Escolar Documentos
Profissional Documentos
Cultura Documentos
By Rajiv Srivastava
P 2-1
Rs/Kg
=
=
=
105
100
5
98
100
-2
P 2-3
P 2-4
P 3-1
Hedge Ratio
The risk of spot prices on gold as measured from its standard deviation is placed at Rs 120.
Similarly the price risk of the 3-m futures contract on gold is estimated to be Rs 150. The coefficient of correlation between the two is placed at 0.85. In order to hedge spot position
on gold what ratio of futures contract would be optimal?
Solution
The optimal hedge ratio is given by
Optimal hedge ratio =
O p t im a lH e d g e R a t io= x
s
f
In order to hedge the spot position in gold one would take opposite position in gold futures
to the extent of 68% of the value in spot.
P 3-2
P 3-3
P 3-4
Cross Hedge
An industrial firm uses tin as raw material and has a requirement of 400 kgs of tin to be
procured 6 months from now. The prices of tin are expected to rise substantially. The firm
needs to hedge against the price rise. There are no derivative contracts available on tin
but futures contract on aluminium are popular.
The prices of aluminium and tin are strongly correlated. A study has revealed that standard
deviations of prices of tin and aluminium are 21% and 20% of their current prices of Rs 720
per Kg and Rs 90 per Kg respectively. The coefficient of correlation is placed at 0.95. One
futures contract on aluminium is for 1,000 Kg. How can the firm hedge?
Solution
Standard deviation of spot prices of tin 21% of 720 =
Standard deviation of futures prices of aluminium 20% of 90 =
Coefficient of correlation between tin and aluminium prices =
Optimal hedge ratio =
151.20
18.00
0.95
500 Kgs
1,000 Kgs
7.98 x 500/1000
3.99 say 4
P 4-1
P 4-2
F = 180 x e
= 185.48
Forward price would have to be adjusted for dividend if paid in the forward period.
The holder of the forward contract is not entitled for dividend. The benefit accrues to the
holder of the physical position in the stock.
Therefore,
4,816.03
0.04 x 2/12
4,832.11
0.04 x 3/12
4,848.24
P 4-4
P 4-5
P 4-6
P 4-7
=
=
=
=
=
Rs 12,00,000
Beta x 12 lacs
1.05 x 12 = Rs 12.60 lacs
50 x 4,260 = Rs 2.13 lacs
12.60/2.13 = 5.91 say 6
When market rises the long position in futures would gain. The share of SBI too would rise
and the increased cost of acquiring the stock can partially be met by profit on the futures
position.
The profit from the position in futures when the market rises by 10%
Value of index at maturity
=
1.10 x 4,200 = 4,620
Value of futures
=
4,620 (due to convergence)
Solutions to Unsolved Problems
Chapter 4
=
=
=
=
P 4-9
=
=
60 x 50 x 6 = Rs 18,000
18,000/1,320 = 13.63; say 14
Solution
DFL can adjust the beta of the portfolio by divesting the part of it in treasury bills. Fixed
income securities have a beta of zero.
If X is the proportion of portfolio is divested to treasury bills the portfolio beta is given by
w1 1 + w2 2 = 1.20 (1 - X) + X .0 = 0.9
This gives X =
25%
Therefore 25% of the portfolio i.e. Rs 10 x 0.25 = Rs 2.50 crore may be divested from the
portfolio and invested in treasury bill.
DFL can reduce the beta of the portfolio by going short on index futures.
The beta of index futures is 1 and it involves no investment. Therefore with position of X in
index futures the beta of the portfolio would be:
w1 1 + w2 2 = 1.20 x 1 + 1 x X = 0.9
This gives X = - 0.3 implying short position in index futures equivalent to 30% of exposure in
the portfolio.
DFL should short index futures worth 30% of Rs 10 crore = Rs 3.00 crore.
P 5-1
Triangular Arbitrage
Assume that a bank in India has offered exchange rate for US dollar and Euro at Rs 48.00
and 78.00 for a 2 month forward contract respectively. An American bank has quoted 2-m
forward rate of US $ 1.70 per Euro. If you are allowed to book any contract can you take
advantage of the rates offered by bank in India and the American bank?
Solution
Exchange rate
Rs/US $
48.00
Rs/Euro
78.00
Synthetic rate from Indian bank
US $ 1.625/Euro
Direct rate from American bank
US $ 1.700/Euro
Using Indian rupee as vehicle we can get US $ 1.625 per Euro from the rates quoted by
Indian bank, while from American bank one can get US $ 1.70 per Euro. Therefore one must
buy Euro from Indian bank, sell them for dollars to American bank and finally convert
dollars to Indian rupee from Indian bank. Profit would be Rs 3.60/ as below:
Pay Rs 78 and get Euro 1 from Indian bank
Sell Euro 1 and get US $ 1.70 from American bank
Sell US $ 1.70 and get 1.70 x 48 = Rs 81.60 from Indian bank
Profit per Euro bought = 81.60 - 78.00 = Rs 3.60
P 5-2
P 5-3
F = 102 e
F = 100.73
If futures contract is selling for JY 103 one must sell futures contract.
P 5-4
F = 1.27 = S
1+ rg
1+ re
= 1.25
gives x = (1+ re ) =
1.03
x
1.25x1.03
= 1.0138
1.27
where rg and re are interest rate for 6 months in Germany and England respectively.
This gives re = 0.0138 or 2.76% p.a.
P 5-5
P 5-6
P 5-7
P 6-1
Pricing FRA
Following is the term structures of interest rates as on today;
Term to maturity (months)
Yield % p.a.
3
3.40
6
3.55
9
3.65
12
3.95
Assuming 360 days in a year, annual compounding and bid ask spread of 20 basis points
find the quotation of a) 3/6 FRA b) 9/12 FRA and c) 6/12 FRA.
Solution
a) 3-m forward interest rate for next 3 months of investment is worked out as below:
180
360 = 1.01775 = 1.009172;
(1+ 3 r6 ) =
90
1.0085
1+ 0.0340 x
360
giv es 3 r6 = 0.009172, or equiv alent to annualised
1+ 0.0355 x
3 r6
= 3.67%
9 r12
= 4.72%
6 r12
= 4.27%
P 6-2
P 6-3
P 6-4
11.00
89.00
Rs. 9,72,500
Rs. 9,73,750
Rs. -1,250
Rs. -16,250
Rs. 3,43,750
Rs. 3,27,500
10.48%
P 6-5
P 6-6
YTM
6%
3.3981
3.2991
3.2030
3.1097
3.0191
2.9312
2.8458
2.7629
2.6825
2.6043
2.5285
2.4548
2.3833
2.3139
2.2465
2.1811
2.1176
2.0559
1.9960
57.3054
107.4387
Cash flow
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
3.50
103.50
YTM
8%
3.3654
3.2359
3.1115
2.9918
2.8767
2.7661
2.6597
2.5574
2.4591
2.3645
2.2735
2.1861
2.1020
2.0212
1.9434
1.8687
1.7968
1.7277
1.6612
47.2360
93.2048
1
5.00
4.85
2.43
2
5.00
4.71
4.71
3
5.00
4.58
6.86
4
5.00
4.44
8.88
5
5.00
4.31
10.78
6
5.00
4.19
12.56
7
8 Value
5.00 105.00
4.07 82.89 114.04
14.23 331.55 392.01
3.4375
P 6-7
= 10,000 x 114.04 =
= 3.4375 years
= 6.00%
= Rs. 93.2048
= Rs. 1,86,410
= 6.4068
= 7.00%
Rs. 1,14,03,938
at YTM of
8.00%
= 33.134
say
33 contracts
P 7-1
6
4.00
12
4.20
18
4.40
24
4.50
30
4.60
36
4.80
42
5.00
48
5.20
54
5.40
60
5.50
Assuming 360 days in a year, simple interest rate and 180 days in each semi-annual period
and a spread of 20 basis points find the swap rate for a five year swap with semi-annual
payments.
Solution
3-m forward interest rate for next 3 months of investment is worked out as below:
Term (months)
6
12
18
24
30
36
42
48
54
60
Yield % p.a.
4.00
4.20
4.40
4.50
4.60
4.80
5.00
5.20
5.40
5.50
Discount
0.9804 0.9597 0.9381 0.9174 0.8969 0.8741 0.8511 0.8278 0.8045 0.7843
factor
Sum of discount factors
8.8343
The swap rate is
0.0244
Annual rate
4.88%
Sw a p R a te=
With the spread of 20 bps the swap rate would be 4.78% - 4.98%.
P 7-2
Sw a p R a te=
With same spread of 20 bps, the forward swap rate would be 5.18% - 5.38%.
P 7-3
Floating M
FIRM
Fixed 9.00%
B
A
N
K
After entering the swap with the bank the cost of funds would be M + 3%:
Payment to bond holders
Payment to Bank
Receipt from bank
Net cost of funds
12%
M
-9%
M + 3%
P 7-4
FIRM A
M + 1%
11%
FIRM B
9.50%
Cost of funds for Firm A and Firm B
Cash flows for the firms
To subscribers
To Counterparty
From Counterparty
Cost without the swap
Saving
FIRM A
- (M+1%)
- 9.0%
(M+1%)
-9.0%
-10.0%
100 bps
FIRM B
-11%
- (M+1%)
9.0%
-(M+3%)
-(M+3.5%)
50 bps
P 7-5
3
8.00%
9
8.10%
15
8.20%
21
8.20%
27
8.30%
33
8.50%
39
8.50%
45
8.70%
If the parties are willing to cancel the swap find out the cash flow involved in cancellation
of the swap. Assume simple interest and equal semi-annual periods.
Solution
With the given term structure we can find the present value of the cash flow attached with
the fixed leg of the swap with the notional principal payment at the end of the swap, as
shown below:
Interest on fixed leg
Time (months)
Term structure
Discount Factor
Rupee Interest
Value of fixed cash
flows
3
9
8.00% 8.10%
0.9804 0.9427
4.25
4.25
4.17
4.01
8.50%
3.85
3.72
Rs in crore
15
21
27
33
39
45 Total
8.20% 8.20% 8.30% 8.50% 8.50% 8.70%
0.907 0.8745 0.8426 0.8105 0.7835 0.754
4.25
4.25
4.25
4.25
4.25 104.25
3.58
3.44
3.33
78.61 104.71
Value of the floating leg is higher than value of the fixed leg. If the floating leg receiver is
paid Rs 20 lacs by the counter party the swap may be cancelled.
P 7-6
6
5.00%
3.60%
12
5.50%
3.70%
18
5.60%
3.80%
24
5.80%
4.00%
30
6.00%
4.40%
36
6.10%
4.50%
42
6.20%
4.80%
48
6.30%
5.00%
Assuming simple interest rate and all semi-annual period equal and next payments due
exactly after 6 months find what value must be paid/received by the Indian firm if it wants
to cancel the swap.
Solution
To arrive at the value o the swap we need to find the present value o rupee cash flows
and US dollar cash flows fro the next 4 years.
Exchange rate at inception
Cash flows of the swap:
Rupee Principal
100
Dollar Principal
2.5
Time (months)
Term structure
Discount Factor
(Rupee)
Rupee Interest
Value
Rs
Interest Rate
Interest Rate
40.00 per $
6.00%
3.00%
6
12
18
24
30
36
Value of the cash flow of Indian rupee
5.00% 5.50% 5.60% 5.80% 6.00% 6.10%
42
6.20%
48 Total
6.30%
Term structure
Discount Factor
(Dollar)
0.9823 0.9643 0.9461 0.9259 0.9009 0.8811 0.8562 0.8333
Dollar Interest
0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 2.575
Value
0.07
0.07
0.07
0.07
0.07
0.07
0.06
2.15
2.63
Value o dollar cash flow at current spot rate of Rs
40.50 per $
106.52
Value of the swap for party receiving US dollar cash flows
5.41
If bank pays Rs 5.41 lacs to the Indian firm now the swap may be cancelled.
P 8-1
Payoff of Options
Find out the payoffs of the following positions on European options on a stock whose price
at maturity is Rs 100:
a. Long call with exercise price of Rs 90
b. Short call with exercise price of Rs 80
c. Long put with exercise price of Rs 110
d. Short put with exercise price of Rs 110
e. Long call with exercise price of Rs 100
f. Short put with exercise price of Rs 100
Solution
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Payoffs
max(S - X, 0)
- max(S - X, 0)
max(X - S, 0)
- max(X - S, 0)
max(S - X, 0)
- max(X - S, 0)
Amount
0
0
10
-10
0
0
P 8-2
Solution
Exchange Rate
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
Payoff
0
0
0
0
0
0
-1
-2
-3
-4
-5
Payoff (Rs)
2
1
0
-1
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
-2
-3
-4
-5
-6
P 8-3
Payoff from
put
3.5
2.5
1.5
0.5
-0.5
-1.5
-1.5
-1.5
-1.5
-1.5
-1.5
Payoff Receivable
-5
-4
-3
-2
-1
0
1
2
3
4
5
Value of receivable
w/o put
With put
Total
-1.5
-1.5
-1.5
-1.5
-1.5
-1.5
-0.5
0.5
1.5
2.5
3.5
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
58.5
58.5
58.5
58.5
58.5
58.5
59.5
60.5
61.5
62.5
63.5
Payoff Rs
6
4
2
0
-2
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
-4
Put Option
Receivable Payoff
Combined
-6
Value of
Receivable
(Rs)
66
Value of Receivable
64
62
60
58
56
54
52
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
e
=
1
u
m
L
a
o
f
s
t
a
d
l
l
i
s
c
o
u
n
t
f
a
c
t
o
r
d
i
s
c
o
u
n
t
f
a
c
t
o
=
s
1
5
0
.
.
4
8
9
5
2
4
2
9
=