Escolar Documentos
Profissional Documentos
Cultura Documentos
release of the 2001 Census. This is evident in various policy initiatives undertaken
earlier. For example, the Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation and
Prevention of Misuse) Act prohibiting the use of prenatal diagnostic techniques for
the purpose of prenatal sex determination was passed as early as 1994 in recognition
of the widespread use of ultrasound and related technologies
to eliminate unwanted female fetuses. Further, the National Population Policy of
2000 explicitly recognized the problem and suggested policy initiatives directed
toward ending discriminatory practices that adversely affect the health of the girl
child (Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, 2000).
Since the pathways to a lower sex ratio of the population age 0-6 mainly involve a
low sex ratio at birth and/or excess female mortality after birth, this chapter
examines the levels of these and related indicators, including the sex ratio of live
births by whether the mother had an ultrasound test during pregnancy. The chapter
focuses on the sex ratio at birth, providing insight into how this ratio varies for all
births and last births. The overall sex ratio at birth can be directly affected by the use
of modern technologies that allow couples to have only children of a desired sex. In
addition, where strong couple-level gender preferences exist, couples are more likely
to stop having children only when their desired sex combination of children has been
achieved. This behavior will not affect the overall sex ratio at birth, but will affect the
sex ratios at birth of last births. For example, in societies with strong son preference,
last births are more likely to be male, and females are more likely to grow up in large
families. Thus, an examination of sex ratios of last births provides insight into the
pervasiveness of son preference.
Q1. What was the sex ratio in 1991? Did it decline or increase as per the
2001 census data?
1. 941 females to 1000 males; declined
2. 942 females to 1000 males; increased
3. 943 females to 1000 males; declined
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4. Options 1 and/or 2.
5. Options 1 and/or 3.
Q5. What are the direct outcomes in societies with strong son
preference?
1. Last births are males.
2. Last births are females.
3. Females are more likely to grow up in large families.
4. Options 1 and 3.
5. Options 2 and 3.
Q6. Which of the following sentences correctly summarizes the key
findings in the paragraph?
1. Gender inequality is highly prevalent in India, and it is represented in the skewed
sex ratio of the country. Strong preferences for sons have often lead to detection and
abortion of female foetuses leading to a highly disturbing sex ratio in the age group of
0 6.
2. Gender equality is highly prevalent in India, and it is represented in the skewed
sex ratio of the country. Strong preferences for sons have often lead to detection and
abortion of female foetuses leading to a highly disturbing sex ratio in the age group of
0 6.
3. Gender inequality is highly prevalent in India, and it is represented in the skewed
sex ratio of the country. Strong preferences for daughters have often lead to detection
and abortion of female foetuses leading to a highly disturbing sex ratio in the age
group of 0 6.
4. Gender inequality is highly prevalent in India, and it is represented in the skewed
sex ratio of the country. Strong preferences for sons have often lead to detection and
abortion of male foetuses leading to a highly disturbing sex ratio in the age group of
0 6.
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1. Stratification
2. Distinction
3. Demarcation
4. Obstruction
5. Evolution
Q9. Which of these words appropriately fits blank labelled (B)?
1. Engaged
2. Dominated
3. Dominating
4. Averse
5. Hostile
Q10. Which of these words appropriately fits blank labelled (C)?
1. Organization
2. Mobility
3. Efficiency
4. Selection
5. Migration
Q11. Which of these words appropriately fits blank labelled (D)?
1. Rigid
2. Obstinate
3. Self-reliant
4. Inefficient
5. Predetermined
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5. Hearken
Q16. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part
is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
Jon Snow was (1)/ the richer man (2)/ in the town and this was proven (3)/ by his
ownership of the castle (4)/.No error (5).
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q17. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part
is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
He was (1)/ quite surprising (2)/ to see his brother talking (3)/ to the policeman in
such an aggressive manner.(4)/ No error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q18. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part
is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
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India needs a value education system (1)/ who will inculcate values (2)/ among the
students and (3)/enrich their personalities. (4)/ No error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q19. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part
is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
Global warming could lead (1)/ to a annual decline of (2)/ 3 million tonne in milk
production (3)/ by 2020 (4)/ No error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q20. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part
is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
The United States of America was being considered (1)/ to be the most (2)/ advanced
country in (3)/ terms of growth and education. (4)/ No error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
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5. 5
Q21. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part
is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
These particular students (1)/ due to their rowdy behaviour (2)/ are debarring from
(3)/ the semester examinations (4)/ No error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q22. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part
is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
He did not (1)/ mention (2)/ neither the deposit (3)/ or the rate. (4)/ No error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q23. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part
is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
Please help Sara (1)/get acquainted with (2)/ all the other (3)/ students of the class.
(4)/ No error (5)
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1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q24. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part
is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
He usually goes to (1)/ school by car but (2)/ sometimes he goes by foot (3)/ when he
has no other option. (4)/ No Error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Q25. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part
is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
I have not (1)/ met him (2)/ when that unfortunate event (3)/ took place in his
family. (4)/ No Error (5)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
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2. B
3. D
4. E
5. F
Q28. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after
rearrangement?
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. E
5. F
Q29. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after
rearrangement?
1. E
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. B
Q30. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after
rearrangement?
1. B
2. A
3. E
4. F
5. C
Quantitative Ability
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Q31. Raman borrows some money out of Rs. 8000 at 8 percent and the
rest at 10 percent annum at simple interest. If the total interest on the
whole amount for 3 years is Rs. 2100, what is the ratio of the two parts of
money?
1. 5 : 3
2. 31 : 9
3. 3 : 5
4. 2 : 3
5. 7 : 3
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2. if x y
3. if x < y
4. if x y
5. if x = y or the relationship cannot be established.
Q34. Direction: In the following questions two equations numbered I and
II are given. You have to solve both the equations and find relation
between x and y.
I. 225x2 4 = 0
II. y 225 + 2 = 0
1. x > y
2. x y
3. x < y
4. x y
5. x = y or the relationship cannot be established.
Q35. Direction: In the following questions two equations numbered I and
II are given. You have to solve both the equations and find relation
between x and y.
I. x2 365 = 364
II. y - 324 = 81
1. x > y
2. x y
3. x < y
4. x y
5. x = y or the relationship cannot be established.
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Q36. In the following question, one or two equation(s) is/are given. You
have to solve both the equations and find the relation between a and b
and mark correct answer.
I. a2 + 12a + 32 = 0
II. 2b2 + 15b + 27 = 0
1. a > b
2. a b
3. a < b
4. a b
5. a = b or the relation cannot be determined
Q37. In the following question, one or two equation(s) is/are given. You
have to solve both the equations and find the relation between a and b
and mark correct answer.
I. 9a2 114a + 361 = 0
II. b2 = 36
1. a > b
2. a b
3. a< b
4. a b
5. a = b or the relation cannot be determined
Q38. A train leaves Muzaffarpur for Hazipur at 2:15 p.m. and travels at
the rate of 50 kmph. Another train leaves Hazipur for Muzaffarpur at
1:35 p.m. and travels at the rate of 60 kmph. If the distance between
Hazipur and Muzaffarpur is 590 km at what distance from Muzaffarpur
will the two trains meet?
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1. 290 km
2. 300 km
3. 250 km
4. 275 km
5. 340 km
Q39. What is the depth of a cylindrical tank whose capacity is 2200 cubic
metres and diameter of the base is 14 m?
1. 10 m
2. 8 m
3. 14 m
4. 15 m
5. 14.28 m
1 4 + 2 5 8 4 2 =?
5
1. 1 9
2. 1 9
5
3. 2 9
4. 1 11
5. None of these
Q42. What should come in place of x in the following question?
(62 2 3) + 27 2 - 33 = x2
1. 9
2. 3
3. 7
4. 33
5. None of these
Q43. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?
14, 12, 21, 59, 231, 1149, ?
1. 6987
2. 6787
3. 6887
4. 6687
5. 6587
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Q44. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
number series?
16, 17, 15, 18, 14, ?
1. 10
2. 17
3. 18
4. 20
5. None of these
Q45. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?
2, 26, 144, 590, 1164, ?
1. 1864
2. 1732
3. 1460
4. 1296
5. None of these
Q46. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out
the wrong number.
1, 3, 10, 21, 64, 129, 356, 777
1. 21
2. 129
3. 10
4. 356
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5. None of these
Q47. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out
the wrong number
898, 906, 933, 996, 1122, 1338, 1681
1. 906
2. 933
3. 1122
4. 1338
5. None of these
Q48. In how many ways can a group of 5 children and 2 women be made
out of a total of 7 children and 3 women?
1. 63
2. 90
3. 126
4. 45
5. 135
Q49. A group of laborers promise to do a piece of work in 16 day, but 5 of
them do not turn up. If the rest of the groups do the work in 20 days, find
the original number of men.
1. 15
2. 25
3. 35
4. 45
5. None of these
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Q50. How much water be added to 14 kilolitres of milk worth Rs. 5.40 a
liltre so that the value of the mixture may be Rs. 4.20 a litre?
1. 7 K.L.
2. 6 K.L.
3. 5 K.L.
4. K.L.
5. 8 K.L.
Q51. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
question?
3
4 8 + 2 4 3 8 =?
1. 1
2.
3. 3
4. 2
5. None of these
Q52. What will come in place of question mark in the following question?
13% of 258 - ? = 10
1. 29.54
2. 22.33
3. 22.45
4. 23.54
5. None of these
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Q53. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
question?
212.8 217.2 213.6 = 21?
1. 13.6
2. 12.6
3. 12.8
4. 13.8
5. None of these
Q54. Coconuts were purchased at Rs. 150 per hundred and sold at Rs. 2
per coconut. If 2000 coconuts were sold. What was the total profit made?
1. Rs. 500
2. Rs. 1000
3. Rs. 1500
4. Rs. 2000
5. None of these
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Q55. What is the average number of players (both male and female) who
1. 620
2. 357
3. 230
4. 630
5. None of these
Q56. What is the difference between the number of female players who
play Lawn Tennis and the number of male players who play Rugby?
1. 94
2. 84
3. 320
4. 240
5. None of these
Q57. What is the ratio of the number of female players who play Cricket
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2. 1,734
3. 1,824
4. 1,964
5. None of these
Q59. The number of male players who play Rugby is approximately what
Q61-62. Directions: Study the tables carefully to answer the questions that
follow:
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Q61. Which city has the higher number of students failing the entrance
exam?
1. F
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. None of these
Q62. What is the ratio of the number of candidates failing the exam from
1. 289: 42
2. 42: 289
3. 227: 50
4. 50: 227
5. None of these
Q63. The number of candidates appearing for the exam from City C is
what per cent of the number of candidates appearing for the exam from
City B? (rounded off to the nearest integer)
1. 27
2. 34
3. 42
4. 21
5. 38
Q64. The number of candidates passing in the exam from City F is what
per cent of the total number of candidates appearing from all the cities
together? (rounded off to two digits after the decimal)
1. 12.93
2. 14.46
3. 10.84
4. 11.97
5. None of these
Q65. What is the number of candidates passing the exam from City E?
1. 13,000
2. 11,10,000
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3. 1,13,000
4. 11,000
5. None of these
Reasoning Language
Q66-70. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
In a certain code language:
All my friends are funny is coded as uh dem tur cade los;
All cartoons on nick are funny is coded as dem ruble ter alohas los cade;
Kenny Sebastian is a funny man is coded as ber los tand qwe kle balam;
Kenny and his friends are watching nick is coded as kle tius for tur bom ruble cade.
Q66. What is the code for word my?
1. dem
2. tur
3. los
4. uh
5. Cant be determined.
Q67. How the word nick is coded in the given coded language?
1. alohas
2. kle
3. ruble
4. pol
5. bom
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Q68. What will be the possible code for Kenny is my friend in the given
code language if the code for 'friend' and 'friends' is same?
1. tand kle dem lo
2. qwe kle tur dem
3. cade dem lo kle
4. ber tur kle uh
5.le uh lo tur
Q69. What will be the possible code for My friends are cartoons in the
given code language?
1. uh tur cade ter
2. tur uh cade ber
3. uh tur cade alohas
4. Either A or B
5. Either A or C
Q70. In a given language, the code ruble tand qwe balam uh ber stands
for?
1. A nick funny is my man
2. My sebastian is a nick man
3. Sebastian is a funny nick man
4. Either 1 or 2
5. Either 2 or 3
Q71. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be
true, find which of the conclusion among given three conclusions is /are definitely
true and then give your answers accordingly.
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Statements:
L M; N M; N < O; Q > O; Q P
Conclusions:
I. O M
II. Q < N
III. M < Q
1. Only III and I are true.
2. Only I and II are true.
3. Only II and III are true.
4. Only III is true.
5. All are true.
Q72. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be
true, find which of the conclusion among given three conclusions is /are definitely
true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements:
B < H; H U; C U; C < K
Conclusions:
I. C H
II. C B
III. U < K
1. Either I or III is true
2. Only II is true
3. Only I and III are true
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III. E < C
1. All are true
2. Only I and II are true
3. Either II or III are true
4. Only I and III are true
5. None is true
Q75. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be
true, find which of the conclusion among given three conclusions is /are definitely
true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements:
H> Q; S > R; S = T; Y > T; Q = V;Q R
Conclusions:
I. R V
II. H S
III. Y> R
1. Either I or III is true
2. Only I is true
3. Only III is true
4. Only II and III is true
5. None of these
Q76-78. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
Seven family members P, U, Q, T, C, G and R are related to each other such that,
there are two couples, each having a child.
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1. Son
2. Son in law
3. Daughter
4. Daughter in law
5. Cannot be determined
Q79. Directions: In the question below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some cars are jeeps.
All the boxes are jeeps.
All the pens are cars.
No car is bag.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are boxes.
II. No pen is jeep.
III. Some boxes are bags.
IV. Some bags being jeeps is a possibility.
1. All follows
2. Only I & II follow
3. Only II & IV follow
4. Only IV follows
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5. None of these
Q80. Directions: In the question below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some rats are cats.
Some cats are dogs.
No dog is cow.
All cows are donkeys.
Conclusions:
I. No cow is cat.
II. Some cats are not cows.
III. Some cats are rats.
IV. Some rats are donkeys.
1. All follows
2. Only II and III follow
3. Only III follows
4. Only I and IV follow
5. None of these
Q81. Directions: In the question below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
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conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some zips are locks.
Some locks are keys.
No key is a chain.
All chains are latches.
Conclusions:
I. Some zips are chains.
II. Some zips are not keys.
III. Some keys can be latches.
IV. Some locks can be chains.
1. Only I follow
2. Either I or III follows
3. Only II and III follow
4. Only III and IV follow
5. Only IV follows
Q82. Directions: In the question below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some sheets are scarves.
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3. D likes Red.
4. D is sitting second to the right of the person who likes White.
5. None is true.
Q87. How many people sit between D and the person who likes Purple?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. Four
Q88-92. Directions: Study the following information carefully and
answer the given questions.
Eight members M, N, P, Q, R, S, T and U of a family are sitting around a circular
table with all of them facing outwards. Each one of them has a different brand of car
from Maruti, Ambassador, Toyota, Ford, Tata, Fiat, Mercedes and Renault. There are
exactly 3 married couples in the family.
1) Q is the mother of M and R and sits second to the left of R.
2) M who is the father of S and uncle of T sits to the left of person owning Maruti.
3) U is the only sister-in-law of M whereas N owns Fiat and is daughter-in-law of P.
4) The one who owns an Ambassador sits between T and the owner of Tata. T is third
to the left of Q.
5) S is an immediate neighbor of her aunt U who does not sit next to Q.
6) The two youngest members sit next to each other.
7) The Fiat owner sits between Mercedes and Renault owner.
8) Qs husband and son sit next to her. P does not own Renault or Mercedes.
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3. Immediate left
4. Third to the right
5. Fourth to the left
Q92. Who among the following sits between N and owner of
Ambassador?
1. M
2. R
3. T
4. Q
5. U
Q93. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer
the given questions.
3 couples include P, Q, R, S, T and U decide to go for a movie. They like different
genres of movie such that only 2couples out of 3 like to watch the same genre.
Each person at the most like only 2genres.
The different genres are Comedy, Horror, Romcoms and Drama.
Given statements are,
1. P and R like the same genre of movie.
2. P is not married to U or T.
3. Q and S like to watch Horror movies among other things.
4. T alone likes to watch drama.
5. S is neither married to R or Q.
6. T, U and Q like to watch Romcoms.
7. R watches only comedy. S enjoys comedy too.
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2. Q, S
3. S, U
4. Each other
5. Cannot be determined
Q97. If R and T are married, who all might like comedy?
1. P, Q, R
2. R and P
3. P, S, R
4 P, S,R,U
5. Cant say for sure.
Q98-100. Directions: Study the information given below carefully and
answer the questions that follow.
Seven villages P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are situated as follows.
T is 2 km to the west Q. U is 2 km to north of P. R is 1 km to west of P.S is 2 km to the
south of V. V is 2 km to the east of R. S is exactly in the middle of Q and T.
Q98. How far is village T from village U?
1. 4 km
2. 20 km
3. 5 km
4. 26 km
5. None of these
Q99. Which of the two villages are the farthest from one another?
1. R and S
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2. T and U
3. U and Q
4. T and V
5. None of these
Q100. Directions: The question below consists of two statements numbered I and
II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
How is L related to H?
Statements:
I. H is sister of S who is mother of W.
II. L has brothers of which one is W.
1. Data in Statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
2. Data in Statements II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the questions
3. Data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II is sufficient to answer the
question:
4. Data even in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the
questions
5. Data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
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