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a. group
b. subsidiary
c. decision maker
d. parent
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The correct answer is: parent
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The correct answer is: entities controlled by the reporting entity
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Parent company 'X' has power over the subsidiary "Y" and is exposed to returns from
involvement with 'Y' and have the ability to use power over 'Y' to affect the amount of the
parents returns. Additionally debt or equity instrument of a parent company 'X' is not traded in a
public market. In this situation 'X':
a. is not obliged to prepare consolidated financial statement
b. is not allowed to prepare consolidated financial statement
c. none of the other answers is correct
d. is obliged to prepare consolidated financial statement
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The correct answer is: is not obliged to prepare consolidated financial statement
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Investor 'X' has power over the investee "Y" and is exposed to returns from involvement with the
investee, however does not have the ability to use power over the investee to affect the amount
of the investors returns. Therefore 'X':
a. does not control 'Y', but should consolidate its financial statement
b. controls 'Y' and should consolidate its financial statement
c. does not control 'Y' and shouldn't consolidate its financial statement
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The correct answer is: does not control 'Y' and shouldn't consolidate its financial statement
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An investment entity:
a. should consolidate all its subsidiaries
b. none of the other answers is correct
c. is obliged to consolidate its subsidiaries
d. is obliged to measure its investments in particular subsidiaries at fair value through profit or loss
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The correct answer is: is obliged to measure its investments in particular subsidiaries at fair value through
profit or loss
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Z has sold all of its shares to the public. The company was formerly a state-owned entity. The
national regulator has retained the power to appoint the board of directors. An overseas entity
acquires 55% of the voting shares, but the regulator still retains its power to appoint the board of
directors. Who has control of the entity?
a. Neither the national regulator nor the overseas entity.
b. The board of directors.
c. The national regulator.
d. The overseas entity.
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The correct answer is: Neither the national regulator nor the overseas entity.
Question 7
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The correct answer is: separate financial statements
Question 8
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The correct answer is: equity in a subsidiary not attributable, directly or indirectly, to a parent
Question 9
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An entity with decision-making rights that is either a principal or an agent for other parties refers
to:
a. subsidiary
b. parent
c. decision maker
d. group
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The correct answer is: It is not permitted to be excluded from consolidation because control is not lost.
An entity owns a number of farms that harvest produce seasonally. Approximately 80% of the
entitys sales are in the period August to October. Because the entitys business is seasonal,
IAS 34 suggests
a. disclosure of financial information for the latest and comparative 12-month period in addition to the
interim report.
b. no additional disclosure
c. additional disclosure in the accounting policy note.
d. additional notes be written in the interim reports about the seasonal nature of the business.
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IAS 34 states a presumption that anyone reading interim financial reports will
a. not make decisions based on the report.
b. have access to the most recent annual report.
c. have access to the records of the entity.
d. understand all International Financial Reporting Standards.
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The correct answer is: have access to the most recent annual report.
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The correct answer is: whenever the entity wishes.
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The correct answer is: encourages publicly traded entities to provide interim financial reports
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If the entitys most recent annual financial statements were consolidated statements, an interim
financial report should be prepared on:
a. consolidated basis or non-consolidated basis
b. non-consolidated basis
c. consolidated basis and non-consolidated basis
d. consolidated basis
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The correct answer is: consolidated basis
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IAS 34:
a. does mandate which entities should be required to publish interim financial reports
b. does mandate how frequently public entities should be required to publish interim financial reports
c. none of the other answers is correct
d. does mandate how soon after the end of an interim period frequently public entities should be required
to publish interim financial reports
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The correct answer is: none of the other answers is correct
Question 7
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The correct answer is: a condensed set of financial statements and selected notes.
Question 8
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The IASB encourages publicly traded entities to provide interim financial reports
a. whenever the entity wishes.
b. on a quarterly basis.
c. at least at the end of the half-year and within 60 days of the end of the interim period.
d. within a month of the half-year-end.
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An entity operates in the travel industry and incurs costs unevenly through the financial year.
Advertising costs of 2 million were incurred on March 1, 2015, and staff bonuses are paid at
year-end based on sales. Staff bonuses are expected to be around 20 million for the year; of
that sum, 3 million would relate to the period ending March 31, 2015. What costs should be
included in the entitys quarterly financial report to March 31, 2015?
a. Advertising costs 2 million; staff bonuses 3 million.
b. Advertising costs 0.5 million; staff bonuses 5 million.
c. Advertising costs 2 million; staff bonuses 5 million.
d. Advertising costs 0.5 million; staff bonuses 3 million.
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The correct answer is: Advertising costs 2 million; staff bonuses 3 million.
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The correct answer is: a period shorter than a full financial year
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The correct answer is: a condensed set of financial statements and selected notes.
Question 2
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An entity operates in the travel industry and incurs costs unevenly through the financial year.
Advertising costs of 2 million were incurred on March 1, 2015, and staff bonuses are paid at
year-end based on sales. Staff bonuses are expected to be around 20 million for the year; of
that sum, 3 million would relate to the period ending March 31, 2015. What costs should be
included in the entitys quarterly financial report to March 31, 2015?
a. Advertising costs 0.5 million; staff bonuses 5 million.
b. Advertising costs 2 million; staff bonuses 3 million.
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The correct answer is: Advertising costs 2 million; staff bonuses 3 million.
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The correct answer is: is allowed to publish a complete or a condensed set of financial statements
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An entity owns a number of farms that harvest produce seasonally. Approximately 80% of the
entitys sales are in the period August to October. Because the entitys business is seasonal,
IAS 34 suggests
a. no additional disclosure
b. disclosure of financial information for the latest and comparative 12-month period in addition to the
interim report.
c. additional disclosure in the accounting policy note.
d. additional notes be written in the interim reports about the seasonal nature of the business.
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The correct answer is: disclosure of financial information for the latest and comparative 12-month period
in addition to the interim report.
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An entity is preparing half-yearly financial information in line with IAS 34. The period to be
covered by the financial statements is the six months to June 30, 2015. A new IFRS has been
published that is effective for periods beginning on or after January 1, 2015. The entity must
adopt the IFRS
a. in its interim financial statements to June 30, 2015, and its annual financial statements to December
31, 2015.
b. in its interim financial statements to June 30, 2015, only.
c. in the financial statements for the year to December 31, 2015, only.
d. at its own discretion.
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The correct answer is: in its interim financial statements to June 30, 2015, and its annual financial
statements to December 31, 2015.
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The correct answer is: a period shorter than a full financial year
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Entities, whose business is highly seasonal, financial information for the twelve months up to the
end of the interim period and comparative information for the prior twelve-month period is:
a. encouraged to be disclosed in notes of interim financial report
b. prohibited to be disclosed in notes of interim financial report
c. none of the other answers is correct
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The correct answer is: encouraged to be disclosed in notes of interim financial report
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IAS 34 states a presumption that anyone reading interim financial reports will
a. have access to the most recent annual report.
b. have access to the records of the entity.
c. understand all International Financial Reporting Standards.
d. not make decisions based on the report.
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The correct answer is: have access to the most recent annual report.
Question 9
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The correct answer is: all of the requirements of IAS 34
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According to IAS 34 in interim financial report, which of the following statements is not required
to present data cumulatively for the current financial year to date:
a. statement of changes in equity
b. statements of profit or loss and other comprehensive income
c. statement of cash flow
d. statement of financial position
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The correct answer is: statement of financial position
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The correct answer is: encourages publicly traded entities to provide interim financial reports
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The IASB encourages publicly traded entities to provide interim financial reports
a. on a quarterly basis.
b. within a month of the half-year-end.
c. at least at the end of the half-year and within 60 days of the end of the interim period.
d. whenever the entity wishes.
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The correct answer is: at least at the end of the half-year and within 60 days of the end of the interim
period.
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The correct answer is: the year-end financial statements compliance with IFRS is not affected.
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The correct answer is: may be required or may elect to provide less information as compared with its
annual financial statements
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IAS 34:
a. does mandate which entities should be required to publish interim financial reports
b. none of the other answers is correct
c. does mandate how frequently public entities should be required to publish interim financial reports
d. does mandate how soon after the end of an interim period frequently public entities should be required
to publish interim financial reports
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The correct answer is: none of the other answers is correct
Question 6
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The correct answer is: all of the requirements of IAS 34
Question 7
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The International Accounting Standards Committee encourages publicly traded entities to:
a. provide interim financial reports at least as of the end of the third quarter of their financial year and to
make their interim financial reports available not later than 45 days after the end of the interim period
b. provide interim financial reports at least as of the end of their financial year and to make their interim
financial reports available not later than 90 days after the end of the interim period
c. provide interim financial reports at least as of the end of the first half of their financial year and to make
their interim financial reports available not later than 60 days after the end of the interim period
d. provide interim financial reports at least as of the end of the first quarter of their financial year and to
make their interim financial reports available not later than 30 days after the end of the interim period
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The correct answer is: provide interim financial reports at least as of the end of the first half of their
financial year and to make their interim financial reports available not later than 60 days after the end of
the interim period
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If the entitys most recent annual financial statements were consolidated statements, an interim
financial report should be prepared on:
a. consolidated basis or non-consolidated basis
b. non-consolidated basis
c. consolidated basis
d. consolidated basis and non-consolidated basis
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The correct answer is: consolidated basis
Question 9
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The correct answer is: whenever the entity wishes.
Question 10
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According to IAS 34 in interim financial report, which of the following statements is not required
to present data cumulatively for the current financial year to date:
a. statement of financial position
b. statement of changes in equity
c. statements of profit or loss and other comprehensive income
d. statement of cash flow
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The correct answer is: statement of financial position
If an entity changes the structure of its internal organisation in a manner that causes the
composition of its reportable segments to change, the corresponding information for earlier
periods, including interim periods:
shall be restated unless the information is not available and the cost to develop it would be
excessive
there is no need to restate this information, unless the entity will chose to do so
shall never be restated
always shall be restated
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The correct answer is: shall be restated unless the information is not available and the cost to develop it
would be excessive
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If revenues from transactions with a single external customer amount to 10 per cent or more of
an entitys revenues, the entity shall:
define reporting entity related to this customer
none of the other answers is correct
disclose the identity of a major customer or the amount of revenues that each segment reports from that
customer
shall disclose that fact, the total amount of revenues from each such customer, and the identity of the
segment or segments reporting the revenues
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The correct answer is: shall disclose that fact, the total amount of revenues from each such customer, and
the identity of the segment or segments reporting the revenues
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If the total external revenue reported by operating segments constitutes less than 75 per cent of
the entitys revenue:
reported entity is encouraged to identify additional reporting segments or allocate revenues and assets to
existing reporting segments
additional operating segments shall be identified as reportable segments until at least 75 per cent of the
entitys revenue is included in reportable segments
this is a normal situation and reporting entity is not obliged to do anything
entity should provide additional disclosures about the rest of the company activities, which are not
included in operating segments
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The correct answer is: additional operating segments shall be identified as reportable segments until at
least 75 per cent of the entitys revenue is included in reportable segments
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Information about other business activities and operating segments that are not reportable shall
be:
allocated proportionally to existing segments
presented in global values in the face of financial statement
combined and disclosed in an all other segments category
none of the other answers is correct
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The correct answer is: combined and disclosed in an all other segments category
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Is there any limit to the number of reportable segments that an entity can separately disclose ?
yes, the limit is 8 reportable segments
no, there is no limit, however as the number of segments that are reportable increases above ten, the
entity should consider whether a practical limit has been reached
yes, the limit is 10 reportable segments
yes, the limit is 5 reportable segments
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The correct answer is: no, there is no limit, however as the number of segments that are reportable
increases above ten, the entity should consider whether a practical limit has been reached
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source of financing, which is used to finance operating activities of a given division / segment
type of assets. which is used in a given division / segment
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The correct answer is: segment manager, who is directly accountable to and maintains regular contact
with the chief operating decision maker to discuss operating activities, financial results, forecasts, or plans
for the segment
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The correct answer is: may choose to continue reporting information about this segment if this information
is useful
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The correct answer is: absolute amount of its reported profit or loss is 10 per cent or more of the greater,
in absolute amount, of (i) the combined reported profit of all operating segments that did not report a loss
and (ii) the combined reported loss of all operating segments that reported a loss
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The correct answer is: the total of the reportable segments revenues to the entitys revenue
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The correct answer is: measure of profit or loss and total assets
When determining the transaction price, an entity shall consider the effects of the following:
variable consideration
non-cash consideration
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When determining the transaction price, an entity shall consider the effects of the following: all of the
other questions is correct
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an entity recognises revenue, which is probable and taking into consideration accounting conservatism
an entity recognises revenue to depict the transfer of promised goods or services to customers in an
amount that reflects the consideration to which the entity expects to be entitled in exchange for those
goods or services
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Second
Step
Answer 2
First
Step
Answer 3
Fifth
Step
Recognise revenue when (or as) the entity satisfies a performance obligation
Answer 4
Third
Step
Answer 5
Allocate the transaction price to the performance obligations in the contract
Fourth
Step
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Put in order the following steps of the IFRS 15 core principle
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Recognise revenue when (or as) the entity satisfies a performance obligation
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IFRS 15 is effective for annual periods beginning on or after: 1 January 2018, however earlier
application is permitted
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If two or more contracts are negotiated as a package with a single commercial objective with the
same customer and entered into at or near the same time they should be:
combined into a single contract
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If two or more contracts are negotiated as a package with a single commercial objective with the same
customer and entered into at or near the same time they should be: combined into a single contract
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When entity receives the consideration from a customer, but the recognition criteria are not met
yet, the amount of consideration should be recognized as:
income
deferred income
revenue
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When entity receives the consideration from a customer, but the recognition criteria are not met yet, the
amount of consideration should be recognized as: liability
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each party of the contract has the unilateral right to terminate a wholly unperformed contract without
the entity has not yet received, and is not yet entitled to receive, any consideration in exchange for
promised goods or services
the entity has not yet transferred any promised goods or services to the customer
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A contract does not exist if: each party of the contract has the unilateral right to terminate a wholly
unperformed contract without compensating the other party
If the entitys performance creates or enhances an asset (for example, work in progress) that
the customer controls as the asset is created or enhanced it means that according to IFRS 15:
an entity satisfies a performance obligation and recognize revenue at a given point of time
an entity transfers control of a good or service over time and, therefore, satisfies a performance obligation
and recognises revenue over time
it doesnt create any additional economic benefits for the entity, therefore there is no reason to recognize
revenue
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If the entitys performance creates or enhances an asset (for example, work in progress) that
the customer controls as the asset is created or enhanced it means that according to IFRS 15:
none of the other answers is correct
it doesnt create any additional economic benefits for the entity, therefore there is no reason to recognize
revenue
an entity transfers control of a good or service over time and, therefore, satisfies a performance obligation
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If the entitys performance creates or enhances an asset (for example, work in progress) that the
customer controls as the asset is created or enhanced it means that according to IFRS 15: an entity
transfers control of a good or service over time and, therefore, satisfies a performance obligation
and recognises revenue over time
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According to IFRS an agreement between two or more parties that creates enforceable rights
and obligations is defined as:
contract
revenue
contractual obligation
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According to IFRS an agreement between two or more parties that creates enforceable rights and
obligations is defined as:contract
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An entity typically allocates the transaction price to each performance obligation on the basis of
the relative stand - alone selling prices of each distinct good or service promised in the contract.
However if a stand-alone selling price is not observable, an entity should:
do not recognize any revenue
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An entity typically allocates the transaction price to each performance obligation on the basis of the
relative stand - alone selling prices of each distinct good or service promised in the contract. However if a
stand-alone selling price is not observable, an entity should: estimate stand-alone selling price
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amount of money which is expected to flow to the entity in the foreseeable future
increases in economic benefits during the accounting period in the form of inflows or enhancements of
assets or decreases of liabilities that result in an increase in equity, other than those relating to
contributions from equity participants
income arising in the course of an entity's ordinary activities
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The consideration (payment) promised in a contract with a customer may includes:fixed amounts or
variable amounts or both: fixed and variable amounts
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Entity shall recognise the consideration received from a customer as a liability until:
the recognition criteria as defined in 9 of IFRS 15 are subsequently met
the entity has no remaining obligations to transfer goods or services to the customer and all, or
substantially all, of the consideration promised by the customer has been received by the entity and is
non-refundable
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Entity shall recognise the consideration received from a customer as a liability until: all of the other
answers is correct
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only written
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According to IFRS 15 a contract can be: written, oral or implied by an entitys customary business
practice
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cash is collected
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According to IFRS 15 a contract can be: written, oral or implied by an entitys customary business
practice
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the total amount of consideration to which an entity expects to be entitled in exchange for transferring
promised goods or services to a customer
the amount of consideration to which an entity expects to be entitled in exchange for transferring
promised goods or services to a customer, excluding amounts collected on behalf of third
parties
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According to IFRS an agreement between two or more parties that creates enforceable rights
and obligations is defined as:
contractual obligation
revenue
performance obligation
contract
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The asset is transferred to the customer when: the customer obtains the control of that asset
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the entity has not yet transferred any promised goods or services to the customer
each party of the contract has the unilateral right to terminate a wholly unperformed contract without
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all contracts with customers except leases, insurance contracts, financial instruments, guarantees and
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The scope of IFRS 15 should be applied to: all contracts with customers except leases, insurance
contracts, financial instruments, guarantees and certain non-monetary exchanges
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If two or more contracts are negotiated as a package with a single commercial objective with the
same customer and entered into at or near the same time they should be:
combined into a single contract
treated as a separate and distinct contracts only if recognition criteria as set in 9 are met
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If two or more contracts are negotiated as a package with a single commercial objective with the same
customer and entered into at or near the same time they should be: combined into a single contract
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amount of money which is expected to flow to the entity in the foreseeable future
increases in economic benefits during the accounting period in the form of inflows or enhancements of
assets or decreases of liabilities that result in an increase in equity, other than those relating to
contributions from equity participants
income arising in the course of an entity's ordinary activities
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When entity receives the consideration from a customer, but the recognition criteria are not met
yet, the amount of consideration should be recognized as:
revenue
liability
income
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When entity receives the consideration from a customer, but the recognition criteria are not met yet, the
amount of consideration should be recognized as: liability
X has control over the composition of Ys board of directors. X owns 49% of Y and is the largest
shareholder. X has an agreement with Z, which owns 10% of Y, whereby Z will always vote in
the same way as X. Can X exercise control over Y?
a. X cannot exercise control because it can control only the makeup of the board and not necessarily the
way the directors vote.
b. X cannot exercise control because it owns only 49% of the voting rights.
c. X can exercise control solely because it has an agreement with Z for the voting rights to be used in
d. X can exercise control because it controls more than 50% of the voting power, and it can govern the
financial and operating policies of Y through its control of the board of directors.
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The correct answer is: X can exercise control because it controls more than 50% of the voting power, and
it can govern the financial and operating policies of Y through its control of the board of directors.
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Which of the following is not a valid condition that will exempt an entity from preparing
consolidated
financial statements?
a. The parent entity is a wholly owned subsidiary of another entity.
b. The ultimate parent entity produces consolidated financial statements available for public use that
comply with IFRS.
c. The parent entity is in the process of filing its financial statements with a securities
commission.
d. The parent entitys debt or equity capital is not traded on the stock exchange.
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The correct answer is: The parent entity is in the process of filing its financial statements with a securities
commission.
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b. group
c. parent
d. subsidiary
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The correct answer is: group
Question 4
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a. existing rights that give the future ability to direct all intragroup activities
b. existing rights that give the current and future ability to direct all intragroup activities
c. existing rights that give the current and future ability to direct the relevant activities
d. existing rights that give the current ability to direct the relevant activities
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The correct answer is: existing rights that give the current ability to direct the relevant activities
Question 5
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A manufacturing group has just acquired a controlling interest in a football club that is listed on a
stock exchange. The management of the manufacturing group wishes to exclude the football
club from the consolidated financial statements on the grounds that its activities are dissimilar.
How should the football club be accounted for?
a. The entity should be consolidated as there is no exemption from consolidation on the grounds of
dissimilar activities.
b. The entity should not be consolidated; details should be disclosed in the financial statements.
c. The entity should not be consolidated using the purchase method but should be consolidated using
equity accounting.
d. The entity should not be consolidated and should appear as an investment in the group accounts.
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The correct answer is: The entity should be consolidated as there is no exemption from consolidation on
the grounds of dissimilar activities.
Question 6
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Financial statements of a group in which the assets, liabilities, equity, income, expenses and
cash flows of the parent and its subsidiaries are presented as those of a single economic entity
are:
a. consolidated financial statements
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The correct answer is: consolidated financial statements
Question 7
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In which situation an entity (parent) should derecognize the assets and liabilities of the
subsidiary from the consolidated statement of financial position (balance sheet) ?
a. when the parent is the only owner of the subsidiary
b. when the market value of the subsidiary is lower than its book value
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The correct answer is: when a parent loses control of a subsidiary
Question 8
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b. subsidiary
c. decision maker
d. parent
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The correct answer is: subsidiary
Question 9
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The accounting concept, which focuses on the existence of the group as an economic unit
refers to:
a. proprietary (parent entity) concept
b. entity concept
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The correct answer is: entity concept
Question 10
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The correct answer is: Within equity but separate from the parent shareholders equity.