Topographical anatomy and operative surgery of lumbar region, retroperitoneal

space and pelvis

1. Which structures pass in lesser sciatic foramen?
1. Inferior vesical artery
2. Pudendal neurovascular bundle
3. External obturator muscle
4. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
5. Internal obturator muscle
2 What is the projection of renal hilus to posterior abdominal wall (so called
posterior renal point)?
1. Between erector spinae muscle and spinal process
2. At angle between erector spinae muscle and 12th rib
3. Between 12th rib and spinal processes
4. Between angle of scapula and 12th rib
3. Determine the accordance between arteries supplying rectum and their origins.
1. Superior rectal artery
2. Middle rectal artery
3. Inferior rectal artery
. Internal pudendal artery
b. Internal iliac artery
c. Inferior mesenteric artery
4. Enumerate possible ways of pus spreading from prevesical fat space.
1. Retrorectal fat space
2. Sheath of rectus abdominis muscle
3. Retroperitoneal space
4. Obturator canal
5. Inguinal canal
6. Femoral canal
7. Fat tissue of iliac fossa
5. Choose structures passing in infrapiriform foramen.
1. Sciatic nerve
2. Inferior gluteal neurovascular bundle
3. Obturator nerve
4. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
5. Pudendal neurovascular bundle
6. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
6. Determine the consecution of layers surgeon dissects at renal approach after
Bergmann-Israel.
1. Endoabdominal fascia

2. Deep leaf of lumbodorsal fascia and transverse abdominis muscle

3. Skin with subcutaneous fascia and superficial fascia
4. Posterior inferior serratus muscle and internal oblique abdominis muscle
5. Superficial leaf of lumbodorsal fascia
6. Latissimus dorsi muscle and external oblique abdominis muscle
7. Urogenital diaphragm consists of:
1. Deep transverse perineal muscle
2. Coccygeal muscle
3. Levator ani muscle
4. Ischiocavernous muscle
5. Fascia covering deep transverse perineal muscle
6. Fascia covering levator ani muscle
8. Enumerate the indications for nephrectomy.
1. Nephrolithiasis
2. Cancer of kidney
3. Purulent lesion of kidney
4. Crushing injury of kidney
5. Paranephritis
9. What structure perforates the urogenital diaphragm in female?
1. Duct of Bartholin's gland
2. Urethra
3. Vagina
4. Ureters
5. Pubovesical ligaments
10. Enumerate potential ways of pus spreading from lateral pelvic fat space.
1. Retroperitoneal fat space
2. Sheath of rectus abdominis muscle
3. Retrorectal fat space
4. Prevesical fat space
5. Inguinal canal
6. Pararectal fat space
11. An operable cancer of rectum is located higher than 12 cm proximal to anal
canal. What kind of operation is to be undertaken in that case?
1. Anterior resection or rectosigmoid resection with end to end anastomosis
2. Abdominoperineal extirpation of rectum
3. Abdominoanal resection with rectosigmoanastomosis
4. Sigmostomy
5. Laser anal bougienage of cancer

12. Which ones compose fixating apparatus of uterus?

1. Vesicouterine ligaments
2. Uterosacral ligaments
3. Urogenital diaphragm
4. Cardinal ligaments of uterus
5. Round ligaments of uterus
13. Enumerate the parietal pelvic muscles.
1. Piriform
2. Internal obturator
3. Coccygeal
4. Deep transverse perineal
5. Levator ani muscle
14. Name all structures passing through suprapiriform foramen.
1. Superior gluteal nerve
2. Inferior epigastric artery
3. Ilioinguinal nerve
4. Superior gluteal artery and vein
5. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
15. Choose indication for puncture of urinary bladder.
1. Impossibility of catheterization of urinary bladder
2. Purulent cystitis
3. Stones in urinary bladder
4. Rupture of rectum
5. Chronic urethritis
16. Which operations can be undertaken at hydrocele?
1. Wassermann`s operation
2. Bergmann `s operation
3. Bassini`s operation
4. Milligan`s operation
5. Winkelmann`s operation
17. Which special instruments are used in laminectomy?
1. Liston`s forceps
2. Doyen`s forceps
3. Luer`s forceps
4. Gigli`s wire saw
5. Faraboeuf`s raspatory
6. Wollkmann`s bone spoon
18. Two of mentioned muscles compose pelvic diaphragm:
1. Deep transverse perineal muscle

2. Coccygeal muscle
3. Levator ani muscle
4. Ischiocavernous muscle
5. Sphincter of urethra
19. Choose the structures forming anterior and posterior walls of retroperitoneal
space.
1. Parietal peritoneum
2. Fascia endoabdominalis
3. Fascia retroperitonealis
4. Muscles of lumbar region
5. Retrocolic fascia
20. Where the lymph from rectum flows?
1. Inguinal lymph nodes
2. Sacral lymph nodes
3. Superior rectal, later inferior mesenteric lymph nodes
4. Superior mesenteric lymph nodes
5. Paranephral lymph nodes
21. Which fat spaces can be drained by perineal operative access?
1. Ischiorectal fossa
2. Prevesical fat space
3. Rectouterine pouch
4. Retrorectal fat space
5. Lateral fat space
6. Lateral abdominal cannels
7. Mesenteric sinuses of abdominal cavity
22. Which conditions are indicated for prevesical fat space draining?
1. Urinous infiltration
2. Bladder stones
3. Prevesical phlegmon as a result of injury of urinary bladder
4. Peritonitis
5. Paranephritis
23. Which layers the needle passes at puncture of rectouterine Douglas pouch
through posterior vaginal fornix?
1. Skin, subcutaneous fat, muscles and peritoneum
2. Mucous of vagina, superficial fascia and peritoneum
3. Wall of vagina, visceral pelvic fascia and peritoneum
4. Mucous of vagina, levator ani muscle and peritoneum

24. To perform drainage of prevesical fat space by Mc Worter-Buyalsky one

should dissect following structures:
1. Skin
2. Subcutaneous fat layer
3. Inguinal ligament
4. Short adductor muscle
5. External obturator muscle
6. Obturator membrane
7. Internal obturator muscle
8. Urogenital diaphragm
9. Pelvic diaphragm
25. All mentioned muscles belong to second muscular layer of lumbar region except
for:
1. External oblique abdominis muscle
2. Internal oblique abdominis muscle
3. Erector spinae muscle
4. Inferior posterior serratus muscle
5. Transverse abdominis muscle
26. Choose arteries supplying uterus.
1. Uteral arteries
2. Inferior vesical arteries
3. Arteries of round ligaments of uterus
4. Ovarian arteries
5. Inferior epigastric arteries
27. Indicate the consecution of retroperitoneal fasciae starting from posterior one.
1. Prerenal fascia
2. Retrorenal fascia
3. Retrocolic fascia
4. Endoabdominal fascia
28. At tubular pregnancy the rupture of uterine tube is accompanied with bleeding
and the blood usually accumulates in following space:
1. Right lateral fat space of pelvis
2. Parauterine fat space
3. Rectouterine pouch
4. Vesicouterine pouch
29. Which structures compose borders of Grynfeltt`s rhombus?
1. External oblique abdominis muscle
2. Internal oblique abdominis muscle
3. Transverse abdominis muscle
4. Erector spinae muscle

5. 12th rib
6. Latissimus dorsi muscle
7. Posterior inferior serratus muscle
30. Which of named formations compose the border between large and small
pelvis?
1. Promontory
2. Terminal line
3. Superior margin of pubic symphisis
4. Iliac crests
5. Linea bispinarum
31. What is the triangle of bladder (Lieutaud's triangle)?
1. Area on inner surface of urinary bladder barren of peritoneum
2. Area on inner surface of urinary bladder barren of mucous layer
3. Area on inner surface of urinary bladder barren of muscular layer
4. Area on inner surface of urinary bladder barren of submucous layer
32. Name supporting apparatus of uterus.
1. Pelvic diaphragm
2. Broad ligaments of uterus
3. Vagina
4. Urogenital diaphragm
5. Cardinal ligaments of uterus
33. Choose the indications for laminectomy.
1. Injury of vertebral column and spinal cord
2. Myelocele
3. Taking liquor for laboratory examination
4. Tumor of spinal meninges
5. Tumor of spinal cord
34. Which venous plexuses are present in prevesical fat space?
1. Uterovaginal
2. Vesicoprostatic
3. Vesical
4. Venous plexus of spermatic cord
35. To expose of the retrorectal fat space one should dissect consecutively
following layers:
1. Skin
2. Subcutaneous fat layer
3. Anococcygeal ligament
4. Rectouterine ligament
5. Coccygeal muscle

6. Urogenital diaphragm
36. Enumerate indications for paranephral novocain blockade by Vishnevsky.
1. Acute intestinal obstruction
2. Renal colic
3. Ovarian apoplexy
4. Obliterating diseases of arteries of lower limb
5. Strangulated hernia
37. Determine the consecution of stages of lumbar puncture.
1. Puncture of soft tissues between spinous processes of L IV and L V with the
long needle special for lumbar puncture
2. Local anesthesia of soft tissues with 0,25% novocaine solution
3. Mandrin is pulled off from the needle
4. The needle is advanced in sagittal plane until pressue fall-through is felt
(penetratiotn of flaval ligament)
5. Mandrin is inserted in needle and the needle is taken away
6. The needle is advanced in sagittal plane until pressue fall-through is felt
(penetratiotn of dura mater)
7. Spinal fluid pressure is measured and liquor is taken for laboratory
examination
38. Bony part of true pelvis is supplemented with the following ligaments:
1. Sacrotuberous ligament
2. Sacrospinous ligament
3. Inguinal ligament
4. Lacunar ligament
39. Which arteries belong to visceral branches of internal iliac artery?
1. Inferior vesical arteries
2. Uterine arteries
3. Middle rectal arteries
4. Internal pudendal arteries
5. Obturator arteries
40. Determine the order of renal capsules which cover kidney starting from inner
one.
1. Adipose capsule
2. Fascial capsule
3. Fibrous capsule

Topography of upper limb

1. Choose the elements of neurovascular bundle in infraclavicular region.
1. Subclavian artery
2. Subclavian vein
3. Cervical plexus
4. Brachial plexus
2. Choose the main collaterals if axillary artery is ligated.
1. Deep brachial artery
2. Subscapular artery
3. Suprascapular artery
4. Thoracoacromial artery
3. The humeromuscular canal contains two of following structures:
1. Brachial artery
2. Deep brachial artery
3. Ulnar nerve
4. Radial nerve
5. Median nerve
4. Which boundaries the clavipectoral triangle has?
1. Clavicle
2. Pectoral major muscle
3. Superior margin of pectoral minor muscle
4. Margin of sternum
5. Choose the anatomical structures which bound trilateral foramen of axillary
fossa
1. Humerus
2. Subscapular muscle
3. Teres major muscle
4. Long head of triceps muscle
6. Name the projection line of axillary artery proposed by Lisfrank
1. Along lateral groove of biceps brachii muscle
2. Along groove of pectoral major muscle
3. By middle of clavicle
4. By border between anterior and posterior thirds of width of axillary fossa
7. Name the recesses of shoulder joint in which storage of pus is eventual.
1. Axillary
2. Subdeltoid
3. Subscapular
4. Intertubercular

5. Subacromial
8. The purulent leakage under phlegmon of axilla is situated between:
1. Thoracic wall and major pectoral muscle
2. Major and minor pectoral muscles
3. Major pectoral muscle and thoracic fascia
9. Which vein flows into subclavian one in clavipectoral triangle?
1. V. thoracica superior
2. V. thoracoacromialis
3. V. cephalica
4. V. basilica
10. The subscapular synovial bursa of shoulder joint is situated between:
1. Supraspinous and infraspinous muscles
2. Neck of scapula and subscapular muscle
3. Subscapular muscle and long head of triceps muscle of arm
4. Tubercles of head of humerus
5. Greater tubercle of humeri and deltoid muscle
11. Following four nerves originate from medial cord of brachial plexus:
1. Ulnar nerve
2. Radial nerve
3. Lateral root of median nerve
4. Medial root of median nerve
5. Medial cutaneous nerve of arm
6. Medial cutaneous nerve of forearm
7. Musculocutaneous nerve
8. Axillary nerve
12. Axillary fat space communicates to the following spaces:
1. Fat space of external cervical triangle
2. Subdeltoid fat space
3. Fat space of arm
4. Subpectoral fat space
13. Fasciae of infraclavicular region are:
1. Superficial thoracic fascia
2. Proper thoracic fascia
3. Clavipectoral fascia
4. Endothoracic fascia
14. Deep subpectoral fat space is bounded by:
1. Pectoral major muscle
2. Pectoral minor muscle

3. Superficial leaf of clavipectoral fascia

4. Deep leaf of clavipectoral fascia
15. Borders of region of arm are:
1. Inferior margin of latissimus dorsi muscle posteriorly
2. Inferior margin of pectoral major muscle anteriorly
3. Two fingers below epicondyles of humerus
4. Two fingers above epicondyles of humerus
16. Branches of deep brachial artery are:
1. Middle collateral artery
2. Superior collateral ulnar artery
3. Inferior collateral ulnar artery
4. Radial collateral artery
17. Why is it important to know quantity and borders of fascial cases in arm?
1. To carry out block anesthesia
2. To assume the ways of spreading purulent processes
3. To assume the ways of spreading hematoma
4. To realize the pathogenesis of crush syndrome
5. To realize the mechanism of neuralgia progress
18. Choose the branches of brachial artery.
1. Posterior circumflex humeral artery
2. Superior collateral ulnar artery
3. Deep brachial artery
4. Inferior collateral ulnar artery
19. Two of proposed fascial cases are situated in region of arm:
1. Posterior
2. Lateral
3. Medial
4. Anterior
20. After reduction of shoulder joint following symptoms were revealed: failure of
abduction of upper extremity, disorders of skin sensitivity on lateral surface of
arm. Other movements in shoulder joint are eventual including passive
abduction. Damage of which anatomical structure caused this sort of
complication?
1. Deltoid muscle
2. Radial nerve
3. Musculocutaneous nerve
4. Axillary nerve
5. Median nerve

21. What structure is situated in intertubercular groove of humerus and surrounded

with intertubercular recess?
1. Ulnar nerve
2. Radial nerve
3. Tendon of long head of biceps brachii muscle
4. Tendon of short head of biceps brachii muscle
5. Posterior circumflex humeral artery
6. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
22. Medial fat space of palm is limited by:
1. Leaves of proper fascia of palm
2. Aponeurosis of palm
3. Medial intermuscular septum
4. Fifth metacarpal bone
23. The peculiarity of subcutaneous purulent process on distal phalanx of finger
lies in spreading pus in following direction:
1. Toward the bone
2. Under skin on distal surface
3. Under skin along phalanges of finger
4. All variants are true
5. It doesnt spread
24. Lateral fat space of palm is limited by:
1. Superficial leaf of proper fascia
2. Deep leaf of proper fascia
3. Lateral intermuscular septum
4. Palmar aponeurosis
25. Cubital fossa is boundered by:
1. Brachioradial muscle
2. Flexor carpi ulnaris
3. Flexor carpi radialis
4. Pronator teres muscle
26. Choose the elbow joint line projection
1. 2 fingers below cubital fold
2. 1 finger below cubital fold
3. 2 fingers above cubital fold
4. 1 finger above cubital fold
27. The superficial muscular layer of anterior region of forearm includes following
muscles:
1. Flexor digitorum superficialis
2. Flexor carpi ulnaris

3. Pronator teres
4. Flexor carpi radialis
28. Lateral neurovascular bundle of elbow region is made up by:
1. Radial nerve
2. Ulnar nerve
3. Collateral radial artery
4. Radial recurrent artery
29. The medial neurovascular bundle in anteromedial cubital groove consists of:
1. Brachial artery
2. Brachial veins
3. Cubital nerve
4. Median nerve
30. Name muscles of third muscular layer of anterior region of forearm.
1. Deep flexor digitorum muscle and long flexor muscle of thumb
2. Superficial flexor digitorum muscle
3. Flexor carpi radialis and flexor carpi ulnaris muscles
4. Quadrate pronator muscle
31. Choose musles which form the third muscular layer of anterior region of
forearm.
1. M. flexor digitorum profundus
2. M. flexor carpi ulnaris
3. M. flexor pollicis longus
4. M. flexor carpi radialis
32. Regarding exposure of ulnar artery two of given statements are veritable:
1. Projection line of artery runs from midpoint of cubital fossa to pisiform bone
2. Projection line of artery runs from medial epicondyle of humerus to pisiform
bone
3. Ulnar artery is situated laterally to ulnar nerve
4. Ulnar artery is situated medially to ulnar nerve
33. What structure forms anterior wall of Pirogov`s fat space?
1. M. pronator quadratus
2. M. flexor digitorum profundus
3. M. flexor pollicis longus
4. M. flexor digitorum superficialis
34. The lateral neurovascular bundle in middle third of anterior region of forearm
consists of:
1. Radial artery
2. Radial veins

3. Superficial branch of radial nerve

4. Deep branch of radial nerve
35. The following osteofascial cases are distinguished on palmar surface of hand:
1. Middle
2. Anterior
3. Medial
4. Lateral
36. Choose the access to open phlegmon of Pirigov`s fat space.
1. On anterior surface of forearm
2. On posterior surface of forearm
3. On lateral surface of forearm
4. On medial surface of forearm
37. Which canals are present in carpal region?
1. Median carpal canal
2. Radial carpal canal
3. Ulnar carpal canal
4. Carpal canal
38. Pirogov`s fat space is located in lower third of anterior region of forearm and
bounded:
1. Anteriorly
2. Posteriorly
. M.flexor pollicis longus
. M.pronator quadratus
. M.flexor digitorum profundus
. Interosseous membrane
39. The median neurovascular bundle of anterior region of forearm consists of:
1. Median nerve
2. Median artery
3. Median vein
4. Anterior interosseous artery
40. Which branches of brachial artery participate in forming arterial network of
elbow joint?
1. Recurrent interosseous artery
2. Superior ulnar collateral artery
3. Inferior ulnar collateral artery
4. Deep brachial artery and its terminal branches
41. The deep neurovascular bundle of anterior region of forearm consists of:
1. Anterior interosseous vein

2. Anterior interosseous artery

3. Median nerve
4. Anterior interosseous nerve
42. Which structures bound the middle subaponeurotic fat space of palm?
1. Palmar aponeurosis
2. Lateral intermuscular septum
3. Medial intermuscular septum
4. Proper fascia of hand

Topography of lower limb

1. Define boundaries of muscular lacuna.
1. Anteriorly
2. Posterio-laterally
3. Medially
. Iliac bone
. Iliopectineal arch
. Inguinal ligament
2. Which ligaments strengthen capsule of hip joint?
1. Iliofemoral, pubofemoral and ischiofemoral ligaments
2. Sacrotuberal, iliofemoral and pubofemoral ligaments
3. Sacrospinal, ischiofemoral and sacrotuberal ligaments
4. Iliolumbar, sacrotuberal and sacrospinal ligaments
3. Choose branches which originate from deep femoral artery.
1. Lateral circumflex femoral artery
2. Perforating arteries
3. Descending artery of knee
4. Medial circumflex femoral artery
5. Obturator artery
4. Boundaries of vascular lacuna are:
1. Anteriorly
2. Posteriorly
3. Laterally
4. Medially
. Pectianeal ligament
. Lacuanar ligament
. Inguinal ligament
. Iliopectineal arch
5. Choose arteries and nerves which pass through infrapiriform foramen from
pelvic cavity to gluteal region.
1. Superior gluteal artery
2. Internal pudendal artery
3. Inferior gluteal artery
4. Superior gluteal nerve
5. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
6. Inferior gluteal nerve
7. Pudendal nerve
8. Sciatic nerve

6. Set up a correspondence of fat spaces with the ways of communication them

with subgluteal fat space.
1. With lateral fat space of pelvis
2. With fat space of posterior fascial case of thigh
3. With ischiorectal fossa
. Through lesser ischiadic foramen
. Through infrapiriform foramen
. Along sciatic nerve
7. The following four anatomical structures are located in vascular lacuna:
1. Femoral artery
2. Femoral vein
3. Femoral nerve
4. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
5. Lymphatic node
6. Iliopsoas muscle
7. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
8. Choose three muscles which are located in posterior muscular case of thigh.
1. Biceps muscle of thigh
2. Tensor muscle of fascia lata
3. Semimembranosus muscle
4. Semitendinous muscle
5. Rectus muscle of thigh
6. Gracilis muscle
9. Which structures pass through anterior foramen of adductor canal?
1. Femoral artery
2. Saphenus nerve
3. Descending artery of knee
4. Anterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
10. The second muscular layer of gluteal region includes 5 muscles of enumerated
below:
1. Gemellus muscles
2. Gluteus maximus muscle
3. Obturator internus muscle
4. Piriform muscle
5. Quadrate muscle of thigh
6. Gluteus minimus muscle
7. Obturator externus muscle
8. Gluteus medius muscle
11. Two of enumerated structures pass in adductor canal:
1. Femoral artery

2. Femoral vein
3. Femoral nerve
4. Great saphenous vein
5. Obturator artery
6. Obturator nerve
12. The deep phlegmon of gluteal region is localized:
1. Between gluteus maximus, gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles
2. Between skin and superficial fascia
3. Between gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles
4. Between superficial and deep gluteal fascias
5. Between superficial and deep leaves of proper fascia of gluteus maximus
muscle
13. Femoral ring is bounded:
1. Anteriorly
2. Posteriorly
3. Laterally
4. Medially
.. Femoral vein
. Pectineal ligament
. Lacunar ligament
. Inguinal ligament
14. Two of given anatomical structures run in muscular lacuna:
1. Femoral artery
2. Femoral vein
3. Femoral nerve
4. Lymphatic node
5. Iliopsoas muscle
15. The inferior foramen of adductor canal is formed by:
1. Great adductor and medial vastus muscles
2. Great adductor muscle and femur
3. Long adductor muscle and femur
4. Lacertus of great adductor muscle
5. Long and great adductor muscles
16. Choose structures which leave small pelvis through suprapiriform foramen.
1. Superior gluteal artery
2. Internal pudendal artery
3. Inferior gluteal artery
4. Superior gluteal nerve
5. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
6. Inferior gluteal nerve

7. Pudendal nerve
8. Sciatic nerve
17. Two of adduced statements are true relatively to saphenous opening:
1. It is normal closed with cribriform fascia
2. It is oval opening in superficial leaf of fascia lata
3. It is located in horizontal plane
4. It is located in sagital plane
5. It is located in frontal plane
18. Where the weak places of capsule of hip joint are situated?
1. Anteriorly and posteriorly
2. Posteriorly and inferiorly
3. Laterally and medially
4. Anteriorly and superiorly
19. Define the accordance between walls of adductor canal and anatomical
structures forming them.
1. Anterolateral wall
2. Posteromedial wall
3. Anterior wall
. Great adductor muscle
. Medial vastus muscle
. Lamina vastoadductoria
20. Five of given muscles are located in medial fascial case of thigh:
1. Great adductor muscle
2. Pectineal muscle
3. Biceps muscle of thigh
4. Long adductor muscle
5. Short adductor muscle
6. Sartorius muscle
7. Gracilis muscle
21. Which artery and nerve pass through lesser ischiadic foramen to ischiorectal
fossa?
1. Superior gluteal artery
2. Internal pudendal artery
3. Inferior gluteal artery
4. Superior gluteal nerve
5. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
6. Inferior gluteal nerve
7. Pudendal nerve
8. Ischiadic nerve

22. Choose structures situated in cruropopliteal canal.

1. Anterior tibial artery and vein
2. Posterior tibial artery and vein
3. Peroneal artery and vein
4. Tibial nerve
5. Deep peroneal nerve
6. Superficial peroneal nerve
23. What structure serves as floor of popliteal fossa?
1. Popliteal fascia
2. Fat tissue
3. Planum popliteum femoris
4. Oblique popliteal ligament
5. Popliteal muscle
24. Which structures are present in superior musculoperoneal canal?
1. Fibular artery
2. Common peroneal nerve
3. Superficial peroneal nerve
4. Deep peroneal nerve
25. Which structures form superior musculoperoneal canal?
1. Tibia and anterior tibial muscle
2. Anterior tibial and lonf peroneal muscles
3. Extensor digitorum lpngus and extensor hallucis longus muscles
4. Long peroneal muscle and fibula
26. Lateral plantar nerve innervates following muscles:
1. Muscles of lateral fascial case
2. Short flexor muscle of toes
3. Adductor muscle of thumb
4. Interosseous muscles
5. Plantar quadrate muscle
6. Two lateral lumbrical muscles
27. Which structures form ankle joint?
1. Articular surfaces of trochlea of talus and distal ends of bones of leg
2. Articular surface of tibia and trochlea of talus
3. Articular surface of fibula and trochlea of talus
4. Articular surfaces of heel bone and distal ends of bones of leg
28. Which of mentioned orientations serves as projection line of anterior tibial
artery?
1. A line drawn from midpoint between head of fibula and tuberosity of tibia to
midpoint between medial and lateral malleoli

2. A line drawn from tuberosity of tibia to midpoint between medial and lateral
malleoli
3. A line drawn from head of fibula to medial malleolus
4. A line drawn from midpoint between head of fibula and tuberosity of tibia to
lateral malleolus
29. Choose four muscles which are located in posterior fascial case of leg.
1. Long peroneal muscle
2. Long extensor muscle of great toe
3. Long extensor muscle of toes
4. Long flexor muscle of great toe
5. Long flexor muscle of toes
6. Posterior tibial muscle
7. Triceps muscle of calf
30. To expose anterior neurovascular bundle in lower part of leg surgeon should
dissect proper fascia and then visualize bundle between:
1. Tibia and anterior tibial muscle
2. Anterior tibial muscle and long extensor muscle of great toe
3. Long extensor muscle of great toe and long extensor muscle of toes
4. Long extensor muscle of toes and anterior intermuscular septum
31. A purulent gonitis has been complicated with burst of purulent focus toward
popliteal fossa and forming a purulent leakage in posterior fascial case of leg. It
had the following way for permeation:
1. Along gastrocnemius muscle under crural fascia
2. Through cruropoliteal canal
3. Through inferior musculoperoneal canal
4. Along common fibular nerve
32. Acute thrombosis of popliteal artery at the level of joint space resulted in
blood flow stoppage in main artery. The blood flow can be reestablished at
the expense of arterial network of knee joint. Branches of which mentioned
arteries participate in forming aforenamed anastomosis?
1. Femoral artery
2. Deep artery of thigh
3. Obturator artery
4. Fibular artery
5. Anterior tibial artery
6. Popliteal artery
33. Which structures pass through cruropopliteal canal?
1. Posterior tibial artery and veins, tibial nerve, fibular artery, veins and nerve
2. Anterior tibial artery and veins, deep fibular nerve
3. Posterior tibial artery and veins, superficial fibular nerve

4. Fibular artery, veins and nerve

34. The neurovascular bundle of anterior fascial case of leg includes:
1. Anterior tibial artery
2. Peroneal artery
3. Great saphenous vein
4. Anterior tibial veins
5. Tibial nerve
6. Deep peroneal nerve
7. Superficial peroneal nerve
35. Relatively to knee joint only two of given statements are true. Choose them.
1. Three bones form knee joint. These are: femur, tibia and fibula
2. Medial and lateral menisci completely divide joint cavity into superior and
inferior compartments
3. Joint cavity can be considerably enlarged in the direction of anterior
region of thigh at the expense of communication the patellar synovial
bursa with the superior synovial recess of knee joint
4. Anterior and posterior cruciform ligaments are intracapsular ligaments
of knee joint
36. All the mentioned structures pass through medial malleolar canal except:
1. Posterior tibial artery
2. Tibial nerve
3. Tendon of posterior tibial muscle
4. Tendon of long peroneal muscle
5. Tendon of long flexor muscle of great toe
37. Two of given muscles are situated in lateral fascial compartment of leg.
1. Long peroneal muscle
2. Long extensor muscle of toes
3. Long flexor muscle of toes
4. Short peroneal muscle
5. Short extensor muscle of toes
38. Which three mentioned muscles are situated in anterior fascial compartment of
leg?
1. Long extensor muscle of great toe
2. Long extensor muscle of toes
3. Long flexor muscle of great toe
4. Long flexor muscle of toes
5. Short extensor muscle of toes
6. Anterior tibial muscle

39. Along which artery fat tissue of cruropoliteal canal communicates with anterior
muscular compartment of leg?
1. Anterior tibial
2. Popliteal
3. Posterior tibial
4. Peroneal
40. The foot has position of overextension (heel foot) if following nerve is
injured:
1. Common peroneal nerve
2. Deep peroneal nerve
3. Obturator nerve
4. Tibial nerve
5. Femoral nerve
41. In which fat space phlegmons of foot are localized more often?
1. Middle space
2. Medial space
3. Lateral space
4. Intermuscular space
42. What structure runs in inferior musculoperoneal canal?
1. Common peroneal nerve
2. Deep peroneal nerve
3. Peroneal artery
4. Descending artery of knee
5. Posterior tibial artery
6. Superficial peroneal nerve

Operations on the limbs

1. Which operations lead to restoration of joint mobility?
1. Arthrorisis
2. Arthrodesis
3. Arthrolysis
4. Arthroplasty
5. Tenodesis
2. Where is the point for hip joint puncture?
1. On midpoint of inguinal ligament
2. On midpoint of line connecting point between medial and middle thirds of
inguinal ligament with greater trochanter of femur
3. Above greater trochanter
4. On midpoint of gluteal fold
5. Along medial margin of ischial tuberosity
3. What does one imply to compute the length of flaps under flap amputation?
1. Area of circumference
2. Length of circumference
3. Flaps should be cut out with reserve and the stump formation should be
done at the end of operation
4. Length of circumference keeping in mind the contractility of skin
5. Area of circumference keeping in mind the contractility of skin
4. What tissues must be cut in second moment of three moment circular
amputation of thigh by Pirogov?
1. All muscles
2. Superficial muscles
3. Deep muscles
4. All muscles and periosteum
5. Soft tissues, periosteum and bone
5. Which requirements are essential for suture of vessels?
1. Tightness and impermeability of sutured vessel
2. Suturing with silk suture
3. Minimal stricture of lumen of vessel
4. Suture material should not penetrate lumen of vessel not to provoke blood
coagulation
5. Suture should be put within 10 minutes
6. Where puncture of knee joint is done most often?
1. At tibial tuberosity
2. In popliteal fossa

3. At lateral margin of patella

4. At medial margin of patella
5. At inferior epiphysis of femur
7. Choose the most suitable suture material for suture of vessels.
1. Catgut ligature
2. Chromic catgut
3. Surgical clips
4. Silk
5. Absorbable synthetic polymeric suture material
8. Circular amputations can be of following types:
1. One-moment
2. Two-moment
3. Three-moment
4. Four-moment
5. Guillotine
9. Which requirements are essential for tendon suture?
1. Strength of suture
2. Hemostatic feature of suture
3. Minimal garnetting effect
4. Suture material should be located on to surface of tendon
5. It should disturb blood circulation of suturing tendon as less as possible
10. What incision is usually used in knee joint empyema?
1. On each side of patella
2. From medial epicondyle to lateral one through tibial tuberosity
3. Through popliteal fossa
4. Through Jobert`s fossa
11. What does disarticulation mean?
1. Removal of devitalized tissues
2. Cutting off the extremity at the level of joint
3. Cutting off the injured extremity
4. Cutting off the extremity over the bone
5. Removal of devitalized tissues with the purpose of maintenance of limb
viability
12. Flap amputations can be of following types:
1. One flap amputation
2. Small flap amputation
3. Large flap amoutation
4. Two flap amputation
5. Three flap amputation

6. Four flap amputation

13. Which indications are considered as primary for amputation?
1. Gas gangrene
2. Acute purulent inflammation of extremity which converts to septic phase
3. The absolute avulsion of distal part of extremity
4. Necrosis of distal part of extremity
5. Open injury of extremity when the neurovascular laceration is combined
with the splintering bones and destruction more than 2/3 of volume of soft
tissues
14. What muscle should be cut in hip joint arthrotomy?
1. Tensor muscle of fascia lata
2. Sartorius muscle
3. Rectus muscle of thigh
4. Pectineus muscle
5. Iliopsoas muscle
15. Determine the consecution of stages in amputation.
1. Dissection of muscles
2. Ligature of vessels
3. Dissection of skin, subcutaneous fat, superficial and proper fascias
4. Suturing the wound
5. Cutting off the bone
6. Processing the large nerve trunks
7. Dissection of periosteum
16. Which of proposed variants can be considered as reasons of non-functioning
stump development?
1. Painful scars as a result of healing by secondary intention
2. Deterioration of general status of patient
3. Location of bonesaw-line under skin owing to muscular atrophy
4. Insufficient mobility of stump
5. Chronic venous congestion complicated with ulceration
17. Choose statements which are correct concerning epineural suture of nerve.
1. Proximal and distal ends of nerve should be excised within the limits of
intact tissue with the help of safety razor blade at right angle to axis of
nerve.
2. Cutting needle is used for neuroraphy
3. The ends of nerve are stitched through thickness of nerve and drawn
together up to contiguity
4. The ends of nerve are taken by epineurium with three sutures and drawn
together keeping 1-2 mm space between ends of nerve
5. Plaster splint on extremity is applied after neuroraphy

18. Determine three moments of circular amputation of thigh by Pirogov.

1. Dissection of skin, subcutaneous fat tissue and superficial fascia
2. Dissection of superficial muscles along margin of retracted skin
3. Retraction of muscles with forming muscular cone
4. Dissection of deep muscles
5. Dissection of periosteum and shifting it distally
6. Dissection of femur
19. Which instruments surgeon usually use to smooth bonesaw-line edges?
1. Rasp
2. Luer`s bone forceps
3. Liston`s bone cutters
4. Dalgren`s bone forceps
5. Schtillet`s cutters
20. Which advantages bone plastic amputation has compared to other types?
1. Technical simplicity
2. Gives support ability to stump
3. Negligible decrease of limb length
4. Gives opportunity to use orthopedic shoes insted of prosthesis
21. Identify stages of Gritty Shimanovsky amputation of thigh.
1. Formation skin flap on anterior surface of knee joint
2. Dissection of patellar ligament
3. Fixation patella to bonesaw-line of femur
4. Separation periosteum from bone
5. Covering bonesaw-line with dermotendinous flap
22. Which operative access is used most often in arthrotomy of ankle joint?
1. Anterior
2. Posterior
3. Medial
4. Lateral
5 Median
23. How vessels must be processed in amputation?
1. Vessels must be ligated after taking down tourniquet
2. Vessels are to be ligated before tournique is taken off
3. Vessels must be ligated 1,5-2 cm distally to level of cutting
4. Arteries and veins must be ligated together
5. Large vessels must be ligated with sewing
24. Which disadvantages of circular amputation of thigh by Pirogov are known to
you?

1. Labouriousness
2. Formation scar on worktop of stump
3. Uneconomical
4. Frequently forms nonfunctional stump
25. What is the appellation of amputation when after circular excision of skin,
subcutaneous tissue and superficial fascia the cut tissues are turned out and the
exposed muscles are dissected along the edge of turned tissues?
1. Two moment circular amputation
2. Two moment cuff-method amputation
3. Three moment circular amputation
4. Thre moment conic amputation
26. Choose indications for side suture of vessel.
1. Complete rupture of vessel
2. Injury of half of circumference of vessel
3. Injury of one third of circumference of vessel
4. Injury more than two thirds of circumference of vessel
27. Which of given types of amputation is preferable in lower third of arm?
1. One flap musculocutaneous amputation
2. Two flap musculocutaneous amputation
3. Three flap musculocutaneous amputation
4. Circular musculocutaneous amputation
5. Oval musculocutaneous amputation
6. Guillotine amputation
28. Choose special instruments for amputation.
1. Amputational retractor
2. Faraboeuf`s raspatory
3. Doyen's raspatory
4. Amputation knife
5. Surgical director
29. Which ones are indicated for secondary amputation?
1. Severe limb injury with crushing of bones and soft tissues
2. Limb gangrene as a result of arterial thrombosis
3. Anaerobic infection which develops on next day after limb injury happens
4. Spacious limb phlegmones with septic intoxication and fusion of soft tissues
if everyday bathings of wounds with complex conservative treatment fails
30. Which tissues one dissects in first moment of circular amputation of thigh by
Pirogov?
1. All soft tissues
2. Skin

3. Skin and subcutaneous fat tissue

4. Skin, subcutaneous fat tissue and superficial fascia
5. Skin, subcutaneous fat tissue, superficial and proper fasciae
31. Choose indications for joint resection.
1. Examination of articular fluid
2. Removal of intraarticular foreign bodies
3. Aseptic manipulations inside the joint
4. Penetrating wound with bone splintering
5. Purulent inflammation of joint with fusion of epiphysis
32. Which of given ones is typical complication for bone plastic amputation of leg
by Pirogov?
1. Development of malignant tumor on stump
2. Necrosis of calcaneal tuberosity if calcaneal artery is injured
3. Osteomyelitis
4. Disorders of biomechanics in walking
5. Development of tip foot (talipes equinus)
33. Where the needle is to be inserted in local anesthesia of finger by Lukashevich
Oberst?
1. On palmar and dorsal surfaces of proximal phalange of finger
2. On medial and lateral surfaces of proximal phalange of finger
3. On palmar and dorsal surfaces of middle phalange of finger
4. On medial and lateral surfaces of middle phalange of finger
34. Which incisions are used to open phlegmones of foot?
1. Medial incision along margin arch of foot
2. Lateral incision along margin of arch of foot
3. Median incision
4. Incisions along medial and lateral aponeurotic septa
5. Transverse incisions over calcaneus and phalanges of toes
35. Which disadvantages are typical for connection vessels with the help of
Donetsky`s rings
1. Insufficiently hemostatic
2. Restricts lumen of vessel
3. Adventitia of vessel contacts to blood
4. Decreases elasticity of vessel
5. Needs more mobilization of vessel than usually
36. If aperiosteal method of amputation is used the bone is not covered with
periosteum over:
1. 1-2 mm
2. 3-5 mm

3. 6-8 mm
4. 8-10 mm
37. How the Deschamps' ligature needle should be put relatively to elements of
neurovascular bundle during vessel ligation?
1. From one side of the bundle from the direction of artery
2. Between artery and vein
3. From one side of the bundle from the direction of vein
4. Don`t have any practical meaning
38. How bone and periosteum are processed in amputation?
1. Bonesaw-line must be perpendicular to limb longitudinal axis
2. Bonesaw-line must be stripped off the periosteum 0,5 cm downward
3. Marrow must be scooped out
4. Marrow must not be scooped out
5. Periosteum is pushed down
6. Periosteum is to be dissected circularly above prospective level of
amputation
39. Give definition of neurolysis.
1. Fusion of nerve in place of injury
2. Release nerve from cicatricial adhesions
3. Cicatrical nerve compression
4. Nerve compression with bone fragments
40. Which operative accesses are usually used in hip joint arthrotomy?
1. Posterior
2. Combined
3. Lateral
4. Medial
5. Anterior