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1. Removing bypass capacitor across the emitter leg resistor in a CE amplifier causes

a) increase in current gain b. decrease in current gain


c) increase in voltage gain decrease in voltage gain Answer: d

2. The minimum number of flip-flops required to construct a mod-75 counter is

a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 Answer: c

3. The important characteristic of emitter-follower is

a. High input impedance and high output impedance


b. High input impedance and low output impedance
c. Low input impedance and low output impedance
d. Low input impedance and high output impedance Answer: b

4. When an amplifier is provided with current series feedback, its

a. Input impedance increases and output impedance decreases


b. Input and output impedance both decrease
c. Input impedance decreases and output impedance increases
d. Input and output impedance both increase Answer: d
5. The frequency of oscillation of a tunnel-collector oscillator having L = 30H and C = 300pf is
nearby

a. 267 kHz b. 1677 kHz c. 1.68 kHz d. 2.67 kHz Answer: b

6. The control terminal (pin 5) of 555 timer IC is normally connected to ground through a
capacitor (0.01F). This is to

a. Protect the IC from inadvertent application of high voltage


b. Prevent false triggering by noise coupled onto the pin
c. Convert the trigger input to sharp pulse by differentiation
d. Suppress any negative triggering pulse Answer: b

7. The fan out of a MOS logic gate is higher than that of TTL gates because of its

a. Low input impedance


b. high output impedance
c. Low output impedance
d. High input impedance Answer: d

8. The common collector amplifier is also known as

a. Collector follower
b. Base follower
c. Emitter follower
d. Source follower Answer: c

9. In class-A amplifier, the output current flows for

a. A part of the cycle or the input signal


b. The full cycle of the input signal
c. Half the cycle of the input signal
d. 3/4th of the cycle of the input signal Answer: b

10. In an amplifier with negative feedback


a. Only the gain of the amplifier is affected
b. Only the gain and bandwidth of the amplifier are affected
c. Only the input and output impedance are affected
d. All of the four parameters mentioned above would be affected Answer: d

11. Wien bridge oscillator can typically generate frequencies in the range of

a. 1kHz-1 Mhz
b. 1 Mhz-10MHz
c. 10MHz-100MHz
d. 100MHz-150MHz
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12. A differential amplifier, amplifies

a. and mathematically differentiates the average of the voltages on the two input lines
b. and differentiates the input waveform on one line when the other line is grounded
c. the difference of voltages between the two input lines
d. and differentiates the sum of the two input waveform Answer: c

13. The type of power amplifier which exhibits crossover distortion in its output is

a. Class A b. Class B c. Class AB d.Class C Answer: b

14. The lowest output impedance is obtained in case of BJT amplifiers for

a. CB configuration b. CE configuration
c. CC configuration d. CE with RE configuration Answer: c

15. The upper cutoff frequency of an RC coupled amplifier mainly depends upon

a. Coupling Capacitor b. Emitter bypass capacitor c. Output capacitance of


signal source d. Inter-electrode capacitance and stray shunt capacitance
Answer: d

16. Just as a voltage amplifier amplifies signal voltage, a power amplifier

a. amplifies power b. amplifies signal current c. merely converts the signal ac power into
the dc power d. merely converts the dc power into useful ac power

17. An oscillator of the LC type that has a split capacitor in the circuit is

a. Hartly oscillator b. Colpitts oscillator c. Weinbridge oscillator d. R-C phase shift


oscillator Answer: b

18. The function of bleeder resistor in a power supply is

a. the same as that of load resistor b. to ensure a minimum current drain in the
circuit c. to increase the output dc voltage d. to increase the output current

19. In a bistable multivibrator circuit, commutating capacitor is used to

a. increase the base storage charge b. to provide ac coupling c. to increase the speed of
response d. to provide the speed of oscillations Answer: c

20. Removing bypass capacitor across the emitter-leg resistor in a CE amplifier causes

a. increase in current gain. b. decrease in current gain. c. increase in voltage gain.


d. decrease in voltage gain. Answer: d
21. Consider the parallel RLC circuit having R = 1, L = 1H, C = 1F. What type of response will
the circuit produce?

a. Under damped b. Over damped c. Critically damped

Answer: a

22. How much inductance is needed to resonate at 5 kHz with a capacitance of 12nF?

a. 2652 H b. 11.844 H c. 3.333 H d. 84.33 mH Answer: d

23. The difference between the half power frequencies is called the

a. quality factor b. resonant frequency c. bandwidth d. cutoff frequency

Answer: c

24. A parallel RLC circuit has C = 0.25F & L = 2H. The value of R which will create unity
damping factor is

a. 1 b. 2 c. 0.5 d. 4 Answer: b

25. A zero of the transfer function H (s) = 10 (s + 1)/(s + 2) (s + 3) is at

a. 10 b. -1 c. -2 d. -3 Answer: b

26. On the Bode magnitude plot, the slope of the pole 1/(5 + j?) 2 is

a. 20 dB/decade b. 40 dB/decade c. -40 dB/decade d. -20 dB/decade

Answer: c

27. On the bode phase plot, the slope of [1 + j10w-w2/25]^2 is

a. 45 /decade b. 90 /decade c. 135 /decade d. 180 /decade

Answer: d

28. In an electric circuit, the dual of resistance is

a. conductance b. capacitance c. open circuit d. inductance

Answer: a

29. In a series RLC circuit, which of these quality factors has the steepest curve at resonance?

a. Q = 20 b. Q = 12 c. Q = 8 d. Q = 4 Answer: d

1. The action of JFET in its equivalent circuit can be represented as a

1. Current controlled Current source

2. Current controlled Voltage source

3. Voltage controlled Voltage source

4. Voltage controlled Current source

Answer: d

2. A change in the value of the emitter resistance Re in a differential amplifier

1. affects the difference mode gain Ad

2. affects the common mode gain Ac


3. affects both Ad and Ac

4. does not effect either Ad and Ac

Answer: b

3. Generally, the gain of a transistor amplifier falls at high frequencies due to the

1. Internal Capacitance of the device

2. Coupling capacitor at the input

3. Skin effect

4. Coupling capacitor at the output

Answer: a

4. In a common emitter, unbypassed resistor provides

1. voltage shut feedback

2. current series feedback

3. negative voltage feedback

4. positive current feedback

Answer: c

5. A constant current signal across a parallel RLC circuits gives an o/p of 1.4V at the signal
frequency of 3.89kHz. At the frequency of 4 kHz, the o/p voltage will be

1. 1 V

2. 2 V

3. 1.4 V

4. 2.8 V

Answer: b

6. Class AB operation is often used in power (large signal) amplifiers in order to

1. get maximum effeciency

2. Remove even harmonics

3. Overcome a crossover distortion

4. reducing collector dissipation

Answer: c

7. The bandwidth of an RF tuned amplifier is dependent on

1. Q-factor of the tuned O/P circuit

2. Q-factor of the tuned I/P circuit

3. Quiescent operating point

4. Q-factor of the O/P and I/P circuits as well as quiescent operating point
Answer: a

8. Most of the linear ICs are based on the two-transistor differential amplifier because of its

1. input voltage dependent linear transfer characteristics

2. high voltage gain

3. high input resistance

4. High CMMR

Answer: d

9. Negative feedback in an amplifier

1. Reduces gain

2. Increase frequency and phase distortion

3. Reduces bandwidth

4. Increase Noise

Answer: a

10.A dc power supply has no-load voltage of 30V and a full-load voltage of 25V at full-load
current of 1A. Its output resistance and load regulation respectively are

1. 5 ohm & 20%

2. 2 5 ohm & 20%

3. 5 ohm &16.7%

4. 25 ohm & 16.7%

Answer: b

1. The crawling in an induction motor is caused by

1. improper design of the machine

2. low voltage supply

3. high loads

4. harmonics developed in the motor

Answer: d

2. The speed of an induction motor

1. decreases too much with the increase of load

2. increase with the increase of load

3. decreases slightly with the increase of load

4. remains constant with the increase of load

Answer: c

3. The effect of increasing the length of the air gap in an induction motor will increase
1. power factor

2. speed

3. magnetising current

4. air-gap flux

Answer: c

4. the difference between the synchronous speed and the actual speed of an induction
motor is known as

1. Regulation

2. back lash

3. slip

4. lag

Answer: c

5. Rotating magnetic field is produced in a

1. single-phase induction motor

2. three phase induction motor

3. dc series motor

4. ac series motor

Answer: b

6. The stator core of the induction motor is made of

1. Laminated cast iron

2. Mild steel

3. Silicon steel stampings

4. Soft wood

Answer: c

7. Star-delta starter of an induction motor

1. Inserts resistance in rotor circuit

2. Inserts resistance in stator circuit

3. Applies reduced voltage to rotor

4. Applies reduced voltage to stator

Answer: d

8. The starting torque of a 1-phase induction motor is

1. High

2. Medium
3. Low

4. Zero

Answer: d

9. The thrust developed by a linear induction motor depends on

1. Synchronous speed

2. Rotor input

3. Number of poles

4. both A and B

Answer: d

10.A 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor supplied from a balanced 3-phase source drives
a mechanical load.

The torque-speed characteristics of the motor (solid curve) and of the load (dotted curve) are
shown. Of the two equilibrium points A and B, which of the following options correctly describes
the stability of A and B? [GATE 2009]

1. A is stable B is unstable

2. A is unstable B is stable

3. Both are stable

4. Both are unstable

Answer: b

1. Which of the following amplifier is used in a digital to analog converter?

1. non inverter

2. voltage follower

3. summer

4. difference amplifier

Answer: c

2. Differential amplifiers are used in

1. instrumentation amplifiers
2. voltage followers

3. voltage regulators

4. buffers

Answer: a

3. For an ideal op-amp, which of the following is true?

1. The differential voltage across the input terminals is zero

2. The current into the input terminals is zero

3. The current from output terminal is zero

4. The output resistance is zero

Answer: c

4. The two input terminals of an opamp are labeled as

1. High and low

2. Positive and negative

3. Inverting and non inverting

4. Differential ans non differential

Answer: c

5. When a step-input is given to an op-amp integrator, the output will be

1. a ramp.

2. a sinusoidal wave.

3. a rectangular wave.

4. a triangular wave with dc bias.

Answer: a

6. For an op-amp having differential gain Av and common-mode gain Ac the CMRR is given
by

1. Av + Ac

2. Av/Ac

3. 1 + (Av/Ac)

4. Ac/Av

Answer: b

7. Hysteresis is desirable in Schmitt-trigger, because

1. energy is to be stored/discharged in parasitic capacitances.

2. effects of temperature would be compensated.

3. devices in the circuit should be allowed time for saturation and desaturation.
4. it would prevent noise from causing false triggering.

Answer: c

8. The output voltage Vo of the above circuit

is

1. -6V

2. -5V

3. -1.2V

4. -0.2V

Answer: b

9. In the above circuit the current ix is

1. 0.6 A

2. 0.5 A

3. 0.2 A

4. 1/12 A

Answer: b

1. An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal

1. Current controlled Current source

2. Current controlled Voltage source

3. Voltage controlled Voltage source

4. Voltage controlled Current source

Answer: b

2. A 741-Type OP-AMP has a gain-bandwith product of 1MHz. A non-inverting amplifier


using this opamp & having a voltage gain of 20db will exhibit-3db bandwidth of
1. 50KHz

2. 100KHz

3. 1000/17KHz

4. 1000/7.07KHz

Answer: a

3. An amplifier using an opamp with slew rate SR = 1v/sec has a gain of 40db. If this
amplifier has to faithfully amplify sinusoidal signals from dc to 20KHz without introducing
any slew-rate induced distortion, then the input signal level exceed

1. 795mV

2. 395mV

3. 795mV

4. 39.5mV

Answer: c

4. The ideal OP-AMP has the following characteristics

1. Ri = A = R0 = 0

2. Ri = 0, A = R0 = 0

3. Ri = A = R0 =

4. Ri = 0, A = R0 =

Answer: b

5. The approximate input impedance of the opamp circuit which has Ri = 10k, Rf = 100k,
RL = 10k

1.

2. 120k

3. 110k

4. 10k

Answer: c

6. An opamp has a slew rate of 5V/S. The largest sine wave o/p voltage possible at a
frequency of 1MHz is

1. 10 V

2. 5 V

3. 5V

4. 5/2 V

Answer: a

7. Assume that the op-amp of the fig. Is ideal. If Vi is a triangular wave, then V0 will be
1. square wave

2. Triangular wave

3. Parabolic wave

4. Sine wave

8. A differential amplifier is invariably used in the i/p stage of all op-amps. This is done
basically to provide the op-amps with a very high

1. CMMR

2. bandwidth

3. slew rate

4. open-loop gain

Answer: c

9. A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20, 000. CMMR = 80dB. The common
mode gain is given by

1. 2

2. 1

3.

4. 0

Answer: c

10.In the differential voltage gain & the common mode voltage gain of a differential
amplifier are 48db & 2db respectively, then its common mode rejection ratio is

1. 23dB

2. 25dB

3. 46dB

4. 50dB

Answer: b

1. A non inverting closed loop op amp circuit generally has a gain factor

1. Less than one

2. Greater than one

3. Of zero

4. Equal to one

Answer: b

2. If ground is applied to the ( + ) terminal of an inverting op-amp, the ( ) terminal will

1. Not need an input resistor

2. Be virtual ground
3. Have high reverse current

4. Not invert the signal

Answer: b

3. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equal to

1. The ratio of the input resistance to feedback resistance

2. The open-loop voltage gain

3. The feedback resistance divided by the input resistance

4. The input resistance

Answer: c

4. An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal

1. Current controlled Current source

2. Current controlled voltage source

3. Voltage controlled voltage source

4. voltage controlled current source

Answer: b

5. Calculate the cutoff frequency of a first-order low-pass filter for R1 = 2.5 k and C1 =
0.05 F

1. 1.273kHz

2. 12.73kHz

3. 127.3 kHz

4. 127.3 Hz

Answer: a

6. How many op-amps are required to implement this equation Vo = V1

1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 1

Answer: d

7. An OPAMP has a slew rate of 5 V/S. The largest sine wave O/P voltage possible at a
frequency of 1 MHZ is

1. 10 volts

2. 5 volts

3. 5/3 volts

4. 5/2 volts
8. Which of the following statements are true about VI characteristic of SCR?

1. Holding current is more than Latching current

2. SCR will trigger if the applied voltage exceeds forward break over voltage

3. SCR can be triggered without gate current

4. When the SCR is in reverse biased, small leakage current will flow

Correct choice is:

5. A, B and C

6. All are true

7. B, C, D

8. C, D

Answer: c

9. which of the following statements are true about BJT?

1. It has more power handling capability than MOSFET

2. Has higher switching speed than IGBT and MOSFET

3. Has low on state conduction resistance

4. Has second breakdown voltage problem

Correct choice is:

5. All are true

6. 1, 2, 3, 4

7. 1, 3, 4

8. 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

10.For a JFET, when VDS is increased beyond the pinch off voltage, the drain current
1. Increases

2. Decreases

3. Remains constant

4. First decreases and then increases

Answer: c

11. n-channel FETs are superior to P-channel FETs, because

1. They have higher input impedance

2. They have high switching time

3. They consume less power

4. Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes

Answer: d

12.Which of the following is true about the diodes

1. During forward biased small amount of voltage drop will appear across anode
and cathode

2. If the reverse voltage exceed VRRM the diode will destroy

3. trr is depends on softness factor

4. schottky diodes have low trr

Correct choice is:

5. All are true

6. 1, 2 4

7. 1, 2, 3

8. 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

13.The MOSFET has


1. Higher Power handling capability than BJT

2. Faster switching speed than BJT

3. High on state resistance

4. Secondary breakdown voltage problem

which of the above statements are incorrect?

Options:

5. 1, 2, 4

6. 2, 3

7. All of the above

8. 2, 3, 4

Answer: a

14.Which of the following is called as uncontrolled semiconductor device?

1. Diode

2. Thyristor

3. GTO

4. MOSFET

Answer: a

15.Which of the following is a half controlled semiconductor device?

1. MOSFET

2. GTO

3. MCT

4. SCR

Answer: d
16.Which of the following abbreviation is not a power semiconductor device?

1. SIT: Static Induction Transistor

2. SITH: Static Induction Thyristor

3. MCT: MOS Controlled Thyristor

4. IGCT: Integrated Gate Commutated Thyristor

Options:

5. 1 and 4

6. 1 only

7. 1, 2, 4

8. All are power semiconductor device

Answer: d

17.Which of the following statements are correct?

1. IGBT is current driven device

2. IGCT is voltage driven device

3. MOSFET is voltage driven device

4. GTO is minority carrier device

Options:

5. 1, 2, 3

6. 2, 3, 4

7. All are correct

8. None are correct

Answer: b

1. The breakdown mechanism in a lightly doped p-n junction under reverse biased
condition is called
1. avalanche breakdown

2. zener breakdown

3. breakdown by tunnelling

4. high voltage breakdown

Answer: a

2. For a large values of |VDS|, a FET behave as

1. Voltage controlled resistor

2. Current controlled current source

3. Voltage controlled current source

4. Current controlled resistor

Answer: c

3. In a full wave rectifier without filter, the ripple factor is

1. 0.482

2. 1.21

3. 1.79

4. 2.05

Answer: a

4. Space charge region around a P-N junction

1. does not contain mobile carries

2. contains both free electrons and holes

3. contains one type of mobile carriers depending on the level of doping of the P or
N regions

4. contains electrons only as free carriers

Answer: a

5. In a JFET, at pinch-off voltage applied on the gate


1. The drain current becomes almost zero

2. The drain current begins to decrease

3. The drain current is almost at saturation value

4. The drain to source voltage is close to zero volts

Answer: c

6. The value of ripple factor of a half wave rectifier without filter is approximately

1. 1.2

2. o. 2

3. 2.2

4. 2.0

Answer: a

7. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the Fermi-level is

1. closer to the valence band

2. midway between conduction and valence band

3. closer to the conduction band

4. within the valence band

Answer: c

8. The transformer utilization factor of a half wave rectifier is approximately

1. 0.6

2. 0.3

3. 0.9

4. 1.1

Answer: b

9. Transistor is a
1. Current controlled current device

2. Current controlled voltage device

3. Voltage controlled current device

4. Voltage controlled voltage device

Answer: a

10.If the output voltage of a bridge rectifier is 100V, the PIV of diode will be

1. 100 * Square root (2) V

2. 200/(pi) V

3. 100 * (pi) V

4. 100/2 V

Answer: d

1. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Thyristor is current driven device

2. GTO is current driven device

3. GTR is current driven device

4. SCR is a pulse triggered device

Correct choice is

5. 1 and 2

6. 1, 2, 3

7. All

8. 4 only

Answer: c

2. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. GTO is a pulse triggered device


2. MOSFET is uni-polar device

3. SCR is a bipolar device

4. Continuous gate signal is not required to maintain the SCR to be in ON state

Correct choice is

5. 1, 2, 4 only

6. 1, 2 only

7. 4 only

8. All

Answer: d

3. Which of the following is not a fully controlled semiconductor device?

1. MOSFET

2. IGBT

3. IGCT

4. SCR

Answer: d

4. Which of the following is not associated with p-n junction

1. junction capacitance

2. charge storage capacitance

3. depletion capacitance

4. channel length modulation

Answer: d

5. In a p-n junction diode under reverse bias, the magnitude of electric field is maximum
at

1. the edge of the depletion region on the p-side

2. the edge of the depletion region on the n-side


3. the p-n junction

4. the center of the depletion region on the n-side

Answer: c

6. An n-channel JFET has IDSS = 2mA, and Vp = -4V. Its transconductance gm = (in
mA/V) for an applied gate to source voltage VGS = -2V is

1. 0.25

2. 0.5

3. 0.75

4. 1

Answer: b

7. MOSFET switch in its on-state may be considered equivalent to

1. resistor

2. inductor

3. capacitor

4. battery

Answer: c

8. The effective channel length of a MOSFET in a saturation decreases with increase in

1. gate voltage

2. drain voltage

3. source voltage

4. body voltage

Answer: b

9. The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is caused by

1. Fast turn-on

2. Fast turn-off
3. Large collector-base reverse bias

4. Large emmiter-base forward bias

Answer: c

10.MOSFET can be used as a

1. Current controlled capacitor

2. Voltage controlled capacitor

3. Current controlled inductor

4. Voltage controlled inductors

Answer: b

1. Six MOSFETs connected in a bridge configuration (having no other power device)


MUST be operated as a Voltage Source Inverter (VSI) This statement is [GATE-2007]

1. True, because being majority carrier devices, MOSFETs are voltage driven

2. True, because MOSFETs have inherently anti parallel diodes

3. False, because it can be operated both as current source Inverter (CSI) or a VSI

4. False, because MOSFETs can be operated as excellent constant current sources


in the saturation region

Answer: d

2. A single phase full-wave half controlled bridge converter feeds an inductive load. The
two SCRs in the converter are connected to a common DC bus. The converter has to
have a free wheeling diode [GATE-2007]

1. because the converter inherently does not provide for free wheeling

2. Because the converter does not provide for free wheeling for high values of
triggering angles

3. Or else the free wheeling action of the converter will cause shorting of the AC
supply

4. Or else if a gate pulse to one of the SCRs is missed, it will subsequently cause a
high load current in the other SCR
Answer: b

3. The power electronic converter shown in the figure has a single pole double throw
switch.

The pole P of the switch is connected alternately to throws A and B. The converter
shown is a [GATE-2010]

1. Step down chopper (buck converter)

2. Half-wave rectifier

3. Step Up chopper (boost converter)

4. Full wave converter

Answer: a

4. The fully controlled thyristor converter in the figure is fed from a single-phase source.

When the firing angle is 0 the dc output voltage of the converter is 300 V. What will be
the output voltage for a firing angle of 60 assuming continuous conduction? [GATE-
2010]

1. 150V

2. 210V

3. 300V

4. 100 (pi) V

Answer: a

1. Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of FET increases

1. The mobility decreases

2. The transconductance increases


3. The drain current increases

4. None of the above

Answer: a

2. The ripple frequency from a full wave rectifier is

1. twice that from a half wave circuit

2. the same as that from a half wave circuit

3. half that from a half wave circuit

4. that from a half wave circuit

Answer: a

3. In a full-wave rectifier using two ideal diodes, Vdc & Vm are the dc & peak values of
the voltage respectively across a resistive load. If PIV is the peak inverse voltage of the
diode, then the appropriate relationships for the rectifier is

1. Vdc = Vm/ PIV = 2Vm

2. Vdc = 2Vm/ PIV = 2Vm

3. Vdc = 2Vm/ PIV = Vm

4. Vdc = Vm/ PIV = Vm

Answer: b

4. The output of a rectifier circuit without filter is

1. 50 Hz AC

2. smooth DC

3. pulsating DC

4. 60 hz AC

Answer: c

5. An advantage of full wave bridge rectification is

1. it uses the whole transformer secondary for the entire ac input cycle
2. it costs less than other rectifier types

3. it cuts off half of the ac wave cycle

4. it never needs a filter

Answer: a

6. The best rectifier circuit for the power supply designed to provide high power at low
voltage is

1. half wave arrangement

2. full wave, center tap arrangement

3. quarter wave arrangement

4. voltage doubler arrangement

Answer: b

7. If a half wave rectifier is used with 165Vpk AC input, the effective dc output voltage is

1. considerably less than 165V

2. slightly less than 165V

3. exactly 165V

4. slightly more than 165V

Answer: a

8. If a full wave bridge circuit is used with a transformer whose secondary provides
50Vrms, the peak voltage that occurs across the diodes in the reverse direction is
approximately

1. 50 Vpk

2. 70 Vpk

3. 100 Vpk

4. 140 Vpk

Answer: b

9. The main disadvantage of voltage doubler power supply circuit is


1. Excessive current

2. Excessive voltage

3. Insufficient rectification

4. Poor regulation under heavy loads

Answer: d

10.A source follower using an FET usually has a voltage gain which is

1. Greater than + 100

2. Slightly less than unity but positive

3. Exactly unity but negative

4. About-10

Answer: a

Q.1 Just as a voltage amplifier signal voltage a power amplifier.


1. amplifier power
2. amplifier signal
3. converts the signal ac power into DC power
4. converts a dc power into useful AC power
Answer: 4

Q.2 Cross over distortion in class - B push-p amplifiers:


1. Is due to transistor operating near saturation region
2. Can be eliminated by operating them in class operation
3. Occurs because two power transistors do not exactly matching parameters
4. Always occurs in low signal are
Answer: 2,4

Q.3 If the load p.f. is 0.866, then the average p.f. the v-bank is
1. 0.886
2. 0.75
3. 0.51
4. 0.65
Answer: 2

Q.4 AT-T connection has higher ratio of utilization that n a V V connection only when
1. Identical transformers are used
2. Load power factor is leading
3. Load power factor is unity
4. Non-identical transformers are used
Answer: 4

Q.5 A commercial power supply has a voltage regulation of:


1. 1%
2. 5%
3. 20%
4. 50%
Answer: 1

Q.6 Which stage is of a d.c. power supply uses zener diode


1. Rectifier
2. Voltage divider
3. Filter
4. Regulator
Answer:4

Q.7 Which rectifier requires 4 diodes?


1. half wave rectifier
2. full wave rectifier
3. bridge type rectifier
4. Voltage quadrupler
Answer: 3

Q.8 The advantage of dynamic RAMs over static RAMs is


1. Lower power consumption
2. Higher power consumption
3. Higher packing density
4. Lower packing density
Answer: 1,3

Q.9 The address range for M = 64 words storage in hexadecimal format is


1. 00 to 3F
2. 00 to FF
3. 0 to 3
4. 0 to F
Answer: 1

Q.10 The 8085 is a microprocessor


1. 4 bit
2. 8 bit
3. 16 bit
4. 32 bit
Answer: 2

Q.11 The voltage gain of a common base amplifier depends on


1. Load resistor RL
2. Input resistance of transistor
3. Ac alpha
4. All the above
Answer: 4

Q. 12 A JFET has the disadvantage of


1. Having low input impedance
2. Having high input impedance
3. Having small gain band-width product
4. Possessing positive temperature coefficient
Answer: 3

Q.13 A FET is preferred over an ordinary transistor because it


1. Permits high degree of isolation
2. Has low noise level
3. Has very high power gain
4. Has all the above properties
Answer: 4

Q.14 To turn a UJT ON, the forward bias on emitter diode should be:
1. more than the peak point voltage
2. less than the peak point voltage
3. Equal to the peak point voltage
4. Equal to the stand off voltage
Answer: 1

Q.15 Which of the following statements is wrong for transistor biasing methods:
1. The base resister method does not provide stabilization of operating point
2. The biasing with feedback resistor provides only some stabilization
3. Base resistor method provides better stabilization than collector feedback method
4. Voltage divider bias is widely used because it has stable operating point
Answer: 3

Q.16 The disadvantage of voltage divider bias is that


1. It has a high stability factor
2. It has many resistors
3. It allows thermal runway
4. It does not allow faithful amplification
Answer: 2

Q.17 In class-A amplifies conduction extends over 360 because the operating point.
1. Located near saturation point
2. Located at or near cut0off point
3. Located on load line
4. Located in the centre of load line
Answer: 4

Q.18 The capacitance of reverse biased P-N junction


1. Decreases with increasing the reverse bias
2. Increases with increasing the reverse bias
3. Depends only on reverse saturation current
4. Makes the P-N junction more effective at high frequencies
Answer: 1

Q.19 In a transistor
1. Emitter is heavily doped while the collector is moderately doped
2. Collector base junction is forward biased
3. Emitter is made wider than collector
4. The input resistance is much higher than output resistance
Answer: 1

Q.20 If a transistor were operated with emitter and collector interchanged, then
1. emitter current will increase
2. Collector current will increase
3. Base current will decrease
4. No current flow will take place
Answer: 2
Q.21 When a current flows in a conductor, the order of magnitude of the drift velocity of
electrons in it is
1. IO10 cm/s
2. 10-2 cm/s
3. 104 cm/s
4. 10-1 cm/s
Answer: 2

Q.22 When an alternating potential is applied to a capacitor, the current in the circuit will
1. lead the applied potential
2. lag the applied potential
3. be in phase with the applied potential
4. none
Answer: 1

Q.23 In application of superposition theorem, one is required to solve as many circuits as there
are
1. Nodes
2. Branches
3. Meshes
4. Sources
Answer: 4

Q.24 Nortons equivalent of a circuit consists of a


1. Constant current generator with parallel impedance
2. Constant current generator in series with an infinite resistance
3. Constant current generator in series with high impedance
4. Constant current generator in series with high impedance
Answer: 1

Q.25 We require a resistor of 47 k - with 10% tolerance. The sequence of colour band on
this resistor would be
1. Yellow, violet, orange & silver
2. Yellow, brown, orange & silver
3. Yellow, violet, orange & gold
4. Yellow, violet, brown & gold
Answer: 1

Q.26 The high level language can be translated into machine language with the help of
1. Assembler
2. Stack pointer
3. Complier
4. Multiplexer
Answer: 3

Q.27 The Intel 8259 is a - chip programmable interrupt controller


1. Single
2. Double
3. Triple
4. All of the above
Answer: 1

Q.28 An analog voltage in the range of 0 to V volts into be converted into 3- bit digital output.
It is divided into eight intervals. The top & the bottom intervals are V/14 & the middle six
intervals are V/7. The maximum quantization error will be:
1. 0
2. v7
3. v14
4. V
Answer: 3

Q.29 Frequency of oscillation of an AMV depends upon


1. RC values of the circuit
2. Collector load resistors
3. Transistor
4. Width of input pulse
Answer: 1

Q.30 Multivibrators can be used as:


1. Frequency dividers
2. Memory elements in computers
3. Square wave, saw tooth & pulse generators
4. All the above
Answer: 4

Q.31 The permeability of a diamagnetic material is


1. Zero
2. Less than 1
3. Equal to a
4. More than 1
Answer: 2

Q.32 The potential barrier at a P N junction is due to


1. Majority carriers
2. Minority carriers
3. Both majority and minority carriers
4. Fixed donor and acceptor ions
Answer: 4

Q.33 These self-inductance of a circuit is defined as twice the work done against the induced
e.m.f. on establishing unit current in the coil. If the current to be established in the coil is
doubled, the work done against the induced e.m.f. will be
1. Doubled
2. Halved
3. four times
4. Quarter times
Answer: 3

Q.34 The drift velocity of free electrons in a conducting wire carrying a current I is V. If in a wire
of the same metal, but of double the radius, the current be 21, then the drift velocity of
electrons will be
1. V
2. v2
3. v4
4. 4V
Answer: 2

Q.35 A commercial power supply has a voltage regulation of


1. 1%
2. 2.5%
3. 3.20%
4. 4.50%
Answer: 1

Q.36 In a bridge rectifier


1. PIV has a value Vm
2. Centre tap of secondary is not required
3. Smaller transformer can be used
4. All
Answer: 4

Q.37 In an R-2R ladder D/A converter, the input resistance is


1. Not same for all digital inputs
2. R for each input
3. 2R for each input
4. 3R for each input
Answer: 4

Q.38 The speed of a D.C. motor can be controlled by varying


1. Its flux per pole
2. Resistance of armature circuit
3. Applied voltage
4. All of the above
Answer: 4

Q.39 The chief advantage of Ward-Leonard system D.C motor speed control is that is
1. Can be used even for small motors
2. has high overall efficiency at all speeds
3. Gives smooth, sensitive and wide speed control
4. Uses a flywheel to reduce fluctuations in power demand
Answer: 3

Q.40 A transformer transforms


1. Frequency
2. Voltage
3. Current
4. Voltage and current
Answer: 4

Q.41 Which of the following is not a basic element of a transformer?


1. Core
2. Primary winding
3. Secondary winding
4. Mutual flux
Answer: 4

Q.42 The slight curvature at the lower end of the O.C.C. of a self-excited dc generator is due to
1. residual pole flux
2. high armature speed
3. magnetic inertia
4. high field circuit resistan
Answer: 3

Q.43 for the voltage built-up a self-excited D.C. generator, which of the following is not an
essential condition.
1. there must be some residual flux
2. field winding mmf must aid the residual flux
3. total field circuit resistance must be less than t critical value
4. armature speed must be very high
Answer: 4

Q.44 The Intel 8212 is an - non programmable I/O port


1. 4 bit
2. 8 bit
3. 16 bit
4. 32 bit
Answer: 2

Q.45 The terms 'soft sectored' and 'hard sectored' are used in connection with
1. P
2. RAM
3. ROM
4. Floppy disk
Answer: 4

Q.46 In temperature monitoring system transducers are used


1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 6
Answer: 1

Q.47 Today most computers use-technology for their operation


1. Germanium
2. Silicon
3. Gallium Arsenide
4. Gallium telluride
Answer: 2

Q.48 In a multivibrator
1. Feedback between two stages is 100%
2. Positive feedback is employed
3. When one transistor is on, the other is off
4. All
Answer: 4

Q.49 An OP-AMP can be classified as


1. Linear amplifier
2. Low Rin amplifier
3. Positive feedback amplifier
4. RC coupled amplifier
Answer: 2

Q.50 Amplification factor of a circuit is 50. For oscillator is feedback factor should be
1. 50
2. 100
3. 150
4. 1100
Answer: 3
Q.51 positive feedback is used in
1. Amplifier
2. Rectifier
3. Oscillator
4. Detector
Answer: 3

Q.52 Darlington pair


1. is a three terminal device with very high current gain
2. has a very high input impedance
3. has a very low output
4. all the above are true
Answer: 4

Q.53 Which of the following has got a positive susceptibility


1. Diamagnetic
2. Paramagnetic
3. Ferromagnetic
4. both paramagnetic & ferromagnetic
Answer: 4

Q.54 In a tunnel diode, electrons can tunnel through the P-N junction mainly because
1. impurity level is low
2. they have high energy
3. barrier potential is very low
4. depletion layer is extremely thin
Answer: 4

Q.55 Most of the transistors are NPN type and not PNP type because
1. NPN transistor gives large voltage gain
2. NPN transistors are more negative than PNP transistors
3. In NPN transistor, the current conduction is by free electrons which are less obiles than
holes
4. We can have high conduction is NPN transistors
Answer: 4

Q.56 In a transistor
1. Emitter is heavily doped while the collector moderately doped
2. Collector base junction is forward biased
3. Emitter is made wider than collector
4. The input resistance is much larger than output resistance
Answer: 1

Q.57 If the instantaneous current in a ckt is given I=2 cos (t +) amperes, the r.m.s. value of t
current is
1. 2 amp
2. 2 amp
3. 2 2 amp
4. Zero amp
Answer: 2

Q.58 In an A.C. ckt, voltage and current are given V = 100 sin (100t) volts i = 100 sin
(10t+3) mA. The power dissipated in the ckt is
1. 104 watts
2. 10 watts
3. 2.5 watts
4. 5 watts
Answer: 3

Q.59 A 0.05 H-F capacitor charges through a resistor and is discharged through a resistor
20K. The time constant of the circuit is
1. the same both during charging and discharging
2. larger during charging process
3. larger during discharging process
4. none
Answer: 2

Q.60 The basic element of radio communica 1 system which generates radio waves is
1. micro phone
2. transmitter
3. transmitting antenna
4. Loudspeaker
Answer: 2

Q.61 The input frequency of a bridge rectifier is 50 its output frequency will be
1. 25 Hz
2. 50 Hz
3. 75 Hz
4. 100 Hz
Answer: 4

Q.62 Which of the following voltage is used represent binary '1' in digital circuits.
1. 0 V
2. 15 V
3. +5 V
4. 25 V
Answer: 3

Q.63 Hexadecimal number system is used as hand language for representing


1. decimal number
2. binary number
3. octal number
4. all the above
Answer: 2

Q.64 Logic state 0 in positive logic corresponds to


1. zero voltage
2. positive voltage
3. higher voltage level
4. lower voltage level

Q.65 The o/p of a 2 - input OR gate is 1 when its


1. both inputs are 1
2. both inputs are 0
3. either input is 1
4. either input is 0
Answer: 3

Q.66 TTL logic family is most popularly used industries because it


1. provides greater operating speed
2. has a good fan in & fan out
3. has easy interface with other digital circuitry
4. all the above
Answer: 2

Q.67 Transformer cores are laminated in order to


1. simplify its construction
2. minimise eddy current loss
3. reduce cost
4. reduce hysteresis loss
Answer: 2

Q.68 The external characteristic of a shunt generator can be obtained directly from its
characteristic
1. internal
2. open-circuit
3. load-saturation
4. performance
Answer: 2

Q.69 Load saturation characteristic of a d.c. generator gives relation between


1. V and Ia
2. E and Ia
3. E0 and If
4. V and If
Answer: 4

Q.70 The biggest advantage of T-T connection over the V-V connection of 3-phase power
transformation is that it provides.
1. a set of balanced voltages under load
2. a true 3-phase, 4-wire system
3. a higher ratio of utilization
4. more voltages
Answer: 3

Q.71 The biggest advantage of T-T connection over the V-V connection of 3-phase power
transformation is that it provides.
1. a set of balanced voltages under load
2. a true 3-phase, 4-wire system
3. a higher ratio of utilization
4. more voltages
Answer: 2

Q.72 U.H.F. band covers the range of


1. 0-300 KHz
2. 3-30 MHz
3. 300-3000 KHz
4. 300 MHz - 3 GHz
Answer: 4

Q.73 The ripple factor of a bridge rectifier is


1. 0.48
2. 0.812
3. 1.11
4. 1.21
Answer: 1

Q.74 The high level language is/are


1. Machine language
2. BASIC
3. Assembly language
4. PASCAL
Answer: 2,4

Q.75 The high level language can be translated into machine language with the help of
1. Assembler
2. Stack pointer
3. Compiler
4. Multiplexer
Answer: 3

Q.76 In the emitter characteristic of UJT, the negative resistance portion.


1. lies in the cut-off region
2. continues up to peak point
3. lasts until the valley point is reached
4. does not exist
Answer: 3

Q.77 After firing as SCR, the gating pulse is removed. The current in the SCR will
1. remain the same
2. immediately fall to zero
3. rise up
4. None
Answer: 1

Q.78 When reverse bias is applied to a junction diode, it


1. Increases the potential barrier
2. Decreases the potential barrier
3. greatly increases the minority carrier current
4. greatly increases the majority carrier current
Answer: 1

Q.79 Transformer cores are laminated in order to

1. simplify its construction


2. minimise eddy current loss
3. reduce cost
4. reduce hysteresis loss
Answer: 2

Q.80 When a P N junction is forward biased

1. Only electrons in N-region are injected into P-region


2. Only holes in P-region are injected into N-region
3. Majority carriers in each region are injected into the other region
4. Minority current is reduced to zero
Answer: 3

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