1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

Navigational Aids [MITRC refresher]

The phenomenon evidenced by the change in the
observed frequency of a sound or a radio wave
caused by the time rate of change in the magnitude of
the radial component of relative velocity between the
source and the point of observation.
a. Tunnel effect
b. Doppler effect
c. Gunn effect
d. End effect
Power density is inversely proportional to the
square of the distance from the source or transmitter
to the destination or receiver. this is called
a. Coulombs law
b. Inverse square law
c. Lenz,s law
d. Maxwells law
They are nondirectional transmitters and/or
receivers that operate in the LF and MF bands.
a. Radio Beacons
b. DME
c. ILS
d. LORAN
The ratio of the pulse width to the time between
the beginning of two pulses is called
a. Doppler shift
b. Duty cycle
c. Tracking error
d. PRR
When the speed of a radio signal is known, radar
can be used to determine the _____ of the target.
a. Range
b. Altitude
c. Direction
d. Doppler shift
The elapsed time between a radiating radar signal
and receiving its echo is 43.2 microseconds. The
target distance is____ nautical miles.
a. 3.5
b. 4.5
c. 5.5
d. None of these

8.

A radar display that sweeps outward of the center

of the screen while rotating is known as.
a. CRT
b. A scope
c. PPI
d. Periscope

9.

A radar using multiple antennas to shape the

beamwidth and automatically adjust directivity is
known as
a. Phased array
b. Continous wave
c. Coplanar
d. Pulser

10.

The pulse duration of a radar signal is 600 nsec.

The PRF is 185 pulses per second. The duty cycle is
a. 0.01%
b. 5.5%
c. 3.1%
d. 0.1%

11.

Doppler Effect allows which characteristic of a

radar target to be measured?
a. Distance
b. Speed
c. Size
d. Altitude

12.

Most radar antennas use

a. Dipole
b. Broadside array
c. Parabolic reflector
d. Discone

13.

The most common radar display is

a. A-scope
b. PPI
c. B scan
d. C scan

14.

The time it takes to travel one nautical miles is

a. 10.72 microsecond
b. 12.4 microsecond
c. 6.2 microsecond
d. None of these

15.
7.

The most commonly used component in a radar

transmitter is the _______ tube.
a. Dynatron
b. Twystron
c. Magnetron
d. Cyclotron

With a PRR of 800 and a 1 microsec pulse width, if

the average power is 80 watts, the duty cycle of the
radar transmitter is
a. 0.0008
b. 0.008
c. 0.8
d. 8

16.

17.

18.

19.

If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is

system is increased by a factor of 16, the maximum
range will be increased by a factor of
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
If the target cross section is changing, the best
system for accurate radar tracking is
a. Lobe switching
b. Conical scanning
c. Monopulse
d. Sequential lobing
The biggest disadvantage of CW radar is that it
does not give
a. Target velocity
b. Target range
c. Target position
d. None of these
A radar, A scope displays
a. Target position but not range
b. Both target position and range
c. Target range but not position
d. Neither target range nor position

20.

After a radar target has been acquired, the best

system for tracking is
a. Nodding
b. Spiral
c. Conical
d. Helical

21.

A radar transmitter has a PRR of 900 pps, each

pulse having a duration of 2 microsec and a peak
power of 15 kilowatts. The average power and duty
cycle are
a. 27 watts and 0.18%
b. 15 watts and 0.018
c. 20 watts and 0.0018%
d. None of these

22.

The determination of position by keeping account

of the distance and direction
a. Surface piloting
b. Dead reckoning
c. Celestial navigation
d. None of these

23.

Refers to echoes transmitted by stationary objects

a. Ghosts
b. Jitter

c.
d.
24.

Clutter
Squitter

A radar mile is equal to_____ yards

a. 2000
b. 3000
c. 1000
d. 4000

25.

If the antenna diameter in a radar system is

increased by a factor of 4, the maximum range will
be increased by a factor of
a. Square root of 2
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8

26.

An area directly above a radio range station where

practically no signal is heard.
a. Radio range
b. Cone of silence
c. Coverage area
d. RDF area

27.

A shipboard equipment which measures the

distance between the ships bottom and the ocean
floor by sending ultrasonic pulses via a transducer
which are reflected at the sea bottom and received
with the same transducer.
a. Echosounder
b. SONAR
c. Compandor
d. Hydrophone

28.

A navigation system from which hyperbolic lines of

position are determined by measuring the difference
in the times of arrival of pulses from widely spaced,
synchronized transmitting station
a. LORAN
b. TACAN
c. DME
d. VOR

29.

Radio range stations in LFR operate on frequencies

between
a. 20 kHz and 40 kHz
b. 200 kHz and 400 khz
c. 30 kHz and 300 kHz
d. 2 MHz and 4 MHz

30.

What is the science of determining the geographic

position of a ship, aircraft or guided missile and
charting a course for guiding the craft one place to
another?

a.
b.
c.
d.
31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

Aeronautics
Navigation
Guessing
Direction finding

38.

A moving target 180 degrees from the nose of the

ship is
a. On port quarter
b. Dead astern
c. On starboard bow
d. Dead ahead

39.

An aircraft has a magnetic heading of 150 degrees

and a relative bearing to a NDB station of 75 degrees.
Determine the magnetic bearing of the station in
degrees.
a. 150 degrees
b. 75 degrees
c. 230 degrees
d. 225 degrees

40.

The ability of a radar to determine the bearing of a

target depends upon the
a. Antenna directivity
b. Speed of light
c. Speed of the target
d. Frequency of the signal

41.

Which of the following divides the earth into two

hemispheres, northern and southern?
a. Prime meridian
b. Latitude
c. Longtitude
d. Equator

What is the ability of a radar receiver system to

discriminate between two or more closely spaced
targets on the same range?
a. Range resolution
b. Azimuth
c. Bearing resolution
d. Transponder

42.

Which of the following methods of determining a

fix involves the use of buoys and beacons?
a. Triangulation
b. Navigation
c. Homing
d. Fixing

What is the ability of a radar receiver system to

discriminate between two or more closely spaced
a. Range resolution
b. Azimuth
c. Bearing resolution
d. Transponder

43.

What type of map, centered on a location, shows

the shortest path to all points on the earth?
a. Topographical map
b. Political map
c. Geographical map
d. Great circle map

One nautical mile is approximately equal to how

many statute miles?
a. 1.61
b. 1.83
c. 1.15
d. 1.47

44.

A low power radar set has a peak pulse power of

3000w and a pulse duration of 2 microsec. If the PRR
is 8kHz, what must be the average power
a. 48 w
b. 0.75 Mw
c. 20.8 Mw
d. 1.5 w

It is a point on the earths surface that can be

recognized as part of an accepted set of coordinates
such as latitude and longitude
a. Direction
b. Position
c. Landmark
d. Range
When
called?
a.
b.
c.
d.

two bearing cross on a chart, what is it

Direction
Position
Intersection
Fix

The Greenwich Mean Time is also known as

a. IDT
b. Z Time
c. Polar time
d. Solar time

A radio navigational aid used to determine the

direction of an approaching radio wave.
a. Magnetic compass
b. NDB
c. Compass rose
d. RDF

45.

Which of the following information cannot be

derived from a PPI?
a. Range
b. Speed
c. Azimuth
d. None of these

a.
b.
c.
d.

46.

What is the intermediate frequency for most radar

receivers?
a. 30 MHz
b. 30 kHz
c. 600 kHz
d. 600 GHz

47.

In what distance units are marine radars calibrated?

a. Radar mile
b. Statute mile
c. Nautical mile
d. mile

55.

What is a target display on a CRT called?

a. Pulse
b. Blip
c. Burst
d. Beacon

56.

The ILS glide path measures what deviation of n

aircraft?
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Ground speed
d. Distance between aircrafts

57.

A transponder that replies to the interrogating

aircraft signal and identifies itself.
a. VOR
b. Radar beacon
c. ILS
d. Localizer

58.

If the aircraft is flying off path in the lower area of

the glide slope pattern which modulation signal is
prevailing or has the higher strength?
a. 90 Hz
b. 150 Hz
c. 75 MHz
d. 75 Hz

59.

If the aircraft s flying off-course in the left area of

the lcalizer pattern, which modulation signal is
prevailing or has the higher strength?
a. 90 Hz
b. 150 Hz
c. 75 Mhz
d. 75 Hz

60.

What is the visual marker indication when an

aircraft flies through an Outer Marker Beacon?

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

Why must a radar antenna be pointed directly at a

target?
a. For high directivity
b. Due tp narrow beamwidth
c. For good scanning
d. Due to the nature of electromagnetic waves
What
rate?
a.
b.
c.
d.

54.

International Communication Aviation

Organization
International Civil Administrative Org
International
Communication
thru
Authoritative Org
International Civil Aviation Organization

radar circuit determines the pulse repetition

Discriminator
Timer
Artificial transmission line
Pulse rate circuit

Which of the following is not a distress frequency?

a. 2182 kHz
b. 500 kHz
c. 156.8 MHz
d. 1 kHz
The term used for the mechanism of a radar
searching for an object.
a. Scanning
b. Tracing
c. Relaying
d. Nodding
ICAO means

What radio navigational aid determines the distance

from a transponder beacon by measuring the length
of the time the radio signal took to travel to the
receiver?
a. Radar
b. LORAN
c. DME
d. Distance marking
VOR stations operate in the ____ band.
a. LF
b. MF
c. UHF
d. VHF

a.
b.
c.
d.
61.

62.
a.
b.
c.
d.

White light
Blue light
Black light
Amber light

A device which limits the display of radar in

formation primarily to moving targets
a. DME
b. MTI
c. A scan
d. PPI
Which band in radio spectrum does the radio
navigational system DECCA transmit?
LF
VLF
VHF
HF

63.

OMEGA navigation system operates in what

frequency band?
a. VLF
b. LF
c. HF
d. VHF

64.

The body that controls and maintains facilities of

civil aviation in the Philippines.
a. LTO
b. ATO
c. MARINA
d. MULAWIN

65.

66.

67.
a.
b.

Which of the following signals has the highest

priority?
a. Distress
b. Urgency
c. Safety
d. Security
The word roger is used by an operator to signify
that
a. I have received, understood all of your
last transmission
b. Your last message received, understood and
will be complied with
c. My transmission is ended and I expect a
response from you
d. The transmission is ended and no response
is expected
It is the movement of the aircraft about its vertical
axis.
Roll
Pitch

c.
d.
68.
a.
b.
c.
d.
69.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Yaw
Crawl
If the target cross section is changing, the best
system for accurate tracking is
Nodding
Spiral
Conical
Monopulse
when a single antenna is intended to be used for
transmitting and receiving, it is necessary to use a
duplexer
diplexer
combiner
translator

70.
a.
b.
c.
d.

TACAN is a navigational aid providing

Speed and height indication
Bearing and weather information
Bearing and distance indication
Cone of confussion

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

1.
Which best describe the sound wave?
a.

It may be longitudinal

b.

It is always transverse

c.

It is always longitudinal

d.

All of the above

2.
Which of the following can not travel through
a vacuum?
a.

Electromagnetic wave

b.

Radio wave

c.

Soundwave

d.

Light wave

3.
Through which medium does sound travel
fastest?

a.

Air

b.

Water

c.

Steel

d.

Mercury

8.
Sound that vibrates at frequency too high for
the human ear to hear (over 20 kHz)
a.

Subsonic

b.

Ultrasonic

c.

Transonic

d.

Stereo

4.

Speed that is faster than that of sound.

a.

Ultrasonic

b.

Supersonic

9.
The frequency interval between two sounds
whose frequency ratio is 10

c.

Subsonic

a.

Octave

d.

Transonic

b.

Half octave

c.

Third-octave

d.

Decade

5.

What is the speed of sound in air at 20C?

a.

1087 ft/s

b.

1100 ft/s

c.

1126 ft/s

d.

200 ft/s

6.
Calculate a half wavelength sound for sound
of 16000 Hz
a.

35 ft

b.

10 ft

c.

0.035 ft

d.

100 ft

7.
The lowest frequency that a human ear can
hear is
a.

5 Hz

b.

20 Hz

c.

30 Hz

d.

20 Hz

10.
A 16 KHz sound is how many octaves higher
than a 500 Hz sound
a.

b.

c.

d.

11.
Sound waves composed of but one frequency
is a/an
a.

Infra sound

b.

Pure tone

c.

Structure borne

d.

Residual sound

12.
Sound wave has two main characteristics
which are
a.

Highness and loudness

b.

Tone and loudness

c.

Pitch and loudness

d.

Rarefactions and compressions

13.
When waves bend away from straight lines of
travel, it is called
a.

Reflection

b.

Diffraction

c.

Rarefaction

d.

Refraction

14.
The amplitude of sound waves, the maximum
displacement of each air particle, is the property
which perceive as _____ of a sound
a.

Pitch

b.

Intensity

c.

Loudness

d.

Harmonics

15.
It is the weakest sound that average human
hearing can detect.
a.

SPL = 0 dB

b.

Threshold of hearing

c.

Reference pressure = 2 x 10-5N/m2

d.

A, b, c

17.
What is the device used in measuring sound
pressure levels incorporating a microphone,
amplification, filtering and a display.
a.

Audiometer

b.

OTDR

c.

SLM

d.

Spectrum analyzer

18.
What weighted scale in a sound level meter
gives a reading that is most closely to the response of
the human ear?
a.

Weighted scale A

b.

Weighted scale B

c.

Weighted scale C

d.

Weighted scale D

19.
For aircraft noise measurements,
weighting scale that is used is _____.
a.

Weighted scale A

b.

Weighted scale B

c.

Weighted scale C

d.

Weighted scale D

20.

It is the device used to calibrate an SLM?

a.

Microphone

b.

Pistonphone

16.
What is a device that is used to measure the
hearing sensitivity of a person?

c.

Telephone

a.

Audiometer

d.

Filter

b.

OTDR

c.

SLM

d.

Spectrum analyzer

the

21.
_____ is the sound power measured over the
area upon which is received.
a.

Sound pressure

b.

Sound energy

c.
d.

Sound intensity

26.
The sound pressure level is increased by
_____ dB if the pressure is doubled.

Sound pressure level

a.

b.

22.
A measure of the intensity of sound in
comparison to another sound intensity

c.

a.

Phon

d.

b.

Decibel

c.

Pascal

d.

Watts

27.
The sound pressure level is increased by
_____ dB if the intensity is doubled.
a.

b.

23.
Calculate the sound intensity level in dB of a
sound whose intensity is 0.007 W/m2.

c.

a.

95 dB

d.

b.

91 dB

c.

98 dB

d.

101 dB

28.
If four identical sounds are added what is the
increase in level in dB?
a.

b.

24.
What is the sound pressure level for a given
sound whose RMS pressure is 200/m2?

c.

a.

200 dB

d.

b.

20 dB

c.

140 dB

d.

14 dB

25.
What is the sound intensity for an RMS
pressure of 200 Pascal?
a.

90 W/m2

b.

98 W/m2

c.

108 W/m2

d.

88 W/m2

29.
The transmission of sound from one room to
an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or
ceilings.
a.

Flanking transmission

b.

Reflection

c.

Refraction

d.

Reverberation

30.
_____ is the continuing presence of an
audible sound after the sound source has stop.
a.

Flutter echo

b.

Sound concentration

c.

Sound shadow

d.

Reverberation

31.
dB

Required time for any sound to decay to 60

a.

Echo time

b.

Reverberation time

c.

Delay time

d.

Transient time

35.
It is an audio transducer that converts acoustic
pressure in air into its equivalent electrical impulses
a.

Loudspeaker

b.

Amplifier

c.

Baffle

d.

Microphone

36.
_____ is a pressure type microphone with
permanent coil as a transducing element.
a.

Dynamic

b.

Condenser

32.
A room containing relatively little sound
absorption

c.

Magnetic

a.

Dead room

d.

Carbon

b.

Anechoic room

c.

Live room

d.

Free-field

33.
A room in which the walls offer essentially
100% absorption, therefore simulating free field
conditions.

37.
A microphone which has an internal
impedance of 25 k is _____ type.
a.

High impedance

b.

Low impedance

c.

Dynamic

d.

Magnetic

a.

Dead room

b.

Anechoic room

c.

Live room

38.
effect

d.

Closed room

a.

Dynamic

b.

Condenser

c.

Crystal

d.

Carbon

34.
Calculate the reverberation time of the room,
which has a volume of 8700 ft3 and total sound
absorption 140 sabins.

A microphone that uses the piezoelectric

a.

0.3 sec

b.

3.5 sec

c.

3 sec

39.
_____ is a type of loudspeaker driver with an
effective diameter of 5 inches used at midrange audio
frequency.

d.

0.53 sec

a.

Tweeter

b.

Woofer

c.

Mid-range

d.

A or C

44.

Speaker is a device that

a.
Converts sound waves into current and
voltage
40.
_____ is measure of how much sound is
produced from the electrical signal.
a.

Sensitivity

b.

Distortion

c.
d.

Efficiency
Frequency response

41.
It describes the output of a microphone over a
range of frequencies.
a.

Directivity

b.

Sensitivity

c.
d.

Frequency response
All of the above

42.
A loudspeaker radiates an acoustic power of 1
mW if the electrical input is 10 W. What is its rated
efficiency?

b.
Converts current variations into sound
waves
c.
Converts electrical energy to mechanical
energy
d.
Converts electrical energy to electromagnetic
energy

45.
The impedance of most drivers is about _____
ohms at their resonant frequency.
a.

b.

c.

d.

10

46.
It is a transducer used to convert electrical
energy to mechanical energy.
a.

Microphone

a.

-10 dB

b.

Baffle

b.

-20 dB

c.

Magnetic assemble

c.

-30 dB

d.

Driver

d.

-40 dB

43.
An amplifier can deliver 100 W to a
loudspeaker. If the rated efficiency of the
loudspeaker is -60 dB. What is the maximum
intensity 300 ft from it?

47.
It is an enclosure used to prevent front and
back wave cancellation.
a.

Loudspeaker

b.

Driver

a.

10 dB

c.

Baffle

b.

20 dB

d.

Frame

c.

30 dB

d.

40 dB

48.
A circuit that divides the frequency
components into separate bands in order to have
individual feeds to the different drivers.
a.

c.

Decibel

d.

Mel

Suspension system

b.

Dividing network

c.

Magnet assembly

d.

Panel board

53.
A unit of noisiness related to the perceived
noise level
a.

Noy

b.

dB

c.

Sone

d.

Phon

49.

_____ is early reflection of sound.

a.

Echo

b.

Pure sound

c.

Reverberation

54.
What is the loudness level of a 1KHz tone if
its intensity is 1 x 10-5W/cm2?

d.

Intelligible sound

a.

100 phons

b.

105 phons

c.

110 phons

d.

100 phons

50.
Noise reduction system used for film sound in
movie.
a.

Dolby

b.

DBx

c.

dBa

d.

dBk

51.
Using a microphone at less than the
recommended working distance will create a _____
which greatly increases the low frequency signals.

55.
What is the process of sending voice, speech,
music or image intended for reception by the general
public?
a.

Navigation

b.

Telephony

c.

Broadcasting

d.

Mixing

a.

Roll-off

b.

Proximity effect

c.

Drop out

56.
What is the frequency tolerance for the RF
carrier in the standard AM radio broadcast band?

d.

None of the choices

a.

Zero

b.

20 Hz

52.

What is the unit of loudness?

c.

10 Hz

a.

Sone

d.

20 KHz

b.

Phon

57.
The transmitting antenna for an AM broadcast
station should have a _____ polarization.
a.

Vertical

b.

Horizontal

c.

Circular

d.

Elliptical

a.

b.

10

c.

15

d.

20

62.
What are the frequency limits of the MF BC
band?
58.
The part of a broadcast day from 6 PM to 6
AM local time
a.

a.

300-3000 kHz

b.

3-30 MHz

c.

535-1605 kHz

d.

88-108 MHz

Daytime

b.

Nighttime

c.

Bed time

d.

Experimental period
63.
The center to center spacing between two
adjacent stations in the Phil. AM BC band is ____.

59.
The service area where the signal is not
subject to fading and co-channel interference.
a.

Primary Service Area

b.

Secondary Service Area

c.

Intermittent Service Area

d.

Quarternary Service Area

a.

9 kHz

b.

200 kHz

c.

36 kHz

d.

800 kHz

64.
How many AM stations can be
accommodated in a 150-kHz bandwidth if the highest
modulating frequency is 10 kHz?
60.
It is a resistive load used in place of an
antenna to test a transmitter under normal loaded
condition without actually radiating the transmitters
output signal.

a.

10

b.

15

a.

Auxiliary Tx

c.

b.

Main Tx

d.

14

c.

Secondary Tx

d.

Artificial Antenna

61.
The operating power of the auxiliary
transmitter shall not be less than _____% or never
greater than the authorized operating power of the
main transmitter.

65.
Short wave broadcasting operates in what
band?
a.

MF

b.

HF

c.

VHF

d.

VLF

b.

88.1 MHz

c.

88.3 MHz

d.

108 MHz

66.

What does the acronym STL stand for?

a.

Station-to-link

b.

Signal-to-loss-ratio

c.

Shout-to-live

71.
What is the radio transmission of two separate
signals, left, and right, used to create a
multidimensional effect on the receiver?

d.

Studio-to-transmitter-link

a.

SCA

b.

Stereo system

67.
One of the main considerations in the
selection of antenna site is (AM)

c.

Pilot transmission

a.

Conductivity of the soil

d.

b.

Height of the terrain

c.

Elevation of the site

72.
The carrier frequency tolerance for FM
broadcasting is _____.

d.

Accessibility

a.

25 kHz

b.

2 kHz

c.

20 kHz

d.

30 kHz

68.
One of the broadcast transmission auxiliary
services is:

Monophonic

transmission

a.

Remote pick-up

b.

STL

c.

Communication, Coordination and Control

73.
What is the modulation used by the
stereophonic subcarrier?

d.

All of the above

a.

FM

b.

PM

c.

ISB

d.

DSB

74.

What is the pilot signal for stereo FM?

a.

4.25 MHz

b.

10 kHz

c.

19 KHz

d.

38 KHz

69.
What is the spacing between any two adjacent
channels in the FM broadcast band?
a.

20 KHz

b.

36 KHz

c.

200 KHz

d.

800 KHz

70.
The first channel in the FM BC band has a
center frequency of
a.

88 MHz

75.
With stereo FM transmission, does a
monaural receiver produce all the sounds that a stereo
does?
a.

Yes

b.

No

c.

Either a or b

d.

Neither a or b

76.
Where is de-emphasis added in a stereo FM
system?
a.

Before the matrix at the TX

b.

Before the matrix at the RX

c.

After the matrix at the TX

d.

After the matrix at the RX

c.

Both a & b

d.

67 KHz

80.
When fed to the stereo FM modulator, in what
form are the L R signals?
a.

AF

b.

DSBSC

c.

19 kHz

d.

38 kHz

81.
An additional channel of multiplex
information that is authorized by the FCC for stereo
FM radio stations to feed services such as
commercial-free programming to selected customers.
a.

STL

b.

EBS

77.
Where is the pre-emphasis added in a stereo
FM system?

c.

EIA

a.

Before the matrix at the TX

d.

SCA

b.

Before the matrix at the RX

c.

After the matrix at the TX

d.

After the matrix at the RX

82.
The class of FM station, which has an
authorized radiated power not exceeding 125 KW:
a.

Class C

b.

Class A

78.
The normal frequency for an SCA subcarrier
is _____ KHz.

c.

Class D

a.

67

d.

Class B

b.

76

c.

38

d.

19

79.
A monaural FM receiver receives only the
_____ signal of a stereo multiplex transmission.
a.

L+R

b.

LR

83.
An FM broadcast station, which has an
authorized transmitter power not exceeding 10 KW
and ERP not exceeding 30 KW:
a.

Class D

b.

Class C

c.

Class A

d.

Class B

84.
A class of FM station which is limited in
antenna height of 500 ft. above average terrain
a.

Class D

b.

Class C

c.

Class A

d.

Class B

a.

100

b.

200

c.

125

d.

600

89.
What kind of modulation is used for the
sound portion of a commercial broadcast TV
transmission?
a.

PM

85.
What type of broadcast service might have
their antennas on top of hills?

b.

FM

a.

FM

c.

C3F

b.

AM

d.

AM

c.

TV

d.

A&C

86.
How are guardbands allocated in commercial
FM stations?
a.
25 kHz on either sides of the transmitting
signal
b.

50 kHz on each side of the carrier

c.

75 kHz deviation

d.

15 kHz modulation

87.
How many commercial FM broadcast
channels can fit into the bandwidth occupied by a
commercial TV station?
a.

10

b.

20

c.

30

d.

40

90.
Estimate the bandwidth occupied by the
sound portion of a TV transmission in US.
a.

25 kHz

b.

800 kHz

c.

80 kHz

d.

200 kHz

91.
What is the main reason why television
picture signal uses amplitude modulation, while voice
is frequency modulated?
a.

Better efficiency

b.

Eliminate attenuation of both video and audio

c.
Maintain synchronized scanning between
transmit and received video
d.
To minimize interference between signals
at received end

92.
The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a
TV receiver are _____ respectively.
88.
How many international commercial AM
broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth
occupied by a commercial TV station?

a.

41.25 MHz, 45.75 MHz

b.

45.25 MHz, 41.75 MHz

c.

41.75 MHz, 45.25 MHz

b.

211.25 MHz

d.

45.75 MHz, 41.25 MHz

c.

58.83 MHz

d.

214.83 MHz

93.
What is the separation between visual and
aural carrier in TV broadcasting?
a.

1.25 MHz

b.

4.5 MHz

c.

5.75 MHz

d.

0.25 MHz

98.
If the sound carrier for UHF channel 23 is
529.75 MHz, what is the frequency of the tuners
local oscillator, when turned to this channel?
a.

571 MHz

b.

511 MHz

c.

498 MHz

d.

500 MHz

94.
What is the separation between the lower
limit of a channel and the aural carrier?
a.

1.25 MHz

b.

4.5 MHz

c.

5.75 MHz

d.

0.25 MHz

99.
What is the frequency tolerance in the color
carrier of TV broadcasting?
a.

2 kHz

b.

20 Hz

c.

10 Hz

d.

1 kHz

95.

What is the visual carrier for channel 12?

a.

205.25 MHz

b.

55.25 MHz

100. What is the exact picture carrier frequency for

frequency for channel 7 offset by 10 KHz?

c.

65.75 MHz

175.25 MHz

d.

59.75 MHz

175.26 MHz

174 MHz

175.24 MHz

96.

What is the aural carrier for channel 3?

a.

61.25 MHz

b.

55.25 MHz

c.

65.75 MHz

d.

59.75 MHz

97.

What is color subcarrier for channel 2?

a.

68.83 MHz

101.
TV channels 7, 11 and 13 are known as
_____.
a.

Mid band UHF

b.

Low band UHF

c.

High band VHF

d.

low band UHF

102.
What is eliminated by using interlaced
scanning?
a.

Noise

b.

Excessive BW

c.

Frame

d.

Flicker

103. What percentage of the primary colors used in

color TV are needed to produce the brightest white?
a.

0.304

c.

0.498

d.

0.022

107.

The three complementary colors are:

a.

White, yellow, cyan

b.

Black, white, gray

c.

Yellow, magenta, cyan

d.

Violet, indigo, fushcia

30% red, 59% green, 11% blue

b.

33% red, 33% green, 33% blue

c.

50% red, 28% green, 22% blue

d.

58% red, 20% green, 22% blue

104.
a.
b.

b.

108.
When the colors Magenta and Yellow are
mixed the resultant color is:
a.

Red

b.

White

c.

Blue

d.

Green

The color with the most luminance is

Red
Yellow

c.

Green

d.

Blue

109. Which of the following consist of two of the

three primary colors in television signal? a) red, b)
violet, c) yellow, and d) blue

105. Suppose the signal from a color camera has

R=0.8, G=0.4 and B=0.2, where 1 represents the
maximum signal possible. Determine the value at the
luminance signal
a.

0.498

b.

0.254

c.

0.1325

d.

1.4

106.
In the previous problem, calculate the
chrominance signal
a.

0.305

a.

A and B

b.

B and C

c.

C and D

d.

A and D

110.
The studio camera produces a luminance
signal that contains information about
a.

The musical content

b.

The speech content

c.

The brightness of the scene

d.

The color content of the scene

111.
Brightness variations
information are in which signal?
a.

b.

c.

d.

of

the

picture

a.

compatibility with b lack and white receivers

b.

Within 6 MHz bandwidth

c.

Simulate a wide variety of colors

d.

Functional with baron super antenna

116. How many electron beams actually leave the

electron gun of a single-gun color CRT?
112.
Which of the following is the color video
signal transmitted as amplitude modulation of the
3.58 MHz C signal with bandwidth of 0 to 1.3 MHz?

a.

b.

a.

I signal

c.

b.

Q signal

d.

1/3

c.

Y signal

d.

X signal

113.
Which of the following is the color video
signal transmitted as amplitude modulation of the
3.58 MHz C signal in quadrature with bandwidth of 0
to 0.5 MHz?

117.
What is the difference between the sound
carrier and color subcarrier frequencies?
a.

1.25 MHz

b.

3.58 MHz

c.

4.5 MHz

d.

0.92 MHz

a.

I signal

b.

Q signal

c.

Y signal

118.

What does aspect ratio mean?

d.

Z signal

a.

Ratio of the screen width to its height

b.

Ratio of the screen height to its width

c.

Ratio of the screen diagonal to its width

d.

Ratio of the screen diagonal to its height

114.
The _____ affects the difference between
black and white on the picture tube and controls the
gain of the video amplifier
a.

Brightness control

b.

Volume control

119.

What is the aspect ratio for HDTV system?

c.

Power control

a.

4/3

d.

Contrast control

b.

9/7

c.

19/6

d.

16/9

115. Which of the following is not a requirement

for a color TV signal?

120.
The signal that will give the exact color
wavelength is _____.
a.

Hue

b.

Saturation

c.

Carrier

d.

Monochrome

c.

15750 Hz

d.

157625 Hz

125.
What scheme is employed to cause the
electron beam in the TV receiver and the electron
beam in the studio camera to track identically?
a.

Interlacing

b.

NTSC

121.
Which of the following represents the
intensity of a given color?

c.

Interleaving

a.

d.

Transmission of sync pulses

Hue

b.

Saturation

c.

Carrier

126.

Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during

d.

Monochrome

a.

Horizontal blanking

b.

Vertical blanking

c.

The serrations

d.

Equalizing intervals

122. The _____ ensures that the electron beam will

strike the correct phosphor dot on the TV screen.
a.

Coating

b.

Aperture Mask

127. What is the return of the electron beam in a

CRT from right to left or from bottom to top?

c.

Diplexer

a.

Relay

d.

Duplexer

b.

Flyback

c.

Utilization

d.

Resolution

123. In a TV receiver, what is the horizontal signal

frequency?
a.

30 Hz

b.

60 Hz

128.
What is the North American TV standard
video?

c.

15750 Hz

a.

PAL

d.

157625 Hz

b.

SECAM

c.

NTSC

d.

FCC

124. In a TV receiver, what is the vertical signal

frequency?
a.

30 Hz

b.

60 Hz

129. What is the maximum allowable frequency

deviation in the audio section of a TV signal for
PAL/SECAM?

a.

25 kHz

b.

50 kHz

134.

The channel width in the U.S. TV system is :

c.

75 kHz

a.

2 MHz

d.

100 kHz

b.

6 MHz

c.

7 MHz

d.

8 MHz

130. What is the frame frequency in the US TV

system?
a.

30 Hz

b.

60 Hz

c.

15750 Hz

d.

157625 Hz

131. What is the highest video frequency set by the

FCC for commercial TV?
a.

4.2 MHz

b.

15 MHz

c.

6 MHz

d.

5.5 MHz

135. It is the popular TV camera designed with

much smaller package and lower cost than its earlier
designs
a.

Image orthicon

b.

Iconoscope

c.

Vidicon

d.

Plumbicon

136.
In a composite video signal, what is the
relationship between the amplitude of the signal and
the intensity of the electron beam in the receiver
picture tube?
a.
The greater the amplitude the darker the
picture

132.
What determines the maximum number of
vertical picture elements?

b.

a.

Number of frames per second

c.
The greater the amplitude the lighter the
picture

b.

Number of lines on the screen

d.

c.

Number of pixels

d.

Number of fields per second

133.
How many horizontal lines are used to
develop a TV raster?

The lower the amplitude the darker the picture

No effect

137. If there are 625 lines per TV picture then the

number of lines per field are:
a.

1250

b.

312.5

a.

615

c.

625

b.

525

d.

2500

c.

750

d.

15750

138.
What is the process of placing the
chrominance signal in the band space between
portions of the luminance signal?

b.

Blanking pulse

c.

Synchronizing pulse

a.

Interlacing

d.

All of these

b.

Fitting

c.

Sneaking

d.

Interleaving

143. What is the smallest amount of information

that can be displayed on a television screen?

139. How much time elapses between the start of

one horizontal sync pulse and the next?
a.

10.2 s

b.

63.5 s

c.

16.67 s

d.

100 s

Blip

b.

Burst

c.

Pixel

d.

Bits

144.
It is the quality of the TV picture after
imperfections

140.

Which of the following frequencies is wrong?

a.

15,750 Hz for horizontal sync and scanning

b.

60 Hz for vertical sync and scanning

c.
31,500 Hz for the equalizing pulses and
serrations in the vertical sync pulse
d.
31,500
frequency

a.

Hz

for

the

vertical

a.

Aspect ratio

b.

Utilization ratio

c.

A1

d.

Monochrome

145. What section of a TV receiver determines the

bandwidth and produces the most signal gain?

scanning

141. The camera tube that uses selenium, arsenic

and tellurium
a.

Plumbicon

b.

Vidicon

c.

Saticon

d.

Silicon Vidicon

142.
are:

The components of composite video signal

a.

Chroma signal

a.

RF amplifier

b.

Audio amplifier

c.

IF amplifier

d.

Tuned circuit