PTRPs & OTRPs by AUGUST 2016

CARDIO-PULMO DRILLS.
From Braddom & OSullivan
1. It is the primary reason for referral for
cardiac rehabilitation.
a. Hypertension
b. Angina Pectoris
c. Stroke
d. Myocardial Infarction
e. Congestive Heart Failure
2. The following are considered as modifiable
factors for coronary disease, except:
a. Obesity
b. Hypertension
c. Smoking
d. Gender
e. Sedentary lifestyle
3. The following statements are true about the
benefits of physical activity on risk factors
for coronary artery disease, except:
a. Weight loss and subsequent weight
maintenance enhancement
b. High density lipoprotein levels decreased
by 4.6%
c. Improvement in the rates of smoking
cessation and maintenance of abstinence
d. Reduction of resting blood pressure
especially
seen
among
hypertensive
patient
e. NOTA
4. The following are adaptations noted with
aerobic
training
seen
among
cardiac
patients, except:
a. Increased flexibility
b. Increased stroke volume and peak cardiac
output
c. Enhanced rate of recovery after exercise
d. Increased stress hormone release
e. NOTA
5. Chest pain that is musculoskeletal in origin is
described as sharp, stabbing and aching. If
there are any radiating symptoms associated
with musculoskeletal chest pain, it follows a
dermatomal distribution.
a. First statement is true, second statement
is false
b. First statement is false, second statement
is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
6. The following are about chest pain that is
associated with a cardiac disease, except:
a. The quality of pain is described as
squeezing, heavy, dull burning
b. It is usually exacerbated by stress and
exercise and relieved by either rest or
nitroglycerin intake.
c. The
nature
of
pain
is
usually
persistent.
d. It rarely radiates on the neck, back
and arms.
e. NOTA
7. The following are true about chest pain
that is gastrointestinal in origin, except:
a. The quality of pain is described as
visceral and sharp tightness
b. The
nature
of
pain
is
usually
intermittent
c. It usually lasts from several minutes
to days
d. AOTA
e. NOTA
8. Chronic Restrictive Pulmonary Disease is
usually caused by neuromuscular and/or
orthopedic disorders; it is also the most
common form of lung disease.

a. First statement is true, second

statement is false
b. First statement is false, second
statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
9. A patient who suffered a spinal cord
injury at the cervical level has been
showing pulmonary complications. As her
attending physical/occupational therapist
you know that her pulmonary affectation
is associated with ______________ lung
disease and if you look at her chart you
will expect that the value of her residual
lung volume is ___________.
a. Obstructive, decreased
b. Restrictive, increased
c. Obstructive, increased
d. Restrictive, decreased
e. Restrictive, normal
10. GOLD Classification of 70% predicted
forced expiratory volume in 1 second
(FEV1).
a. Stage 0
b. Stage I
c. Stage II
d. Stage III
e. Stage IV
11. Main disease of children in which lung
transplant is commonly performed:
a. Scoliosis
b. Emphysema
c. Chronic Bronchitis
d. Cystic Fibrosis
e. NOTA
12. Main reason for lung transplant in adults:
a. CRPD
b. COPD
c. Both A and B
d. NOTA
13. Absolute contraindication to lung transplant:
a. History of smoking
b. History of chronic alcoholism
c. History of illegal drug intake
d. NOTA
e. Ongoing smoking
14. GOLD Classification of 35% predicted forced
expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1).
a. Normal
b. Mild COPD
c. Moderate COPD
d. Severe COPD
e. Very Severe COPD
15. Most common cause of death among patients
who underwent lung transplant:
a. Thromboangitis obliterans
b. Bronchiolitis obliterans
c. Hypertension
d. Sepsis
e. Both B & D
16. Normal pulse rate of a 3 year old child:
a. 50 bpm
b. 60 bpm
c. 75 bpm
d. 90 bpm
e. 150 bpm
17. Normal blood pressure of a new born:
a. 50/40 mmHg
b. 70/60 mmHg
c. 90/70 mmHg
d. 100/ 80mmHg
e. 120/80 mmHg
18. Central Cyanosis refers to the bluish-gray
discoloration evident in the nail beds and lips
caused by hypoxia; it is associated with
decreased cardiac output and exposure to
cold.

2-3 days after August 7, 2016 PTRP/OTRP ka na oh! Kaya mo yan!

PTRPs & OTRPs by AUGUST 2016

a. First statement is true, second statement
is false
b. First statement is false, second statement
is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
19. Diffuse redness of face:
a. Erythema
b. Rubor
c. Pallor
d. Flushing
e. Facial ecchymosis
20. It is described as barely perceptible, easily
obliterated with slight pressure; fades in and
out. What is the pulse grade?
a. Absent (0)
b. Thready (1+)
c. Weak (2+)
d. Normal (3+)
e. Bounding (4+)
21. Easy to palpate; requires moderate pressure
to obliterate:
a. Absent (0)
b. Thready (1+)
c. Weak (2+)
d. Normal (3+)
e. Bounding (4+)
22. Bounding pulse:
a. No perceptible pulse even with maximum
pressure
b. Pulse easily obliterated with slight
pressure
c. Pulse can be obliterated with light
pressure
d. Not obliterated with moderate pressure
e. Requires moderate pressure to obliterate
23. Stage 1 Hypertension:
a. 110/80 mmHg
b. 120/80 mmHg
c. 130/85 mmHg
d. 140/90 mmHg
e. 160/100 mmHg
24. Type of fever that is described as the
elevated body temperature that fluctuates
more than 20C within a 24-hour period but
remains above normal.
a. Relapsing Fever
b. Remittent Fever
c. Constant Fever
d. Intermittent Fever
25. Described as the periods of fever are
interspersed with normal temperatures; each
last at least one day.
a. Relapsing Fever
b. Remittent Fever
c. Constant Fever
d. Intermittent Fever
26. Constant Fever:
a. Elevated
body
temperature
that
fluctuates more than 3.60F (20C) within a
24-hour period but remains above normal
b. Body temperature may fluctuate slightly
but is constantly elevated above normal.
c. Body temperature alternates at regular
intervals between periods of fever and
periods of normal temperatures
d. Periods of fever are interspersed with
normal temperatures; each last at least
one day.
e. Also known as recurrent fever
27. Increased pulse pressure with a rapid
upstroke and downstroke and a shortened
peak:
a. Pulsus Alternans
b. Corrigans Pulse
c. Pulsus Bisferiens
d. Pulsus Paradoxus

e. NOTA
28. The type of pulse that is observed among
patients with left ventricular failure:
a. Water-Hammer pulse
b. Pulsus Paradoxus
c. Pulsus Bigeminus
d. Pulsus Alternans
e. Pulsus Bisferiens
29. Type of pulse that can be observed among
patients who have aortic regurgitation,
except:
a. Corrigans pulse
b. Pulsus Bisferiens
c. Water-Hammer pulse
d. Large, bounding pulse
e. NOTA
30. Irregular pulse rhythm in which premature
beats alternate with sinus beats:
a. Pulsus Paradoxus
b. Pulsus Alternans
c. Pulsus Bigeminus
d. Pulsus Bisferiens
e. NOTA
31. Pulsus Alternans:
a. Irregular
pulse
rhythm
in
which
premature beats alternate with sinus
beats
b. Regular pulse rhythm with alternation of
weak and strong beats.
c. A strong upstroke, downstroke, and
second upstroke during systole
d. Pulse
with
a
markedly
decreased
amplitude during inspiration
32. Pulsus Paradoxus:
a. Pulse
with
a
markedly
decreased
amplitude during inspiration
b. Increased pulse pressure with a rapid
upstroke and downstroke and a shortened
peak
c. Regular pulse rhythm with alternation of
weak and strong beats
d. Irregular
pulse
rhythm
in
which
premature beats alternate with sinus
beats
e. A strong upstroke, downstroke, and
second upstroke during systole
33. Pulsus bisferiens is described as the pulse
that has a strong upstroke, downstroke and
second upstroke during systole; one of its
possible causes is aortic insufficiency.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. Only the first statement is true
d. Only the second statement is true
34. Decreased pulse pressure with a slow
upstroke and prolonged peak:
a. Corrigans pulse
b. Large, bounding pulse
c. Water-Hammer pulse
d. Small, weak pulse
e. Normal pulse
35. Large, bounding pulse:
a. Increased pulse pressure with a rapid
upstroke and downstroke and a shortened
peak
b. A great surge precedes a sudden absence
of force or fullness
c. A strong upstroke, downstroke, and
second upstroke during systole
d. Irregular
pulse
rhythm
in
which
premature beats alternate with sinus
beats.
e. NOTA
36. Type of abnormal pulse that is possibly
caused by increased peripheral vascular
resistance (e.g. cold weather) or decreased

2-3 days after August 7, 2016 PTRP/OTRP ka na oh! Kaya mo yan!

PTRPs & OTRPs by AUGUST 2016

stroke volume as seen in patients who
suffered from hypovolemia.
a. Pulsus Bigeminus
b. Pulsus Bisferiens
c. Pulsus Paradoxus
d. Small, weak pulse
e. Water-Hammer pulse
37. Type of abnormal pulse that is possibly
caused by increased stroke volume and
increased stiffness of arterial walls as seen in
patients who have fever or hypertension.
a. Small, weak pulse
b. Corrigans Pulse
c. Large, bounding pulse
d. Water-Hammer pulse
e. Pulsus Bisferiens
38. The type of pulse observed among patients
with patent ductus arteriosus:
a. Corrigans pulse
b. Water-Hammer pulse
c. Pulsus Bigeminus
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
39. Type of pulse observed in patients with
severe lung disease:
a. Pulsus Alternans
b. Pulsus Bigeminus
c. Pulsus Paradoxus
d. Pulsus Bisferiens
e. Corrigans pulse
40. Respirations that are regular but abnormally
deep and increased in rate:
a. Eupnea
b. Biots respirations
c. Cheyne-stokes respirations
d. Kussmauls respirations
e. Tachypnea
41. Cheyne-stokes respirations:
a. Gradual increase in depth of respirations
followed by gradual increase and then a
period of apnea
b. Irregular respirations of variable depth
with alternating periods of eupnea
c. Respirations
that
are
regular
but
abnormally deep and decreased in rate
d. Irregular respirations of variable depth
with alternating period of apnea
e. Gradual increase in depth of respirations
followed by gradual decrease and the n a
period of apnea
42. Biots respiration:
a. Gradual
increase
in
depth
of
respirations
followed
by
gradual
decrease and the n a period of apnea
b. Irregular respirations
of variable
depth with alternating periods of
apnea
c. Respirations that are regular but
abnormally deep and increased in rate
d. Irregular respirations
of variable
depth with alternating periods of
eupnea
e. Gradual
increase
in
depth
of
respirations
followed
by
gradual
increase and then a period of apnea
43. Eupnea refers to normal respiration; while
slow respiration refers to bradycardia.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. Only the first statement is true
d. Only the second statement is true
44. True about carotid pulse, except:
a. It is used to monitor cranial circulation
b. It is located on either side of lower neck,
below the jaw, fingers over thyroid
cartilage between the trachea and lateral
border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

c.

Pressure applied on bilateral carotid

pulse will stimulate carotid sinus and will
result to subsequent reflex drop in pulse
rate
d. Easily accessible
e. NOTA
45. Most common site for peripheral pulse
monitoring:
a. Radial pulse
b. Brachial pulse
c. Pedal pulse
d. Carotid pulse
e. Popliteal pulse
46. Location of femoral pulse:
a. Distal medial aspect of humerus at the
medial aspect of the antecubital fossa
b. Dorsal, medial aspect of foot, lateral to
the tendon of the extensor hallucis longus
c. Inferior aspect of popliteal fossa
d. Inferior to the inguinal ligament, midway
between the anterior superior iliac spine
and the symphysis pubis
e. NOTA
47. Location of radial pulse:
a. Distal radius at base of the thumb, medial
to the tendon of extensor carpi radialis
brevis
b. Distal radius at base of the thumb, lateral
to the tendon of extensor carpi radialis
brevis
c. Distal radius at base of the thumb, lateral
to the tendon of flexor carpi radialis
d. Distal radius at base of the thumb, medial
to the tendon of flexor carpi radialis
e. NOTA
48. The pulse that is usually palpated when
radial pulse is inaccessible and often used
with infants:
a. Brachial pulse
b. Temporal Pulse
c. Pedal Pulse
d. Femoral pulse
e. Carotid pulse
49. The pulse that is used to monitor lower
extremity
circulation
especially
during
cardiac arrest:
a. Pedal pulse
b. Femoral pulse
c. Popliteal pulse
d. Carotid pulse
e. NOTA
50. The pulse that is used routinely to monitor
blood pressure:
a. Brachial pulse
b. Radial pulse
c. Carotid pulse
d. Femoral pulse
e. Pedal pulse
51. The pulse that is palpated during shock or
cardiac arrest and is often used among
infants:
a. Femoral pulse
b. Radial pulse
c. Temporal pulse
d. Carotid pulse
e. Pedal pulse
52. GOLD Classification that is associated with
shortness of breath upon exertion but with or
without symptoms of cough and sputum
production:
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
53. The
following
medications
acts
for
bronchodilation, except:
a. Atrovent

2-3 days after August 7, 2016 PTRP/OTRP ka na oh! Kaya mo yan!

PTRPs & OTRPs by AUGUST 2016

b. Singulair
c. Serevent
d. Theophylline
e. NOTA
54. Medication that acts to prevent inflammatory
response in patients with chronic pulmonary
disease:
a. Aminophylline
b. Flovent
c. Serevent
d. Prednisone
e. Intal
55. The patients position when you want to
perform postural drainage on the left upper
lobe (singular segments):
a. Sidelying on left side, head down, rotates
turn backward, knees flexed, pillow
placed underneath the shoulder and hip
b. Sidelying on right side, head down,
rotates turn backward, knees flexed,
pillow placed underneath the shoulder
and hip.
c. Patient leans over folded pillow at 30 0
angle
d. Prone with two pillows under the hips
56. The patients position when you want to
perform postural drainage on the apical
segment of the upper lobe
a. Patient lies on the back with pillow under
the knees
b. Patient leans over folded pillow at 30 0
angle
c. Patient leans back on pillow at 30 0 angle
against therapist
d. Patient lies on abdomen with two pillows
uder hips
e. NOTA
57. True about performing postural drainage on
the left lateral basal segments of the lower
lobe, except:
a. Foot of table/bed is elevated 20 inches
b. Patient is positioned in side-lying on the
left side, head down
c. Patient rotates turn upward with upper
leg flexed over pillow for support
d. Patient is positioned in sidelying on the
right side, head down
e. NOTA
58. True about the effects of betablockers,
except:
a. It lowers resting heart rate
b. It lowers blood pressure both at rest and
upon exertion.
c. It may prevent or delay myocardial
ischemia during exercise
d. Exercise capacity decreases in patients
with angina.
e. NOTA
59. Your
patient
is
undergoing
cardiac
rehabilitation and as his/her attending
therapist, you were informed that your
patient is taking thiazide. After you hear the
name of the drug you know that it provides
an effect on the following, except:
a. It may lower blood pressure both at rest
and exercise
b. It lowers resting heart
c. It has no effect on heart rate during
exercise
d. AOTA
e. NOTA
60. The following are effects of nicotine, except:
a. It increases blood pressure both at rest
and during exercise
b. It may not affect the heart rate both at
rest and exercise

c.

It
may
provoke
ischemia
and/or
arrhythmias during exercise and even at
rest
d. AOTA
e. NOTA
61. It refers to the patients with cardiac disease
resulting in marked limitation of physical
activity. They are comfortable at rest but less
than ordinary physical activity causes fatigue,
palpitation,
dyspnea
and
angina.
The
functional classification of the patient is:
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
62. The maximum activity should not exceed 6.5
METS:
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
63. Functional Class I of a patient with a heart
disease, except:
a. The maximum activity should not exceed
6.5 METS
b. The workload should just be between 3.04.0 calories per minute
c. The patients under this bracket has a
cardiac disease but without resulting
limitations of physical activity
d. Ordinary physical activity does not cause
undue fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea and
angina.
e. NOTA
64. The workload is between 2.0-3.0 calories per
minute:
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
65. It refers to the altered electrical conduction
which alters the mechanical activity of the
ventricles thereby exacerbating heart failure:
a. Coronary artery disease
b. Hypertension
c. Valve abnormalities
d. Cardiac dysrhythmias
e. NOTA
66. It refers to the acute injury to myocardial
tissue that damages ventricular contractility
causing systolic dysfunction:
a. Coronary artery disease
b. Hypertension
c. Valve abnormalities
d. Cardiac dysrhythmias
e. NOTA
67. It is associated with increased peripheral
arterial
pressure
that
contributes
to
increased
afterload
and
pathological
hypertrophy of the left ventricle.
a. Coronary artery disease
b. Hypertension
c. Valve abnormalities
d. Cardiac dysrhythmias
e. NOTA
68. A pulmonary artery pressure of 25 mmHg is
indicative of:
a. Right Ventricular Failure
b. Left Ventricular Failure
c. Biventricular Failure
d. Both ventricles are normal
69. A central venous pressure of 18 mmHg is
indicative of:
a. Right Ventricular Failure
b. Left Ventricular Failure
c. Biventricular Failure
d. Both ventricles are normal

2-3 days after August 7, 2016 PTRP/OTRP ka na oh! Kaya mo yan!

PTRPs & OTRPs by AUGUST 2016

70. Progressive hall ambulation for 8-10 minutes
as tolerated with maximum allowable METS of
3-4
a. Level 2
b. Level 3
c. Level 4
d. Level 5
e. Level 6
71. Stair climbing is allowed.
a. Level 2
b. Level 3
c. Level 4
d. Level 5
e. Level 6
72. Bathroom privileges.
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
e. Level 5
73. Commode privileges
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
e. Level 5
74. Patient education is focused on teaching the
patient about pulse taking and appropriate
parameters with activity. It is also the level
wherein you reinforce benefits of outpatient
cardiac rehabilitation.
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
e. Level 5
75. Patient education is focused on the impact of
exercise on reducing the patients risk
factors; It is also the level when you start to
teach your patient to use Borg RPE scale.
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
e. Level 5
76. The following statements belong to the
criteria
for
modification/termination
of
exercise in patients with heart failure,
except:
a. Respiratory rate is greater than 40 cpm
b. Decrease in central venous pressure by
10 mmHg
c. Diaphoresis
d. Marked dyspnea/fatigue
e. NOTA
77. Criteria for initiation of exercise, except:
a. Able to speak comfortable without signs
of dyspnea with RR of less than 30 cpm
b. (+) crackles in less than one half of the
lungs
c. RHR: <120 bpm
d. Uncompensated CHF
e. NOTA
78. Ankle-Brachial index of 1.0
a. Severe arterial disease
b. Moderate arterial disease
c. Mild arterial disease
d. Within normal limits
79. The patient has severe arterial disease, what
is the possible value upon obtaining the ABI?
a. 1.4
b. 1.2
c. 1.1
d. 0.7
e. 0.4
80. The following are true about Trendelenburg
test, except:

a. This test measures the time required to

refill the veins in the dorsum of the foot.
b. The lower extremity is in dependent
position to allow venous blood to empty.
c. A tourniquet on the thigh is applied to
prevent backflow and after 1 minute the
patient is asked to stand.
d. If veins fully distend within 5 seconds
before
the
tourniquet
is
released,
valvular incompetence in the deep veins
is suspected.
e. NOTA
81. This test is done with the lower extremity in
dependent position. The great saphenous vein
is palpated with one hand. The same vein is
tapped at least 6 inches proximal to the
patients knee using the other hand. A wave
of fluid detected under the distal palpation
site indicates possible valvular incompetency.
What is the name of the test?
a. Skin perfusion pressure measurement
b. Air plethysmography
c. Percussion test
d. Rubor of dependency
e. Venous filling time
82. It is a non-invasive test wherein changes in
lower extremity volume are measured using
a pressure cuff that quantifies volume
changes during rest, standing and light
walking:
a. Skin perfusion pressure measurement
b. Air plethysmography
c. Percussion test
d. Rubor of dependency
e. Venous filling time
83. The patient has active CHF that is controlled
with medications
a. Patient has no risk for cardiovascular
complications
b. Patient has low risk for cardiovascular
complications
c. Patient
has
moderate
risk
for
cardiovascular complications
d. Patient has high risk for cardiovascular
complications
84. The patient has nonsustained, rate-controlled
supraventricular
arrhythmias
with
no
hemodynamic compromise.
a. Patient has no risk for cardiovascular
complications
b. Patient has low risk for cardiovascular
complications
c. Patient
has
moderate
risk
for
cardiovascular complications
d. Patient has high risk for cardiovascular
complications
85. The patient complains of angina at low
intensity exercise levels (< 5METS) on
exercise
stress
test
despite
optimal
medications.
a. Patient has no risk for cardiovascular
complications
b. Patient has low risk for cardiovascular
complications
c. Patient
has
moderate
risk
for
cardiovascular complications
d. Patient has high risk for cardiovascular
complications
86. Gold standard imaging test for peripheral
arterial disease:
a. Magnetic resonance angiography
b. Multidetector
Computed
Tomography
Angiography
c. Intraarterial Contrast Angiography
d. Segmental Plethysmography
e. NOTA

2-3 days after August 7, 2016 PTRP/OTRP ka na oh! Kaya mo yan!

PTRPs & OTRPs by AUGUST 2016

87. This test is done if ankle-brachial index
screening in abnormal to localize vascular
lesion:
a. Transcutaneous
partial
pressure
of
oxygen
b. Doppler velocity waveform analysis
c. Segmental plethysmography
d. Toe pressures
e. Magnetic resonance angiography
88. This vascular testing is used to predict
wound healing and to select amputation
level:
a. Toe pressures
b. Ankle-brachial index
c. Doppler velocity waveform analysis
d. Transcutaneous
partial
pressure
of
oxygen
e. Segmental plethysmography
89. Major cause of morbidity and mortality
worldwide:
a. Chronic Venous insufficiency
b. Atherosclerotic peripheral arterial disease
c. Venous thromboembolism
d. Thromboangitis obliterans
e. Nonatherosclerotic
peripheral
arterial
disease
90. The following are endovascular type of
surgical intervention used for patients with
peripheral arterial disease, except:
a. Angioplasty
b. Thrombolysis
c. Thrombectomy
d. Open surgical bypass
e. Stenting
91. The
following
are
clinical
signs
and
symptoms
present
in
patients
with
atherosclerotic peripheral arterial disease,
except:
a. Limb pulselessness
b. Intermittent claudication
c. Limb ischemia
d. Skin temperature and color changes
e. NOTA
92. Manifestations seen in patients suffering
from acute limb ischemia, except:
a. Poikilothermia
b. Pallor
c. Paralysis
d. Ischemia for more than 2 weeks
e. Parethesia
93. A condition that is characterized by mottled
bluish reticular appearance with no distinct
border and is triggered by cold exposure.
a. Raynauds phenomenon
b. Thromboangitis obliterans
c. Acryocyanosis
d. Livedo reticularis
e. NOTA
94. Nonatherosclerotic
yet
inflammatory
peripheral arterial disease that affects small
and medium sized arteries of the upper and
lower extremities:
a. Raynauds phenomenon
b. Buergers disease
c. Acryocyanosis
d. Livedo Reticularis
e. NOTA
95. Exaggerated vasoconstriction:
a. Raynauds phenomenon
b. Thromboangitis obliterans
c. Acryocyanosis
d. Livedo reticularis
e. NOTA
96. Most common cause of secondary valvular
dysfunction:
a. Deep vein thrombosis
b. Superficial vein thrombosis

c. Lymphedema praecox
d. Livedo reticularis
e. Thromboangitis obliterans
97. Predisposing factors associated with chronic
venous insufficiency, except:
a. (+) heart failure
b. (+) obesity
c. (+) occupation that require prolonged
standing
d. (+) uniparity
e. NOTA
98. Disabling complication of chronic venous
insufficiency:
a. Paralysis
b. Stasis dermatitis
c. Deep vein thrombosis
d. Ulceration
e. NOTA
99. A diagnostic evaluation used to assess the
efficiency of obstruction in patients with
chronic venous insufficiency:
a. Segmental plethysmography
b. Duplex ultrasound
c. Impedance plethysmography
d. Venography
e. NOTA
100.
A diagnostic evaluation used for young
patients who present with chronic venous
insufficiency and acute new onset of stasis
dermatitis:
a. Segmental plethysmography
b. Duplex ultrasound
c. Impedance plethysmography
d. Venography
e. NOTA
101.
A diagnostic evaluation used to evaluate
venous anatomy before endovenous therapy
or deep vein reconstruction:
a. Segmental plethysmography
b. Duplex ultrasound
c. Impedance plethysmography
d. Venography
e. NOTA
102.Congenital lymphedema is the most common
type of lymphedema; it is usually bilateral in
affectation.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. Only the first statement is true
d. Only the second statement is true
103. Lymphedema praecox:
a. Primary lymphedema
b. Onset between ages 1-35 years old
c. Unilateral in affectation
d. AOTA
e. NOTA
104.Lymphedema that appears after 35 years
old:
a. Lymphedema praecox
b. Lymphedema tarda
c. Both A and B
d. NOTA
105.Most
common
cause
of
secondary
lymphedema:
a. Radical mastectomy
b. Filariasis
c. Cellulitis
d. NOTA

2-3 days after August 7, 2016 PTRP/OTRP ka na oh! Kaya mo yan!

PTRPs & OTRPs by AUGUST 2016

ANSWERS
1. D
2. D
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. D
7. D
8. A
9. D
10. C
11. D
12. B
13. E
14. D
15. E
16. D
17. A
18. D
19. D
20. B
21. D
22. D
23. D
24. B
25. A
26. B
27. B
28. D
29. E
30. C
31. B
32. A
33. A
34. D
35. B
36. D
37. C
38. D
39. C
40. D
41. E
42. B
43. C
44. B
45. A
46. D
47. C
48. B
49. B
50. A
51. D
52. B
53. B
54. E
55. B
56. C
57. B
58. D
59. B
60. E
61. C
62. A
63. B

2-3 days after August 7, 2016 PTRP/OTRP ka na oh! Kaya mo yan!

PTRPs & OTRPs by AUGUST 2016

64. C
65. D
66. A
67. B
68. B
69. A
70. D
71. E
72. C
73. B
74. D
75. C
76. B
77. D
78. D
79. E
80. B
81. C
82. B
83. C
84. B
85. D
86. C
87. B
88. D
89. B
90. D
91. E
92. D
93. D
94. B
95. A
96. A
97. D
98. D
99. C
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.

105.

B
D
D
D
B

2-3 days after August 7, 2016 PTRP/OTRP ka na oh! Kaya mo yan!