Chapter 19 The Evolution of Populations

true or falseThe lack of a precisely intermediate form in the fossil

record between two morphologically distinct taxa indicates that the
two taxa evolved through saltation

FALSE
true or false Disagreement among evolutionary biologists show that
Darwins theory of evolution is false

FALSE
true or false As a matter of fairness, evolution and creationism should
be taught with equal weight in science courses so that students can
make their own decision.

FALSE
true or false Conflict can exist between indv organisms and between
genes within indv organisms

TRUE
true or false Trans regulatory elements are genes that may modify or
regulate the expression of distant genes

TRUE
Which type of species interaction is most likely to result in coevolution
and cospeciation.

(Mutualism)
Two sympatric species of frogs belonging to the same genus rarely
mate sue to their distinct mating calls and the hybrid of the two
species fail to develop and hatch. Therefore the two species are
mainly isolated by

(sexual isolation and hybrid inviability)

Which of the following is NOT a cost of living in a group?

(probability of being singled out by a predator)

Which of the following statements argues against the idea that
changes in gene regulation are more likely to lead to phenotype trait
evolution than to change in amino acid sequence?

(Many proteins are modular, and indv domains can evolve to affect
only small subsets of function, thus avoiding pleiotropic effects.)
Which of the following statements is true about Hox genes
experiments?

All!

a. Homeobox regions of the Hox genes allow one species

transcription factor to fxn in the other sp

b. Hox genes control the identity of segments along the anterior-

posterior body axis of all metazoans

c. When the mouse Hox-2.2 gene which controls limb formation is

experimentally inserted into the fruit fly genome and expressed in the
head of developing fruit flies adults produce legs in place of antennae.

Which type of mutation is more likely to increase the size of a genome

significantly

(gene duplication)

Which of the following statements about speciation is correct?

(speciation is a basis for understanding macroevolution)

What functions do homeotic genes in plants and animals have in
common?
(they encode transcriptional factors that regulate other genes.)
\Which of the following types of genes would be most likely to
accumulate changes to its sequence?

(A gene that has recently been duplicated in the genome)

Transposable elements

(sometimes encode proteins essential for their own replication and

transposition)
in comparing the genomes of mammals to the relatively small
genome of the puffer fish (about 1/10 the size of a mammalian
genome) what tends to be missing in puffer fish?

(Repetative DNA in noncoding sequences)

Comparing genome sequences of different species:

all

a. Demonstrates that humans share a large number of genes with

other mammalian organisms

b. Provides a powerful way to identify genes and their regulatory

sequences

c. Traces the travel of genes as they evolve within species and move
between species
d. Reveals the importance role of RNA editing in determining protein
structure and function

Which of the following Is more likely to result in sympatric speciation

in a relatively short period of time?

(Autopolyploidy)

20. Speciation usually

(begins with the geographic islation between 2 pops of the same species)
21. What factors associated with the evolutionary biology of bacteria facilitate the
evolution of resistance to antibiotics
(all facilitate the evolution of resistance)

a. High mutation rates in bacteria

b. Horizontal gene transter among bacteria
c. Sublethal doses of antibiotics
22. some populations of garter snakes have gradually evolved higher resistance to
tetrodotoxin by preying on rough skinned newt, which secrete the toxin with stronger
deleterious effects
(evolutionary Arms Race)
23. altruistic behavior is more likely to be performed when its fitness benefits are high to
the recipient when the fitness cost to the altruist are relatively low, and when the altruist
and the recipient are close relatives.
(Hamiltons Rule)
24. because most species are collections of genetically variable pops distributed among
environments and bc those environments often differ in abiotic factors and/or
community composition, the pattern and strength of natural selection imposed by
species on each others traits are also expected to be highly variable among those
environments.
(geographic Mosaic theory of coevolution)
25. a phenotype such that is almost all indv in a pop have that phenotype no alternative
phenotype can invade the pop or replace it.
(evolutionary stable strategy)
26. A generalized pattern that complex characters, once lost in evolution, are unlikely to
reappear and thus the loss of complex characters is virtually always irreversible.
(Dollows Law)
27. Explain how species interactions and coevolution may affect the latitudinal gradient
or biodiversity.
Species interaction play a relatively important role in the tropics, species interactions
provides moving targets for adaptation and therefore more potential niches are available
in the tropics. More niches allows more species to be maintained in the tropics.
28. Define Coevolution:
2 or more than 2 species show reciprocal evolution change due to species interaction
29. Compare the differences between specific coevolution and diffusion coevolution.
a. Specific: 1sp vs 1sp coevolve together
b. Diffusion: 1 lineage vs 1 lineage co evolve together
c. Coevolution on 1 depends on evolution in other sp
30. Provide 2 explanations of why speciation is the mysteries list 2 difficulties in
speciation research
a. A phylogenetic tree is required before
b. Need to collect data from multiple isolating barriers
c. Need to collect data from multiple pops
d. Ancestral distribution of the species current distribution of the species
e. Time from divergent is uncertain
31. Three major hypothesis have been proposed to account for stasis within species
lineages. Name one.
Species stay the same and don't evolve over time due to the fact that their environment
hasn't changed so that don't need to either.
32. Compare the differences and similarities of micro and macro evolution
a. Sim: same mechanism
b. Diff:
i. Macro:on a sp level short term
ii. Micro: above a sp level on kingdom/phylum and long term
33. Name 2 different sp concepts.
a. Biological sp: sp are groups of actually or potentially interbreeding natural pops that
are reproductively isolated from other such groups
i. Applicaple condition: sexual reproductive organisms
ii. Limitations: asexual reproductive organisms
b. Evolutionary sp: sp is a single lineage (an ancestor-descendant sequence) of pops or
organisms that maintains an identity separate from other such lineage and which has its
own evolutionary tendacies and historical fate.
i. Applicable condition: organisms with full history
ii. Limitations: horizontal gene transfer, lack of fossil
c. Phylogenetic : an irreducible cluster of organism that is diagnosably distinct from
other such clusters, and within which there is a parental pattern of ancestry and
descent. A sp is the smallest monophyletic group of common ancestry
i. Applicable condition: organism with full phylogeny
ii. Limitations: monophyletic group can include multiple species
34. Dolph schluters article:
Describes species from 2 different niche and how they evolve among the two.
Ecological speciation has to do with their location and niche. Mutation order speciation
has to do with the mutation happening within the niche and the evolution within.
true or false. The phenotype of an indv cannot always be determined the indvs
genotype
(true)
true or false. Genetic drift tends to have a greater influence on smaller pops than on
larger pops
(true)
true or false. The number of sexes in all sexual reproducing organisms is a fixed
character: 2, 1 male and 1 female
(false)
true or false. Natural selection acts on indv so that indv can adapt to their local
environments
(false)
true or false. The ultimate goal of adaptation for each sp is to become perfectly fit in its
environment
(false)
40. What is not an evolutionary mechanism?
(non random mating)
41. What can counteract natural selection with heterozygote advantage in an isolated
pop
(genetic drift)
42. the horn length of a male ceratopsid dinosaur was a heritable trait selected by
female choice. Which pop contains males that increase their horm length more thru
generations.
Pop B with a high heritability (b2=0.5) and a high selective differential (S= 0.6)
43. In a pop of drosophila melanogaster "+" denotes the wild-type, which is incompletely
dominant to the curly wing mutant "Cy" the trait is highly heritable use for 43-46
43-46
On average each ++ indv produces 10 offspring, each +Cy indv produces 8 offspring
and each CyCy indv produces 2 offspring. Using ++ as the reference genotype the
relative fitness of each genotype is
( w++ = 1)
44. based on the differences in their relative fitness, selective coeffecients of the three
genotypes are
(s++=0)
45. in the parential generation the frequencies of the genotype are ++: +Cy: CyCy=
0.16: 0.48: 0.36. given the relative fitness and the selective coefficient calculated above
one can predict that:
++ will become more prevelant in future generations
46. which allele is favored in this pop?
+
47. one pop of Anolis lizard is locally adapted to its habitat among lower tree trunks and
another pop of Anolis lizard is locally adapted to its habitat on the ground
(reciprocal transplant experiment)
48. the color of a male Anolis lizards dewlap is determined by several genes on different
chromosomes
(QTL quantitative trait loci mapping)
49. the color of a male Anolis lizards dewlap is an inherited characteristic
(correlated of phenotypic values between mid-parent and offspring)
50. female Anolis lizards prefer males with bright colored dewlaps
(experimental manipulation)
51. populations that are caught on suboptimal peaks in adaptive landscape can moce
across adaptive valleys by genetic drift, move up to higher fitness by selection, and
pass the gene to other pops thru gene flow.
((shifting balance theory)
52. most mutations that become fixed do not significantly alter fitness and have become
fixed by genetic dirft
( Neutral theory of moleculer evolution)
53. garter snakes with stripped patterns tend to flee in a straight line, while those with
spotted pattern repeatedly reverse their course
( correlated selection)
54. diabetes, characterized by abnormally high glucose level in the blodd, is an inherited
disease controlled by several genes at once
(polygenic)
55. a mode of selection in ehivh the fitness of each genotype varies as a fxn of its
frequency in the pop
(freq dependent selection)
56. sickle cell anemia affects red blood cell shape, exygen carrying capacity, and
susceptibility to malaria
(plieotropy)
57. reduction of DNA sequence variation in the vicinity of a mutation that has been fixed
by natural selection relatively recent
(selective Sweep)
58. which pair of genetic markers has the highest recombination rate
the ones on the gene that are farthest apart
59. which pair of genetic markers has the highest likage disequilibrium
the ones that are closest together on the gene
Assuming that a pop is isolated from other pops of the same sp, list 2 potential
mechanisms that can cause the deviation of LDH from HWE in this pop?
a. Because the pop is isolated= no gene flow
b. The pop is large= weak genetic drift or mutation
c. Natural selection (disruptive) or inbreeding (non-random mating)
63. The LDH allele freq were also measured in 3 pops in Penn. The freq for a in these
pops were 0.5, 0.6, 0.7. calculate the Fst among them.
a. Hint the mean of them is 0.6 the variance is 0.01
b. Fst = 0.01/ [0.06(1-0.6)]==== variance/ [mean(1-mean)] =0.042
64. Pop of the same species were samples in California, Oregon and Washington and
their Fst value were 0.05, 0.12 and 0.08 respectively. Which of these three states has
the higher pop diversity.
a. OREGON!!! 0.12
65. For the pop in California (Fst=0.05) which is the estimated number of immigrants per
generation.
a. Nm= [(1/0.05)-1]/4 =4.75 = about 5
66. Explain why it is hard to completely remove a deleterious recessive allele from a
pop by natural selection along. In addition, list evolutionary mechanism that may
facilitate this process and cause the loss of the deleterious recessive allele.

(HW graph)
a. It is hard to completely remove a deleterious recessive allele from a pop bc it still will
hide in the heterozygotes A1A2 even if it has no effect.(genetic drift)
67. Use complete sentences to describe an example of adaptation other than Darwins
finches on Galapagos islands. Make sure that you underline the specific organism, the
selective agent and target.
a
. An example of adaptation would be butterflies we talked about. On certain trees their
pattern of spotted black and white they blend in. elsewhere they stick out and are
selected against by predators.
68. Provide one advantage and disadvantage of sexual reproduction.
1 disadvantage is that you are creating males and females each time vs asexual where
you can just create females and spead your genes faster. One advantage is genetic
variation can occur.
69. Mark Raushers article:
a. Reduced sexual reproduction was associated with selective agents vs generalized
agents.
true or false Fossil record found in sedimentary rocks can be dated with unstable
isotopes in the nearby igneous rock,
(true)
true or false A positive correlation between the age (x-axis) of a given clade and the
number of species (y-axis) found in this clade directly indicates that the number of
species in a clade is determined by the age of the clade
(false)
true or false Darwin and Wallace proposed natural selection as a process to explain the
pattern of evolution. This is the first truly coherent theory of evolution in the history
(false)
true or false Lamarckism is wrong because acquired characteristics cannot be inherited
(True)
74. A rapidly evolving gene has limiting utility in dating divergence that occurred a long
tima ago bc such gene:
a. Would accumulate multiple substitutions at isenticle nucleotides and would not reflect
the true divergence.
75. if life originated on earth in the distant past and then evolved we should see that
a. the first detectable traces of life on earth would be simple forms and only later would
more complex and more "modern" forms appear
76. Raabava reported that the leaf length of haxaploid (6n) aster amellus was 62.79+-
26.91 mm (mean +- 1SD) when the plants were grown in their natural habitats. What
can we infer from this specific result
a. Approc 95% of these hexaploid plants produce leaves between 8.97mm and
116.61mm.
77. Phylogeny reconstruction usually involves using statistical analysis such as;
a. Maximum likelihood, Bayesian method and or bootstrapping
78. A new sp of spider has been recently found in Sri Lanka by Nanayakkara, the spider
belongs to the genus Poecilotheria in the family Theraphosidae. The sp was named for
Michael Pajakumar Purajah, the local police inspector who guided the research team
while they searched. The research team used rajaei the latinized work of his name as
the specific epithet of the species. What should it be written as
(A)
a. Poecilotheria rajaei
b. Poecilotheria rajaei Theraphosidae
c. Nanayakkara's Poecilotheria rajaei
d. Rajaei peocilotheria
79. The actual environment conditions that an organism inhabits and the resources It
can access as a result of competition with other sp it the ___________ of the organism
a. Realized niche space
80. Saxifrage cerma is a plant commonly found in the high arctic. The sp also stretches
further south in mountain areas of Alps, the rockies and Himalayas. This disjunction is
more likely to be the result of:
a. Dispersal of the pop that inhabited areas between the high arctic and the southern
mountains
81. Transposable elements:
a. Can alter function of a protein and alter gene expression
82. Anuploids are usually produced
a. Through nondisjunction in meiosis
83. Arrange the following in order (early to late)
(b,c,a,d)
a. The split of Gondwanaland
b. The origin of most modern animal phyla
c. The origin of seed plants
d. The origin or primate groups
84. Which base pair substitution is more commonly found than others
a. AG
85. Biodiversity is higher in the tropics than in the temperate areas. This pattern may
result from the trend that
(A,B,C)
a. Species carrying capacity is higher in the tropical area than in the temperate area
b. Sp diversification rate is higher in the tropical area than the temperate
c. Time for species diversification is longer in the tropical area than the temperate
86. Carrascal used T-tests to compare morphological differences in Blue tits (birds) from
Canary islands and Iberian Peninsula. They reported that the mean tibia length was
24.0 mm for birds from the island (n=6) and 23.4mm for birds on the peninsula (n=13
p=0.178) what can we conclude from this statistical test?
a. Blue tits from canary island and those from the peninsula are similar in their tibia
length
87. The different genotypes of the Mc1r gene that controls hair color in beach mice
(Categorical Variables)
1. Wind direction (in degrees) in Adirondack Mountains
(circular variables)
89. Flying distance (in Km) of a migratory butterfly sp
(continuous variables)
90. One of the alternative forms of a gene
(Allele)
91. The location in the DNA occupied by a particular gene
(locus)
92. The full set of DNA in a cell or organism
(genome)
93. Wings of both birds and bats are derived from the forelimbs of their common
ancestor (
homology)
94. The independent evolution of wings in birds and bats enable these animals to fly in
the air
(convergent evolution)
95. Winged insects evolved from wingless ancestors but many lineages of insects have
lost their wings in the course of subsequent evolution
(Evolutionary reversal
96. Evolution of different characters at different rates within lineages
(mosaic evolution)
97. Alternating periods of slow and more rapid gradual change in a single lineage
(Punctuated gradualism)
98. the lack of correlation between the genome size and complexity of organisms
(c-value paradox)
99. Adaptive Radiation:
the diversification of a group of organisms into forms filling different ecological niches.
a. What are two major factors that enable an adaptive radiation?
i. Innovation
ii. Opportunity
102. If the proportion of base pairs that differ between Pyrocoelia rufa and Pyricoelia
miyako (D) is 0.01 and the rate of divergence (r) per base pair per MY in lampyrinae is
0.002. what would be the estimated divergent time (t) between Pyrocoelia rufa and
Pyrocoelia miyako.
a. T=D/2r
103. Monophyletic group=
group is a taxon (group of organisms) which forms a clade
104. Paraphyletic group:
group is said to be paraphyletic if it consists of all the descendants of the last common
ancestor of the group's members minus a small number of monophyletic groups of
descendants, typically just one or two such groups
105. Describe Richard lenskis report:
a. He used a computer system called AVITA and in lab processes with E.coli to learn
about experimental evolution. with the E.coli lab testing it came down to mutations that
happened >30,000 generations after the start of the experiment and they were unsure if
the evolution of a citrate using variant was from a completely random mutation or a non-
random mutation.
106. In the 1930s and 1940s the modern evolutionary synthesis occurred. This
synthesis involved
a. the integration of genetics, systematics, and paleontology (connecting microevolution
with macroevolution).
1. Which of the following statements is true?
(B)
a. Natural selection acts on populations, not on individuals.
b. Evolutionary change occurs at the level of the population.
c. Evolutionary change occurs at the level of the individual.
d. Developmental change is a population-level process.
e. Species are simply those organisms that share similar phenotypes
108. Which of the following is one of the principles of evolution?
Acquired characteristics are inherited.
109. Uniformitarianism allows evolutionary biology to be an experimental science.
Which of the following is a definition of uniformitarianism?
- The same processes that we observe operating in the present also operated in the
past.
110. What is meant by "the theory of evolution"?
- Evolution is well-supported by evidence and has survived repeated testing.
111. n atural selection is only one of several possible mechanisms of evolution. Which of
the following is another mechanism?
- Genetic drift
112. In the early twentieth century, many geneticists were at odds with evolutionary
biologists. Why?
- Geneticists observed discrete effects of mutations, while Darwin suggested that
evolution occurs via gradual changes.
113. Since the development of the so-called evolutionary synthesis,
.
- advances in molecular evolution and developmental biology have increased our
understanding of evolution
114. The "naturalistic fallacy" refers to the incorrect proposition that
- science describes not only how the world is, but also how it should be.
115. Darwin's biological views were influenced by
.
- his work as a naturalist aboard the H.M.S. Beagle
116. Which of the following is not one of Darwin's theories?
- Change via saltations (extreme, sudden changes in an organism's traits)
117. Many types of antibiotics that were highly effective a few decades ago are not
nearly as effective in the present. Why might this be the case?
- Bacteria have evolved resistance to antibiotics
118. Biological evolution is defined as
- change in the properties of groups of organisms over the course of generations.
119. What is wrong with the following claim? "Lichens involve a symbiotic association
between a fungus and alga. The purpose of algae is to provide nutrients to fungi."
- The explanation is purpose-driven, as opposed to functional.
120. Which of the following are the two major themes of The Origin of Species?
- Descent with modification and a variational theory of change
121. Which of the following is a modern phylogenetic method that maximizes the
probability of observing a particular tree, given a model and the data.
- Bayesian methods
122. A monophyletic group (also called a clade) is defined as
- the set of species derived from one common ancestor
123. Which of the following is most likely the result of horizontal gene transfer?
- The sharing of antibiotic resistance among multiple bacteria species
124. Which of the following is an important assumption when estimating the time of
divergence between two lineages using a molecular clock?
-
. The number of nucleotide substitutions observed is actually the number that has
occurred.
125. Which of the following does not cause complications in inferring a phylogeny?
-
The presence of synapomorphies (shared derived characteristics)
126. Which of the following is an accepted rule of species nomenclature?
-
No two species of animals or plants can bear the same name
127. Gene genealogies can vary for different loci. What does this imply for species
trees?
- s pecies trees should be constructed using multiple loci (both nuclear and mtDNA).
128. Once the historical relationships among different variant DNA sequences are
inferred, it is possible to
-
construct gene trees (gene genealogies).
129. Which of the following is not a benefit of Linnaeus's classification system?
- It makes use of colloquial (common) species names.
130. A situation in which lineages diverge too rapidly for a phylogeny to be constructed
is called
-
evolutionary radiation
131. An important principle in evolution states that a species does not evolve as a
whole, but that many of its features evolve quasi-independently. This principle is best
supported by the observation of
-
mosaic evolution.
132. Which of the following observations (evidence) casts doubt on the validity of Dollo's
law?
-
Tooth primordia develop in chicken embryos with certain genetic mutations.
133. Which of the following characters represents homoplasy?
-
The eyes of cephalopods and vertebrates
134. Convergent evolution is a form of
-
homoplasy.
135. Comparative studies are beginning to shed some light on the evolution of genome
size. Which of the following patterns has not been documented?
-
Behaviorally complex organisms have larger genomes than simpler organisms.
136. The two major branches of mammalsthe placentals and the marsupials
followed independent evolutionary pathways after the breakup of the land mass
Gondwanaland 100 million years ago. While some forms of each group are unique to
each environment, surprisingly similar forms in each of the groups have often emerged
in two or three of the separated continents. This is an example of
-
parallel evolution
137. The human coccyx (tail bone) served a function in our ancestors but is no longer
useful. This is an example of a(n)
-
vestigial character.
138. Which of the following is an example of homologous characters?
-
Crocodiles and humans both have forelimbs with five digits.
139. Observation of which of the following provides support for gradualism rather than
saltation?
-
Gradations among living species
140. A famous example of allometry, the antlers of the extinct Irish elk
(Megacerosgiganteus)
If two species inherit a duplicated pair of genes from their common ancestor, genes that
_______ represent paralogy.
were larger, relative to body mass, than those of any other deer.
141. Some salamander species retain gills and other larval characteristics throughout
adult life. This is an example of
- neoteny.
142. Which of the following statements about an evolutionary radiation is false?
(B)
a. Species arise in a relatively short time.
b. Evolution shows a directional trend.
c. It is the most common pattern of long-term evolution.
d. It encompasses divergent evolution of numerous related lineages.
e. It is often thought to be adaptive.
143. Which of the following is not consistent with Darwin's hypothesis that living
organisms have descended from common ancestors?
- Optimal design
144. Which of the following observations is inconsistent with Haeckel's idea that
"ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny"?
-
The pharyngeal clefts and branchial arches of embryonic mammals and reptiles never
acquire the form seen in adult fish.
145. If two species inherit a duplicated pair of genes from their common ancestor, genes
that _______ represent paralogy.
-
originated from a common ancestral gene duplication
146. Paleontologists have observed that often the phenotype of a lineage is almost
constant for several million years, a phenomenon called
- stasis.
147. Phyletic gradualism refers to which of the following patterns?
- Evolutionary change that is gradual and not necessarily associated with speciation
148. Evidence of evolutionary trends is common in the fossil record. For example,
among members of the horse family (Equidae), the 50-million-year trend was toward
- increased body size. And increased tooth height
149. In general, rates of evolution appear
to be lower when measured over very long time intervals.
150. In the fossil record, most of the extant animal phyla first appear in the _______
period.
Cambrian
151. Which of the following was the most recent event?
The origin of hominid primates
152. Change in a characteristic within a single unbranching lineage is called
- anagenesis
153. Which of the following series of geological intervals is in the correct order, from
earliest to latest?
-
Carboniferous; Cretaceous; Tertiary

The process of turning on a gene to Gene expression

produce RNA and protein.

What is the primary method to The regulation of DNA transcription

control what type and how much of
each protein is expressed in a
prokaryotic cell?

When RNA is synthensized in The cytoplasm

eukaryotic cells, it is transported out
of the nucleus to where?

When does regulation of gene At all stages of the process (epigenetic,

expression occur in eukaryotes? post-transcriptional, translational, and
post-translational)

Occurs when DNA is uncoiled and Epigenetic level

loosened from nucleosomes to bind
transcription factors.

Occurs when RNA is processed and Post-transcriptional level

exported to the cytoplasm after it is
transcribed.
Stage that occurs after protein has Post translational level
been made.

Post-translational control refers to... Regulation of gene expression after

translation

In a prokaryotic cell, regulation of Transcriptional

gene expression begins at what
level?

A collection of genes involved in a Operons

pathway that are transcribed together
as a single mRNA in prokaryotic
cells.

What are the three types of Repressors, activators, and inducers

regulatory molecules that can affect
the expression of operons?

Proteins that suppress transcription Repressors

of a gene in response to an external
stimulus.

Proteins that increase the Activators

transcription of a gene in response to
an external stimulus.

Small molecules that either activate Inducers

or repress transcription depending
on the needs of the cell and the
avaliability of substrate.

A series of genes necessary to Trp operon

synthensize tryptophan in
prokaryotic cells.

What occurs when tryptophan is Two tryptophan molecules bind the

plentiful? repressor protein at the operator
sequence, which blocks the RNA
 polymerase from transcribing the
tryptophan genes.

What occurs when tryptophan The switch controlling the operon is

avaliability is low? turned on, transcription is initiated, the
genes are expressed, and tryptophan
is synthensized.

A DNA sequence that codes for Coding region

proteins.

The region of DNA to which RNA Transcriptional start site

polymerase binds to initiate
transcription.

Where is the promoter sequence Upstream of the transcriptional start

located? site

A region of DNA outside the Operator

promoter region that binds activators
or repressors that control gene
expression in prokaryotic cells.

What type of regulators are the trp Negative regulators

operon and the proteins that bind to
the operator to silence trp
expression?

A protein that prevents transcription. Negative regulators

A protein that increases transcription. Positive regulator

A protein that binds to the promoters Catabolite activator protein (CAP)

of operons that control the
processing of alternative sugars.

What increases the binding ability of A CAP binding site being located
RNA polymerase to the promoter upstream of the RNA polymerase
region? binding site in the promoter
An operon that can be activated and Inducible operons
repressed depending on cellular
needs and the surrounding
environment.

An operon in prokaryotic cells that Lac operon

encodes the genes required for
processing and intake of lactose.

What conditions must be met for the The level of glucose must be very low
lac operon to be activated? or nonexistent, and lactose must be
present.

If glucose is absent, but so is Repressed

lactose, the lac operon will be...

Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus. Transcribed and translated almost

Therefore, the genes in prokaryotic simultaneously; and transcriptionally
cells are... controlled because translation begins
before transcription ends

Which of the following binds to and Inducer

causes an allosteric change in the
repressor?

A form of regulation in eukaryotes Epigenetic regulation

that begins with control of access to
the DNA.

Histones package and order DNA Nucleosome complexes

into structural units called...

What occurs when nucleosomes are Transcription factors cannot bind and
spaced closely together? gene expression is turned off

What occurs when nucleosomes are DNA is exposed and transcription

spaced far apart? factors can bind, allowing for gene
expression to occur
What does methylation of DNA and Pack tightly together
histones cause nucleosomes to do?

What does histone acetylation result Loose packing of nucleosomes

in?

In what region of the DNA molecule CpG islands

can it be modified?

A protein that binds to the DNA at the Transcription factors

promoter or enhancer region and
that influences transcription of a
gene.

What are epigenetic modifications? The addition of reversible changes to

histone proteins and DNA.

Which of the following are true of All the above

epigenetic changes?I. allow DNA to
be transcribedII. move histones to
open or close a chromosomal
regionIII. are temporaryIV. all the
above

Which method is used by eukaryotes All the above

to control gene expression but is not
used by prokaryotes?I. Control of
chromatin remodelingII. Control of
RNA splicingIII. Nuclear shuttlingIV.
All the above

Where does RNA polymerase bind to Upstream

a sequence to initiate transcription?

What does eukaryotic RNA Transcription factors

polymerase require to facilitate
transcription initiation?

Proteins that bind to the promoter Transcription factors

sequence and other regulatory
sequences to control the
transcription of a target gene.

A DNA sequence that promotes Enhancer

transcription.

This element is present when Cis-acting element

transcription factors bind to the
promoter just upstream of the
encoded gene.

The binding of ______ is required for RNA polymerase

transcription to start.

What will result from the binding of a Increased transcription of a distant

transcription factor to an enhancer gene
region?

Where do transcription factors bind Promoter

in eukaryotic cells?

The processing after an RNA Post-transcriptional modification

molecule has been transcribed, but
before it is translated as a protein.

The regions of RNA that code for Exons

protein.

How are introns removed? Splicing

What do the two protective caps that Prevent the strand from degrading
are given to mRNA do? during its journey

What is the 5' cap composed of? A methylated guanosine triphosphate

molecule

Where is the poly-A tail attached? The 3' end, usually composed of a
What is it composed of? series of adenine nucleotides
The rate of decay of a protein is RNA stability
referred to as...

A protein that binds to the 3' or 5' RNA binding proteins

untranslated region to increase or
decrease the RNA stability.

A segment of the RNA molecule that Untranslated regions (UTRs)

are not translated into proteins.

The region just before the protein 5' UTR

coding region.

The region after the protein coding 3' UTR

region.

Small RNA molecules that bind to microRNAs

RNA molecules and degrade them.

An enzyme that chops the pre- Dicer

miRNA into the mature form of the
miRNA.

A protein complex that binds along RNA induced silencing complex (RiSC)
with the miRNA to the RNA to
degrade it.

Introns are... Noncoding DNA sequences

Binding of an RNA protein will Either increase or decrease

______ the stability of the RNA
molecule.

Which of the following are involved in IV. All the above

post-transcriptional control?I. control
of RNA splicingII. control of RNA
shuttlingIII. control of RNA stabilityIV.
I, II, and III
The protein complex containing eIF-2 Initiation complex
that starts translation.

The protein that binds first to an Eukaryotic initiation factor-2 (eIF-2)

mRNA to initiate translation

The addition of this group marks a Ubiquitin

protein for degradation

Proteins with ubiquitin tags are Proteasome

marked for degradation within the
_________.

Post translational modifications of Protein function

proteins can affect what?

What is the function of GTP in It energizes the formation of the

translation? initiation complex

Post-translational modifications of Protein function

proteins can affect what?

Cancer causing genes are called.. Oncogenes

Targeted therapies are used in patients with lots of the estrogen

patients with a set gene expression receptor expressed in their tumor
pattern. A targeted therapy that
prevents the activation of the
estrogen receptor in breast cancer
would be beneficial to which type of
patient?

Which of the following best describes They code for proteins that regulate the
proto-oncogenes? cell cycle.

Proposed that geological change James Hutton

occurred gradually by the
accumulation of small changes from
processes operating like they are
today over long periods of time.

Proposed that the greater age of the Charles Lyell

Earth gave more time for gradual
change in species, and the process
of change provided an analogy for
gradual change in species.

States that modifications in an Inheritance of acquired characteristics

individual are caused by its
environment or the use/disuse of a
structure over its lifetime, can be
inherited by its offspring and bring
about change in a species.

The reproduction of individuals with Natural selection

favorable genetic traits which leads
to an increased survivial, which
leads to evolutionary change.

Natural selection is an outcome of Most characteristics of organisms are

what three principles that operate in
nature?
inherited, or passed from parent to
offspring.More offspring are produced
than are avaliable to survive, resources
for survival and reproduction are
limited.Offspring vary among each
other in regard to their characteristics
and those variations are inherited.

What is descent with modification? Change in populations over

generations

What is the only mechanism known Natural selection

for adaptive evolution?

Genetic differences among Variation

individuals in a population.

Genetic diversity in a population Mutation and sexual reproduction

comes from what two main
mechanisms?

The ultimate source of new alleles or Mutations

genetic variation in any population.

What are the genetic changes that Reduces an organisms fitness, have a
are caused by mutations? beneficial effect on fitness, or have no
effect on the fitness of the phenotype
(neutral mutations)

A heritable trait or behavior in an Adaptation

organism that aids in its survival and
reproduction in its present
environment.

A process in which groups of Divergent evolution

organisms evolve in diverse
directions from a common point.

A process in which groups of Convergent evolution

organisms independently involve into
similar forms.

What provides evidence of Fossils (show a progression of

evolution? evolution), anatomy/embryology
(presence of structures in organisms
that share the same basic form),
biogeography (distribution of
organisms on the planet are best
explained by evolution), and molecular
biology (DNA sequences)

Parallel structures in diverse Homologous structures

organisms that have a common
ancestor.

A physical structure present in an Vestigal structures

organism that has no apparent
function and appears to be a
functional structure in a distant
ancestor.

What are the misconceptions of Evolution is just a theory, individuals

evolution? evolve, evolution explains the origin of
life, and organisms evolve on purpose

What scientific concept did Charles Natural selection

Darwin and Alfred Wallace
independently discover?

Which of the following situations will All the above

lead to natural selection?I. The
seeds of two plants land near each
other and one grows larger than the
other. II. Two types of fish eat the
same kind of food, and one is better
able to gather food than the other. III.
Male lions compete for the right to
mate with females, with only one
possible winner. IV. All the above

Which description(s) are/ is an A certain duck has a blue beak, most

example of a phenotype?I. A certain cheetahs live solitary lives
duck has a blue beakII. A mutation
occured to a flowerIII. Most cheetahs
live solitary lives.

A group of populations that Species

interbreed and produce fertile
offspring.

An offspring of two closely related Hybrid

individuals, not of the same species.

A collection of all of the variants of Gene pool

genes in a species.
When variations occur within a Asexual reproduction or sexual
species, they can be passed to the reproduction
next generation along what two main
pathways?

The formation of a new species from Speciation

one original species.

Speciation that occurs through Allopatric speciation

geographic seperation.

Speciation that occurs in the same Sympatric speciation

geographic space.

Isolation of populations leading to A river forming a new branch, erosion

allopatric speciation can occur forming a new valley, a group of
through what ways? organisms traveling to a new location
and not able to return, seeds floating
from an ocean to an island

What are the two categories of Disperal and vicariance

allopatric processes?

Occurs when a few members of a Dispersal

species move to a new geographical
area.

Occurs when a natural selection Vicariance

arises to physically divide organisms.

A speciation that occurs when one Adaptive radiation

species radiates out to form other
species.

The process of speciation within the Sympatric speciation

same space.

A condition of a cell having an extra Aneuploidy

chromosome or missing a
chromosome for its species.

A condition in which a cell or Polyploidy

organism has an extra set or sets of
chromosomes.

The inability to interbreed. Reproductive isolation

Polyploidy formed between two Allopolyploidy

related but seperate species.

A situation that occurs when a Reproductive isolation

species is reproductively
independent from other species
which may be brought about by
behavior, location, or reproductive
barriers.

A reproductive isolation mechanism Prezygotic barrier

that occurs before zygote formation.

A reproductive isolation mechanism Postzygotic barrier

that occurs after zygote formation.

Differences in breeding schedules Temporal isolation

that can act as a form of prezygotic
barrier leading to reproductive
isolation.

Reproductive isolation that results Habitat isolation

when populations of a species move
or are moved to a new habitat and
take up residence in a place that no
longer overlaps with the other
population of the same species.

A type of reproductive isolation that Behavioral isolation

occurs when a specific behavior or
lack of one prevents reproduction
from taking place.

A prezygotic barrier that occurs when Gametic barrier

closely related individuals of different
species mate but differences in their
gamete cells prevent fertilization from
taking place.

Offspring of two closely related Hybrid inviability

individuals that are not of the same
species.

What situation would most likely lead A flood causes the formation of a new
to allopatric speciation?I. A flood lake
causes the formation of a new lakeII.
A storm causes several large trees to
fall down.III. An injury causes an
organism to seek out a new food
source.

What is the main difference between One involves the movement of the
dispersal and vicariance? organism, and the other involves a
change in the environment

What variable increases the Longer distance between divided

likelihood of allopatric speciation groups
taking place more quickly?

An area where two closely related Hybrid zone

species continue to interact and
reproduce, forming hybrids.

What occurs if hybrids are less fit Reinforcement of speciation occurs,

than the parents? the species continue to diverge until
they can no longer mate and produce
viable offspring

What occurs when reproductive Fusion

barriers weaken until the two species
become one?

What is the term that describes when Stability

fit hybrids continue to be produced?

In this model, species diverge Gradual speciation model

gradually over time in small steps.

In this model, a new species Punctuated equilibrium model

undergoes changes quickly from the
parent species, then remains
unchanged for large periods of time.

What is the primary influencing factor Environmental conditions

on changes in speciation rate?

Which term is used to describe the Reinforcement

continued divergence of species
based on the low fitness of hybrid
offspring?

What is the convergence of two Fusion

closely related species over time?

Change in a population over time Microevolution

Broader scale evolutionary changes Macroevolution

seen over palenotological time.

The study of how selective forces Population genetics

change the allele frequencies in a
population over time.

The rate at which a specific allele Allele frequency

appears within a population.

The sum of all alleles in a population. Gene pool

An event that initiates an allele Founder effect

frequency change in part of the
population, which is not typical of the
original population.

What is the difference between mico- Microevolution describes the evolution

and macroevolution? of organisms in populations, while
macroevolution describes the evolution
of species over long periods of time.

Population genetics is the study of: how selective forces change the allele
frequencies in a population over time.

Which of the following populations is a population undergoing natural

not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?I. selection
a population with 12 homozygous
recessive individuals (yy), 8
homozygous dominant individuals
(YY), and 4 heterozygous individuals
(Yy) II.a population in which the
allele frequencies do not change
over time III. a population
undergoing natural selection

Populations with two or more Polymorphic

variations of particular
characteristics.

The distribution of phenotypes Population variation

among individuals.

The fraction of population variation Heritability

that can be attributed to genetic
variance/genetic differences.

The diversity of alleles and Genetic variance

genotypes within a population.

What evolutionary forces come into Natural selection, genetic drift, gene
play regarding changes in allele flow, mutation, non random mating,
frequencies? and environmental variances
An environmental factor that causes Selection pressure
one phenotype to be better than
another.

An effect of chance on a population's Genetic drift

gene pool.

The magnification of genetic drift as Bottleneck effect

a result of natural events or
catatrophes

The flow of alleles in and out of a Gene flow

population due to the migration of
individuals or gametes.

Changes in a populations gene pool Nonrandom mating

due to mate choice or other forces
that cause individuals to mate with
certain phenotypes more than others

When individuals tend to mate with Assortive mating

those who are phenotypically similar
to themselves.

Differences in the phenotypic Geographical variation

variation between populations that
are separated geographically.

Which of the following evolutionary mutation and gene flow

forces can introduce new genetic
variation into a population?

When closely related individuals Inbreeding can bring together rare,

mate with each other, or inbreed, the deleterious mutations that lead to
offspring are often not as fit as the harmful phenotypes.
offspring of two unrelated individuals.
Why?

An increase in frequency of Adaptive evolution

beneficial alleles and decrease in
deleterious alleles due to selection.

An individual's ability to survive and Evoluntionary fitness

reproduce.

An individual's ability to survive and Relative fitness

reproduce relative to the rest of the
population.

What ways can selection affect Stabilizing selection, directional

population variation? selection, diversifying selection,
frequency dependent selection, and
sexual selection

Selection that favors average Stabilizing selection

phenotypes.

Selection that favors phenotypes at Directional selection

one end of the spectrum of existing
variation.

Selection that favors two or more Diversifying selection

distinct phenotypes.

Selection that favors phenotypes that Frequency dependent selection

are either common (positive
frequency-dependent selection) or
rare (negative frequency-dependent
selection).

Theory of sexual selection that Handicap principle

argues only the fittest individuals can
afford costly traits.

Theory of sexual selection that Good genes hypothesis

argues individuals develop
impressive ornaments to show off
their efficient metabolism or ability to
fight disease.

Which type of selection results in Diversifying selection

greater genetic variance in a
population?

When males and females of a Sexual dimorphism

population look or act differently, it is
referred to as

The good genes hypothesis is a why individuals of one sex develop

theory that explains what? impressive ornamental traits

gene pool
combined genetic information of all the members of a particular population
relative frequency
is the number of times that the allele occurs in a gene pool compared with the
number of times other alleles occur
What are the main sources of heritable variation in population?
mutations and genetic shuffling that results from sexual reproduction
How is evolution defined in genetic terms?
evolution change in the relative frequency of alleles in a population
What determines the numbers of phenotypes for a given trait?
it depends on how many genes control that trait
single-gene trait
trait controlled by a single gene
polygenic traits
many traits controlled by two or more genes
How does natural selection affect single-gene and polygenic traits?
it can lead to changes in allele frequencies and thus to evolution and directional
selection, stabilizing selection, or disruptive selection
directional selection
when individuals at one end of the curve have higher fitness than individuals in the
middle or at the other end
stabilizing selections
when individuals near the center of the curve have higher fitness than individuals at
either end of the curve
disruptive selection
when individuals at the upper and lower ends of the curve have higher fitness than
individuals near the middle
What is genetic drift?
random change in allele frequencies that occur in small population
What five conditions are needed to maintain genetic equilibrium?
there must be random mating, population must be very large, there can be no
movement into or out of the population, no mutations, no natural selection
hardy-weinberg principle
allele frequencies in a population will remain constant unless one or more factors
cause those frequencies to change
genetic equilibrium
the situation in which allele frequencies remain constant
What factors are involved in the formation of new species?
populations become re-productively isolated from each other
reproductive isolation
when the members of two populations cannot interbreed and produce fertile
offspring
behavioral isolation
when two populations are capable of interbreeding but have differences in courtship
rituals or other reproductive strategies that involve behavior
geographic isolation
two populations are separated by geographic barriers such as rivers, mountains, or
bodies of water.
temporal isolation
two or more species reproduce at different times
Describe the process of speciation in the Galapagos finches.
occurred by founding of a new populations, geographic isolation, changes in the
new population's gene pool, reproductive isolation, and ecological isolation
the combined genetic information of all members of a particular forms a
gene pool
the success of an organism in surviving and reproducing is a measure of its
fitness
traits that are controlled by more than one gene such as human height, are known
as
polygenic traits
the type of selection in which individuals of average size have greater fitness than
small or large individuals is called
stabilizing selection
the type of selection in which individuals at one end of a curve have the highest
fitness is called
directional selection
if coat color in a rabbit population is a polygenic trait, which process might have
produced in a graph which hump 1 is white rabbits and hump 2 is black rabbits and
in the U of both humps are light brown/ medium brown rabbits
disruptive selection
a random change in a small population's allele frequency is known as
genetic drift
a change in allele frequency that results from the migration of a small subgroup of
population is called
the founder effect
a group of individuals of the same species that interbreed make up a
population
the evolution of Darwin's finches is an example of
speciation
what is relative frequency and give an example
number of times an allele occurs in a gene pool compared with number of all other
times alleles occur
ex. number of times head lands on a coin over coin flips total
explain why sexual reproduction is a source of genetic variation
a genetic variation occurs between the parents and the offspring because of the
union of the gamete cells
what determines the number of phenotypes for a given trait
the number of phenotypes produced for a given trait depends on how many genes
control the trait
what is meant by the term single-gene trait
Any gene that controls the total expression of a trait is an allele defined as a single
gene trait.
why are certain polygenic traits represented by a bell curve
they are controlled by many genes and result in gradations where each gene has an
effect
evolution in genetic terms
evolution change in the relative frequency of alleles in a population
how are speciation and reproductive isolation related
Speciation by reproductive isolation is frequently seen in plants, with errors in
division during mitosis doubling the number
how do stabilizing selection and disruptive selection differ
Stabilizing selection is where a population is favored by just the right amount of a
certain trait, and if they don't have the right amount of that certain trait then they
die. Disruptive selection is when an animal has to fit in with its environment
in what kinds of situation is genetic drift likely to occur
In small, isolated populations, random changes in the genotype are more likely to
accumulate than they are in large populations
explain how isolation of groups can be involved in speciation
if there was a natural disaster each party would evolve on their own due to
isolation. then when they can no longer breed with each other they are considered
different species.
what two testable assumptions were the basis of Darwin's hypothesis about the
evolution of the Galapagos finches
special adaptations to various habitats and their developed distinctive anatomy
what evidence did the work of rosemary and peter grant provide that strength
Darwin's hypothesis about finches evolution in the Galapagos islands
the population, subjected to natural selection, is oscillating back and forth
explain how the Galapagos finches may have evolved
descended from a single South American species, either the Blue-back grassquit or
the St. Lucia black finch. Since then, the finches adapted to eating different types of
food by evolving different beaks
how does the range of phenotypes differ between single-gene traits and polygenic
traits
Single gene traits are either one type or another; polgyenic traits, continuous
variation is shown and there is a range with no discrete categories
how are allele frequencies related to gene pools
A gene pool is the complete set of unique alleles in a population or species. It's
literally the sum of all of the allele frequencies within that group. The allele
frequencies are how much each allele is present within that population.
describe 3 patterns of natural selection on polygenic traits
stabilizing selection-when individuals near the center of the curve have higher
fitness than individuals at either end of the curve
directional selection- when individuals at one end of the curve have higher fitness
than individuals in the middle or at the other end
disruptive selection-when individuals at the upper and lower ends of the curve have
higher fitness than individuals near the middle
how does genetic drift lead to a change in a population's gene pool
Bottleneck effect: number of individuals is reduced significantly by a random event
Founder effect: few individuals are separated and establish their own population
how are directional selection and disruptive selection similar? different?
Directional selection occurs when natural selection favors a single phenotype.
Disruptive, like directional, selection favors the extremes traits in a population. It
differs in that sudden changes in the environment create forces favoring the
extreme
how is reproductive isolation related to the formation of new species
Reproductive isolation is the inability of a species to breed successfully with related
species due to geographical isolation
explain how behavior can play a role in the evolution of species
Behaviors can have a genetic code so that species with only certain types of
behavior can survive
what research findings support Darwin's theory of evolution
New data from genetics, physics, and biochemistry. Scientific evidence support the
theory that living species descended with modification from common acestors that
lived in the past
Suppose that a drought on an island eliminates all but plants that produce large,
tough seeds. All the finches on the island have very small beaks. How might this
environmental change impact the survival of this finch population?
The finches would either have to adapt by evolving larger beaks or another means
of cracking open the seeds or they would die. For the record, these scenarios are
unproven and cannot be for the amount of time it would take to study it.