fast does it turn?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The driven
12.2 r/min
1,562.5 r/min
609.8 r/min
640 r/min
390.2 r/min
010100020021000E
If 15 tonnes of coal cost $360, what will 27 tonnes cost at
the same rate per tonne?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
255
345
625
723
648
010100020021000E
If 25 workers can do a piece of work in 30 days, in how many
days can 35 workers do the same work?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
20.00
18.00
20.25
19.15
21.43
010100020021000A
If bell metal is 25 parts copper to 12 parts tin, what is the
weight of each in a bell weighing 1850 kg?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
copper
copper
copper
copper
copper
=
=
=
=
=
1,250
1,152
1,050
1,350
1,235
kg
kg
kg
kg
kg
and
and
and
and
and
tin
tin
tin
tin
tin
=
=
=
=
=
600
550
565
625
650
kg
kg
kg
kg
kg
010100020021000E
A gear wheel 330 mm in diameter and revolving at a speed of
200 rpm drives a wheel 150 mm in diameter. What is the speed
in rpm of the second gear?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
91
100
330
400
440
010100020021000D
A supply fan is driven by an electric motor by means of
35
V-belts. The pulley on the motor shaft is 90 mm in diameter
and rotates at 1,800 rpm. The diameter of the pulley on the
fan shaft is 300 mm. What is the speed of the fan in rpm?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,000
1,800
900
540
450
010100020021000C
A driving gear has 60 teeth and turns at 750 rpm. The driven
gear has 90 teeth. What is the speed of the driven gear in
rpm?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,125
1,000
500
450
400
Equations and Transposition

020100020021000C
2
A = (Pi)r is the same as:
2
a)
1 = A(Pi)r
b)
c)
sqr(A/Pi) = r
d)
(A/Pi)
e)
sqr(A) = (Pi)r
2
= (Pi)r
= sqr(r)
020100020021000E
In the equation 36 = 12 + (15t) - 6, t equals:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3
-2.2
1.7
-2.8
2
020100020021000B
In the equation 3 x sqr(t) = 39, t equals:
a)
b)
c)
13
169
26
36
d)
e)
sqr(13)
9
020100020021000D
Solve the following equation for b,
2
[b - (q + s)] / q = s
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sqr(10s + q)
sqr[-qs / (q + s)]
sqr(2s)
sqr[qs + (q + s)]
sqr(8s - q)
020100020021000D
Solve the following equation for m,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
mt - y
y / (t + c)
ym - c
(y - c) / t
y - t - c
020100020021000D
Solve the following equation for r,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
y = mt + c
3
[4(Pi)r ] / 3 = V
cubed root[4(Pi)V / 3]
V / 4(Pi)
Pi / 3V
cubed root[3V / 4(Pi)]
3V / 4
020100020021000B
Solve s = ut + 1/2 at
a)
sqr[s - (at / 2)]
b)
[s - (at
c)
2 / (sat)
d)
s - 1/2 at
e)
s + 1/2 at
for u
/ 2] / t
2
- t
020100020021000A
Solve the following equation for A,
a)
2
(2b/q ) - L
2
b/4 = (q /8) (A+L)
37
b)
2
(b/24q ) - L
c)
sqr(b/8q) - L
d)
2
(4b/2q ) - L
e)
2
(b/2q ) - L
020100020021000E
Solve the following equation for r,
a)
4
6y /sa
b)
9
5
6y -sa
c)
9
5
6y - (b /s)
d)
6a
e)
9
5
6y /sa
9
5
s = (6y / a r)
-1
/s
020100020021000C
Solve the equation
a)
2
sqr(v bqr/wyz)
b)
2
v bqr/wyz
c)
[sqr(wyz/bq)]/v
d)
wv
e)
2
sqr(v bwyz/qr)
2 2
r v bq/wyz
010100020021000D
If y + 8 = 14, then y
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3
4
5
6
7
= 1
for r.
38
010100020021000C
If y - 5 = 3, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
6
7
8
9
10
010100020021000B
If 3 y = 6, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
2
3
4
5
010100020021000C
If 6 / y = 2, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
2
3
4
5
010100020021000B
If 3 y + 4 = 10, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
2
3
4
5
010100020021000D
If 4 y + 5 - 7 = 2 y + 6, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
2
3
4
5
010100020021000D
If 13 y + 12 = 7 y + 36, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
2
3
4
5
020100020021000E
39
If 5 y = 250 / 2 y, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
2
3
4
5
020100020021000C
2
If 4y / 2y = 6, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
2
3
4
5
020100020021000C
If 8 = sqr(4y), then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
12
14
16
18
20
020100020021000B
2
2
If y = (5 x 22) , then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
10.5
110
120
1,200
12,100
040500020042000
Solve for "N":
1)
# x # x N x #
## = ------------#####
Answers:
1) = _______________
2) = _______________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(2,9,1)
NUM2(2,9,1)
NUM3(2,9,1)
NUM4(11,99,1)
NUM5(11,99,1)
NUM6(11,99,1)
2)
## x ##
#####.###### = ----------N squared
40
NUM7
NUM8
.SOLUTIONS
NUM7=NUM4*NUM5/NUM1**2;
NUM8=NUM1*NUM2*NUM3*2.5;
ANS1=NUM6*NUM8/NUM1/NUM2/NUM3;
ANS2=(NUM4*NUM5/NUM7)**0.5;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
010100020021000C
Convert 32 degrees F to Celsius,
if degrees C = 5/9 (degrees F - 32).
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
64
18
0
100
90
010100020021000A
Convert 212 degrees F to Celsius,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
100
150
200
250
300
010100020021000E
Convert 1,000 degrees F to Celsius,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
100
250
450
530
538
010100020021000A
Convert -40 degrees F to Celsius,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
-40
-30
-20
-10
-15
010100020021000B
Convert 50 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit,
if degrees F = 9/5 degrees C + 32.
41
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
148
122
130
150
155
010100020021000C
Convert 100 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
238
220
212
180
120
010100020021000C
Convert -35 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
-1.8
-10
-31
-20
-35
010100020021000D
Convert -60 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
-50.4
-45.5
-42.5
-76.0
-72.2
010100020021000C
If C = 5/9 (F - 32), then F =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5/9
5/9
9/5
9/5
9/5
C + 32
C - 32
C + 32
(C + 32)
(C - 32)
020100020021000B
If A = 1/2 b x h, then h =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1/2
2 A
1/2
2 A
2 b
A
/
A
b
/
/ b
b
b
A
42
020100020021000D
2
If A = (Pi) r , then r =
a)
sqr(A x Pi)
b)
(A / Pi)
c)
(A x Pi)
d)
sqr(A / Pi)
e)
(Pi / A)
2
2
020100020021000E
If E = I x R, then R =
a)
E x I
b)
I / E
c)
(E / I)
d)
(E x I)
e)
E / I
2
2
Length, Lines, and Simple Plane Figures

010100020021000B
A fathom is which type of measurement?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Surveyors measure
Nautical measure
English measure
SI measure
Imperial measure
010100020021000E
320 rods is equal to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1 kilometre
1 cable
986 knots
39 furlongs
1,760 yards
010100020021000C
43
Convert 5 miles, 6 yards, 9 feet to metres.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
287.85 m
8,326.53 m
8,054.95 m
539.66 m
6,283.42 m
010100020021000C
100 m = __________ ft.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
300
310
328
350
360
010100020021000A
75 mm = __________ in.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3
4
5
6
7
010100020021000D
100 km = __________ miles.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
40
50
60
62
65
010100020021000D
50 ft is __________ m.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
12.24
13.34
24.34
15.24
16.75
010100020021000E
150 m is __________ yd.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
154
144
50
100
164
010100020021000E
25 cm is __________ in.
44
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5.54
6.24
7.56
8.23
9.84
010100020021000D
The following is a property of perpendicular lines:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
they
they
they
they
they
are always vertical

form less than a 30 degree angle
form more than a 110 degree angle
form right angles
form acute angles
010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about parallel lines is
false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
they
they
they
they
they
can cross
can run horizontally
never cross
can run vertically
are always the same distance apart
010100020021000D
Lines which are exactly the same distance apart at all points
are said to be __________ to each other.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
perpendicular
tangential
equal
parallel
coincide
010100020021000A
Lines at right angles to each other are said to be __________
to each other.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
perpendicular
tangential
equal
parallel
coincide
010100020021000E
When two straight lines meet or cross each other, they form
__________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
parallel lines
tangential lines
perpendicular lines
equilateral lines
an angle
45
010100020021000E
What type of triangle has three sides of equal length?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
scalene
obtuse
isosceles
right triangle
equilateral
010100020021000B
The sum of the angles of a triangle is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
360 degrees
180 degrees
30 degrees
60 degrees
90 degrees
010100020021000A
In a triangle, if the three sides are of equal length, it is
a/an __________ triangle.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
equilateral
isosceles
right
scalene
obtuse
010100020021000B
A/An __________ triangle has two side of equal length and a
third side that is longer or shorter.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
equilateral
isosceles
right
scalene
obtuse
010100020021000C
In a triangle, if one of the angles is 90 degrees, this is
a/an __________ triangle.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
equilateral
isosceles
right
scalene
obtuse
010100020021000D
A/An __________ triangle has no two sides or angles equal and
no right angle.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
equilateral
isosceles
right
scalene
obtuse
46
010100020021000E
A/An __________ triangle contains an angle greater than 90
degrees.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
equilateral
isosceles
right
scalene
obtuse
010100020021000D
If a quadrilateral has angle measurements of 85 degrees, 36
degrees and 110 degrees the last angle equals:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
360 degrees
90 degrees
182 degrees
129 degrees
180 degrees
010100020021000D
The following quadrilateral has no sides parallel:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Trapezoid
Rhomboid
Rhombus
Trapezium
Scalene triangle
010100020021000C
A Rhombus has one side measuring 6 m.
the other 3 sides?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
What are the lengths of
Impossible to find with the above information

6 m, 3 m, 3 m
6 m, 6 m, 6 m
6 m, 12 m, 12 m
5 m, 2 m, 8 m
010100020021000B
Quadrilaterals are figures that have __________ straight
sides.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3
4
5
6
8
010100020021000D
The following objects are quadrilaterals:
1)
2)
3)
square
triangle
trapezoid
47
4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
rhombus
1,
1,
1,
1,
2,
2,
2,
2,
3,
3,
3, 4
3
4
4
4
010100020021000E
When all the angles of a quadrilateral are added together
their sum is __________ degrees.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
90
120
180
320
360
010100020021000A
A __________ is a four sided figure with all four sides of
equal length and all angles right angles.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
square
rhombus
rectangle
trapezoid
rhomboid
010100020021000E
A __________ is a four sided figure with the opposite sides
parallel, but the angles are not right angles.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
square
rhombus
rectangle
trapezoid
rhomboid
010100020021000B
A __________ is a four sided figure in which the four sides
are of equal length but the angles are not right angles.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
square
rhombus
rectangle
trapezoid
rhomboid
010100020021000D
A __________ is a four sided figure having only two sides
parallel.
a)
b)
c)
d)
square
rhombus
rectangle
trapezoid
48
e)
rhomboid
010100020021000E
A __________ is a four sided figure having no two sides
parallel.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
square
rhombus
rectangle
trapezoid
trapezium
010100020021000B
A __________ is a four sided figure in which all the angles
are right angles but opposite sides are equal and adjacent
sides are unequal.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
rhombus
rectangle
trapezoid
rhomboid
trapezium
Areas and Volumes of Solids

010100020021000C
What is the surface area of a cylinder with a diameter of 4
cm and height of 6 cm? (include the areas of the ends)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
75.4 square cm
25.1 square cm
100.5 square cm
88.0 square cm
1,892.5 square cm
050500020051000
Find the total surface area of a closed cylinder having a
diameter of ## m and ## mm and a length of ## m and ## mm.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = _____________________ square metres
.SUBSTITUTIONS
D1(1,10,1)
D2(10,90,5)
L1(11,15,1)
L2(10,90,5)
.SOLUTIONS
D3=D1+(D2/1000);
L3=L1+(L2/1000);
A1=3.14*D3*L3;
A2=2*.7854*D3**2;
AT=A1+A2;
49
.RESULTS
"Answer =",AT:3,.01
050500020021000
Calculate the diameter of a circle having an area of ### sq cm:
Answer = ______________________ cm
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(100,900,02)
.SOLUTIONS
D=SQR(A/.7854);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",D:3,.01
050500020021000
Determine the area of a circle having a radius of ###.# cm:
Answer = _______________ square metres
.SUBSTITUTIONS
R(15,400,.5)
.SOLUTIONS
A=3.14*R**2/10000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",A:3,.01
010100020021000D
A cylinder has a surface area of 15 square metres (including
the areas of the ends) and a diameter of 95 cm. What is the
height of the cylinder in metres?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
455.1
45.51
55.51
4.551
4,551
010100020021000A
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3.869
38.69
386.9
0.387
3,869
010100020021000B
a)
b)
74.578
7.4578
50
c)
d)
e)
745.78
7457.8
0.7458
010100020021000C
If the diameter of a cylinder is 1.5 m and the height is 223
cm, what is the surface area in square m? (Include the areas
of the ends)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1.4043
140.43
14.043
1404.3
0.1404
010100020021000D
cm, calculate the surface area in square metres. (Include
the areas of the ends)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3,244.3
324.43
3.2443
32.443
0.3244
010100020021000E
cm, calculate the surface area in square metres. (Include
the areas of the ends)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3,867.5
386.75
38.675
0.3868
3.8675
010100020021000E
Find the surface area of a sphere with a radius of 3 m.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
452.2 sq metres
28.26 sq metres
37.68 sq metres
7.1 sq metres
113.0 sq metres
010100020021000A
Calculate the surface area of a sphere in square cm if the
radius is 6 cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)
452.389
4,523.89
4.52389
45.2389
51
e)
0.45239
010100020021000C
radius is 7 cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
6,157.52
61.5752
615.752
6.15752
0.61575
010100020021000D
radius is 5 cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.31416
3.14159
31.4159
314.159
3,141.59
010100020021000B
radius is 4 cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,010.62
201.062
20.1062
2.01062
0.20106
010100020021000A
A cylinder has a surface area (including the areas of the
ends) of 180.6 sq cm and a diameter of 5 cm. What is the
height of the cylinder?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
9.0 cm
28.3 cm
11.5 cm
5.0 cm
0.3 cm
010100020021000A
A sphere has a surface area of 1,256 sq cm.
diameter?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
What is its
20 cm
10 cm
314 cm
157 cm
100 cm
010100020021000A
What is the surface area of a pressure vessel in the form of
a cylinder with each end in the form of a hemisphere, if the
52
overall length is 12 m and the diameter is 3 m?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
113.09 sq m
141.3 sq m
84.82 sq m
98.9 sq m
106.3 sq m
050500020042000
Calculate the area of a rectangle with sides of ## cm by
## cm: (Round the answers to 3 decimal places)
1) give the area in square centimetres
2) give the area in square inches
Answers:
1) = ___________________ square centimetres
2) = ___________________ square inches
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(5,50,2)
W(4,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
A1=L*W;
A2=A1*.155;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",A1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",A2:3,.01
010100020021000D
What is the total surface area in square cm of a closed
cylinder that is 12 cm high and 3 cm in diameter?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.12723
1.27234
12.7234
127.234
1,272.34
010100020021000B
Find the lateral area in square m of a steam pipe 50 cm in
diameter and 2.5 m in length.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
4.32
3.93
4.91
0.20
4.12
010100020021000C
Find the amount of insulation required in square m to
completely cover a chlorine storage sphere having a diameter
of 8 m.
a)
804.248
53
b)
c)
d)
e)
402.124
201.062
100.531
50.265
010100020021000D
Calculate the area of insulation in square m required to
cover a boiler drum which is equipped with hemispherical
heads. The diameter of the drum is 84 cm and 4 m in length
from one end to the other.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
25.546
12.773
11.773
10.556
5.278
010100020021000D
What is the volume of a cylinder with a diameter of 9 m and a
height of 15 m?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
106.0 cubic metres

3,817.0 cubic metres
238.6 cubic metres
954.3 cubic metres
1,590.4 cubic metres
010100020021000B
A cylinder with a diameter of 5 m and a height of 8 m is half
full of liquid. What volume does the liquid occupy?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
157.1 cubic cm
78.5 cubic cm
39.3 cubic cm
19.6 cubic cm
15.7 cubic cm
050500020042000
Calculate the volume of a cylindrical tank ## m in diameter
and ## m in length. Give the answers in cubic metres and
cubic decimetres. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answers:
1) = _______________ cubic metres
2) = _______________ cubic decimetres
.SUBSTITUTIONS
D(1,12,1)
L(5,20,1)
.SOLUTIONS
U1=.7854*(D**2)*L;
U2=1000*U1;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",U1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",U2:3,.2
54
050500020021000
Calculate the volume of a cylinder which has a diameter of ### cm,
and a height of #.## m. (Round answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ______________ cubic metres
.SUBSTITUTIONS
D(10,400,2)
H(.05,8,.01)
.SOLUTIONS
V=.7854*(D/100)**2*H;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",V:3,.02
050500020021000
Find the height of a cylinder where the area of the end is
#.# square metres and the volume is ###.# cubic metres.
Answer = _______________ m
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(1.5,9,.5)
V(20,260,.5)
.SOLUTIONS
H=V/A;
.RESULTS
"Answer = :",H:3,.01
010100020021000D
Find the volume in cubic metres of a cylindrical tank that is
2 m in diameter and 14 m long.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
14
24
34
44
54
010100020021000C
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
139.293
239.293
339.293
439.293
539.293
010100020021000A
a)
b)
c)
113.098
213.098
313.098
55
d)
e)
413.098
513.098
010100020021000B
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
113.629
213.629
313.629
413.629
513.629
010100020021000E
Find the volume in cubic metres of a cylindrical tank 8 m in
diameter and 15 m long.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
353.984
453.984
553.984
653.984
753.984
010100020021000D
What is the volume of a sphere with a radius of 6 m?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
113.04 cubic cm
150.72 cubic cm
7,234.56 cubic cm
904.32 cubic cm
75.36 cubic cm
010100020021000D
If the radius of a sphere is 5 cm, the volume in cubic cm is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.523
5.232
52.32
523.2
5,232
010100020021000E
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.214
2.144
21.44
214.4
2,144
010100020021000A
56
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,437
143.7
14.37
1.437
0.1437
010100020021000C
If the radius of a sphere is 2 m, the volume in cubic metres
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.335
3.349
33.49
334.9
3,349
010100020021000D
If the radius of a sphere is 3 m, the volume in cubic m is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.113
1.131
11.31
113.1
1,131
010100020021000B
What is the volume in cubic m of a sphere with a radius of 4
metres?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,681
268.1
26.81
2.681
0.268
010100020021000D
What is the radius of a sphere in cm if the volume is 49.56
cubic cm?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.00228
0.02279
0.2279
2.279
22.79
010100020021000B
If the volume of a sphere is 2,123 cubic cm, its radius in cm
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
9
8
7
6
5
010100020021000D
If the volume of a sphere is 756 cubic cm, its radius in cm
57
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2.65
3.65
4.65
5.65
6.65
010100020021000C
Which of the following equations correctly expresses the
volume of a hemisphere?
a)
3
V = (4 * Pi * r )/3
b)
3
V/2 = (4 * Pi * r )/3
c)
3
V = (2 * Pi * r )/3
d)
V = (4 * Pi * r
e)
V/2 = (2/3) Pi * r
3/2
)/3
2
010100020021000A
A pressure vessel is in the form of a cylinder with each end
in the form of a hemisphere. The vessel operates at 1,100
kPa. If the overall length is 12 m and the diameter is 3 m,
what is the volume of the pressure vessel?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
56.55 cubic metres

113.1 cubic metres
197.92 cubic metres
77.75 cubic metres
84.8 cubic metres
050500020021000
Calculate the height of a rectangular box which has a length of
## cm and a width of ## cm. The volume of the box is
#### cubic cm. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ cm
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(20,40,5)
W(10,20,1)
V
.SOLUTIONS
H=10;
V=H*L*W;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,0.01
050500020021000
58
Calculate the height of a rectangular box ## cm long, ## cm
wide and a volume of ##### cu cm. (Round to 3 dec. places)
Answer = ____________________ cm
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(40,70,2)
W(10,35,1)
V
.SOLUTIONS
H=25;
V=H*L*W;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,0.01
050500020021000
Calculate the height of a rectangular tank filled with water
holding ##### litres. The length of the tank is #.# m and
the width is #.# m. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ m
.SUBSTITUTIONS
C(10000,50000,500)
L(2,4,.2)
W(1,2,.2)
.SOLUTIONS
V=C/1000;
H=V/(L*W);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.01
050500020021000
Calculate the height of a cylindrical tank filled with water
having a mass of ####.# kg. The diameter of the tank
is #.# m. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ___________________ m
.SUBSTITUTIONS
M(1500,2900,.5)
D(1,5,.2)
.SOLUTIONS
V=M/1000;
H=V/(.7854*D**2);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.01
050500020052000
Calculate the mass of water in kg and tonne contained in a
rectangular tank with the following inside dimensions:
width of ##.#
height of ##.#
length of ##.#
metres
metres
metres
(Round answers to 3 decimal places)

Answers:
1) = _______________ kg
59
2) = _______________ tonne
.SUBSTITUTIONS
W(.4,10,.2)
H(2,20,.2)
L(4,12,.2)
.SOLUTIONS
M=W*H*L*1000;
T=M/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",M:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",T:3,.01
010100020021000C
The diameter of a cylindrical fuel tank is 2 m and its height
is 10 m. The volume of the tank in cubic metres is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.314
3.142
31.42
314.2
3,142
010100020021000D
is 12 m. The volume of the tank in cubic metres is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.151
1.51
15.1
151
1,511
010100020021000A
is 15 m. The volume of the tank in litres is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
294,525
29,452.5
2,945.25
294.525
29.4525
010100020021000E
A tank was three-fourths full of water. After running off
1,000 litres it was one-fifth full. The capacity of the tank
in litres is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,333.333
5,000
6,333.333
3,666.667
1,818.182
010100020021000C
A cast iron ball has a 32 cm radius and a mass of 7.21 grams
per cubic cm. The mass in kg is
60
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
9.8963
98.963
989.63
9,896.3
98,963
010100020021000A
A cast iron ball is 7 cm in diameter and has a mass of 7.21
grams per cubic cm. The mass of the ball in kg is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1.295
12.95
129.5
1,295
12,950
010100020021000E
A steel tube has an outside diameter of 15 cm, an inside
diameter of 13 cm, and is 3.7 m long. The volume of the
steel contained in the tube in cubic cm is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1.6273
16.273
162.73
1,627.3
16,273
010100020021000D
A positive displacement pump has a 15 cm diameter cylinder
and a stroke of 30 cm. How much water in litres will it
discharge in 10 minutes if it makes 96 strokes per minute?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5.0894
50.894
508.94
5,089.4
50,894
Introduction to Basic Mechanics

010100020021000D
Which of the following examples is not an example of a
dynamic body?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a body that is accelerating

a body that is decelerating
a body that is orbiting at a constant velocity around
a planet
a body moving at a uniform velocity along a straight line
a body colliding with another body and deflecting in a
new direction
010100020021000C
61
Which of the following is an example of a static body?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a body that is accelerating

a body that is decelerating
a rigid body that is at rest
a body that is moving at a uniform velocity along a
straight line
a body colliding with another body and deflecting in a
new direction
010100020021000D
Any action on a body which tends to change its size, shape or
its state of motion is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
displacement
acceleration
volume
force
mass
010100020021000E
The SI unit for mass is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
m/s
m
N
J
kg
010100020021000B
Attraction to the centre of the earth is called:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
centrifugal force
gravity
mass
friction
distance
010100020021000C
Six kg would be a measure of an object's:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
weight
volume
mass
length
time
010100020021000D
What is the force of gravity exerted on a person whose mass
is 75 kg?
a)
b)
c)
d)
7.5
75
165
735.75
N
J
N
N
62
e)
750 N
010100020021000B
Mass may be measured in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
kJ
kg
Kelvin
kJ/kg
N/m
010100020021000A
In the SI system, the unit of force is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
newton
MJ
kg force
work done in J/s
Nm
010100020021000E
What is the force of gravity exerted on an object having a mass
of 5 tonnes?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
4.905
49.05
490.50
490.50
49,050
N
N
N
kg
N
010100020021000C
The unit of force used in the SI system is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
kilogram
Joule
Newton
Watt
Newton metre
010100020021000D
The SI unit for weight is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
kg
lb
kip
Newton
kg m
010100020021000C
The rate of change of velocity is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
mass
force
acceleration
weight
displacement
63
010100020021000B
m/s is the SI unit for:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
acceleration
velocity
force
mass
weight
010100020021000A
The unit of acceleration in the SI system is
2
a)
m/s
b)
m/s
c)
2
m /s
d)
km/s
e)
m/h
010100020021000E
The change of position (in metres) per unit is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
acceleration
displacement
volume
force
velocity
010100020021000B
Force acting in a direction at right angles to a surface,
divided by the surface area, is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
acceleration
pressure
weight
surface area
friction
010100020021000C
The SI unit for pressure is
a)
kN
b)
kNm
c)
kPa
d)
kN/m
3
64
e)
kN/m
010100020021000D
A force of 120 kN is exerted uniformly over an area of 0.2
square metres. What is the pressure?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
24 kPa
240 kPa
60 kPa
600 kPa
6 kPa
010100020021000D
Which of the following statements is true if a person pushes
with a force of 300 N on a rock and the rock does not move?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
300 N of work was done

300 J of work was done
150 J of work was done
no work was done
0.3 J of work was done
010100020021000E
Rate of doing work is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
any energy
kinetic energy
potential energy
work
power
010100020021000D
The ability to do work due to an object's motion is defined
as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
power
potential energy
force
kinetic energy
weight
010100020021000B
The unit of measure of work as used in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Newtons
Joules
kilowatts
foot pounds
Joule metres
010100020021000D
A mass of 400 kg is moved a horizontal distance of 30 m due
to a force of 300 kN. The amount of work done is
a)
b)
9,000 J
12,000 J
65
c)
d)
e)
12,000 kJ
9,000 kJ
3,000 kJ
010100020021000C
The unit of measure of power used in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Newtons
Joules
kilowatts
work
Joules/Newton
010100020021000E
A mass of 400 kg is moved a horizontal distance of 20 m due to
a force of 500 kN. The amount of work done is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
8,000
10,000
1,000
8,000
10,000
J
J
kJ
kJ
kJ
010100020021000A
A mass of 600 kg is moved a horizontal distance of 40 m due to a
force of 400 N. The amount of work done is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
16,000 J
24,000 J
24,000 kJ
1,600 MJ
160 MJ
010100020021000E
The unit of measure of energy used in the SI systems is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
work
torque
kilowatt
Newton
Joule
010100020021000D
If a force of 200 kN is moved a distance of 15 m in 15
seconds, what power is developed?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3,000 kW
1,500 kW
1,000 kW
200 kW
150 kW
010100020021000A
__________ energy is the ability of a body to do work by
virtue of its position.
66
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Potential
Kinetic
Maximum
Minimum
Basic
010100020021000B
__________ energy is the ability of a body to do work due to
its motion.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Potential
Kinetic
Maximum
Minimum
Basic
010100020021000A
M x G x H is the equation for __________ energy.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Potential
Kinetic
Maximum
Minimum
Basic
010100020021000B
2
1/2 x M x V is the equation for __________ energy.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Potential
Kinetic
Maximum
Minimum
Basic
Forces and Moments

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about force is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Force is the push exerted on a body.

Force may make a body move.
Force is the pull exerted on a body.
No force is required to stop a body.
Force may make a body stop.
010100020021000B
Which of the following is the SI unit for force?
2
a)
m/s
b)
67
2
c)
ft lbs/s
d)
kg
e)
010100020021000C
For a pivot or lever, the product of Force multiplied by a
perpendicular distance from the point of rotation, is defined
as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
weight
mass
turning moment
potential energy
power
010100020021000E
Moments are measured in:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
m
kJ
N
W
Nm
010100020021000D
The unit of measure for a _______________ of force is the
newton metre.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
pressure
kilogram
Joule
moment
second
010100020021000B
A force of 320 kN acts at a perpendicular distance of 4 m
from a point. What will be the turning moment produced?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
80 kNm
1,280 kNm
1,280 kN
1,280 kJ
1,280 Nm
010100020021000E
If a system is in equilibrium then which of the following
statements is true?
a)
b)
c)
The system will rotate clockwise

The system will rotate counter clockwise
The system will not rotate because no force is being
exerted
68
d)
e)
The system rotates under the largest force

The system will not rotate because the moments in the
system balance each other out
010100020021000A
A bar is pivoted on the left end and a force is applied
downwards on the right end. The rotation of the bar will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
clockwise
counter-clockwise
neutral
upward
downward
010100020021000B
A bar is pivoted on the right end and a force is applied
downwards on the left end. The rotation of the bar will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
clockwise
counter-clockwise
neutral
upward
downward
010100020021000B
A 5 m long bar is pivoted on the left end and a force of 10 N
is applied downwards on the right end. The moment of force
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
50 Nm counter-clockwise
50 Nm clockwise
2 Nm clockwise
5 Nm clockwise
010100020021000C
A 15 m long bar is pivoted on the right end and a force of 5
N is applied downwards on the left end. The moment of force
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3 Nm clockwise
75 Nm clockwise
75 N counter-clockwise
010100020021000D
A 5 m long bar is pivoted on the right end and a force of 10
N is applied upwards on the left end. The moment of force is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2 Nm clockwise
50 Nm clockwise
50 kNm clockwise
010100020021000E
69
A 12 m long bar is pivoted on the right end and a force of
150 N is applied upwards on the left end. The moment of
force is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
12.5 Nm
25 Nm
180 Nm
1,800 kNm
1.8 kNm
010100020021000A
A bar is pivoted on the right end and a force is applied
upwards on the left end. The rotation of the bar will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
clockwise
counter-clockwise
neutral
upward
downward
010100020021000B
A bar is pivoted on the left end and a force is applied
upwards on the right end. The rotation of the bar will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
clockwise
counter-clockwise
neutral
upward
downward
010100020021000C
A 7 m bar is pivoted at 2 m from the left end. A force of 60
N is applied downward on the left end and a force of 20 N
is applied downward on the right end. What would be the
clockwise and counter-clockwise moments and in which
direction would the bar rotate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
80 Nm counter-clockwise, 100 Nm clockwise,

counter-clockwise rotation
60 Nm counter-clockwise, 100 Nm clockwise, clockwise
rotation
120 Nm counter-clockwise, 100 Nm clockwise, clockwise
rotation
120 Nm counter-clockwise, 120 Nm clockwise, equilibrium
010100020021000D
A 8 m bar is pivoted at 5 m from the left end. A force of 15
N is applied downward on the left end and a force of 20 N
is applied downward on the right end. What would be the
clockwise and counter-clockwise moments and in which
direction would the bar rotate?
a)
70
b)
c)
d)
e)
60 Nm counter-clockwise, 75
rotation
rotation
Nm clockwise, clockwise
Nm clockwise, clockwise
Nm clockwise,
Nm clockwise, equilibrium
010100020021000B
If a system of forces is in equilibrium then which of the
following statements is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The
The
The
The
The
system will rotate counter-clockwise.

total upward forces = the total downward forces.
system will rotate clockwise.
system will vibrate.
system will rotate temporarily.
010100020021000D
If a system of forces is in equilibrium then which of the
following statements is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The system will rotate counter-clockwise.

The system will rotate clockwise.
The system will vibrate.
The total forces to the right = the total forces to the
left.
The system will rotate temporarily.
050500020041000
A lever is supported by a fulcrum placed at the mid-point of
the lever. A ## kg mass is suspended #.# m from the fulcrum.
What mass must be suspended at a point #.# m on the other side
of the fulcrum in order to place the lever in equilibrium?
(Round off to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ kg
.SUBSTITUTIONS
M1(10,50,2)
L1(1,3,.2)
L2(2,4,.1)
.SOLUTIONS
M2=(M1*L1)/L2;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",M2:3,.01
010100020021000D
A lever 15 metres in length is pivoted at one end. A load
of 750 N is suspended from the other end. What force must
be applied at the midpoint of the lever in order to obtain
equilibrium?
a)
b)
c)
50 N
112.5 N
150 N
71
d)
e)
1,500 N
1,725 N
010100020021000A
A lever is 3 m in length and is pivoted at one end. A load of
8,000 N is suspended from the lever at a point 1 m from the pivot.
What force is necessary at the other end of the lever in order
to obtain equilibrium?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,666.667 N
1,333.333 N
16,000 N
24,000 N
5,336 N
010100020021000B
A lever 10 m in length is pivoted at one end and has a load of
900 kg suspended from the other end. What force must be applied
at the mid-point of the lever to obtain equilibrium?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
8,829 N
17,658 N
882.9 N
4,414.4 N
22,500 N
050500020041000
A simply supported beam is ## metres long and has a force
of ### newtons acting at #.# metres from the left hand support.
Find the load on the right hand support. (Round off to 3
decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(3,7,1)
M(10,500,40)
L1(1,2.5,.5)
.SOLUTIONS
R2=L1*M/L;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",R2:3,.02
050300020021000160 %.01;
A beam having a length of 20 metres is pivoted at its mid point.
A 200 newton load is located at a point 5 m from the right
hand end of the beam. A 300 newton load is located at a point
8 m from the right hand end. In order for the beam to be in
equilibrium, what load is required at the extreme left end of
the beam?
Answer = ______________________ newtons
050500020101000
A crowbar is # metres long and has its pivot ## centimetres from
one end. A force of ##### newtons is applied to the end closest to
72
the pivot. What effort must be applied to the other end of the
crowbar to keep it in equilibrium? (Round to 3 decimal
places)
Answer = ____________________ newtons

.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(2,8,1)
P(30,80,10)
F(2000,10000,1000)
.SOLUTIONS
E=(F*P/100)/(L-P/100);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",E:3,.01
Simple Machines
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about simple machines is
false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The machine receives energy by means of a single applied

force.
The machine produces work by means of a single output
force.
Work output is the product of the load and the distance
moved by the load.
Work input is greater than work output.
The machine receives energy by means of 2 or more applied
forces.
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about inclined planes is
false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
A ramp is an inclined plane.

Work input = work output + work wasted
A screw is an inclined plane.
Work is wasted in friction.
No work is wasted in producing heat.
010100020021000D
A simple machine is one which receives energy by means of a
single applied force, and produces work by means of
__________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
multiple output forces

an energy form
a distance moved
a single output force
a mechanical device
73
010100020021000B
The ratio of the load to the effort is called:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
velocity ratio
actual mechanical advantage
efficiency
power
work
010100020021000B
A lever is used to move a load of 10 kN by applying an effort
of 1,000 N. What is the mechanical advantage of the lever?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
10
100
1,000
10,000
05030002004200045 %.01;9 %.1;

A crowbar is 2 metres in length and has a fulcrum or pivot
located 20 cm from one end. What load can be lifted by the
crowbar, if a force of 5,000 N is applied to the end furthest
from the fulcrum? What is the mechanical advantage of the
arrangement?
Answers:
1) = ____________________ kN
2) = ____________________ MA
010100020021000D
Find the force necessary to just move a mass of 2.5 kg on the
end of a 3.6 m lever which is pivoted 3 m from the left end.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
754.14 N
76.88 N
27.50 N
123 N
1,206.6 N
010100020021000A
A small hand pump is 850 mm in length. The fulcrum is
attached in one end and the load plunger is located 50 mm
from the fulcrum. An effort force of 600 N is applied
downward from the opposite end of the fulcrum. Find the
force exerted by the load plunger and the mechanical
advantage of the lever.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
10,200 N and 17
1,020 N and 17
102 N and 17
10.2 N and 20
102 N and 20
74
010100020021000C
Velocity ratio is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The reaction at the fulcrum to balance the net forces on

the system.
The ratio of the load to the effort.
The ratio of the distance moved by the effort to the
distance moved by the load.
The ratio of the work output to the work input.
A block and tackle system.
010100020021000D
In a lifting machine, the effort applied moves a distance of
5 m while the load moves 50 mm. What is the velocity ratio?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.1
1
10
100
1,000
010100020021000E
Efficiency is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
work
work
work
work
work
input multiplied by work output

input divided by work output
output plus work input
output minus work input
output divided by work input
010100020021000D
A machine is used to lift a load of 2 kN a distance of 3 m
and the effort applied is 400 N. What distance will the
effort move if the efficiency of the machine is 80%?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
20.50
2.083
20.83
18.75
1.875
m
m
m
m
m
010100020021000C
A machine is used to lift a load of 12 kN and the effort
applied is 4 kN. What distance will the load move if the
effort moved a distance of 8 m and the efficiency of the
machine is 70%?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.5357
3.8095
1.8667
0.3809
5.3570
m
m
m
m
m
010100020021000B
An effort of 400 N is required to raise a mass of 100 kg in a
certain machine. If the mass is raised 4 m while the effort
75
moves 12 m, find the efficiency of the machine.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
93%
82%
80%
75%
70%
010100020021000C
An effort of 525 N is required to raise a mass of 120 kg in a
certain machine. If the mass is raised 5 m while the effort
moves 15 m, find the efficiency of the machine.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
85%
80%
75%
70%
65%
010100020021000D
An effort of 3 kN is required to move a mass of 2,000 kg in a
certain simple machine. If the mass is raised 1.5 m while the
effort moves 12 m find the velocity ratio (VR), the actual
mechanical advantage (MA), and the efficiency (EFF) of the
machine.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
VR
VR
VR
VR
VR
=
8,
= 12,
=
8,
=
8,
= 1.5,
MA
MA
MA
MA
MA
=
=
=
=
=
0.67,
6.54,
0.67,
6.54,
0.67,
EFF
EFF
EFF
EFF
EFF
= 5.3 %
= 54.5 %
= 8.3 %
= 81.8 %
= 44.7 %
010100020021000D
A block and tackle system has 6 pulleys in each of two blocks
(12 pulleys total). If a downward effort of 260 N is
required to raise a load of 300 kg calculate the efficiency
of the system.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
9.6%
19.2%
188.3%
94.3%
108.6%
010100020021000B
A block and tackle system has 3 pulleys in each of two
blocks. If a downward effort of 100 N is applied and the
machine has an efficiency of 83.6% what is the maximum mass
that can be moved?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
501.6 kg
51.1 kg
5,113.1 kg
250 kg
25.6 kg
76
010100020021000C
A simple wheel and axle has a wheel diameter of 2.3 m and an
axle diameter of 92 mm. If an effort of 26 N is required to
raise a mass of 16 kg what is the efficiency of the machine?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2.46%
95.3%
24.1%
20.1%
65.5%
010100020021000E
A simple wheel and axle has a wheel diameter of 3 m and an
axle diameter of 25 cm. What effort is required to raise 850
kg if the efficiency is 87%?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
81 N
986 N
100.5 N
563.2 N
798.7 N
050500020021000
A block and tackle consists of # pulleys on the upper block
and # pulleys on the lower block.
Determine the load that may be held in equilibrium when an
effort of ### N is applied. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
UPLS(3,9,1)
LPLS
EFRT(100,950,50)
.SOLUTIONS
LPLS=UPLS-1;
LOAD=EFRT*(UPLS+LPLS);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",LOAD:3,.01
050500020021000
A block and tackle has # pulleys on the top block and
# pulleys on the bottom block. A load of #### N is
suspended from the lower block. Determine the effort
required to keep the system in equilibrium.
Answer = ____________________ N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
UPLS(3,9,1)
LPLS
LOAD(1000,9500,100)
.SOLUTIONS
LPLS=UPLS-1;
EFRT=LOAD/(LPLS+UPLS);
77
.RESULTS
"Answer =",EFRT:3,.01
050500020021000
A block and tackle is used to lift a load of #### N with an
effort of just over ### N. How many pulleys would be used
on the lower block?
Answer = _____________________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
LOAD
EFRT(100,950,50)
FCTR(1,5,1)
.SOLUTIONS
LOAD=2*FCTR*EFRT;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",FCTR:3,.0
0503000200420004500 %.0015;5 %.01;
A simple wheel and axle has a wheel radius of 60 cm and an axle
radius of 12 cm. If an effort of 900 N is applied to the wheel,
what load can be raised by the axle and what is the mechanical
advantage of the arrangement?
Answers:
1) = ____________________ N
2) = ____________________ MA
05030002004200025 %;24500 %.0015;
A simple wheel and axle has an axle with a diameter of 8 cm
and a wheel with a diameter of 2 m.
1)
2)
Determine the mechanical advantage of the system.

Determine the load that may be balanced by a mass of
100 kg attached to the wheel.
Answers:
1) = ____________________ MA
2) = ____________________ N
010100020021000A
A wheel and axle has a mechanical advantage of 10. Calculate
the diameter of the axle if the diameter of the wheel is
30 cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3
3.333
6
15
300
cm
cm
cm
cm
cm
0503000200420007.500 % .01;654 % .01;

A wheel and axle arrangement has an axle with a diameter of
25 cm. A rope is wrapped around the axle and is supporting
a load of 2 tonnes.
78
1)
2)
If the mechanical advantage of the system is 30, determine

the diameter of the wheel.
Determine the effort required to maintain the system in
equilibrium.
Answers:
1) = ____________________ m
2) = ____________________ N
Scalars and Vectors I

010100020021000A
Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
velocity
length
volume
time
area
010100020021000E
A scalar quantity has:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
necessary units only

numerical size of the quantity only
magnitude only
both direction and numerical size of the quantity
both magnitude and necessary units
010100020021000E
Distance is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
always a vector quantity

velocity divided by time
measured in a straight line
always measured in a circular path
a scalar quantity
010100020021000C
A vector quantity has:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
both numerical size and the necessary units of the

quantity
both direction and necessary units of the quantity
direction, magnitude and necessary units of the quantity
magnitude and necessary units of the quantity
magnitude only
010100020021000D
Vectors that are all in the same plane are defined as:
79
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
scalar
concurrent
resultants
coplanar
antiplanar
010100020021000B
A single vector which can replace a system of vectors and has
the same effect is called a:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
coplanar vector
resultant
concurrent vector
scalar
none of the above
010100020021000B
Find the resultant of 3 concurrent coplanar forces of:
i)
60 N acting 20 degrees east of north
ii)
30 N east
iii) 150 N acting 40 degrees east of south
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
240 N east
160 N 68 degrees east of south
30 N 73.8 degrees east of north
010100020021000E
A plane is flying at 56 km/h at a bearing of 65 degrees.
After flying for 3 hours the plane heading is changed to a
bearing of 90 degrees. After flying for a further 1 hour at
56 km/h what is the plane's bearing from its original
position?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
81
86
42
25
71
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
010100020021000A
Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant
of 3 coplanar forces of:
i)
ii)
10 N west
iii) 70 N 35 degrees east of north
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
65 N 65 degrees east of north

120 N west
55 N 45 degrees west of south
010100020021000D
80
Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant of 4 concurrent coplanar
forces:
i)
ii)
iii) 25 N 72 degrees east of north
iv)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

010100020021000B
Determine the resultant of the following vector system:
i)
65 km 60 degrees south of east
ii)
120 km 30 degrees west of north
iii) 30 km 35 degrees east of north
iv)
75 km south
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
120 km 70 degrees east of south

11 km 75 degrees west of south
61 km 63 degrees east of south
50 km south
92 km 42 degrees west of south
Linear Velocity and Acceleration

010100020021000D
According to Newtons laws of motion which statement is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
A body at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by

an external force.
If a body is acted upon by an external unbalanced force
the body will have an acceleration in the direction and
proportional to the magnitude of the force.
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
A body in motion will come to rest unless acted upon by
an external unbalanced force.
When one object exerts a force on a second object the
second object exerts a reactive force of equal magnitude
and opposite direction on the first object.
010100020021000B
A body moves from Point A to Point B in a semicircular path.
The diameter of the semicircle is 2 m. Calculate the
distance between Point A and Point B.
a)
b)
c)
d)
6.28
3.14
2.07
1.04
m
m
m
m
81
e)
0.52 m
010100020021000B
A body moves from Point A to Point B in a semicircular path.
The radius of the semicircle is 2 m. Calculate the
displacement between Point A and Point B.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2 m
4 m
6 m
8 m
10 m
010100020021000E
A body moves from A due east 5 m to B, then from B due north
6 m to C and finally from C due west 8 m to D. Calculate the
total distance covered from A to D.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
11
13
14
17
19
m
m
m
m
m
010100020021000C
A body moves from A due east 5 m to B, then from B due north
6 m to C and finally from C due west 5 m to D. Calculate the
total distance covered from A to D.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
4 m
5 m
6 m
7 m
19 m
010100020021000B
A vehicle that travels 150 km in 3 hours,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
has a velocity of 50 km/h

has an average speed of 50 km/h
has a relative velocity of 50 km/h
covers a distance of 50 km
has a velocity of 750 km/h
010100020021000C
An airplane travels 500 km due west in 2 hours.
velocity is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
250 m/s due west

4167 m/s due west
69.4 m/s due west
69.4 m/s due east
1000 km/h due east
Its average
82
010100020021000C
An airplane travels 250 km due West for 2 hours.
velocity is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Its average
150 m/s West

250 m/s West
34.722 m/s West
69.4 m/s East
500 km/h East
010100020021000B
Velocity is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a scalar quantity
a vector quantity
a standard quantity
an average quantity
a maximum quantity
010100020021000E
Velocity may be defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
speed
linear speed
rotational speed
speed in a given time
speed in a given direction
010100020021000B
The SI unit for velocity is
a)
km/s
b)
m/s
c)
m/hr
d)
m/s
e)
2
m /s
010100020021000A
A train starts off from rest and reaches a velocity of 100
km/h in 8 minutes. If the velocity increases uniformly, how
far will the train travel in the first 8 minutes?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
6.67
7.43
8.50
9.25
9.76
km
km
km
km
km
010100020021000D
A vehicle starts off from rest and reaches a velocity of 80
83
km/h in 12 seconds. If the velocity increases uniformly, how
far will the train travel in the first 12 seconds?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
188.87
177.76
166.70
133.33
113.33
m
m
m
m
m
010100020021000C
A vehicle travelling at 90 km/h decelerates uniformly to 50
km/h in 9 seconds. How far will the vehicle travel in this
time?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
125
150
175
200
225
m
m
m
m
m
010100020021000E
Acceleration is measured in:
a)
b)
2
m/s
c)
m/s
d)
s/m
e)
m/s
2
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about acceleration is true?
Acceleration is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
time / velocity
force / time
the rate of change of displacement
time / force
the result of an unbalanced force exerted on a body
010100020021000E
Acceleration may be defined as the rate of change in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
time
distance
area
volume
velocity
84
010100020021000A
The SI unit for acceleration is
2
a)
m/s
b)
m/s
c)
m/s
d)
km/h
e)
km/s
010100020021000C
A car travelling at 18 km/h increases its velocity uniformly
to 48 km/h in 6 seconds. What is the acceleration in metres
per second squared?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1.12
1.23
1.39
1.45
1.57
010100020021000B
A car travelling at 90 km/h is brought to rest over a
distance of 120 m. What is the acceleration in metres per
second squared?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2.6
-2.6
1.3
-1.3
-2.0
010100020021000D
The area under a velocity vs. time graph equals:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
distance
speed
acceleration
displacement
average velocity
010100020021000E
A car travels a total of 350 km. The journey involves a
total of 3 hours driving time and 45 minutes of stop time.
What is the average journey speed?
a)
b)
c)
d)
101.4 km/h
71.7 km/h
116.7 km/h
107.7 km/h
85
e)
93.3 km/h
010100020021000A
A plane is flying at 600 km/h and reduces its velocity
uniformly to 70 km/h in 3 minutes. What is its acceleration?
2
a)
-0.818 m/s
b)
-49.07 m/s
c)
-176.67 m/s
d)
-2.42 m/s
e)
-3.33 m/s
2
2
2
2
010100020021000E
An object is thrown directly downwards from a height of 60 m
with an initial velocity of 11 m/s. What will be its
velocity on impact?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
34.5 m/s
1,289.16 m/s
24.2 m/s
126.38 m/s
36.03 m/s
010100020021000D
An object is dropped from a height of 45 m.
velocity be on impact?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
882.9
441.5
22.50
29.71
31.76
m/s
m/s
m/s
m/s
m/s
010100020021000A
An object is dropped from a height of 55 m.
velocity be on impact?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
32.85
43.57
56.43
68.79
72.12
What will its
What will its
m/s
m/s
m/s
m/s
m/s
010100020021000B
A car has an initial speed of 25 km/h and in 84 seconds it
accelerates to 110 km/h. What is the distance travelled
during the acceleration period?
86
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2575 m
1575 m
757 m
575 m
455 m
010100020021000C
A car has an initial speed of 35 km/h and in 75 seconds it
accelerates to 120 km/h. What is the distance travelled
during the acceleration period?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2435
1875
1614
1567
1463
m
m
m
m
m
Force, Work, Pressure, Power and Energy

010100020021000D
A push or pull exerted on an object which may change the
objects state of motion is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
work
energy
power
force
pressure
050500020101000
A cylindrical tank with flat ends is #.# metres in diameter and
## metres high. What will the force of gravity be on the tank,
if it has been built with a steel plate having a mass of 21 kg/sq m?
Answer = ____________________ newtons
.SUBSTITUTIONS
D(.5,3,.5)
L(4,10,1)
.SOLUTIONS
W=647.2*D*(D/2+L);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",W:3,0.01
050500020101000
A cylindrical tank with flat ends is #.# metres in diameter and
## metres high. What will the force of gravity be on the tank
if it has been made with plate having a mass of 32 kg/sq m?
Answer = ____________________ newtons
.SUBSTITUTIONS
D(.5,3,.5)
L(4,10,1)
87
.SOLUTIONS
F=986.21*D*(D/2+L);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",F:3,.05
010100020021000C
In the SI system, the unit of force is called the newton (N)
and 1 N is equal to
2
a)
1 kg/s
b)
1 kg m/s
c)
1 kg m/s
d)
2
1 kg m /s
e)
2 3
1 kg m /s
010100020021000B
Work is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
A push or pull on an object which may change its state

of motion.
The product of the force applied on an object and the
distance through which the force moved.
The measure of force per unit area.
The ability to apply force.
None of the above.
050500020021000
Calculate the work done in pumping #### litres of water a
vertical distance of ## metre. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = -------------------- kJ
.SUBSTITUTIONS
VOLM(1000,9950,50)
DIST(10,25,1)
.SOLUTIONS
WORK=VOLM*9.81*DIST/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",WORK:3,.01
010100020021000C
A pump is required to raise 600 litres of fresh water a
vertical distance of 120 m. If the efficiency of the pump is
45%, how much work must be done on the pump to raise the
water?
a)
b)
1570 GJ
1570 MJ
88
c)
d)
e)
1570 kJ
1570 J
1.57 kJ
050500020021000
A pump has an efficiency of ## percent. Calculate the power
required to lift ## litres of water per second to a height
of ## metres. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ watts
.SUBSTITUTIONS
EFCY(50,80,1)
VOLM(15,60,1)
DIST(10,25,1)
.SOLUTIONS
POWR=VOLM*9.81*DIST/EFCY*100;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",POWR:3,.01
050500020021000
Consider a pump which is ## % efficient and raises #.# cubic
metres of water per minute to a height of ## metres. How
much power is required to raise this amount of water?
Answer = _____________________ watts
.SUBSTITUTIONS
EFCY(60,80,1)
VOLM(3,8,0.5)
DIST(10,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
POWR=VOLM*9.81*1000*DIST/EFCY*100/60;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",POWR:3,.01
010100020021000C
Calculate the power required, to pump 50000 litres of water per
minute to a vertical height of 72 m.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
360
49.05
588.6
706.32
69.44
kW
kW
kW
kW
kW
050500020105000
A boiler has a working pressure of ### psi.
Give this pressure in: (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answers:
1) = -------------------- kPa
2) = -------------------- MPa
89
3) = -------------------- Nm
4) = -------------------- pascals
5) = -------------------- bars
.SUBSTITUTIONS
P(100,400,20)
.SOLUTIONS
P1=6.895*P;
P2=6.895*P/1000;
P3=6895*P;
P4=6895*P;
P5=6.895*P/100;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",P1:3,.05
"Answer 2 =",P2:3,.05
"Answer 3 =",P3:3,.05
"Answer 4 =",P4:3,.05
"Answer 5 =",P5:3,.05
050500020021000
A pressure of ### kPa acts upon a ## cm diameter piston.
Calculate the total force exerted upon the piston.
Answer = ____________________ N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PRSS(100,950,50)
DIAM(10,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
FRCE=3.1416*(DIAM/100)**2*PRSS*250;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",FRCE:3,.01
050500020021000
A cylinder contains steam at a pressure of #### kPa. If the
cylinder diameter is ## cm, what is the force acting upon the
cylinder end? (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ kN
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PRSS(1000,9950,50)
DIAM(10,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
FRCE=3.1416*(DIAM/100)**2/4*PRSS;
.RESULTS
050500020021000
The diameter of a pump piston is ## cm. A force of ### N
is applied to the piston rod. Determine the pressure the
pump will develop. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ___________________ kPa
90
.SUBSTITUTIONS
DIAM(10,30,1)
FRCE(50,100,5)
.SOLUTIONS
PRSS=FRCE*4/3.1416/(DIAM/100)**2/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",PRSS:3,.01
050500020021000
The air pressure in a tire is ### kPa. The internal surface
area of the tire is #### sq cm. Determine the total force
applied by the air to the tire. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = _____________________ kN
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PRSS(100,950,50)
AREA(500,1500,50)
.SOLUTIONS
FRCE=PRSS*AREA/10000;
.RESULTS
010100020021000A
A piston having an area of .2 m sq is subject to a pressure
of 600 kPa. What is the total force exerted on the piston?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
120
1200
120
1200
12
kN
kN
kPa
kPa
kN
050500020021000
The pressure gauge on a condenser indicates -##.# kPa.
Determine the absolute pressure in the condenser when
the barometric pressure is ###.# kPa.
Answer = _____________________ kPa
.SUBSTITUTIONS
VACm(85,93,0.1)
APRS(95,101.3,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
TPRS=APRS-VACm;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",TPRS:3,.01
.7.3
Testbank.Document.Questions
for Testbank PE4PARTA
- Force, Work, Pressure, Power and Energy

050500020021000
The absolute pressure is ### kPa, and the atmospheric
pressure is ###.# kPa. Determine the gauge pressure.
Page 14- 117

25-SEP-2001
91
Answer = ____________________ kPa
.SUBSTITUTIONS
TPRS(100,500,20)
APRS(95,101.3,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
GPRS=TPRS-APRS;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",GPRS:3,.01
010100020021000B
What is the absolute pressure if the gauge pressure in a steam
cylinder is 200 kPa? (Atmospheric pressure is 101.3 kPa)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
301.3
301.3
200.3
200.3
98.7
Pa
kPa
Pa
kPa
kPa
010100020021000D
1 psi equals
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1 kilo pascal
100 kPa
1 newton/m sq
6.89 kPa
2.2 kPa
010100020021000C
If three boilers each have a pressure of 130 kPa, the pressure
in the steam header will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
130
130
130
130
390
bar
kg/cm sq
kilo pascals
MPa
kPa
010100020021000A
The capacity of a body to do work is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
energy
power
pressure
force
mass
010100020021000E
An object at rest with a mass of 68.5 kg is at a height of 65
m above the earth's surface. What is its kinetic energy?
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.45 kJ
4.37 kJ
34.25 kJ
38.6 kJ
92
e)
none of the above
010100020021000A
A body with a mass of 88 kg is moving at a velocity of 13.89
m/s. What is its kinetic energy?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
8,488 J
1.22 kJ
13.89 kJ
611.11 J
6.9 kJ
010100020021000B
An object of mass 95 kg is at a height of 36 m above the
ground. What is its potential energy?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3.42 kJ
33.55 kJ
1.71 kJ
931.95 kJ
348.62 J
050500020051000
What is the kinetic energy of a car, having a mass of #### kg
and travelling at a velocity of ## km/h?
Answer = ____________________ kJ
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1000,4000,50)
VLCT(30,90,6)
.SOLUTIONS
KENR=MASS*(VLCT*1000/3600)**2/2000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",KENR:3,.01
050500020051000
The kinetic energy of an automobile, having a mass of #### kg
is ###.# kJ. Find the velocity of the car in km/h.
Answer = _____________________ km/h
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1000,4000,50)
KENR(200,400,10)
.SOLUTIONS
VLCT=(2*KENR*1000/MASS)**0.5*3.6;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",VLCT:3,.01
010100020021000E
Calculate potential energy possessed by a mass of 100 kg
located 40 m above ground level.
a)
b)
c)
4000 kJ
2.5 MJ
981 kJ
93
d)
e)
392.4 J
39.24 kJ
010100020021000D
What is the kinetic energy possessed by a car, having a mass
of 1500 kg and travelling at a velocity of 50 km/h?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
30 kJ
25 kJ
25 J
144.7 kJ
289.4 kJ
010100020021000E
A simple machine is required to raise 1 tonne of stone a
vertical distance of 30 m. If the efficiency of the pulley is
100% how much work must be done on the pulley to raise the
stone?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
294.3 J
30 kJ
35 kJ
3.4 kJ
294.27 kJ
010100020021000A
What force is produced on a circular wall with a diameter of
3 m when 1,100 kPa acts upon it?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
7,775.44 kN
155 kN
31,101 kN
10,367.26 kN
7,300.33 N
010100020021000A
A pump raises 650 tonnes of sea water a height of 55 m in 6
hours. If the pump efficiency is 100% what is the power
required to drive the pump?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
16.24 kW
350,707.5 W
17.46 kW
1,047.51 kW
62,850.81 kW
010100020021000E
A body with a mass of 2 tonnes is moving at 100 km/h. What
would be the vertical height that the body could climb before
coming to rest?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
27.8
5.10
1.41
1.18
39.3
km
m
m
km
m
94
010100020021000D
An object is allowed to free fall from rest from a height of
9 m. What will be its velocity on striking the ground?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
14.07
14.00
13.53
13.29
13.00
m/s
m/s
m/s
m/s
m/s
010100020021000E
A body is moving 12 m/s. What would be the vertical height
that this body could climb to before it comes to rest?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5.10
5.50
6.10
7.00
7.34
m
m
m
m
m
Friction I
010100020021000B
To start a body moving which of the following must be
overcome?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
kinetic friction
static friction
fluid friction
rolling friction
normal force
010100020021000C
In the case of static friction if the downward force between
the surfaces is doubled then the friction will:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
decrease by half
remain constant
increase by twice as much
be eliminated
none of the above
010100020021000D
Which of the following statements is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
kinetic friction is not affected by the body's speed

kinetic friction is greater than rolling friction
friction is affected by the relative roughness of the two
surfaces
kinetic friction is greater than static fiction
force of friction is not affected by the area of the
surfaces in contact
95
010100020021000E
The coefficient of friction is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the downward force on the two surfaces in contact

the force parallel to the surface required to start an
object moving
the reaction normal perpendicular to the surface
the force parallel to the surface required to keep an
object moving at a constant linear velocity
the ratio of the force required to move a body to the
normal reaction force
010100020021000A
Find the coefficient of friction between a 73 kg cubic box
measuring 3 m and a hardwood floor 16 m long and 20 m wide if
a total of 236 N is required to start the box moving.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.33
36 N
3.20
3.03
24.06 N
010100020021000D
Find the force required to start a 1 ton object moving along
a surface with a coefficient of friction of 0.62.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
620 N
6.1 N
9,810 N
6,082.2 N
15.822 kN
010100020021000A
Find the mass of the refrigerator which is just started
moving by a force of 6,350 N along a tile floor with a
coefficient of friction of 0.30.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,157.66 kg
21.2 tonnes
1,905 kg
0.04 g
194.19 kg
050500020093000
A block is held in contact with a horizontal surface with a
vertical force of #### N.
1)
If a horizontal force of ### N just causes motion to

impend, calculate the coefficient of static friction.
2)
If a horizontal force of ### N was required to keep the

block moving at a uniform velocity, what is the coefficient
of kinetic friction?
96
3)
If a horizontal force of ### N is applied to the block and

causes motion to impend, what is the value of the friction
force between the surfaces in contact?
Answers (Round to 3 decimal places):

1) = -------------------2) = -------------------3) = -------------------- N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NRFC(1000,9000,100)
STFF(100,550,50)
KNFF
RTFF
.SOLUTIONS
KNFF=0.9*STFF;
RTFF=0.8*STFF;
SFCF=STFF/NRFC;
KNCF=KNFF/NRFC;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",SFCF:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",KNCF:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",RTFF:3,.01
050500020021000
Calculate the mass of a block if a force of ## N is required
to keep it sliding on a horizontal surface. The coefficient
of friction is #.##. (Round to 3 decimal places)
ANSWER = ______________________ kg
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FRFC(10,30,1)
FRCF(0.1,0.5,0.01)
.SOLUTIONS
MASS=FRFC/FRCF/9.81;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",MASS:3,.01
050500020021000
The coefficient of friction between a block and a horizontal
surface is #.##. Determine the mass of the block if a force
of ### N is required to keep it sliding along the surface.
Answer = ___________________ kg
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FRCF(0.1,0.5,0.01)
FRFC(100,950,50)
.SOLUTIONS
MASS=FRFC/FRCF/9.81;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",MASS:3,.01
97
Stress and Strain

010100020021000B
The internal resistance developed to counteract an external
force is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
strain
stress
ultimate strength
load
deformation
010100020021000D
External tensile forces acting parallel but not in line
produces
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
tensile stress
compressive stress
working stress
shear stress
compressive strain
010100020021000D
The ratio between the ultimate strength and the allowable
stress is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ultimate stress
maximum allowable load
working stress
safety factor
elastic limit
010100020021000E
A measure of the deformation in a member by a load is defined
as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
safety factor
tensile stress
maximum load
working stress
none of the above
010100020021000D
The ability of a material to return to its original shape
after the force or load which caused the deformation is
removed is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
stiffness
plasticity
ductility
elasticity
toughness
010100020021000C
98
The ability of a material to resist penetration is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
elasticity
toughness
hardness
ductility
stiffness
010100020021000B
The ability of a material to break without much deformation
occurring before fracture is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
stiffness
brittleness
toughness
hardness
ductility
010100020021000D
The ability of a material to retain its deformed shape when
the load causing deformation is removed is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
stiffness
ductility
hardness
plasticity
elasticity
010100020021000A
A round tie bar in a frame work is subjected to a load of 65
kN. If the radius of the tie is 15 mm what will the stress
be in the tie?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
91,956 kPa
367,821 kPa
45.96 Pa
22,989 kPa
2,758 kPa
010100020021000E
A compressive load of 219 kN is resisted by a rectangular
strut which has one side measuring 83 mm. If the stress in
the strut is 164,909 kPa what is the length of the other side
of the strut?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1.3 mm
0.75 m
9.07 m
3.3 mm
0.016 m
010100020021000B
A hole 3 cm in diameter is to be punched out of a steel plate
8 cm thick. The shear stress of the material is 670 GPa.
What load is required on the punch?
99
a)
4,735,509 GN
b)
5,051.6 MN
c)
1.6 * 10
d)
9,036 MN
e)
63,146 N
13
010100020021000B
A unit of stress is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
mm/m
kPa
kg/sq cm
Nm
kg/m squared
010100020021000D
A titanium bar with a mass of 2 kg and a length of 3 m
shortens by 0.02 mm under a compressive load of 3,900 kN.
What will be the strain?
-3
a)
1.9 * 10
b)
6.66 * 10
c)
-1.9 * 10
d)
-0.000006666
e)
-1.9 * 10
-3
2
-3
050500020021000
The ultimate strength of a round steel rod is ### MPa. If a
factor of safety of #.# is required, what is the maximum
permissible load for the rod if it has a diameter of #.# cm?
Answer = ____________________ kN (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
STRS(550,650,10)
SFCT(3,6,0.5)
DIAM(3,9,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
LOAD=STRS/SFCT*3.1415927*(DIAM/100)**2*1000/4;
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",LOAD:3,.01
050500020021000
100
What is the factor of safety for a steel hanger having an ultimate
strength of ### MPa and supporting a load of ##### N. The steel
hanger has a cross sectional area of #.# sq cm.
Answer = ____________________ (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
USTR(550,650,10)
LOAD(61000,90000,1000)
AREA(5,9.9,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
SFCT=USTR*100/(LOAD/AREA);
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",SFCT:3,.01
010100020021000C
What is the factor of safety for a steel hanger having an ultimate
strength of 70000 newtons per sq cm and supporting a load of
87500 N. The hanger has a cross sectional area of 5 sq cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1.25
6.25
4
8
.8
010100020021000A
If engineers require a material which would be able to be
stretched and reduced in cross section without breaking they
would choose a material with which of the following
properties?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ductility
brittleness
plasticity
toughness
elasticity
010100020021000C
Stiffness is defined as the ability of a material to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
return to its original shape after the load causing

deformation is removed
retain its deformed shape when the load causing the
deformation is removed
resist a change in shape and size when a load is applied
resist penetration
absorb energy before breaking
010100020021000E
The greatest load that can be applied to a material under its
design conditions is called
a)
b)
c)
ultimate stress
elastic limit
allowable stress
101
d)
e)
factor of safety
010100020021000A
The __________ of a material is the maximum stress value that
the material can be subjected to and still return to its
original size and shape when the deforming load is removed.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
elastic limit
allowable stress
ultimate stress
maximum allowable stress
Power Transmission
010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about belt drive systems is
false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Linear speed on a point on each pulley will be the same

as the linear speed of the belt.
Tension in the bottom belt is always double that in the
top belt.
Belt driver pulleys move follower pulleys by means of
frictional force between the belt and the pulleys.
Rotational speed will be equal if the pulley diameters
are equal.
A belt system is 100% efficient if there is no slippage.
010100020021000C
When two pulleys of different diameters are connected by a
belt, the larger diameter pulley will turn __________ the
smaller diameter pulley.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the same speed as

faster than
slower than
in the opposite direction to
none of the above
010100020021000E
Which statement concerning belt trains is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Belt trains transmit less power than gear trains of

comparable size.
Belt trains are used to change speeds of pulleys.
Belt trains are used to change power transmissions of
belts.
Pulleys in a train all rotate in the same direction.
Trains are connected by a single belt.
010100020021000A
A gear wheel with 85 teeth rotates at 6,500 r/min and drives
102
another gear at 9,866 r/min.
gear have?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
How many teeth does the driven
56
129
76
85
63
010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about idler gears is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Reverses the gear wheel direction.

Creates slippage.
Changes the r/min of the driven gear.
Always results in increasing efficiency.
none of the above.
050500020021000
Two pulleys, one ## cm in diameter and the other ## cm in
diameter are connected by a belt. If the speed of the first
pulley is #### rpm, what is the speed of the second pulley?
Answer = ____________________ rpm (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FSPL
SCPL(20,30,2)
RVLF
.SOLUTIONS
FSPL=SCPL*1.5;
RVLF=30*SCPL;
RVLS=RVLF*FSPL/SCPL;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",RVLS:3,.01
050500020021000
A ## cm diameter pulley turns at ### rpm and drives, by means of
a belt, another pulley at #### rpm. What is the diameter of the
driven pulley?
Answer = ____________________ cm (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FSPL(40,60,2)
RVLF
RVLS
.SOLUTIONS
RVLF=16*FSPL;
RVLS=RVLF*2;
SCPL=FSPL*RVLF/RVLS;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",SCPL:3,.01
050500020021000
A ## tooth gear turns at ### rpm and drives a ### tooth gear.
Calculate the rpm of the second gear.
103
Answer = __________________ rpm (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FSGR(12,30,2)
RVLF
SCGR
.SOLUTIONS
RVLF=5*FSGR;
SCGR=2.5*FSGR;
RVLS=RVLF*FSGR/SCGR;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",RVLS:3,.01
010100020021000B
A 28 tooth gear turns at 100 rpm and drives a 112 tooth gear.
What is the speed of the follower gear?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
400
25
31.36
125.44
4
rpm
rpm
rpm
rpm
rpm
010100020021000E
A pulley with a diameter of 50 cm is driven at 960 r/min.
What will be the linear speed in m/s of a point on the rim of the
pulley?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
150.8 m/s
50.2 m/s
2,500 m/s
6.3 m/s
25.2 m/s
010100020021000A
A pulley of diameter 2.6 m rotates at 107 r/min and drives a
follower pulley at 259 r/min. What is the diameter of the
follower pulley?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1.07 m
6.3 m
0.93 m
3.54 m
5.20 m
010100020021000A
The tensions in the tight and slack side of a belt are 14000
N and 900 N respectively. If the power transmission is 655
kW what is the speed of the belt if there is no slippage?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
50 m/s
43.96 m/s
25.2 m/s
0.05 m/s
31.6 m/s
104
010100020021000C
In a drive belt system the input to the driver pulley is 265
kW and the output is 211 kW. What is the efficiency?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
121%
93.3%
79.6%
82.4%
75.8%
010100020021000E
The clearance that is necessary between teeth that have to
mesh is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
gap
play
lashback
clearance
backlash
Introduction to Thermodynamics
010100020021000C
The amount of heat to raise the temperature of a unit mass of
a substance 1 degree Celsius without changing the state of
the substance is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
latent heat
saturation temperature
specific heat
absolute zero
radiation
010100020021000A
The flow of heat from molecule to molecule within a substance
or from molecules of one body to those of another body in
direct contact with it is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
conduction
convection
specific heat
latent heat of fusion
absolute pressure
010100020021000B
Sensible heat
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is the latent heat plus heat of evaporation

causes a rise in temperature
cannot be read on a thermometer
is the latent heat of fusion
does not exist in vapours
010100020021000A
105
Absolute pressure is the sum of __________ and __________
pressures.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
gauge, atmospheric
standard, deviation
minimum, maximum
positive, negative
above, below
010100020021000C
__________ zero is the temperature at which all molecular
movement ceases.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Positive
Negative
Absolute
Minimum
Maximum
010100020021000D
__________ pressure is the pressure exerted by the earth's
atmosphere.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Absolute
Maximum
Minimum
Atmospheric
Standard
010100020021000B
__________ heat is heat that causes a change of state of a
substance without changing its temperature.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Sensible
Latent
Super
Intense
Saturated
010100020021000A
__________ heat is heat that causes a change in the
temperature of a substance without changing its state.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Sensible
Latent
Super
Intense
Saturated
010100020021000B
__________ steam is steam that is fully saturated with latent
and sensible heat and has no water particles present.
a)
b)
c)
Wet saturated
Dry saturated
Super heated
106
d)
e)
Sensibly heated
Intensified
010100020021000C
__________ heat is the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree Celsius
without changing the state of the substance.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Sensible
Latent
Specific
Super
Saturated
010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about the laws of
thermodynamics is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Heat and work are mutually convertible

Heat supplied = increase in internal energy + work done
Heat will flow from a hot substance to a colder substance
Refrigeration requires no external work supply
none of the above
010100020021000B
The first law of thermodynamics states that heat and work are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
not convertible
mutually convertible
sometimes convertible
mildly convertible
mutually fusible
010100020021000D
In the first law of thermodynamics, heat supplied = increase
in internal energy + __________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
energy supplied
energy absorbed
work in
work done
work supplied
010100020021000E
The second law of thermodynamics states that unaided, heat
will only flow from __________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a
a
a
a
a
cold substance to a hotter substance

warm substance to a hotter substance
hot substance to a hotter substance
cold substance to a colder substance
hot substance to a colder substance
010100020021000B
In the second law of thermodynamics, if it is required to
transfer heat from a cold substance to a hotter substance (as
in refrigeration) then __________ must be supplied.
107
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
internal energy
external work
higher temperature
lower temperature
moderate temperature
010100020021000E
The metric absolute temperature at which all molecular motion
is said to completely cease is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
-270 degrees C
0 degrees C
40 degrees C
-460 degrees R
0 K
010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about heat is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
If there is a temperature difference between the heat

source and a cooler object in contact with the source,
heat will be transferred to the cooler object.
Heat can be transferred from cold bodies to hot bodies
without using an external supply of work.
Specific heat is the same for every substance.
Specific heat capacity is the same for every state of
matter of the same substance.
1 J is less than 1 Nm of work.
050500020084000
Convert the following temperatures from degrees Celsius to
degrees Fahrenheit (Round to 3 decimal places):
Answers:
1)
2)
3)
4)
o
### C
o
### C
o
#### C
o
#### C
o
= _______________ F
o
= _______________ F
o
= _______________ F
o
= _______________ F
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FRST(-10,99,1)
SCND(100,999,1)
THRD(1000,1500,1)
FRTH(1501,1800,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=9/5*FRST+32;
ANS2=9/5*SCND+32;
ANS3=9/5*THRD+32;
ANS4=9/5*FRTH+32;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
108
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",ANS4:3,.01
050500020084000
Convert the following temperatures from degrees Celsius
to Kelvin (Round to 3 decimal places):
Answers:
o
### C = _______________
o
2)
### C = _______________
o
3) #### C = _______________
o
4) #### C = _______________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FRST(-20,100,1)
SCND(100,999,1)
THRD(1000,1500,1)
FRTH(1501,2000,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=FRST+273;
ANS2=SCND+273;
ANS3=THRD+273;
ANS4=FRTH+273;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",ANS4:3,.01
1)
K
K
K
K
050500020084000
Convert the following from Kelvin to degrees Celsius (Round
the answers to 3 decimal places):
1)
#### Kelvin
___________________ degrees Celsius
2)
#### Kelvin
= ____________________ degrees Celsius
3)
#### Kelvin
= ____________________ degrees Celsius
4) #### Kelvin = ____________________ degrees Celsius

.SUBSTITUTIONS
K1(100,200,1)
K2(200,400,1)
K3(400,600,1)
K4(600,1400,1)
.SOLUTIONS
C1=K1-273;
C2=K2-273;
C3=K3-273;
C4=K4-273;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",C1:3,.01
109
"Answer 2 =",C2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",C3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",C4:3,.01
050500020084000
Convert the following temperatures from degrees Celsius to
kelvin (Round the answers to 3 decimal places):
1)
#### degrees Celsius = ____________________ kelvin
2)
3)
4) #### degrees Celsius = ____________________ kelvin

.SUBSTITUTIONS
C1(-100,0,1)
C2(0,100,1)
C3(100,300,1)
C4(300,1200,1)
.SOLUTIONS
K1=C1+273;
K2=C2+273;
K3=C3+273;
K4=C4+273;
.RESULTS
"Degrees Kelvin:",K1:3,.01
010100020021000B
A bimetal thermometer consists of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a filament that is compared to the object being measured

two dissimilar metals welded together
two dissimilar wires connected to a battery
two copper wires connected together
two silver wires and a ground strap
050500020021000
Calculate the heat required to raise the temperature of
### litres of water from ## to #### degrees Celsius.
Answer = _____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimals)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
M(100,350,5)
T1(5,50,5)
T2
R(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(40*R);
T2=T1+TD;
H=TD*4.2*M;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.01
110
010100020021000B
When the temperature of an object is raised, its increase in
area is proportional to its
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
initial length and final temperature

initial area and temperature rise
volume and initial temperature
initial length and temperature rise
colour and shape
050500020041000
Find the quantity of heat required, to raise the temperature
of ## litres of water from ## to #### degrees Celsius.
Answer = _____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
M(2,30,1)
T1(5,25,5)
T2
R(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(75*R);
T2=T1+TD;
H=TD*4.2*M;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.005
010100020021000B
Find the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature
of 6.3 kg of glass from 6 degrees C to 210 degrees C if the
specific heat capacity of glass is 670 J/kg K.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
886.4 kJ
861.2 kJ
25.3 kJ
911.7 kJ
75.3 kJ
010100020021000B
If a 286 m steel bar is increased from 2 degrees C to 390
degrees C, how much does the bar expand? (The coefficient
of linear expansion of steel is 0.000012/degrees C).
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
9.88 m
1.33 m
2.93 m
7.23 m
15.74 m
010100020021000C
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
b)
Water will only expand when its temperature is increased.

Liquids will not contract when their temperatures lower.
111
c)
d)
e)
Coefficients of expansion for liquids change in value as

the temperature changes.
In general coefficients of expansion of solids are
greater than those of liquids.
Solids generally contract when their temperatures rise.
010100020021000D
When the temperature of an object is raised, its increase in
length is proportional to its
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
initial length and initial temperature

cross-sectional area and temperature
volume and temperature rise
initial length and temperature rise
elasticity and its ductility
050500020021000
Calculate the amount of expansion occurring when a steel rail
### metres in length is heated from ### to #### degrees Celsius.
Answer = ____________________ m (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(400,950,5)
T1(-50,-5,5)
T2
R(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(60*R);
T2=T1+TD;
E=TD*L*.000012;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",E:3,.01
010100020021000C
The coefficient of expansion of metals
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is a constant for all non-ferrous metals

has the units "cm" per "m"
is greater for aluminum than steel
is the same for all metals
requires a component of latent heat
050500020021000
Calculate the amount of expansion occurring, when a steel pipe
### m long is heated from ## to #### degrees Celsius.
Answer = ____________________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(10,500,5)
T1(5,95,5)
T2
R(1,5,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(100*R);
T2=T1+TD;
E=TD*L*.000012;
.RESULTS
(Round to 3 decimal places)
112
"Answer =",E:3,.01
050500020021000
Calculate the heat required to raise the temperature of a
## kg block of cast iron from ## to #### degrees Celsius.
Answer = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimals)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
M(5,95,5)
T1(5,95,5)
T2
R(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(450*R);
T2=T1+TD;
H=TD*.544*M;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.01
010100020021000B
The transfer of heat involving the movement of a fluid is
defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
conduction
convection
radiation
refrigeration
super heating
010100020021000C
The transfer of heat through emission of electromagnetic
waves is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
conduction
convection
radiation
refrigeration
molecular agitation
010100020021000A
Radiation from the furnace fire
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
travels in straight lines

is present in oil firing but not fuel gas firing
radiates through the superheater tube walls
radiates through the water in the water walls
requires a transfer medium
010100020021000B
Natural convection is a method of heat transfer where the movement
of the fluids is due solely to the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
surface pressure
difference in densities
difference in heating time
gravitational differences
activity of the radiant rays
113
010100020021000C
The __________ method of heat transfer involves the flow of
heat from molecule to molecule within a substance or from the
molecules of one body to those of another body which is
directly in contact with the first body.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
convection
expansion
conduction
contraction
radiation
010100020021000A
The transfer of heat by __________ involves the movement of a
fluid (a liquid or a gas).
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
convection
expansion
conduction
contraction
radiation
010100020021000E
__________ refers to the transmission of electromagnetic
waves.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Convection
Expansion
Conduction
Contraction
Radiation
Thermodynamics of Steam
010100020021000B
In Table I of the Steam Tables, the specific volume of steam
is in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
column
column
column
column
column
1
4
3
5
6
010100020021000B
Columns 8, 9 and 10 of Table I of the steam tables deal with
which type of energy?
a)
b)
c)
d)
internal energy
enthalpy
entropy
specific energy
114
e)
potential energy
010100020021000D
In column 9 of Table 1 of the Steam Tables, the
enthalpy (h ) found in that column is known as the
fg
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sensible heat of fusion

sensible heat of evaporation
latent heat of evaporation
sensible heat of enthalpy
010100020021000A
In column 8 of Table 1 of the Steam Tables, the
enthalpy (h ) found in that column is known as the
f
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sensible heat
latent heat
sensible heat of fusion
latent heat of evaporation
010100020021000C
In column 1 of Table 1 of the Steam Tables, the unit used for
pressure is in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Gpa
Mpa
kPa
Bars
Pa
010100020021000D
The unit used for specific volume in the Steam Tables is
a)
3
m /kg
b)
3
m /g
c)
3
cm /kg
d)
3
cm /g
e)
3
mm /g
010100020021000C
In the Steam Tables, the unit used for hf, hfg, and hg is
a)
J/kg
115
b)
c)
d)
e)
J/g
kJ/kg
kJ/g
MJ/kg
010100020021000B
In the Steam Tables, h
in tables 1 and 2 is equal to
a)
h - h
f
fg
b)
h + h
f
fg
c)
h x h
f
fg
d)
h /h
f fg
e)
2
f
2
+ h
fg
010100020021000D
How much energy is required to raise 63 kg of ice at 0
degrees C to saturated steam at 100 degrees C.
Specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 kJ/kg K.
Specific latent heat of ice is 335 kJ/kg.
Specific latent heat of steam is 2,257 kJ/kg.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
35,490 kJ
21,775 kJ
53,107 kJ
189,756 kJ
273,097 kJ
010100020021000C
Steam containing water particles in suspension is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
dry steam
theoretical steam
wet steam
latent heat of steam
superheated steam
010100020021000E
To avoid condensation loss in steam
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
steam is heated to saturation temperature

wet steam is used
steam pressure is increased
heat is transported via boiling water
super heated steam is used
116
010100020021000B
Superheated steam
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is produced in the saturated steam drum

temperature is higher than the saturation temperature
is almost dry and contains very little moisture
cannot be used for soot blowers
must have its corresponding pressure increased
010100020021000D
Heat which brings about a change of state
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
can be sensed by a thermometer

is called sensible heat
causes a change of temperature
is called latent heat
is called expansive heat
010100020021000B
Sensible heat
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is the sum of the latent heat plus heat of evaporation

causes a rise in temperature
cannot be read on a thermometer
is a sensible latent heat of fusion
cannot be removed from a solid
010100020021000C
Wet steam
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
contains only part of the sensible heat of the liquid

contains all the latent heat of vaporization
contains all the sensible heat of the liquid and only
part of the latent heat of vaporization
contains all the sensible and latent heat
cannot exist above atmospheric pressure
010100020021000E
The steam tables indicate the pressures units in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Newtons
kilonewtons
Newtonmetres
kilojoules
kilopascals
010100020021000E
How much heat will be required to convert 65 kg of water at
15 degrees C into saturated steam at 650 kPa?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,697.31 kJ
2,760.3 kJ
62.99 kJ
282,329.29 kJ
175,325 kJ
117
010100020021000B
What is the sensible heat of 2 kg of saturated steam at
1,100 kPa?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5563.4 kJ
1562.68 kJ
2,781.7 kJ
184.09 kJ
781.34 kJ
010100020021000B
Find the sensible heat required to raise 16 kg of water at
0 degrees C to the boiling point at 900 kPa.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
596.12 kJ
11,885.28 kJ
742.83 kJ
146.68 kJ
6,752.31 kJ
010100020021000D
If steam at 375 kPa, having a dryness fraction of 96%, is
produced from saturated water at 375 kPa, what amount of heat
must be supplied per kilogram?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,626.18 kJ/kg
2,140.8 kJ/kg
2,048.45 kJ/kg
2,055.17 kJ/kg
2,000.4 kJ/kg
010100020021000E
How much heat must be supplied to 200 kg of water at 20
degrees C to make steam at 850 kPa which is 87% dry?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,039.4 kJ
407,880 kJ
1,774.28 kJ
424,627.98 kJ
484,507.6 kJ
010100020021000D
Which of the following is the saturation temperature at 600 kPa?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
160.58
158.0
158.5
158.85
701.3
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
140300020105000143.60 %-.08;2148.1 %-1.0;2766.4 %-2.0;742.83 %-3.0;150 %.01;

From the steam tables find the following:
1)
2)
saturation temperature at 400 kPa,

latent heat of 1 kg of dry saturated steam at 350 kPa,
118
3)
4)
5)
enthalpy of 1 kg of dry saturated steam at 750 kPa,

sensible heat of 1 kg of water at saturation temperature
and a pressure of 900 kPa,
the absolute pressure, if the gauge pressure is 48.7 kPa
Answers:
1) = ____________________ degrees Celsius
2) = ____________________ kJ/kg
3) = ____________________ kJ/kg
4) = ____________________ kJ/kg
5) = ____________________ kPa
140500020042000
Feedwater at a temperature of ### degrees Celsius is supplied
to a boiler operating at ##### kPa.
1)
Calculate the sensible heat required, to raise one kg of

feedwater to the boiling point at that pressure.
2)
Calculate the latent heat required per kg of feed water to

change the feed water to dry saturated steam at this pressure.
Answers:
1) = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
WTEM
PRES
NUM1(10,15,1)
NUM2(29,71,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM2;
HFST=TABLE_1(9);
HFWT=TABLE_2(9);
HFGS=TABLE_1(10);
WTEM=TABLE_2(2);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
ANS1=HFST-HFWT;
ANS2=HFGS;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.01
140500020021000
A boiler produces dry saturated steam at ##### kPa from feed
water at ### degrees Celsius. How much heat must be supplied
per kg of feedwater to convert it to steam?
Answer = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
P
119
T
N1(33,69,1)
N2(21,31,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,N1;
HG=TABLE_1(11);
HF=TABLE_2(9);
P=TABLE_1(2);
T=TABLE_2(2);
H=HG-HF;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,0.01
140500020042000
Feedwater at ### degrees Celsius is supplied to a boiler
operating at ##### kPa.
1)
How much sensible heat is required per kg of feedwater

to raise the temperature of the feedwater to the boiling
point at that pressure?
2)
How much latent heat is required per kg of feedwater, to

convert it into dry saturated steam at this pressure?
Answers:
.SUBSTITUTIONS
WTEM
PRES
NUM1(20,29,1)
NUM2(37,73,1)
.SOLUTIONS
HFST=TABLE_1(9);
HFWT=TABLE_2(9);
HFGS=TABLE_1(10);
WTEM=TABLE_2(2);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
ANS1=HFST-HFWT;
ANS2=HFGS;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.01
140500020021000
Determine the volume of #.# kg of dry saturated steam
at ##### kPa. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = _____________________ cubic metres
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1,9.9,0.1)
PRES
NUM1(18,70,1)
120
.SOLUTIONS
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
SVLM=TABLE_1(5);
VOLM=MASS*SVLM/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",VOLM:3,0.01
140500020021000
Determine the volume of #.# kg of dry saturated steam
at ##### kPa. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = _____________________ cubic metres
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1,9.9,0.1)
PRES
NUM1(18,70,1)
.SOLUTIONS
SVLM=TABLE_1(5);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
VOLM=MASS*SVLM/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",VOLM:3,0.01
140500020021000
Determine the enthalpy of #.# kg of water at ##### kPa.
Answer = _____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimals)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1.1,9.9,0.1)
PRES
NUM1(28,68,1)
.SOLUTIONS
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
ENTH=MASS*HF11;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ENTH:3,0.01
140500020021000
Determine the enthalpy of #.# kg of water at ### degrees
Celsius. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ kJ
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1,9.9,0.1)
TMPR
NUM1(11,24,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TMPR=TABLE_1(2);
ENTH=TABLE_1(9);
HEAT=ENTH*MASS;
.RESULTS
121
"Answer =",HEAT:3,.01
140500020084000
Determine the values for steam at ##### kPa, as:
1)
2)
3)
4)
sensible heat of the liquid

latent heat of vaporization
volume of 1 kg of dry saturated steam
saturation temperature
Answers (Round to 3 decimal places):

1) = ____________________ kJ/kg
2) = ____________________ kJ/kg
3) = ____________________ cu m
4) = ____________________ degrees Celsius
.SUBSTITUTIONS
P
N(50,68,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,N;
HF=TABLE_1(9);
HFG=TABLE_1(10);
V=TABLE_1(5);
T=TABLE_1(3);
P=TABLE_1(2);
VOL=V/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",HF:3,0.01
"Answer 2 =",HFG:3,0.01
"Answer 3 =",VOL:3,0.01
"Answer 4 =",T:3,0.01
140500020021000
The total enthalpy of ## kg of steam at ##### kPa is
######.### kJ. Determine the dryness of the steam.
Answer = ____________________ (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(10,20,1)
PRES
ENTH
NUM1(39,61,1)
QLTY(0.7,0.85,0.01)
.SOLUTIONS
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
HFG1=TABLE_1(10);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
ENTH=MASS*(HF11+QLTY*HFG1);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",QLTY:3,0.01
122
140500020021000
######.### kJ. Determine the dryness fraction of the
steam.
Answer = ____________________ % (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(10,20,1)
PRES
ENTH
NUM1(39,61,1)
FRCT(70,85,1)
.SOLUTIONS
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
HFG1=TABLE_1(10);
ENTH=MASS*(HF11+(FRCT/100)*HFG1);
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",FRCT:3,0.01
140500020021000
######.### kJ. Determine the dryness fraction of the
steam.
Answer = ____________________ % (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(10,20,1)
PRES
ENTH
NUM1(39,61,1)
FRCT(70,85,1)
.SOLUTIONS
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
HFG1=TABLE_1(10);
ENTH=MASS*(HF11+(FRCT/100)*HFG1);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",FRCT:3,0.01
140500020041000
Steam enters a turbine at ##### kPa, dry and saturated.
The steam is exhausted from the turbine at ### kPa and
it is ##% wet. Determine the quantity of heat used
to do work in the turbine. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ kJ/kg
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PIN
POUT
WOUT(5,25,1)
123
N(40,60,1)
N1(18,22,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,N;
PIN=TABLE_1(2);
POUT=TABLE_2(2);
HGI=TABLE_1(11);
HFO=TABLE_2(9);
HFGO=TABLE_2(10);
HIN=HGI;
QOUT=(100-WOUT)/100;
HOUT=HFO+QOUT*HFGO;
ANSW=HIN-HOUT;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANSW:3,0.01
140500020021000
Determine the quantity of heat required, to raise ##.# kg of
water at ### degrees Celsius, to saturated steam at ##### kPa
and ##.#% dry.
Answer = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(3,20,0.1)
TEMP
PRES
FRCT(70,85,0.1)
NUM1(40,66,1)
NUM2(12,21,1)
.SOLUTIONS
HF22=TABLE_2(9);
HFG2=TABLE_2(10);
HFW1=TABLE_1(9);
TEMP=TABLE_1(2);
PRES=TABLE_2(2);
HEAT=MASS*(HF22+HFG2*(FRCT/100)-HFW1);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",HEAT:3,0.01
140500020041000
During a boiler test, a boiler burned #######.# kg of coal
with a heating value of ##### kJ/kg. The boiler generated
##### kg of dry steam at ##### kPa at saturated condition,
from feedwater at ### degrees Celsius. Determine the boiler
efficiency.
Answer = ___________________ % (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
CMAS
HTVL(20000,30000,1000)
SMAS(1000,9000,1000)
PRES
TEMP
124
EFCY(70,85,1)
NUM1(53,70,1)
NUM2(15,24,1)
.SOLUTIONS
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
TEMP=TABLE_2(2);
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
HFG1=TABLE_1(10);
HFW2=TABLE_2(9);
HOUT=SMAS*(HF11+HFG1-HFW2);
HTIN=HOUT/EFCY*100;
CMAS=HTIN/HTVL;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",EFCY:3,0.01
050500020021000
A boiler supplies ##### kJ of heat to the steam when
##### kJ of heat are supplied. Determine the boiler
efficiency. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ %
.SUBSTITUTIONS
HOUT(20000,25000,100)
HIN(33000,34000,100)
.SOLUTIONS
EFF=(HOUT/HIN)*100;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",EFF:3,.01
Basic Concepts About Matter

010100020021000B
The state of matter observed for a particular substance is
dependent on its
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
size and shape

temperature and pressure
weight and length
time and distance
pressure and density
010100020021000E
Matter can best be defined as anything that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is visible with defined dimensions

is invisible
occupies space
has shape
has mass and occupies space
010100020021000D
__________ can be described in terms of its states, physical
125
and chemical properties.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
An element
A compound
An atom
Matter
A molecule
010100020021000C
Matter can exist in __________ different physical states.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
one
two
three
four
five
010100020021000B
Transformations between states and properties of a matter are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
impossible
possible
difficult
infrequent
prohibitive
010100020021000C
An example of an extensive property of a substance is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
colour
boiling point
mass
freezing point
density
010100020021000D
Which is not an example of a physical property of a
material?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
its
its
its
its
its
colour
boiling point
odour
reactive properties
density
010100020021000C
An example of a physical property is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
formation of smoke
rusting of steel
melting point of a substance
burning of coal
burning of wood
010100020021000D
An example of a chemical property is the
126
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
formation of steam from water

melting point of a metal
formation of ice from water
formation of rust on a metal
melting point of ice
010100020021000A
The density of water is __________ g/ml.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
2
3
4
5
010100020021000B
An intensive (physical) property is one that is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
dependent on the
not dependent on
dependent on the
dependent on the
dependent on the
amount of matter
the amount of matter
volume
amount of mass
amount of pressure applied
010100020021000A
An extensive (physical) property is one that is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
dependent on the
not dependent on
dependent on the
dependent on the
dependent on the
amount of matter
the amount of matter
volume
amount of mass
amount of pressure applied
010100020021000A
Which of the following involves a chemical change?
a)
burning natural gas
b)
melting steel
c)
sublimation of CO
2
d)
evaporation of alcohol
e)
the freezing of water
010100020021000E
Which is an example of a physical change in a material?
a)
b)
c)
d)
melting
evaporation
condensation
sublimation
127
e)
all of the above
010100020021000A
When the composition of a substance is not altered but its
state is, this is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
physical change
chemical change
physical property
chemical property
homogeneous property
010100020021000B
An example of a physical change is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
specific heat
melting of lead
burning of coal
rust on steel
burning of fuel oil
010100020021000D
When the composition of a substance is altered and as a
result it is no longer the same substance, this is called a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
physical property
chemical property
physical change
chemical change
heterogeneous change
010100020021000C
An example of a chemical change is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
melting of lead
steam to water
burning of coal
water to ice
heat of fusion
010100020021000D
If a substance goes through a process that changes its
composition so that it is no longer the same substance, then
it is said that the substance has undergone a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
physical change
heterogeneous change
homogeneous change
chemical change
physical property
010100020021000E
Which of the following represent homogenous mixtures?
a)
b)
an emulsion of oil and water

flue gas
128
c)
d)
e)
a mixture of sand and water

metal alloys
b and d
010100020021000C
Pure substances are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
homogeneous and heterogeneous

homogeneous mixtures
compounds and elements
heterogeneous mixtures
varied in composition
010100020021000D
Any substance composed of two or more elements which are
combined chemically is a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
chemical change
physical change
mixture
compound
molecule
010100020021000E
Any substance which cannot be broken down into other
substances or ingredients by chemical means is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a mixture
a compound
an electron
an atom
an element
010100020021000B
Any substance which consists of different elements or
compounds, or both is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an atom
a mixture
a solution
an element
a compound
010100020021000E
If there is a material that cannot be separated into any
other individual materials by any chemical means, then it
is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an atom
a compound
a mixture
a molecule
an element
010100020021000C
A material made up of two or more elements in chemical
129
combination represents a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
chemical change
physical change
compound
mixture
molecule
010100020021000B
Any material made up of distinct elements, compounds, or
both, not chemically combined with each other represents
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an atomic structure
a mixture
a molecule
an element compound
a compound
010100020021000C
An example of a homogeneous mixture is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
emulsion
sand and water
flue gas
soda water
acid
010100020021000A
An example of a homogeneous mixture of solid elements is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
metal alloy
stainless steel
concrete
plastic
wood
010100020021000A
An example of a heterogeneous mixture is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sand and water

soda water
acid
flue gas
metal alloys
010100020021000E
An example of a heterogeneous mixture is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
acid
flue gas
metal alloys
soda water
oil and water emulsion
010100020021000A
The Periodic Table lists all of the known
130
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
elements
mixtures
compounds
matter
substances
010100020021000C
The periodic table
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
arranges elements in equal numbers of columns and rows

arranges elements in descending order of atomic number
reflects the similar chemical properties of some elements
has sixteen distinct groups
provides no information besides the chemical symbol of
the element
Sketching Fundamentals
010100020021000C
In order for a sketch to look like the object it represents
we
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
draw the sketch to scale

use as much detail as possible
make the sketch in proportion
use a number of different views
use colours throughout the sketch
010100020021000E
Relative to sketching detail we should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
use as much detail as possible

show detail with colour wherever possible
use at least three views of the object
show as many sectional views as possible
use as little detail as possible
010100020021000B
Foundation or centre lines of a sketch should be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
very bold and extended

made at the very beginning of the sketch
made for one view and not extended to other views
broken lines, not continuous
always done to scale
010100020021000D
One of the most important features of the first lines drawn
in a sketch is that they
a)
b)
c)
are to some scale

be very bold
must all show the object outline
131
d)
e)
show the main proportion of the sketch

should show at least three views for projection
010100020021000E
A flow diagram uses __________________ to represent equipment.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
broken lines
thin lines
pictures
coloured dots
symbols
010100020021000D
_____________________ are used to indicate flow
direction in a flow diagram.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Symbols
Signs
Markers
Arrowheads
Points
010100020021000C
In a piping layout, __________ line sketches are used.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
broken
thick
single
light
coloured
010100020021000A
In order to show all sides of an object being sketched the
number of views required is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
six
three
one
two
eight
010100020021000C
When projecting views of an object, the key view is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
bottom view
right side view
front view
plan view
left side view
010100020021000B
The plan view of an object is actually the
a)
b)
front view
top view
132
c)
d)
e)
left side view

right side view
bottom view
010100020021000E
The three most commonly used views in drawing are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
front,
front,
front,
front,
front,
back, side
back, bottom
bottom, side
plan, bottom
plan, side
010100020021000D
Lines used to indicate distance between two points on a
sketch are called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
object lines
extension lines
centre lines
dimension lines
hidden lines
010100020021000A
An ellipse is the result of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
viewing a circle obliquely

scribing an arc with a compass
using a protractor to scribe an arc
scribing an arc of 360 degrees
cutting round bar-stock at 90 degrees
010100020021000D
A protractor is used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
measure circles
scribe arcs
form ellipses
measure angles
replace tri-squares
010100020021000B
A drawing instrument commonly used to draw parallel lines is
the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
protractor
triangle
compass
rule
scribe
010100020021000D
The vertex is otherwise known as
a)
b)
a 30, 60 degree triangle

any angle formed by two lines
133
c)
d)
e)
the starting point of an ellipse

the point of intersection of two lines
the plan view of an object
010100020021000B
A pentagon has ______________ sides.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ten
five
six
eight
more than eight
010100020021000A
An octagon has _____________ sides.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
eight
six
five
ten
more than ten
010100020021000A
A sketch section is used to show
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a necessary detail
a particular view of an object
the scale of a sketch
the material of construction
an actual dimension of the sketch
010100020021000E
To show materials of construction in a sketch we can use
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
colour coding as per the NFPA

shading
cross-hatching but not hatching
AS colour coding
section lining
010100020021000C
Section lines used to indicate specific construction material
should generally be drawn at an angle of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
90
30
45
60
15
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
010100020021000A
The body responsible for standardizing symbols used to
indicate materials of construction in a sketch is the
a)
b)
c)
American Standards Association

ANSI
ISO
134
d)
e)
ASME
Canadian Standards Association
Writing Fundamentals I - Sentences

010100020021000B
When a sentence is easy to understand at its first reading,
we can say it has good
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
punctuation
clarity
conciseness
correctness
fragmentation
010100020021000C
The term given to using the minimum number of words to
express an idea is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
predication
clarity
conciseness
correctness
agreement
010100020021000A
A sentence is a complete thought and what we say about the
subject is called the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
predicate
sentence fragment
antecedent
conjunction
sentence fusion
010100020021000D
Sentences unable to express a complete thought, otherwise
known as a __________ sentence, are to be avoided.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
possessive
partial
run-on
fragmented
confused
010100020021000E
When two or more complete thoughts are punctuated into one
sentence the sentence is known as a
a)
b)
c)
d)
fragmented sentence
partial sentence
possessive sentence
confused sentence
135
e)
run-on or fused sentence
010100020021000D
The part of a sentence which must agree with its antecedent
in number, gender or person is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
subject
antecedent
verb
pronoun
adjective
010100020021000C
If the subject of a sentence is singular and the verb is
plural, we have what is known as a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
partial sentence
run-on sentence
lack of agreement
confused sentence
fragmented sentence
010100020021000A
A more forceful and concise voice term is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
active
subjective
possessive
responsive
passive
010100020021000D
When we wish to avoid blaming a person we should use
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an active voice sentence

a recessive voice sentence
an aggressive voice sentence
a passive voice sentence
a neutral sentence
010100020021000C
Words which refer to generalizations, physical objects and
concepts are known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
abstract words
vague words
concrete words
generalization words
passive words
010100020021000B
An ideal sentence should be approximately
a)
b)
10 to 15 words long
15 to 20 words long
136
c)
d)
e)
25 to 30 words long
5 to 10 words long
30 to 35 words long
010100020021000E
Choose the word below which is the correct representation of a
possession word.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
you're
whose
they're
it's
anybody's
010100020021000B
Words which a computer cannot spell-check are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
antonyms
homonyms
synonyms
pseudonyms
harmonyms
010100020021000C
A punctuation mark not used with pronouns is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
colon
semi-colon
apostrophe
hyphen
comma
010100020021000A
A noun which means "rule" or "law" is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
principle
debt
principal
predicate
mandate
010100020021000B
A punctuation mark which separates complete thoughts in a
sentence is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
hyphen
semi-colon
colon
period
comma
010100020021000A
When introducing formal lists in a report, we normally use a
a)
colon
137
b)
c)
d)
e)
hyphen
double dash
semi-colon
semi-colon and comma
Writing Fundamentals II - Paragraphs

010100020021000B
A good technical paragraph will contain approximately
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
two to four sentences

four to seven sentences
seven to twelve sentences
twelve to fifteen sentences
fifteen to twenty sentences
010100020021000B
Customarily, all good paragraphs have a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
clincher sentence
key sentence
spatial opening
introductory paragraph
summary sentence
010100020021000C
When key information is placed at the beginning of a
paragraph the reader may
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
glean all possible information from the first sentence

be required to read all remaining sentences
read more efficiently
ignore the information contained in the paragraph
not have to make decisions about what is important
010100020021000E
A paragraph development pattern which may be illustrated by a
diamond shape will have
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a large number of sentences

spatial content
a chronological development pattern
cellular content
a clincher sentence
010100020021000B
When paragraph sentences all relate to the same key idea we
say the paragraph has
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
coherence
unity
configuration
parallel structure
repetition
138
010100020021000A
If paragraph ideas are arranged in a logical, orderly
sequence, the paragraph will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
coherent
spatial
undeveloped
parallel in structure
transitional
010100020021000D
Words used to improve the coherence of a paragraph are
termed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
adjectives
repetitives
conjunctives
transitions
prepositions
010100020021000E
Of the four methods used to achieve paragraph coherence, the
most complex is the use of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
transitional expressions
pronouns
repetition
comparison and contrast
parallel structure
010100020021000A
The five W's and H used in an introductory paragraph answer
what is commonly called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the journalistic questions

paragraph development
paragraph conclusion
paragraph chronology
article purpose
010100020021000C
The scope, origin and purpose of a report should be covered
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
in the opening paragraph conclusion

in an opening "reference"
within the opening paragraph
by a summary
by a preface
010100020021000A
One difference between an essay and a technical report is
a)
b)
c)
d)
very few readers will read the complete report

essays tend to have a greater variety of readers
authoring a report is easier than authoring an essay
the essay has much more specific detail
139
e)
a report is of greater length
010100020021000E
An acronym used in paragraph development is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
NFPA
CAODC
TOPIC
SCOPE
RENNS
010100020021000C
The five methods of paragraph development are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
spatial, comparison, process, reasons, and chronological

contrast, examples, process, comparison, and reasons
process, reasons & examples, contrast & comparison,
spatial, and chronological
renns, reasons, process, comparison, and contrast
deductive, inductive, process, introductory, and spatial
010100020021000A
Positioning of places or objects during paragraph development
is termed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
spatial
reasons and examples
comparison
chronology
contrast
010100020021000C
Paragraph development involving similarities and differences
between objects, people or ideas is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
deductive
process
comparison and contrast
inductive
reasons and examples
010100020021000C
When developing a paragraph using contrast and comparison,
the similarities and differences should be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
at least
at least
at least
not more
not more
five of each
two of each
three of each
than six of each
than four of each
010100020021000B
When writing a paragraph on how to make or do something, the
development is called
a)
constructive development
140
b)
c)
d)
e)
process development
instructive development
illustrative development
spatial development
Writing Memos
010100020021000B
The three possible purposes for writing a memo are recording,
acting, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
requesting
informing
explaining
scheduling
instructing
010100020021000D
Memos are organized effectively for the benefit of the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Alberta Boiler Safety Council

Plant manager
creator of the memo
reader
Occupational Health and Safety Committee
010100020021000B
Memo format is used in written communication
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
to present a recommendation or request an action

for short correspondence between members within an
organization
to convey the year's activities and how the department
met its goals
to order parts for repairing the office machines
as a method of initiating preventive maintenance
010100020021000E
A standard memo has a number of main parts or components, the
number being
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5
4
7
3
9
010100020021000A
The most important part of a memo is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
body
subject line
receiver identification
sender identification
141
e)
organization identification
010100020021000C
Which of the following is an advantage of using a memo?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
It
It
It
It
It
is easy to write.
is distributed quickly.
provides a written record.
is easy to file.
is very informal.
010100020021000C
The part of a memo which identifies the content and purpose
of a memo is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
body
introduction
subject line
salutation
heading
010100020021000B
The subject line should include
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the main idea of the memo expressed in a sentence

the main subject and purpose of the memo expressed in a
phrase
the purpose of the memo expressed as a complete sentence
the name of the receiver
the date the memo was written
010100020021000A
Memos that convey routine messages should begin with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the main point

a neutral statement
an attention getter
a question
a reference
010100020021000B
When organizing a memo, they should follow a clear middle,
ending, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
introduction
beginning
salutation
reference
purpose
010100020021000E
A memo writer should close his memo by inviting questions
and
a)
thanking the receiver for his time
142
b)
c)
d)
e)
requesting a response by some due date or time

ending with a question
always copying another person
leaving a contact number
010100020021000C
The content of effective memos is written
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
in
in
in
in
in
paragraphs
lists
paragraphs and lists
telegraphic style
point form
010100020021000C
The middle of a memo provides the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
objectives
expected action
specifics of the topic
recommendation
purpose
010100020021000E
Often a memo writer does not spend enough time thinking about
the reader, the message, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the length of the memo

the purpose of the memo
the impact of the memo
the importance of the memo
his/her interaction with the reader
010100020021000D
The first step in memo writing is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
deciding who the memo should be directed to

establishing the length of the memo
deciding who should receive copies of the memo
deciding the main purpose of the memo
estimating the costs involved
010100020021000A
It is important that a memo
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
be adapted to the reader

simply arouses curiosity
not be considered as the final document
contain all the necessary details
be copied to someone else besides the recipient
010100020021000E
When using memo content headings, the number of lines left
above the heading should be
143
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
two
none
four
five
three
010100020021000C
Visual cues such as bolding and underlining will make a memo
format
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
easier to understand
white space more effective
more visible to the reader
easier to follow
have more impact
010100020021000A
Memo white space
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
separates information thereby improving readability

should be minimized
makes the memo more intimidating
will necessitate longer paragraphs
does not affect memo purpose
010100020021000E
When the points in a memo list are sequential
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
closed bullets should be used

open bullets should be used
asterisks should be used
hyphens should be used
numbers should be used
010100020021000B
A memo paragraph should not exceed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
three to four lines

eight to ten lines
five to eight lines
twelve lines
five lines
010100020021000C
Memo "rivers of white" are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
appealing to readers
the result of unjustified margins
spaces between words
difficult to eliminate
the same as ragged margins
010100020021000E
Which of the following headings is acceptable in a report?
a)
Attention
144
b)
c)
d)
e)
Body
Discussion
Theory
Introduction
010100020021000C
Which sentence is parallel in construction?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
He was
He was
He was
He was
He was
notes.
a good surveyor, but very poor at keeping notes.

a good surveyor, but very poor at notes.
a good surveyor, but a poor note keeper.
good at surveying, but poor at notes.
a good surveyor, but not very good at keeping
Industrial Legislation
010100020021000C
The first Canadian province to enact boiler and pressure
vessel legislation was
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Ontario
Alberta
Quebec
Manitoba
Newfoundland
010100020021000A
A body which was formed in 1919 for the promotion of safety
and uniformity in the construction, installation, and
inspection of boilers and pressure vessels was the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspectors

Underwriter Laboratories Canada
ASME
CSA
NFPA
010100020021000C
The purpose of the Safety Codes Act and Engineer's
Regulations is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
help control the power plant personnel

help plants operating at high efficiency
ensure safe installation and operation of power plants
ensure optimum performance of any boiler operating
ensure proper examinations are conducted
010100020021000B
The main purpose of the Safety Codes Act is
a)
b)
c)
d)
the promotion of efficient combustion

the promotion for safety of life and property
the prevention of air pollution
to promote efficient boiler operation
145
e)
to promote qualified training for operators
010100020021000E
The Act and Regulations do not apply to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a
a
a
a
a
heating plant having

power plant having a
power plant having a
a boiler rating of 20 kW or more

boiler rating of 20 kW or less
a rating of 2,500 kW or more
a boiler rating of 30 kW or less
boiler rating of 10 kW or less
010100020021000E
The code that regulates mechanical refrigeration is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ASME Section I
ASME Section VII
ASME Section IV
CSA B-51
CSA B-52
010100020021000C
Relative to boilers and pressure vessels, a code which has
not been adopted by all the provinces is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ASME I through IX
CSA B51
NFPA
ANSI B.31.5
CSA B52
010100020021000A
When a fitting is to be registered within a jurisdiction
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an application must be made to the Chief Inspector

drawings must be submitted to the ASME
the manufacturer need not have a quality control program
in place
application fees will be waived
the CSA must approve the design
010100020021000C
The province of Alberta currently has various certificates of
competency relative to Power Engineering and boiler
operation, the number being
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
4
6
8
10
12
010100020021000D
Once you have taken over a shift in a high pressure boiler
plant, you may leave the boiler unattended for:
a)
4 hours
146
b)
c)
d)
e)
the time specified in the union agreement

40 minutes
no period of time
15 minute intervals
010100020021000B
The principal reason you should keep a boiler plant log book
or log sheet is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
satisfy the Boiler Inspector

provide a record of boiler operation and maintenance
provide the operator with an alibi when an accident
occurs
provide proof that the operator visited the boiler room
at the time stated
satisfy the chief engineer
010100020021000A
A Fourth Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency qualifies
the holder to take charge of a power plant not exceeding
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,000
100
500
2,500
5,000
kW
kW
kW
kW
kW
010100020021000C
A fitting as defined in the Act means
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a
a
a
a
a
stack
fan
gauge glass
feedwater regulator
pump
010100020021000D
After an initial inspection of a boiler or pressure vessel,
an Alberta identification number preceded by the letter "A"
in a __________, shall be stamped on the boiler or pressure
vessel.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
square
rectangle
octagon
circle
hexagon
010100020021000E
A candidate for a welder's performance qualification card
a)
b)
c)
must have a high school diploma

must have successfully completed a vocational course
need not be able to write
147
d)
e)
requires at least three years practical experience as a

welder
must first pass a performance qualification test
010100020021000E
A welder Performance Qualification test
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
may result in the destruction of completed test coupons

will last the lifetime of the welder, if passed
is usually not required by welders working on boilers and
pressure vessels
is often the most expensive of all examinations,
inspections, or both
must be completed before the welder obtains his or her
performance qualification card
010100020021000B
When applying to write a certificate of qualification
examination the candidate, when applicable, may have to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
attend a teaching institute as a full-time day student

be in possession of the next lower class of certificate
enclose an examination fee of at least $100.00
pass a medical examination
pass both a written and an oral examination
010100020021000B
Expected conduct during an examination for a certificate of
competency is stated in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
CSA B51
the Engineers' Regulations of Alberta
Alberta's Safety Codes Act
CSA B52
the NFPA
010100020021000D
Definitions such as shift engineer, chief engineer, and
fireman are found in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Alberta's Safety Codes Act

the ASME code Section VIII
CSA B51
Alberta's Engineers' Regulations
municipal codes
010100020021000B
Heating boiler means
a)
b)
c)
d)
a boiler where steam is produced at a pressure greater

than 103 kPa
a boiler where steam is produced at a pressure of 103 kPa
or less
a boiler where water is heated to a pressure exceeding
1,100 kPa and a temperature of 121 degrees Celsius
a boiler in which only hot water is produced
148
e)
a boiler which does not require a sight glass
010100020021000A
R-11 refrigerant belongs to the following group of
refrigerants:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Group
Group
Group
Group
Group
A1
A2
A3
B1
B2
WHMIS - Part I - Classification of Controlled Products

010100020021000C
Pan-Canadian law means jurisdiction
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
in all areas of the country except municipalities

in off-shore areas only
in all provinces and territories
over federal areas only
in foreign countries
010100020021000A
Displaying an appropriate hazard symbol is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an important part of the supplier label

the responsibility of the employee
done only after a decanting process
necessary during transportation only
necessary no matter how small the quantity
010100020021000D
The final component of the WHMIS system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the supplier label

an MSDS
a workplace label
employee training
a decanting procedure
010100020021000A
A controlled product which is exempt from WHMIS would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
materials regulated under the Pest Control Products Act

a compressed gas having a critical temperature of less
than 50 degrees C
any liquid having a flash point of less than 37.8 degrees
C
any product not under control of the TDG Act
a product prone to spontaneous combustion
010100020021000B
The application of WHMIS is primarily governed by the
149
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Occupational Safety and Health Admin (OSHA)

Controlled Products Regulation (CPR)
American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
Hazardous Products Act (HPA)
Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety
(CC OHS)
010100020021000E
WHMIS contains three basic components:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
employee training
governing legislation
confidentiality of information
supplier and workplace labels
material safety data sheets
1,
2,
2,
1,
1,
2,
4,
3,
3,
4,
3
5
4
4
5
010100020021000A
Fully exempted materials from the controlled products
regulation include:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
decanted products
tobacco and tobacco products
wood and wood products
explosives
manufactured articles
2,
2,
1,
1,
3,
3,
4,
2,
3,
4,
5
5
3
4
5
010100020021000C
Controlled products are not covered under WHIMIS regulations
when subject to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Hazardous Materials Information Review Regulation (HMIRR)

Controlled Products Regulation (CPR)
Transportation of Dangerous Goods Regulation (TDGR)
Hazardous Products Act (HPA)
Ingredient Disclosure List Regulation (IDLR)
010100020021000B
The Material Safety Data Sheet is supplied by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

supplier of the controlled product
Federal Government
plant supervisor
person using the controlled product
150
010100020021000D
Whether or not a product is deemed to be a controlled product
is determined by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Ingredient Disclosure List

Transportation of Dangerous Goods Regulation
Hazardous Materials Information Review Regulation
Hazardous Products Act / Controlled Products Regulation
010100020021000A
According to WHMIS Legislation, hazardous waste requires:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
identification
marking
worker education
specific supplier labels
MSDS
1,
2,
1,
2,
3,
2,
3,
4,
4,
4,
3
4
5
5
5
010100020021000E
Infectious material is a controlled product of Class
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
B
A
C
F
D
010100020021000C
A Class "A" product would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a liquid with a flash point of less than 37.8 degrees C

a solid which ignites readily and burns with a
self-sustaining flame
a product which is normally a gas below 50 degrees C
any dangerous goods Classed as 4.1 under IDG Regulations
dibenzoyl peroxide
010100020021000B
An example of a Class "C" oxidizing material would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
charcoal starter cubes

butyl hydroperoxide
calcium carbide
sodium cyanide
hydrazine
010100020021000E
151
Along with the six classes of controlled products there are
__________ related WHIMS hazard symbols.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
6
3
9
7
8
010100020021000E
A Class "B" Division 5 hazardous material would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
gasoline
diesel fuel
reactive flammables
compressed hydrogen
flammable aerosol
010100020021000B
Class D controlled products has two Divisions which are
subdivided because of their
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
flammability
toxicity
explosiveness
oxidizing abilities
reactivity
010100020021000B
The common way of expressing corrosiveness is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a neutralising number
pH
alkalinity
acidity
turbidity
010100020021000D
Sulphuric acid, such as found in a car battery, is a strong
acid with a pH value near to the value
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
7
9
14
0
8
010100020021000A
Under Division 3, Class D, Biohazardous Infectious Materials,
risk Group I is the __________ risk group.
a)
b)
c)
d)
low
moderate
high
very high
152
e)
non
010100020021000C
To be classified as a flammable liquid it must have a flash
point of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
more
less
less
more
less
than
than
than
than
than
37.8 degrees C
50 degrees C
37.8 degrees C
50 degrees C
21 degrees C
010100020021000B
The term LC
refers to a
50
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
lethal dose which results in death of 50% of the test

population
lethal concentration which resulted in death of 50% of
the test population
lethal concentration diluted to half strength and
supplied to the test population
legal exposure in which 50% of the test population
survived
legal concentration in which 50% of the test population
survived
WHMIS - Part II - Labelling of Controlled Products

010100020021000D
Supplier labels are normally
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
square
colour coded
bordered with a solid line
prepared by the manufacturer of the product
either French or English, not both
010100020021000C
The product identifier is taken to mean
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the supplier list of risks associated with a particular

product
a complete list of contents in the product
the actual product name, code, or brand name
the actual product uses
the actual manufacturer of the product
010100020021000B
Who must label the packages containing controlled products?
a)
b)
c)
the industrial hygienist

the supplier of the products
any member of the Occupational Health and Safety
Committee
153
d)
e)
the consignee (receiver of the goods)

the plant owner
010100020021000A
The distinct WHMIS border is required on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the supplier label

the worksite label
all decanted controlled products
controlled products less than 10 kg
the material safety data sheet
010100020021000C
A workplace label
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
must have a hatched border

is always red in colour
is almost always required when decanting occurs
need show only risk phrases
consists of two main parts
010100020021000C
Correct use of a workplace label is mainly the responsibility
of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the employer
the transporter
the employee
plant safety committee
the end user
010100020021000D
The workplace label requires identification in these specific
areas:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
reference to MSDS
WHMIS hazard symbols
basic risk phrase
product identifier
distinctive hatched border
1,
1,
2,
1,
2,
4,
2,
3,
3,
4,
5
4
4
4
5
010100020021000B
Relative to graphics, a supplier label must
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
be square
be proportional to the graphics
show the graphics in colour
have the graphics covering at least 60% of the label
be in landscape format
154
010100020021000D
The first indicator of a product's hazard is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
MSDS
workplace label
colour of the container
supplier label
supplier identifier
010100020021000A
A supplier label can
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
be replaced by a workplace label

have a solid border at certain times
show no more than three symbols
be removed at any time
never be rectangular
010100020021000B
On first sight, one means of identifying that a WHMIS
legislated controlled product is present in a supplier's
container is the
a)
b)
hazard signs attached to the container

rectangular hatched border surrounding specific
information about the product
distinctive WHMIS hazard symbols enclosed in a bold solid
rectangular border
square hatched border containing hazard symbols
bold statement referring to the material safety data
sheet
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000E
Which are the 3 immediate warning signs on the supplier
label?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
high risk phrases

the hazard symbol for acute toxicity
the distinct WHMIS border
the product identification
the hazard symbol for corrosive materials
1,
1,
1,
2,
2,
2,
3,
4,
3,
3,
3
4
5
4
5
010100020021000D
Supplier labels normally must contain information in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
9
8
4
7
3
specific
specific
specific
specific
specific
areas
areas
areas
areas
areas
155
010100020021000C
Colour coding in the workplace can be used and colours must
be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
as per WHMIS colour stipulations

as per NFPA colour stipulations
any colour as long as they are fully understood by the
workers
according to CSA stipulations
relative to the original container colour
010100020021000B
During manufacture of a controlled product which is slated
for export, the first WHMIS item covered would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
container colour
a workplace label attachment
a supplier label attachment
an MSDS attachment
an export permit
010100020021000C
To comply with WHMIS legislation, supplier labels must be
provided in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
English only
French and English on the same label
French and English on the same label or both a French and
English version separately
the language of majority at the worksite
French and English on separate labels
010100020021000A
As an exception, products at the workplace destined for
export require
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a workplace label only

a supplier label only
no labels since they fall under TDG
both a workplace label and a supplier label
a material safety data sheet
010100020021000E
Which of the following is a risk phrase?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
keep in a cool place

use only in properly ventilated area
wear eye protection
avoid contact with eyes
highly flammable
010100020021000A
When bulk shipments are made, the product hazard information
can be sent to the purchaser
156
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
in
on
on
by
by
writing
a workplace label
the Bill of Lading
word of mouth
telephone
010100020021000E
The colour(s) which is/are reserved for explosives and not
used on WHMIS symbols is/are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
green/white
yellow
red
blue
orange
010100020021000D
The labelling requirements for a 1 litre container of
controlled product for use by one worker during a shift are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a worksite label containing 3 necessary elements

no label required
hazardous symbols only
a clear identifier or product ID
reference to the MSDS
010100020021000E
If an actual supplier label cannot readily be affixed to a
container of a controlled product, such as a very small vial
or cylinder, a _________ may be used on the container
instead.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
red mark
black ribbon
letter X
cross-hatched line
tag
WHMIS - Part III - Material Safety Data Sheets

010100020021000D
An MSDS consists of a number of basic areas, the number
being
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
6
5
12
9
7
010100020021000B
A controlled product may enter the body by ingestion,
inhalation and
a)
through an ear
157
b)
c)
d)
e)
through the skin

tract sensitization
synergistically
through dead cells such as hair, nails, etc.
010100020021000E
Propane has a vapour density of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1.0
0.6
1.6
0.6
1.6
and
and
and
and
and
will
will
will
will
will
rise
rise
rise
fall
fall
in
in
in
in
in
air
air
air
air
air
010100020021000B
The LFL and UFL of natural gas are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5 and 10 percent
2 and 7 percent
3 and 8 percent
20 and 27 percent
9 and 38 percent
010100020021000D
An MSDS must be updated
a)
b)
c)
d)
annually
every 5 years
at every product shipment
every time there is a major change or regardless every 3
years
every 3 years
e)
010100020021000A
Acute toxicity is best described by the term
a)
b)
c)
d)
immediately dangerous materials

substances that have chronic effects on a worker's health
toxicity caused by bacteria and viruses
materials whose effects are not readily noticeable until
years after exposure
poisonous products entering into the body by ingestion
e)
010100020021000E
Items disclosed on the MSDS under physical data include:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
flash point
boiling point
auto ignition temperature
pH
hazardous decomposition products
degree of skin irritation
1,
4,
1,
1,
3, 5, 6
5, 6
3
2, 4
158
e)
2, 4
010100020021000A
Which of the following is correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
All areas of the MSDS must be completed

MSDS must be at least 3 pages long
Only six areas must be completed
MSDS must be on a very specific form
Only the areas corresponding to the hazard symbols need
be completed
010100020021000A
A controlled product of LD
LD
of 60 mg/kg is
of 10 mg/kg when compared to an

50
50
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
more
more
less
less
less
lethal
flammable
lethal
flammable
reactive
010100020021000D
The OEL of H S is
2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
100 ppm
30 degrees C
30 minutes
10 ppm
15 minutes
010100020021000D
Which of the following poses the greatest danger?
a)
LD
of 1,400 mg/kg of body weight

50
b)
LD
of 7 mg/kg of body weight
c)
LD
of 20 mg/kg of body weight
50
50
d)
LD
of 0.1 mg/kg of body weight
e)
LD
of 1,401 mg/kg of body weight
50
50
010100020021000C
For products to burn they must first be in the __________
state.
159
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
solid
semi-solid
vapour
liquid
semi-liquid
010100020021000D
Flammable liquids and gases have very specific ranges over
which they will burn if mixed with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
another flammable liquid

natural gas
diesel fuel
air
hydrogen sulphide
010100020021000A
The term "respiratory tract sensitizer" relates to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
toxicological properties
physical data
reactivity data
preventive measures
hazardous ingredients
010100020021000B
Training programs must be evaluated
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
semi-annually
annually
bi-annually
every three years
quarterly
010100020021000C
Proof of a successful controlled products program is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
workers having certificates of qualification

workers having seminar/course diplomas
workers working safely and understanding controlled
products
an in-place safety policy
records of safety audits
010100020021000D
The main purpose of the HMIRA is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ensuring facility MSDS are kept up to date

keeping the CAS current
producing items for the IDL
protecting manufacturer formulae
evaluating controlled product marketing procedures
010100020021000D
160
An exemption granted by the Hazardous Materials Information
Review Act lasts
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3
1
5
3
2
months
year
years
years
years
010100020021000C
A proper employee/worker training program is best
demonstrated by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
passing an OHS administered test with a minimum of 60%

successful completion of a company program followed by a
series of examinations submitted to WHMIS personnel
proof of the worker's ability to work safety with and
understand procedures regarding controlled products and
systems
a record of the worker's absenteeism and number of
accident reports
random tests conducted without prior warning
010100020021000E
The Hazardous Materials Information Review Act (HMIRA) was
developed to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
create policy that would be passed through legislation

review new products and determine toxicity lists with IDL
safeguard against information not being provided on and
MSDS
review government policy and amend information passed on
to consumers as change developed
protect manufacturer's secret formulas from being copied
by others
010100020021000D
Protection of your health and safety while working with
controlled products is the responsibility of the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Hazardous Materials Information Review Committee

Plant Administration personnel
workers themselves
Plant Safety Committee
The Costs and Effects of Workplace Injuries

010100020021000E
An annual report containing injury information is filed by
the
a)
b)
AEPEA (Alberta Environment Protection & Enhancement Act)

AOHSA (Alberta Occupational Health & Safety Act)
161
c)
d)
e)
OHSM (Occupational Health & Safety Magazine)

ADL (Alberta Department of Labour)
AWCB (Alberta Workers Compensation Board)
010100020021000A
Alberta Workers' Compensation Board records indicate that the
approximate average number of workplace fatalities occurring
in the province may be about
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2 per week
2 per month
290 per year
2,000 per decade
50 per year
010100020021000D
A factor that has a large impact on the outcome of a worker's
post accident recovery is his
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
pre-accident safety record

life style off the job
support received from the immediate family
attitude before and after the accident
current financial situation
010100020021000E
During worker rehabilitation the supervisor should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
have as little contact as possible with the injured

worker
not inform the worker of investigation progress
let the worker know the investigators are finding fault
not ask the worker for assistance in determining
prevention methods
assist the worker in seeking and obtaining support
services
010100020021000A
An employer must ensure the health and safety of his workers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
reasonably and practicably

before their probationary period expires
only during times of production
except during company off-site activities
as per the group life insurance policy
010100020021000B
As soon as is practical after an incident the employer must
notify the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
AEPEA
AOH&S
IAPA
WHMIS
NFPA
162
010100020021000C
Individual responsibilities for health and safety must be
borne by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
management only
employees only
all persons relative to the workplace
owners only
owners and the government
010100020021000C
A high proportion of reported injuries comes from the age
group of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
25
30
16
45
55
to
to
to
to
to
30
45
25
55
65
010100020021000E
During an injury related investigation by an Occupational
Health and Safety officer, work being done at the site may be
suspended
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
indefinitely
until the officer arrives at the scene
for a maximum of 48 hours
long enough to attend to the victim
until any serious safety hazards are corrected
010100020021000B
The Occupational Health and Safety magazine, "The Last
Resort", reports on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
health hazards relative to working with dangerous goods

successful prosecutions under the Act
jail sentences imposed to those who contravene the Act
fines imposed to those individuals who contravene the Act
company business licenses revoked for failure to comply
with the Act
010100020021000C
The maximum penalty for an OH&S offence is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
$150,000.00
one year in
$150,000.00
$100,000.00
$250,000.00
fine
jail
fine and one year in jail
fine and one year in jail
fine
010100020021000A
Maximum penalties for a first offence under the Occupational
Health and Safety Act are set at
163
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
$150,000 fine or one year in jail or both

one year in jail
$150,000 fine
one year probation
one year's job suspension
010100020021000C
The first step an employer should take to reduce the negative
effects of workplace injuries is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
employ an on-site nurse

ensure supervisors know how to contact emergency
assistance
have an effective health and safety program in place
establish an appropriate number of trained first aid
personnel
inform his or her supervisors of the importance of
maintaining close contact with any worker who may become
injured
010100020021000D
Whose responsibility is it to ensure that an emergency plan is
in place to deal with incidents where injuries may occur?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Safety Committee
employee
employer
Boiler inspector
010100020021000C
When a worker is injured on the job, his or her recovery and
eventual return to work may be most affected by his or her
relationship with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the
the
his
his
the
boiler inspector
WCB officer
or her supervisor
or her family
Occupational Health and Safety Officer
Personal Protective Equipment

010100020021000C
Relative to personal protective equipment it is the
employer's responsibility to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
supply, ensure usage, and maintain

wear, care for, and maintain
supply and ensure usage
supply only
supply, ensure usage, care for, and maintain
010100020021000D
164
Shatter resistant glass or plastic applies to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
face shields
goggles
welding goggles
safety glasses
welding helmet lenses
010100020021000E
A personal safety item still made out of asbestos is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
apron
steel toed shoe
shin protector
elbow protector
glove
010100020021000B
The type of breathing apparatus that incorporates a 5 minute
cylinder to allow the user to escape a contaminated area is
the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
supplied air breathing apparatus

remote air supply breathing apparatus
filter type respirator
gas mask
self-contained breathing apparatus
010100020021000E
Employers must ensure employees wear self-contained breathing
apparatus' when
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
entering
handling
fighting
entering
there is
content
a coal bunker for repairs

toxic chemical dusts
fires in the plant
any confined spaces
a danger to life or health due to reduced oxygen
010100020021000B
A personal protective device which can readily cause
infection is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
steel toed shoe

ear plug
steel reinforced glove
welding goggle
ear muff
010100020021000A
One of the most important requirements of any breathing
apparatus is
a)
b)
c)
proper training prior to use

that the user be clean shaven daily
they be self sanitizing
165
d)
e)
they comply with ASME codes

face mask pressure be maintained slightly negative
010100020021000D
The statement: "An employer shall establish a code of
practice governing the selection, maintenance and use of
respiratory protective equipment." is made in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
CSA B51
NFPA 295
OH&S Act
General Safety Regulations 99
CSA Z94.4
010100020021000A
Canadian Standards Association Z94.4 covers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the selection of respirators

the use of safety gloves
hearing protection
footwear
safety committees
010100020021000C
To check the tightness of a gas mask
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
read the instruction book for the gas mask

ask for information from the last person using it
pinch the hose and breath deeply to suck the mask against
the face
check the maintenance book
pressurize it with nitrogen
010100020021000D
The filter type respirators will effectively protect from
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
all poisonous gases

toxic vapours
hydrogen sulphide
mineral dusts
chemical fumes
010100020021000C
Positive pressure regulators connected to the face-piece of a
breathing apparatus ensures
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the user remains awake and alert

cleanliness of the mask
a positive pressure to keep toxic air out
total body protection
a minimum air supply for 60 minutes
010100020021000A
Respiratory equipment that is not used routinely but is kept
for emergency use must be inspected
166
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
monthly
yearly
semi-annually
weekly
daily
010100020021000D
A piece of safety equipment responsible for protecting
against harmful chemical fumes is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
safety goggles
nose plugs
face shields
gas masks
filter type respirators
010100020021000B
Paint should never be applied to hard hats because
a)
b)
c)
d)
toxic fumes may be released

it will weaken the plastic
hats are already painted by the manufacturer
different colours normally indicate varying job positions
in the plant
anything, even paint, adds to the overall weight of the
hard hat making it uncomfortable
e)
010100020021000D
A breathing air supply may be required by employees:
1.
2.
when regenerating a softener

when entering vessels or ducting that have contained
anything other than air
when entering an electrostatic precipitator that has
been bypassed for repairs
in a vessel that has been purged with nitrogen
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
1,
2,
2,
2,
3
3, 4
3
3, 4
4
010100020021000D
Hard hat suspension minimum clearance is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.5 inch
0.75 inch
1 inch
1.25 inches
1.5 inches
010100020021000C
The minimum oxygen partial pressure allowed before breathing
apparatus is required is
167
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5 kPa
22 kPa
18 kPa
15 kPa
13 kPa
010100020021000D
A Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus must have a capacity of
at least
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
15
60
45
30
10
minutes
minutes
minutes
minutes
minutes
010100020021000C
The pressure in a fully charged Self-Contained Breathing
Apparatus is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
31.03 kPa
101.3 kPa
31,030 kPa
10,130 kPa
18,500 kPa
010100020021000E
A disease caused by mineral dust that converts healthy lung
tissue into fibrous or scar tissue is known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cystitis
neurosis
laryngitis
nephritis
silicosis
Isolation of Mechanical and Electrical Equipment

010100020021000C
The employer must be willing and prepared to bear the cost of
necessary procedures and not allow any sort of shortcuts when
it comes to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
annual shutdowns
Safety Committee formation
isolation of equipment
equipment overhaul scheduling
production
010100020021000B
Relative to equipment isolations, the items which may require
regular updating as work progresses are the
168
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Do Not Operate tags

various types of permits
safety meeting schedules
turnaround schedules
shift schedules
010100020021000E
If a person is not sure a piece of equipment is safe to work
on, he or her should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ask his or her foreman if it is safe

check the isolator's name on the permit
check with a co-worker before proceeding
rely fully on the permit information
ask a qualified worker to indicate and explain the points
of isolation
010100020021000D
Safety meetings should routinely be held
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
daily
weekly
bi-weekly
monthly
bi-monthly
010100020021000D
When isolating a steam turbine driven centrifugal pump
you should first
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
open the breaker

close the turbine exhaust steam valve
close the pump suction valve
close the high pressure steam supply valve
open the turbine casing drain
010100020021000D
Ensuring the complete isolation of a piece of equipment prior
to maintenance is the responsibility of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the Plant Safety Committee

the Operations Department
the Maintenance Department
both the Operating and Maintenance Departments
the Plant Manager
010100020021000B
When isolating an electric motor driven pump you should first
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
close the pump suction valve

open the motor breaker
ensure the pump is drained
close the high pressure steam supply valve
close the pump discharge valve
010100020021000B
169
Work permits issued to work on isolated equipment require the
signature of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the
the
the
the
the
shift foreman
isolator and the worker involved
Plant Manager
Operating Department
Maintenance Department
010100020021000B
Blind flanges used for isolation
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
can be prepared as work progresses

must be prepared ahead of time
do not need a tag number
must be constructed of .3 cm #11 US gauge steel
are only required when there are no isolation valves
010100020021000A
After completing the isolation of equipment
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
you
you
you
you
the
must enter the completed isolations in the log book

can start work immediately
require no further checks
must have a co-worker verify your isolation
Safety Committee must ok prior to work commencement
010100020021000B
In order to protect driven equipment from damage
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ensure the discharge valve is closed first

the driver must be isolated first
the belts must be removed first
a lock must be placed on the drain valve first
the "energy source" must be isolated after the driver
010100020021000C
The best possible method of ensuring a boiler is fully
isolated is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
complete a Do Not Operate tag

remove electrical fuses at the electrical source
install blind flanges wherever required
close all fuel supply valves
close the main Non Return Valve
010100020021000A
In addition to opening the breaker when isolating electrical
equipment the isolator should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
remove the fuses

tell the maintenance worker of his or her actions
isolate the driver as well
leave the breaker panel door open to indicate from a
distance it is isolated
none of the above
170
010100020021000E
A "closed drain" is
a)
b)
c)
a drain line with a single isolating valve

a drain which has been blanked off by a blind flange
any drain where the effluent is not considered to be
harmful to life, property, or the environment
defined as any drain line left normally in the closed
position
a drain line having two isolating valves in the line
d)
e)
010100020021000E
When isolating a motor for maintenance you should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
open the breaker

place a DO NOT OPERATE tag on the breaker
install a lockout clamp on the breaker handle
remove the fuses
do all of the above
010100020021000C
The best possible method of completely isolating a steam
boiler would be to
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
close the boiler water and steam supply valves

isolate the air supply
close all chemical lines to the boiler
place blind flanges in all steam header mains
isolate the water treatment demineralized tanks
isolate all fuel supply equipment
1,
1,
1,
2,
1,
3,
2,
2,
3,
3,
4,
3,
3,
4,
4,
5
4
6
6
5, 6
Confined Space Entry

010100020021000E
Confined space means only enclosed or partially enclosed
space having
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
harmful gases, vapours, mist, or dust

no way out
limited room for tools and equipment
elevated air temperatures
restricted entry and exit
010100020021000D
One of the least common places to find a confined space would
be in a
a)
pulp mill
171
b)
c)
d)
e)
grain elevator
power plant
person's home
brewery
010100020021000C
Confined space entry will apply to areas which lack
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ambient air temperatures

proper lighting
proper air ventilation
a simple means of entry
sufficient space for a man to enter
010100020021000A
Requirements for entry into confined spaces is governed by
the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Occupational Health and Safety Regulation

Boiler and Pressure Vessels Regulation
Workers' Compensation Act
Provincial Firemans Regulation
Confined Space Entry Regulation
010100020021000B
Confined space entry rules apply where the work in progress
may cause
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
too much noise to withstand

equipment being used to become a hazard
the worker to refuse to perform his job
an accident
moisture vapours to be released in the atmosphere
010100020021000E
The minimum level of oxygen in a confined space area is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
8%
10%
15%
18%
20%
010100020021000E
A confined space may easily become a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
difficult place to manoeuvre in

breeding ground for biohazardous infectious substances
noisy entrapment
healthy environment
life threatening environment
010100020021000D
A worker in a confined space that is being ventilated also
172
requires
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a self-contained breathing apparatus

an approved fire extinguisher
permission from OH&S to be there
to be in communication with another worker nearby
constant monitoring of the oxygen
010100020021000C
A person attending to a worker in a confined space may leave
his or her station
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
to retrieve tools or equipment for the worker

only long enough to go to the washroom
only when properly relieved by another qualified person
for ten minutes every hour
to summon help if the worker becomes unconscious
010100020021000B
Before entering any confined space, it is good practice to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
wear light clothing due to extreme temperatures in

enclosed areas
plan the entry using a confined entry space check list
estimate how long you will be there
inform the Plant Manager of your whereabouts
verify the operator's isolation points through the Plant
Safety Committee
010100020021000A
When tests indicate harmful gases are present in a confined
space where a worker must enter, he or she must
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
wear approved respiratory protective equipment

wait until the gases dissipate
receive special permission from OH&S before entering
wear a safety belt and lifeline
make sure a worker is stationed outside to assist in case
of emergency
Handling and Storage of Gases

010100020021000A
Portable gas cylinder capacity
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
must take into account liquid expansion due to

temperature change
is expressed by the tare weight stamped on the cylinder
is a function of the pressure within the unit at ambient
temperature
can be reduced after an inspection
may be increased on approval from the DOT or CTC
010100020021000D
173
The serial number of a cylinder cannot be duplicated and is
registered and maintained by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Department of Transport
Canadian Transport Commission
Boilers and Pressure Vessels Committee
Bureau of Explosives
010100020021000D
The most easily damaged part of the gas container is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
foot ring
valve cap
safety valve
cylinder valve
regulator
010100020021000B
Gas cylinder valves are normally constructed of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cast iron
brass
stainless steel
bronze
the same material as the cylinder
010100020021000A
Before disconnecting an empty cylinder from a manifold
system
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
close the cylinder valve to prevent air entering the

cylinder
obtain a "buddy" to ensure your safety
check the area for gases with an analyzer
unchain the cylinder
crack the connecting joint in order to purge it of excess
gases
010100020021000B
Gas cylinders should be stored upright in order to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
minimize space requirements

avoid liquefied product from escaping
keep them from rolling during transportation
lessen the chance of back injury during movement
enhance proper identification
010100020021000E
In order to prevent the formation of explosive mixtures,
oxygen and acetylene cylinders should be
a)
b)
c)
d)
stored in different buildings

stored at least 10 metres apart
stored in different confinements within a building
kept segregated at all times
174
e)
stored at least 6 metres apart
010100020021000E
Gas cylinders shall not be placed below ground level except
with permission from the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Canadian Transport Commission

Department of Transport
Boilers and Pressure Vessels Committee
010100020021000E
Gas cylinders are usually stored
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
inside, close to its consuming equipment

in a well heated room
with all fittings lightly oiled or greased
below ground level
upright and firmly secured
010100020021000D
Oxygen and acetylene cylinders should be stored
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
in a warm dry place

together whenever possible
at least 3 metres apart
at least 6 metres apart
inside the building next to the consuming equipment
010100020021000D
A cylinder valve cap
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
will prevent gas from escaping should the cylinder valve

leak
must be in place when the tare weight is being measured
threads must never be lubricated
prevents the cylinder valve from damage
will prevent the cylinder valve from breaking off should
the cylinder fall over
010100020021000D
A cylinder foot ring
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is installed on the cylinder to permit "foot rolling" of

the cylinder
has a diameter 1.5 times the cylinder diameter
prevents the cylinder from being stored horizontally
protects the bottom and lower section of the cylinder
is removed during transportation
010100020021000C
Top guard rings are used in place of
a)
vapour values
175
b)
c)
d)
e)
pressure relief valves

cylinder valve caps
regulators
foot rings
010100020021000B
Gas cylinder vapour valves only allow product flow
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
if the pressure rises above the maximum allowable amount

when a hose is connected
when the vapour pressure drops
in one single direction
in extreme emergency cases
010100020021000A
Cylinders deformed by fire are usually
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
destroyed
cleaned and re-painted before returning for use
repaired and returned to service
repressurized and returned for use
cleaned, pressure tested, and then returned to service
010100020021000B
The most frequent and common method of cylinder inspection
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
does not involve record-keeping

is the visual inspection by a qualified person
involves pressurizing the cylinder to twice its working
pressure
will not result in the cylinder being destroyed or
confiscated
is the hydrostatic test
010100020021000A
A gas cylinder hydrostatic test will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
result in a new test date being stamped on the cylinder

mean the cylinder is subjected to a pressure of twice its
maximum allowable working value
mean the cylinder is subjected to a pressure of one and
one half times its working pressure
remove any dents the cylinder may contain
indicate whether or not the unit was exposed to very high
temperatures
010100020021000C
Leak tests on cylinder connections should be done with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a
a
a
a
a
sulphur candle
halide lamp
soap solution
litmus solution
dye penetrant test
010100020021000A
176
When a gas cylinder is filled with water and pressurized to
twice its working pressure, the test conducted is known as a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
hydrostatic test
dead weight test
tensile test
water jacket test
relief valve test
010100020021000E
Gas cylinders that have been filled with liquid, immersed in
water, and pressurized to two times the working pressure are
said to have been subjected to a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
hydrostatic test
dead weight test
relief valve test
tensile test
water jacket test
Handling of Hydrocarbon Fluids

010100020021000B
Fuel/air mixtures outside of the flammable range
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
can ignite spontaneously

cannot burn or explode
may explode but not burn
must have a source of ignition to burn
will burn only when above the flammable limit
010100020021000A
If the fuel amount is below the lower flammable limit, the
mixture
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is said to be lean
is explosive
can be called rich
must have a source of ignition
will not burn rapidly
010100020021000D
In order for hydrocarbons to burn, the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
mixture must be lean

air/fuel mixture should be above the upper flammable
limit
fuel/air mixture must be rich
fuel must be vaporised
temperature must be below the boiling temperature
010100020021000C
Iron and hydrogen sulphide will react to form
177
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a non-combustible substance
a very high ignition temperature substance
pyrophoric iron sulphide
a very narrow flammable limit range substance
hydroferric acid
010100020021000B
The flash point of a liquid is the temperature at which
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
all molecular vibration will cease

it will form a gas and burn
spontaneous combustion will occur
the liquid will burn
the vapours become inert
010100020021000B
A flammable limit of a fuel/air mixture is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
no indication of its combustion properties

the percentage by volume of fuel in the mixture
the percentage by volume of air in the mixture
the percentage by mass of fuel in the mixture
the percentage by weight of fuel in the mixture
010100020021000E
Methane when combined with air has a flammable limit of
between
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
4.3
0.7
1.1
2.2
5.0
- 45.5%
- 5.0%
- 7.5%
- 9.5%
- 15.0%
010100020021000E
Washing steam should enter a tank car or tank truck slowly so
as to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
prevent injury to the worker

allow for proper ventilation of the unit
prevent massive condensation of the steam within the tank
flush the tank gradually
reduce the risk of static electricity spark
010100020021000C
About 90% of loading-rack tank fires are a result of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
applying flushing steam too rapidly

workers smoking
improper switch loading procedures
not grounding the vehicles
loading vehicles not suitable for the product
010100020021000D
Loading rack fires are often caused
178
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
by sparks from electrical equipment

from the catalytic effect of fresh metallic surfaces
from cigarettes or matches
when products with high flash points are loaded after
products with low flash points
by hot steam lines
010100020021000D
When loading containers with LPG products, the gauge rod
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
releases moisture from the bottom of the tank

minimizes the pressure increase as the product enters
monitors the static charge produced by the flow of the
product
indicates the level of liquid in the tank
provides indication of temperature changes as the tank
fills with the LPG product
010100020021000B
Laws governing the storage and transporting of LPG are
enforced by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
CSA
Federal and Provincial DOT
Provincial OH&S
Provincial Department of Labour
010100020021000D
Outage is the term given to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
vapours which are vented to the atmosphere during tank

filling
liquids spilled during the filling process
liquid which remains in the tank after being emptied
the space above the liquid after the tank is filled
vapours used to "purge" the tank before filling
010100020021000E
The explosion of a flammable mixture that occurred at
the exact time a valve was opened was likely due to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a rich mixture being formed

the flash point being reached
static electricity
the auto-ignition temperature
the catalytic effect of the fresh metallic surface
010100020021000C
Hoses used for loading and unloading of LPG products must be
hydrostatically tested
a)
b)
c)
after every use

prior to initial sale to the customer
annually
179
d)
e)
when the first visual sign of deterioration appears

every three years
010100020021000A
If a fuel/air mixture is raised above its ignition
temperature, the mixture
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
may ignite without a source of ignition

will require a source of ignition in order to burn
will not start burning by auto-ignition
will ignite only if static electricity is present
will not burn, only explode
010100020021000B
Every effort must be made to prevent oxygen contacting
hydrocarbon vapours because
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an explosion will result

there are too many sources of ignition
auto-ignition will occur
the air will dilute the mixture
hydrocarbon vapours have such high ignition temperatures
010100020021000A
The ignition temperature of a fuel/air mixture is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
lowest temperature at which a mixture will burn

temperature at which it is said to have a lean mixture
temperature at which the fuel may gel
temperature at which the mixture is above the boiling
temperature
maximum temperature of the mixture before the fuel turns
to vapour
010100020021000C
Auto-ignition of a fuel/air mixture
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cannot occur without a flame

requires a spark
occurs when the temperature of the mixture is raised
above the ignition temperature
occurs when temperatures exceed 295 degrees Celsius
most often leads to a catalytic effect
010100020021000A
Iron sulphide, if allowed to dry out will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
burst into flames in the pressure of air

make an excellent Class D fire extinguishing agent
enhance the effects of static electricity
emit toxic fumes
absorb moisture from railway tank cars
180
Hydrogen Sulphide Safety

010100020021000C
Hydrogen sulphide is removed from crude oil by burning it
into sulphur dioxide in the presence of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an amine
an oxygen free atmosphere
a catalyst
black liquor
heavy water
010100020021000A
Hydrogen sulphide is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1.189 times heavier than air

always found in its pure form
found near the top of tanks and rooms
more difficult to ignite than natural gas
not capable of following moving air streams
010100020021000E
Natural gas has an ignition temperature of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
260 degrees C
540 degrees C
1,700 degrees C
360 degrees C
650 degrees C
010100020021000A
From a fire and explosion standpoint, hydrogen sulphide is
dangerous because of its
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
wide explosive range and low ignition temperature

wide explosive range and high ignition temperature
narrow explosive range
narrow explosive range and low ignition temperature
high ignition temperature
010100020021000E
In the natural gas process, the liquid used to absorb
hydrogen sulphide is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
water
crude oil
black liquor
liquid sulphur dioxide
amine
010100020021000A
Hydrogen sulphide ignites at
a)
b)
c)
260 degrees Celsius

540 degrees Celsius
1,700 degrees Celsius
181
d)
e)
360 degrees Celsius

650 degrees Celsius
010100020021000A
When burned completely, 1 kg of H S gas will produce
2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
17,000 kJ of heat
1,700 kJ of heat
17,000 J of heat
170 kJ of heat
1,700 J of heat
010100020021000C
H S burns with a
2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
red flame
bluish - yellow flame
light blue flame
yellow flame
brownish - yellow flame
010100020021000D
Hydrogen sulphide has a "rotten egg odour" and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
can
can
has
can
has
always be readily detected by smell

readily be seen with the naked eye
a narrow explosive limit
dull one's sense of smell
a high boiling point
010100020021000C
The degree of hydrogen sulphide concentration which allows a
petroleum product to be considered "sweet" must not exceed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,000 ppm
500 ppm
10 ppm
100,000 ppm
100 ppm
010100020021000D
The statement that workers with perforated eardrums not be
excluded from hydrogen sulphide atmospheres was made by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Petrochemical Association CEO

CSA
Canadian Natural Gas Association
Journal of Occupational Medicine
Underwriters Laboratories Canada
010100020021000E
The allowable exposure limit of hydrogen sulphide
concentration when a person may work for an eight hour period
is
182
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,000
700
500
20
10
ppm
ppm
ppm
ppm
ppm
010100020021000D
When working in an area containing a concentration of 100 ppm
H S
2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
work can be performed for a maximum of eight hours

work can be performed for a maximum of fifteen minutes
the worker will be rendered unconscious immediately
the sense of smell will be lost within two to fifteen
minutes
the worker will appear to be intoxicated
010100020021000C
A concentration of 15 ppm of H S can be tolerated for a time
2
not exceeding
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5
10
15
20
25
minutes
minutes
minutes
minutes
minutes
010100020021000D
In small amounts, H S acts on the nervous system to
2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cause suffocation
cause headaches
act as a stimulant
act as a depressant
promote weight loss
010100020021000D
The safest way to extinguish a hydrogen sulphide fire is to
a)
remove the O
b)
remove the catalyst
c)
lower the temperature
d)
stop the gas flow
e)
let it burn itself out
source
010100020021000B
In the event of an uncontrolled release of hydrogen sulphide
183
where a co-worker is "knocked down", your first act should be
to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sound an alarm
get out of the area
put on your breathing apparatus
remove the casualty
begin artificial respiration immediately
010100020021000B
H S detectors make use of
2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a litmus solution
a clear lead acetate solution
an oxygen jet to burn the hydrogen sulphide
a water solubility test
a solution of dry iron sulphide
010100020021000B
Hydrogen sulphide workers must receive adequate training in
breathing apparatus, resuscitation, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
fire fighting
use of gas detectors
personnel rescue
plant isolation procedures
plant operations
010100020021000B
The Chemical Hazards Regulation of the OH&S Act states that
an employer is responsible to ensure each worker:
1.
wears the proper certified coveralls when working in an

area suspected of containing hydrogen sulphide
is instructed in the proper use of protective equipment
provided
is on time to perform his or her duties when handling
hydrogen sulphide
signs a waiver of responsibility before working in an
area suspected of containing hydrogen sulphide
is aware of health hazards associated with exposure to
hydrogen sulphide
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3,
2,
1,
2,
1,
4
5
4, 5
3, 4
2, 4
010100020021000D
The Chemical Hazards Regulation of the OH&S Act states that
an employee is responsible to
1.
follow procedures provided by the employer
184
2.
sign a waiver releasing the employer of any

responsibility in the event of an accident
wear respiratory equipment when necessary
participate in instruction provided
obtain training from an independent company if not
supplied by the employer
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
1,
2,
1,
3,
2,
4,
4,
3,
4,
4
5
5
4
5
010100020021000C
The ceiling occupational exposure limit refers to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the time-weighted average concentration of an airborne

substance
the allowable concentration exposure over a fifteen
minute period
the maximum concentration exposure to an airborne
substance
the allowable concentration exposure over an eight hour
period
the concentration of airborne substances as measured at
the highest point in a concentrated area
010100020021000E
In addition to compulsory training sessions, the law requires
that persons working with hydrogen sulphide
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
must practice with breathing apparatus

must be trained in first aid including artificial
resuscitation and CPR
must be familiar with maintenance and cleaning of
breathing apparatus
must be trained in the use of gas detectors
must be trained in all of the above
First Aid and CPR for Adult Casualties

010100020021000D
The result of inadequate blood supply reaching portions of
the brain is termed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
shock
asphyxia
cardiac arrest
stroke
angina
010100020021000D
A substance which makes the blood clot easier in certain
185
areas is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cigarette tar
haemoglobin
carbon monoxide
nicotine
CVD
010100020021000A
The terms "pop" or "drop" refer to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
choking
angina attacks
broken bone alignment
stroke symptoms
artificial resuscitation
010100020021000E
Angina is a condition which occurs when
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the pathway through which air moves to the lungs is

blocked
all parts of the body do not obtain an adequate supply of
oxygenated blood
there is an inadequate blood supply to the brain
the heart stops completely
the heart is not getting enough oxygen
010100020021000A
A stroke is a condition which occurs when
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
there is an inadequate supply of blood to the brain

the heart is not getting enough oxygen
body parts do not receive enough oxygenated blood
air is restricted to the lungs
the heart stops beating completely
010100020021000A
When the pulse is checked at the neck of a victim, it should
be done on the side nearest you
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
so that it will not appear that you are choking the

victim
to prevent obstruction of the airway
so that you can see the artery pulsing
so that you can simultaneously check for breathing
in order to maintain visibility of your fingers
010100020021000C
If a casualty is unconscious
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
you should not perform any type of first aid

notify EMS before doing anything
consent may be assumed
notify them of who you are
do not bother to survey the area until after notifying
186
EMS
010100020021000E
The carotid artery is located
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
in the thigh area

in the victim's left side of the chest
just above the armpit
in the right temple
in the neck
010100020021000C
The one who starts care for a casualty and may be one of the
most important people in the Emergency Medical Services
System is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
paramedic
co-worker
bystander
doctor
dispatcher
010100020021000E
To assess an unconscious casualty's condition, the Canadian
and American Medical Associations recommend following the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
pop or drop procedure

EMS procedure
RICE steps
RED steps
A, B, C system
010100020021000B
When the heart stops beating completely it is termed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a heart attack
cardiac arrest
a stroke
angina
a seizure
010100020021000D
You notice that one of the men you are working with is lying
on the ground. If you find that his breathing has stopped
you would
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
give him something to drink and then send for help

send for a doctor
phone the shift supervisor
start artificial respiration immediately and summon help
cover him with a blanket and run for help
010100020021000B
When performing abdominal thrusts on a choking victim and the
casualty becomes unconscious, your initial reaction should be
to
187
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
increase the rate of abdominal thrusts

place the victim on his or her back and perform a finger
sweep of the mouth
give two quick breaths
begin CPR at the rate of 15 compressions to two breaths
place the victim on his or her stomach and press into the
casualty's back
010100020021000A
A co-worker is experiencing shortness of breath, nausea,
sweating and is strongly denying that he/she is in need of
attention. The worker is likely experiencing
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a heart attack
an angina attack
shock
cardiac arrest
a stroke
010100020021000E
The artificial respiration rate for an infant is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1:5
1:10
1:7
1:2
1:3
010100020021000C
The xiphoid process is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a method of aligning
an area of the chest
to be avoided during
a method of locating
a method for finding
broken bones
on which CPR is performed
CPR
bones in the body
a pulse
010100020021000C
The acronym RICE stands for Rest, Immobilize, Cold, and
Elevate. This would be the response used
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
for
for
for
for
for
a stroke
severe bleeding
a broken bone
a heart attack
trauma shock
010100020021000B
The acronym RED stands for Rest, Elevate, and Direct
pressure. This would be the response used for
a)
b)
c)
d)
a stroke
severe bleeding
a broken bone
a heart attack
188
e)
trauma shock
010100020021000D
Symptoms of shock may include the following
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
squeezing pain
clammy skin
weak and rapid pulse
denial
confusion
3,
1,
2,
2,
1,
4,
4,
3,
3,
2,
5
5
4
5
5
010100020021000A
The artificial respiration rate for an adult is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
one
one
two
one
one
breath every 5 seconds

breaths every 15 seconds
Fires and Extinguishing Media

010100020021000C
Combustion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is endothermic and can occur in an inert atmosphere

is always a visible process in that light is given off
is exothermic, self sustaining, and can occur in an inert
atmosphere
always requires a source of ignition
requires the presence of air
010100020021000A
A reducing agent or fuel could be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
carbon monoxide
a heavy metal oxide
hydrogen peroxide
concentrated sulphuric acid
chlorine
010100020021000E
A process which causes fires to endure and renew themselves
is
a)
b)
c)
temperature
a reducing agent
an oxidizing agent
189
d)
e)
a flame
molecular activity due to high temperature
010100020021000D
Fuels or reducing agents which burn in the flaming mode only
are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
flammable liquids
coals
flammable gases
flammable liquids and gases
cokes
010100020021000D
Wood can continue to burn in the flameless or glowing mode
when oxygen level is as low as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
17%
12%
8%
5%
3%
010100020021000C
Your first reaction to a fire should be to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
fight it
contain it
turn on the alarm
get the nearest fire extinguisher
phone the maintenance department
010100020021000C
A class B fire is best extinguished by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
lowering the temperature of the burning wood or paper

wetting the burning paper or wood
smothering the burning liquid
lowering the temperature of the burning liquid
creating a chain reaction between the molecules of the
burning material
010100020021000D
Water is the best extinguisher for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an oil fire
a gas fire
an electrical fire
a wood fire
a metal burning fire
010100020021000E
A Class "A" fire would involve
a)
b)
gasoline or oil
any dry materials
190
c)
d)
e)
paint or grease
electrical equipment
wood or coal
010100020021000A
Foam extinguishers are recommended for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Class
Class
Class
Class
Class
"A"
"A"
"C"
"D"
"C"
and Class
and Class
and Class
fires
and Class
"B" fires
"C" fires
"B" fires
"D" fires
010100020021000D
Which of the following constitutes a Class "C" fire?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
fire
fire
fire
fire
fire
in
in
in
in
in
a coal bunker
a fuel tank
a lumber pile
an electrical panel
a pile of paper
010100020021000D
The major advantage of carbon dioxide as a fire extinguishing
agent for fires in electronic equipment is it
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
has superior cooling ability over other agents

is non-toxic
does not reduce the oxygen content of the area
does not leave a residue
provides a barrier between the oxygen and burning
components
010100020021000B
The best portable fire extinguisher to use on a Class "D"
fire is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
carbon dioxide unit

dry powder unit
aqueous film-forming foam unit
Halon unit
dry chemical unit
010100020021000B
Dry chemical fire extinguishers should not be used where
delicate electrical equipment is involved because it is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
conductive
an insulator and can be corrosive
always corrosive
impossible to clean the equipment, it must be replaced
capable of producing toxic fumes
010100020021000B
The best type of fire extinguisher to use on an electrical
fire would be a
191
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
dry chemical extinguisher

carbon dioxide extinguisher
FF extinguisher
dry powder extinguisher
foam extinguisher
010100020021000C
Dry chemical fire extinguishers may be used to extinguish
electrical fires, however, they are not the best choice
because they
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
fail to
conduct
leave a
produce
are not
fires
cool the fire sufficiently

electricity
residue on the equipment
toxic chemicals that may be flammable
made in sizes large enough to fight electrical
010100020021000E
Halon extinguishing agents extinguish a fire by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cooling below ignition temperature

radiation shielding
isolating the fuel by coating
removing the oxygen supply
breaking the uninhibited chain reaction
010100020021000D
To extinguish a fire, aqueous film-forming form extinguishing
agents act in order to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
seal vapours
cool
remove the oxygen
break the chain reaction
4
2,
1,
1,
1,
3
2
2, 3
2, 3, 4
010100020021000A
The fire extinguisher to be used on electrical equipment will
be marked with a "C" on a background consisting of a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
blue circle
green triangle
yellow star
green circle
red square
010100020021000B
A red square on a fire extinguisher indicates that this
extinguisher is suitable for a Class
192
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
A
B
C
D
E
fire
fire
fire
fire
fire
010100020021000D
Burning metals may be extinguished using
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
dry chemical extinguishers

carbon dioxide extinguishers
AFFF extinguishers
dry powder extinguishers
foam extinguishers
010100020021000A
What type of fire should be put out with water?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Class
Class
Class
Class
Class
"A"
"B"
"C"
"A", "B", and "C"
"D"
010100020021000B
Which of the following extinguishers would ordinarily be used
to combat a Class "C" fire?
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
carbon dioxide
foam
dry chemical
water
1,
1,
2,
2,
1,
2
3
3
4
4
Portable Fire Extinguishers

010100020021000A
Foam extinguishers are recommended for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Class "A" and Class "B" fires

Class "A" and Class "C" fires
Class "C" and Class "B" fires
all classes of fires
all but burning liquids
010100020021000E
The background symbol used on a fire extinguisher for a Class
"D" fire is a
193
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
green triangle
green circle
red square
blue circle
yellow star
010100020021000D
Rating numerals to indicate the effectiveness of an
extinguisher are used in reference to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Class
Class
Class
Class
Class
A fires
B fires
C fires
A and B fires
A, B, and C fires
010100020021000E
One type of extinguisher suitable for extinguishing all four
classes of fires is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Halon extinguisher
foam extinguisher
none of the above
010100020021000B
A "loaded stream" extinguisher is one which
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
can be used on Class B fires

has an antifreeze agent
is always under stored pressure
is meant for Class C fires
produces foam
010100020021000C
A major disadvantage of a floor standing pump extinguisher
over a backpack pump unit is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the floor unit has only half the capacity

the backpack unit has twice the range
pumping must stop for relocation
the floor unit pump is single acting
the floor unit is too difficult to move
010100020021000B
Pressure range in a carbon dioxide extinguisher is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
31 to 55 kPa
5.6 to 6.3 Mpa
5,600 to 6,300 Mpa
31 to 55 Mpa
56 to 63 psi
010100020021000E
194
The maximum storage temperature for a carbon dioxide
extinguisher is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
31
25
40
45
55
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
C
C
C
C
C
010100020021000A
Carbon dioxide extinguishers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
are self-expelling
are the best for Class A fires
are the quietest in operation
present no hazards during use
are the most difficult to use
010100020021000B
Halon agents are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
safe until they make contact with the combustion process

themselves toxic
the most highly recommended for Class B:C use
able to maintain cylinder pressure themselves regardless
of temperature
gradually replacing dry powder units
010100020021000D
An extinguisher with a 4 rating is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
good for Class C fires only

twice as effective as a unit with a 1 rating
not to be used on a Class A fire
four times as effective as a unit rated 1
good for four minutes of use
010100020021000B
Foam type fire extinguishers achieve best results by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
lobbing the foam over top of the fire

bouncing the foam off the floor just in front of the
burning area
discharging the agent with a sweeping motion
discharging the agent at the base of the flame
splashing the agent into the burning liquid
010100020021000C
All maintenance work done on portable fire extinguishers is
required to be
a)
b)
c)
d)
completed on all extinguishers in the plant at the same

time
performed at the worksite in case they are required for
emergency service
contracted out to a certified service company
supervised by a National Fire Protection Association
195
e)
employee
performed on an as-needed basis
010100020021000A
Halon agent extinguishers are operated and applied in the
same manner as a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

water extinguisher
foam extinguisher
dry powder extinguisher
010100020021000E
Halon extinguishers are mostly intended for use on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Class
Class
Class
Class
Class
A
B
C
A
B
fires
fires
fires
and B fires
and C fires
010100020021000E
Foam type fire extinguishers should only be installed or
stored in areas where the temperature remains above
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
15
12
10
7
5
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
C
C
C
C
C
Electrical Fires
010100020021000A
Overheating of electrical equipment is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the most common cause of fires in buildings

usually the result of inadequate wiring
often due to over-sized fuses being installed
the result of blocked cooling fin passages
illegal in most provinces
010100020021000E
Electrical circuit insulation
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
will never break down or deteriorate

requires replacement after 10 years
is not affected by temperature
will not burn
will deteriorate due to high temperatures
010100020021000B
Electrical connections
196
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
need only make contact, they need not be tight

will create large amounts of heat if not tight
can cause an arc if too tight
may operate on overload for specified durations
will not generate heat at any time
010100020021000A
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains
hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours under
normal conditions, electrical equipment must be designated
safe for use in an area classification of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Class
Class
Class
Class
Class
1,
1,
2,
2,
3,
division
division
division
division
division
1
2
1
2
1
010100020021000C
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains dust
in the air, under normal operating conditions, in
concentrations high enough to produce explosive or ignitable
mixtures, the electrical equipment must be designed safe for
use in an area classification of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Class
Class
Class
Class
Class
I, division I
I, division II
II, division I
II, division II
III, division I
010100020021000E
According to the Canadian Electrical Code an area where
easily ignited material fibres capable of producing
combustible flyings are handled or manufactured would be
classified as a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Class
Class
Class
Class
Class
1,
1,
2,
2,
3,
division
division
division
division
division
1
2
1
2
1
010100020021000A
An example of a class "C" fire would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a
a
a
a
a
fire in an electrical panel

fire in a trash bin
fire in a fuel tank
precious metals fire
fire in a coal storage pile
010100020021000B
When an electrical fire is discovered
197
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the equipment may be left running if the fire is put out

with a C type fire extinguisher
the equipment should be de-energized as quickly as
possible
the equipment should be left running until a backup power
supply is available
the equipment may be immediately restarted once the fire
is extinguished
fresh air should be provided to the room as quickly as
possible to get rid of toxic fumes
010100020021000E
The best type of fire extinguisher to use on a live
electrical fire is a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
pressurized water extinguisher

purple K extinguisher
AFFF extinguisher
010100020021000E
The temperature of the carbon dioxide leaving the
extinguisher horn can be as low as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0 degrees C
-5 degrees C
-30 degrees C
-60 degrees C
-80 degrees C
010100020021000A
Halon from halon fire extinguishers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
produces a distinct odour which warns of the presence of

halon
is abrasive to electrical equipment
will act as a conductor if moisture is present
is derived from bromine, fluorine, or chlorine
is corrosive
010100020021000B
You discover that a small fire has been started in a high
tension switch box. In your immediate area there are four
different types of fire extinguishers. The one you put the
fire out with should be the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
soda - acid extinguisher

chemical foam extinguisher
cold water extinguisher
one closest to you
010100020021000C
During annual turnaround of a facility it is highly
198
recommended that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
all fuses in the electrical system be replaced

aluminum wiring be replaced
all electrical connections be checked for tightness and
corrosion
all circuit breakers be disassembled and cleaned
a megger be used on all electric motor windings
010100020021000C
Temporary electrical hook-ups should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
be in place for a maximum duration of 72 hours only

be made with BX electrical cable
be designed to the original specifications
comply with the ASME codes
have CSA pre-approval
010100020021000D
A common cause of an electrical fire is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
allowing motors or conductors to get wet if not designed

for that purpose
prematurely replacing deteriorated wiring
following too closely to the Electrical Code when
installing electrical equipment
replacing burned fuses with ones of the same rating
waiting a specified amount of time between attempts to
start large motors
Environmental Introduction
010100020021000D
The earth's water cycle is referred to as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a hydrostatic cycle
a meteorological cycle
a hydrographic cycle
a hydrological cycle
an elementary cycle
010100020021000C
Air is predominantly composed of
a)
O , CO , and CH
2
2
4
b)
O , N , and CO
2
2
2
c)
d)
O , CO , and H
and N
199
2
e)
and CO
010100020021000A
The environment consists of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
natural and man-made elements

organic and natural elements
soil and water
plant and animal life
air and water cycles
010100020021000E
A typical soil profile includes, from top to bottom
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a zone of
material,
a zone of
a zone of
a zone of
material,
a zone of
weathered
a zone of
weathered
parent material, a zone of intensely weathered

a zone of unweathered material
parent material, a zone of weathered material,
bed rock
weathered material, a zone of unweathered
a zone of bedrock
weathered material, a zone of partially
material, a zone of bedrock
weathered material, a zone of partially
material, a zone of parent material
010100020021000D
Subsurface water can be divided from top to bottom as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a zone of aeration, ground water, water table

water table, ground water, surface water
surface water, ground water, water table
a zone of aeration, water table, a zone of saturation
surface water, ground water, underground water
010100020021000B
Ground water and surface water originate from
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
aeration
precipitation
vegetation
evaporation
filtration
010100020021000A
Places where groundwater leaves the system to become surface
water are called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
discharge points
runoff areas
recharge points
springs
saturated zones
200
010100020021000C
The land area where water shares the spaces between soil
particles with the air is known as the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
infiltration zone
water table zone
zone of aeration
zone of discharge
saturated zone
010100020021000D
Organic matter is primarily deposited on the landscape by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
wind
water
glaciers
vegetation
gravity
010100020021000E
The process whereby plants consume carbon dioxide, water and
the sum energy to make food is known as the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
hydrological cycle
meteorological cycle
photoelectric cycle
hydrostatic cycle
photosynthetic cycle
010100020021000D
Organisms within an ecosystem can be divided into which
groups?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
producers, inactive matter, and consumers

organic matter, inorganic matter, and decomposers
consumers, producers, and inorganic matter
decomposers, consumers, and producers
nutrients, consumers, and decomposers
010100020021000E
Parent material for soil formation
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is only mineral material deposited by glaciers, wind, and

water
is only organic material
is the same throughout the world
is not necessary
has been mostly deposited by glaciers in North America
010100020021000C
The three major components in an ecosystem are
a)
b)
c)
d)
animals, plants, and air

animals, plants, and decomposers
producers, consumers, and inactive organic matter
producers, consumers, and air
201
e)
producers, consumers, and sun's energy
010100020021000A
Energy in a food web
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
originates from the sun

travels from the top of the web to the bottom
does not leave the web
is passed through the food web by heat radiation
is self-sustaining within the food web
010100020021000B
Components of an ecosystem are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
independent of each other

interconnected and interdependent
vertically ordered
unchangeable
ranked from top to bottom
010100020021000B
Contributions to the ecosystem by the environment are in the
form of
a)
N , CO , H O
2
2
2
b)
CO , H O, O
2
2
2
c)
Ar, H O, O
2
2
d)
H O, O
2
2
e)
CO , O
2
2
010100020021000D
In the ecosystem, green plants are considered to be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
consumers
inactive matter
decomposers
producers
inorganic matter
010100020021000C
Herbivores and/or carnivores as they are seen in the
ecosystem are considered
a)
b)
c)
d)
inactive matter
decomposers
consumers
producers
202
e)
inorganic matter
Gaseous and Noise Pollutants

010100020021000B
Sulphur oxides in flue gas are undesirable because
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
they use up the sulphur in the fuel

they cause acid rain
they reduce combustion efficiency
they combine with sunlight to produce smog
they are an indicator of incomplete combustion in the
furnace
010100020021000A
Carbon monoxide is produced as a result of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a shortage of oxygen in the furnace

too high a combustion temperature
too large a furnace
excess air in the combustion process
slow movement of fuel through the furnace
010100020021000D
Gaseous pollutants emitted from power plants are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
natural gas
oxygen
carbon monoxide
sulphur dioxide
nitrogen
1,
2,
3,
3,
1,
3,
3,
4,
4
2,
4
4
5
5
010100020021000C
Most systems used today to remove sulphur dioxide
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
produce a useful end product

remove most of the sulphur trioxide as well
involve the use of lime, limestone or sulphuric acid
remove the sulphur dioxide in the furnace
are simple systems involving little extra equipment
010100020021000D
Nitrogen oxides in flue gas may be reduced by
a)
b)
c)
d)
raising the furnace temperature

decreasing the size of the furnace
scrubbing the flue gas with lime
reducing the percentage of excess air
203
e)
employing a dilute sulphuric acid scrubber system
010100020021000A
Converting carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide in the furnace
may be accomplished by
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
increasing the amount of combustion air

decreasing the time the fuel spends in the furnace
burning lime with the fuel
not overloading the boiler
ensuring a good fuel/air mixture
1,
2,
3,
1,
2,
4,
3,
4,
2,
4,
5
4
5
4
5
010100020021000C
Systems designed to reduce SO are also effective in reducing
2
the concentration of
a)
NO
x
b)
H O
2
c)
SO
3
d)
CO
e)
CO
010100020021000B
A method proven to reduce emissions of sulphur oxides in the
flue gas is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
lower the furnace temperature

scrub the flue gas with wet lime or limestone
reduce the amount of excess air
use dilute sulphuric acid to scrub the flue gas
increase the size of the furnace
010100020021000D
A sampling and analyzing train
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
measures the frequency composition of noise

monitors flue gas for one type of emission
cannot be operated automatically
measures the amount of several types of emissions
cannot be used to obtain permanent records
204
010100020021000B
A device for measuring flue gas emissions is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a stack monitor
an Orsat analyzer
a stack analyzer
a level meter
a gas tester
010100020021000E
Choose all of the following statements which are true:
1) Sound travels through variations in air pressure
2) Sound waves are reflected, deflected ,and absorbed
3) Sound is a form of energy
4) Sound travels through a vacuum
5) Sound always travels at a constant wavelength
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
1,
2,
2,
1,
3,
2,
3,
3,
2,
and 5
3, and 4
4, and 5
and 4
and 3
010100020021000C
Sound pressure level is expressed in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
psi (pounds per square inch)

kPa
decibels
watts
amps
010100020021000A
Noise sources over what level are potentially hazardous to
hearing?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
100 dB and above

60 dB and above
120 dB and above
80 dB and above
40 dB and above
010100020021000E
Decibels are represented by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an exponential scale
an intensity scale
an arithmetic scale
a reference scale
a logarithmic scale
010100020021000B
Noise pollution is caused by:
1.
high speed equipment
205
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
1,
2,
1,
3,
popping high pressure safety valves

chimneys
jack hammers
riveting operations
2,
2,
3,
3,
4,
3
4, 5
4, 5
4, 5
5
010100020021000E
Damaging sound pressure levels affecting plant personnel
could not be reduced by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
enclosing the noise source

modifying the equipment operating conditions
building a barrier
wearing protective equipment
changing the frequency of the sound
010100020021000E
Loud noises may be controlled by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
building soundproof cabinets around equipment

running the equipment at high speeds
using silencers on the air intakes to gas turbines
using mufflers on equipment exhaust
running noisy equipment at night when everyone is asleep
1,
1,
1,
1,
1,
2,
2,
3,
2,
3,
3, 4
4
4, 5
3, 4, 5
4
010100020021000D
Noise monitors (sound meters) measure the decibel rating and
contain
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sound dampers
sound amplifiers
acoustic eliminators
weighting networks
acoustic amplifiers
010100020021000D
Personal protective devices designed to protect power plant operators
from environmental pollutants, include the following equipment:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
hard hats
ear muffs
soft toed shoes or boots
safety boots
dust masks
breathing air packs
206
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
1,
1,
2,
3,
2,
2,
2,
5,
4,
4, 5,
3, 4, 5, 6
5, 6
6
6
Solid and Liquid Pollutants

010100020021000D
Mechanical centrifugal collectors remove particulate by means
of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
centrifugal force
inertia
gravitational force
all of the above
none of the above
010100020021000C
Mechanical centrifugal collectors are not suitable for the
collection of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
very coarse particles

coarse particles
fine particles
rough particles
heavy particles
010100020021000B
Wet scrubbers remove
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
gases only
gases and dust only
particulates only
acidic gases only
dust only
010100020021000A
In an electrostatic precipitator the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
discharge
collector
discharge
particles
discharge
charged
electrode is negatively charged

electrode is negatively charged
electrode is positively charged
are positively charged
electrode and the particles are positively
010100020021000B
The voltage supplied to an electrostatic precipitator is
between
a)
b)
10,000 volts AC and 1,000,000 volts AC

10,000 volts DC and 100,000 volts DC
207
c)
d)
e)
1,000,000 volts AC and 1,000,000,000 volts AC

100,000 DC and 1,000,000,000 volts AC
100,000 AC and 10,000 volts DC
010100020021000C
When ground level sulphur dioxide concentrations are
increasing above allowable limits, the operators choice of
action to reduce the sulphur dioxide emissions includes:
1.
2.
reduce boiler load

increase the voltage level on the electrostatic
precipitators to remove more sulphur dioxide
increase the boiler load to disperse the sulphur
dioxide over a wider area
switch to a low sulphur fuel
shut down the boilers
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
2,
1,
1,
3,
3,
3,
4,
4
4,
4
5
5
5
010100020021000A
Some areas of a power plant are difficult or not economically
suitable to provide a pollution free area in which employees
can work in. These types of areas are:
1.
2.
3.
control rooms
coal conveyor galleries
cleaning ash hoppers or precipitators internally during
a boiler repair
lunch rooms
coal crushing and grinding equipment
steam turbine bays
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,
1,
2,
1,
3,
3,
2,
3,
3,
4,
5, 6
3, 5
4, 5
6
6
010100020021000E
Fly ash is removed from bag filters by a system of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
rollers
hammers
electrostatic precipitators
shakers
rappers
010100020021000E
Fly ash is normally less than
a)
1 mm in diameter
208
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.3 mm in diameter
1,000 microns in diameter
300 microns in diameter
30 microns in diameter
010100020021000D
Fly ash collected by pollution control devices can be used in
the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
petroleum industry
electrical industry
tire industry
construction industry
landscaping industry
010100020021000B
Solid pollutants such as flyash are produced when burning:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
natural gas
heavy fuel oil
wood
coal
1,
2,
1,
3,
1,
4
3, 4
2, 3
4
2, 3, 4
010100020021000E
Solid pollutants emitted from power plants are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
dust
soot
flyash
carbon monoxide
sulphur dioxide
sulphuric acid
all of the above

2, 3, 6
1, 2, 3, 6
2, 4, 5
1, 2, 3
010100020021000C
Liquid pollutants emitted from power plants include:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
water
waste
waste
waste
1, 4
1, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
at elevated temperatures
water from flue gas scrubbing
water from water treatment processes
water from ash handling operations
209
d)
e)
2, 3, 4
2, 4
010100020021000A
"The amount of any gas that water can dissolve depends on the
partial pressure the gas exerts on the free surface of the
water", is stated by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Henry's Law
Boyles's Law
Charles' Law
Dalton's Law
The General Gas Law
010100020021000C
Natural draft cooling towers are divided into
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
dry and wet types

closed and semi-closed types
open and closed types
filled and unfilled types
open and filled types
010100020021000B
The most common type of mechanical draft cooling tower is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a forced draft type

an induced draft type
a wet type
a dry type
a combination wet and dry type
010100020021000D
Air flow in a natural draft cooling tower is dependent upon
the
a)
b)
c)
speed of the cooling fan

volume of water flowing through
partial pressure exerted above the surface of the
reservoir
differences in densities of the air leaving and entering
wind direction
d)
e)
010100020021000C
Advantages of ID cooling towers over FC cooling towers
include:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
accessibility of the fan for maintenance

little chance of icing up in winter
minimum noise
a greater ability to cool the water
ability to recycle the vapour laden air
1, 3, 5
3, 4, 5
2, 3, 4
210
d)
e)
1, 2, 3
2, 3, 5
010100020021000B
Cooling towers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
need only be operated in the summer months

may contribute to the pollution problem
remove heat from the condensate
require fans
do not require any maintenance
010100020021000E
Dry cooling towers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
operate by natural draft

have the cooling water flow from bottom to top
have an ID fan located at the top
have an FD fan located at the bottom
pass the cooling water through a closed circuit of finned
tubes
Potential Environmental Impacts of Liquids

010100020021000B
Hazardous material is not a problem unless
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a loss of product is experienced

a loss of control is experienced
it is noticed by operating personnel
it is present in the environment
it is present in the ecosystem
010100020021000C
A common test to determine pollution in water is the (BOD)
test. BOD stands for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
body oxygen demand

biological oxygen demand
biochemical oxygen demand
biographic oxygen demand
biodegradable oxygen demand
010100020021000B
The two main growth nutrients carried by domestic sewage are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sulphates and nitrates

nitrates and phosphates
phosphates and sulphates
sulphates and suspended solids
sludge and dissolved solids
010100020021000B
211
The ability of water to dissolve oxygen
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
increases with the increase in water temperature

decreases with the increase of water temperature
decreases with the decrease of water temperature
does not change with temperature
none of the above
010100020021000D
Thermally separated layers in lakes are called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
anticlines
inclines
temperature gradients
thermoclines
temperature layers
010100020021000A
An effluent is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a substance that flows out of a process

always pollutant
smog
the result of weather inversion
caused by over production of flue gases
010100020021000B
Phosphates are a common chemical found in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
groundwater
detergents
plant effluent
settling ponds
sludge
010100020021000D
One pollutant that is particularly harmful to the earth's
ozone layer is otherwise known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
DOT's
PVC's
BOD's
CFC's
PCB's
010100020021000E
The pH of industrial effluent can be controlled
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
by
by
by
by
by
the
the
the
the
the
addition of acid
addition of alkaline
addition of water
use of settling ponds
addition of acid or alkaline as required
010100020021000D
Coagulants are substances used to
212
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
control the pH of effluent water

remove dissolved solids from water
remove grease from water
remove small particles from water
remove phosphate and nitrates from water
010100020021000E
Chemical emulsions can be removed by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
settling
additives
centrifugal action
gravity
all of the above
010100020021000D
The best way to dispose of hazardous liquids is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
put them in a landfill

encase them and bury them underground
encase them and bury them at sea
incinerate them at high temperature
inject them down deep wells
010100020021000C
The rate at which a fluid progresses from a spilled area is
governed by its
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
pH
density
viscosity
thickness
weight
010100020021000C
Hazardous liquids should be handled according to information
supplied on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
general safety reports

progress reports
Material Safety Data Sheets
plant operation manuals
Occupational Health and Safety Regulations
010100020021000E
Water that exists in the soil and rock formation is known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
tap water
contaminated water
surface water
soil water
ground water
213
Potential Environmental Impacts of Vapours

010100020021000E
The gaseous pollutant that contributes to acid rain is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ozone
carbon dioxide
carbon monoxide
mercaptan
sulphur dioxide
010100020021000D
Nitrogen oxides are referred collectively as
a)
NO's
b)
NO
2
c)
N O
2
d)
NO
X
e)
N O
2 5
010100020021000A
The upper level gas that shields the earth from ultraviolet
radiation is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ozone
methane
carbon dioxide
chlorofluorocarbons
nitrogen
010100020021000A
The gaseous pollutant that contributes to ozone depletion in
the stratosphere is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
nitrous oxide
sulphur oxide
carbon dioxide
carbon monoxide
methane
010100020021000D
A gaseous pollutant that contributes to acid rain is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
mercaptan
carbon dioxide
methane
nitrous oxides
ozone
214
010100020021000C
The main components of acid rain are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
carbonic acid and sulphuric acid

nitric acid and carbonic acid
nitric acid and sulphuric acid
sulphuric acid and acetic acid
sulphuric acid and carbonic acid
010100020021000C
The greatest effect of acid rain is on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
leaves
plant stems
roots
plant reproductive systems
tree bark
010100020021000E
Incomplete combustion of fuel is responsible for the
production of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
water vapour
carbon dioxide
hydrogen sulphide
sulphur dioxide
carbon monoxide
010100020021000E
In order for acid rain to be formed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
atmospheric temperatures must be correct

water vapour must be present
sunlight must be present
water vapour and cool temperatures must apply
water vapour and sunlight must be present
010100020021000B
Methane gas is sometimes produced by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
insufficient combustion air

decomposition of organic matter in a swamp
the burning of plastics
high intensity sunlight acting on ozone
discharging Halon fire extinguishers
010100020021000A
Greenhouse gases allow
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
high energy waves to pass

low energy waves to pass
long energy waves to pass
short energy waves to pass
allow all energy levels to pass
010100020021000D
215
Carbon dioxide is responsible for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
20%
30%
40%
50%
60%
of
of
of
of
of
greenhouse
greenhouse
greenhouse
greenhouse
greenhouse
gases
gases
gases
gases
gases
010100020021000E
Ozone is harmful at
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
stratospheric levels in the atmosphere

substratospheric levels in the atmosphere
upper levels in the atmosphere
all levels in the atmosphere
lower levels in the atmosphere
010100020021000B
Chlorofluorocarbons
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
contribute to the acid rain problem

destroy ozone after they reach the stratosphere
combine with ozone to produce toxins
are the main heat trapping gases responsible for the
greenhouse effect
break down and become harmless as they rise in the
atmosphere
010100020021000C
The greenhouse effect is responsible for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
heart and circulatory system strain

the diminishing maple sugar industry
drought conditions
fouling on fish gills
the death of microscopic life in lakes
010100020021000B
The most common method of removing sulphur dioxide from flue
gases involves the use of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
caustic soda
limestone
an alkali wash
sodium carbonate
a dilute sulphuric acid wash
010100020021000C
The conversion of nitrogen to nitrogen oxides occurs at
temperatures above
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,250
1,450
1,650
1,850
2,250
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
C
C
C
C
C
216
010100020021000A
To reduce nitrogen oxides in the flue gas, the dual register
burner
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
reduces turbulence to delay combustion hence reducing

temperatures
completes combustion in the burner tube before the
furnace area
supplies cooling air to reduce furnace temperature
increases turbulence for most efficient combustion
uses maximum excess air for combustion at high
temperatures
010100020021000D
Hydrogen as an alternative fuel is considered ideal because
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
it burns at low temperatures therefore minimizing

nitrogen oxide formation
it has nearly the same heating value as carbon
it is safe and easy to store
water vapour is the only product of combustion
the cost of production is minimal
010100020021000C
Regenerable systems used for flue gas desulphurization
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
are less expensive than non-regenerable methods

use lime or limestone in scrubbing the flue gas
produce a marketable by-product
are better developed and more widely applied than
non-regenerable systems
produce no marketable by-product
Potential Environmental Impact of Operating Facilities

010100020021000E
Which of the following, created by operating facilities may
have an adverse affect on the environment:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
noise generation
incomplete combustion
planned vapour release
solid non-toxic wastes
all of the above
010100020021000A
A valuable tool in recognition of an environmental problem is
the use of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
WHMIS
TDG systems
operating systems
reporting systems
incident systems
217
010100020021000D
New facilities such as compressor stations require
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a soil impact study

an air quality impact study
a gas conservation study
a noise impact statement
a wildlife impact statement
010100020021000D
The first action of plant personnel upon finding unplanned
environmental excursion is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
to report the incident to OH&S

to report the incident to Provincial Environmental
Authorities
to report the incident to E.R.C.B.
minimize and control the release
alert the rest of the plant personnel
010100020021000B
Who provides the most effective means of problem recognition
in the plant?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Occupational Health and Safety

operating and maintenance personnel
plant superintendent
cleaning staff
fire marshall
010100020021000E
As a plant ages, changes in operating conditions that affect
the environment are the responsibility of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the ERCB
the company operating the plant
OH&S
the Environmental Review Board
plant operating personnel
010100020021000D
The three types of actions that can result when a problem
area is identified are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
immediate, medium range, and long term actions

permanent, intermediate, and long term actions
permanent, interim, and adoptive actions
permanent, interim, and adaptive actions
short term, adaptive, and long term actions
010100020021000B
The ability of operating personnel to deal with abnormal
environmental conditions in a timely and efficient manner is
facilitated by
218
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
incident plans
emergency plans
adaptive action plans
permanent action plans
continuous action plans
010100020021000E
To lessen environmental incident, operating personnel should
know
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the material they are dealing with

the isolation points in the process
what is required to contain a release
the problems that an upset in a process may cause to the
environment
all of the above
010100020021000C
The acceptable design sound level heard at the nearest
permanently or seasonally occupied dwelling would be stated
in the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
soil impact study

wildlife impact statement
noise impact statement
air quality impact study
gas conservation study
010100020021000A
"Permanent action"
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
deals with and eliminates the root problem

allows you to live with the problem indefinitely
is unattainable
requires a plan to address the problem at the earliest
opportunity
suggests a time frame for follow up
010100020021000A
The most proficient method of dealing with environmental
impacts due to wastes is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
avoid the generation of hazardous waste

ensure it conforms with the TDG Act (Alberta)
ensure that disposal of material waste confirms with
required legislation
conduct periodic inspections of the company used to
dispose of hazardous waste
use long term storage
010100020021000B
When decommissioning and abandoning a processing site
a)
b)
a site restoration proposal must be done

an environmental impact study and a remedial plan must be
made
219
c)
d)
e)
an ERCB approved plan must be implemented

an OH&S study must be done
a company liability study must be done
010100020021000C
Soil contaminated by a hazardous material should be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
flushed with plenty of water

neutralized by an acidic or basic solution
removed, placed in sealed containers and disposed of
contained within the defined boundary
heated to above 500 degrees C to drive off the
contaminants
Engineering Materials
010100020021000E
Resistance to indentation refers to a metals property which
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
brittleness
elasticity
malleability
toughness
hardness
010100020021000D
Malleability of a metal
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
will usually decrease as the temperature rises

is checked using the Charpy tester
means it will crack when struck with a hammer
usually increases with the addition of heat
means the same as "toughness"
010100020021000C
A material that can be drawn out or extended in length
without breakage is said to be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
hard
brittle
ductile
chilled
malleable
010100020021000D
Materials which will break rather than bend when subjected to
an outside force are said to be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
tough
malleable
hard
brittle
stiff
220
010100020021000C
In the process of forming iron, limestone is added to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
pig iron moulds

the iron ore in the moulds
the molten iron ore in order to form slag
make the resulting pig iron more malleable
increase the pig iron elasticity
010100020021000E
The result of removing nearly all the impurities and carbon
from pig iron is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
white cast iron

steel
low carbon steel
coke
wrought iron
010100020021000C
Medium carbon steel becomes difficult to weld when the carbon
content exceeds
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
10%
3.5%
0.35%
0.25%
0.1%
010100020021000E
Pig iron
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is the raw material from which brass is made

has a high percentage of graphite
contains at least 2% carbon
has most of its carbon in a combined state
is the raw material from which cast iron is made
010100020021000D
An element which reduces creep in metal is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
nickel
copper
vanadium
molybdenum
manganese
010100020021000D
In order to avoid residual stresses after welding, alloy
steels
a)
b)
c)
d)
cannot contain any carbon

must contain copper
are not affected by carbon content
should be heated before, during, and after welding
221
e)
must be heated after welding
010100020021000D
When nickel is added to alloy steel, it
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
produces increased hardness

produces improved machineability
causes brittleness
produces improved corrosion resistance
produces improved elasticity
010100020021000C
When chromium is added to alloy steel it produces
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
increased toughness
increased ductility
increased hardness
improved machineability
improved malleability
010100020021000E
Nickel when added to steel
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
improves hardness and brittleness

decreases toughness and corrosion resistance
improves malleability
decreases hardness and brittleness
improves toughness and corrosion resistance
010100020021000B
An alloy of copper, tin, and sometimes zinc is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
brass
bronze
white metal
babbit
low carbon steel
010100020021000E
Copper alloys
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
are
are
are
are
are
harder to machine than copper

not as strong as copper itself
less resistant to corrosion than copper
much lower in carbon content than copper
easier to machine than copper itself
010100020021000B
Aluminum is produced from
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
copper and zinc

bauxite
non-ferrous ore
aluminum ore
babbit
222
010100020021000C
Aluminum alloys are used in the construction of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
condenser tubes
motor casings
internal combustion engine parts
bearing shells
valves and piping
010100020021000A
Bismuth, silver and antimony are sometimes found in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
bearing metals
bronze
copper
brass
chrome products
010100020021000D
Relative to bearing metal or babbit, the greater the amount
of lead it contains
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the greater will be the amount of tin

the load it will be able to support will be less
the faster the equipment will be able to operate
the greater will be the load it will be able to support
the less chance it will have of being alloyed with
antimony
010100020021000D
Brass is an alloy of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
copper and bronze

copper and lead
brass and lead
copper and zinc
copper and tin
010100020021000D
Bearing metal
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is sometimes called babbit metal

is sometimes called white metal
can be heated to any temperature
can be made for different types of service
1,
2,
1,
1,
3,
2,
3,
3,
2,
4
3
4
4
4
010100020021000D
Babbit is composed of
223
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
75%
89%
10%
89%
75%
tin; 15% lead; 10% copper

lead; 7.5% tin; 3.5% copper
tin; 15% antimony; 75% lead
tin; 7.5% lead; 3.5% copper
lead; 15% tin; 10% antimony
Welding Methods
010100020021000A
When "plastic state" and "pressure" are terms used to
describe a type of weld, it is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
forge welding
oxy-acetylene welding
resistance welding
submerged arc welding
electric arc welding
010100020021000E
The oldest form of welding is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
resistance welding
spot welding
plasma arc welding
forge welding
010100020021000D
When a filler rod and very hot flame are used in a welding
process, the weld method is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

heli-arc method
electric arc method
oxy-acetylene method
spot-weld method
010100020021000C
Non-alloy low carbon steel filler rods are most often used
in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

heli-arc welding
forge welding
010100020021000E
Cast iron and malleable iron are commonly repaired using
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
soldering
brazing
224
010100020021000B
A "tinning temperature" is used in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
soldering
brazing
forging
metal cutting
010100020021000E
When braze welding, the filler rod is usually
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
alloy steel
brass
antimony
aluminum
bronze
010100020021000B
When acetylene is stored in a cylinder it is absorbed in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
water
acetone
chromate
phosphate
acetate
010100020021000A
Acetylene should not be used at pressures above
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
103
120
50
25
10
kPa
kPa
kPa
kPa
kPa
010100020021000A
Soft soldering is a form of braze welding where soldering
temperatures are in the range of
a)
150 260 degrees Celsius
b)
500 - 1,000 degrees Celsius
c) 1,000 - 1,200 degrees Celsius
d) 1,200 - 1,500 degrees Celsius
e)
700 900 degrees Celsius
010100020021000C
Solder connections are usually used on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
steel lines
stainless steel lines
copper lines
aluminum lines
cast iron lines
225
010100020021000D
Acetylene hose connections have
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
right hand threads

no threads
slip-on connections
left hand threads
quick couplers
010100020021000A
Which of the following is the colour for an acetylene hose?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
red
green
black
white
yellow
010100020021000B
The following grades of Pressure Welders Certificate of
Competency are established under the Boilers Act:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
"A" and "B"

"A", "B", and "C"
"A"
"B"
"AC" and "DC"
010100020021000D
When brought into an oxygen rich atmosphere, steel will burn
at
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
358 degrees C
507 degrees C
670 degrees C
870 degrees C
1,213 degrees C
010100020021000E
When flame cutting, metal temperature must be brought above
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,000
900
980
1,100
870
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
010100020021000B
When flame cutting, a blast of pure oxygen is directed into the
heated metal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
blow molten metal out

burn away a portion of the metal
cool the metal
produce slag
226
e)
remove slag
010100020021000D
A standard flame cutting torch has __________ holes in the
tip.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
four
three
five
seven
six
010100020021000B
A rectifier used in arc welding
a)
will produce temperatures in the range of 700 to 830

degrees
will change AC to DC
is used for weld inspection
will rectify slag inclusion problems
produces an arc in the temperature range of 8,300 to
13,000 degrees C
b)
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000E
Electric arc temperatures may be as high as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3,000
4,250
5,325
7,450
8,300
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
C
C
C
C
C
010100020021000E
The current supply for electric arc welding may be a/an:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
alternating current
direct current and straight polarity
direct current and reverse polarity
direct current generators
1,
2,
1,
1,
1,
3
3,
2,
3,
2,
4
4
4
3, 4
010100020021000D
If a welding electrode has the following identifying number
"E7015", what does the "70" represent?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
70
70,000
70
70,000
700
kPa
kPa
psi
psi
psi
227
010100020021000A
If a welding electrode has the following identifying number
"E6016", what does the "1" represent?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the welding position

AC or DC with medium penetration
DC reverse polarity with medium penetration
AC with deep penetration
DC with deep penetration
110100020021000E
The electrical power necessary for arc welding may be supplied by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
generators
transformers
rectifiers
pumps
1,
1,
1,
1,
1,
2,
3,
2
2,
2,
3, 4
4
4
3
010100020021000C
With reverse polarity
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the welding electrode is connected to the negative terminal

AC power is supplied to the electrode
the welding electrode is connected to the positive terminal
AC or DC power may be supplied to the electrode
DC power is supplied to the electrode
010100020021000C
With straight polarity
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
AC or DC power may be supplied to the electrode

DC power is supplied to the electrode
the welding electrode is connected to the negative
terminal
AC power is supplied to the electrode
the welding electrode is connected to the positive
terminal
010100020021000D
A welding electrode stamped "E6010" would have a tensile
strength of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
6,000
6,010
6,100
60,000
60,100
psi
psi
psi
psi
psi
010100020021000B
228
The item which keeps the weld from oxidizing, cooling too
fast, and the bead smooth during submerged arc welding is
the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
arc temperature
flux
steadiness of the welder's hand
rod composition
rod rate of feed
010100020021000A
Advantages of submerged arc welding include:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a protective coating is not required over the electrode

the arc is not visible
weld seams are neat and uniform in appearance
a skilled welder is not required to operate the
machinery
very little gas or fumes rise from the weld
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,
1,
2,
3,
1,
3,
4,
3,
4,
3,
5
5
4
5
5
010100020021000C
Submerged arc welding is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an oxyacetylene welding process

an AC electric welding process
an AC or DC electric welding process
a DC welding process
a braze welding process
010100020021000A
A common method used to start the arc in submerged arc
welding is with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a piece of steel wool

a long wooden match
an electric sparker
an oil soaked torch
a striker similar to that used in oxyacetylene
Welding Terms and Inspection

010100020021000A
When a weld pass is made to deposit a backing weld behind the
root pass, it is termed
a)
b)
c)
d)
a backing pass
the axis of the weld
boxing
the lead angle
229
e)
the plug weld
010100020021000B
A gas pocket or weld cavity caused by gas or moisture trapped
in a weld is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a box
a blowhole
coalescence
a crater
spatter
010100020021000A
Coalescence is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the same as fusion

a type of coating used on a welding rod
a term used in brazing
a term used in soldering
the mixing of gases in a cutting torch
010100020021000B
When a weld is made with two pieces of parent metal at or
near the same plane the weld is termed a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
fusion weld
butt joint weld
lap join weld
bevel angle weld
box weld
010100020021000A
When heat from electric current and pressure are used in
welding, it is known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
resistance welding
forge welding
MIG welding
TIG welding
010100020021000E
Non-destructive testing of a weld means
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
testing the weld by means of chemical analysis

raising the hydrostatic pressure on a vessel to the point
of rupture
mechanical testing of a sample or small portion of a weld
thermal shocking a vessel to the point of fracture
subjecting the weld to a radiographic inspection
010100020021000E
Slugging is a term which refers to
a)
creation of a gas pocket created by gas or moisture

trapped in the weld
230
b)
c)
d)
e)
solid non-metallic material trapped in the weld

stresses built up in a structure as a result of welding
metal particles being sprayed out during the welding
process
adding pieces of unspecified rod or metal as filler
during a weld
010100020021000C
Slag inclusion results from
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
metal particles being sprayed out during the weld process

adding pieces of rod or metal as filler to the weld
solid non-metallic material being trapped in the weld
creation of a gas pocket due to trapped gases
stresses built up after the weld process
010100020021000A
A "reducing flame" is one which is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
rich in acetylene
placed an increased distance from the work
oxygen rich
held perpendicular to the weld axis
most likely to cause backfire
010100020021000B
Gas pockets trapped within a weld is commonly called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
flux
porosity
spatter
slugging
fusion
010100020021000C
Flux is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a grouping of gas pockets together in a weld

the unspecified pieces of scrap metal added to a weld to
speed up the process
a granular substance deposited with the weld
the metal added as filler to a weld area
a gas flame which is neither rich in oxygen or acetylene
010100020021000C
Destructive testing of a weld means
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
destruction of one complete weld of a structure or vessel

destruction of the complete vessel after construction
mechanical testing of a sample or small portion of a weld
raising hydrostatic pressure on a vessel to the point of
rupture
thermal shocking a vessel to the point of fracture
010100020021000B
A method of testing a weld which is quick, easy, and
231
inexpensive is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
fluorescent penetrant method

visual method
ultrasonic method
dye penetrant method
radiographic method
010100020021000A
The best method of weld inspection if error is to be avoided
is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
visual method
fluorescent penetrant method
ultrasonic method
dye penetrant method
radiographic method
010100020021000E
When an ultraviolet light is used in weld inspections, the
testing method is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
destructive
dye penetrant
ultrasonic
radiographic
fluorescent penetrant
010100020021000C
The basic difference between fluorescent penetrant and dye
penetrant is that dye penetrant
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
makes valuable use of penetrameters

uses less compounds than fluorescent
involves the use of a developer compound
cannot be reliable in locating porosity in a weld
requires a "black" light to detect cracks
010100020021000D
When penetrameters are used for testing welds, the method
being used is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
dye penetrant
ultrasonic
fluorescent penetrant
radiographic
visual
010100020021000D
When using radiographic inspections, defects such as cracks
and porosity show up as
a)
b)
c)
d)
lighter shadows on the photographic paper

wave signals on a small screen
darker shadows on the penetrameter
darker shadows on the photographic paper
232
e)
lighter shadows on the penetrameter
010100020021000B
Ultrasonic inspection involves the use of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
short wavelength radiations

high frequency vibrations
fluorescent penetrant dye
radiographic penetrameters
gamma rays
010100020021000D
Rules for uses of radiographic and ultrasonic inspection are
covered in the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Rules for Care and Operation of Power Boilers Code

ASME Section IX - Welding and Brazing Qualifications
Canadian Standards B-51
Power Boiler Code Section I
ASME Section II - Materials Specification
Introduction to Piping and Piping Fittings

010100020021000C
The mass of a two metre length of schedule 40 pipe, nominal
size 101.6 mm, is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
12.04 kg
8 kg
31.9 kg
26.92 kg
11.48 kg
010100020021000C
For power plants, materials used for the manufacturing of
pipes must be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cast iron
seamless stainless steel
suited to the operating conditions of the piping system
case hardened
alloyed with sulphur
010100020021000D
In order to convey fluid from one storage tank to another
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
valves are required

pumps are necessary
drains are required
piping is required
control valves are necessary
233
010100020021000A
Two main categories of steel piping manufactured are the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
seamless or welded type

plastic or steel type
ferrous or copper type
thick or thin type
single or double walled
010100020021000B
Since cast iron has a high resistance to corrosion and abrasion,
it is used for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
underground steam lines

ash handling systems
condensate lines
blow-off piping
high pressure service
010100020021000C
Non-ferrous materials used in power plant piping are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
made of asbestos
not allowed by the ASME code
usually made of brass and copper alloys
made of ceramic materials
are made of steel
010100020021000A
Forged steel is used primarily for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
pipe fittings
sewer lines
steam lines conveying super heated steam
ash handling systems
water treatment piping and valves
010100020021000D
The most frequently used material for piping is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
non-ferrous
cast iron
pig iron
steel
plastic
010100020021000E
Cast iron has a high resistance to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
water pressure
condensate pressure
tensile stress
temperature changes
corrosion
010100020021000B
Piping made of copper and brass are called
234
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ferrous materials
non-ferrous materials
soft pipe
bronze materials
residential piping
010100020021000E
Pipe is manufactured in two main categories, welded and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
threaded
soldered
brazed
flanged
seamless
010100020021000B
Up to and including 304.8 mm pipe, the size of the pipe is expressed
as a measure of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
circumference
inside diameter
outside diameter
thickness of the wall
outside radius
010100020021000C
Commercial pipe is made in standard sizes each having
several different:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
weights
colours
thickness'
shapes
threads
1,
2,
1,
4,
2,
5
3, 4
3
5
3, 5
010100020021000A
All classes of pipes of a given size have
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the
the
the
the
the
same
same
same
same
same
outside diameter
inside diameter
length
expansion coefficient
mass per metre run of the pipe
010100020021000D
Double extra strong pipe is denoted by
a)
b)
SS
2S
235
c)
d)
e)
ES
XXS
DES
010100020021000C
A newer method used to designate pipe wall thickness is by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
measuring the thickness with callipers

using a comparitor gage
using schedule numbers
using a pipe gauge
using a pipe graph comparitor chart
010100020021000A
As the wall thickness of a pipe increases the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
inside diameter is reduced

outside diameter increases
the weight of the pipe decreases
the bore of the pipe increases
the pipe becomes less suitable for steam service
010100020021000C
The inside diameter of a pipe is expressed as the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
average pipe size

regular pipe size
nominal pipe size
circumferential pitch
central cross section of service
010100020021000D
For varying wall thickness' of pipe, tables are developed
which give the dimensions and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
volume in cu m
length in cm
diameter in cm square
weight in kg/m
thickness in cm
010100020021000C
Up to and including 304.8 mm pipe, the size is expressed as
_________________ inside diameter.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
natural
normal
nominal
greater
reduced
010100020021000E
In most sizes of pipe, schedule forty corresponds to
__________________ wall thickness.
a)
b)
excessive
regular
236
c)
d)
e)
reduced
higher
standard
010100020021000A
A newer method used to designate pipe wall thickness is
__________________ number.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
schedule
regulation
diameter
circumference
pipe registration
010100020021000B
Copper and copper alloy piping and tubing is not used in
power plants when
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
pressure is a prime factor

temperature is a prime factor
instrumentation systems require tubing
steam becomes corrosive
chemicals are used in the applicable system
010100020021000E
As a piping and pipe fitting material, cast steel is used
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
extensively for fittings

mainly for instrumentation and control piping
for construction of welded pipe
steam traps
primarily for special applications
010100020021000C
Pipe fittings which are not clearly identified should be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
used only with water systems

tested and used
rejected
painted as required by the colour code
reported to the boilers branch
010100020021000D
All markings on pipes and pipe fittings must indicate the
following three minimum requirements:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
material designation
inside diameter
manufacturer's trademark or name
flange type
service designation
national code colour
1,
2,
3,
1,
2,
4,
4,
3,
6
5
6
5
237
e)
4, 5, 6
010100020021000C
The piping service symbols "A", "G", "O" stand for:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ammonia, grease, and oxygen

aluminum, glass, and octane
air, gas, and oil
air, glycol, and oil
ammonia, gas, and octane
010100020021000A
A valve stamped with the following service symbol letters
"G", "A", "S" stands for:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
gas, air, and steam

gaseous substances
grease, acetylene, and sulphur
glue, acid, and salt brine
glycol, air, and saline
010100020021000B
A grey cast iron fitting is identified by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the
not
the
the
the
letters G.C.I.
being marked on the fittings
letters G.C.
letters C.I.
letters G.C.I.F.
010100020021000B
Fittings used to connect a straight run of same size piping
are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
nipples
couplings
bushings
elbows
return bends
010100020021000D
Relative to pipe and fittings, an anchor chair is used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
install piping at considerable height

allow for expansion and contraction of pipe
anchor a slip type expansion joint
support pipe
hold a large fitting in a piping run
010100020021000C
Combine the following gaskets with their use:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
cork
asbestos rope
rubber
metal asbestos
high pressure steam
238
6.
7.
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
lubricating oil
cold water
flue gas ducts
1-7,
1-5,
1-6,
1-8,
1-8,
4-8,
2-6,
3-7,
2-7,
3-6,
3-6,
3-7,
4-5,
3-6,
2-7,
2-5
4-8
2-8
4-5
4-5
010100020021000B
Low pressure steam pipes are usually connected together by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
welding
glands
screwed fittings
flanges
1,
1,
2,
1,
3,
2,
3,
3,
2,
4
3
4
4
3, 4
010100020021000A
The best material for gaskets in very high temperature areas
would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
metallic
cork
nylon
plastic foam
rubber
010100020021000C
A disadvantage of using threads to join pipes and fittings is,
that it
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is more costly
cannot be repaired
weakens the pipe
does not allow for expansion
requires the services of a pipe fitter
010100020021000D
The vanstone type flange fits on the pipe
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
in a fixed position
by being welded onto the inside circumference of the flange
by being threaded on the ends
loosely
by evenly spaced set screws
010100020021000D
When tightening pipe flange bolts
a)
tighten them in sequence
239
b)
c)
d)
e)
the gasket should be held in place by gasket glue

the top bolts must be tightened first
use a cross-over method or criss-cross method of tightening
tighten every second bolt first then tighten the others
010100020021000B
Welding together pipe size of two inch nominal size and
smaller is usually done by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the oxygen-acetylene method

the socket welded method
the butt welded method
non-pressure welders
pipe fitters
010100020021000C
By using backing rings in butt welded pipes, the backing ring
serves to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
reinforce the pipe because of bevelling at the joint

reduce sludge flow
align the pipe
support the pipe to the wall
prevent welding gases from entering the pipe line
010100020021000D
Ring joint gaskets are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
round in cross-section
flat
square in cross-section
oval in cross-section
hollow
010100020021000A
Gaskets are used in pipe flange joints to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
prevent leakage because of small imperfections in the

flange face
allow for pipe expansion between each flanged joint
make up for the misalignment of the pipe
provide cushioning in the event of water hammer
prevent air ingress in high pressure steam mains
010100020021000A
A bellows type corrugated expansion joint is suitable for
pressures up to approximately
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,000 kPa
500 kPa
1,000 kPa
30,000 kPa
15,000 kPa
010100020021000E
A device which incorporates a swirling motion to remove
moisture from a piping system is the
240
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
steam trap
baffle type separator
chevron drier
centrifuge
centrifugal separator
010100020021000D
The two types of expansion joints are the ________________
and the slip expansion joint.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
bolted
fixed
stationary
bellows
rotating
010100020041000B
Expansion of piping is controlled by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
anchoring the pipe at both ends to prevent movement

installing a corrugated expansion joint in the line
installing an expansion bend in the line
anchoring the pipe at both ends and installing hangers
every five metres
1,
2,
2,
1,
2,
2
3
3, 4
2, 3, 4
3, 4
010100020021000A
Expansion bends have the advantage over the expansion joint
for one of the following reasons:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
being stronger
they are thinner
they are heavier
they are cheaper
they are portable
010100020021000D
Expansion bends or joints are implemented in piping systems
to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
allow for correct piping drainage

give allowance for pressure increases
protect against water hammer damage
allow for expansion and contraction of the piping
reduce pipe costs
010100020021000B
Pipe hangers are installed at three metre intervals to:
1.
2.
align the pipe

keep the pipe out of the way of foot traffic
241
3.
4.
5.
provide a proper drainage slope

support the weight of the pipe, valves, and fluid
contained within the pipe
allow for pipe expansion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
1,
1,
1,
2,
2,
3,
2,
2,
3,
4
4, 5
5
3, 4, 5
5
010100020021000D
The bellows type expansion joint is good for pressures up
to approximately
a) 7,000 kPa
b)
700 kPa
c) 15,000 kPa
d) 2,000 kPa
e) 5,000 kPa
010100020021000D
A slip type pipe expansion joint:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is stronger than the bellows types

is actually a pipe within a pipe
can have packing added when in service
has a lubrication fitting
is usually flame fitted to the pipe
1,
1,
1,
1,
2,
3,
2,
2,
2,
3,
4, 5
5
4
3, 4, 5
5
010100020021000B
Before admitting any steam to a steam piping system it is
imperative to first
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
warm the line up properly

positively ensure that no water or condensate exists in
the piping
ensure drain valves are closed
crack open the steam valve
ensure the steam pressure is at maximum value allowed
without the boiler safety valve opening
010100020021000C
Cold water piping systems are usually insulated so that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the loss of heat is prevented

the ingress of heat is prevented
corrosion is minimized or eliminated
appearance is improved
water hammer is eliminated
242
010100020021000E
An insulation suitable for temperatures up to 430 degrees C
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
plastic foam
asbestos
magnesia
glass fibre
cellular glass
010100020021000C
Ease of application and installation is a desirable property
of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
pipe fittings
asbestos insulation
pipe insulation
piping
tubing
010100020021000C
Improper drainage of steam lines could
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
result in excessive steam pressures

cause low pressure in the lines
eventually result in water hammer
give excessive weight to the pipe
render the feed water pump ineffective
010100020021000B
Piping insulation should have the following characteristics:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
1,
1,
1,
1,
be non-corrosive
a low heat conductivity
high eddy current values
be easy to remove from the pipe
retain its shape and insulating value when wet
be vermin proof
2,
2,
3,
2,
3,
4,
5,
4,
3,
5
6
6
5
5
010100020021000A
The main purpose of installing insulation on pipe systems is
to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
prevent heat transfer

give the pipe a neat appearance
prevent injury to personnel due to contact with the
bare surfaces of the pipe
provide a paintable surface
prevent condensate from evaporating in the lines
010100020021000C
243
Plastic foams used for pipe insulation are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
used for high temperature service

for refrigeration system piping only
for lower temperature insulation purposes
prohibited from power plant use
glued directly to the pipe
010100020021000E
Insulating pipes which carry substances lower than the ambient
air temperature, will prevent _________________ on the pipe
and consequent dripping and corrosion.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
discoloration
evaporation
water hammering
expansion
sweating
010100020021000C
The purpose of a steam separator is to
remove ______________ from the steam.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
oil
air
moisture
gas
non-condensables
010100020021000D
The purpose of steam traps is to remove condensate and
_____________________ from steam lines.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
oil
water
chemicals
non-condensables
sludge
010100020021000E
A ______________________ should be installed
just ahead of a steam trap.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
check valve
non return valve
pressure gauge
pressure reducing valve
sediment separator
010100020021000B
A mechanical steam trap
a)
b)
c)
d)
can be fitted in any position

may have a thermostatic air release
should be fitted to the safety valve drain
has alcohol inside the float
244
e)
has a very low pressure range of operation
010100020021000C
A thermostatic trap is controlled by a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
difference in velocity between condensate and steam

combination of bucket and float
temperature differential between condensate and steam
bucket which tips when filled with condensate
high level float control
010100020021000C
A purpose of a steam trap is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
prevent steam from flowing in the steam line

prevent air from flowing in the steam line
automatically drain condensate from steam lines
cause the water in steam lines to accumulate
hold back foreign particles from the steam line
010100020021000C
The purpose of a steam trap is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
collect steam for storage purposes

reduce high pressure steam to a lower pressure
remove condensation from steam lines without allowing steam
to pass
remove steam from a steam line without allowing water to pass
prevent sludge compounds from entering the steam line
010100020021000D
Steam traps are usually located
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
at
at
at
at
at
the
the
the
the
the
highest point of a steam line

highest point of a hot water line
lowest point of a hot water line
lowest point of a steam line
hottest point of a steam line
010100020021000E
The operation of a mechanical steam trap depends on the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
difference in temperature between the steam and condensate

difference in specific gravity between the steam and condensate
difference in pressure between the steam and condensate
liquid level in the condensate tank
liquid level in the steam trap
010100020021000B
Two fittings that can be found on a steam separator are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
gauge glass
pressure gauge
vent valve
steam trap
safety valve
245
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
1,
2,
4,
2,
2
4
3
5
5
Introduction to Valves
010100020021000C
A valve which has the best capability of handling slurries
and fluids with high suspended solids is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
globe valve
gate valve
ball valve
needle valve
plug valve
010100020021000A
A valve having minimum wire drawing and seat erosion is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
globe valve
gate valve
plug valve
hand valve
wedge gate valve
010100020021000E
A valve which requires specific and routine lubrication is
the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
butterfly valve
globe valve
pressure reducing valve
check valve
tapered plug valve
010100020021000D
A valve which often contains a dashpot to cushion the action
of the valve is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
needle valve
swing check valve
pressure regulating valve
lift check valve
safety valve
010100020021000A
Increasing the spring tension of a pressure regulating valve
will
a)
b)
c)
increase the regulated pressure downstream of the valve

close the valve tight
decrease the regulated pressure downstream of the valve
246
d)
e)
cause the valve to go to the wide open position

reduce or minimize the cycling or "hunting" of the valve
010100020021000B
In order to ensure safe and continuous operation of a
pressure reducing valve, the valve station should have
a)
b)
a safety valve on the downstream side

a by-pass loop, downstream safety valve, and a downstream
pressure gage
the piping to the station made of at least Schedule 80
piping
a Y-strainer immediately after the valve
a metal rather than composition diaphragm
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000A
A check valve is a valve that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
allows flow in one direction only

allows flow in two directions
allows flow at regular intervals
does not allow any flow at all
has a locking spindle
010100020021000D
The by-pass around a regulating valve should contain a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
rising stem gate valve

non-rising stem gate valve
swing check valve
rising stem globe valve
lift type check valve
010100020021000C
A gate valve:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
has less restriction in a line than a globe valve

should be operated either fully open or fully closed
is used to throttle flow
is used for different applications than a globe valve
1,
1,
1,
2,
2,
2,
3,
2,
3,
4
3, 4
4
4
4
010100020021000D
A globe valve:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
has less restriction in a line than a gate valve

should be operated either fully open or fully closed
is used to throttle flow
is used for different applications than a gate valve
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 3, 4
247
c)
d)
e)
1, 2, 4
1, 3, 4
2, 4
010100020021000B
Butterfly valves have several advantages such as they:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
only require 1/4 turn to open

are self-cleaning
provide negligible pressure drop when fully open
can have the disc lubricated while in operation
are self-adjusting so alignment is not required during
installation
1,
2,
2,
3,
1,
3
3
4
4, 5
2, 5
010100020021000C
The maximum temperature which a non-special alloy steel valve
can be used for is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
280 degrees C
425 degrees C
650 degrees C
1,000 degrees C
1,500 degrees C
010100020021000E
Relative to valves, a frequent cause of serious accidents is
due to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
valves being of the wrong size

a lack of valve maintenance
inadequate operational training
manufacturing defects
wrong materials of construction
010100020021000B
In order to extend the life of valve packing we can
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
operate the valve at lower temperatures

lubricate the packing regularly with oil
replace the packing annually
manipulate the valve slower
manipulate the valve on a regular basis
010100020021000A
Regular inspection of a valve is important and items which
require close scrutiny are the
a)
b)
c)
disc and seat

stem and body
seat and stem
248
d)
e)
stuffing box and spindle threads

hand wheel and packing
010100020021000E
Valve packing, depending on service, may be made from:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Teflon
manila
impregnated asbestos
Halon
semi-metallic material
1,
2,
1,
3,
1,
2,
3,
2,
4,
3,
5
4
3
5
5
010100020021000C
"Valve trim" consists of the following parts:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
stuffing box
disc
seat ring
bonnet
valve stem
body
guide bushings
1,
3,
2,
1,
2,
2,
4,
3,
2,
3,
4,
5,
5,
6,
4,
6
6
7
7
5
010100020021000B
Material designation of a pipe fitting
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
gives where the material is used

tells what material makes up the fitting
gives the temperature to which the fitting can be
subjected
tells what the material is suited for
is not required for low pressure steam service
010100020021000D
All markings on pipe and pipe fittings shall be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
painted with black paint

made with capital letters
covered for protection
legible
written vertically in capital letters
010100020021000C
Service designation of a pipe fitting indicates the
249
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
type of liquid used in the fitting

type of gas used in the fitting
temperature-pressure rating of the fitting
maximum pipe fluid flow velocity
maximum viscosity of the fluid
010100020021000C
Pressure and/or temperature rating of a fitting is known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
material designation
manufacturer's trademark
service designation
thermal designation
work requirement
010100020021000E
The advantage of a rising spindle steam stop valve is that:
1.
you can tell from a distance if the valve is open or

closed
it provides a place to install isolation tags
it may be easily lubricated
the threaded part is not exposed to corrosion by the
high temperature steam
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3,
1,
1,
2,
1,
4
2,
2,
3,
3,
4
3
4
4
010100020021000B
The purpose of the non-return valve is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
prevent water from entering the steam header

prevent the back flow of steam
drain condensate from the main steam header
prevent the safety valve from popping
regulate the flow of steam from the boiler
Development of Boiler Design

010100020021000C
A straight tube longitudinal drum boiler with a chain grate
stoker usually had
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
one pass
two passes
three passes
four passes
an internal furnace
010100020021000C
The Haycock boiler was
250
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a watertube unit
of multiple flue gas pass design
used around 1720
of welded construction
a packaged unit
010100020021000A
A characteristic which made early boilers very inefficient
was
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
lack of heating surface

an excess of flat surfaces
the internal furnace
lack of good quality fuels
inadequate water treatment
010100020021000A
An early boiler having a longitudinal shell or drum had as
its heating surface
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
only the lower part of the shell

the lower part of the shell and the rear plate or head
the total shell side and one end plate or head
only the one end plate
two passes along the shell or drum
010100020021000C
Thermal flooding boilers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
are often termed "Hot Water Boilers"

are low capacity units
are used to inject steam into geological formations
do not use water as the heat transfer medium
are used in the generation of electricity
010100020021000B
The first boiler to have an internal furnace was the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
HRT boiler
Scotch boiler
longitudinal drum firetube boiler
locomotive boiler
watertube boiler
010100020021000E
A _________________ is a water-filled section which
surrounds the firebox in locomotive boilers.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
crown sheet
boiler drum
tell tale stay
steam dome
water leg
010100020021000E
The first boiler to have firetubes became known as the
251
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Haycock boiler
Scotch boiler
Mushroom boiler
Haystack boiler
HRT boiler
010100020021000D
The water leg was introduced with the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
scotch boiler
longitudinal drum boiler
watertube boiler
locomotive boiler
HRT boiler
010100020021000A
Safety, efficient operation, and economical fuel consumption
are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
main considerations when designing boilers

the main advantages of a watertube unit over a firetube
unit
the result of "packaged unit" construction
due to improved metals and alloys
the results of environmental protection laws
010100020021000C
The steam space of a boiler must be large in order to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
keep the steam pressure down

reduce the cooling effect of water
separate the water from the steam
accommodate all the steam riser tubes
accommodate a steam separator
010100020021000B
Waterlegs generally
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
act as support for a boiler

surround a furnace
do not act as heating surface
do not require staying
never presented any waterside problems
010100020021000B
All parts of the boiler exposed to fire or hot gases must be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
made of firebrick
covered by water
air cooled
fitted with expansion joints
covered with ceramic tile
010100020021000B
Boiler structural strength must
252
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
be at least ten times the normal working pressure rating

be at least equal to the various code requirements
take into account only pressure values and not consider
temperatures
be increased if thinner metal is to be used
be verified by the purchaser
010100020021000A
A steam boiler should be compact in design in order to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
reduce building costs

be easier to move
weigh less
be easier to maintain
reduce operating costs
Basic Boiler Terminology

010100020021000C
A boiler which will start and stop without human help once a
start-up is initiated is termed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
semi-automatic
self regulating
automatic
modulating controlled unit
packaged
010100020021000B
The maximum energy input to a hot water supply boiler is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
454 L per minute

58.7 kW
20,000 BTU
127 Imperial gallons per minute
587 kW
010100020021000B
For horizontal firetube boilers, the lowest visible water
level in the gage glass is set not less than __________ above
the highest point of the tubes.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2 inches
3 inches
50 mm
1 inch
25 mm
010100020021000E
A low pressure steam boiler is one which operates
a)
b)
c)
d)
at an
above
above
above
energy input above 58.7 kW

103 kPa
121 degrees C
1100 kPa
253
e)
at or below 103 kPa
010100020021000E
A device used on smaller heating boilers to measure water
"head" or height is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
gage glass
header
pressure gage
siphon
altitude gage
010100020021000A
An example of a boiler fitting would be a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
temperature controller
forced draft fan
combustion chamber
drum
sootblower
010100020021000D
An induced draft fan handles
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
air from the combustion process

air going to the combustion process
flue gases going to the combustion process
flue gases from the combustion process
fuel gases from the combustion process
010100020021000B
The lowest permissible water level of a power boiler is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
25
50
25
50
76
mm
mm
mm
mm
mm
below
below
above
below
below
the
the
the
the
the
lowest visible water line

lowest visible water line
fireline
fireline
visible water line
010100020021000E
A device which must be replaced each time it performs its
function is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
low water fuel cut-off

high steam pressure limiting control
safety valve
blowoff valve
rupture disk
010100020021000C
On older boilers the brickwork which tended to surround the
furnace was termed
a)
b)
c)
d)
the boiler firebox

refractory
the setting of the boiler
the boiler casing
254
e)
the windbox
010100020021000D
A device which usually uses air or steam to do its job is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
siphon
operating control
burner
sootblower
try cock
010100020021000D
A boiler component which surrounds the burner of most boilers
is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
waterleg
stack
uptake
windbox
refractory
010100020021000E
The low water cut-off is a device fitted to the boiler to
shut the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
feed water supply off, if the fuel supply is too low

feed water supply off, if the steam pressure becomes
too high
feedwater supply off, if the boiler temperature becomes
too high
fuel valve off if the water level becomes too high
fuel valve off if the water level becomes too low
010100020021000C
Manholes are openings through which a person can
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
enter the boiler furnace

inspect the boiler uptake
enter the boiler shell or drum
enter and inspect the steam header
enter the ash hopper
010100020021000B
A furnace baffle is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
used to prevent the fire from striking the tubes

installed to direct the hot flue gases
used to prevent the water from surging
used to deflect the flame
installed to prevent carryover
010100020021000D
The windbox of a boiler is
a)
b)
where the fuel and air are mixed for combustion

what the forced draft fan is installed into
255
c)
d)
e)
the collector of the exhaust gases before they go into

the uptake
the ductwork surrounding the burners on the outside of
the boiler into which the air for the burners is
introduced
always maintained under a negative pressure
010100020021000A
A check valve
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
allows flow in one direction only

regulates the flow of feedwater to the boiler
is used to isolate the steam gage
is not considered a fitting
will "pop" open when pressure inside the drum reaches a
set point
010100020021000C
A steam gage
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
indicates the level of water in a boiler

is not considered a boiler fitting
indicates the internal pressure of the boiler
is required on power boilers only
will reset once the boiler pressure has dropped
Firetube Boilers
010100020021000C
HRT boiler firetubes have a diameter range of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
25 to 51 mm
51 to 102 mm
76 to 102 mm
102 to 137 mm
125 to 176 mm
010100020021000B
A device used to prevent the carry-over of moisture with the
steam of an HRT boiler is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
internal pipe
dry pipe
nozzle
head pipe
crown tube
010100020021000C
With regard to a steam boiler, the lettering "HRT" means
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
highly regulated temperature

hot return tubes
horizontal return tubular
highly regulated treatment
horizontal receiver tubes
256
010100020021000A
An advantage of a locomotive boiler over other boilers of the
era was
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
rugged construction
better cleaning and repair access
improved water circulation
less stays were required
lower maintenance costs
010100020021000E
A component used to increase the volume of the steam space in
a locomotive boiler was the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
crown sheet
steam leg
shell head
dry pipe
steam dome
010100020021000C
A boiler which utilized a waterleg and was primarily used for
heating purposes was the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
HRT boiler
locomotive boiler
firebox boiler
Scotch boiler
marine boiler
010100020021000D
A major disadvantage of a firebox is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
first cost is relatively high

it has a low heat transfer efficiency
it is not very compact
cleaning and inspection can be difficult
it has only one flue gas pass
010100020021000B
The firebox boiler is a _______________________ pass firetube
boiler.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
single
two
three
vertical
horizontal
010100020021000E
A corrugated furnace will give required strength with thinner
metal, increase heating surface, and
a)
b)
increase the boiler mass

add to the overall material cost of the unit
257
c)
d)
e)
decrease combustion turbulence

will necessitate the boiler being made longer
allow for differential expansion and contraction
010100020021000B
The wetback Scotch boiler was designed primarily for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
building heating service

marine service
traction engine service
railway service
very high capacity electrical generation
010100020021000D
In a packaged firetube boiler the flue gas velocity within
the unit is maintained by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
increasing forced draft fan speed

constructing a taller stack
varying the firetube lengths
varying the total cross-sectional area of the fire tubes
in each pass
decreasing forced draft fan speed
010100020021000D
A boiler which is built ready for installation is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Scotch marine boiler

firebox boiler
HRT boiler
packaged boiler
locomotive boiler
010100020021000D
A firetube boiler is one which has
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
water on the inside of the tubes and the hot gas of combustion
on the outside.
the furnace as the first pass of the burner flame.
water on the outside of the tubes and hot water on the inside
of the tubes.
water on the outside of the tubes and the hot gas on the inside
of the tubes.
internally fired tubes surrounded by water.
010100020021000E
When the hot combustion gases travel through boiler tubes which
are surrounded by the boiler water, the boiler is called a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
watertube boiler
tubular boiler
packaged boiler
coil type boiler
firetube boiler
010100020021000D
The advantages of a packaged boiler are:
258
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
2,
2,
1,
2,
lower freight costs because of less handling

lower initial cost because they are mass produced
quality control is easier to implement
the boilers can be factory tested before being sent
to the customer
it requires little time to put the unit into operation
at the plant site
3
5
3, 4
2, 3, 4, 5
3, 4, 5
Watertube Boilers
010100020021000C
In a longitudinal straight tube boiler the downcomer fed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
"cool" water to the steam drum

"hot" water to a riser
"cool" water to a rear header
"cool" water to a front header
"hot" water to the water tubes
010100020021000D
A packaged watertube boiler having two mud drums is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
"O" type
"D" type
three drum bent-tube type
"A" type
Sterling type
010100020021000D
High pressure watertubes
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
are always smaller than firetubes

are elliptical in cross-section
are always straight
can be of various bent configurations
require pumps for circulation
010100020021000B
Bent tube watertube boilers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cannot have the furnace water-lined

make more efficient use of the furnace
are externally fired
cannot be fitted with heat recovery components
have poor utilization of floor space
010100020021000C
259
A cross drum straight tube boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
could not have higher capacity than a longitudinal drum

unit
was usually only of single pass design
could have more inclined tubes than a longitudinal drum
unit
is a very popular design in today's plants
was internally fired
010100020021000E
Watertube boilers are better suited to higher pressures
than firetube boilers, because they:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
1,
2,
1,
1,
incorporate a bent tube design

are larger than firetube boilers
do not have flat surfaces subjected to pressure
usually have smaller diameter tubes
have smaller diameter drums
2
3,
3,
2,
3,
5
5
5
4, 5
010100020021000C
The use of bent tube boiler designs allows the furnace wall
to be lined with tubes, thereby exposing more of the heating
surface to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
convection heat
conducted heat
radiant heat
residual heat
latent heat
010100020021000D
The bent tube boiler design allows the tubes to be attached
radially on the outside of the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
furnace
superheater
economizer
shell or drum
air preheater
010100020021000D
Since furnace pressure is often positive on a packaged
watertube boiler, in order to prevent flue gas leakage
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an induced draft fan is incorporated

smoke stacks are made taller
an economizer is used
a steel casing forms a seal for the furnace
sootblowers cannot be used
260
010100020021000A
Excessive vibrations caused by inadequate support of a
watertube boiler can result in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
insulation failure
water level control problems
tube failure
drum fracture
combustion control problems
010100020021000A
A problem with a D-type watertube packaged boiler is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
excessive vibration
ceiling height requirements
refractory maintenance for the external furnace
its need to be top supported
its poor water circulation
010100020021000B
A unit which would most likely utilize a cyclone furnace
would be the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Sterling watertube boiler

steam generator
packaged watertube boiler
"D" type boiler
three drum bent-tube boiler
010100020021000A
Large steam generating units may have their superheaters
located:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,
4,
1,
1,
3,
beneath the furnace

in the convection zone
in the main waterwall header
in the radiant zone
in the downcomer pipe
4
5
3
2, 5
4, 5
010100020021000D
Large steam generators
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
are bottom supported

are fired by pulverized coal only
have sluggish water circulation
are usually of the water tube type
have beaded tubes
010100020021000B
Large steam generating units are usually built so that high
pressure, high temperature, and dry steam can be generated in
261
order that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
more fuel can be fired

large steam turbines can be used to drive electrical generators
higher furnace temperatures can be attained
less water treatment is necessary
stack temperatures can be maintained at a high level
to prevent condensation
010100020021000E
A steam generator economizer is usually located
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
between the air preheater and ID fan

between the primary and secondary superheaters
after the reheater
in the furnace section
between the air preheater and primary superheater
010100020021000D
The most economical fuel to burn in a steam generator is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
natural gas
crushed coal
heavy fuel oil
pulverized coal
crude oil
010100020021000A
Economizers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
increase the boiler efficiency

are installed before the superheater
increase the steam temperature
increase the air temperature
increase the flue gas temperature
010100020021000B
Air heaters in a boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
are installed between the superheater and the economizer.

reduce the temperature of the flue gases going to the stack.
help the boiler from freezing during the winter period.
increase the flue gas temperature.
maintain a steady higher temperature in the stack.
010100020021000A
Air heaters are implemented in steam generating units in order
to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
recover heat from the hot flue gases

improve boiler thermal efficiency
produce dryer steam
heat the feedwater
1, 2
2, 3
1, 2, 4
262
d)
e)
3, 4
2, 3, 4
010100020021000B
Combustion air for the burners is preheated in the
_____________________ by hot flue gases.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
economizer
air heater
superheater
windbox
furnace
Electric Boilers
010100020021000D
Electric boilers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
require tall stacks for pollution dispersal

tend not to be very compact
require sootblowers when fuel is coal
have energy conversion efficiencies close to 100%
are not as safe as other boilers
010100020021000D
A main disadvantage of an electric boiler is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
they are not very compact

furnace refractory tends to be high maintenance item
vibration requires special footings
input energy cost is high
energy transfer efficiency is low
010100020021000D
An advantage of an electric boiler is, that it
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
has a high steaming rate

can be operated at high pressures and temperatures
produces very dry steam
has a high efficiency of energy transfer from the
electricity to the boiler water
does not require an operator
010100020021000A
An advantage of an electric boiler is that it
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is silent in operation
can rapidly produce steam
can produce steam at very high pressures
requires only one blow-off valve
does not require a sight glass
010100020021000E
Most electric boilers are limited in pressure to about
2100 kPa due to the effect of high temperature on the
263
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
steam space
submerged area
boiler fittings
vessel structure
elements or electrodes
010100020021000D
A boiler which incorporates a basket and a basket drain valve
is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
steam generator
immersion boiler
Sterling boiler
electrode boiler
thermal flood boiler
010100020021000B
Operating voltage for an electrode boiler may be as high as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
30,000 volts
16,000 volts
5,000 volts
550 volts
240 volts
010100020021000B
Electrode boiler capacities can be as high as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
16,000 kW
30,000 kW
1,200 kPa
1,200 kW
30,000 kPa
010100020021000D
The electrode type boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cannot have a varying load

must operate at very constant pressure
utilizes bundles of electric elements
requires water which conducts electricity
will produce hydrogen by electrolysis of water
010100020021000B
The steam produced by an electrode type boiler depends on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the
the
the
the
the
voltage supplied to the elements

level of water in the basket
number of heating elements engaged
number of baffles
amperage supplied to the elements
010100020021000A
The amount of current passed through the water of an electrode
boiler depends on
264
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the
the
the
the
the
depth of the electrodes in the water

control valve setting
steam pressure in the boiler
water quality
water temperature
010100020021000E
One disadvantage of an electric boiler is that it
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
requires alternating current

requires DC power
has no chimney
is not very efficient
is very expensive to operate
010100020021000D
A __________ is not required on an electrode electric type
boiler.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
safety valve
gauge glass
blow-off valve
low water cut-off
pressure gauge
010100020021000A
An immersion electric boiler capacity can be as high as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,500 kW
2,100 kW
30,000 kW
16,000 kW
5,000 kW
010100020021000B
Immersion boiler tube bundles
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
act to conduct current through the water

can be easily removed from the unit for maintenance
purposes
cannot be used to regulate steaming capacity
have very low electrical resistance
operate at only one voltage
010100020021000C
There are two general designs of electric boilers. They are the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
firetube type and water tube type

AC and DC type
electrode and immersion type
grounded and ungrounded type
reverse polarity and negative ground
010100020021000B
Control of the immersion heater boiler is done by
a)
transforming the voltage to a lower value
265
b)
c)
d)
e)
turning the power on and off to the elements as required

a float switch
increasing and decreasing water flow
recirculating boiler water
010100020021000E
The immersion heater boiler has its elements arranged
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
as isolated units in the steam space

equally spaced in the steam space
outside the boiler shell to provide easy access for
maintenance
for operation in sequence on the underside of the shell
as groups of elements submerged in the water space
010100020021000B
Control of the immersion heater boiler is done by turning on
and off the ___________________ supply to one or more
elements as required.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
water
power
steam
amperage
current
Basic Boiler Construction

010100020021000B
Common shell and drum thickness range is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2 to 12 mm
6 to 250 mm
15 to 300 mm
100 to 1,000 mm
200 to 250 mm
010100020021000C
One or more steel plates rolled into cylindrical form and welded
together, with the ends closed by means of end plates or heads,
is called a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
combustion chamber
packaged boiler
steam or water drum
steam header
steam space
010100020021000A
The circumferential seam of a riveted boiler shell utilized
the
a)
b)
lap joint, single or double riveted

treble riveted butt joint
266
c)
d)
e)
double equal strap double riveted butt joint

double unequal strap treble riveted butt joint
always a single riveted lap joint
010100020021000A
Head-to-drum circumferential joints are usually
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
double
single
fillet
double
fillet
welded
welded
welded
welded
welded
butt joints
edge joints
corner joints
tee joints
lap joints
010100020021000C
With regard to welding, heat treatment
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
will increase the hardness of the material

results in better penetration of the weld
will relieve stresses in the material due to welding
is done before the actual welding takes place
is done to warm the welding machine before use
010100020021000E
A non-destructive test on a boiler is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a tensile test
a bend test
a shear test
an X-ray test
all of the above
010100020021000B
Post weld heat treatment is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
to make the material hot enough for welding

heating the material after welding
to improve weld penetration
to clean up the welded area
done to reduce corrosion
010100020021000B
Tubes for high pressure service are usually
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
resistance welded construction

roll and pierce construction
lap welded construction
flared into the drum or tubesheet
of 2 metre maximum length
010100020021000C
A tube expander is used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
break loose scale in the tube

break loose scale outside the tube
expand and flare the tube
bead the tube
expand the entire tube
267
010100020021000D
The flat surfaces which require staying in a firetube boiler
are the tubesheets, waterlegs, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
furnace tubes
flue gas baffles
uptakes
crown sheets
access doors
010100020021000A
Boiler stays
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
are used to support flat surfaces in a boiler

are mostly used in water tube boilers
have to be replaced every two years
are used for hot water heating boilers only
are made of hollow tubes
010100020021000C
A major force which acts to hold a manway door in place
during boiler operation is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the bolt
the combination of bolt and yoke
pressure within the boiler
the manway gasket
the yoke
010100020021000E
A boiler nozzle attachment2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
can be found in the area of the burner

is always installed vertically
allows a connection for the uptake
is used for steam cleaning the fireside
nearly always accommodates a valve or fitting
010100020021000B
Manholes are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
installed on all boilers

provided for inspection purposes
always circular in shape
installed on fossil fired boilers only
always oval in shape
010100020021000D
A Morison furnace is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
found in electric boilers

found in locomotive boilers
found in watertube boilers
found in firetube boilers
a ring-reinforced type furnace
268
010100020021000E
Internal furnaces are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
mostly used to superheat the steam

contained within the windbox of a boiler
used to increase the strength of the drum
used for oil firing only
contained within the shell of the boiler
010100020021000C
With a bottom-supported boiler, the steam drum is usually2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a cross-drum
supported by
supported by
supported by
placed below
configuration
an overhead girder arrangement
the watertubes
piers
the centreline of the unit
010100020021000B
Boilers supported from the top
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
are
are
can
are
can
mostly package boilers

free to expand vertically
only be used on small units
usually not of the large water tube type
only use straight tubes
010100020021000D
Three types of furnace water-walls are the tangent tube,
welded fin, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
flat stub
corrugated
refractory backed
flat stud
metal lath
010100020021000C
In early boilers furnace walls were constructed of brick.
Today this method has been replaced by the use of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
baffles
steel casing
tubes to form the furnace walls
plastic insulation
block insulation
Boiler Draft Equipment

010100020021000D
A way of increasing natural draft is to
a)
b)
c)
incorporate a forced draft fan

have the outside air temperature increase
install an induced draft fan
269
d)
e)
increase stack height

decrease the amount of excess air
010100020021000E
When draft is produced by natural means,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
hot air surrounding the boiler increases draft

fans can control the flue gas flow
a short stack will increase draft
the diameter of the stack will improve the draft
cooler air surrounding the boiler increases draft
010100020021000D
Primary air
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is supplied in the combustion zone

is the same as excess air
is supplied on all types of burners
is pre-mixed with the fuel before being admitted to the
furnace
enters the furnace before the fuel
010100020021000B
A more durable chimney for power plant application is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
brick chimney
reinforced concrete chimney
steel chimney
insulated steel chimney
guy wire supported chimney
010100020021000C
Chimneys are commonly lined with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
concrete
common brick
clay
mortar
insulation
010100020021000C
The advantage of a steel stack over a reinforced concrete
stack is that a steel stack
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is more durable
requires less maintenance
is a lower cost
has a longer life
is more resistant to abrasive flue gases
010100020021000A
Relative to draft, a steam jet is very popular
a)
b)
c)
d)
on railway steam locomotives

as a fuel atomizer
as a forced draft unit
for increasing furnace pressure
270
e)
for decreasing draft during cold weather
010100020021000D
What are the advantages of mechanical draft?
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
1,
1,
2,
3,
dependent on atmospheric air temperatures

independent of the chimney temperature
better draft regulation
can be regulated accurately
2,
2,
3,
3,
4
3, 4
3
4
4
010100020021000C
In a balanced draft system the air heater is placed:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
2,
2,
1,
1,
between ID fan and stack

between ID fan and boiler
between forced draft fan and boiler
on inlet ducting to forced draft fan
2, 3
3, 4
3
4
3, 4
010100020021000A
The most efficient operation of a fan demands that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the speed be only sufficient enough to supply the required

amount of air
inlet damper controls are used
outlet damper controls are used
constant speed electric motors are used
gaseous fuels be fired
010100020021000A
Balanced draft
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
means furnace pressure is maintained at some desired

value
means air flow is always constant
requires an FD and ID fan, never just an FD fan
can be accomplished with just a chimney
means air and fuel quantities are the same per unit time
010100020021000E
An induced draft fan
a)
b)
c)
is physically smaller than a forced draft fan

has less expensive materials of construction than an FD
fan
handles only air
271
d)
e)
discharges air to the windbox

operates at much higher temperatures than an FD fan
010100020021000D
A pressurized furnace is usually associated with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
balanced draft
induced draft
natural draft
packaged boilers with FD
large steam generators
010100020021000A
Induced draft may be accomplished by a:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
steam jet
fan
windbox
forced draft fan
1,
2,
2,
2,
3,
2
3, 4
4
3
4
010100020021000C
In a balanced draft system, the forced draft fan is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
larger than the induced draft fan

the same size as the induced draft fan
smaller than the induced draft fan
designed to handle hot combustion gases
subjected to the products of combustion and high temperatures
010100020021000A
In a forced draft system, the furnace pressure is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
above atmospheric pressure

below atmospheric pressure
at atmospheric pressure
measured in psi
not a factor
010100020021000E
With an axial flow fan the air flow
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is at right angles to the windbox

is at right angles to the shaft
does not come in contact with the driving motor
is the most efficient
is parallel to the shaft
010100020021000A
A boiler with only an induced draft fan
a)
will have a negative furnace pressure
272
b)
c)
d)
e)
does need an airtight furnace

needs a very long stack
will have a positive furnace pressure
cannot maintain a stable fire
010100020021000E
Boiler combustion is regulated by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
varying the
controlling
varying the
controlling
controlling
speed of an ID fan
or regulating the fuel flow
speed of an FD fan
or regulating the air flow
the air and fuel flow
010100020021000A
The simplest way of measuring draft is with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an inclined manometer
a Bourdon tube device
a flexible diaphragm device
a hydrometer
a bellows measuring device
010100020021000D
The most efficient operation of a fan occurs when
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
draft
draft
draft
speed
speed
is
is
is
is
is
balanced
FD only
ID only
just enough to meet the demand
at maximum
010100020021000A
When the least amount of energy is desired to drive a fan
with variable output control, the type of control used would
most likely be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
variable speed coupling

inlet damper control
outlet damper control
register control
variable speed driver
010100020021000E
Inlet damper control on a fan
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is less complicated than an outlet damper control

requires more power to drive the fan when the vanes are
closed
can only be used when the fan is driven by a steam turbine
is used on forced draft fans only
requires less power to drive the fan at reduced loads
010100020021000A
Proper draft is important to the plant operator because it
a)
produces efficient combustion
273
b)
c)
d)
e)
delivers the products of combustion to a high altitude

reduces the volume of ash and slag
prevents toxic gases from leaking out of the system
satisfies the codes
010100020021000B
With a fan outlet damper control
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the fan air pressure decreases with a decrease in

air flow
the fan air pressure increases with a decrease in
air flow
it is placed in the suction side of fan
fan output is difficult to control
flue gas velocity will rise
010100020021000C
When an air heater is used in a boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the forced draft fan supplies hot gases to the heater

the induced draft fan supplies combustion air to the
air heater
it increases the efficiency of the boiler
the boiler usually has only a forced draft fan
a balanced draft system cannot be incorporated
010100020021000D
Draft measuring instruments can be used to measure:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
3,
1,
1,
3,
wind box pressure

steam pressure
air heater flue gas pressure
furnace pressure
feedwater pressure
2,
4,
2,
3,
4,
3
5
3, 4
4
5
010100020021000E
When a diaphragm draft gauge is used to measure furnace draft
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
furnace draft connections are on both sides of the

diaphragm
it can only be used on a balanced draft system
it can only be used on a forced draft system
it can only be used for positive pressures
the furnace draft connection is on one side of the
diaphragm
010100020021000C
Adequate openings for combustion air must be provided in
enclosed boiler rooms. These openings
a)
may include doors and windows
274
b)
c)
d)
e)
should be located at the top of the room near the ceiling

should be located at the bottom of the room near the
floor
are a standard size for all boilers
are only for high pressure boilers
010100020021000A
Inclined "U" tubes may be used to measure:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1.
2.
3.
4.
fan
fan
air
air
1,
3,
1,
2,
4
2, 3
4
4
3, 4
discharge pressure
suction pressure
heater flue gas pressure
heater flue gas temperature
010100020021000B
If a "U" tube is connected to the discharge of a forced draft
fan the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
connection to the fan will have a higher liquid level

than the open end
open end will have a higher liquid level than the
connection to the fan
liquid level will be the same in both sides of the
"U" tube
liquid will be drawn into the forced draft stream
liquid will expand
010100020021000D
The inclined tube manometer operates
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
on
so
so
on
by
a different principle than the "U" tube manometer

that only positive pressure can be measured
that only a vacuum can be measured
the same principle as a "U" tube manometer
displacing a compressed gas
Introduction to Boiler Combustion

010100020021000D
The balanced equation for the complete combustion of hydrogen
is
a)
H
2
+ O = H O + heat
2
b)
2H + O
c)
+ 2O
= H O + heat
2
= 2H O + heat
275
2
d)
2H
+ O
e)
2H
+ 2O
= 2H O
2
heat
= 2H O + heat
2
010100020021000E
The balanced equation for the incomplete combustion of carbon
is
a)
C + O
b)
2C + O
= CO + heat
= CO + heat
2
c)
C + 2O
d)
2C + 2O
= 2CO + heat
= 4CO + heat
2
e)
2C + O
= 2CO + heat
010100020021000D
The purpose of combustion controls is to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
2,
3,
1,
2,
control fuel flow and air flow into the furnace

maintain the proper ratio of air to flue gas
maintain the proper ratio of air to fuel
maintain the correct furnace pressure in a balanced
system
maintain a negative pressure in the furnace when
using a force draft fan
2,
3,
4,
3,
4,
3
4
5
4
5
010100020021000C
The combustion equation C + O2 =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
CO
CO + heat
CO2 + heat
2 CO2
2C + 2O
010100020021000D
The combustion equation 2 H2 + O2 =
a)
H2O + heat
276
b)
c)
d)
e)
H2O
2 H2O
2 H2O + heat
2H + O2
010100020021000A
The combustion equation S + O2 =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
SO2 + heat
2 SO2 + heat
SO2
SO2 + S
2S + O
010100020021000B
Which of the following supports combustion?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
smoke
oxygen
nitrogen
hydrogen
carbon dioxide
010100020021000C
Which of the following are necessary to complete combustion
of a fuel:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
2,
1,
1,
3,
enough air must be supplied

the temperature of the furnace must be high enough
there must be enough water in the boiler
enough time must be allowed for the fuel to burn
the safety valve must be properly set
the air and fuel must be thoroughly mixed together
3,
3,
2,
2,
5,
4,
4,
4,
3,
6
6
5
6
4
010100020021000B
Which element in the air will combine with the combustible elements
of the fuel?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
nitrogen
oxygen
hydrogen
carbon dioxide
carbon monoxide
010100020021000D
The amount of air required to supply just enough oxygen for
complete combustion is called the
a)
b)
c)
exact air
perfect air
primary air
277
d)
e)
theoretical air
secondary air
010100020021000B
Combustion air openings are required by code and combustion
air can be said to be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
all air which contacts the raw fuel before the burner
all air which contributes to the completion of combustion
excess air
all air which enters the boiler furnace, including high
excess air
atomizing air
010100020021000E
The amount of excess air required for combustion is
determined by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ambient temperature of the outside air

air supply pressure
size of the boiler
load on the boiler
composition and condition of the fuel
010100020021000C
Insufficient air for combustion will result in:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
3,
1,
2,
1,
carbon in flue gases

high oxygen reading in flue gases
low oxygen reading in flue gases
high CO in flue gases
higher than normal flue gas temperature
2,
4,
3,
3,
3,
3
5
4
4
5
010100020021000E
The approximate amount of excess oxygen for gaseous fuel is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
10%
7%
5%
15%
2%
010100020021000B
The approximate amount of excess air for fuel oil is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
20%
15%
10%
5%
2%
278
010100020021000A
In winter, the white smoke coming from the stack is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
wet steam from combustion of the hydrogen in the fuel

carbon dioxide
sulphur dioxide
carbon monoxide from incomplete combustion of the carbon
in the fuel
unburned hydrogen
010100020021000A
Black smoke can be caused by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

too high a boiler pressure
too much nitrogen in the air
too much combustion air
high temperature combustion air
010100020021000E
Carbon monoxide is both explosive and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
inert
expensive
non-compressible
grey in colour
toxic
010100020021000D
The refining process for fuel oils involves separating the
crude oil into end products which have distinguishing
characteristics such as specific gravity, viscosity, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
colour
odour
heating value
boiling point
solids content
010100020021000C
A major disadvantage of oil over coal is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the oil does not burn as clean

oil is more difficult to control
oil is more expensive and less abundant
coal requires less storage space
oil requires more handling labour
010100020021000A
Ethane is a component of natural gas and constitutes a
percent volume of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
10 - 20%
80 - 90%
60 - 70%
5 - 10%
30 - 40%
279
010100020021000E
Using preheated air with solid fuels
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
increases air pollution

creates soot which is heavy and difficult to remove
necessitates the use of better grades of fuel
reduces the stack temperature
starts combustion more quickly
010100020021000D
Engineers must understand the importance of combustion in
order to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
1,
2,
1,
2,
order the right grade of fuel

burn the fuel completely
produce smokeless fires
minimize the danger of explosion
2
3
3
2, 3, 4
3, 4
010100020021000E
Carbon which is not combined with hydrogen is referred
to as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
mono-carbon
loose carbon
separated carbon
ununited carbon
fixed carbon
010100020021000A
To which of the following oil burners is the oil supplied under
high pressure?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
mechanical atomizing burner

air atomizing burner
rotary cup burner
steam atomizing burner
multi-spud burner
010100020021000C
When using mechanical fuel oil atomization
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
70 kPa steam pressure is required at the burner

35 to 40 kPa oil pressure is required
high pump pressure is required
steam pressure is required to keep the bypass open
dry saturated steam or superheated steam should be used
010100020021000B
Which of the following are coal burning apparatus:
280
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
1,
2,
1,
1,
underfeed
crossfeed
overfeed
rotary cup
2,
2,
3,
2,
3,
4
3
4
3, 4
4
010100020021000D
Which of the following types of burners are used for oil
firing?
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,
1,
2,
1,
3,
air atomizing
ring type
rotary cup
steam atomizing
4
2, 3
3, 4
3, 4
4
010100020021000D
The air that carries the pulverized coal to the burner is known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
induction air
secondary air
excess air
primary air
transfer air
010100020021000E
When oil burners are not in use, they should be removed from
the furnace, or the heat may cause
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
evaporation of the fuel

corrosion of the burner
seizure of the sprayer plate
speed reduction of the rotary cup
a build up of carbon in the burner
010100020021000D
A mechanical atomizing oil burner has oil pumped under high
pressure through a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
rotary cup
ring burner
multi-spud burner
sprayer plate
recirculation line
010100020021000C
281
In a steam atomizing oil burner, the _______________________
travels through the central portion of the burner.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
fire
steam
oil
heat
air
010100020021000B
When lighting-up an oil fired boiler that employs steam
atomizing oil burners, the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
fuel valve is opened before the steam atomizing valve

steam atomizing valve is opened before the fuel valve
burner must be purged first
oil pressure should be approximately 200 kPa greater
than the steam pressure
draft fans must be at 50% of full capacity
010100020021000E
Before removing oil burners from the furnace the burner
should be blown out with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
solvent
coal oil
a high temperature combustible solvent
nitrogen or carbon dioxide
steam or air
010100020021000A
If not enough air is given to an oil fired flame
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the flame will be a dark smoky flame

the flame will have a bluish-purple colour
a blue-grey smoke will issue from the stack
the steam temperature will rise
the flame will have a dazzling yellow colour
010100020021000A
When a gas fired burner is burning fuel properly
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
it will have a blue flame with short yellow tips

the furnace will pulsate
there will be no turbulence
it will have a long bright yellow flame
the induced draft fan can be shut off
010100020021000C
According to the ASME Code Section Seven, purging of furnace
should be three to five minutes or
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2 air changes
5 air changes
8 air changes
15 minutes at one half the fan output
10 minutes if it is a balanced draft system
282
010100020021000D
Low fuel _____________ in oil burners produces unsafe
conditions of burning.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
volume
flow
temperature
pressure
viscosity
010100020021000C
Poor combustion due to improper amount of air will cause
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
hot furnace temperatures

a collection of partly burned
a collection of partly burned
the circulation of flue gases
a high carbon dioxide content
air
fuel which could explode
to stop
in the windbox
010100020021000B
Low fuel oil pressure in an oil burner system
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
increases combustion efficiency

creates unstable conditions in the furnace
causes excessive turbulence in the furnace
is usually not possible if the fuel oil tank is more
than one-half full
will give a high oxygen reading at the stack outlet
010100020021000D
Three types of mechanical stokers are the underfeed,
overfeed, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sprinkler
chain grate
pulverizer
crossfeed
vibragrate
010100020021000E
Relative to boiler combustion, an exhauster fan
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is the same as an ID fan

extracts ashes from a hopper
extracts solid particles from the flue gases
exhausts dust from the coal crushers
extracts pulverized coal from a pulverizer
010100020021000B
When removing a steam atomizing oil burner from service, the
proper sequence is
a)
b)
c)
d)
stop
stop
stop
stop
steam, stop oil, remove burner

oil, purge oil side, stop steam, remove burner
steam, purge steam side, stop oil, remove burner
oil, stop steam, remove burner
283
e)
purge oil side, stop steam, remove burner
010100020021000D
If, during a flue gas analysis, the excess air to a boiler
furnace is increased
a)
CO
should increase
b)
CO should increase
c)
should decrease
2
d)
CO
e)
should decrease
should remain the same

2
010100020021000C
Boiler stack temperature can rise if
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
excess air is reduced

the waterside of boiler becomes cleaner
the fireside of the boiler becomes fouled
flue gas CO value rises
fuel flow rate decreases
010100020021000C
CO2 is the chemical symbol for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
carbon
carbon monoxide
carbon dioxide
hydrocarbon
carbonic acid
010100020021000A
Efficient combustion is achieved by controlling the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
fuel-air ratio
steam-water ratio
water-fuel ratio
steam-fuel ratio
air-flue gas ratio
Safety and Relief Valves

010100020021000C
Safety valves "pop" open because the force of the steam
a)
b)
c)
acts upon a blowdown ring

acts upon a huddling chamber
is suddenly increased due to a larger area
284
d)
e)
increases due to the discharge ports

decreases the force created by the spring
010100020021000E
If a safety valve is too small then the boiler pressure will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
rise 5% above the maximum allowable working pressure

(MAWP)
not rise more than 15% above the MAWP
remain at the MAWP
rise to 6% above the MAWP
rise more than 6% above the MAWP
010100020021000B
Boiler fittings
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
are not regulated by the ASME Codes

must be registered by the government
requires only the manufacturer's identity attached
may be used at the discretion of power plant personnel
are tested by a destructive test
010100020021000C
It is necessary to clearly mark or identify valves
and fittings so that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
they can be properly stored in the warehouse

the manufacturer's reputation is known
strength and material can be applied for a particular use
the operator knows how it works
a proper safety inventory can be maintained
010100020021000E
An agency or code with which fittings must comply with is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Health and Safety code

Fittings and Boiler Parts Act
Boiler Repair code
Plumbing Gas Act
ASME code
010100020021000B
If a safety valve fails to open at its popping pressure, you should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
tap it gently
try the lifting lever
shut the boiler down
raise the pressure
reface the valve
010100020021000E
The lip on a safety valve
a)
b)
c)
d)
allows it to close slowly

is only required if the steam is superheated
supplies a drain lip for condensate to collect on
makes the valve stronger
285
e)
allows it to "pop" open
010100020021000C
What does the boiler inspector install to prevent tampering with
a safety valve setting?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a
a
a
a
a
restraining order
gag
seal
plug
cover plate
010100020021000B
What is the maximum heating surface for a boiler
to have only one safety valve?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
75
47
36
28
19
square
square
square
square
square
metres
metres
metres
metres
metres
010100020021000A
If a boiler has a maximum allowable working pressure of 1000 kPa,
what would be the maximum pressure allowed when the safety
valve is open?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1060
1400
1600
2000
2500
kPa
kPa
kPa
kPa
kPa
010100020021000D
A stop valve is allowed between the safety valve and the boiler
drum when
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the stop valve is locked open

there is more than one safety valve
a rupture disc is placed between the stop valve and the
safety valve
no stop valves are allowed before or after the safety valve
the stop valve is the quick opening type
010100020021000C
Two safety valves are required on a high pressure steam boiler
that has a heating surface larger than
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
12
40
47
45
27
square
square
square
square
square
metres
metres
metres
metres
metres
010100020021000A
If the boiler was fired up with the main steam stop valve closed,
286
the safety valves should ensure that:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the pressure cannot exceed the maximum working pressure by more

than 6%
the water glass will not burst with the pressure
the fuel cut-off will operate
the pressure is never more than the hydrostatic test pressure
the pressure cannot exceed the maximum working pressure by more
than 3%
010100020021000B
What is the minimum number of safety valves required on a
boiler having a heating surface of 42 square metres?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
none
one
two
three
four
010100020021000E
Each boiler must have a safety valve, preferably
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
placed
welded
fitted
to the
at eye
fitted
to the
in a pipe system leading from a boiler valve

in a horizontal position to the top of the boiler
securely to a shut-off valve directly connected
top of the boiler
level on the front surface of the boiler
in a vertical position directly connected
top of the boiler
010100020021000E
The safety valves on a boiler meet code requirements and are set
to a popping pressure of 1380 kPa. What would be the maximum
permissible pressure rise in the boiler, if the boiler was fired
at full capacity with the main steam stop valve closed?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
25 kPa
37.5 kPa
47 kPa
72.4 kPa
82.8 kPa
010100020021000C
The discharge pipe of a safety valve should be separately
supported
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
because the safety valve is not capable of supporting the

mass
so that drainage of the discharge line can occur
so that allowance for expansion prevents stress on the
safety valve
in order to prevent leakage at the joint
so that the valve can be quickly and easily removed
010100020021000A
287
Cast iron fittings for a boiler can be deemed to have upper
limitations of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,720 kPa and 232 degrees C

17,200 kPa and 1,100 degrees C
8,000 kpa and 670 degrees C
010100020021000D
The popping pressure of a safety valve
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cannot be changed
can only be increased by 5%
can only be decreased by 5%
can be increased or decreased by up to 5%
can be changed any amount
010100020021000D
The blowdown on a safety valve is adjusted by turning the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
inspector's seal
valve disc
adjusting nut
adjusting ring
valve seat
010100020021000E
A blowdown ring on a safety valve is used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
adjust the operating pressure of the valve

set the opening pressure
increase the effectiveness of the safety valve
increase the life of the cone shaped lip
adjust the blowdown differential
010100020021000E
A try lever safety valve test will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ensure the popping pressure is correct

indicate that valve capacity is adequate
ensure the closing pressure is correct
take approximately 2 seconds
ensure the valve is free to operate
010100020021000B
When performing a safety valve pop test one of the first
things to do is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
notify the boiler inspector

verify the accuracy of the applicable steam pressure gage
notify the chief engineer
check the blowdown of the safety valve
check the popping pressure
010100020021000A
A safety relief valve is like a safety valve except it
288
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
does not have a blowdown ring or bottom guides

must have greater blowdown
may have an isolation valve placed between it and the
pressure vessel
must discharge directly to the atmosphere
is prone to leakage
010100020021000A
Temperature relief valves can open on a rise in temperature
by the expansion of a wax-filled rod or by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
melting of the alloy in a fusible plug

melting of a fusible link
action of a bi-metal strip
action of a Bourdon tube
action of a bellows
010100020021000C
If the safety valve starts to leak steam
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
phone the inspector immediately

report it to the insurance company
pull the test lever and try to clear the seat face
break the seal, and tighten down on the spring
adjust the blowdown of the safety valve
010100020021000B
An operator should check that a boiler safety valve will open
at its set pressure by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sending for the inspector to bring his or her test gauge

increasing the boiler pressure until the valve opens and noting
the pressure on the pressure gauge when the valve opened
putting a piece of pipe over the lifting lever and lifting the
valve off its seat when the seat pressure is reached
connecting the boiler to an air compressor during shut down and
raising the pressure in the boiler until the set pressure is
reached
listening to the alarms of the set pressures
010100020021000B
Testing the safety valve by means of the try lever method is
considered good practice when carried out on a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
weekly basis
monthly basis
six month basis
yearly basis
bi-weekly basis
010100020021000B
If, during the testing of a safety valve, the valve does not
open, you would first
a)
continue to increase the steam pressure
289
b)
c)
d)
e)
try to open the valve with the lifting lever

force it open by striking it with a hammer
take the boiler out of service
stop the boiler and notify the boiler branch
010100020021000A
Test levers on safety valves should not be used until the boiler
pressure is at least _________ or more of the safety valves normal
popping pressure.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
75%
60%
50%
40%
25%
010100020021000C
If a safety valve leaks after a try lever test, the operator
should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
plug the safety valve outlet

reduce the boiler pressure
operate the try lever several times to blow away foreign
material
fit a gag to the safety valve
reduce boiler pressure and call the team leader
010100020021000B
Do not open the safety valve with the test lever
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
if the valve is less than 2.5 cm inlet diameter

if the pressure is less than 75% working pressure
after 9 p.m. in populated areas
if the valve is not vented to the roof
if there are more than two safety valves on the boiler
Water Columns and Gage Glasses

010100020021000E
The following condition may be encountered in level
measurement and indication:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
solids or liquids
extremes of heat and cold
pressure variations
corrosive and explosive conditions
all of the above
010100020021000B
Separately mounted gage glasses are used to provide a
__________ indication of level over a certain vertical
distance on the vessel.
a)
point
290
b)
c)
d)
e)
continuous
diagonal
ultrasonic
indirect
010100020021000E
The main operating element of a Hopkinson remote water level
indicator is a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Bourdon tube
Ledoux bell
float
capsule
large diaphragm
010100020021000E
When a differential head meter is used to measure water level
in a boiler steam drum, the connection to the steam space
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
forms the variable leg of the meter

is cross connected to the constant or reference leg of
the meter
is the low pressure side of the meter
has a varying water level
forms the constant or reference leg of the meter
010100020021000C
Dirt traps are installed on an "Igema" remote water-level
indicator
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
because of the high amount of suspended solids collecting

in the constant head
to prevent mixing of the indicating liquid with boiler
water
to prevent indicating liquid contamination
so that overfilling of the indicating section is
prevented
to prevent osmosis from occurring
010100020021000D
A great advantage of an Igema level indicator over a
Hopkinson unit is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
it has the highest degree of accuracy

it is the least costly to purchase
its ability to show steam and water as different colours
there are no moving parts
it requires no electricity
010100020021000D
A gage glass which shows a clear liquid as being very dark is
the
a)
b)
c)
d)
Hopkinson indicator
Igema indicator
tubular gage glass
reflex gage glass
291
e)
flat gage glass
010100020021000E
In a high pressure horizontal firetube steam boiler, the bottom
of the gauge glass should be ____________ above the lowest
permissible water level in the boiler.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1 m
50 cm
47 cm
25.4 mm
51 mm
010100020021000C
If a gage glass breaks, the operator shall immediately
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
shut the
add more
shut off
lift the
shut the
boiler down
water to the boiler
the steam valve and water valve on the gage
safety valve
boiler down
010100020021000B
Try cocks are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
used to blowdown the gage glass

for checking water level while the gage glass is out of
service
for draining the gage glass
operated simultaneously
on the water column drain line
010100020021000C
How many try cocks are installed on the water column of
a boiler, with over 9.3 square metres heating surface?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
2
3
4
6
010100020021000E
When a firetube boiler is filled for the first time, it
should be confirmed that when the water first appears
in the gage glass, that there is _______ mm of water
over the top of the tubes.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
25.4 mm
50.8 mm
84 mm
101.6 mm
76 mm
010100020021000E
Safety shutoff devices are found
292
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
on water supply systems feeding a boiler

on all gage glasses which are under continuous
supervision
only on vessels containing toxic liquid
on the constant or "reference" lines to remote indicators
on gage glasses not under constant supervision
010100020021000A
Tubular gage glasses
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
are suitable for pressures up to 2,800 kPa

do not corrode due to high alkalinity
indicate the level most accurately
can be of any length
are not weakened by misalignment
010100020021000D
Gage glasses show a water level which is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
slightly less than the level if the vessel is at a lower

temperature
the same if all liquids have the same temperature
slightly higher than boiler level when the pressure is
high
slightly lower when the glass water density is higher
the actual vessel level regardless of pressure,
temperature or density differences
010100020021000A
When the water connection between boiler and gage glass becomes
plugged, the water level in the glass will show a level after
a while, that is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
higher than the level in the boiler

lower than the level in the boiler
the same as the level in the boiler
fully filled
lower than the bottom of the sight glass
Drum Internals
010100020021000B
The component of a boiler which allows a space for the
introduction of chemicals is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
mud drum
steam drum
injection tank
internal feed pipe
deaerator
010100020021000A
A boiler steam drum will
293
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
allow load increases to be accomplished more quickly

always be the highest component of a boiler
not distribute feedwater to cold sections of the boiler
have no bearing or effect on water circulation
contain a steam space which will be at higher pressure
than the water space
010100020021000C
At lower pressures, steam
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
has higher densities

is more difficult to separate from the water
readily rises and separates from the water
cannot be separated from water with mechanical devices
requires large volume spaces in order to separate
010100020021000C
Steam separation in a modern boiler usually occurs in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1
2
3
4
5
step
steps
steps
steps
steps
010100020021000A
Cyclone separators are used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
separate water droplets from the steam

accelerate the steam leaving the boiler
heat the steam coming out of the drum
separate impurities from the water
separate water from the steam drum
010100020021000B
Relative to steam drum internals, a boiler water test is
conducted to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ensure
adjust
ensure
inform
ensure
scrubbers have not corroded away

or set the continuous blowdown valve (CBD)
the water is not attacking the separators
us when maintenance is required on drum equipment
chemicals are entering the boiler
010100020021000E
The CBD valve is usually a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
gate valve with a metering device

ball valve with a metering device
stop/check valve with a metering device
butterfly valve with a metering device
needle valve with a metering device
010100020021000D
A drum internal which acts to reduce thermal shock and
294
turbulence is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cyclone separator
drip-collector baffle
corrugated plate drier
internal feed pipe
chevron drier
010100020021000E
Some smaller boilers have a pipe and baffle device in the
steam drum which acts as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a separator
a chemical injection device
a scrubber
a drip collector baffle
an internal feed pipe
010100020021000E
Chemicals are injected into the boiler to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
prevent corrosion
keep sludge dispersed
prevent sludge
prevent scale
all the above
010100020021000D
The chemical injection line is located
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
near the normal water level

close to the CBD line
in the steam space
near the internal feed pipe
close to the riser tubes
Fluidized Bed Combustion

010100020021000C
State the abbreviation used for fluidized bed combustion.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
FC
FBCB
FBC
FBBC
FB
010100020021000A
The abbreviation FGD stands for
a)
b)
c)
d)
flue gas desulphurization

fuel gauge diameter
flow gas density
fluid gas detector
295
e)
field gas drain
010100020021000E
State the abbreviation for a "fluid catalytic cracker".
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
CC
FC
FCCB
CFC
FCC
010100020021000C
FCC, with regard to the refining industry means
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Federal Communications Commission

Fresh condensate control
Fluid catalytic cracker
Federated consumer costs
Fuel Combustion Code
010100020021000D
AFBC stands for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Alberta/Federal boiler calculations

Alberta foot board control
after-fired boiler circuitry
atmospheric fluidized bed combustion
automatically flooded boiler condenser
010100020021000D
PFBC stands for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Provincial/Federal boiler calculations

Provincial footboard control
pre-fired boiler circuitry
petroleum fired boiler control
pressurized fluidized bed combustion
010100020021000D
With the AFBC, the combustion air pressure is typically
25 cm of water pressure at the FD fan,16 cm at
the base of the active bed, and _______________ at the
top of the combustion mass.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
at boiler pressure
at flue gas exit temperature
negative pressure
atmospheric pressure
absolute pressure
010100020021000A
With the AFBC, the three pressure zones are typically as
follows at the FD fan, the base of the active bed, and at
the top of the combustion mass respectively.
296
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
25
20
15
30
40
cm
cm
cm
cm
cm
of
of
of
of
of
water
water
water
water
water
pressure,
pressure,
pressure,
pressure,
pressure,
16
14
10
20
25
cm
cm
cm
cm
cm
and
and
and
and
and
atmospheric
atmospheric
below atmospheric
above atmospheric
above atmospheric
010100020021000C
In FBC, the fuel content by mass of the turbulent inert
material is usually less than
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5
3
2
4
1
percent
percent
percent
percent
percent
010100020021000A
AFBC units permit the reduction of furnace temperatures from
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1600
1800
1700
1550
1350
to
to
to
to
to
850
650
750
900
500
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
010100020021000C
Reducing furnace bed temperatures by use of AFBC units reduces
as well
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
production of hot flue gases

efficiency of operation
production of NOx's
the turbulence of the furnace interior
the steam generating capacity
010100020021000B
Crushed coal mixed with pulverized limestone in an AFBC unit
does what?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
lower the combustion bed temperature

act as a desulphuring agent
create the perfect fuel; hydrogen
pressurizes the fluidized bed
produces no gaseous effluent
010100020021000D
What is the percentage of SOx reduction which can be gained
by adding an excess amount of limestone to the bed of an
AFBC unit?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
40
50
70
80
90
50
65
80
90
95
percent
percent
percent
percent
percent
297
010100020021000B
About the only thing limiting the kind of fuel burned in a
FBC is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
how
the
the
the
the
well the material has been mixed prior to burning

heating value of the material being burned
amount of slag the fuel will produce
size of the plant using the fuel
size of the burners
010100020021000C
The gradual loss of the fluidized bed in an FBC furnace is
called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
attrition
fluidation
carryover
reduction
starving
010100020021000E
The ash content of a fuel which can be burned in a FBC unit
and which will not burn successfully in any other type of
furnace is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
10
30
55
60
70
percent
percent
percent
percent
percent
010100020021000A
Large "clinkers" are not produced in FBC furnaces because
of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
lower furnace temperatures

the fluidized bed created by air passage through the furnace
the kind of fuel used
the introduction of limestone into the combustion mixture
not burning gaseous fuels
010100020021000B
The reason FBC plants can be built smaller than plants
currently in vogue is because of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
higher steam temperatures and pressures

higher heat transfer rates and the absence of wet
exhaust gas scrubbing equipment
lower maintenance costs and the ability to burn a wide
variety of fuels
less slag production and the elimination of sootblowing equipment
the burners being smaller
010100020021000D
Steam generators of the FBC type can be reduced in size by
298
up to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
35
15
45
25
10
percent
percent
percent
percent
percent
010100020021000B
Because of the one quarter reduction in size of FBC plants a
significant saving is gained in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
fuel and waste costs

material and construction costs
heat and light costs
"Clinker" and soot blowing costs
fuel storage costs
010100020021000E
Feedthrough tubes are located?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
in
in
in
in
in
the
the
the
the
the
furnace
furnace
furnace
corners
furnace
windbox
ceiling
walls
of the furnace
bottom
010100020021000C
An especially important point in the operation of fluidized
beds composed of fine particles is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
feedwater temperature
solids injection rate
bubble size
waste solids handling
the colour of the limestone
010100020021000E
Operating a PFBC furnace at low temperatures results in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the formation of "clinkers"

a restricted type of fuel used
the need for the installation of soot blowers
the generation of wet steam
steam temperature limited over the period of heat supply
010100020021000A
Carryover in FBC units results in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
lower efficiency and higher costing dust collectors

lower furnace temperatures and the need for higher
furnace ceilings
lower tube location and higher combustion rates
lower steam pressures and higher water temperatures
overheating of the breeching
299
010100020021000B
One way of increasing combustion control at low operating rates
in FBC units is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
add fuel gas to the combustion process

add more expensive control equipment
add hot steam to the fluidized bed
add an electrical charge to the pulverized limestone
close all the air dampers
010100020021000C
To what temperature must the inert bed material of a FBC unit
be heated before the introduction of coal to the furnace for
burning?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
about
about
about
about
about
350
500
600
750
900
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
010100020021000D
What is the ignition temperature of coal?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
300
450
550
600
900
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
010100020021000A
The typical time needed to heat a FBC unit bed to fuel ignition
temperature prior to the introduction of coal is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
one hour
one half hour
two hours
three hours
six hours
010100020021000E
Due to various differences in the operation of FBC plants the
following is required:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a considerably larger floor space

better qualified operators
a taller furnace stack
using new technology in the construction of boiler tubes
a considerably different control system
010100020021000B
In order to get maximum heat transfer in a FBC furnace it is
required to
a)
increase the fuel consumption per hour
300
b)
c)
d)
e)
ensure that the boiler tubes are covered by the expanded bed
build larger FBC's
add fuel gas to the regular fuel being burned
line the floor and ceiling of the furnace with steel plates
Sootblowers
010100020021000B
In addition to reducing heat transfer, soot and ash on
fireside tubes also
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
lessens the chance of furnace explosions

increases draft fan power
results in the formation of CO in the flue gases
raises superheater temperatures
results in smoke emissions from the stack
010100020021000E
Relative to Figure 1, in the module the radiant zone is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
downstream of the economizer

downstream of the air preheater
between the primary superheater and economizer
between the reheater and primary superheater
upstream of the reheater
010100020021000D
The steam used for sootblowing is usually
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
greater than boiler drum pressure

wet unsaturated steam
the same as boiler drum pressure
superheated at the sootblower nozzle
mixed with compressed air
010100020021000D
A furnace wall sootblower sequence of operation is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
rotate & blow, extend, retract

extend, blow, retract, rotate
rotate, extend, blow, retract
extend, rotate & blow, retract
retract, blow, rotate, extend
010100020021000C
A long retractable sootblower will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
have nozzles throughout its full length

be used to clean furnace walls
blow during extension and retraction as it rotates
not blow until fully extended
require less exterior room than a furnace wall unit
301
010100020021000B
During a sootblowing operation the boiler firing rate should
be at least
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
15%
30%
20%
80%
70%
010100020021000C
While a steam sootblower is in operation it is cooled by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
air
flue gases
steam
water
none of the above
010100020021000B
A stationary sootblower
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
has two opposing nozzles at the end of its lance

has a row of nozzles throughout the lance length
does not rotate while blowing
is cooled by air while not in use
is cooled by water while not in use
010100020021000C
Shot cleaning pellets have a diameter of approximately
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2 cm
6 cm
0.6 cm
0.6 mm
2 mm
010100020021000A
Shot cleaning pellets are transported to the top of the
boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
by using an air stream

manually
in a steam injection system
by a hydraulic hoisting system
and are not recycled
010100020021000C
Soot and ash are undesirable on tube surfaces because they
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
increase heat transfer through the heating surfaces

cause overheating of the tubes
reduce boiler efficiency
reduce draft for power requirements
reduce the heating surface of the boiler
302
Continuous and Intermittent Blowdown

010100020021000B
The type of blowdown system used on a boiler is usually a
function of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the type of internal water treatment used

the type of external water treatment used
the temperature at which the boiler operates
how long the boiler operates each day
water supply temperatures
010100020021000D
An external treatment method which minimizes blowdown is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sodium zeolite softening

deaeration
coagulators
demineralization
sludge conditioning
010100020021000A
Blowdown guidelines can be found in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ASME Section VII

ASME Section VIII
CSA B51
CSA B52
applicable provincial Acts and Regulations
010100020021000C
A steam boiler is blown down in order to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
clean the soot and carbon out of the firebox and tubes
lower the operating water level in the boiler
discharge sediment and scale forming matter from the boiler
test the rated relieving capacity of the safety valves fitted
to the boiler
locate the steam level
010100020021000B
The continuous boiler water blowdown is used
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
in
in
to
to
to
place of the main blowdown

addition to the main blowdown
adjust the drum water level
introduce chemicals to the boiler
control the bottom blowdown
010100020021000B
If dissolved solids are not removed from boiler water the
result may be
a)
b)
overheating of convection zone tubes

foaming and carry-over
303
c)
d)
e)
overheating of radiant zone tubes

steam which will be more saturated with latent heat
purer steam leaving the steam drum
010100020021000E
Boiler water having the highest Total Dissolved Solids (TDS)
content is found
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
at the bottom of the mud drum

at the bottom of the steam drum
at the top of the steam drum
in the waterwall tubes
just below the waterline of the steam drum
010100020021000D
A "rule of thumb" rate of continuous blowdown is
approximately
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
10% of steaming rate

5% of steaming rate
15% of steaming rate
1% of steaming rate
3% of steaming rate
010100020021000A
According to the CSA B-51 code a blow-off tank is necessary to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
prevent high temperature and pressure in the sewer

prevent blowing off too quickly
remove sludge from blow-off water
prevent overflowing the sewer
reduce the boiler water velocity
010100020021000E
According to the Alberta Boilers Act Regulations, what fitting
is needed between the blow-off valve and the boiler if two boilers
use the same blow-off tank?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a non-return valve
a steam trap
a steam separator
an expansion joint
a check valve
010100020021000C
A blow off tank is used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
lower the dissolved solids in the water

lower the pH of the water
prevent damage to the sewer
keep the condensate hot
to prevent sludge from entering the boiler
010100020021000B
Boiler water having the greatest concentration of suspended
solids is found
304
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
just below the steam drum water line

in the bottom of the mud drum
at the bottom of the steam drum
in waterwall riser tubes
in convection zone downcomer tubes
010100020021000C
A blowdown tank will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
have to be cleaned monthly to remove the collected sludge

not be classed as a pressure vessel since it is vented
lower the temperature and pressure of the incoming boiler
water
not have to have any specific capacity or volume
be allowed to accommodate only one boiler
010100020021000D
Water leaving a blowdown tank and entering a sewer must not
exceed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
45
50
75
65
80
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
C
C
C
C
C
010100020021000A
When two seatless valves are used for intermittent blowdown,
the operation sequence is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
open
open
open
open
open
the
the
the
the
the
downstream valve first and close it last

upstream valve first and close it last
downstream valve first and close it first
upstream valve first and close it first
upstream valve last and close it last
010100020021000C
The preferred arrangement of valves on a boiler blow-off line is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
two quick-opening valves

a slow-opening valve closest to the boiler followed by a
quick-opening
a quick-opening valve closest to the boiler followed by a
slow-opening
one valve only (It must be a globe valve.)
a quick opening valve and a lift check valve
010100020021000A
A boiler blow down system is equipped with slow and fast opening
valves. The quick opening valve is placed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
closest to the boiler and opened first

furthest from the boiler and opened first
closest to the boiler and opened last
furthest from the boiler and opened last
on the blow off tank
305
010100020021000E
The blow down system has two valves; they should be opened and
closed in the correct sequence to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
carry out the blow down accurately

prevent excessive blow down
prevent a high level in the steam drum
prevent the boiler losing level
protect the valve closest to the boiler
010100020021000E
The quick opening blow-off valve should be placed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
at the second blowdown tank

second from the boiler
furthest from the boiler
between the boiler and the check valve
nearest to the boiler
Boiler Preparation, Start-up, and Shutdown

010100020021000C
Before starting up any boiler it is necessary that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
it be properly warmed up
it be properly purged
it have a valid inspection certificate
the water supply system be in service
the waterside is boiled out
010100020021000D
New refractory must be thoroughly and properly cured with a
light fire because
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
of its high rate of differential expansion

it may burn if not cured
it may corrode if not cured
it contains moisture which can cause it to fracture if
not cured
of the length of time it takes it to heat up
010100020021000A
The external inspection of a boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
may include making sure the valves are in good

operating condition
may include making sure the furnace refractory is in order
may include making sure the tubes are free of scale
must be done after the boiler has been drained
may include making sure the exterior of the tubes
are in good condition
010100020021000B
306
A boiler inspection
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
must be
must be
must be
is done
must be
done
done
done
with
done
after every shut down of the boiler

when the boiler inspector requests it
every two years
the owner's permission only
before the boiler is ready for start-up
010100020021000C
The first duty of the operator coming on shift is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
check the safety valve settings

fill out the log book
check that water column and gage glass connections are clear
talk to his supervisor
check the chemical tank levels
010100020021000E
If a new boiler is not properly boiled out, it may result in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
tubes rupturing
a furnace explosion
nuisance shutdowns
an unwanted high rate of water circulation
a foaming condition occurring
010100020021000D
Before lighting up a boiler you should:
1)
2)
3)
4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
2,
1,
1,
2,
purge the furnace

open the blow down valve
check the fuel supply
fill the boiler with water
2,
3,
2,
3,
3
4
4
3, 4
4
010100020021000C
Boiler boiling out procedure should be done
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
at operating pressure
before the dry out procedure
at one-half the operating pressure
once a year
just before the annual inspection
010100020021000C
Boiler dry-out means
a)
b)
c)
d)
drying out the top and bottom drum

igniting the dryers in the top drum
drying out the new refractory
empty the boiler out
307
e)
drying out the entire boiler before start-up
010100020021000A
On a boiler fuel system having a double block and bleed
set-up
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the vent valve is a normally open valve

at least one of the main-line valves will always be open
the main-line valves will open before the prepurge stage
the main-line and vent valves all open together
the main-line valves are manually operated
010100020021000B
Superheater vents are usually opened before firing a boiler
to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
allow the superheater to warm up quicker

let the first steam produced act as a superheater coolant
ensure drum level does not drop
verify the operation of the steam flow transmitter
enhance boiler water circulation
010100020021000D
A boiler furnace pre-purge
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is the shortest step in the start-up sequence

can take place normally even if there is a low water
condition
must be done manually on a fully automatic boiler
must last a specific amount of time
will take place at the end of a boiler shutdown
010100020021000E
When igniting a gas or oil fired boiler you should ignite from:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
1,
2,
1,
3,
another burner already in service

the hot refractory
a hand torch
an electrical igniter
2
3
3
2, 4
4
010100020021000C
A boiler warm-up should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
be done as quickly as possible

be done with low water so that metal heats up faster
be done slowly to minimize any differential expansion
be completed with a high firing rate
not involve any human intervention
010100020021000B
While a boiler is warming up it is good practice to
308
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
leave all drain valves closed

check the low water fuel cut-off device for proper
operation
test the safety valve before any pressure develops
not interfere in any way with the combustion process
go through a sootblowing operation sequence
010100020021000C
When raising pressure in a firetube boiler you should:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2,
1,
1,
1,
2,
raise
raise
check
check
3,
2,
3,
2,
4
steam slowly
steam as rapidly as possible
the furnace frequently
the system for leaks
4
3, 4
4
3
010100020021000D
Two boilers are feeding into the same steam header and each pressure
gage shows a pressure of 350 kPa. The steam pressure gage on the
header will indicate
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
slightly
700 kPa
slightly
slightly
slightly
more than 350 kPa

more than 700 kPa
less than 350 kPa
less than 700 kPa
010100020021000C
Before removing a boiler from service for maintenance
purposes it is beneficial to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
inform the Chief Inspector

do as little as possible with the waterside of the unit
use sootblowers and clean the fireside well
force cool the unit with post-purge air
drain the unit before the water cools to ambient
temperature
010100020021000D
On boiler cool-down the vent should be opened
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
as soon as the post-purge

when all temperatures are
any time after the NRV is
just before the unit goes
at no time
is completed
at ambient value
closed
into a vacuum
010100020021000A
When cooling down a steam boiler that has been taken out of
service, a vent valve on the steam drum should be opened to
309
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
prevent a vacuum from forming in the boiler

release the air from the boiler
purge the shell of impure gases
let the operator know when the pressure has reached zero
prevent pressure build-up in the boiler
Routine and Emergency Boiler Operation

010100020021000A
A wide and rapid fluctuating water level in the boiler gage
glass may be the result of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
high TDS
a vapour bound boiler feed pump
low alkalinity
low pH
boiler firing rate being too low
010100020021000B
A natural gas fired power boiler flame should be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
very slow, long, and mostly yellow or orange

fairly rapid, mostly blue, and some orange
very rapid, short, very audible, and have no orange
very white and intense, requiring coloured glass for
viewing
bright enough to require coloured glass for viewing
010100020021000D
When performing a sootblowing operation it is important to
maintain flame stability and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ensure drum water level remains constant

firing rate not be allowed to increase
stack discharge not become visible
dislodged soot and ash leave the boiler with the flue
gases
the local environmental agency be notified prior to
blowing
010100020021000C
While blowing down a boiler which is in operation, you should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
check the rest of the boiler room equipment

fill in the log book for your shift
concentrate only on blowing down the boiler
clean up the area close to the boiler
add more water to the boiler to replace the blow down water
010100020021000C
In the event of a low water condition in a boiler the
engineer in charge should
310
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
shut down the burner immediately

continue firing and restore the level
shut down the burner, let the unit cool, then inspect it
shut down the burner, let the unit cool, then restore
level
notify the Chief Engineer before responding to the
condition
010100020021000E
A high water level in a boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
will not be made worse by dropping boiler pressure or

allowing "swell" to occur
should cause a high water level shutdown switch to stop
the fire
is usually the result of a boiler feedpump malfunction
will necessitate an immediate shutdown, cool down, and
inspection
is usually the result of a level control malfunction
010100020021000B
In the event of a flame failure, an automatic boiler will
close the fuel valve and usually
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
begin a re-start cycle immediately

perform a post-purge
reset itself
simply restart itself with no human intervention
stop the boiler feedpump
010100020021000A
When you first notice that the water level in the boiler gauge
glass can no longer be seen, it is best first to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ensure that the boiler is not over filled

start the stand-by feed pump or injector
shut off the boiler fuel supply
close the main steam valve
ensure the glass is not leaking
010100020021000B
If the safety valve on a boiler pops and the only pressure gauge
indicates well below pop pressure, you would
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
notify the Boiler Inspector

reduce boiler pressure and get the gauge checked
shut down to fix the safety valve
increase spring pressure on safety valve
shut down the boiler and replace the safety valve and
gauge glass
010100020021000E
If the boiler safety valves open during boiler operation, you
should
a)
b)
close the non-return valve on the boiler drum

shut the boiler down immediately
311
c)
d)
e)
increase the forced draft flow to cool the boiler

open the blowdown valves
reduce the fuel and air flow to the boiler
010100020021000B
What causes the level in the gage glass to be higher than in
the drum?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
column drain valve leaking

steam valve on the gage glass closed
swell in boiler steam drum
starting up of the stand-by feedwater pump
guage glass steam and water valves are both open
010100020021000C
What causes the level in the gauge glass to be lower than
the water level in the boiler?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
steam valve on the gauge glass closed

shrinkage in the boiler steam drum
drain valve on the gauge glass leaking
top try cock open
the steam pressure is excessively high
010100020021000D
A firetube boiler furnace explosion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
can be the result of too much scale on boiler tubes

is more disastrous than a pressure or waterside explosion
may be the result of oil in the water causing a foaming
condition
may result from a flame scanner not working properly
could be caused by poor water circulation
010100020021000C
A boiler pressure or waterside explosion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
could be the result of water in the fuel oil

could be the result of inadequate ignition
may be caused by a low water condition
could result from improper sootblowing procedures
could be the result of broken refractory
010100020021000A
A reason for many boiler accidents may be due to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
inadequate training of operating personnel

log books being kept up to date and adequate
the regular testing and checking of control devices
not asking the insurance companies to inspect boilers
more often
safety valves being oversized
010100020021000B
The best method of ensuring adequate attention is being given
to the boiler and its controlling and safety devices is to
312
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
schedule regular testing and checking procedures

maintain a log book showing testing results and by whom
they were done
request staff to perform checks weekly
have faith in the personnel
always maintain good oral communication lines about tests
and checks
010100020021000A
Most furnace explosions occur
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
during the
during the
during the
during the
when steam
lighting up of a boiler burner

shutting down of a burner
purge period of lighting a boiler furnace
period of increasing the load
pressure is excessive
010100020021000E
When additional gas burners are required, they may be ignited
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
from an adjacent burner

by the flame detector
by means of a transformer relay
by a flame rod
by means of a torch
010100020021000B
The purging process for a furnace should be done
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
before each burner is lit

with the fuel valve closed
with the fuel valve in the open position
before the second burner is lit
with the pilot light on
010100020021000D
One cause of flame failure in oil or gas fired boilers is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
excessive fuel temperature

fuel pressure being too high
the fuel being too volatile
water in the fuel
the hydrogen content is too low
010100020021000E
Attempting to light one burner from another burner during the
operation, can
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cause the lit burner to be blown out

cause the fuel oil in the supply tank to surge
put the ignitor out
not cause the furnace to explode
cause a furnace explosion
010100020021000B
If the main burner fails, this could cause
313
a)
b)
the steam atomizing pressure to increase

admission of unburned fuel to the furnace which may
explode
the boiler efficiency to increase
the fuel valve to stay open
the pilot light to go out
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000D
Poor combustion due to the insufficient amount of __________
may cause a furnace explosion.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
gas
fuel
heat
air
hydrocarbons
010100020021000E
Failure to __________ the furnace thoroughly before light-up
can cause a furnace explosion.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
heat
drain
prime
cool
purge
010100020021000A
Attempting to light a burner _______________________ may
cause a furnace explosion.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
from hot refractory

without preheating the fuel
without first cooling the fuel
without a pilot light
by pre-purging the furnace
010100020021000C
Pressure explosions occur when a pressure part of the boiler
such as the shell, furnace, or firetube bursts due to too
high a steam pressure or a structural weakening of the metal.
This weakening may be caused by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
corrosion
thermal stress
overheating
scale and sludge build-up
1,
2,
1,
1,
1,
3,
3,
2,
2,
2,
4,
4,
3,
4,
3,
5
5
4
5
5
314
External Feedwater Treatment

010100020021000C
Boiler water is treated in order to prevent
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sludge, mud, pitting, corrosion

foaming, corrosion, carryover, sludge
sludge, corrosion, scale, carryover
scale, sludge, mud, pitting
foaming, carryover, pitting, corrosion
010100020021000D
Dissolved solids in raw water
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cause pitting of boiler surfaces

cause grooving of piping surfaces
are organic matter
cannot be removed with filters
cause corrosion of boiler surfaces
010100020021000A
Boiler surfaces may have what appears to be blisters which
are composed of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
iron oxide
sodium sulphite
caustic soda
ferric sulphate
chelates
010100020021000D
Boiler water with an alkalinity that is too high will likely
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
have
show
have
foam
have
a lot of scale
signs of pitting
a low pH
grooving on its surfaces
010100020021000E
Corrosion products in feedwater can cause
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
slag deposits in superheaters

decreased steam pressure
increased steam pressure
increase in boiler efficiency
tube failure
010100020021000C
Boiler water with a pH of 6 is considered
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
alkaline
basic
acidic
neutral
acceptable for boiler water
315
010100020021000B
Which of the following is an example of suspended matter?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sodium
sand
salt
calcium
magnesium
010100020021000A
Which of the following is an example of dissolved solids?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
magnesium sulphate
oxygen
clay
sand
carbon dioxide
010100020021000C
Temporary hardness in feedwater is caused by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
calcium sulphate
sodium nitrate
magnesium bicarbonate
calcium carbonate
magnesium sulphate
010100020021000E
Feedwater for a high pressure boiler should be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
treated with phosphate

treated with phenolphthalein
treated city water
treated with salt
softened water
010100020021000E
A method of treatment which is often used in conjunction with
settling tanks is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
deaeration
zeolite softening
demineralizing
lime soda softening
filtration
010100020021000B
The result of adding Al (SO ) to the raw water is
2
4 3
a) a higher pH
b) floc
c) corrosion
d) pitting
e) sublimation
316
010100020021000A
The chemical equation which represents the modification of
bicarbonates in hard water by the use of a zeolite softener
is
a)
Ca(HCO ) + Na Z = CaZ + 2NaHCO

3 2
2
3
b)
CaZ + 2NaCl = Na Z + CaCl

2
2
c)
MgSO
4
+ Na Z = MgZ + Na SO
2
2 4
d)
Ca(HCO ) + Na Z = CaZ + NaHCO

3 2
2
3
e)
MgZ + 2NaCl = Na
+ MgCl
2
010100020021000D
When using a sodium zeolite water softener, the modification
of the sulphates in hard water is shown by the chemical
equation
a)
MgZ + 2NaCl = Na
+ MgCl
2
b)
Ca(HCO ) + Na Z = CaZ + 2NaHCO

3 2
2
3
c)
CaZ + 2NaCl = Na Z + CaCl

2
2
d)
MgSO
+ Na Z = MgZ + Na SO
2
2 4
e)
MgSO
+ Na Z = 2MgZ + 2NaSO
2
4
4
4
010100020021000C
During the regeneration of a sodium zeolite water softener in
the "Rinse" stage, the item(s) going to the sewer is/are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
calcium sulphate
sulphates and bicarbonates
calcium and magnesium ions
sodium bicarbonates and sulphates
magnesium bicarbonate
010100020021000E
The regenerant used to regenerate a cation demineralizer is
a)
b)
c)
d)
hydrochloric acid
sodium chloride
caustic soda
sodium hydroxide
317
e)
sulphuric acid
010100020021000A
The regenerant used to regenerate an anion demineralizer is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sodium hydroxide
sulphuric acid
sodium chloride
hydrochloric acid
sulfamic acid
010100020021000E
Zeolite of a sodium zeolite softener may be discharged to the
sewer during the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
injection stage of a regeneration

service stage
slow rinse stage of a regeneration
fast rinse stage of a regeneration
backwash stage of a regeneration
010100020021000B
The capacity of a sodium zeolite softener will drop due to
zeolite attrition at about
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5% per year
3% per year
15% per year
1% per year
7% per year
010100020021000A
Filters are used
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
for external water treatment

to remove dissolved solids
to remove calcium bicarbonates
for internal treatment
to remove hardness
010100020021000C
Water filters must be cleaned
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
if the water becomes hard

when the dissolved solids are high
by backwashing the filter media
by chemically cleaning the filter media
once per shift
010100020021000B
Coagulants added to water
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
make the water soft

will remove fine particles more readily
remove the dissolved solids
causes the fine particles to float to the surface
remove chemicals not used up
318
010100020021000C
Lime-soda softeners
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
remove all dissolved solids from the water

must be backwashed periodically
remove all dissolved solids and gases from the water
changes the pH of the water
remove the scale forming dissolved solids
010100020021000A
Hot lime-soda softeners
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
can treat larger quantities of water than the cold

process type
will remove all dissolved solids from the water
are mostly used in small heating plants
are only used when using well water
are used mostly in large power plants
010100020021000B
Sodium zeolite softeners
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
remove all dissolved solids from the water

remove calcium and magnesium from the water
are regenerated with an acid solution
are regenerated with an alkaline solution
remove all dissolved solids and suspended matter
from the water
010100020021000A
Mechanical deaeration
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
removes
is done
is used
is used
removes
the dissolved gases from the water

with the aid of chemicals
to remove calcium and magnesium from the water
to remove oxygen only
all dissolved gases and solids from the water
010100020021000A
Pitting of boiler metal may be prevented by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
heating the boiler feed water to between 80 and 105 degrees

Celsius before it enters the boiler
cooling the feed water to between 4 and 16 degrees Celsius
the addition of sodium chloride to the feed water
agitating the feed water before it enters the boiler
the addition of sodium sulphate to the feed water
010100020021000C
The zeolite inside a water softener is used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
regenerate the brine solution

rinse the softened water
exchange sodium for calcium and magnesium
exchange soda for calcium and magnesium
exchange calcium for magnesium
319
010100020021000D
In order to prevent the waste of steam through a deaerator
vent, the component used is a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cyclone separator
chevron drier
scrubber
vent condenser
dry pipe
010100020021000A
A normal operating pressure range for a deaerator is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
70 to 100 kPa
30 to 50 kPa
100 to 150 kPa
10 to 25 kPa
5 to 35 kPa
Internal Feedwater Treatment and Testing Methods

010100020021000D
An acceptable pH value for boiler water is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
7.00
6.95
8.35
10.50
11.75
010100020021000A
Relative to internal treatment, it is customary to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
precipitate dissolved solids with a "precipitator"

cause dissolved solids to remain in solution
filter out dissolved solids
treat the dissolved solids so they remain dispersed
condition the dissolved solids so they do not adhere to
metal
010100020021000C
A sludge conditioner will keep precipitated dissolved solids
fluid and well dispersed and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
permit their removal through a CBD

in solution
prevent them from adhering to the metal
is usually a non-organic compound
is injected prior to the water softener
010100020021000C
Two common chemicals used for deaeration are Na SO and
2 3
320
a)
NaOH
b)
H SO
2 4
c)
N H
2 4
d)
Na PO
3 4
e)
Na (HCO )
2
3 2
010100020021000C
Carbon dioxide causes return line corrosion and may be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
removed in the deaerator

absorbed by sodium sulphite
the result of bicarbonate decomposition
neutralized in the boiler with sodium hydroxide
neutralized with filming amines
010100020021000A
Excess sulphite is necessary to prevent
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
pitting
hardness
carry over
acidity
sludging
010100020021000D
Sludge is usually removed from the boiler by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
filtering the water before it leaves the boiler

raking it into a sludge trap
vacuuming it from the bottom
blowing down through the bottom blow down connection
blowing down through the continuous blow down
010100020021000B
Internal water treatment is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
used with low pressure boilers only

adding chemicals to the boiler water
adding a coagulant to the settling tank
measuring the pH of the feedwater
adding chemicals to the steam in the boiler
010100020021000A
The pH of the water in the boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
is controlled with sodium hydroxide

could be controlled with amines
must have a value of 7
is controlled by adding treated water
321
e)
should be neutral
010100020021000C
Sludge conditioning in a boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is controlled by the continuous blow down

is to prevent pollution from the water blown down from
the boiler
prevents the sludge precipitates from adhering to the boiler
plates and tubes
is done to mix the sludge with the boiler water
neutralizes the sludge forming substances
010100020021000E
Foaming of water in the boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
is due
can be
can be
can be
can be
to a high concentration of dissolved gases

controlled by adding sodium phosphate
controlled by adding more neutralizing amines
controlled by adding sulphur to the feedwater
controlled by the bottom and continuous blow downs
010100020021000A
Sodium sulphite chemical will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
prevent corrosion due to oxygen in the boiler water

precipitate with calcium and magnesium
prevent scale adhering to the tubes
control foaming
control return line corrosion
010100020021000D
Return line corrosion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
can
can
can
can
can
be
be
be
be
be
controlled by feeding sodium bicarbonate

prevented by adding sodium phosphate
prevented by adding sodium sulphite
controlled by feeding amines
controlled by adding polymers
010100020021000D
Sodium sulphite is used in boilers to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
prevent
prevent
control
prevent
prevent
scale formation
carryover
dissolved solids
oxygen corrosion
foaming
010100020021000C
The boiler blowoff should be used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
reduce steam pressure

reduce feedwater pressure
control the total dissolved solids
prevent scale formation
expel the sodium sulphite
322
010100020021000D
The pH of the boiler water should be maintained at
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
neutral
slightly alkaline
11.5
10.5
7
010100020021000E
To prevent scale formation, inject
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
zeolite
sodium chloride
phenolphthalein
amines
phosphates
010100020021000A
One element which leads to caustic embrittlement in boiler tubes is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
concentration of sodium hydroxide

concentration of sodium chloride
overheating of boiler parts
concentration of sodium sulphite
excessive boiler pressure
010100020021000A
The water in a boiler should be kept
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
alkaline
neutral
acidic
at a pH of 14
at a pH of 7
010100020021000A
Raw water has hardness due to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the salts of calcium and magnesium

suspended solids
organic material
dissolved gases
phosphates
010100020021000E
Alkalinity in boiler water may be due to calcium, sodium or
magnesium
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
hydroxides
carbonates and bicarbonates
bicarbonates
hydroxides and bicarbonates
hydroxides, carbonates and bicarbonates
010100020021000B
323
The phenolphthalein or "P" alkalinity test does not indicate
alkalinity due to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
hydroxides
bicarbonates
sulphates
carbonates
phosphates
010100020021000D
The methyl orange or "M" alkalinity test indicates
alkalinity
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
due to carbonates only

due to bicarbonates only
due to hydroxides only
caused by all dissolved impurities contributing to
alkalinity
due to organics only
010100020021000B
When conducting a TDS or Total Dissolved Solids test, the
impurity which has a high conductivity and must be
neutralized is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sodium phosphate
hydroxide alkalinity
pH
suspended solids
sodium chloride
010100020021000B
Boiler water chemicals are injected
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
in measured amounts once per year

after considering the water test readings
into the water softener
to prevent the water becoming too alkaline
each time after blowing down
010100020021000B
A residual of 20 to 40 ppm of sodium sulphite is to
be maintained in the boiler water to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
keep down the sludge

prevent pitting in the boiler steam drum
prevent scaling the float in the low water cut-off
keep feed water lines free of algae
reduce the total chemical consumption
010100020021000E
The conductivity meter is used to measure the
a)
b)
c)
current
alkalinity
electrolyte
324
d)
e)
voltage
TDS
010100020021000A
Total alkalinity is measured
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
using methyl orange indicator and N50 sulphuric acid

to be sure that it is not more than 2500 ppm
to keep a check on the dissolved oxygen
to control sludge formation
by using phenophthalein and N50 sulphuric acid
010100020021000A
Boiler water testing is done in the average power plant every
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
shift
week
month
time the boiler inspector requests it
time the chief engineer requests it
010100020021000C
When used as a term during boiler water testing, DS means
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
demineralized steam
drain solids
dissolved solids
dissolved sulphite
depleted salts
010100020021000A
Phenolphthalein is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
an indicator
a reagent
a buffer
an acid softener
neutralizing agent
010100020021000E
Titrating is done with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a titrant
a zeolite
an antifoam
trisodium phosphate
a reagent
010100020021000C
When performing a water test be sure that:
1.
2.
3.
4.
all equipment is clean and in good working order

results are recorded carefully before making the test
test solutions, indicators, and reagents are fresh,
and at full strength
test reagents are filtered before use
325
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
2,
1,
2,
3,
2
3
3
4
4
010100020021000C
Chemicals are fed to a water tube boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
with a small centrifugal pump

into the top drum only
with a small positive displacement pump
into the bottom drum only
prior to operating the blow off valves
010100020021000B
A continuous blow-off is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
used to reduce the dissolved gases in the boiler

installed in the steam drum
used on every boiler
installed in the lower drum
used to reduce sludge

4th Class Part A Review Questions

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4th Class Part A Review Questions

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1

Any one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is

computerised control stations

any one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is

any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a

safety code officers in a power plant automatically.

Year round employment

decrease in water level

8 hour day shifts.

simple and economical

only experts from the industry and government

Third Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency

First Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency

Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity

maintenance costs through standardisation

owners and governments

39.06 cubic metres

kilogram / square metre

1.115 square metres

Basic Arithmetic Operations

3) ####### - ###### = ______________

3) ####### + ###### = ______________

3) #.## x ##.## = ______________

Solve the expression: (-3)

[4(3 + 4 - 2)] + [60/(6 x 5)]

Fractions, Decimals, and Percentages

3/8 + 2/3 - 1/2 to lowest terms.

3/8 x 3/4 x 8/9

1/2 x 3/7 x 14/15

3/8 x 2/3 x 4/5 x 5/8

3/10 x 5/6 x 1/9 x 3/4

21/16 x 12/35 x 32/45

27/35 x 5/16 x 15/3

2 1/2 x 7 3/5 x 3 3/5

4 2/3 x 8 4/7 x 1 2/7

Ratio and Proportion

cost will double

Equations and Transposition

sqr[s - (at / 2)]

Length, Lines, and Simple Plane Figures

are always vertical

What are the lengths of

Impossible to find with the above information

Areas and Volumes of Solids

106.0 cubic metres

56.55 cubic metres

(Round answers to 3 decimal places)

Introduction to Basic Mechanics

a body that is accelerating

a body that is accelerating

300 N of work was done

Forces and Moments

Force is the push exerted on a body.

The system will rotate clockwise

The system rotates under the largest force

80 Nm counter-clockwise, 100 Nm clockwise,

system will rotate counter-clockwise.

The system will rotate counter-clockwise.

Answer = ____________________ newtons

The machine receives energy by means of a single applied

A ramp is an inclined plane.