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IASbabas Daily Quiz

October 3, 2016
Q.1) Recently a new species of Pika was discovered in Sikkim. Consider the following
statements about Pika
1. They are members of rat family
2. They are a keystone species
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Nether 1 nor 2

Q.1) Solution (b)


Pikas are members of the rabbit family and look like tailless rats.
They are a keystone species and ecosystem engineers
Keystone species is a species whose addition to or loss from an ecosystem leads to major
changes in occurrence of at least one other species.
Certain species in an ecosystem is considered more important in determining the presence
of many other species in that ecosystem.
If keystone species is lost, it will result in the degradation of whole ecosystem.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/new-species-of-pikadiscovered/article9175091.ece

Q.2) Which state accounts for the highest number of endemic flowering plants species as
revealed by a recent publication by the Botanical Survey of India (BSI)?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Maharashtra
Tamil Nadu
Kerala
Meghalaya

Q.2) Solution (b)

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 3, 2016
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/tn-tops-list-of-endemicflowering-plants/article9169360.ece

Q.3) Consider the following statements about National Organ and Tissue Transplant
Organization (NOTTO)
1. It is under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
2. This has been mandated as per the Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment)
Act 2011
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.3) Solution (c)


National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO) is a National level organization
set up under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare,
Government of India.
This has been mandated as per the Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment) Act
2011.
National Network division of NOTTO would function as apex centre for All India activities of
coordination and networking for procurement and distribution of Organs and Tissues and
registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/prognosis-is-good-forindias-organ-transplant-programme/article9177448.ece

Q.4) Consider the following statements about Simplified Proforma for Incorporating a
Company Electronically (SPICe) e-Form
1. It was launched by Ministry of Finance
2. It will provide speedy incorporation related services within stipulated time frames
which are in line with the international best practices

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 3, 2016
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) Solution (b)


Ministry of Corporate Affairs took another bold initiative in Government Process Reengineering (GPR) and launched a Simplified Proforma for Incorporating a Company
Electronically (SPICe) e-Form on the occasion of Gandhi Jayanthi 2016.
In News - http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=151383

Q.5) Select the incorrect statement from the below:


a) Marrakesh Treaty forms part of the body of international copyright treaties
administered by WIPO
b) India became the first country to ratify the Marrakesh Treaty
c) Accessible India Campaign has provided a nationwide flagship campaign for
universal access for people with disabilities
d) World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) headquarters is in Hague

Q.5) Solution (d)


Only last statement is incorrect. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland.
In News: http://iasbaba.com/2016/09/iasbabas-daily-current-affairs-30th-september2016/

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 4, 2016
Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to Organization of the Petroleum
Exporting Countries (OPEC)
1. All the founding members were from Asia
2. It is headquartered in Baghdad
Select the correct statement(s)
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.1) Solution (d)


Founding Members - by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela (South America)
It is headquartered in Vienna
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/opecs-roll-of-thedice/article9177400.ece

Q.2) Consider the following statements about South Asia Subregional Economic
Cooperation (SASEC)
1. All the members of SASEC are members of SAARC
2. Asian Development Bank (ADB) serves as the Secretariat for the SASEC member
countries
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Solution (c)


The South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation (SASEC) Program, set up in 2001, brings
together Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal and Sri Lanka.

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 4, 2016
These countries are members of SAARC.
Afghanistan and Pakistan (members of SAARC) are included in SASEC
The Manila, Philippines-based Asian Development Bank (ADB) serves as the Secretariat for
the SASEC member countries.
In News - http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-cm/six-member-countries-ofthe-south-asia-sub-regional-economic-cooperation-sasec-releases-its-operational-plan2016-2025-116092600868_1.html

Q.3) Consider the following statements about melamine


1. It is high in nitrogen
2. It is adulterated in milk and food products to increase its protein content
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.3) Solution (c)


Melamine is a by-product of the coal industry. It is a chemical compound with numerous
industrial uses, including the production of plastics, dishware, kitchenware, commercial
filters, laminates, adhesives, molding compounds, coatings and flame retardants.
Melamine ((1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine) is high in nitrogen (C3N6H6)
It is this characteristic that has led to its illegal addition to food and feed for the purpose of
increasing the apparent protein content of food and feed products.
How does melamine give an apparent increase in protein content?
One of the standard tests for measuring the protein content in food actually measures the
level of nitrogen and based on this estimated the level of protein in the food. As melamine is
high in nitrogen such tests will interpret this nitrogen content as protein. Therefore, if milk
has been diluted with water and melamine has been added, measuring the nitrogen level to
determine protein content will disguise the fact that water has been added to the milk.
However, there are a number of other methods now available to test the protein content in

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 4, 2016
food which do not focus on the measurement of nitrogen content. When such tests are
used the increased nitrogen content due to the presence of melamine will not be measured.
In cases of diluted milk these tests will detect reduced protein content.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/a-new-handheld-device-to-detectmelamine-in-milk/article9159866.ece

Q.4) Consider the following statements about Advantage Healthcare India (AHCI 2016)
1. It is an International Summit on Medical Value Travel with aim of Promoting
Healthcare Services Exports from India
2. It is an initiative by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Select the correct statement(s)
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) Solution (a)


What is it: an International Summit on Medical Value Travel with aim of Promoting
Healthcare Services Exports from India
Initiative of Ministry of Commerce & Industry, GoI with FICCI and Service Export Promotion
Council (SEPC)
FICCI is the voice of India's business and industry. Established in 1927, it is India's oldest and
largest apex business organization. It serves its members from the Indian private and public
corporate sectors and multinational companies, drawing its strength from diverse regional
chambers of commerce and industry across states, reaching out to over 2,50,000
companies.
SEPC is set by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India, SEPC is an apex
trade body to facilitate service exporters of India and serving as a platform of interaction
between service exporters and policy makers. SEPC has been instrumental in promoting the
efforts of Indian service exporting community since 2006.

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 4, 2016
Supported by Ministry of Home Affairs, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Ministry of
AYUSH, Ministry of External Affairs and Ministry of Tourism, Government of India and
National Accreditation Board for Hospitals & Healthcare Providers (NABH)
Objective: to promote India as a Premier Global Healthcare Destination and to enable
streamlined medical services exports from India.
It is a unique conglomeration of 5Ts

Tradition promoting AYUSH and wellness industry


Technology promoting technologically advanced medical treatment in India
Tourism encouraging people to travel to India for medical value reasons
Talent showcasing globally renowned Indian talent in healthcare sector
Trade creating unique B2B institutionalized linkages

AHCI will bring together stakeholders from 67 countries, first such initiative in the Indian
Subcontinent.
Importance:

The medical value travel industry has emerged as one of the fastest growing
segment of tourism industry despite the global economic downturn.
India is emerging as a preferred healthcare destination for patients across the globe.
Growing at a compounded annual growth rate (CAGR) of 27%, the inflow of medical
tourists in India is likely to cross 3.2 million in 2015.

In News - http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=151312

Q.5) Consider the below statements:


1. When a gene from one organism is purposely moved to improve or change another
organism in a laboratory, the result is a genetically modified organism (GMO).
2. The Cartagena Protocol regulates transboundary movement, transit, handling and
use of living modified organisms (LMO) that may have adverse effects on the
conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity.
Which statement(s) is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both
None

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 4, 2016

Q.5) Solution (c)


When a gene from one organism is purposely moved to improve or change another
organism in a laboratory, the result is a genetically modified organism (GMO).
The Cartagena Protocol regulates transboundary movement, transit, handling and use of
living modified organisms (LMO) that may have adverse effects on the conservation and
sustainable use of biological diversity.
Living Modified Organism (LMO) is a defined term that captures a wide range of
genetically modified organisms.
The Protocol addresses two general categories of LMOs:

those intended for release into the environment (e.g., seeds for cultivation and
animals for breeding) and
those intended for use in food or feed, or for processing (e.g., bulk commodities,
such as corn, cotton, and soy)

In News: http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-battle-over-btcotton/article9180979.ece
Source: https://www.cbd.int/doc/articles/2002-/A-00431.pdf

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 5, 2016
Q.1) Which of the following Ministries deals with the management of Haj Pilgrimage and
including administration of the Haj Committee Act, 1959?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Ministry of Minority Affairs


Ministry of External Affairs
Ministry of Home Affairs
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Q.1) Solution (a)


Following President Pranab Mukherjees assent to amendments to the Government of India
(Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, the Centre made public the gazette notification on the
transfer of management of Haj Pilgrimage, including administration of the Haj Committee
Act, 1959, to the Minorities Affairs Ministry.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/minority-affairs-ministry-takescharge-of-haj-pilgrimage/article9176608.ece

Q.2) Consider the following statements about Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC)
1. It is an Autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public
Distribution
2. Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) is an official document meant for overall Quality Control
and Assurance of Pharmaceutical products marketed in India
Select the correct statement(s)
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Solution (b)


Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) is an Autonomous Institution of the Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India. IPC is created to set standards of drugs in the
country. Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required
for treatment of diseases prevailing in this region. It publishes official documents for
improving Quality of Medicines by way of adding new and updating existing monographs in

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 5, 2016
the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP). It further promotes rational use of generic
medicines by publishing National Formulary of India.
IP prescribes standards for identity, purity and strength of drugs essentially required from
health care perspective of human beings and animals.
IPC also provides IP Reference Substances (IPRS) which act as a finger print for identification
of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP.
IP standards are authoritative in nature. They are enforced by the Regulatory authorities for
quality control of medicines in India. During Quality Assurance and at the time of dispute in
the court of law the IP standards are legally acceptable.
IP is an official document meant for overall Quality Control and Assurance of Pharmaceutical
products marketed in India by way of contributing on their safety, efficacy and affordability.
The work of the IPC is performed in collaboration with members of the Scientific Body,
subject experts as well as with representatives from Central Drugs Standard Control
Organization (CDSCO), State Regulatory authorities, specialist from Industries, Associations,
Councils and from other Scientific and Academic Institutions.
IP contains a collection of authoritative procedures of analysis and specifications for Drugs.
The IP, or any part of it, has got legal status under the Second Schedule of the Drugs &
Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Rules 1945 there under.
As per the policy of IPC, IP monographs are not framed to detect all possible impurities. The
prescribed tests are designed to determine impurities on which attention are required to be
focused, to fix the limits of those that are tolerable to a certain extent, and to indicate
methods for ensuring the absence of those, that are undesirable. It is, therefore, not to be
presumed that the impurities can be tolerated because they have not been precluded by
the prescribed tests.
Distinction exists between Pharmacopoeial Standards and Manufacturers release
specifications. Pharmacopoeial standards are publicly-available compliance document that
provide the means for an independent check about the quality of a product, all time during
its shelf-life. To ensure compliance related to pharmacopoeial requirements, the
manufacturers specifications may need to be more exacting than corresponding
pharmacopoeial specifications.
In News
http://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/nvbdcp-inks-pact-to-monitordrugs-used-to-treat-kala-azar-116080401664_1.html

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 5, 2016
http://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/ayush-us-pharmacopeialconvention-mou-on-traditional-medicines-116082401403_1.html

Q.3) Which of the following is the first state to implement Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) in
Kerosene
a)
b)
c)
d)

Bihar
Jharkhand
Maharashtra
Rajasthan

Q.3) Solution (b)


In News - http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ani/jharkhand-becomes-firststate-to-implement-direct-benefit-transfer-in-kerosene-116100400107_1.html

Q.4) Recently the New Delhi Declaration on Education was adopted by


a)
b)
c)
d)

Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)


SAARC
BRICS
None of the above

Q.4) Solution (c)


The BRICS nations have adopted the New Delhi Declaration on Education to ensure
inclusive and equitable quality education and promote life-long learning opportunities for
all.
In News - http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=151309

Q.5) Consider the following statements with respect to the Arctic Council
1. Only states with territory in the Arctic can be members of the Council
2. India is a non-circumpolar country in the Arctic Council and has an observer status
3. All Scandinavian countries are members of Arctic Council

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 5, 2016
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above

Q.5) Solution (d)


Only states with territory in the Arctic can be members of the Council. All eight countries are
members making the Arctic Council a circumpolar forum. The Council also has permanent
and ad hoc observer countries and "permanent participants".
Member countries are: Canada, Denmark (representing also the dependencies of Greenland
and Faroe Islands), Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden, and United States.
In 2013, India was granted observer status to the Arctic, where India joined China, Italy,
Japan, Singapore, and South Korea as a non-circumpolar country in the Arctic Council.
In News - http://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/arctic-region-opportunitiessouth-korea-india-2964498/

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 6, 2016
Q.1) Consider the following statements about GSAT-18
1. It is a communication satellite operated by INSAT system
2. It was launched from Sriharikota by PSLV C34
3. It is Indias heaviest satellite till date
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
1 and 3
1 and 2
All of the above

Q.1) Solution (b)


GSAT-18 is a planned Indian communications satellite. Built by ISRO and operated by INSAT,
it will carry 24 C-band, 12 extended C-band, and 12 Ku-band transponders.
It was launched by Ariane 5 VA-231 from Kourou, French Guiana.
GSAT-18, India's heaviest satellite to date at 3,404 kg
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/gsat18-will-add-to-isroscommunication-muscle/article9185709.ece

Q.2) Consider the following statements about Technology Information, Forecasting and
Assessment Council (TIFAC)
1. It is an autonomous body under the Department of Science & Technology
2. Technology Vision Document 2035 is produced by TIFAC
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Solution (c)

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 6, 2016
It is an autonomous organization set up in 1988 under the Department of Science &
Technology to look ahead in technologies, assess the technology trajectories, and support
technology innovation by network actions in select technology areas of national importance.
In 1993, TIFAC embarked upon the major task of formulating a Technology Vision for the
country in various emerging technology areas.
Technology Vision Document 2035 is produced by TIFAC
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/not-simply-a-visionthing/article9185688.ece

Q.3) Which of the following will implement the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016
a)
b)
c)
d)

Reserve Bank of India


Ministry of Finance
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Q.3) Solution (d)


Corporate Affairs Ministry is implementing the code.
In News - http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/centre-constitutesinsolvency-and-bankruptcy-board-of-india/article9176022.ece

Q.4) Consider the following statements about International Court of Justice (ICJ)
1. ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN)
2. All members of the UN are automatic parties to the statute, but this does not
automatically give ICJ jurisdiction over disputes involving them.
3. The ICJ gets jurisdiction only on the basis of consent of both parties.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

2 and 3 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 6, 2016
Q.4) Solution (d)
International Court of Justice (ICJ)
Based in The Hague in Netherlands, this 15-judge court was established in 1945 by the
United Nations Charter. The statute of the ICJ regulates the functioning of the Court. All
members of the UN are automatic parties to the statute, but this does not automatically
give ICJ jurisdiction over disputes involving them. The ICJ gets jurisdiction only on the basis
of consent of both parties.
In News: UN court rejects disarmament case against India

Q.5) Which below given statements is/are true in regard to International Court of Justice
ICJ and International Criminal Court ICC?
1. ICJ is a civil court, where as ICC is a criminal court.
2. Headquarters of ICJ is in Hague and ICC is in New York
3. ICJ is Official court of U.N, commonly known as World Court; whereas ICC is
independent, not governed by U.N
Choose appropriate code:
a)
b)
c)
d)

2 and 3 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Q.5) Solution (c)


Statement (2) is wrong because both ICJ and ICC headquarters is in Hague.
In News: http://www.icj-cij.org/information/index.php?p1=7&p2=2
http://www.differencebetween.com/difference-between-icc-and-vs-icj/

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 7, 2016
Q.1) Consider the following statements about African Asian Rural Development
Organization (AARDO)
1. It is an autonomous inter-Governmental organization headquartered at Shanghai
2. All the African and Asian countries are members of AARDO
3. India is one of the founding members of AARDO
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 3
Only 3
2 and 3
All of the above

Q.1) Solution (b)


The AARDO is an autonomous inter-Governmental organization with its headquarters in
New Delhi. It was established in 1962.
India is one of the founder Members of AARDO and is the largest contributor in terms of
membership contribution.
AARDO Members - http://aardo.org/aardohomepage/English/organizationalstructure.html#members
In News - http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=151435

Q.2) Indias Nikkei India Manufacturing Purchasing Managers Index (PMI) slipped a bit to
52.1 in September, compared with 52.6 in August. Consider the following statements
about Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI)
1. It is an indicator of the economic health of the manufacturing sector
2. The PMI is based on new orders, inventory levels, production, supplier deliveries and
the employment environment
3. A PMI of more than 50 represents contraction of the manufacturing sector when
compared to the previous month
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 7, 2016
d) All of the above

Q.2) Solution (b)


The Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) is an indicator of the economic health of the
manufacturing sector. The PMI is based on five major indicators: new orders, inventory
levels, production, supplier deliveries and the employment environment. The purpose of the
PMI is to provide information about current business conditions to company decision
makers, analysts and purchasing managers.
A PMI of more than 50 represents expansion of the manufacturing sector when compared
to the previous month. A PMI reading under 50 represents a contraction, and a reading at
50 indicates no change.
In News - http://www.livemint.com/Money/nYjwwQ8X8AVZKUjdivB2eO/India-fourth-inmanufacturing-PMIs-for-September.html

Q.3) Consider the following statements about Autophagy


1. It is a process by which cells degrade some of their own contents and clear them
away or recycle
2. Autophagy plays an important role in cancer both in protecting against cancer as
well as potentially contributing to the growth of cancer
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.3) Solution (c)


Oftentimes, cancer occurs when several different pathways that regulate cell differentiation
are disturbed. Autophagy plays an important role in cancer both in protecting against
cancer as well as potentially contributing to the growth of cancer.
Autophagy can contribute to cancer by promoting survival of tumor cells that have been
starved, or that degrade apoptotic mediators through autophagy: in such cases, use of

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 7, 2016
inhibitors of the late stages of autophagy (such as chloroquine), on the cells that use
autophagy to survive, increases the number of cancer cells killed by antineoplastic drugs.
Summary https://www.nobelprize.org/nobel_prizes/medicine/laureates/2016/press.html
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/medicine-and-research/nobelmedicine-prize-a-look-at-the-winner-yoshinori-ohsumi-and-hisresearch/article9180293.ece

Q.4) Santhara is related to


a)
b)
c)
d)

Buddhism
Jainism
Vaishnavism
Shaivism

Q.4) Solution (b)


Vaishnavism (Vaishnava dharma) is one of the major traditions within Hinduism along with
Shaivism, Shaktism, and Smartism.
Shaivism Shiva as the supreme God
Sanathan Dharma (Hinduism Dharma)
That is now a matter of debate since the Rajasthan High Court last month held santhara
(fasting unto death, Digambars call it Sallekhana) illegal, making it punishable under
Sections 306 (abetment of suicide) and 309 (attempted suicide) of the IPC, terming it
equivalent to suicide. Through santhara, a person is expected to cause minimum
disturbance to others. He or she is presumed to be voluntarily shunning all of lifes
temptations food, water, emotions, bonds after instinctively knowing death was
imminent.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/kolkata/elderly-woman-on-santharapasses-away/article9176621.ece

Q.5) Consider the following statements:


1. Health is a state subject under schedule VII of the Constitution

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 7, 2016
2. Education is a concurrent subject under schedule VII of the Constitution
3. Food security is a union subject under schedule VII of the Constitution
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None

Q.5) Solution (c)


Food security, adulteration of foodstuffs and other goods are classified as concurrent
subject under schedule VII of the Constitution.

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 10, 2016
Q.1) Contingent Reserve Arrangement and Fortaleza Declaration is concerned with
a)
b)
c)
d)

SAARC and BRICS


BRICS and BRICS
LEMOA and BRICS
BRICS and MERCOSUR

Q.1) Solution (b)


Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) and National Development Bank (NDB) were
announced as part of BRICS Fortaleza Declaration announced during 6th BRICS summit held
in Fortaleza, Brazil in July 2014
In News - http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/brics-contingentreserve-arrangement-operational-arun-jaitley/articleshow/54734524.cms

Q.2) Recently, A new termite species, Glyptotermes Chiraharitae, has been discovered at
Kakkayam in the Malabar Wildlife Sanctuary. Chiraharitae is a type of
a)
b)
c)
d)

Dry Wood termite


Damp Wood termite
Subterranean termite
Both (a) and (c)

Q.2) Solution (b)


They are of the damp wood category, and they infest parts of woods with high moisture
content, the decaying or rotting areas in particular. They are exclusively wood dwelling and
do not require any contact with soil.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/new-termite-speciesdiscovered/article9198993.ece

Q.3) Consider the following statements about Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
1. It is a technique used in molecular biology to amplify a single copy or a few copies of
a piece of DNA across several orders of magnitude, generating thousands to millions
of copies of a particular DNA sequence

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 10, 2016
2. It is a recombinant DNA method
3. It is used for Chick Sexing
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
1 and 2
1 and 3
All of the above

Q.3) Solution (c)


PCR is a technique used in molecular biology to amplify a single copy or a few copies of a
piece of DNA across several orders of magnitude, generating thousands to millions of copies
of a particular DNA sequence.
PCR is not generally considered to be a recombinant DNA method, as it does not involve
cutting and pasting DNA, only amplification of existing sequences.
In News for sexing - http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/genderidentification-with-feathers-of-birds-by-madras-vet-college/article9202355.ece

Q.4) Recently an Indian glacier research facility was established in the Himalayas. Consider
the following statements
1. It was established by the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR)
2. It will serve as the base for Terrestrial Laser Scanners and Unmanned Aerial Vehicles
to digitise glacier movements and snow cover variations
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) Solution (c)


In News - http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/highaltitude-glacial-lab-opens-inthe-himalayas/article9205004.ece

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 10, 2016

Q.5) Consider the following statements about Single Window Interface for Facilitating
Trade (SWIFT)
1. It is launched by Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC)
2. It compiles the information required for Customs, FSSAI, plant, quarantine, animal
quarantine, drug controller, wildlife controller bureau and textiles committee
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) Solution (c)


In News
http://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/multi-transhipment-law-inthe-works-116100900552_1.html
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/integrated-declaration-form-for-imports-goeslive/article8426646.ece

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 11, 2016
Q.1) Consider the following statements about Janani Surkasha Yojana (JSY)
1. It is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission
(NRHM)
2. The scheme is for all states having institutional delivery of 25% or less
3. It was launched by modifying the National Maternity Benefit Scheme (NMBS)
Select the correct statements
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above

Q.1) Solution (b)


Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural
Health Mission (NHM). It is being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and
neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. The
scheme is under implementation in all states and Union Territories (UTs), with a special
focus on Low Performing States (LPS).
States are classified into Low Performing States and High Performing States on the basis of
institutional delivery rate i.e. states having institutional delivery 25% or less were termed as
Low Performing States (LPS) and those which have institutional delivery rate more than 25%
were classified as High Performing States (HPS). Accordingly, eight erstwhile EAG states
namely Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Jharkhand,
Rajasthan, Odisha and the states of Assam & Jammu & Kashmir were classified as Low
Performing States. The remaining States were grouped into High Performing States.
Janani Suraksha Yojana was launched in April 2005 by modifying the National Maternity
Benefit Scheme (NMBS).
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/data/janani-suraksha-yojana-pays-dividendsstudy/article9204743.ece

Q.2) Recently Indias first International Arbitration centre was set up in


a) New Delhi
b) Gurgaon
c) Mumbai

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 11, 2016
d) None of the above

Q.2) Solution (c)


In News - http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/first-internationalarbitration-centre-comes-up-in-mumbai-3072913/

Q.3) Recently Hubble Space Telescope (HST) has detected Great Balls of Fire (GBF) near a
red giant. Consider the following statements
1. Red giants are stars that are nearing the end of their fuel supplies and have begun to
puff up and expand
2. HST is a space telescope launched by NASA in collaboration with European Space
Agency
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.3) Solution (c)


The Great Balls of Fire (GBF) are mysterious, super-hot blobs of gas which were detected by
the Hubble Space Telescope over the weekend. Each as massive as planet Mars and
zooming so fast through space that they would travel from earth to the moon in 30 minutes,
the GBF have continued once every 8.5 years for at least the past 400 years. The fireballs
present a puzzle to astronomers. The gas balls were observed near a red giant called V
Hydrae, about 1,200 light years away from earth. Red giants are stars that are nearing the
end of their fuel supplies and have begun to puff up and expand.
HST is a space telescope that was launched in 1990 by NASA in collaboration with European
Space Agency.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/demystifying-science-great-ballsof-fire/article9202474.ece

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 11, 2016
Q.4) Consider the following statements about National Heritage City Development and
Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY)
1. It was launched by Ministry of Culture
2. It is a central sector scheme which will be 100% funded by Government of India
Which of the following statements is are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) Solution (b)


HRIDAY is a central sector scheme, where 100% funding will be provided by Government of
India.
Launched by: Ministry of Urban Development
In News: http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/in-urbanmission-team-venkaiah-to-hand-hold-states-throughproblems/articleshow/54786335.cms

Q.5) Which of the following are correctly matched?


Festival
1. Durga puja
2. Onam
3. Ugadi
Select the code from below
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above

Q.5) Solution (b)

State
West Bengal
Kerala
Punjab

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 11, 2016
Ugadi is celebrated in Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Telangana. It is a harvest festival and
also celebrated as a new year in these states.

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 12, 2016
Q.1) Consider the following statements about Ready-to-use therapeutic food (RUTF)
1. Primary ingredients include peanuts, oil, sugar, milk powder and vitamin and mineral
supplements
2. It is safe to use without refrigeration at household level
3. It can be used in combination with breastfeeding and other best practices for infant
and young child feeding
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above

Q.1) Solution (d)


Ready-to-use therapeutic food (RUTF) are energy dense, micronutrient enhanced pastes
used in therapeutic feeding. These soft foods are a homogenous mix of lipid rich foods, with
a nutritional profile similar to the World Health Organization-recommended therapeutic
milk formula used for inpatient therapeutic feeding programmes. Typical primary
ingredients for RUTF include peanuts, oil, sugar, milk powder and vitamin and mineral
supplements. For several reasons, RUTF is essential for the community-based management
of children who are suffering from uncomplicated severe acute malnutrition and who retain
an appetite. First, it provides all the nutrients required for recovery. Second, it has a good
shelf life, and does not spoil easily even after opening. Third, since RUTF is not water based,
the risk of bacterial growth is very limited, and consequently it is safe to use without
refrigeration at household level. Fourth, it is liked by children, safe and easy to use without
close medical supervision. Finally, it can be used in combination with breastfeeding and
other best practices for infant and young child feeding.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/unicef-initiative-to-tacklemalnutrition-in-children/article9209008.ece

Q.2) Consider the following statements about National Commission for Backward Classes
(NCBC)
1. It is a statutory body
2. It was the outcome of the direction of the Supreme Court in the Mandal case
judgement

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 12, 2016
Select the incorrect statements
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Solution (d)


National Commission for Backward Classes is an Indian statutory body established on 14
August 1993, under the provisions of National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993
(Act No. 27 of 1993). The commission was the outcome of the direction of the Supreme
Court in the Mandal case judgement.
In News - http://www.business-standard.com/article/politics/maharashtra-govt-faceslegal-challenge-in-hc-over-quota-for-marathas-116100900475_1.html

Q.3) NASA Invents Electric Gauze That Can Speed Up Wound Healing. Consider the
following statements
1. The fibres of the guaze are made of Polyvinylidene Flouride (PVDF)
2. Only one time external power source is required
3. Wounds tend to heal much more quickly if small amounts of electricity are applied to
the surrounding tissue
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above

Q.3) Solution (b)


US space agency NASA has developed a high-tech electroactive bandage that creates an
electric charge to help promote the healing process of wounds. The bandage is made of an
electroactive material that is stimulated by pressure of cell growth and body heat.

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 12, 2016
An electroactive device is applied to an external wound site, which utilises low level
electrical stimulation to promote wound healing. Electroactive material is so sensitive that a
push or even blow on it can create an electric charge.
The fibres of the guaze are made of electroactive material Polyvinylidene Flouride (PVDF)
which are stimulated by the heat of the body and the pressure of cell growth, thus no
external power source is required.
The bandage also minimises infection and related complications such as illness or
amputation. It speeds the wounds healing process. The electroactive material is made using
a polyvinylidene fluoride (PVDF).
In News - http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/science/Nasas-electric-bandage-tospeed-up-wound-healing/articleshow/54781697.cms

Q.4) 15.2% of Indians are undernourished according to Global Hunger Index (GHI). GHI is
published by
a)
b)
c)
d)

World Health Organisation


Mdecins Sans Frontires (MSF)
International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI)
None of the above

Q.4) Solution (c)


In News - http://www.livemint.com/Politics/ZIPsHik4xPnCQMJlrWYTuM/Indias-hungercrisis-is-worse-than-other-South-Asian-nation.html

Q.5) Consider the following about 'Himansh', which was in news recently:
1. It is a glaciological research facility of India located in Antarctica
2. It is established by the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR)
3. The station houses many instruments to quantify the glacier melting and its relation
to changing climate.
Which of the above given statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 12, 2016
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.5) Solution (c)
Himansh is a glaciological research facility of India located at an altitude of nearly 13,500
feet in Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh.
Himansh is considered to be the highest point from where an Indian glacier research facility
is functioning. The research lab, established by the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean
Research (NCAOR), has automatic weather stations, ground penetrating radars, geodetic
GPS systems and other sophisticated facilities to study glaciers and their discharge.
The facility will serve as the base for Terrestrial Laser Scanners and Unmanned Aerial
Vehicles to digitise glacier movements and snow cover variations.
The NACOR ventured to set up the station as part of initiatives to understand and quantify
glaciers in the upper Indus basin in Himachal Pradesh and their contribution to river
discharge.The glacier studies in the high altitudes of Himalayas can succeed only with highend research infrastructure that would help in unhindered collection of scientific data and
protection of scientists from harsh weather. Himansh is expected to provide research
support to scientists to quantify the changes happening in Himalayan glaciers and its
hydrological contribution.
M. Rajeevan, Secretary to the Ministry of Earth Sciences, inaugurated the facility. M.
Ravichandran, director NCAOR, was also present.
In News: High-altitude glacial lab opens in the Himalayas - The Hindu

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 13, 2016
Q.1) Which of the following regulates pension products
1. PFRDA
2. IRDA
3. SEBI
Select the correct code:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
1 and 2
1 and 3
All of the above

Q.1) Solution (d)


Pension products floated by insurance companies come under the purview of the Insurance
Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) while those sold by mutual funds are
overseen by the SEBI.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/who-will-regulate-pensionproducts/article9208436.ece

Q.2) Consider the following statements about Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral
Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)
1. Only countries exposed to Bay of Bengal are members of BIMSTEC
2. It is headquarted in Dhaka, Bangladesh
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Solution (b)


The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
(BIMSTEC) is an international organisation involving a group of countries in South Asia and

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 13, 2016
South East Asia. These are: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Bhutan and
Nepal.
Bhutan is a landlocked country and is not exposed to BoB.
Headquarters Dhaka, Bangladesh
Current Chairmanship Nepal
In News - http://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/saarc-summit-indiapakistan-south-east-asia-regional-forum-3075858/

Q.3) Coordinated Patrols (CORPAT) is a maritime exercise between which of the following
countries?
a)
b)
c)
d)

India and Sri Lanka


India and Vietnam
India and Maldives
None of the above

Q.3) Solution (d)


CORPAT is a bilateral maritime exercise between India and Indonesia.
In News - http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ani/coordinated-patrol-andindia-indonesia-bilateral-maritime-exercise-commence-in-indonesia116101000322_1.html

Q.4) Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action refers to which of the following


a)
b)
c)
d)

The Chilcot Report


India-Iran Nuclear Deal
The Heart of Asia - Istanbul Process
None of the above

Q.4) Solution (d)


The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) known commonly as the Iran deal, is an
international agreement on the nuclear program of Iran reached in Vienna on 14 July 2015

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 13, 2016
between Iran, the P5+1 (the five permanent members of the United Nations Security
CouncilChina, France, Russia, United Kingdom, United Statesplus Germany) and the
European Union.
http://www.newindianexpress.com/world/2016/oct/08/us-eases-more-sanctions-oniran-post-nuclear-deal-1526237.html?pm=171

Q.5) Strait of Johor is located between:


a)
b)
c)
d)

Indonesia and Singapore


Singapore and Malaysia
Yemen and Djibouti
Saudi Arabia and Yemen

Q.5) Solution (b)

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 14, 2016

Q.1) Consider the following statements about contingent convertible capital instruments
(CoCos)
1. They are also known as Additional Tier 1 bonds
2. They are hybrid bonds that combines debt and equity elements
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.1) Solution (d)


The contingent convertible capital instruments (CoCos) also known as Additional Tier 1
bonds are hybrid bonds that combines debt and equity elements. Its defining characteristic
is that it may be converted into shares if the CET1 capital ratio drops below a specific level.
A contingent convertible bond, also known as CoCo or Additional Tier 1 Capital (AT1) is a
hybrid issue that combines debt (yielding interests for the investor) and capital (have the
capacity to absorb losses) properties.
These instruments are perpetual (they have no set maturity date), although the issuer
reserves the option to call the bond five years after the bond is issued. Coupon payments
corresponding to this type of issues can be cancelled upon request by the issuer (coupon is
noncumulative).
The main characteristic of this type of bond is that, if the specific trigger conditions
indicated in the issue prospectus are met, they can be converted into shares. The most
common trigger conditions include the CET1 (Common Equity Tier 1) ratio dropping below a
specific value. Therefore, these issues are exclusively aimed at institutional investors.
In News - http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/Four-public-sectorbanks-face-AT1-bonds-coupon-challenge/articleshow/54816648.cms

Q.2) Consider the following statements about ethanol blending


1. It is the practice of blending petrol with ethanol
2. It reduces vehicular emissions & import burden on account of crude petroleum
3. Ethanol blending first found mention in the National Policy on Bio-fuels, 2009

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 14, 2016

Which of the following statements is/are correct?


a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above

Q.2) Solution (b)


It is the practice of blending petrol with ethanol. Many countries, including India, have
adopted ethanol blending in petrol in order to reduce vehicle exhaust emissions and also to
reduce the import burden on account of crude petroleum from which petrol is produced. It
is estimated that a 5% blending (105 crore litres) can result in replacement of around 1.8
million Barrels of crude oil . The renewable ethanol content, which is a by product of the
sugar industry, is expected to result in a net reduction in the emission of carbon dioxide,
carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrocarbons (HC). Ethanol itself burns cleaner and burns more
completely than petrol it is blended into. In India, ethanol is mainly derived by sugarcane
molasses, which is a by-product in the conversion of sugar cane juice to sugar.
Ethanol blending first found mention in the Auto fuel policy of 2003. It suggested developing
technologies for producing ethanol/ bio fuels from renewable energy sources and
introducing vehicles to utilise these bio fuels. Later, as per National Policy on Bio-fuels,
announced in December 2009, oil companies were required to sell petrol blended with at
least 5% of ethanol. It proposed that the blending level be increased to 20% by 2017.
In News - http://indianexpress.com/article/business/commodities/cabinet-nod-torevision-of-ethanol-price-for-petrol-blending-3080428/

Q.3) In a countrys economy, the direct tax collection is 56% of the total tax collection
What does this indicate?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Progressive tax system


Regressive tax system
Proportionate tax system
None of the above

Q.3) Solution (a)

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 14, 2016

Progressive tax systems place a proportionately higher burden on upper-income individuals


or entities as compared to lower-income individuals or entities.
Regressive taxes result in lower-income individuals or entities paying a higher percentage of
their incomes in taxes than higher-income individuals or entities.
Common equality of tax burden renders a regressive taxation system more properly
referred to as a proportionate tax system.

Q.4) Right to Property in India is a


a) It is a legal right
b) It is a Fundamental right
c) It is a Constitutional right
d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.4) Solution (d)


Constitutional right and in terms of Article 300-A, no person can be deprived of his property
except by authority of law
The apex court passed the judgement while quashing the acquisition of 205 hectares of
agricultural land in Uttar Pradesh's Gautam Budh Nagar by the state on behalf of the
Greater NOIDA Industrial Development Authority for business enterpreneurs in March 2008.
An ordinary right generally imposes a corresponding duty on another individual (and, state
in some cases) but a fundamental right is a right which an individual possess against the
state. All fundamental rights are limitations on legislative power. Laws and executive actions
which abridge or are in conflict with such rights are void and ineffective.

Q.5) Gaza strip is frequently in news. It is


a)
b)
c)
d)

a landlocked region in Middle East


part of Egypt
a landlocked region in North Africa
None

Q.5) Solution (d)

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 14, 2016

Gaza, together with the West Bank, comprise the Palestinian territories claimed by the
Palestinians as the State of Palestine. The territories of Gaza and the West Bank are
separated from each other by Israeli territory. It is not a landlocked region - eastern coast of
the Mediterranean Sea, that borders Egypt and Israel.

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 17, 2016
Q.1) Consider the following statements about Hague Code of Conduct against Ballistic
Missile Proliferation (HCoC)
1. Only members of Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) can join HCoC
2. It calls for blanket ban on ballistic missiles
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.1) Solution (d)


The HCoC complements the important, ongoing work of the MTCR. All states, whether or
not they are members of the MTCR are encouraged to join the HCoC, which reflects the
founding States intent to make the Code universally accepted.
The Hague Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation (HCOC) is the result of
efforts of the international community to internationally regulate the area of ballistic
missiles capable of carrying weapons of mass destruction. The HCOC is the only multilateral
transparency and confidence building instrument concerning the spread of ballistic missiles.
The HCOC does not ban ballistic missiles, but it calls for restraining their production, testing,
and export. It is the only normative instrument to verify the spread of ballistic missiles.
India has joined the Hague Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation (HCoC)
In News - http://ptinews.com/news/7973493_Work-starts-on-two-more-Kudankulamunits-nbsp--

Q.2) Consider the following statements about National Development Bank


1. It is established by the SAARC nations
2. The bank shall support public projects only through loans and private projects only
through equity participation
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 17, 2016
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Solution (d)


The New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is
a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China
and South Africa).
The Bank shall support public or private projects through loans, guarantees, equity
participation and other financial instruments.
In News - http://www.livemint.com/Politics/p2vAnKED5VHnBRMlTaIAnM/NewDevelopment-Bank-to-lend-25-billion-next-year-KV-Kama.html

Q.3) Consider the following statements about HFC23


1. It is a by-product of HCFC22, which is used in refrigeration and air conditioning
2. Emission of HFC23 is included in the UNFCCCs Kyoto Protocol
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.3) Solution (c)


HFC-23 is a by-product of HCFC-22, which is used in refrigeration and air conditioning. This
variant of hydrofluorocarbon (HFC) has a global warming potential 14,800 times more than
that of carbon dioxide.
The Kyoto Protocols clean development mechanism (CDM) has led to the destruction of
large volumes of the very potent greenhouse gas HFC-23.
Emissions of all HFCs are included in the UNFCCCs Kyoto Protocol.
In News - http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/india-us-agreeto-amend-montreal-protocol-to-phase-down-hfcs/articleshow/54857041.cms

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 17, 2016
Q.4) Rashtriya Sanskriti Mahotsav is conceptualized by
a)
b)
c)
d)

Ministry of External Affairs


Ministry of Culture
Sahitya Akademi
Indira Gandhi National Centre for Arts

Q.4) Solution (b)


In News - http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=151652

Q.5) The Strait of Gibraltar connects


a)
b)
c)
d)

Australia and Papua New Guinea


Nicaragua and Costa Rica
Caspian Sea and Mediterranean Sea
Atlantic Ocean and Mediterranean Sea

Q.5) Solution (d)

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 18, 2016
Q.1) Food fortification is
a)
b)
c)
d)

A process to increase the shelf life of food significantly


A process of adding micronutrients to food
A new method of cold storage
None of the above

Q.1) Solution (b)


Food fortification or enrichment is the process of adding micronutrients (essential trace
elements and vitamins) to food. It may be a purely commercial choice to provide extra
nutrients in a food, while other times it is a public health policy which aims to reduce the
number of people with dietary deficiencies within a population.
While it is true that both fortification and enrichment refer to the addition of nutrients to
food, the true definitions do slightly vary. As defined by the World Health Organization
(WHO) and the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations (FAO), fortification
refers to "the practice of deliberately increasing the content of an essential micronutrient,
ie. vitamins and minerals (including trace elements) in a food irrespective of whether the
nutrients were originally in the food before processing or not, so as to improve the
nutritional quality of the food supply and to provide a public health benefit with minimal
risk to health," whereas enrichment is defined as "synonymous with fortification and refers
to the addition of micronutrients to a food which are lost during processing."
In News - http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/policy/fssai-releases-newstandards-on-nutrientfortified-food/article9226797.ece

Q.2) Consider the following statements about Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
1. It is a United Nations agency
2. It is headquartered in Rome, Italy
3. FAO and WTO jointly releases The State of Food and Agriculture annually
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 18, 2016
Q.2) Solution (a)
It is an agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger.
Serving both developed and developing countries, FAO acts as a neutral forum where all
nations meet as equals to negotiate agreements and debate policy.
In 1951, FAO's headquarters were moved from Washington, D.C., United States, to Rome,
Italy.
The State of Food and Agriculture, FAOs major annual flagship publication, aims at bringing
to a wider audience balanced science-based assessments of important issues in the field of
food and agriculture. Each edition of the report contains a comprehensive, yet easily
accessible, overview of a selected topic of major relevance for rural and agricultural
development and for global food security.
The State of Food and Agriculture 2016 - http://www.slideshare.net/FAOoftheUN/thestate-of-food-and-agriculture-2016-67283022
In News - https://www.theguardian.com/global-development/2016/oct/17/climatechange-could-drive-122m-more-people-into-extreme-poverty-by-2030-un-united-nationsreport

Q.3) Which of the following is/are correctly matched?


Tiger Reserves
1. Ranthambore
2. Periyar
3. Pakke
Select the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3

Q.3) Solution (a)

Ranthambore - Rajasthan
Periyar - Kerala
Pakke Arunachal Pradesh

State
Rajasthan
Tamil Nadu
Assam

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 18, 2016

Q.4) SAMOA Pathway is concerned with which of the following?


a)
b)
c)
d)

Promotion of development of environmental friendly sports facilities


Convention on Biological Diversity
Small Island Developing States
Sustainable Pastoralism

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 18, 2016
Q.4) Solution (c)
Small Island Developing States Accelerated Modalities of Action (Samoa Pathway)
Read More http://www.sids2014.org/index.php?menu=1537

Q.5) FDI is prohibited in which of the following?


1. Lottery business
2. Business of Chit funds.
3. Nidhi Company
4. Manufacturing of Cigars, Cheroots and cigarettes of tobacco
5. Gambling and betting.
Select the correct answer
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 5 only
c) 1, 2 and 5 only
d) All of the above

Q.5) Solution (d)


SECTORS WHERE FOREIGN DIRECT INVESTMENT IS PROHIBITED:

Lottery Business including Government /private lottery, online lotteries, etc.

Gambling and Betting including casinos etc.

Chit funds

Nidhi company-(borrowing from members and lending to members only).

Trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDRs)

Real Estate Business (other than construction development) or Construction of Farm


Houses

Manufacturing of Cigars, cheroots, cigarillos and cigarettes, of tobacco or of tobacco


substitutes

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 18, 2016

Activities / sectors not open to private sector investment e.g. Atomic Energy and
Railway Transport (other than construction, operation and maintenance of
(i) Suburban corridor projects through PPP,
(ii) High speed train projects,
(iii) Dedicated freight lines,
(iv) Rolling stock including train sets, and locomotives/coaches manufacturing and
maintenance facilities,
(v) Railway Electrification,
(vi) Signaling systems,
(vii) Freight terminals,
(viii) Passenger terminals,
(ix) Infrastructure in industrial park pertaining to railway line/sidings including
electrified railway lines and connectivities to main railway line and
(x) Mass Rapid Transport Systems.)

Services like legal, book keeping, accounting & auditing.

Further reading: http://www.makeinindia.com/policy/foreign-direct-investment

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 19, 2016
Q.1) Recently Zero Defect, Zero Effect (ZED) scheme for Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises (MSMEs) was launched. Consider the following
1. It will have increased environmental & social benefits
2. It will account for design and IPR in both products and processes
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.1) Solution (c)


The ZED scheme is an integrated and holistic certification system that will account for
quality, productivity, energy efficiency, pollution mitigation, financial status, human
resource and technological depth including design and IPR in both products and processes.
The parameters of the scheme will cover all aspects of the existing schemes of Ministry of
MSME: Quality Management System (QMS) / Quality Technology Tools (QTT), Lean
Manufacturing Competitiveness Programme (LMCS), Design Clinic and Technology and
Quality Up-gradation (TEQUP), and Building Awareness on Intellectual Property Rights (IPR).
Benefits of ZED

Credible recognition of the industry for international customers seeking investment


in India
Streamlined operations and lower costs
Superior quality, reduced rejection and higher revenues
Increased environmental & social benefits
Additional employment generation
Other benefits as announced by the Government from time to time

In News - http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-cm/pm-launches-national-scst-hub-and-zero-defect-zero-effect-scheme-116101900122_1.html

Q.2) Which of the following is/are correctly matched?


Hydro Electric Project

State

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 19, 2016
1. Koldam HEP
2. Parbati HEP
3. Rampur HEP

Himachal Pradesh
Uttarakhand
Harayna

Select the correct code:


a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3

Q.2) Solution (a)


Modi inaugurated three hydro-electric projects (HEPs) with a generating capacity of 1,732
MW in Himachal Pradesh.
Koldam HEP: It is 4200 MW capacity project executed by National Thermal Power
Corporation (NTPC)
Parbati HEP: It is Stage-III project with a capacity of 530 MW of National Hydropower
Corporation (NHPC).
Rampur HEP: It is 412 MW capacity project of Sutlej Jal Vidyut Nigam (SJVN).
In News - http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/himachal-pradesh-pmnarendra-modi-dedicates-three-hydroprojects-to-nation-3089299/

Q.3) Consider the following statements about INS Arihant


1. It belongs to Ship Submersible Ballistic Nuclear (SSBN) class
2. It will be armed with K-15 Sagarika and K-4 missiles
3. India is now the third country to have a nuclear triad after US and Russia
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

Q.3) Solution (a)

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 19, 2016
India has completed its nuclear triad by inducting the first indigenously built strategic
nuclear submarine INS Arihant into service.
Other countries having nuclear triad are Russia, United States and China
It will be armed with the K-15 Sagarika missiles with a range of 750 km. Later it will be
armed with much longer range K-4 missiles (3,500 km range) being developed by DRDO.
INS Arihant is nuclear submarine capable of carrying nuclear tipped ballistic missiles. Thus it
belongs to class referred to as Ship Submersible Ballistic Nuclear (SSBN).
In News - http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/India-set-to-complete-N-triad-withArihant-commissioning/articleshow/54907081.cms

Q.4) Which of the following is/are correctly matched?


Place
1. Ufa
2. eThekwini
3. Fortaleza

Country
Russia
Brazil
South Africa

Select the correct code:


a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3

Q.4) Solution (a)


Ufa Russia
Fortaleza Brazil
eThekwini South Africa

Q.5) The "Internet of things" (IoT) is becoming an increasingly growing topic of


conversation both in the workplace and outside of it. It has found utility in almost every
aspect of human life. Consider the following statements regarding IoT:

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 19, 2016
1. The internet of things (IoT) is the network of physical devices, vehicles, buildings and
other itemsembedded with electronics, software, sensors, and network
connectivity that enables these objects to collect and exchange data.
2. Data transfer takes place without human to human or human to computer
interaction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) Solution (c)


The Internet of Things (IoT) is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and
digital machines, objects, animals or people that are provided with unique identifiers and
the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-tocomputer interaction.
In News - http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/tech/internet/internet-of-things-marketto-touch-15-billion-in-india-by-2020-report/articleshow/54699065.cms

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 20, 2016
Q.1) Assumption Island was in news recently. It is concerned with which of the following?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Chinas new naval base near Horn of Africa


Joint Military Exercise of the ASEAN members
Indias naval base in Seychelles
Somalian Pirates took over the island

Q.1) Solution (c)


Seychelles government allowed India to build its first Naval Base on the Assumption Island
in the Indian Ocean region (IOR) as a joint project between both countries. In this regard,
Seychelles government has allocated a plot of land on in its Assumption Island
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-international/india-seychellesworking-to-ensure-security-in-indian-ocean/article8707047.ece

Q.2) Consider the following indicators


1.
2.
3.
4.

Maternal Mortality Ratio


Female and Male shares of Parliamentary seats
Female and Male labour force participation rates
Adolescent Birth Rate

Which of the following indicators is/are considered for Gender Inequality Index?
a)
b)
c)
d)

2,3 and 4
1,2 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the Above

Q.2) Solution (d)


Gender inequality remains a major barrier to human development. Girls and women have
made major strides since 1990, but they have not yet gained gender equity. The
disadvantages facing women and girls are a major source of inequality. All too often, women
and girls are discriminated against in health, education, political representation, labour
market, etc with negative repercussions for development of their capabilities and their
freedom of choice.

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 20, 2016
The GII is an inequality index. It measures gender inequalities in three important aspects of
human developmentreproductive health, measured by maternal mortality ratio and
adolescent birth rates; empowerment, measured by proportion of parliamentary seats
occupied by females and proportion of adult females and males aged 25 years and older
with at least some secondary education; and economic status, expressed as labour market
participation and measured by labour force participation rate of female and male
populations aged 15 years and older. The GII is built on the same framework as the IHDI
to better expose differences in the distribution of achievements between women and men.
It measures the human development costs of gender inequality, thus the higher the GII
value the more disparities between females and males and the more loss to human
development.

Q.3) Consider the following Archipelago pairs:


Islands

Country

1. Balearic Islands : England


2. Archipelago of the Azores : Ecuador
3. Isles of Scilly : Spain
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 2
Only 2 and 3
Only 3
None of the Above

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 20, 2016

Q.3) Solution (d)


Balearic Islands: Spain
Archipelago of the Azores: Portugal
Galapagos Islands: Ecuador
Isles of Scilly: England
Galapagos Islands in news - http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/unchief-becomes-godfather-to-newborn-galapagos-tortoise/article9241868.ece

Q.4) Which of the following is a UNESCO World Heritage Mixed Site?


a)
b)
c)
d)

Khangchendzonga National Park


Ajanta Caves
Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka
Manas Wildlife Sanctuary

Q.4) Solution (a)


Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP) in Sikkim is the only mixed heritage site from
India.
A mixed site exhibits qualities of both natural and cultural significance.
India now has 35 sites, including 27 cultural properties, seven natural sites and one mixed
site, notified as World Heritage Sites.
Sikkim's Khangchendzonga National Park, Chandigarh's Capitol Complex and the ruins of
Nalanda Mahavira in Bihar were added to World Heritage Sites.
In News - http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/whymonuments-would-be-worse-off-without-the-world-heritagestatus/articleshow/54757355.cms

Q.5) Consider the following statements about Gulf of Cambay


1. It is an inlet of the Arabian Sea along the west coast of India in Gujarat

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 20, 2016
2. Narmada, Godavari and Sabarmati drains into it
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) Solution (b)


The Gulf of Cambay (also known as Gulf of Khambhat) is an inlet of the Arabian Sea in the
state of Gujarat along the west coast of India. It divides the Kathiawar peninsula to the west
from the eastern part of Gujarat state. Narmada, Tapti, Mahi and Sabarmati rivers drain into
it.
Godavari flows towards east.
In News - http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/logistics/indias-first-roroservice-likely-to-begin-in-gujarat-next-year/article9234589.ece

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 21, 2016
Q.1) Consider the following statements about Green train corridors (GTC)
1. They are sections of the railways which will be free of human waste on the tracks
2. Okha-Kanalus stretch of Western Railway is Indias first GTC
Which of the following statements is/are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.1) Solution (a)


The 114-km-long Manamadurai Rameswaram stretch of Southern Railway is Indias first
Green corridor.
The 141-km-long Okha-Kanalus route and the 34-km-long Porbandar-Wansjaliya sections
in Gujarat have now become the green train corridors as part of the Swachh Bharat
Mission
In News http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/transportation/railways/railways-add175-km-long-track-to-green-train-corridors/articleshow/54921234.cms

Q.2) Consider the following pairs:


Joint Military Exercises :: Countries
1.
2.
3.
4.

Hand-in-Hand : India- China


Indra : India Russia
Indradhanush: India- UK
LAMITYA: India- Seychelles

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?


a)
b)
c)
d)

2, 3 and 4
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 4
All of the above

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 21, 2016
Q.2) Solution (d)
India-France Gauruda
Mithra Shakti SL
India- France naval exercise Varuna
Exercise Malabar Ind-US; Yuddh Abhyas- Ind-US
Sahyog-Kaijin- Coast guards of Ind-Japan

Q.3) Consider the following statements about river Krishna


1. It originates from Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra
2. It flows through Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and not Telangana
3. River Tungabhadra is the largest tributary
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
1, 2 and 3

Q.3) Solution (c)


Telangana is separated from Andhra Pradesh by the Krishna River, which acts as a
geographical divider between the two. The Krishna River is the third-longest river of the
country, originating in the Satara District of Maharashtra in the Western Ghats. This rivers
flows across the state of Karnataka before reaching Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
Read more - http://www.mapsofindia.com/maps/rivers/krishna.html
In News - http://www.livemint.com/Politics/iplQqX0G87R0WzirmTzBLO/Tribunal-rejectsTelangana-Andhra-Pradesh-demand-on-sharing.html

Q.4) Consider the following statements about Algeria


1. It shares its borders with Nigeria, Tunisia, Morocco and Libya
2. It was colonized by the Spanish
3. Mediterranean Sea is to the west of Algeria

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 21, 2016
Which of the following statements is are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
None of the above

Q.4) Solution (d)


It does not share its border with Nigeria
Mediterranean Sea is to the north of Algeria
It was colonized by the French
Map of Algeria http://www.mapsofworld.com/algeria/
In News http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kashmir-integral-part-of-indiaalgeria/article9244640.ece

Q.5) Global Conference on Voter Education titled Voter Education for Inclusive, Informed
and Ethical Participation is being organized by
a)
b)
c)
d)

Election Commission of India and Amnesty International


Election Commission of India and International Foundation for Electoral Systems
Election Commission of India and UNDP
Election Commission of India and The Association of World Election Bodies

Q.5) Solution (c)


In News - http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=151732

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 24, 2016
Q.1) Consider the following statements about Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC)
1. The corridor covers states of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and
West Bengal
2. The double track and single track segment will be electrified and it is a metre gauge
corridor
Select the correct statement(s)
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither nor 2

Q.1) Solution (a)


The corridor covers states of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West
Bengal.
It is going to be a broad gauge corridor.
The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor with a route length of 1856 km consists of two
distinct segments: an electrified double-track segment of 1409 km between Dankuni in
West Bengal & Khurja in Uttar Pradesh & an electrified single-track segment of 447 km
between Ludhiana (Dhandarikalan) - Khurja - Dadri in the state of Punjab, Haryana and Uttar
Pradesh.
In News - http://indianexpress.com/article/business/economy/india-inks-loan-pact-withworld-bank-for-eastern-freight-corridor-3096363/

Q.2) International Conference on Zero organized at UNESCO headquarters is associated


with which of the following?
a)
b)
c)
d)

to celebrate the rich and remarkable history of mathematics


to build upon SDGs on eliminating poverty
to discuss the means for developing net zero emission technologies
to support and follow up on measures for eradicating polio

Q.2) Solution (a)

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 24, 2016
In News - http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=138530

Q.3) Hartz reforms is concerned with


a)
b)
c)
d)

Brexit
Greek bailout
German labour market
US Presidential Elections

Q.3) Solution (c)


After a decade of high unemployment and weak growth leading up to the turn of the 21st
century, Germany embarked on a significant labour market overhaul. The reforms,
collectively known as the Hartz reforms, were put in place in three steps between January
2003 and January 2005. They eased regulation on temporary work agencies, relaxed firing
restrictions, restructured the federal employment agency, and reshaped unemployment
insurance to significantly reduce benefits for the long-term unemployed and tighten job
search obligations.
Read More - http://swarajyamag.com/world/so-called-employment-protectionlegislation-is-bad-news-for-workers
In News - http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/job-creation-is-unfinishedbusiness/article9246290.ece

Q.4) Maastricht treaty is related to


a) body of international copyright treaties administered by WIPO
b) reforming the European Union
c) establishes for the European Community a border system and a common policy on
the temporary entry of persons
d) responsible for the creation of the European Union

Q.4) Solution (d)


The Maastricht Treaty created the European Union and led to the creation of the single
European currency, the euro.

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 24, 2016
In News - http://www.livemint.com/Opinion/gwDfL31kFziMGJY8MABUxN/The-unbornmust-share-higher-fiscal-burden.html

Q.5) Which of the following regional organization is/are members of Financial Action Task
Force (FATF)
a)
b)
c)
d)

Gulf Cooperation Council


European Union
Both (a) and (b)
None

Q.5) Solution (c)


Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 to
combat money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats. It comprises 35
member jurisdiction and 2 regional organizations (Gulf Cooperation Council and EU). Israel
and Saudi Arabia has observer status.
In News - http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/brics-calls-for-tacklingterrorism-early-adoption-of-ccit-3086410/

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 26, 2016
Q.1) Consider the following statements about Chandrayaan 2
1. It consists of an Orbiter, Lander and a Rover
2. It is joint venture of ISRO and ROSCOSMOS
Select the correct statements
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.1) Solution (a)


Chandrayaan 2, Indias second mission to the Moon, is an advanced version of the previous
Chandrayaan-1 mission. It consists of an Orbiter, Lander and Rover configuration. It is
planned to be launched as a composite stack into the Earth Parking Orbit (EPO) of 170 X
18,500 km by GSLV-Mk II. The Orbiter carries the combined stack up to moon till the Lunar
Orbit Insertion (LOI). The combined stack is then inserted into a lunar orbit of 100 km x 100
km. The Lander is separated from the Orbiter in this orbit.
The Orbiter with scientific payloads will orbit around the moon. The Lander will soft land on
the Moon at a specified site and deploy the Rover. The scientific payloads onboard the
Orbiter, Lander and Rover are expected to perform mineralogical and elemental studies of
the lunar surface.
During 2010, it was agreed that Russian Space Agency ROSCOSMOS would be responsible
for lunar Lander and ISRO will be responsible for Orbiter and Rover as well as Launch by
GSLV. Later, due to a shift in the programmatic alignment of this mission, it was decided
that the Lunar Lander development would be done by ISRO and Chandrayaan-2 will be
totally an Indian mission.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/isro-begins-series-oftests-for-chandrayaan2/article9263290.ece

Q.2) Which of the following countries is not a part of Borneo Island?


a)
b)
c)
d)

Indonesia
Philippines
Brunei
Malaysia

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 26, 2016
Q.2) Solution (b)
It is the third-largest island in the world and the largest island in Asia.
The island is politically divided among three countries: Malaysia and Brunei in the north, and
Indonesia to the south.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/the-helmetedhornbill-is-being-hunted-to-extinction/article9230964.ece

Q.3) Which of the following regions is called as Third Pole


a)
b)
c)
d)

Andean Mountains
Heard Island glaciers
Svalbard in Norway
None of the above

Q.3) Solution (d)


The region that encompasses the Himalaya-Hindu Kush mountain range and the Tibetan
Plateau is widely known as the Third Pole because its ice fields contain the largest reserve of
fresh water outside the Polar Regions. This region is the source of the 10 major river
systems that provide irrigation, power and drinking water for over 1.3 billion people in Asia
nearly 20% of the worlds population.
In News - http://indiatoday.intoday.in/story/india-first-ever-celebrity-expedition-tosiachen-indian-army/1/737883.html

Q.4) _____________ is the only privately-owned railway line in India


a)
b)
c)
d)

Railway Orient Train


Fairy Queen Train
Shakuntala Express
Deccan Odyssey

Q.4) Solution (c)

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 26, 2016
In News - http://www.business-standard.com/article/companies/govt-to-take-overshakuntala-only-private-railway-line-116102200809_1.html

Q.5) Which of the following is/are correctly matched


1.
2.
3.
4.

Insulin - regulate the levels of blood sugar


Keratin - structural component in hair, nails, teeth and skin
Fibrinogen - blood clotting
Calbindin - facilitates the absorption of calcium from the intestinal walls

Select the correct code


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
1, 2and 3
1, 2 and 4
All of the above

Q.5) Solution (d)


All are correctly matched.

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 27, 2016

Q.1) In macroeconomics, 'paradox of thrift' is concerned with:


a)
b)
c)
d)

Fiscal planning
Industrial Production
Savings in the economy
Unemployment

Q.1) Solution (c)


Definition: Paradox of thrift was popularized by the renowned economist John Maynard
Keynes.
It states that individuals try to save more during an economic recession, which essentially
leads to a fall in aggregate demand and hence in economic growth. Such a situation is
harmful for everybody as investments give lower returns than normal.
Description: Keynes further said that such a mass increase in savings eventually hurts the
economy as a whole.
This theory was heavily criticized by non-Keynesian economists on the ground that an
increase in savings allows banks to lend more. This will make interest rates go down and
lead to an increase in lending and, therefore, spending.

Q.2) The scheme Urja Ganga is related with:


a)
b)
c)
d)

Gas Pipeline Project


River Ganga Rejuvenation
Hydro Electric Projects in Gaga Basin
Mekong Ganga Cooperation

Q.2) Solution (a)


In News - http://www.financialexpress.com/economy/urja-ganga-gas-pipeline-projectvaranasi-eastern-india-details-highlights/428055/

Q.3) The concept of fundamental duties of Indian constitution was borrowed from which
among the following?

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 27, 2016

a)
b)
c)
d)

UN Carter
United Kingdom
Russia
Ireland

Q.3) Solution (c)


India borrowed the concept of Fundamental Duties and five year plans from Russia. These
were instrumental in the planning aspect of governance.

Q.4) Which subjects the Delhi State legislature can make laws on
1. Public Order
2. Police
3. Land
Select the correct code:
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
Only 3
2 and 3
None of the above

Q.4) Solution (d)


What powers do states have?
Article 246 lays down a three-fold distribution of legislative powers. Subjects in the Union
List are those on which only the Union can make laws. The State list includes subjects on
which state legislatures alone can legislate. The third list gives Concurrent powers to both,
but in case of disagreement, the Union prevails. Full states have control over a range of
critical areas, such as land, public order and police, health and education.
What is a half-state?
Delhi and Puducherry are seen as Union Territories with Assemblies, and are called halfstates even though the term does not technically exist. These UTs with Assemblies do not
have some crucial powers of full states.

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 27, 2016

What cant Delhi do that a full state can?


Most importantly, the 69th Amendment Act passed in 1991 whose Articles 239AA and
239AB provided for a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers for the UT of Delhi
kept land, police and public order out of the control of the government of the state. Traffic
Police and Licensing too are out. The government cannot take a foreign loan or raise money
from the market. And the share of taxes apportioned to Delhi is lower as police and
pensions are seen as not being there.
In News - http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-full-mandate-in-a-halfstate/

Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the constitution.
1. Preamble is not a part of Constitution.
2. Preamble is not a source of power to legislature.
3. It is non-justiciable in nature.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Q.5) Solution (a)


Kesavananda Bharti case, 1973 - Supreme Court rejected the opinion of Berubari Union
case, and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
It was also held that

The preamble is neither source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the
powers of legislature.
It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 28, 2016
Q.1) Which organisation released the recent report Global Urban Ambient Air Pollution
Database 2016?
a)
b)
c)
d)

World Health Organization


United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
United Nations Development Programme
Mdecins Sans Frontires

Q.1) Solution (a)


WHO released report Global Urban Ambient Air Pollution Database (update 2016)
The Report says Delhi is no longer the most polluted city in the world. Delhi now stands 11th
among 3,000 cities in 103 countries (in terms of fine particulate matter or PM 2.5)
Four Indian cities are among the worlds 10 most polluted
Delhis place as the most polluted is taken by Zabol, in Iran.
Gwalior and Allahabad, meanwhile, come a close second and third in terms of PM 2.5, while
Patna and Raipur are ranked 6th and 7th.
In News http://www.newindianexpress.com/cities/thiruvananthapuram/2016/oct/05/breathingin-polluted-air-1525407.html

Q.2) With the United Arab Emirates as the starting point, arrange the following list of
countries in a clockwise direction of them opening out to the Persian Gulf:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Kuwait
Iraq
Qatar
Bahrain
UAE

Select the correct answer using the code given below:


a)
b)
c)
d)

5-3-4-1- 2
3-5-1-4- 2
5-4-3-2- 1
3-4-1-2- 5

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 28, 2016
Q.2) Solution (a)

Q.3) ExoMars, a two-part Martian astrobiology project to search for evidence of life on
Mars is a joint mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and ______________
a)
b)
c)
d)

NASA
ISRO
SpaceX
ROSCOMOS

Q.3) Solution (d)


ExoMars (Exobiology on Mars) is a two-part Martian astrobiology project to search for
evidence of life on Mars, a joint mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the
Russian space agency Roscosmos.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/all-about-the-missionecomars/article9258969.ece

Q.4) Recently Hanuman Tok was in news. It is located in which of the following states

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 28, 2016
a)
b)
c)
d)

Uttarakhand
Sikkim
Punjab
Rajasthan

Q.4) Solution (b)


Hanuman Tok is a Hindu temple complex which is located in the upper reaches of Gangtok,
the capital of the Indian state of Sikkim. The temple is dedicated to lord Hanuman and
maintained by the Indian army.
According to the local legends, when Hanuman was flying with the Sanjeevani
(mythological life saving herb) mountain to save Rama's brother Lakshmana he rested in the
spot where his temple now lies for some time. The mandir is actually managed by The
Indian Army.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/a-temple-in-the-clouds-run-by-thearmy/article9268019.ece

Q.5) Consider the following about Macro Vulnerability Index (MVI).


1. It adds together the rate of inflation, current account deficit and fiscal deficit of a
country
2. The Index value can be compared across countries for different time periods to
gauge their relative vulnerability
Select the correct answer:
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None of the above

Q.5) Solution (c)


Macroeconomic Vulnerability Index, as mentioned in the Mid-Year Economic Analysis 20142015, released by Ministry of Finance recently, adds together the rate of inflation, current
account deficit and fiscal deficit of a country. The Index value can be compared across
countries for different time periods to gauge their relative vulnerability. The ministry has

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 28, 2016
done a comparison of the fragile five countriesBrazil, India, Indonesia, South Africa and
Turkey.
Read More: http://www.livemint.com/Money/zyJyTICHRC7sO3dOefWhKI/DejargonedMacroeconomic-Vulnerability-Index.html

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 31, 2016
Q.1) Consider the following statements about Enforcement Directorate (ED)
1. It is under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
2. It is the law enforcement agency of the Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999
(FEMA) and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002 (PMLA)
Select the correct statements:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.1) Solution (b)


It is the economic intelligence agency responsible for enforcing economic laws and fighting
economic crime in India It is under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
Directorate of Enforcement is a Multi Disciplinary Organization mandated with the task of
enforcing the provisions of two special fiscal laws Foreign Exchange Management Act,
1999 (FEMA) and Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)
In News - http://www.business-standard.com/article/companies/ed-to-probe-cyrusmistry-s-allegations-against-tata-sons-media-116102900361_1.html

Q.2) Which of the following is/are correctly matched?


1.
2.
3.
4.

Aconcagua :: Chile
Kilimanjaro :: Tanzania
Denali :: Alaska
Elbrus :: Ukraine

Select the correct code:


a)
b)
c)
d)

1, 2 and 4
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 4

Q.2) Solution (b)

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 31, 2016
Aconcagua :: Argentina
Kilimanjaro :: Tanzania
Denali :: Alaska
Elbrus :: Russia
In News - https://www.washingtonpost.com/world/junko-tabei-the-first-woman-toreach-the-summit-of-mount-everest-dies-at-77/2016/10/29/2bcb0264-9c55-11e6-a0edab0774c1eaa5_story.html

Q.3) Dactylography is concerned with


a)
b)
c)
d)

Ductility of metals
Spinal cord
Fingerprints
Tattoo removal

Q.3) Solution (c)


Dactylography is the study of fingerprints for the purpose of identification.
In News - http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/letters/it-faces-erasure/article9147080.ece

Q.4) Which of the following statements is/are correct about the International Bank for
Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
1. It was created to help Europe rebuild after World War II
2. It is a part of World Bank Group
Select the correct code:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) Solution (c)

IASbabas Daily Quiz


October 31, 2016
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development was created in 1944 to help
Europe rebuild after World War II. Today, IBRD provides loans and other assistance primarily
to middle income countries.
IBRD is the original World Bank institution. It works closely with the rest of the World Bank
Group to help developing countries reduce poverty, promote economic growth, and build
prosperity.
IBRD is owned by the governments of its 189 member countries, which are represented by a
25-member board of 5 appointed and 20 elected Executive Directors.
The institution provides a combination of financial resources, knowledge and technical
services, and strategic advice to developing countries, including middle income and creditworthy lower income countries.
In News - http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/world-bank-may-invest-1-bon-eastern-corridor/article9252300.ece

Q.5) The Sajha Abhiyan of the Rajasthan Government is concerned with


a)
b)
c)
d)

Complete elimination of child marriages


Open jails
24/7 electrified villages
None of the above

Q.5) Solution (a)


The Sajha Abhiyan of the Rajasthan Government, UNFPA and UNICEF, has flagged off a
yatra for complete elimination of Child Marriages in the state.
In News - http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/rajasthangovernment-launches-campaign-against-child-marriage-in-dausa-3103004/

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