4.

Which of the following is a controlling factor in very fast

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING heterogeneous reaction?
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS: A (a) heat and mass transfer effects
(b) pressure
COMPILATION (c) temperature
DR. LEONARDO C. MEDINA, JR. (d) composition of reactant

DEAN, COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING 5. Variables affecting the rate of homogeneous reactions are
(a) pressure and temperature only
LYCEUM OF THE PHILIPPINES (b) temperature and composition only
UNIVERSITY (c) pressure and composition only
(d) pressure, temperature and composition

6. Rate determining step in a reaction consisting of a number of step in

CHEMICAL REACTION ENGINEERING AND series is the
REACTOR DESIGN (a) fastest step
(b) slowed step
(c) intermediate step
1. Rate of chemical reaction is independent of the concentration of reactants
(d) data insufficient; can't be predict
for
(a) zero order reaction
7. Chemical kinetics can predict the
(b) third order reaction
(a) rate of reaction
(c) consecutive reaction
(b) feasibility of reaction
(d) none of these
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
2. Which of the following is not a unit of reaction rate?
(a) moles formed/(surface of catalyst) (time)
8. Velocity of a chemical reaction
(b) moles formed/(volume of reactor) (time)
(a) decreases with increase in temperature
(c) mole formed/(volume of catalyst) (time)
(b) increases with increase of pressure of reactant for all reactions
(d) none of these
(c) decreases with increase of reactant concentration
(d) none of these
3. If n is the order of reaction then unit of rate constant is
(a) 1
9. Sum of the powers of the concentration terms in the rate equation is
(time) (concentration)n-1
called the
(b) (time)-1(concentration)n-1
(a) order of the reaction
(c) (time)n-1 (concentration)
(b) overall order of the reaction
(d) none of these
(c) molecularity of the reaction
 (d) none of these (c) independent of
(d) none of these
10.Molecularity of a reaction
(a) is always equal to the overall order of reaction 15. Fill up the blanks from among the alternatives given below: In a first
(b) may not be equal to the order of reaction order reaction the time required to reduce the concentration of reactant from
c (c) cant have a fractional value 1 mole/liter to 0.5 mole/liter will be ............. that required to reduce it from
(e) both (b) and (c) 10 moles/liter to 5 moles/liter in the same volume
(a) more than
11.Inversion of cane sugar is an example of (b) less than
(a) unimolecular reaction with first order (c) same as
(b) bimolecular reaction with second order (d) data insufficient; can't be predicted
(c) bimolecular reaction with first order
(d) unimolecular reaction with second order 16. Specific rate constant for a second order reaction
(a) is independent of temperature
12.Concentration of the limiting reactant (with initial concentration of a (b) varies with temperature
moles/liter) after time t is (a-x).Then t for a first order reaction is given by (c) depends on the nature of the reactants
(a) kt = ln a (d) both (b) and (c)
a-x
(b) kt = x 17. The reaction in which rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric
a(a-x) equation is called
(c) kt = ln a-x (a) elementary reaction
a (b) non-elementary reaction
(d) k.t = a (a-x) (c) parallel reaction
X (d) autokinetic reaction

13.Half life period of a chemical reaction is 18. Equilibrium of a chemical reaction as viewed by kinetics is a
(a) the time required to reduce the concentration of the (a) dynamic steady state
reacting substance to half its initial value (b) static steady state
(b) half of the space time of a reaction c (c) dynamic unsteady state
(c) half of the residence time of a reaction (e) none of these
(d) none of these
19. For a zero order reaction, concentration of product increases with
14.Fill up the blanks: (a) increase of reaction time
Half-life period for a first order reaction is....................... the initial (b) increase in initial concentration
concentration of the reactant (c) total pressure
(a) directly proportional to (d) decrease in total pressure
(b) inversely proportional to
20. Fill up the blanks (b) one of the products acts as a catalyst
Arrhenius equation shows the variation of __________with (c) catalyst has very high selectivity
temperature (d) no catalyst is used
(a) Reaction rate
(b) Rate constant 26. With increase in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible
(c) Energy of activation exothermic reaction
(d) Frequency factor (a) decreases
(d) increases
21. The energy of activation of a chemical reaction (c) remain unaffected
(a) is same as heat of reaction at constant pressure (d) decreases linearly with temperature
(b) is the minimum energy which the molecules must have
before the reaction can take place 27. With decrease in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible
(c) varies as fifth power of the temperature endothermic reaction
(d) both (b) and (c) (a) decreases
(b) increases
22. Rate constant 'k' and the absolute temperature T are related by collision (c) remains unaffected
theory (for bimolecular) as (d) increases linearly with temperature
(a) k T 1.5
(b) k e E/RT 28. The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction
(c) k T (a) increases in the presence of catalyst
(b) decreases in the presence of catalyst
(d) k T
(c) remains unaffected in the presence of a catalyst
(d) can either increase or decrease; depends on the type of catalyst
23. Transition state theory relates the above quantities as
(a) k e E/RT 29. Conversion increases with increase in temperature of
(b) k Te E/RT (a) Autocatalytic reaction
(c) k T (b) Irreversible reaction
(d) k T 1.5 (c) Reversible endothermic reaction
(d) Reversible exothermic reaction
24.Reactions with high activation energy are
(a) very temperature sensitive 30. The heat of reaction
(b) temperature insensitive (a) depends on the pressure only
(c) always irreversible (b) depends on the mechanism of reaction only
(d) always reversible (c) depends on both pressure and mechanism of reaction
(d) is independent of the mechanism of reaction
25. In autocalytic reactions
(a) one of the reactants acts as a catalyst 31.Integral method for analyzing the kinetic data is used
 (a) when the data are scattered
(b) for testing specific mechanisms with simple rate expression 37. A batch reactor is characterized by
(c) both (a) and (b) (a) constant residence time
(d) none of these (b) the variation in extent of reaction and properties of the
reaction mixture with time
32. Differential method for analyzing the kinetic data is used (c) variation in reactor volume
(a) for testing complicated mechanisms (d) very low conversion
(b) when the data are scattered
(c) when rate expressions are very simple 38. A plug-flow reactor is characterized by
(d) none of these (a) high capacity
(b) presence of axial mixing
33.Exposure of a photographic plate to produce a latent image is an (c) presence of lateral mixing
example of (d) constant composition and temperature of reaction mixture
(a) Very slow reaction
(b) Very fast reaction 39. In a semi-batch reactor
(c) Photochemical reaction a (a) velocity of reaction can be controlled
(d) Both (b) and (c) (b) maximum conversion can be controlled
b (c) both the as reactants flow counter-currently
34. A trickle bed reactor is one which (e) residence time is constant
(a) has altogether three streams either entering or leaving
(b) processes three reactants at different flow rates 40. A back mix reactor
(c) processes three reactant with same flow rate (a) is same as plug-flow reactor
(d) employs all the three phases (i.e. solid liquid and gas) (b) is same as ideal stirred tank reactor
(c) employs mixing in axial direction only
35.According to Arrhenius equation of temperature dependency of rate (d) is most suitable for gas phase reaction
constant for an elementary reaction
(a) k T 41. In a continuous flow stirred tank reactor the composition of the exit
(b) k e-E/RT stream
(c) k Te-E/RT (a) is same as that in the reactor
(d) none of these (b) is different than that in the reactor
(c) depends upon the flow rate of inlet stream
36. With increases in temperature, the rate constant obeying Arrhenius (d) none of these
equation
(a) increases 42. In an ideal tubular-flow reactor
(b) decreases (a) there is no mixing in longitudinal direction
(c) decreases exponentially with temperature (b) mixing takes place in radial direction
(d) can either increase or decrease, depends on the frequency factor (c) there is a uniform velocity across the radius
 (d) all (a), (b) and (c)
43. Space velocity
(a) describes the extensive operating characteristics of a tubular
flow reactor
(b) is the maximum feed rate per unit volume of reactor for is
given conversion
(c) is a measure of the case of the reaction job
(d) all (a), (b) and (c)
44. A high space velocity means that a given
(a) reaction can be accomplished with small reactor
(b) conversion can be obtained with a high feed rate
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
45. Space time in flow reactor is
(a) usually equal to the residence time
(b) the reciprocal of the space velocity
(c) a measure of its capacity
(d) both (a) and (c)
46. A space-time of 3 hours for a flow reactor means that
(a) the time required to process one reactor volume of feed
(measured at specified conditions) is 3 hour
(b) three reactor volumes of feed can be processed every hour
(c) it takes three hours to dump the entire volume of the reaction
with feed
(d) conversion is cent per cent after three hour
47. Space time equals the mean residence time
(a) when the density of the reaction mixture is constant
(b) for large diameter tubular reactor
(c) for narrow diameter tubular reactor
(d) for CSTR
48. Fluidized bed reactor is characterized by
(a) uniformity of temperature
(b) comparatively smaller equipment
(c) very small pressure drop
(d) absence of continuous catalyst regeneration facility
49. A batch reactor is
(a) suitable for gas-phase reaction on commercial scale
(b) suitable for liquid phase reaction involving small
production rate
(c) least expensive to operate for a given rate
(d) most suitable for very large production rate
50. Which of the following is the most suitable for very high-pressure gas-
phase reaction?
(a) batch reactor
(b) tubular flow reactor
(c) stirred tank reactor
(d) fluidized bed reactor
51. For nearly isothermal operation involving large reaction time in a liquid
phase reaction, the most suitable reactor is
(a) stirred tank reactor
(b) tubular flow reactor
(c) batch reactor
(d) fixed bed reactor
52. A stirred tank reactor compared to tubular-flow reactor provides
(a) more uniform operation condition
(b) permits operation at the optimum temperature for a long
reaction time
(c) higher overall selectivity for a first order consecutive reaction
(d) all (a), (b) and (c)
53. For the same residence time, which will give the maximum conversion?
(a) single stirred tank (v=5liters)
(b) two stirred tank (each of 2.5liters) in series
(c) stirred tank followed by tubular flow reactor (each 2.5liters)
(d) single tubular flow reactor (v=5liters)
 f (d) none of these
54. Oil hydrogenated using nickel catalyst in a 59. In a CSTR
(a) batch reactor (a) reaction rate varies with time
(b) slurry reactor (b) concentration varies with time
(c) fluidized bed reactor (c) both (a) and (b) occur
(d) fixed bed reactor (d) neither (a) nor (b) occurs

55. A second order reaction of the form A+B C is called a pseudo-first 60. The use of space-time is preferred over the mean residence time in the
order reaction when design of
(a) CAO = CBO (a) batch reactor
(b) CAO > CBO (b) ideal tubular-flow reactor
(c) CAO CBO (c) slurry reactor
(d) CBO > CAO (d) CSTR

56. A first order irreversible reaction A B is carried separately in a
constant volume as well as a in a variable volume reactor for a particular
period. It signifies that
(a) both conversion as well as concentration are same in the two
reactors
(b) conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will
be different in the two reactors
(c) both the conversion as well as concentrations will be different
in the two reactors
(d) none of these
57.A space velocity of 5 hour means that
(a) five reactor volumes of feed (at specified conditions) are
being fed into the reactor per hour
(b) after five hours, reactor is being filled with the feed
(c) cent percent conversion can be achieved in at least 5 hours
c (d) a fixed conversion of a given batch of feed takes 5 hours
d (b) CSTR in series
58. Which of the following fixes the volume of a batch reactor for a
particular conversion and production rate?
c (a) operating conditions (e.g. pressure and temperature)
d (b) rate constant
e (c) density of mixture
61. For all positive reaction orders for a particular duty
(a) mixed reactor is always larger than the plug-flow reactor
(b) the ratio of the volume of the mixed reactor to that of the plug-
flow reactor decreases with order
(c) reactor size is independent of the type of flow
(d) density variation during reaction affects design
62. With the same reaction time, initial concentration and feed rate, the
reaction 2A B is carried out separately in CSTR and P.F. reactor of equal
volumes. The conversion will be
(a) higher in P.F. reactor
(b) higher in CSTR
(c) same in both the reactors
(d) data insufficient; cant be predicted
63. For an autocatalytic reactor, the suitable reactor set up is
(a) P.F. reactors in series
(c) CSTR followed by P.F. reactor
(d) P.F. reactor followed by CSTR
64. For multiple reactions, the reaction within the vessel affects the
(a) Size requirement
 (b) Distribution of reaction product (c) Very high temperature should be used throughout the
(c) Both (a) and (b) reaction
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) None of these

65. A first order reaction requires two unequal sized CSTR. Which of the
following gives a higher yield?
(a) Large reactor followed by smaller one
(b) Smaller reactor followed by larger one
(c) Either of the arrangement (a) or (b) will give the same
yield
(d) Data insufficient; cant be predicted
66. A first order reaction requires two equal sized CSTR. The conversion is
(a) Less when they are connected in series
(b) More when they are connected in series
(c) More when they are connected in parallel
(d) Same whether they are connected in series or parallel
67. The concentration of A in a first order reaction A B decreases
(a) Linearly with time
(b) Exponentially with time
(c) Very abruptly toward the end of the reaction
(d) Logarithmically with time
68. Which of the following is most suitable for isothermal reaction ?
(a) Batch reactor
(b) Back-mix reactor
(c) Plug-flow reactor
(d) Fixed bad reactor
69. Which of the following is the optimum operating condition for an
exothermic reversible reaction-taking place in a plug-flow reactor
(a)Temperature should be high in the beginning and
decreased towards the end of the reaction
(b) Very low temperature should be used throughout the
reaction
70. With increase in the space-time of an irreversible isothermal reaction
being carried out in a P.F. reactor, the conversion will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain same
(d) Data sufficient; cant be predicted
71. The optimum performance for reactors operating in parallel is obtained
when the feed stream is distributed in such a way that the
(a) Space time for each parallel line is same
(b) Space time for parallel lines is different
(c) Larger reactors have more space time compared to smaller
ones
(d) None of these
72. Back mixing is most predominant in
g (a) A well stirred reactor
h (b) Plug-flow reactor
i (c) A single CSTR
j (d) CSTR connected in series
k
73. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to
that converted into unwanted product is called
c (a) Operational yield
d (b) Relative yield
e (c) Selectivity
f (d) None of these
g
74. The performance of a cascade of CSTRs can be improved by adding
(a) a P.F. reactor in series
(b) a P.F. reactor in parallel
(c) More CSTRs in series
(d) More CSTRs in parallel
 (d) Both (b) and (c)
80. When all the limiting reactant is consumed in the reaction, the operation
75. An auto thermal reactor is yield
(a) Most suitable for a second order reaction (a) Is greater than relative yield
(b) Most suitable for a reversible reaction (b) Is smaller than relative yield
(c) Completely self supporting in its thermal energy (c) Equals the relative yield
requirements (d) Can be greater or smaller than relative yield, depends on
(d) Isothermal in nature the type of reaction

76. For series reaction,the 81. Design of heterogeneous catalytic reactor involves consideration of
(a) Relative yield is always greater for plug-flow reactor tha) (a) Only chemical steps
for the single CSTR of the same volume (b) Only physical steps
(b) Statement in a is wrong (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Relative yield decreases with increasing conversion (d) Neither (a) and (b)
(d) Both (a) and (c) hold good
82. Pick out the wrong statement
77. When a high liquid hold up is required in a reactor for a gas-liquid (a) A catalyst does not alter the final position of equilibrium
reaction, use in a reversible reaction.
(a) Packed column (b) A catalyst initiate a reaction
(b) Spray column (c) A catalyst is specific in action
(c) Tray column (d) A catalyst remain unchanged in chemical composition at
(d) Bubble column the end of the reaction

78. For reactions in parallel viz. AP (desired product) and AQ
(unwanted product), if the order of the desired reaction is higher than
that of the undesired reaction, a
(a) Batch rector is preferred over a single CSTR for high
yield
(b) Tubular rector is preferred over a single CSTR for high
yield
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) A single CSTR is the most suitable
79. In question 78, high yield would be favored ( for gas phase reactions)
(a) At high pressure
(b) At low pressure
(c) By the presence of the inner gases in the reactant stream
83. Catalyst is a substance which
(a) Increases the speed of chemical reaction
(b) Decreases the speed of chemical reaction
(c) Can either increase or decrease the speed of chemical
reaction
(d) Alters the value of equilibrium constant in a reversible
reaction
84. Catalyst carriers
(a) Have very high selectivity
(b) Increase the activity of a catalyst
(c) Provide large surface area with small amount of
active material
(d) Inhibit catalyst poisoning
 (b) CSTR
85. A catalyst promoter (c) Semi-batch reactor
(a) Improves the activity of a catalyst (d) Plug-flow reactor
(b) Acts as a catalyst support
(c) Itself has very high activity 91 Which of the following factors control the design of a fluid solid
(d) All (a) (b) and (c) reactor?
(a) The reaction kinetics for single particle
86. A catalyst inhibitor (b) The size distribution of solids being treated
(a) Lessens its selectivity (c) Flow patterns of solids and fluids in the reactor
(b) May be useful for suppressing undesirable side reaction (d) All (a) (b) and (c)
(c) Is added in small quantity during the catalyst
manufacture itself 92. Kinetics of solid catalyst reaction can be studied in a
(d) All (a) (b) and (c) (a) Batch reactor
(b) Plug-flow reactor
87. Carbon catalyst accumulated on the catalyst used in the gas oil cracking (c) Mixed reactor
lies in the category of : (d) None of these
(a) Deposited poison
(b) Chemisorbed poison 93. For high conversion in highly exothermic solid catalyzed reaction, use a
(c) Selectivity poison (a) Fixed bed reactor
(d) Stability poison (b) Fluidized bed reactor followed by a fixed bed reactor
(c) Fixed bed reactor followed by a fluidized bed reactor
88. Slurry reactors are characterised by (d) Fluidized bed reactor
(a) Lack of intra-particle diffusion resistance
(b) Presence of two mobile phase 94. In case of staged packed bed reactors carrying out exothermic reaction,
(c) Both (a) and (b) use
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) (a) High recycle for pure glass
(b) Plug flow for dilute liquid require no large preheating of
89. A reaction . A 3 B is conducted in a constant pressure vessel. Starting feed
with pure A, the volume of the reaction mixture increase 3 times in 6 (c) Cold shot operations for a dilute solution requiring large
minutes. The final conversion is preheating to bring the steam up to the reaction
(a) 0.33 temperature
(b) 0.50 (d) All (a) (b) and (c)
(c) 1
(d) Data insufficient, cant be predicted 95. Which of the following will give the maximum gas conversion ?
(a) Fixed bed reactor
90. The most suitable reactor for carrying out an auto-thermal reaction is (b) fluidized reactor
(a) Batch reactor (c) Semi-fluidized reactor
 (d) Plug flow catalytic reactor c. pressure d. concentration
96. Which of the following factors control the deactivation of a porous 2. Which of the following is a thermodynamic property of a system?
catalyst pellet? a. concentration b. mass
(a) Decay reactions c. temperature d. entropy
(b) Pore diffusion
(c) Form of surface attack of poison 3. First law of thermodynamics is mathematically stated as
(d) All (a) (b) and (c) a. dQ = dU + dW b. dQ = dU dW
c. dU = dQ + dW d. dW = dQ dU
97. BET apparatus is used to determine the
(a) Specific surface of porous catalyst 4. First law of thermodynamics deals with
(b) Pore size distribution a. direction of energy transfer b. reversible process
(c) Pore diameter only
(d) Porosity of the catalyst bed c. irreversible processes only d. none of these

98. If pore diffusion is the controlling step in a solid catalyzed reaction the 5. An irreversible process
catalyst a. is the analog of linear frictionless motion in machines
(a) Porosity is very important b. is an idealized visualization of behavior of a system
(b) Porosity is less importance c. yields the maximum amount of work
(c) Internal surface is utilized efficiently d. yields the amount of work less than that of a reversible process.
(d) None of these
6. In a adiabatic process
99. BET apparatus a. heat transfer is zero b. temperature change is zero
(a) Measure the catalyst surface area directly c. work done is a path function d. enthalpy remains constant
(b) Operates at very high pressure
(c) Is made entirely by stainless steel 7. Enthalpy H is defined as
(d) None of these a. H = U PV b. H = U TS
c. H U = PV d. none of these
100. Helium-mercury method can be used to determine the
(a) Pore volume 8. Efficiency of heat engine working on Carnot cycle between two
(b) Solid density temperature levels depends upon
(c) Porosity of catalyst particle a. the two temperatures only b. the pressure of working fluid
(d) All (a) (b) and (c) c. the mass of the working fluid d. both mass and pressure of the
working fluid
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS
9. What is the degree of freedom for a system comprising liquid water
1. Which of the following is an extensive property of a system? equilibrium with its vapor?
a. heat capacity b. molal heat capactiy a. 0 b. 1
 c. 2 d. 3
18. C, for an ideal gas
10. Efficiency of a Carnot engine working between temperatures T1 and T2 a. does not depend upon temperature
(T1 < T2 ) is b. is independent of pressure only
a. (T2 T1) / T2 b. (T2 T1) / T1 c. is independent of volume only
c (T1 T2) / T2 d. (T1 T2) / T1 d. is independent of both pressure and volume
11. For a constant pressure reversible process, the enthalpy ( H) change of
the system is 19. For an isothermal process the internal energy of a gas
a. C vdT b. Cp dT a. increases b. decreases
c. Cp dT d. Cv dT c. remains unchanged d. data insufficient cant be predicted

12. Internal energy of an ideal gas 20. PV = Constant (where, = Cp / C v) is valid for
a. increases with increase in pressure a. Isothermal process b. Isentropic process
b. decreases with increase in temperature c. Isobaric process d. adiabatic process
c. is independent of temperature
d. none of these 21. For an isothermal reversible compression of an ideal gas
a. only U= 0 b. only H = 0
13. Equation which relates pressure, volume, and temperature of a gas is c. U = H = 0 d. dQ dU
called
a. Equation of state b. Gibbs Duhem equation 22. As the time is passing, entropy of the universe
c. ideal gas equation d. none of these a. is increasing b. is decreasing
c. remains constant d. data insufficient, cant be predicted
14. Isobaric process means a constant
a. temperature process b. pressure process 23. Boyles law for gases states that
c. volume process d. entropy process a. P 1/V when temperature is constant
b. P 1/V when temperature and mass of the gas remains
15. Isentropic process means a constant constant
a. enthalpy process b. pressure process
c. P V at a constant temperature and mass of the gas
c. volume process d. none of these
d. P/V = constant, for any gas
16. Throttling process is a constant
24. The equation, PV = nRT is best obeyed by gases at
a. enthalpy process b. entropy process
a. low pressure and high temperature
c. pressure process d. none of these
b. high pressure and low temperature
c. low pressure and low temperature
17. The point at which all three phases co-exist is known as
d. none of these
a. freezing point b. triple point
c. boiling point d. none of these
25. Compressibility factor of a gas is
 a. not a function of pressure b. not a function of its nature a. matter with its surroundings
c. not a function of its temperature d. unity, if it follows PV = nRT b. energy with its surroundings
c. neither matter nor energy with its surroundings
26. Critical compressibility factor for all substances d. both matter and energy with its surroundings.
a. are more less constant(vary from 0.2 to 0.3)
b. vary as square of the absolute temperature 33. Heat of formation of an element in its standard state is
c. vary as square of the absolute pressure a. 0 b. <0
d. none of these c. >0 d. a function of pressure

27. Reduced pressure of a gas is the ratio of its 34. Heat of reaction is
a. pressure to critical pressure a. dependent on pressure only
b. critical pressure to pressure b. dependent on temperature only
c. pressure to pseudocritical pressure c. dependent on both pressure and temperature
d. pseudocritical pressure to pressure d. independent of temperature changes

28. Compressibility factor-reduced pressure plot on reduced coordinates 35. Second law of thermodynamics is concerned with
facilities a. amount of energy transferred
a. use only one graph for all gases b. direction of energy transfer
b. covering of wider range c. irreversible process only
c. easier plotting d. non-cyclic process only
d. more accurate plotting
36. The absolute entropy for all crystalline substances at absolute zero
29. Number of components (C) phase (P) and degrees of freedom (F) are temperature
related by Gibbs phase rule as a. is zero b. is negative
a. P + F C = 2 b. C =P F +2 c. is more than zero d. cant be determined
c. F = C P 2 d. P = F C 2
37. Joule Thomson coefficient is defined as
30. Degrees of freedom at triple point will be a. = ( P/T)H b. = ( T/ P)H
a. 0 b. 1 c. = ( U/ T)H d. ( U/ P)H
c. 2 d. 3
38. Mollier diagram is a plot of
31. Cp Cv = R is valid for a. temperature vs. enthalpy
a. ideal gases b. all gases b. temperature vs. entropy
c. gases at very high pressure d. gases at a very low c. entropy vs. enthalpy
temperature d. temperature vs. internal energy
32. An isolated system can exchange
39. Fill up the blank from among the following: 46. For a constant volume process
Near their critical temperature all gases, occupy volumes that of a. dU = C pdT b. dU = Cv dT
the ideal gas c. dQ = dU + pdV d. dW = pdV
a. less than b. same as
c. more than d. half 47. In a reversible process
a. TdS = dU + dW b. dU dW = TdS
40. Charles law for gases states that c. dW dU = TdS d. TdS dW dU > 0
a. V/T = constant b. V 1/T
c. V 1/P d. PV/T = constant 48. In an irreversible process
a. TdS = UdW = 0 b. dU dW TdS = 0
41. Absolute zero temperature signifies c. TdS dU dW <0 d. TdS dT + dW < 0
a. minimum temperature attainable
b. the temperature of the heat reservoir to which a Carnot engine 49. Cv is given by
rejects all the heat that is taken in a. ( U/ T)v b. ( U/V)T
c. the temperature of the heat reservoir to which a Carnot engine c. ( U/P)v d. (V/ T)P
rejects no heat
d. none of these 50. Third law of thermodynamics is concerned with
a. the value of absolute entropy
42. Entropy is measure of b. energy transfer
a. disorder of a system c. direction of energy transfer
b. orderly behavior of a system d. none of these
c. only temperature changes of the system
d. none of these 51. Which of the following equation is obtained on combining 1 sT and 2nd
law of thermodynamics, for a system of constant mass?
43. For spontaneous changes in an isolated system( S = entropy ) a. dU = TdS PdV b. dQ = Cv dT + PdV
a. dS = 0 b. dS < 0 c. dQ = Cp dT + Vdp d. TdS = dU PdV
c. dS> 0 d. dS = constant
52. The equation TdS = dU PdV applies to
44. For equilibrium process in an isolated system a. single phase fluid of varying composition
a. dS = 0 b. dS < 0 b. single phase fluid of constant composition
c. dS>0 d. dS = constant c. open as well as closed systems
d. both b and c
45. The four properties of a system via P,V,T,S are related by
a. Gibbs-Duhem equation b. Gibbs-Helmholtz 53. For an exothermic reaction
equation a. only enthalpy change (H)is negative
c. Maxwells equation d. none of these b. only internal energy change (U) is negative
 c. both H and U are negative c. (dG)T, p=0 d. (dA)T, v > 0
d. enthalpy change is zero
62. Pick out the correct equation relating G and A
54. If different processes are used to bring about the same chemical a. G = A + PV b. G = U + A
reaction, the enthalpy change is same for all of them. c. G = A TS d. G = A + TS
a. Hesss law b. Kirchhoffs law
c. Lavoisier and Laplace law d. none of these 63. A chemical reaction will occur spontaneously at constant pressure and
temperature, if free energy is
55. Change of heat content when one mole of the compound is burnt in a. zero b. positive
oxygen at constant pressure is called c. negative d. none of these
a. calorific value b. heat of reaction
c. heat of combustion d. heat of formation 64. Clapeyron equation deals with the
a. rate of change of vapor pressure with temperature
56. Melting of wax is accompanied with b. effect of an inert gas on vapor pressure
a. increase in entropy b. decrease in entropy c. calculation of G for spontaneous phase change
c. constant entropy d. none of these d. temperature dependence of least of phase transition

57. Helmholtz free energy is defined as 65. In any spontaneous process

a. A = H TS b. A = U TS a. only G decreases b. only A decreases
c. A = H + TS d. none of these c. both G and A decreases d. both G and A increases

58. Gibbs free energy (G) is defined as 66. Pick out the Claussius-Clayperon equation from the following:
a. G = U TS b. G = H - TS a. dP/dT = H/T V b. ln P = - H/ RT + constant
c. G = H + TS d. G = U+ TS c. G = H + T[ ( G)/T]P d. none of these

59. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation is 67. Free energy charges for two reaction mechanism X and Y are
a. G = H + T[ ( G)/ T]P respectively 15 and 5 units. It implies that X is
b. G = H TT a. slower than Y b. faster than Y
c. d(U TS)T ,V <0 c. three times slower than Y d. three times faster than Y
d. dP/dT = HVAP/ TVVAP
68. Chemical potential is
60. For a reversible process involving only pressure volume work a. an extensive property
a. (dG)T, p<0 b. (dG)T, p>0 b. an intensive property
c. (dG)T, p=0 d. (dA)T, v > 0 c. a force which derives the chemical system to equilibrium
d. both b and c
61. For an irreversible process involving only pressure volume work
a. (dG)T, p<0 b. (dG)T, p>0 69. Chemical potential of its component of a system is given by
 a. i = ( G/ni)T,P,ni b. i = ( A/ni)T,P,ni
c. i = ( G/ni)T,P d. i = ( A/ni)T,P 76. The activity of an ideal gas is numerically
a. more than it pressure b. less than its pressure
70. Fill up the blanks from among the following alternatives; c. equal to its pressure d. data insufficient cant be predicted
The chemical potential for a pure substance .. its partial molal free
energy 77. Maximum work that could be secured by expanding the gas over a
a. more than b. less than given pressure range is the
c. equal to d. not related to a. isothermal work b. adiabatic work
c. isentropic work d. none of these
71. Partial molal quantities are important in the study of
a. ideal gases b. ideal solutions 78. The point at which both liquid and gas phases are identical is called
c. non-ideal mixtures d. a pure component a. critical point b. triple point
c. freezing point d. boiling point
72. Fugacity and pressure are numerically equal when the gas is
a. in standard state b. at high temperature 79. Equilibrium constant of a reaction varies with
c. at low temperature d. in ideal state a. initial concentration of the reactant b. pressure
c. temperature d. none of these
73. The relation connecting the fugacities of various components in a
solution with one another and to composition at constant temperature 80. For an ideal solution, the value of activity coefficient is
and pressure is called a. 0 b. 1
a. Gibbs-Duhem equation b. Van Laar equation c. <1 d. >1
c. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation d. Margules equation
81. Fugacity coefficient of a substance is the ratio of its fugacity to
74. The necessary condition for phase equilibrium in a multiphase system a. mole fraction b. activity
of N components is the c. pressure d. activity coefficient
a. chemical potential of all components should be equal in all
phases 82. Van Laar equation deals with activity coefficients in
b. chemical potentials of all components should be same in a a. binary solution b. ternary solution
particular phase c. azeotropic mixture only d. none of these
c. sum of the chemical potentials of any given component in all the
phases should be the same 83. In Joule-Thomson porous plug experiment
d. none of these a. enthalpy does not remain constant
b. the entire apparatus is exposed to surroundings
75. Which of the following is not affected by temperature changes c. temperature remains constant
a. fugacity b. activity co-efficient d. none of these
c. free energy d. none of these
84. Equilibrium constant 90. In a working refrigerator value of COP is always
a. decreases as the temperature increases for an exothermic a. 0 b. <0
reaction c. <1 d. >1
b. decreases as the temperature decreases for an exothermic reaction
c. will decrease with increasing temperature for a exothermic reaction 91. One ton of refrigeration capacity is equivalent to
d. none of these a. 50 k cal/hr b. 200 BTU/hr
c. 200 BTU/minute d. 200 BTU/day
85. As the entropy of the universe is increasing day by day the work
producing capacity of a heat engine is 92. Which of the following have minimum value of COP for a given
a. not changed b. decreasing refrigeration effect?
c. increasing d. data insufficient cant be predicted a. reverse Carnot cycle
b. ordinary vapor compression cycle
86. Refrigeration cycle c. vapor compression process with a reversible expansion engine
a. violates second law of thermodynamics d. air refrigeration cycle
b. involves transfer of heat from low temperature to high
temperature 93. An ideal refrigerant should
c. both a and b a. not have a subatmosphere vapor pressure at the temperature in the
d. d. none of these refrigerator coils
b. not have unduly high vapor pressure at the condenser temp.
87. Ideal refrigeration cycle is c. both a and b
a. same as Carnot d. none of these
b. same as reverse Carnot cycle
c. dependent on refrigerant properties 94. Heat pump
b. the least efficient of all refrigeration processes a. accomplishes only space heating in winter
b. accomplishes only space cooling in summer
88. Fundamental principle of refrigeration is based on c. accomplishes both a and b
a. zeroth law of thermodynamics d. work on Carnot cycle
b. first law of thermodynamics
c. second law of thermodynamics 95. Which of the following is not a common refrigerant
d. third law of thermodynamics a. freon 12 b. ethylene
c. ammonia d. carbon dioxide
89. Coefficient of Performance (COP) of a refrigerator is the ratio of
a. work required to refrigeration obtained 96. Domestic refrigerator usually works on
b. refrigeration obtained to the work required a. Carnot refrigeration cycle
c. lower to higher temperature b. A refrigeration cycle
d. higher to lower temperature c. Absorption refrigeration cycle
 d. Vapor ejection refrigeration (a) smoke formation
97. Refrigerants commonly used for domestic refrigerations are (b) high gas temperature
a. ethyl chloride b. freon 12 (c) high percentage of oxygen in flue gas
c. propane d. CO2 (d) high carbon monoxide content in flue gas

98. Air refrigeration cycle 4. For maximum discharge through a chimney, its height should be
a. is most efficient of all refrigeration (a) 200 meters
b. has very low efficiency (b) infinitely long
c. requires relatively quantities of air to achieve a significant amount (c) more than 105.7 meters
of refrigeration (d) equal to the height of the hot gas column producing draught
d. both b and c
5. Oxygen percentage (by weight) in atmospheric air is
99. Coefficient to performance for a reversed Carnot cycle working (a) 19 (b) 21
between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1> T2) is (c) 23 (d) 29
a. T2 /(T1 - T2) b. T1 /(T1 T2)
c. (T2 T1) / T1 d. (T1 T2) /T2 6. Stack (chimney) height in a big thermal power plant is dictated by
(a) pollution control aspect
100.Dry ice is (b) draught to be created
a. moisture free ice b. solid helium (c) limitation of constructional facilities
c. solid carbon dioxide d. none of these (d) none of these

7. A particular coal is said to be free burning when it

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING CALCULATIONS (a) burns completely (b) gives smokeless burning
(c) shows little or no fusing action (d) none of these

1. In flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus, carbon monoxide is absorbed 8. As time passes, the calorific value of stored coal
by (a) decreases
(a) cuprous chloride (b) potassium hydroxide (b) increases
(c) alkaline pyrogallol solution (d) none of these (c) remains unaltered
(d) may increase or decrease (depends on the method of storage)
2. Calorific value as determined by bomb calorimeter is
(a) higher calorific value at constant volume 9. Emission of dense white smoke out of chimney of a thermal power
(b) gross calorific value at constant pressure plant is an indication of the use of
(c) lower calorific value at constant pressure (a) less air for combustion (b) correct amount of air for combustion
(d) net calorific value at constant volume (c) too much air for combustion (d) pulverized coal in boilers

3. Incomplete combustion of a fuel is characterized by 10. Use of pulverized coal in boiler furnace provides
 (a) high calorific value (b) better combustion 17. In case pulverized coal from steam boiler, the secondary air serves the
(c) smokeless burning (d) pulverized coal main purpose of
(a) transportation of coal
11. Which of the following fuels is best for burning on chain grate smoker? (b) drying of coal
(a) non caking coal (b) caking coal (c) combustion of coal by supplying in around the burner
(c) coking coal (d) pulverized coal (d) pre-heating the primary air

12. Which of the following accounts for maximum energy loss in a boiler 18. The main function of primary air in pulverized coal fired burner is to
(a) flue gases (b) ash content in the fuel (a) burn CO to CO2
(c) incomplete combustion (d) unburnt carbon in flue gases (b) dry transport of the coal
(c) have proper combustion by supplying it around the burner
13. Over-fire burning in a furnace is a phenomenon characterized by (d) pre-heat the tertiary air used for complete combustion of CO to
(a) supply of excess fuel CO2
(b) supply of excess air
(c) burning carbon monoxide and other incombustible in upper zone 19. The advantage of firing pulverized coal in the furnace lies in the fact
of furnace by that if
supplying more air (a) permits the use of high ash content of coal
(d) none of these (b) permits the use of low fusion point ash coal
(c) accelerates the burning rate and economizes on fuel
14. When steam is passed over coal resulting in the endothermic reaction combustion
(C + H2O ----- CO + H2), it is called (d) all of the above
(a) carbonization of coal (b) oxidation of coal
(c) coalification (d) gasification of 20. Orsat apparatus is meant for
coal (a) gravimetric analysis of flue gas
(b) finding out combustion efficiency
15. Fischer-Tropsch method aims at (c) direct determination of nitrogen in flue gas by absorbing it in
(a) gasification of coal ammoniacal cuprous chloride
(b) synthesis of gasoline (from water gas) (d) none of these
(c) hydrogenation of coal to produce gasoline
(d) none of these 21. Pick out the wrong statement
(a) Theoretical flame temperature is temperature attained by the
16. Commercial production of petrol from coal (as practiced in a factory at products of combustion when the fuel is burned without loss or
Sasol in South Africa) is done by gain of heat
(a) hydrogenation of coal (b) gasification of coal (b) Burning the fuel with theoretically required amount of pure oxygen
(c) carbonization of coal (d) none of these results in attainment of maximum adiabatic flame temperature
(c) Burning the fuel with excess pure oxygen results in maximum
theoretical flame temperature
 (d) Adiabatic flame temperatures of actual combustions are always (c) does not alter its calorific value (d) is not possible on
less than maximum values commercial scale
22. The maximum adiabatic flame temperature in air compared to that in 28. With increase in calorific value of fuels, their adiabatic flame
pure oxygen is temperatures
(a) much lower (a) increase
(b) much higher (b) decrease
(c) same (c) remain unchanged
(d) either lower or higher, depends on the type of fuel (d) may increase or decrease; depends on the quantity of products
of combustion
23. Adiabatic flame temperature of a fuel is dependant on the initial
temperature of 29. Grindability index of a coal is 100. It implies that the
(a) the fuel (b) the air (a) coal can be pulverized with great difficulty
(c) both fuel and the air (d) neither fuel nor the air (b) coal cant be pulverized
(c) coal can easily be pulverized
24. Preheating of (d) power consumption in grinding the coal will be very high
(a) the gaseous fuel before combustion decreases the flame
temperature 30. If the specific heat of gaseous products of combustion of a fuel is high,
(b) Combustion air decreases the flame temperature the adiabatic flame temperature will be
(c) either the fuel or the air or both increases the flame (a) low
temperature (b) high
(d) either the fuel or the air does not affect the flame temperature (c) very high if fuel is of low calorific value
(d) none of these
25. The fuel ratio of a coal is
(a) the ratio of its percentage of fixed carbon to that of volatile matter 31. Calorific value (kcal/kg) of dry wood may be around
(b) helpful in estimation of its rank (a) 5 (b) 50
(c) both (a) and (b) (c) 500 (d) 5000
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
32. A coal containing high amount of volatile matter will have
26. A fuel containing carbon and carbon monoxide (but containing the (a) low ignition temperature (b) very little content
hydrogen or its compounds) is burnt in pure oxygen at constant (c) high fusion point of its ash (d)low adiabatic flame temperature
pressure. Its gross calorific value as compared to the net calorific value
will be 33. Steam is intermittently admitted in to the fuel bed during the production
(a) more (b) less of producer gas to
(c) same (d) data insufficient; cant be predicted (a) convert CO to CO2
(b) increase in combustion rate
27. Removal of hydrogen from coke oven gas (c) increase the gas production rate
(a) increases its calorific value (b) decreases its calorific value (d) minimize the chances of clinker formation
 (c) 3000 Nm3 (d) 30,000 Nm3
40. Coke oven gas is a better fuel than blast furnace gas because of its
34.Which of the following is called blue gas?
higher
(a) coke oven gas
(a) calorific value, cleanliness and relatively low distribution cost (due
(b) water gas
to its low specific gravity)
(c) natural gas
(b) adiabatic flame temperature
(d) producer gas (produced using Kopper Totzek gasifier). (c) heat release rate (thus requiring smaller combustion chamber)
(d) all of the above
35. During combustion of gaseous fuel deficiency of air
(a) lengthens the flame (b) tends to shorten
the flame 41. Which of the following constituents of fuel does not contribute to its
calorific value on combustion
(c) does not affect the flame length (d) increases the flame
temperature (a) hydrogen (b) sulfur
36. Use of excess of combustion air in the combustion of fuels results in (c) carbon (d) none of these
(a) heat losses 42. Combustion of pulverized coal as compared to that of lump coal
(b) long flame
(a) develops a non-luminous flame (b) develops a low temperature
(c) condensation of water vapor from the flue gas flame
(d) none of these (c) can be done with less excess air (d) provides a lower rate of
heat release
37. A gaseous fuel in order to develop luminosity on burning, must contain
43. Which of the following is the most important deterrents to an extended
(a) carbon monoxide (b) hydrocarbons use of pulverized coal in boiler firing?
(c) hydrogen (d) oxygen (a) ash disposal problem
38. Preheating of gaseous fuel results in increased (b) excessive fly-ash discharge from the stack
(c) high power consumption in its transportation
(a) flame length (b) flame (d) erosion of induced draft fan blades
temperature 44. Pulverized coal used in boiler firing need have
(c) quantum of flue gas (d) ignition (a) less moisture content (b) high fusion point
temperature of its ash
39. Quantity of coke oven gas produced by high temperature carbonization (c) high bulk density (d) lower ash constant
of one ton of dry coal may be around
45. Dry air required to burn one lb of carbon completely may be around
(a) 30 Nm3 (b) 300 Nm3
 (a) 11.5 lb (b) 2.67 lb 53. Ash content in the coke produced from a coking coal having 20% ash
may be around
(c) 16 lb (d) none of these
3 (a) 5% (b) 2%
46. Dry air requirement for burning 1 ft of CO to CO2 may be around
(c)17% (d) 25%
(a) 2.4 ft3 (b) 1.75 ft3
54. Out of the following fuels, the difference between the net and gross
(c) 0.87 ft3 (d) 11.4 ft3
calorific value is maximum in case of
47. Washing of coal
(a) pitch (b) fuel oil
(a) reduces its sulfur and ash content
(c) blast furnace gas (d) bituminous gas
(b) controls its ash fusibility and increases its calorific value
(c) improves its coking properties 55. Spontaneous combustion of coal on storage results due to
(d) all (a), (b), and (c)
(a) inadequate ventilation
(b) low temperature oxidation
48. Which of the following has the highest gross calorific value?
(c) storage in large heaps with small surface to volume ratio
(a) blast furnace gas (b) coke oven gas (d) all (a), (b) and (c)
56. Low temperature oxidation of coal resulting from bad storage conditions
(c) carburetted water gas (d) oil refinery gas
does not decrease its
49. Most of coking coals are
(a) caking power (b) calorific value
(a) anthracite coal (b) bituminous coal
(c) hydrogen content (d) oxygen content
(c) lignite (d) none of these
57. Efficient burning of anthracite coal requires
50. High excess air in combustion of fuels results in
(a) low preheat of air (b) fine grinding
(a) increased fuel consumption (b) incomplete combustion
(c) high excess air (d) all (a), (b) and (c)
(c) smoky flame (d) none of these
58. Rate of temperature oxidation of coal due to bad storage conditions
51. Atomizing steam to fuel oil ratio in a burner should be around
(a) decrease with increase in surface area
(a) 0.5 (b) 2 (b) does not vary with increase in surface area
(c) is more for low volatile coal compared to high volatile coal
(c) 3 (d) 5 (d) is accelerated by storage in large heaps with small surface to
52. For every 10% increase in the excess air; the fuel consumption increases volume ratio
by
(a) 0.1% (b) 2%
(c) 5% (d) 10%
59. Fusion of point coal ash increases in its 65. Highly caking coals
(a) iron sulfate content (b) iron silicate content (a) produce weak coke
(b) produce strong coke
(c) lime and magnesia content (d) all (a), (b) and (c)
(c) may damage the coke oven walls during carbonization
60. Which of the following accentuates clinkering trouble on furnace grate (d) both (b) and (c)
burning coal
66. Presence of free moisture in coal during its high temperature
(a) low density of carbonized residue containing high proportions of carbonization
iron and sulfur
(b) low forced draught and fuel bed temperature (a) reduces the coking time
(c) thick fire and preheated primary air (b) protects the volatile products from pyrolysis (cracking) in the
(d) all (a), (b) and (c) presence of hot coke and hot oven walls
(c) increases the loss of fine coal dust from the ovens when charging
61. A coal having high ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon as compared (d) none of these
to a coal having low ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon
67. Higher percentage of ash in coal meant for the production of
(a) is less liable to spontaneous combustion on storage metallurgical grade coke
(b) is more difficult to ignite and produces a shorter flame
(c) requires smaller combustion space and less secondary air (a) increases the hardness of coke
(d) none of these (b) increases the abrasion resistance of coke
(c) causes brittleness in steel
62. Which of the following can be made into briquettes without the use of a (d) none of these
binder
68. Increases in ash content of blast furnace coke
(a) lignite (b) bituminous coal
(a) reduces its consumption in the furnace
(c) anthracite coal (d) none of these (b) increases its consumption in the furnace
63. Presence of free moisture in coal is most disadvantageous during (c) does not affect its consumption in the furnace
(d) decreases its hardness and abrasion resistance
(a) its pulverization (as it requires more power)
(b) combustion of fine slacks on the grates 69. High sulfur content in a fuel
(c) handling (e.g. when emptying wagons) (a) increases the dew point of the flue gases
(d) none of these (b) decreases the dew point of the flue gases
(c) reduces combustion efficiency by limiting the permissible
64. Which of the following is not a binder for coal briquetting? temperature reduction of the flue gases
(a) coal tar (b) bitumen (d) both (a) and (c)
(c) molasses (d) none of these
70. With the increase in carbonization temperature 75. Which of the following constituents of coal is most important in the
production of coke
(a) gas yield increases
(a) moisture (b) ash
(b) tar yield increases
(c) volatiles (d) carbon
(c) hydrogen percentage in the coke oven gas decreases
76. Which of the following is most reactive (as regards the formation of CO
(d) methane percentage in the coke oven gas increases
+ H2 from C + H2O)?
71. Fill up the blank
(a) blast furnace coke (b) low temperature coke
With increase in time of carbonization at a particular temperature (say
(c) anthracite coal (d) sub-bituminous coal
1000C ), the . percentage in coke oven gas increases
77. A coal that softens and fuses on heating in
(a) hydrogen (b) methane
(a) classified (b) carbonized
(c) unsaturates (d) all (a), (b) and (c)
(c) caking (d) non-caking
72. Producer gas containing least amount of tar is produced by
78. Purity of coke means that it is high in carbon and low in
(a) partial combustion of coal
(b) partial combustion of large size (<50mm) (a) volatiles (b) ash
(c) high pressure gasification of coal (e.g. in Lurgi gasifier) (c) iron (d) moisture
(d) atmospheric pressure gasification of coal (e.g., in Kopper-Totzek
gasifier) 79. Calorific value (kcal/Nm3) of coke oven furnace gas is around
(a) 900 (b) 4500
73. High temperature in gasification of coal favors
(c) 7500 (d) 2000
(a) high production of CO2
(b) low production of CO2 80. Calorific value (kcal/Nm3) of blast furnace gas is around
(c) high production of CO
(a) 900 (b) 1800
(d) both (b) and (c)
(c) 4500 (d) 6500
74. Lurgi gasifier (high pressure gasifier) as compared to Kopper-Totzek
81. Blast furnace gas is a very poisonous gas because of its predominantly
gasifier (atmospheric pressure gasifier) produces
high
(a) higher amount of methane
(a) H2S content (b) CO2 content
(b) lower amount of hydrogen
(c) both (a) and (b) (c) CO content (d) CH4 content
(d) higher amount of both methane and hydrogen
82. Percentage of carbon monoxide in blast furnace gas may be around
(a) 0.5 (b) 5
 (c) 20 (d) 55 (a) Nickel (b) Zinc oxide
83. Percentage of hydrogen in coke oven gas may be around (c) Alumina (d) Thorium oxide
(a) 1 (b) 5 91. In the flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus, oxygen is absorbed by
(c) 20 (d) 50 (a) potassium hydroxide (b) cuprous chloride
84. Percentage of methane in coke oven gas may be around (c) alkaline pyrogallol solution (d) none of these
(a) 1 (b) 10 92. In flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus, carbon dioxide is absorbed by
(c) 25 (d) 55 (a) potassium hydroxide (b) dilute potassium carbonate
85. Coke oven gas compared to blast furnace gas is (c) cuprous chloride (d) alkaline pyrogallol solution
(a) more explosive and inflammable (b) less poisonous 93. The sequence of absorption in flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus is
(c) lighter (d) all (a), (b) and (c) respectively
(a) CO2, O2, CO (b) CO, O2, CO2
86. Which of the following gases will require maximum amount of air for (c) CO2, CO, O2 (d) O2, CO2, CO
combustion of 1 Nm3 gas?
94. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) blast furnace gas (b) natural gas
(a) lignite (b) sub-bituminous
(c) producer gas (d) water gas coal
87. Which of the following will generate maximum volume of product of (c) anthracite (d) peat
complete combustion (Nm3/Nm3 of fuel)?
95. The main product of high temperature carbonization is
(a) carburetted water gas (b) blast furnace gas
(a) coke (b) ammonia
(c) natural gas (d) producers gas
(c) tar (d) coke oven gas
88. Which is the heaviest fuel gas out of the following?
(a) blast furnace gas (b) coke oven gas
96. High temperature carbonization produces
(c) water gas (d) carburetted water gas
(a) inferior coke compared to low temperature carbonization
89. Fuel can be defined as a substance which produces heat by (b) less of gases compared to liquid products
(a) combustion (b) nuclear fission (c) large quantity of tar compared to low temperature carbonization
(d) none of these
(c) nuclear fusion (d) all (a), (b) and (c) 97. High temperature carbonization takes place at
90. Catalyst used in Fisher-Tropsch process is
 (a) 2000C (b) 600 C (a) yields acid of higher concentration than chamber process
(b) yields acids of lower concentration than chamber process
(c) 1100 C (d) 1600 C (c) is obsolete
98. Low temperature carbonization takes place at (d) eliminates absorber

(a) 300 C (b) 1100 C 4. 20% Oleum means that in 100 lb., there are 20 lb. of
(a) SO3 and 80 lb of H2SO4
(c) 500-650 C (d) 150 C (b) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
99. Proximate analysis of determines (c) SO3 for each 100 lb of H2SO4
(d) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
(a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter 5. Producer gas consists mainly of
(b) moisture, volatile matter, ash, fixed carbon (a) CO, CO2, N2, H2
(c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon (b) CO, H2
(d) none of these (c) H2, CH4
100. Ultimate analysis of coal determines (d) C2H2, CO2, H2
(a) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur 6. Oxygen is produced by fraction of air using
(b) carbon, ash, sulfur, nitrogen (a) Linde's process
(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash (b) Claude's process
(d) carbon, volatile matter, ash, moisture (c) both Linde's and Claude's process
(d) Bayer's process
7. Raw materials for 'Solvay Process' for manufacture of the soda ash are
CHEMICAL PROCESS INDUSTRIES (a) salt, limestone ,ammonia and coke oven gas
(b) ammonia, salt and limestone
1. Catalysts used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by chamber and (c) ammonia, limestone and coke
contact processes are (d) ammonia and coke oven gas
respectively 8. Economics of 'Solvay Process" depends upon the efficiency of
(a) V2O5 and Cr2O3 (a) carbonating tower
(b) Oxides of nitrogen and Cr2O3 (b) ammonia recovery
(c) V2O5 on a porous carrier and oxides of nitrogen (c) ammonia recovery and size of plant
(d) oxides of nitrogen and V2O5 on a porous carrier (d) ammoniation of salt solution
2. In contact process, SO3 is absorbed in 97% H2SO4 and not in water 9. Mercury cells for caustic soda manufacture compared to diaphragm cells
because (a) require lower initial investment
(a) SO3 gas is sparingly soluble in water (b) require more power
(b) water forms an acid mist which is difficult to absorb (c) produce lower concentration of NaOH
(c) the purity of acid is affected (d) none of these
(d) scale formation in absorber is to be avoided 10. Cement mainly contains
3. Contact process (a)CaO, SiO2, Al2O3
b (b) MgO, SiO2, K2O 17. Oil is
(c) Al2O3, MgO, Fe2O3 (a) a mixture of glycerides
(d) CaO, MgO, K2O (b) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids
(c) solid at normal temperature
(d) ester of alcohols other than glycerin
18. Wax is
11. Gypsum is (a) a mixture of glycerides
(a) calcium chloride (b) a mixture of esters of polyhydric alcohols except glycerin
(b) potassium sulfate (c) liquid at room temperature
(c) sodium sulfate (d) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids
(d) calcium sulfate
12. Glauber's salt is
(a) calcium sulfate
(b) potassium sulfate 19. Unsaturated oils compared to saturated oils have
(c) potassium chlorate (a) lower melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen
(d) sodium sulfate decahydrate (b) higher melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen
13. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of calcium and (c) lower melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen
magnesium (d) higher melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen
(a) bi-carbonates 20. Rancidity of oil can be reduced by
(b) sulfates and chlorides (a) decoloration
(c) carbonate (b) hydrogenation
(d) chlorides (c) oxidation
14. Widely used method for conditioning of boiler feed water is (d) purification
(a) cold lime process 21. Solvent used for extraction of oil is
(b) coagulation (a) hexane
(c) hot-lime soda process (b) methyl ethyl ketone
(d) sequestration (c) furfural
15. Hydrazine is largely used (d) benzene
(a) as a starting material for 'hypo' 22. Solvent extracted oil
(b) in photographic industry (a) has low free fatty acid-content
(c) as rocket fuel (b) is odorless
(d) in printing industry (c) has more of unsaturated oil
16. Trinitro-toluene is (d) none of these
(a) used in glycerin manufacture 23. Hydrogenation of oil does not
(b) an explosive (a) remove double bonds
(c) used in dye manufacture (b) rise in melting point
(d) used in paint manufacture (c) improve its resistance oxidation
 (d) none of these b (b) act as anti-redeposition agent
24. Catalyst used in hydrogenation of oil is (c) act as corrosion inhibitor
(a) nickel (d) acts as fabric brightener
(b) platinum 31. Bio-degradable detergents
(c) iron (a) can be readily oxidized
(d) alumina (b) pose problem in sewerage plant
25. Soaps remove dirt by (c) have an isoparaffinic structure
(a) increasing the surface tension (d) should not be used as it spoils the cloth
(b) decreasing wettability 32. Which of the following is a detergent?
(c) supplying hydrophilic group (a) fatty alcohol
(d) none of these (b) alkyl benzene sulfonate
26. Metallic soap is (c) fatty acids
(a) sodium salt of fatty acids (d) methyl chloride
(b) potassium salt of fatty acids 33. Yellow glycerin is made into white, using
(c) both sodium and potassium salt of fatty acids (a) activated carbon
(d) aluminum or calcium salt of fatty acids (b) diatomaceous earth
(c) bauxite
(d) bentonite
34. Essential oils are usually obtained using
(a) steam distillation
27. Fat splitting catalyst is (b) extractive distillation
(a) CaCO3 (c) solvent extraction
(b) ZnO (d) leaching
(c) alumina
(d) iron
28. Free alkali in toilet soap is
(a) less than that in a laundry soap
(b) more than that in a laundry soap 35. Plasticizers are added to paints to
(c) same as that in a laundry soap (a) make it corrosion resistant
(d) not present in laundry soap (b) make glossy surface
29. Soap cannot be used with hard water because (c) give elasticity and prevent cracking of the film
(a) hard water contains sulfate (d) increase atmospheric oxidation
(b) they form insoluble calcium soaps which precipitate 36. Which oil is preferred for paint manufacture?
(c) they attract back the removed dirt (a) drying oil
(d) they increase the surface tension (b) non-drying oil
30. Builders are added in soap to (c) semi-drying oil
(a) boost cleaning power (d) saturated oil
37. Function of thinner in a paint is to (c) sodium sulfite, sodium sulfide
(a) accelerate the oxidation of oil (d) and sodium carbonate
(b) prevent gelling of the paint 44. Comparing sulfate process with sulfite process, we find that
(c) suspend pigments and dissolve film-forming materials (a) both temperature and pressure in former is less than that in the
(d) form a protective film latter
38. Varnish does not contain (b) both temperature and pressure in former is more than that in
(a) pigment the latter
(b) thinner (c) temperature is more in former whereas pressure is more in the
(c) dryer latter
(d) anti-skinning agent (d) pressure is more in the former whereas temperature is less in the
39. Enamels latter
(a) give good glossy finish 45. Cooking liquor in case of sulfite process is
(b) are same as varnish (a) sodium sulfite and sodium bisulfite
(c) are prepared from non-drying oil (b) magnesium sulfite and free SO2 in acid medium
(d) do not contain pigment (c) magnesium sulfate and magnesium bicarbonate
40. SO2 is bubbled through hot sugar-cane juice to (d) sodium bisulfite
(a) act as an acidifying agent 46. Which is a high-grade pulp?
(b) increase its concentration (a) rag pulp
(c) increase the amount of molasses (b) mechanical pulp
(d) increase the crystal size (c) sulfate pulp
41. Molasses is the starting material for (d) sulfite pulp
(a) alcohol 47. Which of the following paper does not require a filler during
(b) essential oil manufacture?
(c) fatty acids (a) bond paper
(d) ether (b) writing paper
42. The ideal pulp for the manufacture of paper should have high (c) blotting paper
(a) cellulose content (d) colored paper
(b) lignin content 48. Bleaching of paper pulp is done with
(c) both (a) and (b) (a) activated clay
(d) neither (a) nor (b) (b) bromine
(c) chlorine or chlorine dioxide
(d) magnesium sulfite
49. Sizing material is incorporated in paper to
43. In Kraft process of paper manufacture, white cooking liquor consists of (a) impart resistance to penetration by liquids
caustic soda (b) increase its thickness
(a) sodium sulfide, sodium carbonate (c) increase its flexibility and opacity
(b) sodium sulfite, sodium carbonate (d) increase its brightness
50. Viscose rayon is (c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon
(a) cellulose nitrate (d) carbon, hydrogen, ash
(b) regenerated cellulose nitrate 57. Ultimate analysis of coal determines
(c) regenerated cellulose acetate (a) moisture, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur
(d) regenerated cellulose fiber (b) carbon, ash, sulfur,nitrogen
(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash
(d) carbon,volatile matter, ash, moisture
51. Which of the following coal has the highest calorific value? 58. Washing of coal is done to
(a) Lignite (a) remove the inherent impurities
(b) Sub-bituminous (b) remove the adhering impurities
(c) Anthracite (c) reduce the ash content
(d) Peat (d) both b and c
52. The main product of high temperature carbonization is
(a) Coke
(b) Ammonia 59. A good quality coal should have
(c) Tar (a) low fusion point of ash
(d) Phenol (b) high ash content
53. High temperature carbonization produces c (c) high sulfur content
(a) inferior coke compared to low temperature carbonization d (d) none of these
(b) less of gases compared to liquid products 60. Coke oven gas consists mainly of
(c) larger quantity of tar compared to low temperature carbonization (a) H2, CH4
(d) relatively low tar and yields of gaseous products are larger (b) CO, CO2
than the yield of liquid (c) H2, CO
products (d) CH4, CO
54. High temperature carbonization takes place at 61. Lurgi coal gasifier is a pressurized
(a) 4000 - 5000F (a) moving bed reactor
(b) 950F (b) fixed bed reactor
(c) > 1650F (c) fluidized bed reactor
(d) < 1000F (d) entrained bed reactor
55. Low temperature carbonization takes place at 62. In Lurgi gasifier
(a) 500F (a) cooking coals cannot be used
(b) 1300F (b) low carbon conversion efficiency is achieved
(c) 750 - 1100F (c) entrainment of solids is higher
(d) 2500 F (d) large quantity of coal can be processed
56. Proximate analysis of coal determines 63. The catalyst used in shift converter is
(a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter (a) nickel
(b) moisture, volatile matter (b) vanadium
 (c) silica gel
(d) alumina
64. The gasification reaction C + H2O
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) catalytic
(d) autocatalytic
65. The combustion reaction C + O2
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) autocatalytic
(d) catalytic
66. Kopper-Totzek coal gasifier
(a) can give ammonia synthesis gas
(b) is a moving bed reactor
(c) cannot use cooking coal
(d) operate at very high pressure
67. Acrylonitrile is mainly used in
(a) polymer industry
(b) printing industry
(c) dyeing industry
(d) photographic industry
68. The major use of butadiene is
(a) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester
(b) in the manufacture of synthetic rubber
(c) as an anti-skinning agent in paint
(d) as corrosion inhibitor
69. Phenol is mainly used
(a) to produce benzene
(b) to produce phenol formaldehyde
(c) to produce polyester resin
(d) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester
70. Phthalic anhydride is made by
(a) Oxidation of naphthalene
(b) Oxidation of benzene
(c) Dehydrogenation of ethyl benzene
CO + H2 is (d) Oxidation of toluene
71. Trinitrotoluene (TNT), an explosive, is made by nitration of
(a) nitrobenzene
(b) toluene
(c) nitrotoluene
(d) benzene
CO2 is 72. Which is the most suitable dye for synthetic fibers?
(a) acid dye
(b) azoic dye
(c) pigment dye
(d) mordant dye
73. Fumigant insecticides
(a) kill insects when they eat it
(b) emit poisonous vapor
(c) are absorbed throughout the plant
(d) are stomach poisons
74. Systemics insecticides
(a) are absorbed throughout the plant
(b) kill insects following external bodily contact
(c) are stomach poisons
(d) emit poisonous vapor
75. DDT stands
(a) diethyl-diphenyl-trichloromethane
(b) dichloro-diphenyl-trichloromethane
(c) diphenyl-dichloro-trichloromethane
(d) dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane
76. BHC (Benzene hexa-chloride) is made by chlorination of benzene
(a) which is an addition reaction
(b) which is a substitution reaction
(c) in absolute dark
(d) in presence of sunlight
77. Analgesic drugs are (c) a fibrous material
(a) pain relievers (d) chemically active
(b) antibiotics 84. Phenol formaldehyde
(c) used in the treatment of TB (a) employs addition polymerization
(d) used in the treatment of typhoid (b) employs condensation polymerization
78. Antibiotic (c) is a monomer
(a) prohibits/destroys the growth of micro-organism (d) is an abrasive material
(b) is used as pain reliever 85. Epoxy resin
e (c) is an anti-malaria (a) is a good adhesive
(d) is an anaesthetic (b) is an elastomer
79. Penicillin is made employing (c) cannot be used on surface coatings
(a) continuous fermentation process (d) is a polyester
(b) aerobic batch fermentation 86. Vulcanization of rubber
(c) anaerobic batch fermentation (a) decreases its tensile strength
(d) aerobic or anaerobic batch fermentation (b) increases its ozone and oxygen reactivity
80. Which of the following is not an antibiotic? (c) increases its oil and solvent resistant
(a) penicillin (d) converts its plasticity into elasticity
(b) streptomycin 87. Most commonly used rubber vulcanizing agent is
(c) tetracyclin (a) sulfur
(d) quinine (b) bromine
81. Molecular weights of polymers are in the range of (c) platinum
(a)
10 - 1000 (d) alumina
(b)
105 - 109 88. Styrene butadiene rubber (SBR) is
(c)
103 - 107 (a) a natural rubber
(d)
105 - 107 (b) a synthetic polymer
82. Zeigler process (c) a synthetic monomer
(a) produces high density polyethylene (d) another name for silicon rubber
(b) produces low density polyethylene 89. Nylon-6 is manufactured from
(c) uses no catalyst (a) caprolactam
(d) employs very high pressure (b) hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
(c) hexamethylene diamine and maleic anhydride
(d) hexamethylene diamine and sebacic acid
90. Nylon 6-6 is manufactured from
(a) hexamethylene diamine adipic acid
83. Poly-Vinyl Chloride (PVC) is (b) hexamethylene diamine and maleic anhydride
(a) thermosetting (c) caprolactam
(b) thermoplastic (d) dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene glycol
 (a) 200 - 300C
(b) 700 - 850C
(c) 2000 -2200C
(d) 4000 - 4500C
91. Dacron is 98. Cumene (Isopropyl benzene) is made by
(a) a polyester (a) oxidation of naphthalene
(b) an unsaturated polyester (b) propylene alkylation of benzene
(c) a polyamide (c) polymerization of a mixture of benzene and propylene
(d) an inorganic polymer (d) polymerization of propylene
92. Celluloid is
(a) cellulose acetate
(b) regenerated cellulose 99. Glycerin can be obtained from
(c) cellulose nitrate (a) fat
(d) cellulose acetate butyrate (b) naphthalene
93. Thermoplastic materials (c) cumene
(a) do not soften on application of heat (d) sucrose
(b) are heavily branched molecules 100. Cumene is the starting material for the production of
(c) are solvent insoluble (a) benzoic acid
(d) are capable of softening or fusing when heated and of (b) phenol and acetone
hardening again when cooled (c) isoprene
94. Thermosetting materials (d) styrene
(a) are capable of becoming permanently rigid when heated or 101. Which of the following is not responsible for causing permanent
cured hardness of water?
(b) soften on application of heat (a) Ca(HCO3)2
(c) are solvent insoluble (b) CaCl2
(d) are heavily branched molecules (c) MgCl2
95. Type of glass used in optical work is (d) NaCl
(a) soda-lime glass 102. Zeolite used in water softening process (cation exchange) is
(b) fiber glass regenerated by washing
(c) lead glass with
(d) borosilicate glass (a) brine
96. Silicon carbide is (b) chloramines
(a) an adhesive (c) sodium bisulfite
(b) an abrasive (d) liquid chlorines
(c) a type of glass 103. Presence of H2S in raw water (to be chlorinated) results in
(d) brittle (a) reduced softening capacity of zeolite
97. The temperature in the calcium carbide furnace is
 (b) increase dosage of chlorine to provide a disinfecting residual (c) bacteria
in the water (d) all a, b and c
(c) easy removal of its hardness 111. Use of hydrated lime in water treatment
(d) residual turbidity (a) before filtration, reduces the bacterial load on filters
104. Lime and soda ash are added to water to remove (e) after filtration, combats the corrosiveness of water due to
(a) bicarbonates and sulfates of calcium and magnesium presence of O2 and CO2
(b) undesirable taste and odor (c) is to adjust the pH value
(c) bacteria (d) all a, b and c
(d) its corrosiveness 112. The purpose of adding Na2CO3 to water of low alkalinity is to
105. Chloramines are used in water treatment for (a) permit the use of alum as a coagulant
(a) disinfection and control of taste and odor (b) increase the softening capacity of zeolite
(b) corrosion control (c) facilitate the easy regeneration of zeolite
(c) removing turbidity (d) all a, b and c
(d) control of bacteria 113. Pick out the true statement pertaining to water treatment
106. Deaeration of water in its treatment is necessary as it (a) Slow sand filters can remove color completely
(a) minimizes its turbidity (b) Activated carbon can be used for taste and odor control without
(b) helps in controlling its taste and odor subsequent filtration
(c) minimizes its corrosiveness (c) Application of activated carbon reduces the temporary hardness of
(d) controls bacteria water
107. Sodium Bisulfate is used for (d) Normally, the turbidity is removed by adding a coagulant prior
(a) deaeration of water to sedimentation
(b) dechlorination of water
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
108. Dechlorination of treated water is necessary to
(a) remove residual turbidity
(b) reduce the bacterial load on filter
(c) control taste and odor 114. Pick out the false statement pertaining to water treatment
(d) remove chlorinous taste (a) Aeration of water is effective in CO2 removal
109. The main used of the activated carbon in water treatment is to control f (b) The zeolite water softening process reduces the hardness of
(a) bacterial growth water by not more
(b) taste and odor than 50%
(c) turbidity (c) Sodium sulfate or sodium carbonates do not cause hardness in
(d) corrosion water
110. Alum [Al2(SO4)3] is used as a coagulant in water treatment to remove (d) Water with pH value less than 7, is acidic
(a) color 115. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to solvent extraction of oil
(b) turbidity Rate of extraction.
 (a) decreases with decrease of thickness of the flakes result in
(b) increases with the increasing flake size keeping the flake thickness (a) pyrolysis of oil
constant (b) sintering of porous catalyst
(c) increases considerably with the rise of temperature (c) hydrogen embrittlement
g (d) decreases as the moisture content of flakes increases (d) all a, b and c
116. Fats as compared to oils have 122. Shaving soaps are
(a) more unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids (a) soft potassium soaps (potassium salt of fatty acid) with free
(b) less unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids stearic acid to give
(c) much higher reactivity to oxygen lather a lasting property
h (d) lower melting point (b) metallic soaps compounded with frothing agents
117. Salt is added in the kettle during soap manufacture to separate (c) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
(a) soap from lye (d) usually soap soaps
(b) glycerin from lye 123. Transparent soaps (e.g. Pears) are
(c) the metallic soap (a) usually soft soaps (made from coconut oil) in which cane
(d) the unsaponified fat from soap sugar and alcohol are
118. Hydrazine (N2H4) is used mainly as added and finally washed with methylate spirit to achieve
(a) explosive transparency
(b) rocket fuel (b) metallic soaps with frothing agent and free stearic acid to achieve
i (c) an additive in detergent transparency
j (d) catalyst (c) metallic soaps with frothing agent from which glycerin has not
119. Oils are partially hydrogenated (not fully) to manufacture vanaspati, been recovered
because fully saturated (d) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
solidified oils 124. Glycerin is recovered from lye by
(a) cause cholesterol build up and blood clotting (a) evaporation followed by vacuum distillation
(b) are prone to rancid oxidation (b) liquid extraction technique
(c) always contain some amount of nickel (as their complete removal (c) extractive distillation technique
is very difficult) (d) steam distllation
(d) have affinity to retain harmful sulfur compounds 125. Glycerin is not used in the
120. Hydrogenation of oil takes place in (a) manufacture of explosive
(a) an autothermal reactor (b) conditioning and humidification of tobacco
(b) a trickle bed reactor (c) manufacture of pharmaceuticals
(c) a plug flow reactor (d) manufacture of caustic soda
(d) backmix reactor

121. Temperature during hydrogenation of oil should not be more than

200C, otherwise it will
 FLOW OF FLUIDS (a) ML-1T-1 (b) MLT-1
(c) MLT-1T (d) MLT

7. Poise is converted into stoke by

1. A fluid is one which (a) multiplying with density (gm/c.c.)
(a) cannot remain at rest under the action of shear force (b) dividing with density (gm/c.c.)
(b) continuously expands till it fills any container (c) multiplying with specific gravity
(c) is incompressible (d) dividing with specific gravity
(d) permanently resists distortion

2. In an incompressible fluid density

(a) is greatly affected by moderate changes in pressure 8. Dimension of kinematic viscosity is
(b) is greatly affected only by moderate changes in temperature (a) ML-2 (b) L2T-1
2
(c) remains unaffected with moderate change in temperature and (c) L T (d) L2T2
pressure
(d) is sensible to changes in both temperature and pressure 9. With increase in the temperature viscosity of a liquid
(a) increase (b) decreases
3. Potential flow is the flow of (c) remains constant (d) first decreases and then increases
(a) compressible fluids with shear
(b) compressible fluids with no shear 10. For water, when the pressure increases the viscosity
(c) incompressible fluids with shear (a) also increases (b) decreases
(d) incompressible fluids with no shear (c) remains constant (d) first decreases and then increases

4. Potential flow is characterized by

(a) irrotational and frictionless flow
(b) irrotational and frictional flow
(c) one in which dissipation of mechanical energy into heat occurs
(d) the formation of eddies within the stream

5. Newtons law of viscosity relates

(a) shear stress and velocity
(b) velocity gradient and pressure intensity
(c) shear stress and rate of angular deformation in a fluid
(d) pressure gradient and rate of angular deformation

6. Dimension of viscosity is
11. The pressure intensity is the same in all direction at a point in a fluid 16. Fill up the blanks
(a) only when the fluid is frictionless A stream tube is that which has cross-section entirely bounded
(b) only when the fluid is at rest having zero velocity by stream lines.
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an (a) a circular (b) any convenient
adjacent layer (c) a small (d) a large
(d) regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent
layer 17. Mass velocity is the independent of temperature and pressure when the
flow is
12. Choose the set of pressure intensities that are equivalent (a) unsteady through uncharged cross-section
(a) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 8.83 inches of Hg. (b) steady through changing cross-section
(b) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 20.7 inches of Hg. (c) steady and the cross-section is unchanged
(c) 10 psi, 19.7 ft. of water, 23.3 inches of Hg. (d) unsteady ant the cross-section is changed
(d) 10 psi, 19.7 ft of water, 5.3 inches of Hg.
18. In turbulent flow
13. For a fluid rotating at constant angular velocity about vertical axis as a (a) the fluid particles move in an orderly manner
rigid body, the pressure intensity varies as the (b) momentum transfer is on molecular scale only
(a) square of the radial distance (c) shear stress is caused more effectively by cohesion than
(b) radial distance linearly momentum transfer
(c) averse of the radial distance (d) shear stresses are generally larger than in a similar laminar
(d) elevation along vertical direction flow

14. The center of pressure is 19. Turbulant flow generally occurs for cases involving
(a) always below the centroid of the area
(b) always above the centroid of the area (a) highly viscous fluid (b) very narrow passages
(c) a point on the line of action of the resultant force (c) very slow motion (d) none of these
(d) at the centroid of the submerge area
20. An ideal fluid is
15. A rectangular surface 3x4, has the lower 3 edge horizontal and 6 (a) frictionless and incompressible
below a free oil surface (sp. gr. 0.8). The surface inclination is 300 with (b) one which obeys Newtons law of viscosity
the horizontal. The force in one side of the surface is :(y = specific (c) highly viscous (d) none of these
weight of water)
21.Steady flow occurs when
(a) 39.6y (b) 48y (a) conditions change steadily with time
(c) 49.2y (d) 58y (b) conditions are the same at the adjacent points at any instant
(c) conditions do not change with time at any point
 (d) rate of change of velocity is constant
28. The loss due to sudden expansion is
(a)
22. Which of the following must be followed by the flow of fluid (real or V12 V22 (b)
(V1 V2)3
ideal)? 2gc 2gC
(c)
(i) Newtons law of viscosity V1 V2 (d) none of these
(ii) Newtons second law of motion 2gc
(iii) the continuity equation
(iv) velocity of boundary must be zero relative to boundary 29. The loss due to sudden contraction is proportional to
(v) fluid cannot penetrate a boundary (a) velocity (b) velocity head
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III, V (c) turbulence (d) none of these
(c) I, II, V (d) II, III, V
30. The value of critical Reynolds number for pipe flow is
23. Discharge (ft3/sec) from a 24 inch pipe of water at 10 ft/sec will be (a) 1300 (b) 10,000
(a) 7.65 (b) 32.36 (c) 100,000 (d) none of these
(c) 48.22 (d) 125.6

24. The unit velocity head is 31. Reynolds number flow of water at room temperature through 2 cm
(a) ft-lb/sec (b) ft-lb/ft3 diameter pipe at
(c) ft-lbf/lb.m (d) ft-lb.f/sec average velocity of 5 cm/sec is around
(a) 2000 (b) 10
25. Bernoullis equation describes (c) 100 (d) 1000
(a) mechanical energy balance in potential flow
(b) kinetic energy balance in laminar flow
(c) mechanical energy balance in turbulent flow
(d) mechanical energy balance in boundary layer

26. The kinetic energy correction factor for velocity distribution of laminar
flow is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.66
(c) 1 (d) 2

27. The momentum correction factor for the velocity distribution of laminar
flow is
(a) 1.3 (b) 1.66
(c) 2.5 (d) none of these
 (d) square root of flow area to wetted perimeter

32. Shear stress in a fluid flowing in a round pipe 38. Hydraulic radius of 6 x 12 c/s is
(a) varies parabolically across the cross-section (a) 2 (b) 0.5
(b) remains constant over the cross-section (c) 1.5 (d) none of these
(c) is zero at the center and varies linearly with the radius
(d) is zero at the wall and increase linearly to the center 39. Reynolds number is the ratio of
(a) viscous forces to gravity forces
33. Discharge in laminar flow through a pipe varies (b) inertial forces to viscous forces
(a) as the square of the radius (c) viscous forces to inertial forces
(b) inversely as the pressure drop (d) inertial forces to gravity forces
(c) inversely as the velocity
(d) as the square of the diameter 40. Mach. number is the ratio of the speed of the
(a) fluid of that of the light (b) light to that of the fluid
34. Boundary layer separation is caused by (c) fluid to that of thesound (d) sound to that of the fluid
(a) reduction of pressure below vapor pressure
(b) reduction of pressure gradient to zero
(c) an adverse pressure gradient
(d) reduction of boundary layer thickness to zero
41. Power loss in an orifice meter is
35. The friction factor for turbulent flow in a hydraulically smooth pipe (a) less than that in a venturi meter
(a) depends only on Reynolds number (b) same as that in a venturi meter
(b) does not depend on Reynolds number (c) more than that in a venturi meter
(c) depends on the roughness (d) data insufficient, cannot be predicted
(d) none of these

36. For a given Reynolds number, in hydraulically smooth pipe, further 42. The velocity profile for turbulent flow through a closed conduit is
smoothing (a) logarithmic (b) parabolic
(a) brings about no further reduction of friction factor (c) hyperbolic (d) linear
(b) increases the friction factor
(c) decreases the friction factor 43. For laminar flow through a closed conduit
(d) none of these (a) Vmax = 2 Vav (b) Vmax = Vav
(c) Vmax = 1.5 Vav (d) Vav = 2 Vmax
37. Hydraulic radius is the ratio of
(a) wetted perimeter to flow area
(b) flow area to wetted perimeter
(c) flow area to square of wetted perimeter
44. f = 16/NRe is valid for 47. Bernoullis equation for steady frictionless, continuous flow states that
(a) turbulent flow (a) total pressure at all sections is same
(b) laminar flow through an open channel (b) total energy at all section is same
(c) steady flow (d) none of these (c) velocity head at all section is same
(d) none of these
45. Isotropic turbulence occurs
(a) where there is no velocity gradient 48. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the
(b) at higher temperatures (a) fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow
(c) only in newtonion fluid (b) the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow
(d) none of these (c) the solid on the fluid (d) none of these

46. Consider two pipes of same length and diameter through which water is
passed at the same velocity. The friction factor for rough pipe is f1 and
that for smooth pipe is f2. Pick out the correct statement.
(a) f1 = f2 (b) f1 < f2
(c) f1 > f2 (d) data not sufficient to relate f1 and f2
49. Drag co-efficient for flow past immersed body is the ratio of
(a) shear stress to the product of velocity head density
(b) shear force to the product of velocity head and density
(c) average drag per unit projected area to the product of velocity
head and density
(d) none of these

50. Stokes law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is

(a) < 1 (b) > 1
(c) < 5 (d) none of these

51. Drag co-efficient CD is given by (in Stokes law range)

(a) CD = 16 (b) CD = 24
Re.p Re.p
(c) CD = 18.4 (d) CD = 0.079
Re.p Re.p
52. At low Reynolds number
(a) viscous forces are unimportant
(b) viscous forces control
(c) viscous forces control and inertial forces are unimportant
(d) gravity forces control
53. At high Reynolds number 57. Force acting on a particle settling in fluid are
(a) inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant (a) gravitational and bouyant forces
(b) viscous forces predominate (b) centrifugal and drag forces
(c) inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control (c) gravitational or centrifugal, bouyant and drag forces
(d) none of these (d) external, drag and viscous forces

54. For flow of fluid through packed bed, the superficial velocity is 58. Terminal velocity is
(a) less than the average velocity through channels (a) a constant velocity with no acceleration
(b) more than the average velocity through channels (b) a fluctuating velocity
(c) dependent on the pressure drop across the bed (c) attained after moving one-haft of total distance
(d) same as the average velocity through channels (d) none of these

55. Pressure drop in a packed bed for laminar flow is given by 59. In hindered settling, particles are
(a) Kozeny-Carman equation (b) Blake-Plummer equation (a) placed farther from wall
(c) Levas equation (d) none of these (b) not affected by other particles and the wall
(c) near each other (d) none of these
56. Pressure drop in a packed bed for turbulent flow is given by
(a) Kozeny-Carman equation (b) Blake-Plummer equation 60. Drag co-efficient in hindered settling is
(c) Levas equation (d) none of these (a) lesser than in free settling
(b) equal to that in free settling
(c) not necessarily greater than in free settling
(d) greater than free settling

61. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope of
CD log NRe, plot is
(a) 1 (b) 1
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.5
 67. Lower BWG means
(a) lower thickness tube
62. In continuous fluidization (b) lower cross-section of tube
(a) solids are completely entrained (c) outer diameter of tube
(b) the pressure drop less than that for batch fluidisation (d) inner diameter of tube
(c) there is no entrainment of solids
(d) velocity of the fluid is very small 68. Cavitation occurs in a centrifugal pump when
(a) the suction pressure < vapour pressure of the liquid at that
63. Pressure drop in fluidized bed reactor is temperature
(a) less than that in a similar packed bed reactor (b) the suction pressure > vapour pressure of the liquid at that
(b) more than that in a similar packed bed reactor temperature
(c) same as that in a similar packed bed reactor (c) the suction pressure = vapour pressure
(d) none of these (d) the suction pressure = developed head

69. Cavitation can be prevented by

(a) suitably designing the pump
(b) maintaining the suction head sufficiently greater than the
vapour pressure
64. Slugging in a fluidized bed can be avoided by (c) maintaining suction head = developed head
(a) using tall narrow vessel (d) maintaining suction head lower than the vapour pressure
(b) using deep bed solids
(c) the proper choice of particle size and by using shallow beds of 70. Priming needed in a
solids (a) reciprocating pump (b) gear pump
(d) using very large particles (c) centrifugal pump (d) diaphragm pump

65. Minimum porosity for fluidization is
(a) that corresponding to static bed
(b) that corresponding to completely fluidized bed
(c) the porosity of the bed when true fluidization begins
(d) less than that of the static bed
71. The maximum depth from which a centrifugal pump can draw water
(a) dependent on the speed N of the pump
(b) dependent on the power of the pump
(c) 34 feet (d) 150 feet

66. In a fluidized bed reactor 72. Boiler feed pump is usually a

(a) temperature gradients are very high (a) reciprocating pump (b) gear pump
(b) temperature is more or less uniform (c) multisatge centrifugal pump (d) diaphragm pump
(c) hot spot formed
(d) segregation of the solids occurs
73. Plunger pumps are used for
(a) higher pressure (b) slurries
(c) viscous mass (d) none of these

74. Molten soap mass is transported by a

(a) diaphragm pump (b) reciprocating pump
(c) gear pump (d) centrifugal pump

75. To handle smaller quantity of fluid at high discharge pressure use

(a) reciprocating pump (b) centrifugal pump
(c) volute pump (d) rotary vacuum pump

76. The head developed by a centrifugal pump is largely determined by the

(a) power of the pump
(b) nature of the liquid being pumped
(c) angle of the vanes and the speed of the tip of the impeller
(d) vapour pressure of the liquid

77. The maximum head that can be developed with a single impeller is
(a) 25 ft. (b) 1000 ft.
(c) 250 300 ft. (d) 1000 ft.

78. A fluid jet discharging from a 2 diameter orifice has a diameter of

1.75 at its vena-contracta. The co-efficient of contraction is
(a) 1.3 (b) 0.766
(c) 0.87 (d) none of these

79. The discharge through a V-notch weir varies as

(a) H3/2 (b) H1/2
5/2
(c) H (d) none of these

80. The discharge through a rectangular weir varies as

(a) H1/2 (b) H3/2
2/5
(c) H (d) none of these
81. Propellers are 86. The continuity equation
(a) axial flow mixers (b) low speed impeller (a) relates mass flow rate along a stream tube
(c) used for mixing liquids of high viscosity (b) relates work and energy
(d) radial flow mixers (c) stipulates that Newtons second law of motion must be satisfied at
every point in the fluid
(d) none of these

82. Turbine impeller 87. For a specific centrifugal air blower operating at constant speed and
(a) produces only radial current capacity the power requirement and pressure vary
(b) produces only tangential current (a) directly as squares of gas density
(c) is effective over wide range of viscosities (b) directly as gas density
(d) does not produce tangential current (c) directly as square root of density
(d) inversely as gas density
83. With increase in pump speed, its NPSH requirement
(a) decreases (b) increases 88. Foot valves are provided in the suction line of a centrifugal pump to
(c) remains unaltered (a) avoid priming every time we start the pump
(d) can either increase or decrease, depends on other factors (b) remove the contaminant present in the liquid
(c) minimize the fluctuation in dischrarge
84. One dimensional flow implies (d) control the liquid discharge
(a) Flow in the straight line (b) steady uniform flow
(c) unsteady uniform flow 89. Differential manometer measures
(d) a flow which does not account changes in transverse direction

85. In case of centrifugal fan or blower, the gas capacity varies as

(a) spect speed (b) (speed)
(c) (speed)3 (d) none of these
 (a) atmospheric pressure (b) sub-atmospheric pressure (a) varies parabolically across the section
(c) pressure difference between two points (b) is constant over the entire cross section
(d) none of these (c) is zero at the plates and increases linearly to the midplane
(d) none of these

90. Velocity distribution for flow between the fixed parallel plates 91. While
(a) opened
starting a centrifugal pump, its delivery
(b) closed
valve should be kept
(c) parabola
(a) either opened
(vertex
or closed;
being itatdoes
the opening)
not make any difference
(d) hyperbolic
(b) either opened or closed; depending on the fluid viscosity
(c) horizontal straight line
92. Path
(d) followed
zig-zag path
by water
(whichjetisissuing
geometrically
from theundefined)
bottom of a water tank will
be a
93. A centrifugal pump loses prime after starting. The reason of this trouble
may be
(c)
(a) low
incomplete
availablepriming
NPSH and air leaks in(b)the too
suction
high apipe
suction lift
(d)
all a, b, and c

94. Capacity of a rotary gear pump can be varied by

(a) changing the speed of rotation
(b) bleeding air into suction
(c) bypassing liquid from the suction or discharge line
(d) all a, b, and c

95. For liquid flow through a packed bed, the superficial velocity as
compared to average velocity through the channel in the bed is
(a) more (b) less
(c) equal (d) independent of porosity

96. Reciprocating pumps compared to centrifugal pumps

(a) deliver liquid at uniform pressure
(b) can handle slurries more efficiently
(c) are not subject to air binding
(d) can be operated with delivery valve closed

97. A tube is specified by its

(a) thickness only (b) outer diameter
(c) thickness and outer diameter both (d) inner diameter
 103. Erosion and pits formation on the impeller of a centrifugal pump may
be due to
98. For pipes that must be broken at intervals for maintenance, the (a) cavitation (b) low speed of impeller
connector used should be a (c) its operation with delivery valve closed for considerable time
(a) union (b) tee after starting the pump
(c) reduces (d) elbow (d) off centering of pump with motor

99. If more than two branches of pipes are to be connected at the same 104. Which of the following valves will incur maximum pressure drop for
point, then use the same discharge of water?
(a) elbow (b) union (a) globe valve (b) gate valve
(c) tee (d) none of these (c) needle valve (d) butterfly valve

100. The most economical valve for use with large diameter pipes is 105. While starting on axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be kept
(a) butterfly valve (b) globe valve (a) open (b) closed
(c) needle valve (d) none of these (c) either open or closed (d) none of these

101. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the pressure 106. Identification of pipelines carrying different liquids and gases is done
drop in a pipeline? by
(a) velocity of liquid (b) size of pipe (a) diameter of the pipe (b) color of the pipe
(c) length of pipe and number of bends (d) none of these (c) the altitude of at which pipe is located (d) none of these

102. Which of the following can be used to create a flow of gas where no
significant compression is required?
(a) reciprocating compressor (b) blower
(c) axial flow compressor (d) centrifugal compressor
107. A centrifugal pump has the following specifications:
Power 4 H.P.; Speed 800 rpm
Head 8 meters; Flow 1000 liters/minutes
If its speed is halved , then the new head will be
(a) 2 m (b) 4 m
(c) 8 m (d) 5.5 m

108. In question No. 107, the power consumed now will be

(a) 0.5 H.P. (b) 2 H.P.
(c) 4 H.P. (d) 1 H.P.
109. In question No. 107, the new discharge will be
(a) 500 liters/min. (b) 200 liter/min
(c) 1000 liter/min (d) 750 liter/min

110. Interstage coolers are provided in a multistage compressor to 115. The most important factor which determines the maximum height to
(a) save power in compressing a given volume to a given which water can be lifted by a pump at standard temperature
pressure (62F) is
(b) cool the delivered air (a) barometric pressure (b) speed of the impeller
(c) achieve the exact delivery (c) diameter of the impeller (d) both b and c
(d) none of these
116. Bear pump
111. Surge tanks are provided in high pressure water pipelines to (a) is a positive displacement pump
(a) store a definite quantity of water all the time (b) is a centrifugal pump
(b) reduce water hammer (c) is a non-positive displacement pump
(c) facilities easy dismantling of pipeline for cleaning and (d) can be started with delivery valve closed
maintenance
(d) none of these 117. When the water is warm, the height to which it can be lifted by a
pump
112. Pipes having diameter 14 inches or more are designated by their (a) decreases due to reduced velocity
(a) outside diameter (b) inside diameter (b) decreases due to reduced vapor pressure
(c) schedule number (d) none of these (c) increases due to increased vapor pressure
(d) decreases due to increased frictional resistance
113. Disc compensators are provided in large diameter gas carrying
pipelines to 118. Multistage centrifugal pumps are generally used for
(a) keep the pipe in proper orientation (a) high head (b) low head but high discharged
(b) make the pipe joint leak-proof (c) highly viscous liquid (d) slurries of high solid concentration
(c) account for contraction/ expansion of pipe due to
temperature changes of the surroundings
(d) account for pressure variation inside the pipelines

114. Nominal Pipe Size (NPS) of a pipe less than 12 inches in diameter
indicates its
(a) inner diameter (b) outer diameter
(c) thickness (d) neither inner or outer
119. Centrifugal pump cant be used to pump
(a) molten sodium (used as a coolant in Fast Breeder Reactor)
(b) moderately vegetable oil used in soap industry 123. Actual lift of pump always less than the theoretical lift and is limited
(c) thick molten soap at 80C by
(d) none of the above (a) specific gravity and temperature of the liquid
(b) leakage and pressure decreasing at higher elevations
120. Volute type of casing is provided in a centrifugal pump to (c) frictional resistance through pipes, fittings and passages
(a) convert velocity head to pressure head (d) all a, b and c
(b) convert pressure head to velocity head
(c) reduce the discharge fluctuation 124. Fill up the blank
(d) increase the discharge Nominal size of the discharge pipe of a pump is usually the
nominal size of the inlet pipe
121. A pump operating under specific conditions delivers insufficient (a) smaller than (b) larger than
quantity of liquid. This may be set right by (c) same as (d) twice
(a) decreasing the size of the inlet pipe
(b) increasing the size of the inlet pipe 125. Horsepower requirement for given pump capacity depends upon the
(c) lowering the pump position (a) specific gravity of the liquid (b) suction lift
(d) both b and c (c) discharge head (d) all a, b and c

122. Delivery of insufficient quantity of liquid by a pump may be caused FLOW OF HEAT
by 1. A pipe carrying steam at about 300C traverses a room, the air
(a) air leak in the inlet (b) low rpm being still at 30C. the major fraction of the heat loss will be by
(c) too high a lift (d) all a, b and c a. conduction to the still air b. convection to the
air
c. radiation to the surrounding d. conduction and
convection put together
2. A satellite in space exchanges heat with its surroundings by
a. Conduction b. convection
c. Radiation d. conduction as well
as convection
3. For the same temperature drop in the temperature ranges of 300-
400C the heat flow rate will be highest by
a. Conduction process b. convection process
b. Radiation process d. other factors should
be known before any conclusion
4. In the cold season a person would prefer to be near a fire because c. Remain constant d. either b or c
a. The conduction from the b. the convection will depending on the heat flow rate
be better if he is near the fire
fire will be better
c. Direct unimpeded radiation d. combined 10. In steady state conduction with variable thermal conductivity if the
conduction and convection will be better conductivity decreases along the flow direction, then the
will provide quick warmth temperature gradient along the flow direction will become
5. A finned tube hot water radiator with a fan blowing air over it is a. Remain constant b. will become flatter
kept in rooms during winter. The major portion of the heat transfer c. Will become steeper d. either b or c depending on
from radiator to air due to the heat flow rate
a. Radiation b. convection 11. In steady state conduction with variable thermal conductivity if the
c. Conduction d. combined conductivity decreases along the flow direction, then the
conduction and radiation temperature gradient along the flow direction will become
6. For a specified heat input and a given volume which material will a. Steeper b. flatter
have the smallest temperature rise (Use data book if necessary) c. Remain constant d. either of the three
a. Steel b. aluminum depending on heat flow rate
c. Water d. copper 12. In steady state conduction with thermal conductivity given by k=k
7. When a hot metal piece is left to cool in the air the time rate of (1+) where , is +ve, a slab of given thickness and given
cooling of the outer layer will be temperature drop will conduct
a. Slower at start and faster near the end a. More heat at lower temperature levels
b. faster at start and slower near the end b. More heat at higher temperature levels
c. both rate will be the same c. Will be the same as flow depends in the temperature drop
d. this will depend on the material d. Will be the same as flow depends on the thickness only
8. A thin black plate at temperature T receives radiation from a 13. Choose the correct statement or statements
surface at Temperature T and radiates to a surface at T. If all a. The thermal conductivity of gases decreases with temperature
surfaces are black at steady state b. The thermal conductivity of insulating solids increase with
a. (T-T)>(T-T) b. (T-T)<(T- temperature
T) c. The thermal conductivity of good electrical conductors are
c. (T-T)=(T-T) d. can be any generally low
one of a, b or c d. The thermal conductivity variation is of low percentage in
9. In a slab under steady conduction if the thermal conductivity gases as compared to solids
increases along the thickness, the temperatures gradient along the 14. In slab generating heat uniformly and at steady state convecting
direction will become equally on both sides, the temperature gradient will
a. Steeper b. Flatter a. Flatten out as the distance from the centre increases
b. Become steeper as the distance from the centre increases
 c. Will remain constant d. The temperature gradient is dependent on the heat flow only
d. Can be any of (a,b) or (c) depending the heat generation rate 21. In a long fin if the convection coefficient is increased with other
15. For the same linear size (i.e. L,r) and heat generation rate, the parameters maintained constant.
temperature drop from centre to surface us highest in a. The temperature drop along length is not strongly influenced
a. Spherical shape b. plate shape by the convection coefficient
c. Cylindrical shape d. rod of square b. The temperature gradient depends only on heat flow rate
section c. The temperature drop will be faster along the length
16. The temperature drop in the heat generating solid under steady d. The temperature drop along the length will be at a lower rate
state conduction depends to a greater extent on 22. In a long fin if the parameter m=(hP/kA) increases, other
a. Linear dimension b. thermal parameters being maintained constant then.
conductivity a. The temperature variation along the length will be a lower
c. Heat generation rate d. convection coefficient at the rate
surface b. The temperature drop along the length will be steeper
17. The most effective way to reduce the temperature drop in a heat c. The parameter m influences the heat flow only
generating solid is to d. The temperature profile will remain the same
a. Reduce the linear dimension 23. For a given sectional area of fin if the circumstances is increase by
b. Reduce thermal conductivity adopting different geometric shape then
c. Reduce the convection coefficient on the surface a. The temperature variation along the fin length will be steeper
d. Reduce the heat generation rate b. The temperature variation along the fin length will be featter
18. The thermal gradient in a heat generating cylinder under steady c. The circumference length does not affect the temperature
conduction, at half the radius location will be change
a. One half of that at surface b. One fourth of the at d. The circumference will only influence the heat convected
surface 24. In a given fin configuration increase in conductivity will
c. Twice that at surface d. four times that at surface a. Decrease the total heat flow
19. In a sphere under steady state conduction with uniform heat b. Will affect only the temperature gradient
c. Increase the total heat flow
generation, the temperature gradient at half the radius location will
d. Heat flow is influenced only by the base temperature and
be
sectional area
a. One half of that at the surface b. one fourth of that at surface
25. An increase in convection coefficient over a fin will
c. One eight of that at the surface d. 2 times of that at the surface
a. Increase effectiveness b. decrease effectiveness
20. In a long fin if the thermal conductivity is increased with other
c. Does not influence effectiveness d. influences only the
parameters maintained constant
fin efficiency
a. The temperature will drop at a faster rate along the length
26. In the case of fins it is desirable to have
b. The temperature will drop at a lower rate along the length
a. Area of section maintained constant along the length
c. The temperature gradient is not strongly influenced by the
b. Area of section reduced along the length
conductivity c. Area of section increased along the length
 d. Better to vary the convection coefficient than the area
27. Fin effectiveness will be increased more by
a. Having a higher value of convection coefficient
b. Higher sectional area
c. higher thermal conductivity
d. longer circumference
28. If a square section fin is split longitudinally used as two fins
a. The total heat flow will decrease
b. The total heat flow will increase
c. The total heat flow remain constant
d. Heat flow may increase or decrease depending on the material
used
29. For a given volume of material for use in a pin fin
a. Longer the fin better the total heat flow
b. Shorter the fin better the heat flow
c. As the volume is constant the heat flow will not change
d. As length is increased heat flow will increase and after some
length will decrease
Choose the correct statement or statements for nos. 31-33 questions
30. a. If the convection coefficient is low, it is not desirable to use a
fin
b. If the conductivity is large, longer fin will be more effective
c. Plate fins of smaller thickness is better in the point of view of
heat dissipation
d. Finned surface is desirable under conditions of boiling
31. a. aluminum fins are better because the material is light
b. a constant area fin provides the best (heat flow/weight) ratio
c. on rare occasions the heat flow may be reduced by the addition
of fins
d. If conductivity is high a short fin will be a good proportion
32. a. A constant temperature gradient along the length of a constant
area fin is not possible
b. The temperature gradient, in circular section fin dissipating heat
will increase along the length
c. Longitudinal fins are less effective compared to annular fins
d. Fins at close pitch will give a high heat dissipating rate
33. a. An aluminum fin will be cooler at a given distance compared to
a copper fin of identical section and other parameter
b. An aluminum fin will be hotter at a given distance compared to
a copper fin of identical section and other parameter
c. An aluminum fin of same configuration will dessipate more
heat compared to copper fin
d. An Aluminum fin of same configuration will dessipate less heat
compared to copper fin
34. Semi infinite model van be adopt when
a. Thickness of the solid is very large
b. Heat diffusion is very slow
c. Short time period
d. All of these
35. Heating or cooling of a road surface can be analyzed using
a. Lumped parameter model
b. Infinite slab model
c. Semi infinite slab model
d. None of these
36. Choose the correct statement
a. Transient conduction means very little heat transfer
b. Transient conduction means conduction when the temperature
at a point varies with time
c. Transient conduction means heat transfer for a short time
d. Transient conduction means heat transfer with very small
temperature difference
37. Lumped parameter model can be used when
a. The thickness is small
 b. When the conductivity is high
c. When convective heat transfer coefficient is low
d. When conditions a, b, and c are true
38. In the lumped parameter model, the temperature variation is
a. Linear with time
b. Sinusoidal with time
c. Exponential with time
d. Cubic with time
39. The response time of a thermocouple is the time taken for the
temperature change to be
a. 0.5 of original temperature difference
b. 1/1.414 of original temperature difference
c. 1/e of original temperature difference
d. 99% of the original temperature difference
40. To make thermocouple to respond quickly
a. The wire diameter should be large
b. Convection heat transfer coefficient should be high
41. Heat transfer rate
a. Will be higher in turbulent flow
b. Will be lower in turbulent flow
c. Will depend on the fluid
d. Will depend only on viscosity
42. Nusselt number is
a. Ratio of viscous to inertia forces
b. Dimensionless heat transfer coefficient
c. Ratio of conduction to convection resistance
d. Signifies of velocity gradient at the surface
43. Reynolds number is
a. Ratio of conduction to convection resistance
b. Ratio of buoyant to inertia forces
c. Ratio of viscous ratio to inertia force
d. Ratio of heat conducted to the heat capacity
44. Prandtl number is
a. Ratio of buoyant force to inertia force
b. Ratio of conduction to convection resistance
c. Signifies the temperature gradient at the surface
d. Ratio of molecular momentum diffusively to thermal diffusion
45. The staton number is
a. The dimensionless temperature gradient at the surface in
convection
b. Mass diffused to heat diffused
c. Dimensionless convection coefficient
d. Wall heat transfer/ heat transfer convection
46. The convective heat transfer coefficient in laminar f;ow over a flat
plate
a. Increases if a lighter fluid is used
b. Increases if a higher viscosity fluid is used
c. Increases if higher velocities are used
d. Increases with distance
47. In the boundary layer over a flat plate in laminar flow the velocity
is
a. Zero at the boundary layer thickness
b. Slowly decreases from the free stream to the solid surface
c. Slowly increases from the free stream to the wall
d. Only temperature in the boundary layer will be different from
that of free stream
48. As viscosity of fluid increases the boundary layer thickness
a. Will increase
b. Will decrease
c. Will not change
d. Will increase at medium values and then will decrease
49. The temperature gradient in the fluid flowing over a flat plate
a. Will be zero at the surface
b. Will be positive at the surface
c. Will be very steep at the surface
d. Will be zero at the top of the boundary layer
50. The ratio of thermal to hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness
varies as
a. Root of Reynolds number
 b. Root Nusselt number
c. Root Prandt number
d. One third power of Prandt number
51. In liquid metal flow over a flat plate (T>T)
a. The hydrodynamic boundary layer will be very thick and
thermal boundary layer will be very thick
b. The hydrodynamic boundary layer will be very thin and
thermal boundary layer will also be thin
c. The two will more or less equal
d. The thermal boundary layer will be thick and hydrodynamic
boundary layer will be thin
52. In forced convection molecular diffusion causes
a. Momentum flow in turbulent region
b. Momentum flow in the laminar region
c. Heat flow in the turbulent region
d. Diffusion has no part in energy transfer
53. In flow over a flat plate the convection coefficient
a. Always increases along the flow
b. Decreases, increases and decreases
c. Increases up to critical Reynolds number and then decreases
d. Decreases up to critical Reynolds number and then increases
54. In laminar flow over a flat plate.
a. The thermal boundary layer and hydrodynamic boundary layers
are of equal thickness
b. The thermal boundary layer is thicker if the Prandtl number is
less than one
c. The thermal boundary layer is thicker if the Prandt number is
less than one
d. The thermal layer is always thinner in the laminar region
55. Choose the correct statement:
a. Higher the value of kinematic viscosity thinner will be the
boundary layer
b. Higher the Prandtl number lower will be the thickness of
thermal boundary layer
c. The convective heat transfer coefficient will be lower in
turbulent flow as compared to laminar flow
d. The boundary layer will thicken as the free stream velocity
increases
56. In flow across a cylinder, the local Nusselt number will be highest
at
a. 90 from the stagnation point
b. At the stagnation point
c. At 80C from the stagnation point
d. At 135C from the stagnation point
57. In banks of the tubes heat transfer will be highest
a. In linear arrangement with square pitch
b. Linear arrangement with lower longitudinal pitch
c. Staggered arrangement with equal pitch
d. Staggered arrangement with lower longitudinal pitch
58. Choose the correct statement in flow through pipes
a. In laminar flow, the exit Nusselt number in the fully developed
condition is lower than at entry
b. In laminar flow, the exit Busselt number in the fully developed
condition is higher that at entry
c. In laminar flow, the Nusselt remains constant
d. In laminar flow the Nusslet at constant wall temperature is
higher as compared to Nusselr constant heat flow
59. In flow through pipes for the same Reynolds number
a. The thermal entry length is longer for low Prandtl number
fluids
b. The thermal entry length is longer for high Prandtl number
fluids
c. Prandtl number does not influence the thermal entry length
d. The thermal entry length affect is more pronounced only
turbulent flow
60. Choose the correct statement:
a. Flow of air can be considered as hydrodynamic layer fully
developed and thermal layer developing
b. Flow of oils can be considered as HFD and thermal layer
developing
c. Flow of liquid metals can be considered as hydrodynamic layer
fully developed and thermal layer developing
 d. Flow of water can be considered as hydrodynamic layer fully b. Decreases with increasing Gr Pr
developed and thermal layer developing c. Increases and then decreases with increasing Gr Pr
61. In pipe flow, the average convection coefficient d. Decreases and then increases with increasing Gr Pr
a. Will be higher in rough pipes
b. Will be higher in smooth pipes
c. Roughness affects only pressure drop and not the convection
coefficient 66. With increase in excess temperature the heat flux in boiling
d. Only Reynolds and Prandtl numbers influence the convection a. Increase continuously
coefficient and not the roughness b. Decrease and then increases
62. In pipe flow c. Increases then decreases and again increases
a. For constant heat flow, the initial length is more effective d. Decreases then increases and again decreases
compared to the end length 67. In nucleate pool boiling the heat flux depends on
b. For constant wall temperature the initial length are less a. Only the material of the surface
effective compared to the end length b. Material and roughness of the surface
c. In fully developed flow and constant wall temperature, the c. Independent of surface
effective compared to the end lengths d. Fluid and material and surface roughness
d. In fully developed flow and constant heat flux, the effectiveness 68. The heat flow in nucleate pool boiling will be higher for
decreases with length a. Horizontal plane
63. Choose the correct statement: b. Vertical plane
a. In smooth pipes a laminar flow remains laminar all through the c. Horizontal cylinder
length d. Independent of location
b. in smooth pipes a laminar flow turns turbulent after a certain 69. In considering under same conditions, the convections coefficient
length will be lowest for
c. The temperature profile in fully developed layer remains the a. Vertical palte
same b. Vertical pipe
d. The velocity profile in a pipe flow is established at the entry c. Horizontal pipe
64. Choose the correct statement: d. Row of vertical pipes
a. Buoyant forces and inertia forces only influence free convection 70. The overall heat transfer coefficient is the
heat transfer a. Sum of all resistance
b. Viscous and Buoyant forces only influence free convection heat b. Sum of all conductances
transfer c. Sum of the convection coefficients
c. Viscous and inertia forces only influence free convection heat d. Resistance due to the wall material.
transfer 71. The range of value of overall heat transfer coefficients fall in the
d. Viscous, inertia and Buoyant forces influence the heat transfer following increasing order
in free convection a. Boiling or condensation to liquid, liquid to gas, liquid to liquid,
65. In free convection, the slope of the curve Nu vs Gr Pr gas to gas
a. Increases with increasing Gr Pr
 b. Liquid, gas to gas,, boiling or condensation to liquid, liquid to d. Gas and gas or liquid and gas
gas 77. The minimum heat transfer area for a given situation is for
c. Gas to gas, liquid to gas, liquid to liquid, boiling or a. Parallel flow
condensation to liquid b. Counter flow
d. Boiling or condensation to liquid, liquid to gas, gas to gas, c. Cross flow
liquid to liquid d. Shell and tube
72. The decreasing order of effectiveness for a given situation among 78. The flow direction is immaterial in the case of heat exchange from
types of heat exchangers is a. Wet or saturated steam to water
a. Parallel flow, cross flow, shell and tube, counter flow b. Water to gas
b. Cross flow, counter flow, shell and tube, parallel flow c. Oil to water
c. Counter flow, shell and tube, cross flow, parallel flow d. Oil to gas
d. Counter flow, cross flow, shell and tube, parallel flow 79. The monochromatic emissive power of a black body with
73. When one of the fluids is condensing the best flow arrangement is increasing wavelength
a. Counter flow a. Decreases
b. Parallel flow b. Increases
c. Cross flow c. Decreases, reaches a minimum and then increases
d. All are equal d. Increases, reaches a maximum and the decreases
74. Thermodynamically the type which leads to lower loss in 80. A gray surface is one of which
availability is a. Reflectivity equals emissivity
a. Parallel flow b. Emissivity equals transmissivity
b. Counter flow c. Emissivity is constant
c. Cross flow d. Absorptivity equals reflectivity
d. Shell and tube 81. As the source temperature increases the wavelength at which the
monochromatic emissive power is maximum
a. Decreases continuously
b. Decreases then increases
75. Effectiveness of a heat exchanger is c. Increases continuously
a. Actual heat transfer/heat content of hot fluid d. Increases and then decreases
b. Actual heat transfer/ heat content of cold fluid 82. The directional emissivity for metallic surface is
c. Actual heat transfer/heat content of higher heat capacity fluid a. Constant from all over the angles from normal
d. Actual heat transfer/heat transfer when minimum heat capacity b. More near the normal and less near the tangential direction
fluid goes through the maximum temperature difference in the c. More near tangential direction compared to normal direction
exchanger d. The distribution is affected more by temperature than by
76. Cross flow exchangers are popularly used for heat transfer direction
a. Liquid and liquid 83. For non metallic insulating materials directional emissivity
b. Liquid and evaporating fluid a. Is constant all over the angles from normal
c. Condensing fluid and liquid b. More at near normal directions than at tangential direction
 c. Less at near normal directions compared to tangential direction 90. The value of shape factor will be highest when
d. Can be as case b or c depending on surface preparation a. The surface are farther apart
b. The surface are closer
84. Selective surface c. The surface are smaller and closer
a. Do not follow Kirchhoffs law d. The surface are larger and closer
b. Adsorb only at definite wavelengths 91. A radiation shield should have
c. Emit only at definite wave bands a. High emissivity
d. All of these b. High absorptivity
85. Glasses are c. High reflectivity
a. Opaque for high temperature radiation d. High emissive power
b. Opaque for low temperature radiation 92. Chooses the correct statement or statements
c. Transparent at short wavelengths a. Highly reflecting surface is suitable for solar heat collection
d. Transparent at long wavelengths through flat plates
e. Opaque for low temperature radiation transparent at long b. The emissivity of smooth surface is higher compared to rough
wavelengths surface of the same material
86. For solar collectors the required surface characteristics c. For a given gas body, the emissivity will decrease with increase
combination is in temperature
a. High emissivity and low absorptivity d. Snow has high emissivity
b. High emissivity and high reflectivity
c. High reflectivity and high absorptivity
d. Low emissivity and high absorptivity 93. Choose the correct statement or statements
87. Emissivity of Gas body of a given composition depends on a. The shape factor of small enclosed body with respect to the
a. Shape and temperature enclosing surface is zero
b. Partial pressure and shape b. The shape factor of small enclosed body with respect to the
c. Partial pressure and temperature enclosing surface unity
d. All of these c. A small opening from a large enclosure at constant temperature
88. For a given shape, partial pressure and temperature the emissivity will provide black body radiation
of d. Black paint is an example of block body
a. O is higher than that of N 94. The reciprocity theorem states
b. N is higher than that of N a. F=F
c. O is higher than that of CO b. AF=AF
d. CO is higher than that of O c. AF=AF
89. The combination which will give the highest gas emissivity is d. F=F
a. Low partial pressure, higher temperature and larger thickness 95. Choose the correct statement or statements
b. Higher partial pressure, higher temperature and larger thickness a. F.=F+F
c. Higher partial pressure, lower temperature and larger thickness b. AF.=AF.+AF
d. Lower partial pressure, lower temperature and larger thickness c. F.=F+F
 d. A.F..=AF..+AF.. b) spray dryer
96. Choose the correct statement or statements c) tray dryer
a. Radiosity is another name for emissive power d) rotary dryer
b. Radiation intensity is the flow per unit area
c. Radiation intensity is the radiant energy per unit solid angle 4. Equilibrium-moisture curves of different solids
d. Irradiation is the total radiant energy incident on a surface a) are different
97. Choose the correct statement or statements b) are same
a. Convex surface have positive value for shape factor themselves c) depend on the humidity of the gas
b. Concave surface have positive value for shape factor with d) none of these
themselves
c. Flat surfaces have positive value for shape factor with
themselves 5. Detergent solution is dried to a powder in a
d. Irregular surfaces have positive value for shape factor with a) spray dryer
themselves b) spouted bed dryer
98. If A=4 and A=2 and F =0.2 then c) tunnel dryer
a. F= 0.2 d) pan open to atmosphere.
b. F=0.8
c. F=0.4 6. If moisture content of a solid on dry basis is X then the same on wet
d. F=0.1 basis is
a) X
DRYING
X+1
1. The vapor pressure exerted by the moisture contained in a wet solid b) X
depends upon the
a) nature of the moisture 1-X
b) temperature c) 1 + X
c) nature of the solid
d) all a, b, and c X
d) 1 X
2. To remove all the moisture from a wet solid requires exposure to
a) perfectly dry air
X
b) highly humid air
c) air at high temperature
7. In paper industry, paper is dried in
d) none of these
a) tunnel dryer
b) heated cylinder dryer
3. Milk is dried usually in a
c) conveyor dryer
a) freeze dryer
d) festoon dryer
 b) critical moisture
8. Moisture content of a substance when at equilibrium with a given c) free moisture
partial pressure of the d) bound moisture
vapor is called
a) free moisture 13. Refractory bricks are usually dried in a
b) unbound moisture a) tray dryer
c) equilibrium moisture b) tunnel dryer
d) bound moisture c) conveyor dryer
d) festoon dryer
9. Calcium ammonium nitrate (a fertilizer) is dried in a
a) rotary dryer 14. Heat sensitive materials like certain pharmaceuticals and food stuff can
b) vacuum dryer be dried
c) tunnel dryer a) in indirect tray dryer
d) none of these b) in spray dryer
c) by freeze drying
d) none of these

15. Moisture contained by a substance in excess of the equilibrium

moisture is called
10. Moisture in a substance exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure less a) unbound moisture
than that of pure liquid at b) free moisture
at the same temperature is c) critical moisture
a) bound moisture d) bound moisture
b) unbound moisture
c) critical moisture
d) none of these
16. Flights in a rotary dryer are provided to
11. Rotary dryer cannot handle a) lift and shower the solids thus exposing it thoroughly to the
a) free flowing materials drying action of the gas
b) dry materials b) reduce the residence time of solid
c) sticky materials c) increase the residence time of the solid
d) granular materials d) none of these

12. Moisture in a solid exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure equal to that 17. In the constant rate period of the rate of drying curve for batch drying
of the pure liquid at a) cracks develop on the surface of the solid
the same temperature is b) rate of drying decreases abruptly
a) unbound moisture c) surface evaporation of unbound moisture occurs
 d) none of these b) its inclination with ground surface
c) both a and b
18. The falling rate period in the drying of a solid is characterized by d) neither a nor b
a) increase in rate of drying
b) increasing temperatures both on the surface and within the 24. Air at a particular humidity is heated in a furnace. The new dew point
solid a) decreases
c) decreasing temperatures b) increases
d) none of these c) depends on the extent of heating
d) remains unchanged
19. Dryer widely used in a textile industry is
a) cylinder dryer 25. The critical moisture content in case of drying indicates
b) conveyor dryer a) beginning of falling rate period
c) tunnel dryer b) beginning of constant rate period
d) festoon dryer c) end of falling rate period
d) none of these
20. Sticky material can be dried in a
a) tray dryer 26. A slurry is to be dried to produce flaky solid. Which dryer would you
b) rotary dryer recommend?
c) fluidized bed dryer a) spray dryer
d) none of these b) drum dryer
c) rotary dryer
21. Drying of a solid involves d) dielectric dryer
a) only heat transfer
b) only mass transfer 27. For continuous drying of granular or crystalline material, the dryer used
c) both heat and mass transfer is
d) none of these a) tunnel
b) tray
22. A solid material shows case hardening properties while drying. Which c) rotary
of the following d) none of these
should be controlled to control the drying process?
a) flow rate of inlet air 28. All moisture in a non-hygroscopic material ismoisture
b) relative humidity of outlet air a) free
c) humidity of inlet air b) equilibrium
d) temperature of the solid c) unbound
d) bound
23. Capacity of a rotary dryer depends on
a) its r.p.m 29. During constant rate period, the rate of drying decreases with
 a) decrease in air temperature c) non-ideal in nature
b) increased air humidity d) at a fixed temperature
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b 2. At a fixed total pressure, humidity depends only on the
a) partial pressure of vapor in the mixture
30. Which is the controlling factor for a drum dryer? b) heat capacity of the vapor
a) diffusion c) density of the vapor
b) heat transfer d) none of these
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b

31. Paper industry employs..dryers

a) cylinder
b) rotary 3. In saturated gas, the
c) spray a) vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the gas temperature
d) fluidized bed b) vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the room temperature
c) partial pressure of vapor equals the vapor pressure of the liquid at
32. Sand is dried in foundaries in a ..dryer room temperature
a) rotary d) none of these
b) fluidized bed
c) vacuum 4. Relative humidity is the ratio of the
d) spray a) partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor pressure of the liquid at
room temperature
33. Free flowing granular materials can be best dried in a b) partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor pressure of the liquid
a) rotary dryer at gas temperature
b) cylinder dryer c) actual humidity to saturation humidity
c) drum dryer d) none of these
d) freeze dryer
5. The percentage humidity is less than the relative humidity only at
a) zero percentage humidity
b) hundred percent humidity
HUMIDIFICATION c) both zero or hundred percent humidity
d) none of these
1. Humidification involves mass transfer between a pure liquid phase and
a fixed gas which is: 6. Heat is BTU necessary to increase the temperature of 1 lb. of gas and
a) insoluble in the liquid its accompanying
b) soluble in the liquid vapor by 1o F is called the
 a) latent heat d) none of these
b) humid heat
c) specific heat 12. The difference of wet bulb temperature and adiabatic saturation
d) sensible heat temperature of unsaturated
mixture of any system is
7. Humid volume is the total volume in cubic feet of 1 lb. of a) positive
a) vapor laden gas at 1 atm. And room temperature b) negative
b) gas plus its accompanying vapor at 1 atm. and room temperature c) zero
c) gas plus its accompanying vapor at 1 atm. and gas temperature d) none of these
d) vapor laden gas at 1 atm. and gas temperature
13. When the temperature and humidity of air is low we usually use
8. The temperature to which a vapor gas mixture must be cooled (at a) natural draft cooling tower
varying humidity) b) forced draft cooling tower
to become saturated is c) induced draft cooling tower
a) dew point d) none of these
b) wet bulb temperature
c) dry bulb temperature 14. The equipment frequently used for adiabatic humidification-cooling
d) none of these operation with
recirculating liquid is
9. The dew point of a saturated gas phase equals the a) natural draft cooling tower
a) gas temperature b) induced draft cooling tower
b) room temperature c) spray chamber
c) wet bulb temperature d) none of these
d) none of these

10. Steady state temperature reached by a small amount of liquid

evaporating into a large amount 15. The most efficient cooling tower out of the following is
of unsaturated vapor-gas mixture is a) induced draft
a) dry-bulb temperature b) forced draft
b) wet bulb temperature c) natural draft
c) dew point d) atmospheric
d) adiabatic saturation temperature
16. Critical humidity of a solid salt means the humidity
11. Dry bulb temperature of the gas is a) above which it will always become damp
a) less than the wet-bulb temperature b) below which it will always stay dry
b) greater than the wet-bulb temperature c) both a and b
c) equal to the wet-bulb temperature
 d) above which it will always become dry and below which it will b) relative humidity increases
always stay damp. c) wet bulb temperature increases
d) both b and c
19. Percentage saturation is..the relative saturation.
a) always smaller than 24. A mixture of 10% C6H6 vapor in air at 25oC and 750 mm Hg has a dew
b) always greater than point of 20oC. Its
c) not related to dew point at 30oC and 700 mm Hg will be around
d) none of these a) 21.7oC
b) 20oC
20. Wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures become identical at c) 27.3oC
a) 100% saturation curve d) 18.7oC
b) 50% saturation curve
c) 78% saturation curve 25. Which of the following remains constant during evaporative cooling
d) none of these process with
recirculated water supply?
21. Which of the following processes is followed by unsaturated air (with a) relative humidity
dry bulb temperature b) partial pressure of vapor
12oC and relative humidity 47%) passing through water spray washer c) wet bulb temperature
(temperature of water being constant at 40oC)? d) none of these
a) humidification only
b) heating only 26. Dew point of a gas-vapor mixture
c) both heating and humidification a) increases with temperature rise
d) evaporative cooling b) decreases with temperature rise
c) decreases with increases in pressure
22. Which of the following remains constant during sensible cooling d) increases with increases in pressure
process?
a) specific humidity 27. Which of the following decreases during evaporative cooling process
b) partial pressure of vapor with recirculated water
c) both a and b supply?
d) neither a nor b a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) partial pressure of vapor
d) none of these

28. Which of the following increases during evaporative cooling process

23. During sensible cooling process with recirculated water
a) relative humidity decreases supply?
 a) wet bulb temperature is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 15 oC. The air
b) relative humidity will be
c) partial pressure of vapor a) cooled and humidified
d) both b and c b) cooled and dehumidified with increase in wet bulb temperature
c) cooled at the same relative humidity
29. The relative saturation of a partially saturated mixture of vapor and gas d) cooled and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb
can be increased by temperature
a) reducing the total pressure of the mixture
b) increasing the total pressure of the mixture 34. Which of the following parameters remains almost constant during
c) reducing the temperature of the mixture adiabatic saturation of
d) both b and c unsaturated air?
a) dry bulb temperature
30. Condensation of a vapor-gas mixture just begin when b) dew point
a) p = P c) wet bulb temperature
b) p P d) none of these
c) p P
d) p>= P 35. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures being 45 oC
where: p = partial pressure of the vapor and 25oC respectively)
P = vapor pressure of the liquid is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 23 oC. The air
will be
31. Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35 oC and a) cooled and humidified with wet bulb temperature decreasing
25oC respectively) is b) cooled and humidified at constant wet bulb temperature
passed through water spray chamber maintained at 35 oC. The air will c) cooled and dehumidified
be d) none of these
a) cooled
b) humidified
c) both a and b Diffusion
d) dehumidified
1. The unit of volumetric diffusivity is
32. In case of unsaturated air a.) cm2/ec b.) cm/sec
a) dew point wet bulb temperature c.) cm3/sec d.) cm3/sec3
b) wet bulb temperature dry bulb temperature
2. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature
c) both a and b
(T) as
d) neither a nor b
a.) D T b.) D T0.5
33. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature and dew point being 35 oC c.) D T1.5 d.) D T3
and 18oC respectively)
3. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P) 9. Corresponding to Prandtl number in heat transfer, the dimensionless
as group in mass transfer is
a.) D T1.5 b.) D 1 a.) Schmidt number b.) Sherwood number
P0.5 c.) Peclet number d.) Stanton number
c.) D 1 d.) D 1
P P1.5 10. Schmidt number is
a.) b.) Re.Pe
4. Molecular diffusion is caused by DAB
a.) transfer of molecules from low concentration to high concentration b.) Sh x Pe d.) Re / Pe
region
b.) thermal energy of the molecules 11. In physical terms, Schmidt number means
c.) activation energy of the molecules a.) thermal diffusivity / mass diffusivity
d.) potential energy of the molecules b.) thermal diffusivity / momentum diffuisivity
c.) momentum diffusivity / mass diffusivity
5. Pick out the correct statement d.) mass diffusivity / thermal diffusivity
a.) Diffusivity decreases with increase in temperature
b.) Diffusivity increases with increase in molecular weight 12. Corresponding to Nusselt number in heat transfer, the dimensionless
c.) Diffusivity increases with the size of the individual molecule group in mass transfer, is
d.) None of these a.) Scherwood number b.) Schmidt number
c.) Peclet number d.) Stanton number
6. Mass transfer co-efficient is defined as
a.) Flux = (Co-efficient) / (concentration difference) 13. Mass transfer coefficient of liquid is
b.) Co-efficient = Flux / concentration difference a.) affected more by temperature than that for gases
c.) Flux = concentration difference / co-efficient b.) affected much by less temperature than that for gases
d.) None of these c.) not affected by temperature
d.) none of these
7. Mass transfer co-efficient (K) and diffusivity (D) are related according
to film theory as 14. Lewis number (Le) is
a.) K D b.) K D a.) Sc x Pr b.) Pr x Sc
c.) K D1.5 d.) K D2 c.) Sc x Pr d.) St x Sh

8. Penetration theory relates average mass transfer co-efficient (K) with

diffusivity (D) as
a.) K D b.) K D 15. Which of the following is not a unit of mass transfer coeffiecient?
a.) moles transferred
c.) K D1.5 d.) K D2
(time)(area)(mole fraction)
b.) moles transferred
 ( time)(area)(pressure)
c.) mass transferred
(time)(area)(mass A / mass B)
d.) none of these
GAS ABSORPTION
16. In case liquid-liquid binary diffusion , diffusivity of one constituent
into another is not dependent on 1. For absorbing a sparingly soluble gas in a liquid, the
a.) temperature and pressure a.) gas side coefficient should be increased
b.) concentration b.) liquid side coefficient should be increased
c.) nature of the constituents c.) gas side coefficient should be decreased
d.) none of these d.) liquid side coefficient should be decreased

17. Steady state equimolal counter diffusion is encountered in 2. For contacting a highly soluble gas with a liquid
a.) separation of a binary mixture by distillation a.) bubble the gas through liquid
b.) absorption of NH4 from air by water b.) spray the liquid on gas stream
c.) all liquid-liquid diffusion systems c.) either a or b will suffice
d.) all liquid-solid diffusion systems d.) none of these

18. Which of the following has the same dimension as mass diffusivity? 3. Wetted wall tower experiment determines
a.) momentum flux b.) kinematic viscosity a.) molal diffusivity b.) volumetric
c.) thermal diffusivity d.) both b and c coefficient
c.) mass transfer coefficient d.) none of these
19. Diffusivity in concentrated solutions differs from that in dilute
solutions because of changes in 4. Stacked packing compared to dumped packing
a.) viscocity with concentration a.) provides poorer contact between the fluids
b.) degree of ideality of the solution b.) gives lower pressure drop
c.) both a and b c.) both (a) and (b)
d.) neither a nor b d.) gives higher drop

20. The value of Lewis number Le = Sc for air-water vapour system is 5. Channeling is most severe
around a.) in towers packed with stacked packing
Pr b.) in towers packed randomly with crushed solids
a.) 1 b.) 0.24 c.) in dumped packing of regular units
c.) 3.97 d.) 600. d.) at very high liquid flow rate

6. Flooding results in
a.) High tray efficiency
 b.) Low tray efficiency
c.) High gas velocity 13. For an absorber, both equilibrium and operating line will be straight for
d.) Good contact between the fluids a.) concentrated solution and non-isothermal operation
b.) dilute solution and non-isothermal operation
7. Operating velocity in a packed tower is usually c.) dilute solution and isothermal operation
a.) half the flooding velocity d.) concentrated solution and isothermal operation
b.) twice the flooding velocity
c.) equal to flooding velocity 14. In case of desorber (stipper)
d.) more than the flooding velocity a.) the operating line always lies above the equilibrium curve
b.) the operating line always lies below the equilibrium line
c.) temperature remains unaffected
d.) temperature always increases
8. At the same gas flow rate, the pressure drop in a packed tower being
irrigated with liquid 15. The minimum liquid rate to be used in an absorber corresponds to an
a.) is greater than that in dry packed operating line
b.) is lower than that in drying packing a.) of slope = 1 b.) of slope =
c.) is same as that in drying packing '1
d.) cannot be predicted as data are insufficient c.) tangential to the equilibrium curved.) none of these

9. Berl saddle made of carbon cannot be used

a.) for alkalis b.) for SO2
c.) for H2SO4 d.) in oxidizing 16. Absorption factor is defined as
atmosphere a.) slope of the equilibrium curve
slope of the operating line
10. Flooding in a column results due to b.) slope of the operating line
a.) high pressure drop b.) low pressure drop slope of the equilibrium curve
c.) low velocity of the liquid d.) high temperature c.) slope of the operating line - slope of the equilibrium curve
d.) slope of the operating linexslope of the equilibrium curve
11. The operating line for an absorbed is curved when plotted in terms of
a.) mole fractions b.) mole ratios 17. H2S present in naphtha reformed gas is removed by absorbing with
c.) partial pressure d.) mass fractions a.) ethanolamine b.) K2CO2
c.) HCL d.) vacuum
12. In case of an absorber, the operating gas soil
a.) line always lies above the equilibrium curve
b.) line always lies below the equilibrium curve 18. If G = insoluble gas in gas stream and L = non-volatile solvent in liquid
c.) line can be either above or below the equilibrium curve stream, then the slope of the operating line for the absorber is
d.) velocity is more than the loading velocity a.) L/G b.) G/L
 c.) always < 1 d.) none of a.) negative b.) positive
these c.) 1 d.) -1

19. Raschig ring made of porcelain cannot be used for treating 24. Ammonia present in the coke oven gas is removed by washing with
a.) concentrated hydrochloric acid a.) caustic solution b.) dilute
b.) concentrated nitric acid ammoniacal liquor
c.) alkalis c.) dilute HCl d.)
d.) concentrated sulfuric acid ethanolamine

20. For absorbers, high pressure drop results in 25. Which of the following is not fixed by process requirements in the
a.) increased efficiency b.) decreased design of absorbers?
efficiency a.) flow rate of the entering gas
c.) high operating cost d.) better gas b.) composition of the entering liquid
liquid contact c.) terminal concentration of gas stream
d.) none of these
21. Which of the following is an undesirable property for an absorbing
solvent? 26. In an absorber, HETP does not vary with
a.) low vapour pressure b.) low a.) flow rate of liquid b.) flow rate of gas
velocity c.) type and size of packing d.) none of these
c.) low freezing point d.) none of these
27. Which of the following is an undesirable property in a low-packing
22. Out of the following properties of a solvent for absorption, which a.) large surface per unit volume
combination of properties provides a good solvent? b.) large free cross-section
I. high viscosity II. Low c.) low weight per unit volume
viscosity d.) large weight of liquid retained
III. high vapour pressure IV. Low vapour
pressure 28. Very tall packed towers are divided into series of beds to
V. high gas solubility VI. High freezing a.) reduce the over-all pressure drop
point b.) avoid channeling
VII. low freezing point c.) reduce liquid hold-up
d.) avoid flooding
Choose from the following combinations:
a.) II,IV,V,VII b.) I,IV,V,VI 29. For the same system, if the same liquid used in an absorber is
c.) II,IV,V,VI d.) I,IV,V,VII decreased, the tower height will
a.) increase
23. When both the fluids flow concurrently in an absorber, the slope of the b.) decrease
operating line is c.) remain unaffected
 d.) decrease or increase depends on the type of liquid 1. For a classification of potable water, we use
a.) gravity sand filter b.) plate and frame
30. HETP is numerically equal to HTU only when operating line filter
a.) lies below the equilibrium line c.) vacuum leaf filter d.) rotary vacuum filter
b.) lies above the equilibrium line
c.) and equilibrium lines are parallel 2. Vacuum filter is most suitable for
d.) is far from the equilibrium line a.) removal of lines from liquid b.) liquid having high vapour
pressure
31. Desirable value of absorption factor in an absorber is c.) liquids of very high viscosity d.) none of these
a.) 1 b.) <1
c.) >1 d.) 0.5 3. Filter aid is used
a.) to increase the rate of filtration b.) to decrease the
32. Absorption accompanied by heat evolution results in pressure drop
a.) increased capacity of the absorber c.) to increase the porosity of the cake d.) as a support base for the
b.) increase in equilibrium solubility septum
c.) decrease in equilibrium solubility
d.) none of these

33. Co-current absorbers are usually used when the gas to be dissolved in 4. During the washing of cake
the liquid is a.) all resistance are constant b.) filter medium resistance
a.) sparingly soluble b.) highly soluble increases
c.) a pure substance d.) a mixture c.) filter medium resistance d.) change resistance
decreases
34. Channeling in a packed tower results from
a.) high pressure drop b.) maldistribution of 5. The porosity of a compressible cake is
liquid a.) minimum at the filter medium b.) minimum at the upstream
c.) non-uniformity of packing d.) both b and c face
c.) maximum at the filter medium d.) same throughout
35. Diameter of raschig rings used in packed tower in industry is normally the thickness
around
a.) 2" b.) 8" 6. The specific cake resistance is
c.) 12" d.) 18" a.) gm / cm2 b.) cm / gm
c.) cm / gm2 d.) gm / gm.

7. The unit of filter medium resistance is

FILTRATION a.) cm-1 b.) gm / cm-
1
 c.) cm / gm-1 d.) gm -1 a.) open sand filter b.) plate and frame
filter
8. The medium resistance is controlled by c.) vacuum leaf filter d.) sparkler filter
a.) the pressure drop along
b.) the flow rate alone 15. The speed of a rotary drum vacuum filter (in rpm) may be
c.) both pressure drop and flow rate a.) 1 b.) 50
d.) the cake thickness c.) 100 d.) 500

9. Compressibility coefficient for an absolutely compressible cake is 16. Gelatinous solid (which plug the septum) can be filtered by
a.) 0 b.) 1 a.) sparkler filter b.) plate and
c.) 0 to 1 d.) none of frame filter
these c.) vacuum leaf filter d.) precost filter

10. In continuous filtration (at a constant pressure drop) filtrate flow rate 17. For laminar of flow of filtrate through the cake deposited on septum
varies inversely as the which of the following with the valid?
a.) square root of the velocity a.) Kozency-Carman Equation b.) Leva's equation
b.) square root of the viscosity c.) Clack-Plummer equation d.) none of these
c.) filtration time only
d.) washing time only 18. Which of the following may prove unsuitable for filtering volatile
liquids?
11. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we use a.) pressure filter b.) gravity filter
a.) sparkler filter b.) plate and c.) centrifugal filter d.) vacuum filter
frame
c.) centrifugal filter d.) rotary drum 19. In washing type plate and frame filter press the ratio of washing rate to
vacuum filter the final filtrate rate is
a.) 4 b.) 1/4
12. The most common filter aid is c.) 1 d.) 1/2
a.) diatomaceous earth b.) calcium silicate
c.) sodium carbonate d.) silica gel 20. Moore filter is a
a.) leaf filter b.) filter press
13. Removal of activated carbon from glycerine is done by c.) rotary filter d.) sand filter
a.) plate and frame filter b.) rotary vacuum
filter 21. Diatomaceous earth is
c.) batch backed centrifuge d.) none of these a.) explosive b.) filter aid
c.) filter medium d.) none of
14. Filtration of water in a paper mill is done by these
22. Flow of filtrate through cake in a plate and frame filter press is best 29. Addition of filter aid to the slurry before filtration is done to .. of the
described by coke
a.) Kozency-Carman equation b.) Hagen-Poiseu a.) increase the porosity
equation b.) increase the compressibility coefficient
c.) Fanning's equation d.) Kremser equation c.) decrease the porosity
d.) decrease the compressibility coefficient

23. A straight line is obtained on plotting reciprocal of filtration rate vs the 30. The cake resistance increases steadily with the time of filtration in a
volume of filtrate plate and frame filter employing constant .. filtration
a.) compressible cakes and laminar flow of filtrate a.) rate b.) pressure
b.) incompressible cakes and laminar flow of filtrate c.) both a and b d.) neither a nor b
c.) compressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrate
d.) incompressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrate 31. The controlling resistance in a rotary drum vacuum filter is the .
Resistance
24. Percentage of drum submerged in slurry in case of rotary drum filter is a.) piping b.) cake
a.) 3% b.) 30% c.) filter medium c.) none of
c.) 85% d.) 25% these

25. Which of the following represents the plot of filtrate cvolume versus
time for constant pressure filtration? ADSORPTION
a.) parabola b.) straight line
c.) hyperbola d.) exponential curve
1. Physical adsorption is
26. With increase in drum speed, in a rotary drum filter, the filtration rate a. an irreversible phenomenon
a.) increases b.) increases linearly b. a reversible phenomenon
c.) decreases d.) is not affected c. accompanied by evolution of heat
d. both b and c
27. The inlet pressure in a constant rate filtration
a.) increases continuously b.) decreases 2. Chemisorption (chemical adsorption) is
c.) remains constant d.) none of these a. same as Van der Waals adsorption
b. characterized by adsorption of heat
28. Which is a continuous filter? c. also called activated adsorption
a.) plate and frame filter b.) cartridge filter d. none of these
c.)shell and leaf filter d.) none of these
3. Rate of adsorption increases as the
a. temperature increases c. pressure decreases
 b. temperature decreases d. size of adsorbent
increases 9. The change in enthalpy per unit weight of adsorbed gas when adsorbed
on gas free or outgassed adsorbent to form a definite concentration of
4. When adsorption hysteresis is observed, the desorption equilibrium adsorbate is called its
pressure is a. integral heat of adsorption
a. always lower than that obtained by adsorption b. heat of wetting
b. always higher than that obtained by adsorption c. differential heat of adsorption
c. same as that obtained by adsorption d. heat of normal condensation
d. dependent on the system can be either lower or higher than that
obtained by adsorption 10. With increase in concentration of the adsorbate the integral heat of
adsorption
5. Which of the following adsorbent is used to decolorize yellow a. increases
glycerine? b. decreases
a. silica gel c. Fullers earth c. remains unchanged
b. alumina d. activated carbon d. may increase or decrease; depends on type of adsorbate

6. Freundlich equation applies to adsorption of solute from 11. The change in enthalpy when a unit quantity of gas is adsorbed by a
a. dilute solutions, over a small concentrated range relatively large quantity of adsorbent (on which a definite concentration
b. gaseous solutions at high pressure of the adsorbed gas already exists) is termed as the
c. concentrated solutions a. differential heat of adsorption c. integral
d. none of these heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting d. heat of
7. In case of physical adsorption, the difference between heat of normal condensation
adsorption and heat of normal condensation is
a. equal to the heat of formation of surface compound 12. As complete saturation of an adsorbent is approached, the differential
b. equal to the heat of wetting heat of adsorption approaches
c. zero a. heat of normal condensation c. zero
d. called integral heat of adsorption b. integral heat of adsorption d. none of
these
8. Pick out the wrong statement
Generally for physical adsorption, a gas of 13. Ion exchange process is similar to
a. higher molecular weight is adsorbed in preference to a gas of low a. absorption c.
molecular weight adsorption
b. high critical temperature is adsorbed in preference to a gas of low b. extraction d. leaching
critical temperature
c. low volatility is adsorbed in preference to a gas of high volatility 14. CO2 can be adsorbed by
d. both b and c
 a. hot cupric oxide c. Cold Ca
(OH)2
b. heated charcoal d. alumina
1. Froth Flotation is most suitable for treating
a. iron ores c. quartz
CENTRIFUGATION b. sulfide ores d. metal ores

2. In Froth Flotation, chemical agent added to cause air adherence is

1. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we use called
a. sparkler filter c. centrifugal filter a. collector c. modifier
b. plate & frame filter d. rotary drum vacuum filter b. frother d. promoter

2. Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using 3. Pine oil used in forth flotation technique acts as a
a. tubular centrifuge c. sparkler filter a. collector c. frother
b. clarifier d. vacuum leaf filter b. modifier d. activator

3. Which of the following can be most effectively used for clarification of 4. Which of the following is the most suitable for cleaning of fine coal
tube oil and printing ink? dust (< 0.5 m)?
a. sparkler filter c. disc-bowl centrifuge a. Through washer c. Spiral separator
b. precoat filter d. sharpless supercentrifuge b. Baum Jig Washer d. Froth Flotation

4. If the radius of a basket centrifuge is halved and the rpm is doubled,

then
a. linear speed of the basket is doubled LEACHING
b. linear speed of the basket is halved
c. centrifugal force is doubled
d. capacity of centrifuge is increased 1. Which of the following operations does not involve leaching?
a. dissolving gold from ores
5. Where the difference in density of the two liquid phases to be separated b. dissolving pharmaceutical products from bark or roots
is very small (as in milk cream separator), the most suitable separator is c. dissolving sugar from the cells of the best
a. disc bond centrifuge c. batch basket d. removing nicotine from its water solution by kerosene
centrifuge
b. sharpless supercentrifuge d. sparkler filter 2. Tea percolation employs
a. liquid-liquid extraction c. absorption
b. leaching d. adsorption

FLOTATION
 b. distillation d. absorption
3. Rate of leaching increases with increasing
a. temperature c. pressure 2. Fractional solvent extraction
b. viscosity of solvent d. size of the solid a. employs only one solvent c. results in low
interfacial tension
4. Stage efficiency in a leaching process depends on the b. employs two solvents d. none of these
a. time of contact between the solid and the solution
b. rate of diffusion of the solute through the solid and into the liquid 3. Choose the best combination or properties for a good solvent for
c. both a and b extraction out of the following
d. vapor pressure of the solution (i) high selectivity
(ii) low selectivity
5. Extraction of coffee from its seed is done by (iii) high viscosity
a. liquid-liquid extraction c. extractive (iv) low viscosity
distillation (v) large distribution coefficient
b. leaching d. steam distillation (vi) small distribution coefficient
(vii) high interfacial tension
6. Leaching of sugar from sugar beets is done by (viii) low interfacial tension
a. hot water c. dilute H2SO4
b. hexane d. lime water a. ( i ), ( iv ), ( v ), ( vii ) c. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ),
( vii )
7. With increase in temperature, the leaching rate increases due to b. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), ( vi ) d. ( i ), ( ii ), ( iv ),
a. decreased liquid viscosity c. both a and b ( vii )
b. increased diffusivity d. neither a nor b
4. Selectivity of solvent used in extraction should be
8. Leaching rate is independent of the a. 1 c. > 1
a. agitation c. temperature b. < 1 d. 0
b. particle size d. none of these
5. In liquid extraction, if selectivity is unity, then
a. separation of the constituent is most effective
b. no separation will occur
LIQUID LIQUID EXTRACTION c. amount of solvent required will be minimum
d. solvent flow rate should be very low

6. When the solvent dissolves very little of solute then

a. solvent of low latent heat of vaporization should be used
1. Heats sensitive materials with very high latent heat of vaporization may b. solvent of low freezing point should be used
be economically separated using c. large quantity of solvent is required to extract the solute
a. liquid extraction c. evaporation
 d. very small quantity of solute is required

7. Which of the following is the most suitable for extraction in a system

having very low density difference? 12. In a countercurrent liquid extractor
a. mixer-settler extractor c. pulsed extractor a. both liquids flow at fixed rate
b. centrifugal extractor d. packed extraction b. both liquids can have any desired flow rate
tower c. only one of the liquids may be pumped at any desired rate
d. liquids flow rate depends upon the temperature and pressure
8. In extraction, as the temperature increases, the area of heterogeneity
(area covered by binodal curve) 13. Sides of equilateral triangular coordinates (on which ternary liquid
a. decreases c. remains system is plotted) represent
unchanged a. a pure component c. a ternary mixture
b. increases d. none of these b. a binary mixture d. partially miscible
ternary system
9. The apex of an equilateral triangular coordinate (internary liquid
system) represents 14. As the reflux ratio, in a continuous counter current extraction is
a. a pure component c. a ternary mixture increased, the number of stages
b. a binary mixture d. an insoluble a. increase c. remain unchanged
binary system b. decrease d. can either increase
or decrease, depends on
10. In a countercurrent extractor as the axial mixing increases, the the system
extraction efficiency
a. increases c. remains 15. Acetic acid will be most economically separated from a dilute solution
unchanged of acetic acid in water by
b. decreases d. depends on the a. solvent extraction c. evaporation
pressure of the system b. continuous distillation d. absorption

11. The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent heat of
vaporization because
a. the pressure drops and hence the pumping cost will be very MATERIALS HANDLING
high
b. it cannot be recovered by distillation
c. its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high
d. it will decompose while recovering by distillation
1. Which is most suitable for transportation of sticky material?
a. apron conveyor c. belt conveyor
 b. screw conveyor d. pneumatic a. 0.0074 cm b. 0.0074 mm c. 0.0047 cm
conveyor d. 0.0047 mm

2. Which of the following cannot be recommended for transportation of 3. The ratio of the area of opening in one screen (Taylor series) to that of
abrasive materials? openings in the next smaller screen is
a. belt conveyor c. apron conveyor a. 1.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. none of
b. flight conveyor d. chain conveyor these
3. For transporting pastry material, one will use 4. Cumulative Analysis for determining surface is more precise than
a. apron conveyor c. belt conveyor differential analysis because of the
b. screw conveyor d. bucket elevator a. assumption that all particles in single fraction are equal in size
b. fact that screening is more effective
4. The capacity of a belt conveyor depends upon two factors. If one is the c. assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in
cross section of the load, the other is the size is not needed
a. speed of the belt c. thickness of the d. none of these
belt
b. length of the belt d. material to be 5. Increasing the capacity of screen
transported a. decreases the screen effectiveness c. does not affect the
screen effectiveness
5. Dry powdery solid material are transported by a b. increases the screen effectiveness d. none of these
a. belt conveyor c. belt conveyor
b. screw conveyor d. bucket elevator 6. Screen efficiency is
a. recovery rejection b. recovery c. rejection d. none of
6. Apron conveyors are used for these
a. heavy loads and short runs c. heavy loads and long runs
b. small loads, long runs d. transporting 7. As particle size is reduced
powdered materials a. screening becomes progressively more difficult
b. screening becomes progressively easier
c. capacity and effectiveness of the screen is increased
SCREENING d. none of these

8. A screen is said to be blinded when

1. The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of Taylor series to that of the a. oversizes are present in undersize fraction
next smaller screen is b. undersizes are retained in oversize fraction
a. 2 b. 2 c. 1.5 d. none of these c. the screen is plugged with solid particles
d. its capacity is abruptly increased
2. The opening of 200 mesh screen (Taylor series) is
9. Size measurement of ultrafine particles can be best expressed in terms a. 10 mm screen and retained on 5 mm screen
of b. 5 mm screen and retained on 10 mm screen
a. centimeter c. micron c. both 5 mm and 13 mm screens
b. screen size d. surface area per unit d. neither 5 mm nor 10 mm screens
mass
18. The critical speed of a trommel (n) is related to its diameter (D)
1
a. N c. N D
10. Trommels separate a mixture of particles depending on their D
a. size c. screen size 1
b. N D d. N
b. wet ability d. electrical and magnetic D
11. Screen capacity is expressed in terms of 19. With increase in the capacity of screens, the screen effectiveness
a. tons/h b. tons/ft2 c. both a and b d. a. remains unchanged c. decreases
2
tons/h-ft b. increases d. decreases
exponentially
12. Which of the following screens has the maximum capacity?
a. grizzlies c. shaking screen 20. Vibrating screens have capacity (tons/ft2 hr mm mesh size) in the
b. trommels d. vibrating screen range of
a. 0.2 to 0.8 c. 50 to 100
13. For sizing of fine materials, the most suitable equipment is a b. 5 to 25 d. 100 to 250
a. trommel c. shaking screen
b. grizzly d. vibrating screen 21. The material passing one screening surface and retained on a
subsequent surface is called
14. Mesh number indicates the number of holes per a. intermediate material c. plus material
a. square inch c. square foot b. minus d. none of the above
b. linear inch d. linear foot

15. Optimum ratio of operating speed to critical speed of a trommel is SEDIMENTATION

a. 0.33 0.45 c. 0.5 2
b. 1.33 1.45 d. 1.5 2.5 Questions 1 and 2 are based on the following information and illustration
In an experiment, a sphere of density 1 and radius r is dropped in
16. 200 mesh screens means
a.
200 openings/cm2 c. 200 openings/cm a tank of oil of viscosity 1 and density 2 . The time of descent for the
b.
200 openings/inch d. 200 openings/inch2 sphere through the first section of height d is recorded as t1 and through the
second section of the same height as t2, 0 < t2 t1 << 1.
17. In screen analysis, notation + 5 mm/ -10 mm means passing through
 4. Drag coefficient for flow of past immersed body is the ratio of
Sphere a. shear stress to the product of velocity head and density
d V (1) b. shear force to the product of velocity head and density
d 2 c. average drag per unit projected area to the product of the
velocity head and density
d. none of these

1. Which of the following is true for the experiment 5. Stokes law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is
a. The drag force exerted on the sphere increases during it descent a. <1 c. >1
through the second section. b. <5 d. none of these
b. The sphere never reaches its terminal velocity while falling
through both sections
c. The sphere reaches its terminal velocity while falling through 6. Drag coefficient CD is given by (in Stokes law range)
the first section 16 24
d. The drag force exerted on the sphere decreases during the descent a. C D c. CD
Re p Re p
through the second section
18.4 0.079
2. The drag force exerted on the sphere during its descent through the b. CD d. CD
Re p Re p 0.23
second section is
4 3
a. 1 2 g r c. 7. At low Reynolds number
3 a. viscous forces are unimportant
4 3 d b. viscous forces control
r 1 g 61r c. viscous forces control and inertial forces are unimportant
3 t2 d. gravity forces control
4
b. 1 g r 3 d. 8. At high Reynolds number
3
a. inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant
4 3 d b. viscous forces predominate
r 1 g 61r
3 c. inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control
t2
d. none of these
3. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the 9. Forces acting on a particle settling in fluid are
a. fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow a. gravitational and buoyant forces
b. the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow b. centrifugal and drag forces
c. the solid on the fluid c. gravitational or centrifugal, buoyant and drag forces
d. none of these d. external, drag and viscous forces
 16. Center of pressure in an immersed body is _______ the center of
10. Terminal velocity is gravity
a. constant velocity with no acceleration a. above
b. a fluctuating velocity b. below
c. attained after moving one-half of total distance c. at
d. none of these d. either above or below; depends on the liquid density

11. In hindered settling, particles are 17. The line of action of the buoyant force passes through the center of
a. placed farther from the wall c. near gravity of the
each other a. submerged body
b. not affected by other particles and the wall d. none of these b. displaced volume of the fluid
c. volume of fluid vertically above the body
12. Drag coefficient in hindered settling is d. horizontal projection of the body
a. less than in free settling
b. equal to that in free settling 18. Drag is the force component exerted on an immersed object
c. not necessarily quarter than in free settling a. passing the centroid of the body at 60 to the direction of motion
d. greater than in free settling b. the component being parallel to the flow direction
c. the component being normal to the flow direction
13. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope of d. none of these
CD vs log NRe plot is
a. 1 c. 1 19. Sphericity of raschig ring (whose length and diameter are equal) is
b. 0.5 d. 0.5 a. >1 c. <2
b. 1 d. 2
14. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies
as the 20. Sphericity of pulverized coal is
a. first power of its diameter a. 1 c. <1
b. inverse of the fluid viscosity b. >1 d.
c. inverse square of the diameter
d. square of the difference in specific weights of solid and fluid 21. Sedimentation on commercial scale occurs in
a. classifiers c. thickeners
15. Buoyant force b. rotary drum filters d. cyclones
a. for non symmetrical bodies is not vertical
b. depends on the depth of the submergence of the floating body 22. For non spherical particle, the sphericity
c. depends on the weight of the floating body a. is defined as the ratio of surface area of a sphere having the
d. none of these same volume as the particle to the actual surface area of the
particle
b. has a dimension of length
 c. is always less than 1 d. none of these
d. is the ratio of volume of a sphere having the same surface area as
the particle to the actual volume of the particle 3. For coarse reduction of hard solids, use
a. impact b. attrition c. compression
23. Sphericity of a cubical particle when its equivalent diameter is taken as d. cutting
the height of the tube is
a.0.5 c. 2 4. Soft and non abrasive materials can be made into fines by
a. attrition b. compression c. cutting
b.1 d. 3 d. none of these

5. Crushing efficiency is the ratio of

24. For raschig rings, the sphericity is a. surface energy created by the crushing to the energy absorbed
a. 0.5 c. < 1 by the solid
b. 1 d. 3 b. the energy absorbed by the solid to that fed to the machine
c. the energy fed to the machine to the surface energy created by the
25. Sphericity for a non-spherical particle is given by crushing
d. the energy absorbed by the solid to the surface energy created by
6V DS
a. c. the crushing.
DS V
V V 6. Rittingers crushing law states that
b. d. a. work required to form a particle of any size is proportional to the
6 DS DS
square of the surface to volume ratio of the product.
where: V and S are volume and surface area respectively of one b. work required to form a particle of a particular size is proportional
particle to the square root of the surface to volume ratio of the product
D = equivalent diameter of particles c. work required in crushing is proportional to the new surface
created
d. for a given machine and feed, crushing efficiency is dependent on
SIZE REDUCTION the sizes of feed and product

1. Sphericity for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter is

a. 0.46 b. 0.5 c. 0.68 d. 0.87

2. Equivalent diameter of a particle is the diameter of the sphere having 7. Bond crushing law
the same a. calls for relatively less energy for the smaller product particle
a. ratio of surface to volume as the actual volume than does the Rittinger law
b. ratio of volume to surface as the particle b. is less realistic in estimating the power requirements of
c. volume as the particle commercial crushes
 c. states that the work required to form particle of any size from very 14. Fibrous material is broken by
large feed is proportional to the square root of the volume to a. Roll crusher c. Ball mill
surface ratio of the product b. Squirrel-cage disintegrator d. none of these
d. states that the work required for the crushing is proportion
15. As the product becomes finer, the energy required for grinding
8. Work index is defined as the a. decreases c. is same as for coarser
a. gross energy (Kwh/ton of feed) needed to reduce very large grinding
feed to such a size that 80% of the product passes a 100 micron b. increases d. is 1.5 times than for
screen coarser grinding
b. energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 200 microns
c. energy (Kwh/ton of feed) needed to crush small feed to such a size 16. Ultrafine grinders operate principally by
that 80% of product passes a 200 mesh screen a. slow compression c. attrition
d. energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 100 microns b. impact d. cutting action

9. The operating speed of a ball mill should be

a. less than the critical speed c. at least 17. The energy consumed by a ball mill depends on
equal to the critical speed a. its speed c. the density of the material
b. much more than the critical speed d. none of these being ground
b. its ball load d. all a, b and c
10. A fluid energy mill is used for
a. cutting c. ultragrinding 18. Grinding efficiency of a ball mill is of the order of
b. grinding d. crushing a. 1 5% c. 75 80%
b. 40 50% d. 90 95%
11. Wet grinding in a revolving mill
a. gives less wear on chamber walls than dry grinding 19. In case of a revolving mill, wet grinding compared to dry grinding
b. requires more energy than for dry grinding a. requires more energy c. complicates handling and
c. increases capacity compared to dry grinding classification of the product
d. complicates handling of the product compared to dry grinding b. has less capacity d. none of these

12. Cement clinker is reduced to fine size 20. Choke crushing (in case of a jaw crusher) compared to free crushing
a. Roll crusher c. Tube mill a. results in increased capacity c. consumes more
b. Ball mill d. Hammer mill power
b. consumes less power d. both a and c
13. For the preliminary breaking of hard rock, we use
a. gyratory crusher c. Tube mill 21. For efficient grinding, ball mills, must be operated
b. Ball mill d. Squirrel-cage disintegrator a. at a speed less than critical speed c. at a speed equal to critical
speed
 b. at a speed more than critical speed d. with minimum possible b. crusher d. ultrafine grinder
small balls
29. Which of the following gives the crushing energy required to create
22. To get ultra fine particles, the equipment used is new surface?
a. ball mill c. hammer crusher a. Taggarts rule c. Rittingers law
b. rod mill d. fluid energy mill b. Ficks Law d. none of these

23. The material is crushed in a gyratory crusher by the action of 30. Size reduction mechanism used in Jaw crushers is
a. impact c. compression a. attrition c. cutting
b. attrition d. cutting b. compression d. impact

24. To get fine talc powder from its granules, the equipment used is 31. Feed size of 25 cm can be accepted by
a. roller crusher c. jaw crusher a. ball mill c. fluid energy mill
b. ball mill d. gyratory crusher b. rod mill d. jaw crusher

25. Ball mill is used for 32. Maximum size reduction in a ball mill is done by
a. crushing c. fine grinding a. attrition c. impact
b. coarse grinding d. attrition b. compression d. cutting

26. The main differentiation factor between tube mill and ball mill is the 33. The main size reduction operation in ultra fine grinders is
a. length to diameter ratio c. final product size a. cutting c. compression
b. size of the grinding media d. operating speed b. attrition d. impact

27. Kicks law relates to 34. The reduction ratio for grinders is defined as
a. energy consumption c. feed size a. Df/Dp c. Df Dp
b. final particle size d. none of these b. Dp/Df d. Dp Df

35. The reduction ratio for fine grinders is

a. 5 10 c. 10 20
b. 20 40 d. as high as 100

36. Maximum size reduction in a fluid energy mill is achieved by

a. compression c. cutting
b. interparticle attrition d. impact

28. Fluid energy mill comes in the category of 37. Pick out the material having minimum Rittingers number
a. Grinder c. cutting machine a. calcite c. quartz
 b. pyrite d. galena c. thick walled vertical vessels d. thick spherical vessels
5. Wind load consideration in the design of a support can be neglected when
38. Pick out the material having maximum Rittingers number the vessel is
a. Calcite c. quartz a. tall (say 30 meters) but is full of liquid b. tall but empty
b. pyrite d. galena c. short (<2 m) and housed indoor d. none of these
6. Leg support is meant for
39. Crushing efficiency of a machine ranges between a. large horizontal cylindrical vessels b. tall but empty
a. 0.1 to 2 % c. 20 to 25 % vessels
b. 5 to 10 % d. 50 to 70 % c. small vessels d. thick walled tall vessels
7. The force due to wind load acting on a tall vessels depends upon its
a. shape b. outside diameter
c. height d. all (a), (b) and (c)
40. According to Bond crushing law, the work required to form particle of 8. Joint efficiency for a seamless pipe is
size D from very large feed is a. 1 b. 0.85
a. S /V p c. S /V p c.1.2 d. 0.5
9. In the design of a paddle agitator the ratio paddle diameter to tank
b. S /V p
2
d. S /V f diameter is normally taken as:
a.0.1 b. 0.8 c.0.25 d.
when S /V p and S /V f are surface to volume ratio of the 0.5
10. The ratio propeller agitator diameter to tank diameter is normally taken
product and feed respectively
as
a. 0.15-0.30 b. 0.5-0.65 c. 0.75-0.85 d.
0.60-0.90
PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN

1. Vertical valves are not supported by

a. brackets
c. column
2. Bracket supports are most suitable for
a. thick walled vertical vessels
c. thin spherical vessel (e.g. Hortonsphere) d. none of these
3. Skirt support is most suitable for
a. small horizontal vessels
vessels
c. tall vertical vessels
vessels
4. Saddle supports are used for supporting
a. horizontal cylindrical vessels
11. Baffle width is normally taken as
b. skirts
a. 0.1-0.12 tank diameter b. 0.4-0.5 tank diameter
d. saddles
c. 0.45-0.6 tank diameter d. 0.2-0.45 tank
diameter
b. horizontal vessels
12. The minimum baffle height should be
a. equal to the impeller diameter b. twice the impeller
diameter
b. large horizontal
c. twice the diameter d. 3/4 of the tank height
13. Baffles may be eliminated for
d. thick walled small vertical
a. low viscosity liquids (<200 poise) b. high viscosity
(>600 poise)
c. large diameter tank d. none of these
b. tall vertical vessels
14. Power required for agitation depends upon the 20. Fouling factor must be included in the calculation of over all design heat
a. height and properties of the liquid b. agitator type and speed transfer co-efficient when the liquid
of agitation a. containing suspended solids flows at low velocity
c. size of agitator and the tank d. all (a), (b) and (c) b. containing suspended solids flows at high velocity
15. The retention time of material in rotary dryer depends upon c. is highly viscous
a. its rpm b. its slope and length d. is of high specific gravity
c. the arrangement of flights d. all (a), (b) and (c) 21. The value of fouling factor depends upon the
16. Filtration rate is affected by a. characteristics of process fluid b. velocity process fluid
a. pressure drop across the cake and filter medium containing suspended solids
b. cake and filter medium resistance c. suspended solids in the fluid d. all (a), (b) and (c)
c. area of filtering surface and viscosity of filtrate
22. Floating head heat exchangers are used for
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
a. heat transfer between corrosive fluids
17. Rate of filtrate delivery is inversely proportional to the
b. cases where temperature difference between the shell and the
a. filtering the area and the pressure difference driving force
tubes is more (>50 C)
b. viscosity of filtrate
c. co-current heat transfer systems
c. cake and filter medium resistance
d. counter-current heat transfer systems
d. both (b) and (c)
23. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, shortest center to center distance
18. In the case of a shell and the tube heat exchanger, the logarithmic mean
between adjacent tubes is
temperature difference
a. called tube pitch
a. is always less than arithmetic average value b. called tube clearance
b. is always more than arithmetic mean value but more than geometric c. always less than the diameter of the tube
mean value d. none of these
c. is always less than arithmetic mean value but more than geometric 24. Shortest distance between two tubes is
mean value a. called tube pitch
d. may be either more or less than geometric mean and arithmetic mean b. called tube clearance
value depending upon whether the flow of stream is co-current or c. more in case of triangular pitch as compared to square pitch of tube
counter-current layout
19. In a double pipe (concentric) heat exchanger, the hydraulic radius for d. none of these
heat transfer (for a fluid flowing through the annulus) would be 25. In most of the shell and tube heat exchanger, the tube pitch is generally
a. less than the diameter of the tube b. 1.25 -1.50 times the tube
a. same as that for fluid flow
diameter
b. less than that for fluid flow
c. 2.5 times the tube diameter d. one-fourth of the tube
c. more than that for fluid flow
diameter
d. D2 - D1 (D1 and D2 are I.D. of inner and outer pipes respectively)
26. Triangular pitch tube layout as compared to square pitch in a shell and
tube heat exchanger
a. permits the use of less tubes in given shell diameter
 b. facilitates comparatively easier external cleaning because of larger d. shell side for larger overall heat transfer co-efficient
clearance 33. When one of the fluids is highly corrosive and has fouling tendency, it
c. permits the use of more tubes in a given shell diameter should
d. both (b) and (c) a. preferably flow inside the tube for its easier internal cleaning
27. Twenty five percent cut segmental baffle means that the baffle b. preferably flow outside the tube
a. height is 75% of the I.D. of the shell b. height is 25% of the I.D. of c. flow at very slow velocity
the shell d. flow outside the tube when the flow is counter-current and inside the
c. spacing is 75% of its height d. width is 25% of its height tube when the flow is co-current
28. In shell and tube heat exchangers, straight tie rods are used to 34. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, the clearance of the tube is generally
a. hold baffle in space b. fix the tubes in a. not less than one-fourth of the tube diameter or 3/16
position b. more than the tube diameter
c. account for thermal strain d. none of these c. equal to the tube diameter
29. Baffle spacing is generally d. more in case of triangular pitch as compared to the square pitch tube
a. more than the I.D. of the shell layout.
b. not greater than the I.D. of the shell 35.For a given fluid as the pipe diameter increases, the pumping cost
c. not less than one fifth of the I.D. of the shell a. decreases
d. both (b) and (c) b. increases
30. Which of the following is the most common baffle used in industrial c. remains unaffected
shell and tube heat exchange? d. may increase or decrease depending upon whether the fluid is
a. 75% cut segmental baffle b. 25% cut Newtonian or non-Newtonian
segmental baffle 36. Optimum economic pipe diameter for fluid flow is determined by the
c. orifice baffle d. disk and doughnut a. viscosity of the fluid
baffle b. density of the fluid
31. In a shell and tube heat exchanger for given heat transfer surface area, c. total cost considerations (pumping cost plus fixed cost of the
smaller diameter tubes are favored as compared to larger diameter ones pipe)
because smaller diameter tubes. d. none of these.
37. Friction factor turbulent flow in new pipe is given by
a. are easier to clean
a. f = 16/NRE b. f = 0.04/(NRE)0.16 c. f = 0.22NRE0.5 d. f =
b. are less prone to fouling
25/NRE
c. can be fitted into a smaller shell diameter hence the cost of the
38. In case of continuous distillation column, increase in the reflux ratio
heat exchanger would be less
may result
d. none of these
a. lower fixed charges for the column b. greater cost for the
32. High pressure fluid in a shell and tube heat exchanger should preferably
reboiler heat supply
be routed through the
c. greater cost for the condenser coolant d. all (a), (b) and (c)
a. tubes to avoid the expense of high pressure shell construction
39. Optimum reflux ratio in a continuous distillation column is determined
b. shell side for smaller total pressure drop
by the
c. shell side if the flow is counter-current and tube side if the flow is
a. maximum permissible vapor velocity
co-current
 b. flooding limit of the column 47. For turbulent flow (NRe>2100) of low viscosity fluid (<20 cp) in steel
c. total cost consideration (fixed cost of the column plus the cooling pipes, the optimum inside pipe diameter is given by
water and steam
0.13
0.45
a. Diopt 3.9 q f c.
cost)

0.49
d. none of these Diopt 4.7 q f 0.14

40. Pressure drop due to pipe fittings can be estimated by p/ = 4f (Le/D)

c
0.45 0.95
(V2/2gc) where Le = a. Diopt 3.9 q f d.
equivalent length of straight pipeline which will incur the same
c
0.36 0.18
frictional loss as the fitting and D = diameter of the fitting. The value
Diopt 3 q f
of Le /D (dimensionless) for 45 elbow and 180 close return bends where qf = fluid flow rate, ft3/sec
would be respectively around = fluid density, lb/ft3
a. 5 and 10 b. 45 and 75
c. 180 and 300 d. 300 and 500 c = fluid viscosity, centipoise
41. Le/D for 90 elbow (medium radius) and 90 square elbow would be Diopt
= optimum inside pipe diameter, inches
respectively around 48. For laminar flow (NRe < 2100) in steel pipe, the optimum inside pipe
a. 25 and 60 b. 3 and 5 diameter is given by
c. 100 and 250 d. 250 and 600
c
0.45 0.28
42. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering run) would be around a. Diopt 3.6 q f c.
a.5 b. 60 Diopt q f
0.487
c
0.025
c. 200 d. 350
c
0.36 0.18
43. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering branch) would be a. Diopt 3 q f d.
a. less than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering run)
c
0.364 0.182
b. more than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering run) Diopt q f
c. around 90
d. both (b) and (c) 49. The necessary wall thickness for a metallic storage vessel is a function
44. Le/D for couplings and unions would be of the
a. 60 b. 200 c. 350 d. a. ultimate tensile strength (or yield point) of the material and operating
negligible temperature
b. operating pressure and welding / joint efficiency
45. Le/D for fully open gate valves would be c. diameter of the vessel
a. much more than that for fully open globe valve d. all (a), (b) and (c)
b. much less (say 2% than that for fully open globe valve) 50. Bubble cap plate column is
c. around 7 a. a finite stage contactor
d. both (b) and (c) b. used only for distillation, not for absorption
46. Le/D for fully open globe valve may be around c. a differential stage contactor
a. 10 b. 25 c. 75 d. d. a continuous contactor
300
51. The most common standard size of bubble caps used in industrial a. drain the liquid from the tray when the unit is not in operation.
operation is b. allow for thermal expansion and facilitate installation
a. 1" diameter cap with 0.5" diameter riser c. avoid back-trapping
b. 6" diameter cap with 4" diameter riser d. none of these
c. 8" diameter cap with 1" diameter riser 57. The function of manholes provided in the shell of a distillation column
d. 4" diameter cap with 8" diameter riser is to
a. keep a check on the liquid gradient over
the plate by direct visual observation
b. give access to the individual trays for
cleaning, maintenance and installation
52. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to the design of the distillation c. guard against foaming and entrainment
column by dumping anti-forming agent through it.
a. Generally, a skirt clearance of 0.5 to 1.5 is recommended to prevent d. all (a), (b) and (c)
plugging of the slots by residue build up. 58. Weep holes provided in the plates of a distillation column
b. The purpose of the slot is to disperse the gas into the liquid in the a. facilitate draining out liquid from a tray when the unit is not in
form of small bubbles. operation
c. If sufficient slot area is not provided, the gas may pass through the b. are normally located near the overflow weir so that any delivery of
skirt clearance liquid during operation follow approximately the same path as the
d. none of these overflow fluid
53. For a given design of bubble cap, the number of bubble caps to be used c. must be large enough (usually 1/4 inch to 5/8 inch diameter) to
per tray is set by the prevent plugging but should not deliver excessive amount of fluid
a. allowable gas velocity through the slots b. plate spacing during operation
c. diameter of the column d. all (a), (b) and (c).
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
54. Maximum and minimum linear slot velocities (in the distillation column
design) as recommended by Davies are respectively 59 59. Excessive liquid gradient on a tray may result in
a. 12/ 0.5 and 3.4/ 0.5 b.3.4/ 0.5 a. maldistribution of gas
and 12/ 0.5 b. back trapping
c. 3.4/ 0.5 and 12/ 0.5 d. 3.4/ 0.5 c. gas blowing beneath cap skirt
and 12/ 0.5 d. all (a), (b) and (c)
55. Normally, the ratio of the total riser area to the tower cross sectional 60. The maximum liquid gradient over a tray must not exceed
area (for bubble cap towers of a. 0.5" - 1.25" b. 2"-3.5"
diameter more than 3 ft) is around c. 5" d. half the
a. 0.4 - 0.6 b. 0.35 - 0.75 tray spacing
c. 0.1 - 0.2 d. 0.55 - 0.85 61. Liquid gradient over the tray results due to
56. An adequate clearance between the tray and the shell wall of a a. the resistance offered to flow of liquids by caps and risers and
distillation column is provided to the flow of gas.
 b. low gas velocity c. excessive liquid gradient over the tray d. low reflux ratio
c. large plate spacing 68. A calming section below the liquid flows into the downcomer is
d. large reflux ratio provided to
62. Liquid gradient over a tray can be minimized by a. permit release of entrained vapor in the liquid
a. providing a higher skirt clearance or a higher weir b. reduce the discharge fluctuation
b. decreasing the number of rows of caps through which the liquid c. ensure better vapor liquid contract
flows or by decreasing the d. cool the liquid before it flows down.
velocity of liquid flow past the caps or by reducing the distance 69. The length of straight rectangular weir used on cross-flow trays is
along the tray through which the generally
liquid must flow. a. 0.6 - 0.8 times the column diameter
c. using split flow, radial flow or cascade flow for column diameter b. equal to the column diameter
larger than 4 ft. c. twice the column diameter
d. all (a), (b) and (c). d. 2 ft irrespective of column diameter (for column 73 ft diameter)
63. Which of the following factors determine the amount of entrainment in 70. Pick out the wrong statement
a distillation column? a. If sufficient residence time (around 8 seconds) is not provided to the
a. plate spacing downcoming liquid in the
b. depth of liquid above the bubble cap slots downcomer, it may entrain some vapor.
c. vapor velocity in the volume between the plates b. The liquid head in the downcomer should not be greater than one
d. all (a), (b) and (c) half the plate spacing to avoid
64. Larger depth of liquid on the trays of a distillation column flooding.
a. lead to high tray efficiency c. The discharge end of the downcomer must project far enough into
b. results in higher pressure drop per tray the tray liquid so that no gas
c. both (a) and (b) bubbles can enter the open end and bypass the bubble caps.
d. neither (a) nor (b) d. none of these
65. The minimum tray spacing in distillation column of diameter than 3 ft is
normally
a. 6" b. 18" c. 24" d. INSTRUMENTATION AND PROCESS CONTROL
34"
66. The minimum plate spacing in most of the petroleum refinery 1. What is the Laplace transform of sin t ?
distillation columns (of diameter 73 ft) (a) __1__ (b) __s_____
is normally s + 1 1 + s
a. 6" b. 12" c. 18" d. 34" (c) __1 (d) __s_____
s - 1 s - 1
2. The transfer function of the first order system is
67. Back-trapping in a distillation column results due to (a) __1 (b) _1_
a. low gas velocity b. high gas Ts + 1 Ts
velocity (c) ___s__ (d) 1/s
 Ts + 1 12. Bode diagram is a plot of
3. Pick out the first order system from among the following (a) log (AR) vs. log (f) and vs. log (f)
(a) damped vibrator (b) log (AR) vs. f and log vs. f
(b) mercury in glass thermometer kept in boiling water (c) AR vs.log (f) and vs. log (f)
(c) interacting system of two tanks in series (d) log (AR) vs. log f
(d) non-interacting system of two tanks in series 13. For measuring the temperature of a furnace, which is the most suitable
instrument?
4. Response of a system to a sinusoidal input called (a) Platinum resistance thermometer (b) Thermocouple
(a) impulse response (b) unit step response (c) Optical pyrometer (d) Bimetallic
(c) frequency response (d) step response thermometer
5. What is the ratio of output amplitude to input amplitude for a sinusoidal 14. Degree to which an instrument indicates the changes in measured
forcing variable without
function in a first order system ? dynamic error is called
(a) 1 (b) > 1 (a) speed of response (b) reproducibility of
(c) < 1 (d) none of these instrument
6. Phase lag of the sinusoidal response of a first order system is (c) fidelity (d) its static
(a) 120 (b) 30 characteristics
(c) 180 (d) 90
7. Conversion formula for converting amplitude ratio (AR) into decibels is 15. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an instrument?
(a) Decibel=20 log10 (AR) (b) Decibel=20 log e(AR) (a) high drift (b) high fidelity
(c) Decibel=20 log10 (AR)0.5 (d) Decibel = log10 (AR) (c) high temperature lag (d) poor
8. A control system is unstable if the open loop frequency response reproducibility
exhibits an 16. Which of the following shows maximum dip affect (indicating reverse
amplitude ratio exceeding unity at the cross-over frequency. This is direction of
(a) Bode stability criterion (b) Nyquist criterion temperature change)?
(c) Routh stability criterion (d) both b and c (a) mercury thermometer (b) radiation pyrometer
9. Typical specifications for design stipulates the gain margin and phase (c) bimetallic thermometer (d) thermocouple
margin to be 17. Pick out the most suitable instrument for measuring temperature in the
respectively range of -40
(a) > 1.7 and > 30 (b) < 1.7 and > 30 to 800F.
(c) < 1.7 and < 30 (d) >1.7 and < 30 (a) mercury thermometer (b) bimetallic
10. The frequency at which maximum amplitude ratio is attained is called thermometer
(a) corner frequency (b) resonant frequency (c) radiation pyrometer (d) radiation
(c) cross-over frequency (d) natural frequency pyrometer
11. A negative gain margin expressed in decibels means 18. Thermocouple is suitable for measuring
(a) a stable system (b) unstable system (a) liquid temperatures only (b) very high temperatures
(c) critically damped system (d) both a and c only
 (c) very low temperatures only (d) both high and low (a) measurement of very high pressure (b) measurement of high
temperatures vacuum
19. Which of the following relates the absorption and evolution of heat at (c) liquid level under pressure (d) liquid level at atmospheric
the junctions pressure
of a thermocouple to the current flow in the circuit? 27. A barometer measures
(a) Seebeck effect (b) Peltier effect (a) absolute pressure (b) gauge pressure
(c) Joule heating effect (d) Thomson effect (c) both absolute and gauge pressure (d) dynamic pressure
20. Thermal wells are used in temperature measurement to
(a) guard against corrosive and oxidizing action on thermocouple 28. The level of a liquid under pressure can be determined using
materials (a) bubbler system (b) differential pressure
(b) reduce measuring lag manometer
(c) increase the fidelity (c) diaphragm box system (d) air-trap system
(d) increase the sensitivity 29. Continuous measurement of specific gravity of a liquid is done by
21. Gas analysis is commonly done using (a) hydrometer (b) contact-type
(a) thermal conductivity cell (b) X-ray diffraction electric indicators
(c) mass spectrometer (d) emission (c) displacement meter (d) both a and c
spectrometer 30. Hot wire anemometer is used for the measurement of
22. Psychrometer determines (a) flow rates of fluid (b) flow rates of
(a) humidity of gases (b) moisture content granular solids
of solids (c) very high temperature (d) thermal
(c) water of crystallization (d) hygroscopic conductivity of gases
nature of solids 31. Flow rate through an orifice is
23. Continuous measurement of moisture content of paper in paper industry (a) proportional to the pressure differential
is done by (b) inversely proportional to the square root of pressure differential
measuring
(a) thermal conductivity through the paper (c) proportional to the square root of pressure differential
(b) electrical resistance through the paper (d) inversely proportional to the square root of pressure differential
(c) magnetic susceptibility 32. Which of the following flow-metering instruments is an area meter?
(d) both b and c (a) venturi meter (b) rotameter
24. Optimal activity of a solution can be determined using a (c) pitot tube (d) hot wire anemometer
(a) polarimeter (b) polarograph 33. Continuous measurement of flow rates of dry granular fertilizer is done
(c) dilatometer (d) refractometer using
25. A simple pitot tube measures (a) velocity meters (b) area-meters
(a) average velocity (b) maximum velocity (c) weighing meters (d) anemometer
(c) point velocity (d) static pressure 34. Pick out the symbol for locally mounted instrument in
26. Pirani gauge is used for instrumentation diagram
(a) (b) (c) (d)
_
_
_
_
_
_
 (c) gain in P controller (d) gain in P-I
35. Which is the symbol for pneumatic control valve controller
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of 43. Phase margin is equal to
these (a) 180 - phase lag (b) phase lag - 180
(c) phase lag + 180 (d) phase lag - 90
44. A system with a transfer function __2s _ is of
4s + 1
36. The symbol for capillary line in instrumentation diagram is (a) zero order (b) 1st order
(a) ___ ___ _ ___ _ ___ (b) (c) 2nd order (d) 3rd order
45. Bode stability method uses
(c) _________________ (d) (a) open loop transfer function (b) closed loop
transfer function
(c) either a or b (d) neither a nor b
37. Instrumentation in a plant offers the advantage of 46. Routh stability method uses
(a) greater safety of operation (b) better quality of product (a) open loop transfer function (b) closed loop transfer function
(c) greater operation economy (d) all a, b and c (c) either a or b (d) neither a nor b
38. Dilatometer is used to measure
(a) stress (b) strain
(c) deflection (d)
contraction/expansion due to changes 47. Nichels chart deals with
in temperature (a) A.R. vs. phase lag of first order
39. Stalagmometer is used for the measurement of (b) A.R. vs. phase lag of second order
(a) kinematic viscosity (b) surface tension (c) closed loop values vs. open loop value
(c) refractive index (d) optical activity (d) frequency response values of controllers
40. Stroboscope is used for the measurement of 48. The fluid used in hydraulic controller is
(a) rpm of a flywheel (b) frequency of light (a) water (b) steam
(c) depression of freezing point (d) liquid level under (c) air (d) oil
pressure 49. Number of poles in a system with transfer function ________1______
41. Minute depression of freezing point of a liquid solvent or addition of a is
solid solute s +
can be best measured by 2s + 1
(a) Beckman thermometer (b) dilatometer (a) 2 (b) 5
(c) mercury thermometer (d) bimetallic (c) 3 (d) 1
thermometer 50. Which of the following controllers has maximum offset?
42. Gain margin is equal to the (a) P-controller (b) P-I controller
(a) amplitude ratio (b) reciprocal of (c) P-D controller (d) P-I-D controller
amplitude ratio 51. Process degrees of freedom
 (a) indicates the maximum number of controller to be used 58. Pressure of 0.01 psi (absolute) can be measured by
(a) Ionization gauge (b) Pirani gauge
(b) indicates the minimum number of controller to be used (c) Mcleoid gauge (d) Bourdon gauge
(c) determines both maximum and minimum number of controllers to 59. Continuous measurement of moisture in paper is done by
be used (a) sling psychrometer
(d) gives no idea of controllers (b) hair-hygrometer
52. Resistance of a gas in a vessel is (c) weighing
(a) __V__ (b) nRT (d) high resistance, Wheatstones bridge circuit
nRT V 60. Pressure of 0.0001 absolute psi can be measured by
(c) nRT (d) __P_ (a) Meloid gauge (b) Pirani gauge
P nRT (c) Thermocouple gauge (d) Bourdon gauge
Where: P =pressure V= volume of the vessel 61. E.m.f. generated by thermocouples is of the order of
n= number of moles of the gas R= gas constant (a) millivolts (b) microvolts
52. In an exothermic chemical reactor, the manipulated variable is the flow (c) volts (d) bi-metallic thermometer
rate of 62. Measurement of sub-zero Celsius temperature in industry is done by
(a) coolant (b) reactant (a) thermocouples (b) resistance thermometers
(c) product (d) hot fluid (c) gas thermometer (d) bi-metallic
53. Use of I-control along with P-control facilitates thermometer
(a) elimination of offset (b) reduction of offset 63. Starting temperature of optical radiation pyrometer is
(c) reduction of stability time (d) both b and c (a) 800C (b) 400C
54. Which of the following error integral is considered as the best criterion (c) 1200C (d) 1500C
in controller settings? 64. Which thermocouple can be used to measure temperature around
(a) | e | dt (b) | e | dt 1400C?
0 0
(a) copper-constantan (b) aluminum-chromel
2
(c) e dt (d) both a and b (c) platinum-platinum+rhodium (d) copper-aluminum
0
65. pH meter has
55. Cascade control means (a) one cell (b) two cells
(a) feed forward control (b) more than one feed-back (c) three cells (d) no cell
loop 66. Maximum differential pressure in liquid manometer is
(c) on-off control (d) one feed-back loop (a) 20 psi (b) 30 psi
56. Which of the following controllers has the least maximum deviation? (c) 40 psi (d) 50 psi
(a) P-controller (b) P-I controller 67. Interfacial level in pressure vessel is measured by
(c) P-I-D controller (d) P-D controller (a) float (b) manometers of float type
57. Measurement of pressure in ammonia reactor is done by (c) U-tube manometer (d) Bourdon gauge
(a) Bourdon gauge (b) U-tube
manometer
(c) Inclined tube manometer (d) Pirani gauge
68. Flow rate of sludge is measured by (c) does not vary with time (d) varies as square of the time
(a) V-notch (b) rectangular notch 79. Regulator problem means that
(c) circular pipe (d) Kennison nozzle (a) set point is constant (b) load is constant
69. Composition of natural gas can be determined by (c) both set point and load are constant (d) neither
(a) chromatograph (b) orsat apparatus set point nor
(c) spectrometer (d) photometer load is
70. Bellows are made of constant
(a) leather (b) paper 80. Servo problem means that
(c) plastic (d) thin copper (a) set point is constant (b) load is constant
71. Flapper nozzle is a (c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b
(a) pneumatic controller (b) hydraulic
controller
(c) electronic controller (d) both a and b 81. Critically damped system means that the damping coefficient is
72. Weir valve is used for (a) 1 (b) < 1
(a) slurries (b) acids (c) > 1 (d) 0
(c) neutral solutions (d) bases 82. In Bode stability criterion, amplitude ratio at 180 should be
73. Valve used to supply oil to burner is (a) 1 (b) < 1
(a) gate valve (b) butterfly valve (c) > 1 (d) 0
(c) rotary plug valve (d) both a and b 83. Phase plane method is used for
74. Mode used for transmitting signal for one kilometer distance is (a) linear-behavior (b) non-linear behavior
(a) hydraulic (b) pneumatic (c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b
(c) electronic (d) all a, b and c 84. Laplace transform method is used for
75. Use of pilot in transmission (pneumatic) is to (a) linear behavior (b) non-linear behavior
(a) speed up signal (b) change the flow (c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b
of air 85. Phase lag of first order system is
(c) adjust the signal (d) all a, b and c (a) tan-1 (T) (b) tan-1 (T)
76. Final control element is a (c) /2 (d) 0
(a) valve (b) switch 86. P-I controller as compared to P-controller has a
(c) signal (d) both a and b (a) higher maximum deviation (b) longer response time
77. Example of a second order instrument is a (c) longer period of oscillation (d) all a, b and c
(a) mercury-glass thermometer with covering 87. Difference at any instant between the value of controlled variable and
(b) bare mercury-glass thermometer the set point is
(c) pressure gauge called
(d) Bourdon gauge (a) deviation (b) derivative time
78. Offset (c) error ratio (d) differential gap
(a) varies with time (b) varies exponentially 88. The time difference by which the output of a P-D controller leads the
with time input when the input changes linearly with time is called
 (a) error ratio (b) derivative time (a) semiconductor whose resistance decreases with temperature
(c) proportional sensitivity (d) gain rise
89. Steady state deviation resulting from a change in the value of the load (b) metal whose resistance increases linearly with temperature rise
variable is called (c) metal whose resistance does not vary with temperature
(a) offset (b) error ratio
(c) deviation (d) static ratio (d) device for measuring nuclear radiation
90. Time required for the output of a first order system to change from a 96. Which of the following factors does not influence measurement
given value to within 36.8% of the final value when a step change of input accuracy?
is made is called (a) static and dynamic error (b) reproducibility
(a) time constant (b) settling time (c) dead zone (d) none of these
(c) rise time (d) derivative time 97. Which of the following is suitable for measuring the temperature of a
91. A controller action in which there is a continuous linear relation red hot moving object
between value of the controlled variable and rate of change of controlled (e.g. steel ingots on roller table) ?
output signal is called (a) thermocouple (b) radiation
(a) proportional action (b) integral action pyrometer
(c) derivative action (d) proportional- (c) thermistor (d) radiograph
integral action 98. Thermocouples
(a) have very slow speed of response

92. A controller action in which there is a continuous relation between (b) cant be connected to the measuring instrument remotely located
value of the controlled variable and the value of the output signal of the (c) need cold junction compensation
controller is called (d) are much less accurate compared to bimetallic or vapor pressure
(a) proportional action (b) derivative action thermometer
(c) integral action (d) proportional-derivative 99. Selection of material for thermocouple depends on the
action (a) depth of immersion in the hot fluid
93. Steady state ratio of the change of proportional controller output (b) minimum and maximum temperature
variable and the (c) pressure and velocity condition of the fluid whose temperature is
change in actuating signal is called to be measured
(a) proportional sensitivity (b) reset rate (d) both a and b
(c) rangeability (d) integral action
94. In case of flow measurement by an orifice, the pressure difference
signal is
proportional to 100. Radiation pyrometers
(a) Q (b) Q (a) have very low speed of response
(c) Q3 (d) 1 /Q
where Q= volumetric flow rate (b) need not see the temperature source; it is measuring
95. Thermistor is a
 (c) cant measure temperature of objects without making physical (a) incurs constant and small permanent pressure drop
contact (d) none of these (b) incurs constant but very large permanent pressure drop
101. V-notch is used to measure flow rate of a liquid in (c) is inaccurate for low flow rates
(a) an open channel (b) a non-circular cross-section closed (d) need not be mounted always vertically
channel
(c) vertical pipeline (d) horizontal pipeline
102. Which of the following is not a head flowmeter?
(a) segmental orifice plate (b) pitot tube
(c) rotameter (d) flow nozzle
103. Flow rate of a liquid containing heavy solids (e.g. sand) can be best 108. On-off control
measured by (a) fully opens the final control element when the measured variable
(a) pitot tube (b) concentric orifice is below the set point
(c) eccentric orifice (d) rotameter (b) fully closes the final control
104. Orifice plates for flow measurement element when the measured variable is above the set point
(a) incurs very low permanent pressure loss (c) is a two position (fully open or fully closed) control adequate
(b) has poor accuracy on high orifice ratios (above 0.75) to control a process with slow reaction rate and minimum dead
(c) cant be easily interchanged time or transfer lag
(d) all a, b, and c
(d) is best for very large liquid flows and big pipelines 109. Floating control action
105. Pitot tube is used (a) moves the final control element at constant speed in either
(a) for highly accurate flow measurement direction in
response to an error signal
(b) when the fluid contains lot of suspended material (b) changes the position of the final control element from
(c) when the line is large and the velocity is high on to off
(c) is used to counteract rapid load changes
(d) both a and c
106. In an area meter (e.g. rotameter), the flow rate is b (d) both b and c
a (a) proportional to the square root of the differential pressure 110. Cascade control is
(a) the continuous adjustment of the set point index of an automatic
(b) inferred from the change in area of an orifice in the flow line control loop by a primary (master) controller
across which the pressure differential is constant zero (b) used when changes in process conditions
(c) inferred from change in flow cross-section across which the cause serious upsets in controlled variable
pressure differential is zero (c) useful to control flow from temperature

(d) all a, b and c (d) all a, b and c

107. A rotameter
 8. Presence of cobalt in steel improve its
MATERIALS OF CONSTRUCTION a. cutting ability b. corrosion resistance
c. tensile strength d. none of these
1. Bog iron is used for adsorption of H2S from coke oven gas is 9. The impure iron (Pig iron) that is taped out from blast furnace
a. an intimate mixture of saw dust and iron dust (i.e. moist contains about
ferric hydroxide) a. 0.2% carbon b. 2% carbon
b. iron impregnated with resin (usually bakelite) c. 4% carbon d. 8% carbon
c. carbon free iron 10. Carbon content in steel is
d. none of these a. 0.1 2% b. 4 6%
2. Iron alloyed with carbon up to 2% is called c. 5- 10% d. 0
a. pig iron b. wrought iron 11. An ideal material of construction for the storage of 50% caustic
c. high carbon steel d. none of these soda solution would be
3. The softest material in Mhos scale (for measuring hardness) is a. Karbate b. high silica cast iron
a. talc b. gypsum c. monel d. none of these
c. rubber d. none of these 12. For storing water and acid free benzol, use
a. steel vessel b. karbate vessel
c. stainless steel vessel d. none of these
13. Brine (15% concentration) can be stored in a vessel made of
a. monel b. karbate
4. Karbate is c. cast iron d. none of these
a. a mixture of iron dust and saw dust 14. Most suitable material of construction for the storage of
b. carbon impregnated with resin (usually bakelite) concentrated nitric acid is
c. acid resistant material a. cast iron
d. both (b) and (c). b. monel
5. Duralumin is an alloy of c. karbate
a. aluminum, copper and manganese d. aluminum or chromium alloys (Cr > 18% for cold acid).
b .aluminum, nickel and silicon 15. Babbit metal (used for making bearings) comprises
c. aluminum and nickel a. mainly tin (85%) and lead
d. none of these b. saw dust and iron dust mixture
6. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by the addition of c. zinc and aluminum
a. phosphorus and tungsten d. copper and aluminum
b. nickel and chromium 16. The material of construction of pressure mills used for squeezing
c. lead and vanadium out the juice from sugar cane is
d. molybdenum and tungsten a. stainless steel b. cast iron
7. White metal is an alloy of c. mild steel d. monel.
a. lead, tin and cadmium b. copper, tin and zinc 17. Chlorination of benzene is done to produce benzene hexachloride
c. copper and lead d. none of these (a pesticide) in a photochemical reactor lined with
 a. karbate b. lead or glass 26. Bronze is an alloy of
c. fire clay bricks d. PVC a. lead and copper b. copper and tin
18. Polymerization reactor used for the production of styrenebutadiene c. nickel and copper d. copper and zinc
rubber (SBR) is made of 27. Rotary kilns in cement industry are lined with
a. vessel b. stainless steel or glass lined vessel a. fire clay b. silica
c. karbate d. wrought iron c. lead d. high alumina and high magnesia
19. Which of the following is the most suitable material of bricks
construction for evaporator and its tubes for concentrating NaOH 28. In the Kraft (sulfate) process for the paper manufacture the digester
solution to 70%? is made of
a. cast iron b. steel a. cast iron b. stainless steel
c. nickel d. karbate c. karbate carbon d. wrought iron
20. Most common stainless steel type 316, which it highly resistant to 29. Dry chlorine can be handled in a vessel made of
corrosion contains a. iron or steel b. PVC
a. 16 13% chromium, 10 14% nickel and 2 3% c. nickel d. brass
molybdenum 30. Tank furnace used for melting of glass is made of
b. 20 22% chromium, and 8 10% nickel a. mild steel b. cast iron
c. 2 4% chromium, 22% nickel and 2 4% molybdenum c. refractory blocks d. stainless steel
d. none of these 31. Stainless steel contains
21. Caustic soda can be stored in a. chromium and nickel b. copper
a. steel drums b. cast iron drums c. aluminum d. vanadium
c. brass drums d. gun metal drums 32. Caustic soda is reduced in a mercury cell having anode and
22. Brass is an alloy of cathode made respectively of
a. nickel and tin b. copper and zinc a. moving mercury and graphite
c. tin and lead d. copper, nickel and zinc b. graphite and moving mercury
23. The carbonating tower used in Solvay Process of soda ash c. moving mercury and carbon
manufacture is made of d. moving mercury and crimped steel wire
a. cast iron b. stainless steel 33. Monel metal is an alloy of
c. karbate d. lead lined steel a. molybdenum and nickel
24. Gun metal is an alloy of b. nickel and copper
a. nickel, tin and copper c. molybdenum and aluminum
b. copper, tin and zinc d. molybdenum and zinc
c. copper, phosphorus and nickel 34. German silver is an alloy of
d. manganese, phosphorus and nickel a. copper, nickel and zinc
b. copper, aluminum and silver
25. Marcy ball mills are usually made of c. silver, zinc and aluminum
a. steel b. cast iron d. silver, nickel and zinc
c. stainless steel d. bronze 35. Chromel (Nichrome) is an alloy of
 a. chromium and molybdenum c. mildly d. highly
b. nickel and chromium 45. In SO3 absorber (Contact Process), packing material used is of
c. molybdenum and nickel a. cast iron b. chemical stoneware
d. chromium and aluminum c. karbate d. mild steel
36. Urea autoclave is made of 46. Valves in pipe sizes of 2 and under are normally made of
a. cast iron b. refractory blocks a. wrought iron b. brass
c. stainless steel d. lead lined steel c. bronze d. monel
37. Steel tower used for storage of oleum 47. Acid proof stoneware
a. is lined with lead b. need not be lined a. has very low strength
c. is lined with rubber d. is lined with acid-proof b. cannot be heated
bricks c. is broken by small temperature changes
38. Hydrochloric acid is stored in d. all (a), (b) and (c)
a. lead lined steel vessel b. rubber-lined steel vessel 48. Duriron is
c. stainless steel vessel d. cast iron vessel a. acid resistant, brittle and very hard
39. Photographic plates are coated in b. high silicon iron
a. silver nitrate b. silver halide c. prone to breakage due to thermal expansion because of very high
c. calcium silicate d. metallic silver co-efficient of thermal expansion.
40. Aqueous nitric acid is stored in d. all (a), (b) and (c)
a. steel drum 49. Lead pipe is
b. stainless steel vessel a. especially resistant to solutions containing H2SO4
c. cast iron vessel lined with acid-proof masonry brick b. usually joined by burning (e.g. by melting to adjacent pieces
d. cast iron vessel with a torch)
41. SO3 is absorbed using H2SO4 in c. having very low elastic limit resulting in permanent deformation
a. cast iron packed tower from either mechanical or thermal strain
b. stainless steel plate tower d. all (a), (b) and (c)
c. packed steel tower lined with acid proof bricks 50. The most resistant material to alkaline corrosion is
d. none of these a. duriron b. nickel
42. Hydrochloric acid absorber is made of c. aluminum d. karbate
a. cast iron b. mild steel 51. Presence of nickel in steel improves its
c. karbate d. stainless steel a. corrosion resistance b. cutting ability
43. Sulfuric acid is mixed with ground phosphate rock (to produce c. wear resistance d. all (a), (b) and (c)
phosphoric acid) in a steel digester lined with 52. An alloy of iron containing 4% carbon is called
a. acidic refractory b. rubber a. high carbon steel b. wrought iron
c. karbate d. lead or acid-proof bricks c. mild steel d. none of these
44. Fill up the blanks from among the following alternatives: 53. Bell metal is an alloy of
Hydrochloric acid is _______ corrosive to common metals a. copper and zinc b. copper and tin
a. least b. not c. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin
54. Inconel is an alloy of 62. H2SO4 (<50% concentration) is corrosive to
a. tin, zinc and nickel b. iron, nickel and a. aluminum, mild steel, stainless steel, concrete and tin
chromium b. copper, cast iron and high silicon iron (14% Si)
c. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin c. rubber (butyl and hard) silicon rubber and teflon
55. Hastelloy comprises d. glass, graphite, porcelain and stoneware
a. copper and tin b. copper and nickel 63. Aluminum storage vessel can be used to store
c. molybdenum and nickel d. lead and tin a. aqua regia b. ferrous sulfate
56. Ability of a material to absorb energy in deformation in the plastic c. hydrochloric acid (10%) d. none of these
range is characterized as its 64. Brass container is suitable for storing
a. ductility b. toughness a. aqueous ammonia b. beer
c. creep d. resilience c. H2SO4 (95% concentration) d. phosphoric acid
57. Slow and progressive deformation of a material with time under (95%)
constant stress is called 65. Cast iron vessels are not suitable for the storage of
a. creep b. erosion a. Freon b. H2SO4 (95%) at room
c. resilience d. none of these temperature
58. Wrought iron is c. H2SO4 (fuming) d. Wet SO2
a. high carbon iron 66. Out of the following, copper vessels are most suitable for the
b. highly resistance to acid corrosion storage of
c .malleable and ductile; hence used for chain links, hooks and a. bromine
couplings b. dry chlorine and dry fluorine
d. an alloy of iron, chromium and carbon c. nitric acid (95% and fuming)
d. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95% and fuming)
67. Gun metal and bronze are not corroded by the action of
59. Which of the following constituents of cast iron is mainly a. wet chlorine b. synthetic
responsible for imparting it an anti-corrosive property? detergent solution
a. silicon b. phosphorus c. hydrochloric acid (10%) d. nitric acid (<25%)
c. sulfur d. none of these
60. Mild steel is
a. a low carbon steel (0.05 0.3% carbon)
b. highly resistance to corrosion (as much as stainless steel)
c. a high carbon steel (0.5 1.5% carbon)
d. very poor in strength and ductility 68. Containers made of high silicon cast iron (14% Si) are not suitable
61. Presence of manganese in alloy steel improves its for the storage of
a. corrosion resistance a. acetic acid
b. cutting ability b. benzoic and boric acids
c. abrasion resistance and toughness c. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95%)
d. elasticity and creep resistance d. hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
69. Lead lined equipments and vessels are suitable for handling c. sulfuric acid d. none of these
a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. nitric acid
c. sulfuric acid up to 60C d. all (a), (b) and (c) 80. Polythene (low or high density) containers are not corroded by
70. Mild steel storage vessels are suitable for the storage of a. sulfuric acid (10%) at room temperature
a. anhydrous ammonia b. fatty acids b. nitric acid (95%) at room temperature
c. hydrochloric acid (95%) d. sulfuric acid (25%) c. sulfur trioxide at 60C
71. Nickel made clad equipments are suitable for handling d. any of these
a. ammonia (both aqueous and anhydrous) 81. The most commonly used resin for making reinforced plastic is
b. fruit juices, milk and its products and caustic soda solution a. unsaturated polyester b. polyproplylene
c. nitric acid and hydrochloric acid (concentrated) c. polyurethane d. nylon 6
d. sulfuric acid (concentrated) 82. Carbon tetrachloride can be stored in a storage vessel made of
72. Platinum and silver are corroded by a. high silicon iron (14%) b. tin
a. caustic soda solution b. phosphoric acid c. stainless steel d. all (a), (b) and (c)
c. sulfuric acid (10%) d. none of these 83. Concrete tank can be used to store
73. 18-8 stainless steel means that it contains a. alum b. sulfuric acid
a. 18% chromium and 8% nickel c. sulfuric acid d. saturated brine
b. 18% chromium and 8% molybdenum 84. Glass is corroded by
c. 18% nickel and 8% chromium a. fluorine (dry or wet) b. sulfuric water
d. 18% molybdenum and 8% chromium c. phosphoric acid d. none these
74. Stainless steel is not corroded by 85. Graphite is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. nitric acid (10%) a. sulfuric acid (10%) b. sea Water
c. sulfuric acid (10%) d. saturated brine b. hydrochloric acid d. none of these
75. Tin vessels are corroded by 86. Wood is corroded by
a. anhydrous ammonia b. aromatic solvents a. hydrochloric acid b. SO2 (dry or wet)
c. synthetic detergent solution d. none of these c. chlorine (dry or wet) d. all (a), (b) and (c)
76. Rubber lined vessels are corroded by the action of 87. The 'bomb' in the bomb calorimeter is made of
a. aqua regia b. chloroform a. molybdenum stainless steel b. mild steel
c. sulfuric acid (95%) d. all (a), (b) and (c) c. high silicon iron (14% Si) d. copper
77. Silicon rubber is not resistant to the corrosive action of 88. Most suitable material for high pressure vessel operating at 500 atm
a. sulfuric acid (10%) b. sulfuric acid (95%) and 500C is
c. ether d. both (b) and (c) a. molybdenum stainless steel b. 18-8 stainless steel
78. Perspex is nothing but c. mild steel d. high
a. acrylic sheet b. an elastomer silicon iron (14% Si)
c. an alloy of lead and tin d. aluminum foil clad with 89. Centrifugal pump made of pyrex or glass can't be used to pump
bakelite a. mild and fruit juices b. alkaline solutions
79. Teflon is corroded by c. dilute H2SO4 at room temperature d. brine
a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. hydrochloric acid (95%) 90. Rubber lined pumps can be used to pump
 a. caustic soda b. chlorinated brine 98. Which of the following material of construction may be recommended
c. hypochlorous acid d. all (a), (b) and (c) by a chemical engineer
91. Copper is dissolved from its ore by H2SO4 in percolation tanks made for handling a gaseous chlorine (dry or wet) stream in a fluid flow
of system?
a. wood b. stainless steel a. High silicon iron, silicone rubber, Kel-F and teflon
c. reinforced concrete lined with lead d. high silicon iron (14% b. Mild steel and stainless steel
Si) c. Cast iron, tin and aluminum
92. Rotary dryers are generally made of d. Copper, nickel and monel
a. cast iron b. mild steel 99. Which of the following materials may prove unsuitable for handling
c. high silicon iron (14% Si) d. tin lined with refractory acetic (glacial and
bricks anhydrous) at 40C?
a. silicone rubber, teflon, porcelain and wood
b. nickel, monel, stainless steel and graphite
93. Kel-F is c. aluminum, copper, high silicon iron
a. nothing but polycholorotrifluroethylene d. brass, cast iron, mild steel and tin
b. having excellent chemical and high temperature resistance (up to 100. 100% H2SO4 at 30C can't be used and stored in a vessel made/ lined
200C) with
c. an elastomer a. cast iron and high silicon iron b. mild steel and
d. all (a), (b) and (c) stainless steel
94. Zircaloy used as a fuel cladding material in a nuclear reactor (thermal) c. aluminum, tin and rubber d. teflon, glass and porcelain
is an alloy of zirconium
a. tin, nickel, iron and chromium b. and graphite
c. and copper d. none of these
95. Which of the following would not be a suitable material of ENGINEERING ECONOMY
construction for handling aqueous
hydrofluoric acid (HF) at 100C?
a. none b. stainless steel 1. The following cost item which in common both the fixed and operating
c. graphite d. Kel-F and Teflon cost of an enterprise is:
96. Specify the materials of construction suitable for handling a. interest b. depreciation
concentrated HNO3 at 100C. c. taxes d. supplies
a. high silicon iron, Kel-F and Teflon b. silicon rubber 2. The length of time, usually in years for the cumulative net annual profit
c. tin and wood d. stainless steel to equal the investment is called:
97. Concentrated HCl at 30C can be stored in a vessel made of a. receivable turnover b. return of investment
a a. PTFE and porcelain c. price earning ratio d. payback period
b. cast iron and aluminum 3. The reduction in value and marketability due to competition from
c. stainless steel and high silicon cast iron newest products / model
d. copper, nickel and monel a. depreciated cost b. fixed cost
 c. indirect cost d. obsolescence c. written contract d. equity capital
4. Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth 13. Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the expectation
a. production b. break even point that profit will be earned.
c. balance method d. balance sheet a. equity capital b. investment
5. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less c. working capital d. present
depreciation. 14. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid
a. earning value b. scrap value and the debt be repaid at a specific place and time
c. book value d. face value a. discount b. cash flow
6. The type of interest that is periodically added to the amount of loan so c. working capital d. borrowed capital
that subsequent interest is based on the cumulative amount. 15. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain
a. compound interest b. simple interest price at a given place and time
c. interest rate d. sinking fund a. supply b. demand
7. Output or sales at which income is insufficient to equal operating cost c. discount d. investment
a. break even point b. investment 16. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at
c. depreciation d. cash flow a given place and time.
8. The price at which a given product will be supplied and purchased is a. supply b. demand
the price that will result in the supply and the demand being equal. c. discount d. investment
a. law of demand and supply b. law of diminishing returns 17. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product that
c. present worth method d. obsolescence action of one will lead to almost the same action by the other.
9. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end of its estimated a. monopoly b. oligopoly
life. c. semi monopoly d. perfect competition
a. break even point b. cash flow 18. Is the simplest form of business organization
c. interest d. book value a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
10. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end if its estimated c. partnership d. corporation
life. 19. An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a
a. book value c. salvage value profitable business
c. depreciation d. cash flow a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
11. A lessening of the value of an asset due to a decrease in the quantity c. partnership d. corporation
available as a coal, oil and timber in forests. 20. A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business
a. depletion b. depreciation transaction which a real person could do.
c. amortization d. investment a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
21. An increase in the value of capital asset is called
12. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period of net a. profit b. capital gain
loss that ten years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of c. capital expenditure d. capital stock
the corporation or its subsidiaries. 22. The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called
a. appraisal b. bond a. capital expenditure b. capital loss
 c. loss d. deficit 31. It is the difference between present worth and the worth of the paper at
some time in the future
a. discount b. amortization
23. The difference between sales revenue and the cost of goods sold c. depletion d. investment
a. net income b. gross profit 32. The value which is usually determined by the disinterested third party
c. rate of return d. gross national in order to establish a price that is fair to both seller and buyer.
product a. fair value b. market value
24. A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand c. salvage value d. book value
is consistently high in relation to its supply 33. The price that can be obtained from the sale of property or second hand
a. money market b. hard currency a. book value b. salvage value
c. treasury bill d. certificate of c. fair value d. market value
deposit 34. The process of determining the value of certain property for specific
25. Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a reasons
period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain a. amortization b. appraisal
assets of a corporation c. investment d. depreciation
a. bonds b. T-bills
c. stock d. all of these
26. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit 35. A bond whereby the security behind it are the equipments of the issuing
a. time deposit b. bond corporation
c. capital gain d. certificate of a. debenture bond b. lien bond
deposit c. collateral bond d. mortgage bond
27. The amount of a company's profit that the board of directors of the 36. An annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the
corporation decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders periodic payment continue indefinitely.
a. dividend b. return a. ordinary annuity b. deferred annuity
c. share stock d. par value c. annuity due d. perpetuity
28. a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security 37. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the
a. bond b. bank note product it is designed to produce at a profit
c. coupon d. check a. write off period b. physical life
29. The process determining the value of certain properties for definite c. economic life d. perpetual life
reasons 38. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is
a. valuation b. appraisal constant each year
c. estimate d. both a and b a. Matheson formula b. Straight line method
30. Represent ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock c. SYD method d. Sinking fund
a. authorized capital stock b. preferred stock method
c. common stock d. incorporators 39. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it and
stock which can engage in practically any business transaction which a real
person can do.
 a. sole proprietorship b. partnership a. analytic b. gratuitous
c. corporation d. all of the above c. private d. pure
40. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any 49. Gross, profit, sales less cost of goods sold as a percentage of sale is
change in operation or policy which is made. called
a. fixed cost b. increment cost a. profit margin b. gross margin
c. variable cost d. differential cost c. ROI (rate of return) d. price earnings
41. The length of time at which the original cost of capital used to purchase 50. The series of equal payments at equal intervals of time
a unit have already been recovered. a. interest b. depreciation
a. economic life b. write off period c. annuity d. amortization
c. physical life d. salvage life 51. A legally binding agreement on promise to exchange goods or services
42. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as: a. contract b. barter
a. compound interest b. nominal interest c. memorandum d. pro-forma
c. simple interest d. effective interest 52. An index of short term paying ability is called
43. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product / a. current ratio b. receivable turnover
services in a given region of the country. c. acid test ratio d. profit margin ratio
a. franchise b. branch 53. Used to produce consumer goods
c. extension d. outlet a. producer goods b. supply
44. It occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of c. consumer goods d. cash flow
vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the 54. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time
market where the first payment is made several periods after the beginning of
a. free market b. perfect the payment
competition a. deferred annuity b. delayed annuity
c. open market d. law of supply and c. progressive annuity d. simple annuity
demand 55. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there
45. In making economy studies, a minimum required profit on the invested are no goods substitute
capital is included as a cost. a. monopoly b. monopsony
a. rate of return b. annual cost c. oligopoly d. oligopsony
pattern 56. The amount of a property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing
c. present worth pattern d. capital cost seller for the property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy
46. Depreciation method where the value of an asset decreases at a or sell
decreasing rate. a. fair value b. goodwill value
a. SYD method b. sinking fund c. book value d. market value
c. straight line method d. declining balance 57. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each
47. Cost of things that are neither labor nor materials period, beginning from the first period
a. construction cost b. expenses a. ordinary annuity b. annuity due
c. labor cost d. investment c. deferred annuity d. perpetuity
48. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached
 c. increment d. fixed cost
58. A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a 67. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale
fixed percentage of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the value is
year to which the depreciation applies a. salvage value b. resale value
a. straight line b. sinking fund c. sunk cost d. fixed cost
method 68. It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a
c. SYD method d. declining balance single supplier and entry of all other possible suppliers presented.
method a. competition b. monopoly
59. The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event c. inventory d. profitability
based on the earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should 69. A place where buyer and seller come together
or will earn a. market b. shop
a. present worth factor b. interest rate c. department store d. parlor
c. time value of money d. yield
60. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization? 70. Ratio of annual net profit and the capital invested
a. sole proprietorship b. partnership a. proportion b. rate of return
c. corporation d. enterprise c. load factor d. use factor
61. The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative 71. The price of which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a
amount of a sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits commodity
a. sinking fund factor b. present worth factor a. resale value b. market value
c. capacity factor d. demand factor c. book value d. scrap value
62. The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of the company to 72. The price of property when sold for a junk
provide a specific product or service in a stated region of the country a. scrap value b. book value
a. market value b. book value c. resale value d. market value
c. goodwill value d. franchise value 73. An interest earning fund in which equal deposits are made at equal
63. The length of time during which it is capable of performing the intervals of time
function for which it was designed and manufactured. a. annuity b. sinking fund
a. economic life b. business life c. interest d. investment
c. insular life d. physical life 74. A term describing wealth which is placed in a business and could
64. Products that are directly used by people to satisfy their wants. include cash equipment, raw materials and finished products
a. supply b. consumer goods a. capital b. investment
c. producer goods d. cash flows c. collateral d. assets
65. A change in cost for a small change in volume of production. 75. The first cost of any property includes
a. fixed cost b. sunk cost a. the original purchase price and freight and transportation charges
c. first cost d. differential cost b. installation expenses
66. An amount which has been spent and for some reasons cannot be c. initial taxes and permits' fee
recovered. d. all of the above
a. sunk cost b. first cost
 ENGINEERING PHYSICS (c) potential energy and height
(d) velocity and mass.
1. Velocity of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is maximum at 7. Relation between Youngs modulus Y and bulk modulus k and the
(a) mean position Poissons ratio is
(b) extreme position (a) Y = 3k(1 + 2)
(c) both (a) and (b) (b) k = Y(1 + 2)
(d) none of these. (c) Y = 3k(1 2)
2. The number of waves that can be set up in a medium in one sec. is (d) k = 3Y(1 2).
called 8. Quartz and phosphor bronze are used for the suspension wires of
(a) wavelength galvanometers because they
(b) wave amplitude (a) are highly plastic
(c) wave frequency (b) are highly elastic
(d) wave period (c) have negligible elastic after effect
3. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit near a planet is (d) have high elastic after effect.
independent of 9. Shearing strain is possible only in
(a) the mass of the planet (a) solids
(b) the radius of the planet (b) liquids
(c) the mass of the satellite (c) both solids and liquids
(d) all are true. (d) gases.
4. If the length of a simple pendulum is increased by 2%, then the time 10. Poissons ratio is the ratio between
period (a) rigidity modulus and Youngs modulus
(a) decreases by 2% (b) Youngs modulus and bulk modulus
(b) increases by 1% (c) Youngs modulus and modulus of rigidity
(c) decreases by 1% (d) lateral strain and modulus of rigidity.
(d) increases by 2%. 11. The Youngs modulus of rubber is
(a)
5. In the case of damped motion the forces acted upon the particles are zero
(b)
(a) restoring force 100 N/m2
(c)
less than that for steel
(b) frictional force (d)
greater than that for steel.
(c) the external periodic force
12. For all materials the frictional force is always
(a) both restoring force and frictional force.
(a) perpendicular to the direction of motion
6. Hookes laws give us a relation between
(b) along the direction of motion
(a) stress and strain
(c) opposite to the direction of motion
(b) Poissons ratio
 (d) none of these. 18. The work done by a torque in rotating a body about an axis is
13. For all materials the coefficient of friction is always equal to the change in
(a) less than one (a) rotational K.E. of the body
(b) greater than one (b) moment of the momentum of the body
(c) equal to one (c) translational K.E. of the body
(d) none of these. (d) all are true.
14. Out of the following statements which one is not correct? 19. A hollow cylinder and a solid cylinder having the same mass and
(a) the friction which comes into play when a body is sliding is same diameter are released from rest simultaneously from the top
known as dynamic friction of an inclined plane which will reach the bottom first
(b) the friction which comes into play when the body does not (a) the solid cylinder
move though being pulled by a force is called static friction. (b) the hollow cylinder
(c) the coefficient of static friction can be defined as equal to the (c) both will reach the same time
tangent of the angle of friction. (d) none of these
(d) the work done to overcome friction results in the large 20. When a charge is given to a soap bubble, it shows
amount of power loss. (a) decrease in size
15. When a body is moving along an inclined plane, the direction of (b) no change in size
frictional force is always (c) an increase in size
(a) perpendicular to the direction of motion (a) sometimes an increase and sometimes a decrease in size.
21. With rise of temperature which of the following forces can increase
(b) along the direction of motion
(a) elastic force
(c) opposite to the direction of motion
(b) frictional force
(d) none of these.
(c) force due to surface tension
16. The coefficient of friction is minimum for
(d) viscous force.
(a) static friction
22. What is surface tension of boiling water?
(b) dynamic friction
(a) zero
(c) rolling friction (b) 100 times that at 27C
(d) both (a) and (b). (c) infinity
17. Moment of inertia of a body depends on its (d) half of its value at room temperature.
(a) mass only 23. Liquid drops always occupy minimum surface area on account of
(b) axis of rotation only (a) viscosity
(c) both (a) and (b) (b) surface tension
(d) none of these. (c) refractive index
(d) gravitational energy
24. Small drops of mercury are practically spherical because of (a) whether the flow is stream lined or turbulent
(a) predominant S.T. force (a) high surface tension of the liquid
(b) predominant gravitational force (b) whether the flow is vertical or horizontal
(c) both (a) and (b) (b) all the above.
(d) color of mercury. 30. Viscosity is a transport phenomenon explained using the concept of
25. Small liquid drops assume spherical shape because transfer
(a) gravitational force acts upon the drop of
(b) atmospheric pressure exerts a force on a liquid drop (a) mass
(c) volume of spherical drop is minimum (b) kinetic energy
(d) liquid tends to have the minimum surface area due to surface (c) potential energy
tension. (d) momentum.
26. A drop of water breaks into two droplets of equal size. In this process 31. Viscosity is closely similar to
which of the following statements is correct. (a) density
(a) the sum of temperature of the two droplets together is equal to the (b) velocity
original temperature (c) friction
(b) the sum of surface areas of the droplets is equal to the surface area (d) surface tension.
of the original drop 32. A drop of oil is placed on the surface of water. Which of the following
(c) the sum of masses of the droplets is equal to the original mass of statements is correct?
the drop
(d) the sum of the radii of the two droplets is equal to the radius of the (a) it will spread as a thin layer
original drop. (b) it will remain on it as sphere
27. When sugar is added to water, the surface tension of sugar solution is (c) it will partly be spherical and partly a thin film
(a) more than that of water (d) it will float as a distorted drop on the water surface.
(b) same as that of water 33. When a magnet is broken, each piece becomes a complete magnet
(c) less than that of water because
(a) the number of electrons in one piece are different from that of the
(d) sometimes more and sometimes less than that of water.
other
28. In a human body the blood pressure is the greatest at
(b) each piece becomes a complete magnet since molecular magnets
(a) brain cannot be broken
(b) hands (c) the density of atoms in the pieces are different
(c) Abdomen (d) none of these.
(d) feet.
29. The value of Reynolds number signifies
34. Since the induced magnetic moments in a diamagnetic substance in a (c) newton
magnetic (d) meter/sec.
field oppose the applied field, the diamagnetic susceptibility is 40. Substances having a net atomic or molecular magnetic dipole
(a) negative moment zero (because atoms of several electrons with their orbital
(b) small positive value and spin magnetic moments adding vectorially to zero) are called
(c) zero (a) paramagnetic materials
(d) large positive value. (b) ferrites
35. For a diamagnetic substance the susceptibility is (c) ferromagnetic materials
(a) positive and very small (d) diamagnetic materials.
(b) positive and very large
(c) negative and very small 41. Which of the following element is a dia-magnetic one?
(d) zero. (a) mercury
36. All materials have (b) iron
(a) paramagnetic property (c) BaTiO3
(b) diamagnetic property (d) nickel.
(c) ferromagnetic property 42. In paramagnetism
(d) ferri-magnetic property
37. Which of the following materials has a very high positive (a) the susceptibility varies inversely with temperature
susceptibility? (b) the susceptibility varies directly with temperature
(c) independent of temperature the susceptibility
(a) diamagnetic material
(a) all the above are not true.
(b) ferromagnetic material 43. A hydrogen atom is paramagnetic and a hydrogen molecule is
(c) paramagnetic material (a) diamagnetic
(d) anti ferromagnetic material (b) paramagnetic
38. The deflection at the centre of the tangent galvanometer is
(c) ferromagnetic
(d) none of these.
(a) directly depending on the tangent of the deflection
44. At Curie temperature
(b) inversely depending on the tangent of the deflection
(a) ferromagnetism vanishes and the substance attains paramagnetic
(a) directly depending on sin behavior
(b) all the above are false. (b) ferromagnetism becomes dominant
39. The unit of relative permeability of a medium is (c) ferromagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic
(a) henry all the above are true
(b) no unit 45. The magnetic elements of earths magnetic field are
 (a) dip and magnetic induction (c) double the initial force
(b) total flux and declination (d) one-half of the initial force.
(c) horizontal intensity 51. When a charged body is brought near an uncharged conductor on the
(d) horizontal intensity, declination and dip. insulating
46. The magnetic needle in a tangent galvanometer is short. This is stand,
(a) to have the interaction between aluminum needle and magnetic (a) the nearer end of the conductor acquires the same charge while the
needle is small farther end opposite charge
(b) to have greater interaction between the two (b) no charge is induced on the conductor
(c) to bring the reading to zero (c) the nearer end of the conductor acquires opposite charge and the
(d) to have both the poles in the same field due to the current in the farther end the same charge
coil. (d) none of the above is correct.
47. If a toroid uses bismuth for its core, the 52. Which one of the following statements is true?
field in the core will be
(a) electrostatic force obeys inverse square law while gravitational
(a) slightly greater since bismuth is paramagnetic
force does not
(b) remains the same
(b) both gravitational force and electrostatic force are repulsive in
(c) slightly less since bismuth is diamagnetic
nature
(d) all the above are untrue.
(c) gravitational force is much weaker than electrostatic force
48. The flux density describes the
(a) dimension of a magnet (a) all the above are true.
(b) strength of the poles of a magnet 53. The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser does not depend upon
(c) distance between the two poles of a magnet (a) area of the plates
(d) none of the above. (b) medium between the plates
49. A magnetic needle when kept in a non- (c) distance between the plates
uniform magnetic field experiences ( d) nature of the material of the plates.
(a) a force but not a torque 54. If a dielectric is placed between the plates, the capacitance
(b) a torque but not a force (a) decreases
(c) neither a force nor a torque (b) remains constant
(d) both a force and a torque. (c) becomes zero
50. When the distance between two charged particles is halved the (d) increases
coulomb force 55. Asymmetric molecules have permanent dipole moment even in the
between them becomes absence of an external field. This is because
(a) one fourth of the initial force (a) in such molecules the centers of charges coincide
(b) four times the initial force (b) in such molecules the centers of charges do not coincide
 (c) in some cases they coincide and in other cases they do not (d) to reduce the current.
coincide 62. Which of the following statements is true?
(d) all the above statements are false.
56. Which one of the following is a polar molecule (a) When capacitors are connected in series, the effective capacitance
(a)H2O will be greater than the smallest individual capacitance
(b)H2 (b) The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser can be increased by
(c) O2 increasing the separation of the plates
(d) CO2. (c) When the condensers are connected in parallel the effective
57. Potential difference between two points under the field of an electric capacity will be less than the individual capacitance
charge is the work done is moving a unit positive charge (d) all the above three statements are false.
(a) from to the mid-point of the line joining the points
(b) from the charge to 63. In the case of a parallel plate capacitor, when the distance between the
(c) from one point to the other two plates is reduced to one third and the area of the plate doubled,
the capacitance
(d) all the above are false.
(a) remains the same
58. The dipole moment of the water molecule is
(b) is doubled
(a) 108 Debye unit
(c) increases to five times
(b) 8.84 Debye unit
(d) increases to six times.
(c) Zero Debye unit
64. The e.m.f. of a cell is equal to the potential difference between its
(d) 1.84 Debye unit.
terminals when it is in the open circuit i.e.,
59. The dimensions of potential difference are
(a) when a current of any value is drawn from the cell
(a) MLT2
(b) MLT 2 (b) when a current of 2 amp current is drawn from the cell
(c) ML2 (c) when no current is drawn from the cell
(d) ML2T3A1. (d) all the above are true.
60. Charge given to a conductor is 65. Which type of the following sources of energy is required to
(a) directly proportional to the voltage maintain a p.d. in an electric circuit?
(b) inversely proportional to the voltage (a) chemical reactions as in cells
(c) equal to the voltage (b) rotating a coil in a magnetic field
(d) none of these (c) by converting light energy due to electrical energy
61. Capacitor is a device used (d) all the above three sources.
(a) to conduct charges 66. The unit of electrical conductivity is
(b) to store charges (a) ohm meter
(c) to reduce the potential difference
 (b) meter/ohm (b) aluminium
(c) ohm/meter (c) silicon
(d) all the above are wrong. (d) water.
67. The resistance R of a conductor depends on 73. A proton is moving perpendicular to a magnetic field
(a) the density of the metal (a) gains momentum in opposite direction of motion
(b) color of the metal (b) the proton did not gain any momentum
(c) molecular weight of the metal (c) the magnetic field will not affect the motion of proton
(d) all the above are false. (d) the proton bends to an arc of circle.
68. The low temperature coefficient of a material is the one in which 74. The probability of an electron colliding with an atom is higher if
the (a) length and radius of the conductor are small
resistance (b) length is small
(a) increases slowly with decrease of temperature
(c) radius is large
(b) increases slowly with increase of temperature
(c) increases with increase of temperature (d) length of the conductor is higher and radius is smaller.
(d) increases with decrease of temperature. 75. Constantan, nichrome and manganin are used for making standard
69. Kirchhoffs laws are presented as resistance
(a) I = 1, IR = 0 because their
(b) IR = 0, I = E (a) resistivity is low
(c) I = 0, IR = E (b) density is high
(d) R = 0, I = 0. (c) resistivity is high
70. The cause for the resistance in the conductor is due to (d) temperature coefficient of resistance is high.
(a) vibration of electrons 76. A proton is 1849 times heavier than electron. At 300 K, the average
(6) collisions of electrons on atoms random
(c) magnitude of the charge of the electron velocity of the electron is
(d) none of these. (a) 143 times that of the proton
71. The current flowing through a conductor depends on (b) 123 times that of the proton
(a) quantity of charge carriers (c) 1849 times that of the proton
(b) charge and voltage (d) 43 times that of the proton.
(c) resistance and voltage 77. Though a number of charge carriers in a given volume remains
(d) resistance alone. the same and independent in a metal, the resistivity of a metal
increases as the temperature increases because
72. The material having negative temperature coefficient of resistance
is
(a) the mobility remains constant
(a) copper
 (b) the mobility of the electron increases as temperature (c) mutual induction
increases (d) Ohms law.
(c) the mobility of the electron decreases as the temperature
83. The frequency of the domestic power supply is of the order
increases
of
(d) all the above are false.
(a) 220 Hz
78. Which device can convert all electrical energy into heat (b) 50 Hz
(a) radiator (c) 100 Hz
(b) convertor (d) 150 Hz.
(c) generator 84. A storage battery of e.m.f. 8 volt and internal resistance 0.5
(d) resistor. Q is being charged by a 120 volt d.c. supply using a series
79. The resultant flow of a current in the absence of an electric field in resistor of
a 15.5 Q. The terminal voltage of the battery during charging
conductor is is
(a) minimum
(a) 1.52 V
(b) zero
(c) maximum (b) 6.2 V
(d) has a negative value. (c)2 V
80. The relation connecting the coefficient of thermal conductivity and (d) 11.5 V.
electrical conductivity is known as 85. In a potentiometer set-up a cell of e.m.f. 1.25 volt gives a
(a) Boltzmanns law balance point at 0.35 m length of the wire. If the cell is
(b) Kirchhoff s law replaced by another cell, and the balance point shifts to 0.63
(c) Ohms law m; what is the e.m.f. of the
(d) Wiedemann-Franz law. second cell?
81. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting a (a) 1.25 V
(a) high resistance in series (b) 2.25 V
(b) low resistance in parallel
(c) 3.25 V
(c) low resistance in series
(d) 4.25 V.
(d) high resistance in parallel. 86. A galvanometer scale is divided into 100 equal divisions and a
82. The principle of a transformer is current of 2.5 mA required to produce a full scale division. The
(a) self induction current required to produce a deflection of 40 division is
(b) joule heating (a) 4 mA
(b) 3 mA
 (c) 2 mA (b) 1 : 27 : 6
(d) 1 mA. (c) 1 : 2 : 3
87. The acceleration of an electron in an electric field of (d) 27 : 54 : 2.
intensity 100 kV/m 92. If a metallic rod has no p.d. applied across it, then the mean
(a) 100 x 102 m/s2 velocity of free electron is
(b) 0.01 x 1015 m/s2 (a) proportional to absolute temperature
(c)
1.76 x 1016 m/s2 (b) inversely proportional to T
(d)
11.21 x1015 m/s2.
(c) directly proportional to jf
88. Current is flowing through a conductor of resistance 10 Q.
(d) directly proportional to T2.
Indicate in which of the following cases maximum heat will
be generated 93. A copper wire is subjected to a p.d. of V volt. If the p.d. is doubled
(a) 4.9 amp current for 3 minutes (a) the drift velocity is doubled
(b) 3.9 amp current for 3 minutes (b) the drift velocity remains the same
(c) 1.0 amp current for 4 minutes (c) the drift velocity is reduced to one fifth of the initial value
(d) 1 amp current for 5 minutes. (d) the drift velocity is increased to 5 times the initial value.
89. The resistance of the shunt to be used to divert 60% of the 94. A steady current is passing through a linear conductor of non-
total current is 200 Q. The resistance of the galvanometer is uniform cross-section. The current density in the conductor is
approximately (a) independent of the area of cross-section
(a)733 a (6) inversely proportional to the area of cross-section
(b)33 Q (c) inversely proportional to the square of the area of cross-
(c)3.3 a section
(d)133 a. (d) all the above are false.
90. A superconductor at superconducting state 95. Two unequal resistances are connected in series across a battery.
(a) requires larger power to carry even small current Which of the following statements is true?
(b) has no thermal losses but has high resistivity (a) potential difference across each resistance is same
(c) has no resistivity and no thermal losses associated with (6) potential difference across smaller resistance is lower
the passage of large current (c) potential difference across smaller resistance is higher
(d) all the above are true. (d) potential difference can be higher or lower in any resistance.
96. The potential difference between the terminals of a cell is
91. Masses of three wires of the same material are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 (a) greater than its e.m.f. if the cell is being discharged
and the (b) greater than its e.m.f. if the cell is being charged
lengths in the ratio 3:2:1. Electrical resistance of these wires will be (c) less than its e.m.f. if the cell is being discharged
in the
(d) less than its e.m.f. if the cell is being charged
ratio
(e) is equal to its e.m.f. if the cell is in open circuit.
(a) 27 : 6 : 1

ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The hydrogen or deuterium discharge tube can be used as a source of
continuous ultraviolet radiation for spectrophotometers because of
a. the characteristics of chopper-modulated radiation
b. pressure broadening of hydrogen or deuterium emission lines
c. the great sensitivity of photomultiplier tube
d. the narrow band pass of modern grating of monochromators
2. Chopping the source beam in conjunction with the use of a tuned ac
amplifier in an atomic absorption spectrophotometer accomplishes the
following
a. a recording potentiometer can be used instead of a voltmeter for
the readout
b. a less sensitive detector can be used instead of the usual
photomultiplier tube
c. a cooler can be used without decreasing the population of ground-
state atoms
d. radiation emitted by excited atoms in the flame will not
interfere with the absorbance measurement
3. Line spectra are emitted by
a. hot solids
b. excited polyatomic molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
4. Recording spectrophotometers sometimes operate with feedback loops
that vary the power of the reference beam until it matches the power of
the beam through the sample. This mode of operation
a. eliminates the need for a continuous source
b. requires two monochromators
c. eliminates the need for nonabsorbing solvents
d. makes the detector a null device, with the result that nonlinear
response to radiant power would not be deleterious
5. Which of the following best explains why atomic absorption is
sometimes more sensitive than flame emission spectroscopy?
a. At the temperature of a typical flame, the population of
ground-state atoms is much greater than the population of
excited atoms.
b. Detectors employed in absorption work are inherently more
sensitive than those used to measure emission.
c. Hollow cathode discharge tubes have a much greater radiant power
output than do ordinary flames .
d. An absorption line in a flame is always much sharper than an
emission line because of the Doppler effect.
6. The method of standard addition compensates for matrix effects
provided
a. the addition does not dilute the sample appreciably and does
not itself introduce appreciable quantities or interfering
substances
b. the addition dilutes the sample enough that the concentrations of
interfering substances are lowered to negligible values
c. the addition contains none of the substance being determined
d. the addition contains a large enough quantity of some substance to
swamp out sample variations
7. Fe3+ and Cu2+ form complexes with EDTA. The ferric complex is
colorless , as is Fe3+ itself, at the concentration involved here: the
copper complex is a deep blue color (deeper than the color of Cu 2+
itself), while EDTA is colorless. The photometric titration curve below
was obtained when a solution containing both Fe 3+ and Cu2+ was
titrated with EDTA using a spectrophotometer set at a wavelength of
745 nm in the visible region of the spectrum.
A
B
A
 ml of EDTA solution
a. A is the iron end point.
b. B is the iron end point
c. The distance from A to B on the milliliter axis represents the
quantity of iron
d. The quantity of iron could not be calculated from a graph like
this unless the quantity of copper in the solution was known
ahead of time
8. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution of the
coefficient, K, is zero may be used to estimate
a. the volume within the column occupied by the packing materials
b. the total volume of the column
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the volume within the column available to the mobile phase
9. The purpose of the solid support material in a GLC column is to
a. immobilize the stationary liquid phase
b. adsorb sample components that are insufficiently soluble in the
stationary liquid phase
c. provide a "backup" stationary phase in the event that the liquid is
lost by evaporation
d. remove impurities from the carrier gas
10. Helium, rather than nitrogen, is sometimes used as the carrier gas in
GLC because
a. being lighter than nitrogen, helium elutes the sample components
more rapidly
b. helium is less expensive than nitrogen
c. nitrogen has stable isotopes which separate and cause anomalous
column behavior
d. of its much higher thermal conductivity
11. An important feature of open-tubular GLC column is
a. they can accept much larger samples than can packed column
because of their great length
b. solute partitioning between stationary and mobile phases is
very rapid and the C term in the Van Deemter equation is
relatively small
c. they permit the use of a wider variety of carrier gases
d. they can be operated at temperatures closer to the boiling point of
the stationary liquid phase than can packed columns and thus
handle less volatile examples
12. Raising the column temperature in GLC decreases solute retention
times primarily because
a. solute diffusion coefficients in the liquid phase decrease with
increasing temperature
b. van der Waals interactions between solutes and stationary phase
are stronger at higher temperatures
c. gases are generally less soluble in liquids at higher
temperatures
d. detector sensitivity is a function of temperature, especially with a
thermal conductivity cell
13. Which of the following would have practically no effect upon the
retention volume of a solute in GLC?
a. changing the carrier-gas flow-rate
b. increasing the stationary liquid loading of the column packing
from 5 to 10% by weight
c. increasing the column temperature
d. changing the chemical nature of the stationary liquid
14. The separation factor, S, in chromatography depends upon
a. the length of the column
b. the square root of the length of the column
c. the nature of the stationary liquid phase
d. the number of theoretical plates in the column
15. In GLC, interaction of solutes with the solid support will often cause
a. unusually narrow elution bands
b. asymmetric elution band
c. excessive eddy diffusion
d. decreased detector sensitivity
16. Increasing the quantity of stationary liquid phase applied to the column b. Affinity chromatography
packing will, with everything else the same, c. TLC
a. increase tR for a solute d. Adsorption chromatography with gradient elution
b. decrease tR for a solute
c. not influence tR for a solute
d. decrease the nonequilibrium term in the van Deemer equation
17. A neutral molecule such as ethanol or sugar which has found its way
into the pores of a typical anion-exchange resin can be eliminated
a. only by replacement with a cation
b. only by replacement with an anion 22. To deionize tap water by ion exchange for laboratory use, the best
c. only if replaced by another organic molecule on a one-for-one approach employs
exchange basis a. a column containing a strong-acid cation exchange in the hydrogen
d. by flushing out the water form
18. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution coefficient, b. a column containing a strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl
K, is zero may be used to estimate form
a. the volume within the column available to the moving phase c. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in
b. the volume within the column occupied by the packing the sodium form and a strong-base anion exchanger in the chloride
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material form
d. the total volume of the column d. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger
19. Which of the following statements is false in normal phase absorption? in the hydrogen form and a strong-base anion exchanger in the
a. The more polar a compound, the more strongly it will be adsorbed hydroxyl form
from a solution 23. Line spectra are emitted by
b. A high molecular weight favors adsorption, other factors being a. incandescent solids
equal b. excited molecules
c. The more polar the solvent, the stronger the adsorption of the c. molecules in the ground electronic state
solute d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
d. The adsorption isotherm is usually nonlinear 24. Band spectra are emitted by
20. The best measure of the quantity of a solute in LC is a. tungsten lamps and Nernst glowers
a. the height of the elution band b. excited molecules in the vapor phase
b. the area of the elution band c. excited atoms and monatomic ions
c. the baseline width of the elution band d. incandescent solids
d. the retention volume 25. A chemical engineer is conducting research on the development of
21. Which of the following would be the fastest way to decide which analytical methods based upon chemiluminescence. If a conventional
adsorbent and what solvent system to use for a larger-scale spectrofluorometer is used for the measurements, an the instrument has
chromatographic separation of an organic reaction product from separate switches for its various circuits, which switch will be left in
materials formed in side reactions? the "off" position?
a. Paper chromatography a. detector power supply
 b. amplifier d. Lane and Eynon methods
c. source power supply 31. Which is not the recommended device for a filter photometry?
d. power to the motor drive of the scanning monochromator on the a. hydrogen arc lamp
emission side of the instrument b. glass filter
26. In flame spectroscopy, the highest temperature fuel oxidant c. barrier layer photocell
combination available as yet is d. none of these
a. hydrogen-oxygen 32. This law states that the amount of light absorbed or transmitted by a
b. hydrogen-nitrous oxide solution is an experimental function of the concentration of absorbing
c. acetylene-oxygen substance present and the sample path length
d. acetylene-nitrous oxide a. Bouger's Law
27. If the change in a molecule caused by absorption of light energy b. Beer's Law
involves change in the average separation of the nuclei of two or more c. Lambert's Law
atoms, then the change is d. Bouger-Beer Law
a. electronic 33. Deviation's from Beer's Law may be due to
b. vibrational a. instrumental
c. translational b. intermolecular reactions
d. rotational c. formation of complexions with varying number of ligonds
28. The nephelometric method of analysis is based upon d. all of these
a. Beer's law 34. IR spectrophotometers have the same basic components as UV
b. Fajar's law spectrophotometers, except:
c. Bouger law's a. source of radiant energy and the kind of detectors
d. Beer Lambert's Law b. materials used in the optical system
c. materials used in the sample cells
d. all of these
35. Which of the following involves emission of radiation by excited
atoms:
29. IR spectro-photometers have practically the same basic components as a. Ultra-violet spectrophotometry
visible and UV spectro-photometers. In which of the following basic b. Infra-red spectrophotometry
components could the devices be used interchangeable in both: c. Atomic absorption spectrometry
a. sources of radiant energy d. Nephelopmetry
b. optical system 36. The absorption of a solution of a particular substance does not depend
c. sample holders on the :
d. detectors a. wavelength of the incident light
30. Which of the following may not be used in the determination of sugars? b. intensity of the incident light
a. TLC chromatography c. concentration of the substance
b. Polarimetry d. thickness of the sample cell
c. Copper reduction methods
 c. Gases form homogenous mixtures regardless of the non-reacting
37. If we compare flame spectrophotometry and emission spectroscopy, gas components
which of the following statements will be true? d. All of these
a. Flame photometry is more senstive than emission spectroscopy e. A gas expands spontaneously to fill its container
b. Flame photometry can analyze more metals than emission 3. One significant difference between gases and liquids is that
spectroscopy ______________________.
c. Flame photometry is less sensitive to the matrix than emission a. a gas is made up of molecules
spectroscopy b. a gas assumes the volume of its container
d. Flame photometry is simpler to use than emission spectroscopy c. a gas may consist of both elements and compounds
38. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS) differs from visible d. gases are always mixtures
absorption spectrophotometry because AAS e. all of these answers are correct
a. has no light source 4. Molecular compounds of low molecular weights tend to be gases at
b. does not need a monochromator room temperature. Which of the following is most likely not a gas at
c. does not follow Beer's Law room temperature?
d. destroys the sample when a reading is made a. Cl2 b. HCl c. LiCl d.
39. Gas chromatography does not use this detector H2 e. CH4
a. thermal conductivity detector
b. refractive index detector 5. Gaseous mixtures ________________.
c. flame ionization detector a. can only contain molecules
d. electron capture detector b. are all heterogeneous
40. In gas chromatography, the retention time is not dependent on c. can only contain isolated atoms
a. carrier gas velocity d. are all homogenous
b. column temperature e. must contain both isolated atoms and molecules
c. volume of compound analyzed 6. Which one of the following is NOT true about the unit Pascal (pa)?
d. volatility of compound analyzed a. 1 Pa = 1 N/m2
b. The Pa is the SI unit for pressure
c. 1 atm = 101.325 kPa
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY d. 1 Pa = 100 torr
e. The Pa is the Si unit for force
7. The first person to investigate the relationship between the pressure of a
1. The main component of air is ____________. gas ad its volume was ________________.
a. oxygen b. argon c. carbon dioxide d. a. Amadeo Avogadro
nitrogene. methane b. Lord Kelvin
2. Of the following, ____________ is characteristic of gases. c. Jacques Charles
a. Gases are highly compressible d. Robert Boyle
b. These are relatively large distances between molecules e. Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac
8. Of the following, ____________ is a correct statement of Boyles law.
 a. PV = constant d. V2 = T2 ( V1)
b. P = constant T1
V e. V1 = T1 = 0
c. V = constant V2 T2
P 13. The molar volume of a gas at STP is _____L.
d. V = constant a. 0.08206 b. 62.36 c. 1.00 d.
T 22.4 e. 14.7
e. n = constant 14. A gas is considered ideal if ___________.
P a. it is not compressible
9. Of the following, ______________ is a valid statement of Charles law. b. one mole of it occupies exactly 1 liter at standard temperature and
a. P = constant pressure
T c. it can be shown to occupy zero volume at 0C
b. V = constant d. its behavior is described by the ideal-gas equation
T e. one mole of it in a one-liter container exerts a pressure exactly 1
c. PV = constant atm at room temperature
d. V = constant x n 15. For which of the following changes is not clear whether the volume of
e. V = constant x P a particular sample of an ideal gas will increase or decrease?
10. Which one of the following is a valid statement of Avogadros law? a. increase the temperature and increase the pressure
a. P = constant b. increase the temperature and decrease the pressure
T c. increase the temperature and keep the pressure constant
b. V = constant d. keep temperature constant and decrease the pressure
T e. decrease the temperature and increase the pressure
c. PV = constant 16. Standard temperature and pressure (STP), in the context of gases, refers
d. V = constant x n to ____________________.
e. V = constant x P a. 298 K and 1 atm
b. 273 K and 1 atm
c. 298 K and 1 torr
11. The volume of an ideal gas is zero at _________. d. 273 K and 1 pascal
a. 0C b. -45F c. -273K d. e. 273 K and 1 torr
-363K e. -273C 17. Of the following, ______________ correctly relates pressure, volume,
temperature, amount (mol), molecular mass (M), density (d) and mass
12. Of the following, only _________ is impossible for an ideal gas. (g).
a. V1 = V2 a. M = dRT
T1 T2 PV
b. V1T1 = V2T2 b. M = gRT
c. V1 = T1 PV
V2 T2 c. M = PT
 GRV d. the molecules move slower
d. M = gV e. none of these answers
RT 23. Subtracting the vapor pressure of water from the total pressure of a gas
e. M = RT collected over water is an example:
Gv a. Avogadros Hypothesis b. Daltons law c.
18. Of the following, _____________ correctly relates pressure, volume, Grahams law d. van der Waals Theory
temperature, amount (mol), molecular mass (M), density (d) and mass e. ideal gas law
(g).
a. d = PM 24. The energy of molecules of a gas:
RT a. is dependent on concentration
b. d = gRT b. is distributed over a wide range at constant temperature
PM c. is the same for all molecules at constant temperature
c. d = PTM d. increases with a decrease in temperature
gRV e. increases with an increase in pressure
d. d = gV
RT
e. d = RT
PM
19. Of the following gases, ____________ will have the greatest rate of 25. Which of the following assumptions is not used to explain the ideal gas
effusion at a given temperature. law?
a. NH3 b. CH4 c. Ar d. HBr a. gas particles themselves occupy a negligible percent of total gas
e. HCl volume
20. An ideal gas differs from a real gas in that the molecules of an ideal gas b. inter-particle forces are negligible in gases
_________________. c. collisions between gas particles are perfectly elastic
a. have no attraction for one another d. collisions between gas particles and container walls are perfectly
b. have appreciable molecular volume elastic
c. have a molecular weight of zero e. individual gas particles are perfectly compressible to nuclear
d. have no kinetic energy size
e. has an average molecular mass 26. If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at
21. The statement, For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas the other end of the room might soon perceive an odor due to gaseous
volume is inversely proportional to gas pressure. Is known as: emissions from the cigar. Such a phenomenon is an example of:
a. Avogadros law b. Boyles law c. Charles law d. Grahams a. monometry b. ideality c. effusion
law e. Kelvins law d. diffusion e. barometry
22. If gas volume is doubled but the temperature remains constant: 27. The fact that a balloon filled with helium will leak more slowly than
a. the pressure stays the same one filled with hydrogen is explained by citing:
b. the molecules move faster a. Avogadros hypothesis b. Daltons law c. Grahams law d.
c. the kinetic energy increases van der Waals Theory e. ideal gas law
28. Gases tend to behave ideally at a. Cohesive forces are not important
a. low temperature and low pressure b. The molecules contract to fit the size of the container
b. low temperature and high pressure c. The molecules have no motion
c. high temperature and low pressure d. The molecules in a patterned (oriented)
d. high temperature and high pressure arrangement
e. gases always behave ideally e. The molecules are mobile and relatively close together
29. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following gases would have 35. The temperature ate which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the
the lowest density at standard temperature and pressure? external pressure is called the :
a. SF6 b. CF2Cl2 c. CO2 d. a. boiling point b. critical point c. melting point
N2 e. Kr d. sublimation point e. thermal point
30. Of the following gases, the one with the greatest density at STP is: 36. Liquid and vapor phases of a substance become indistinguishable at
a. CH4 b. NH3 c. Ne d. H2 the:
e. He a. triple point b. normal point c. permanent point
d. critical point e. absolute point
31. The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be 37. When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given
made to float on the surface of some water illustrates a property of temperature, the following conditions could exist:
liquid known as: (I) There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and
a. compressibility b. polarizability c. surface tension vapor
d. triple point e. viscosity (II) The vapor pressure has a unique value
32. The property of liquid that measures its resistance to flow is called: (III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to
a. capillarity b. polarizability c. resistivity d. liquid), proceed at equal rates
viscosity e. wetability (IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time
33. A liquid will wet a surface if: Which of the above choices are applicable?
a. the liquid has a lesser density than the surface a. I b. II and III c. I, II, and III
b. the forces between the liquid molecules are weak d. II and IV e. none of these combination
c. the liquid has a low vapor pressure 38. Which of the following does NOT describe the critical point of a
d. the forces between the molecules and the surface are greater liquid?
than the forces between the molecules of the liquid a. The temperature and pressure at which a liquids meniscus
e. none of these answers disappears
b. The point where the vapor pressure curve intersects the fusion
temperature
c. The highest temperature at which a liquid can exist
d. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid and its vapor are
identical
34. Which of the following statements concerning molecules in the liquid e. The highest temperature at which it is possible to obtain a liquid
state is true? form its vapor by increasing pressure
39. A container holds a small amount of liquid and its vapor in equilibrium
If the volume of the container is decreased, which of the following has
occurred once equilibrium is reestablished?
a. the temperature is lower b. the temperature is higher
c. the pressure is higher
d. the pressure is lower e. none of these
40. When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the
temperature of the liquid equals:
a. 100C b. boiling point c. the normal boiling point
d. the vaporization point e. none of these
41. When a liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed container:
a. The rate at which molecules from the liquid phase enter the gas
phase exactly equals the rate at which molecules from the gas
phase pass into the liquid phase
b. A change in temperature will not change the pressure in the
container
c. The amount of gas in the container must exactly equal the amount
of liquid
d. Molecules cannot go from the liquid phase to the gas phase
because the amount of liquid in the container is constant
e. The vapor will gradually change back to the liquid state, that is, no
vapor will be left
42. Under which of the following conditions will vaporization best occur?
a. high mass, large surface area, high kinetic energy
b. weak forces between molecules, high kinetic energy, large
surface area
c. high molecular energy, small surface area
d. low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces, large surface area
e. small surface area, low kinetic energy, low molecular mass
43. Which of the following does NOT decrease rate of vaporization?
a. closing container lid b. increasing forces between
molecules c. increasing mass of molecule
d. decreasing temperature e. decreasing surface area
44. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the normal boiling
point of a liquid?
a. atmospheric pressure b. strength of forces between molecules
c. rate of evaporation
d. rate of condensation e. none of these answers
45. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor. If some of the vapor is allowed
to escape, what is the immediate result?
a. condensation rate decreases b. vaporization rate increases
c. condensation rate increases
d. vaporization rate decreases e. none of these
46. The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the existence of a
metastable:
a. the liquid at a temperature below that of its critical point
b. liquid at a temperature below that of its sublimation point
c. liquid at a temperature below that of its freezing point
d. gas at a temperature below that of its critical point
e. two-phase liquid/solid mixture at the freezing point
47. All of the following are true about crystals EXCEPT
a. A crystal softens and melts over a wide range of temperature
b. A crystal tends to shatter along defined planes
c. Crystals generally have a specific shape for a specific substance
d. Crystal usually have a high degree of symmetry
48. All of the following are logical consequences of the observed
macroscopic properties of crystals EXCEPT
a. The atoms or molecules of a crystal are arranged in a regularly
repeating pattern
b. The forces holding the atoms in a metal crystal are the same for
essentially every atom except at the surface
c. The distances between adjacent atoms or molecules vary
greatly
d. Some defects are present in the crystals
49. Which of the following has the largest number of lattice points per unit
cell?
a. The primitive (simple) cubic lattice
b. The face centered cubic lattice
c. The body centered cubic lattice
d. All these lattices have the same number of lattice points per unit cell
50. All of the following are true about lattice points in a crystal structure
EXCEPT
 a. The first lattice point can be placed at any location
b. All lattice points have identical environments
c. The corners of unit cells are located at lattice points
d. Atoms are always located on lattice points
51. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
a. The face-centered cubic lattice is identical to the cubic closest
packed lattice
b. The body-centered cubic lattice is identical to the hexagonal
closest packed lattice
c. The cubic closest packed and hexagonal closest packed structures
have identical fractions of space which are occupied by atoms
d. The density of a metal sample is independent of the size of the
sample considered
52. Which of the following represents the minimal amount of date
necessary to determine the atomic mass of a metal?
a. Avogadros number and the density of the metal
b. Avogadros number, the density of the metal and the length of the
unit cell edge
c. Avogadros number, the density of the metal, the length of the
unit cell edge and the type of lattice
d. Avogadros number, the density of the metal, the length of the unit
cell edge, the type of lattice and the atomic radius of the metal
53. Which of the following is assumed when calculating atomic radii of
metals form crystallographic data?
a. The atoms are soft spheres that are deformed in the structure
b. The atoms are almost perfect cubes
c. The atoms are of different sizes and the value calculated for the
radius is an average
d. The atoms in the structure are touching
54. What is the usual relationship between the number of valence electrons
and the number of nearest neighbors of a metal atom in a solid metal?
a. The number of valence electrons is less than the number
nearest neighbors
b. The number of valence electrons is greater than the number of
nearest neighbors
c. The number of valence electrons is equal to the number of nearest
neighbors
d. The number of valence electrons can be less than, greater than, or
equal to the number of nearest neighbors
55. All of the following are consequences of the theory of the structure of
metals EXCEPT
a. Metals conduct electricity b. Metals are malleable c. Metals are
ductile d. Metals break easily when they are bent
56. Which of the following is the reason that metals conduct electricity?
a. The metal atoms are close together
b. There are no empty spaces in metal structures
c. Electrons in the structure can move freely
d. Electrons and protons in the structure can move freely
57. Which of the following is the reason why salt stay bonded in the solid
state?
a. There are strong covalent bonds between the ions
b. The structure consists of salt molecules tat bind tightly to other salt
molecules
c. They are held together by electrostatic attractions and the structure
includes no electrostatic repulsions
d. There are both electrostatic attractions and repulsions within
the structure but the total of the attractions is greater
58. All of the following are possible crystal defects EXCEPT
a. An atom or ion out of its regular position and occupying a
normally empty hole
b. A crystal in which he only defect is one pair of ions of the same
charge which are missing
c. An electron occupying a site that is normally occupied by a 1
anion
d. A crystal containing some ion sites empty and some ions not
bearing the expected charge
59. Which of the following is the most important explanation for the
conductivity of metals?
a. they are almost all solids b. their coordination numbers are
high
c. Their numbers of valence electrons are high d. Their densities are
high
60. Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic? c. If the length of one side of the unit cell and the atomic weights of
a. AIS and P b. GeAs and Se c. GeAs and GaSe Na and Cl are known, then the density can be calculated
d. Al and SiP d. The unit cell is cubic even though the Na and Cl ions have
different ionin radii
66. All of the following statements about the different forms of solid C are
61. Which of the following is always the same for allotropes of the same true, EXCEPT
element? a. Diamond is transparent and shows no color because its band
a. The atomic mass b. the molar mass c. the structure d. gap is quite large
the chemical and physical properties b. Graphite slides easily because the C atoms are strongly bonded in
62. The semiconductor crystalline Si has a low electrical conductivity in only two dimensions
the dark because c. In diamond the structure around each C atom is due to C sp3
a. crystalline Si is a molecular solid hybridization
b. the band gap energy is much greater than 3RT at 23C d. Diamond is hard yet brittle because the band gap is large
c. the chemical bonding in the crystal is strong in all three 67. Solids with long-range microscopic order in their structures are called
dimensions a. amorphousb. crystalline c. glasses d. metals
d. Si has fewer valence electrons that elements that form metallic e. none of these
solids
63. A laser pointer of a doped semiconductor junction (i.e., a region of A1
doped semiconductor bonded to a region of P doped semiconductor) 68. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction
with a flowing current due to an applied voltage from a battery. Which pattern contains many sharply defined spots. The specimen is
of the following statements is TRUE? a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous
a. The color of the light is determined by the semiconductor band gap d. plastic e. liquid
b. The device works better warm rather than cold because the number 69. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction
of thermally generated electrons is higher pattern contains three diffuse rings close to primary x-ray beam. The
c. Light is emitted at the interface when a hole from the A1 region specimen is
combines with an electron from the P region a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous
d. Both (a) and (c) d. polycrystalline e. colloidal
64. In order to dope crystalline Si with extra electrons, which element 70. The colors in the gemstone opal result from
should be incorporated into the lattice? a. the diffraction of visible light by colloidal crystals in the stone
a. P b. A1 c. C d. O b. absorption by transition metal complexes
65. All of the following statements about NaCl crystalline lattice are true, c. contamination by large organic molecules which absorb light in the
EXCEPT visible region
a. Every Cl is surrounded by 4 Na at equal bond lengths, and vice d. radioactivity
versa e. none of these
b. The structure along the x,y and z axes of the unit cell is all the 71. Which of the following symmetry elements can be found in an
same equilateral triangle?
 a. a 2-fold rotation b. a 3-fold rotation c. as mirror line or a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
plane d. all of these e. none of these e. 8
72. About half of all the crystals studied so far belong to the ______ 81. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____
crystal system lattice points to the unit cell
a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic a. 1/8 b. c. d. 1
d. triclinic e. monoclinic e. none of these
73. The crystal system with the minimum symmetry requirement of one 4- 82. In a face-centered cubic lattice, each lattice, each lattice point located in
fold rotation is a face of the unit cell is shared equally with ___ other unit cell
a. orthorhombic b. cubic c. tetragonal a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7
d. triclinic e. trigonal e. none of these
74. Crystalline substances are ________. Amorphous substances are 83. A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. Which of the
________. following correctly relates the atomic radius r of the metal to the length
a. isotropic, isotropic b. anisotropic, anisotropic of an edge a of the unit cell?
c. isotropic, anisotropic d. anisotropic, isotropic a. r = a b. r = a2 c. r = a3
75. The three-dimensional array made up of all points within a crystal that 2 4 4
have the same environment in the same orientation is called the d. This cannot be determined without additional information
a. unit cell b. primitive cell c. crystal system e. none of these
d. crystal lattice e. symmetry pattern 84. The forces holding the molecules together in the lattice of a molecular
76. The basic repeating structural unit of a crystal lattice is the solid are
a. unit cell b. atom c. molecule a. van der Waals forces b. ionic bonds c. covalent bonds
d. atomic cluster e. symmetry pattern d. all of these e. none of these
77. The number of lattice points in a primitive unit cell is 85. Molecular crystals typically
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 a. are soft b. have low melting points c. are
e. this depends on the crystal system insulators d. all of these e. none of these
86. Most ionic solids crystallize in the ______ system
a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic
d. tetragonal e. monoclinic
78. The conditions --- a b c, alpha= beta =gamma = 90 --- describe the 87. The rock salt structure can be viewed as a _______ lattice of anions,
_________ unit cell. with cations occupying positions exactly between pairs of anions
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic a. face-centered cubic b. monoclinic c. trigonal
d. hexagonal e. trigonal d. body-centered cubic e. primitive cubic
79. The conditions --- a b c, alpha = gamma = 90, 90--- describe 88. In the rock salt structure, each ion is surrounded by ________
the _______ unit cell equidistant ions of opposite charge
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic d. hexagonal a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8
e. trigonal e. none of these
80. The number of lattice points in the unit cell for the body-centered cubic
lattice is
89. Which of the following cannot possibly crystallize in the rock salt 99. The most stable form of sulfur at room temperature is
structure? a. gaseous atoms b. long chains of sulfur atoms c. S4
a. VN b. Na2S c. ZrSe d. NH4I tetrahedral
e. MgO d. S2 molecules with double bonds e. S8 rings
90. How many chloride ions are contained in a unit cell of CsCl? 100.Which element in group V does not form a solid with each atom
a. 1/8 b. c. d. 1 bonded to three others?
e. 2 a. As b. Bi c. N d. P
91. The coordination number of each cesium atom in CsCl is e. Sb
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 101.Which of the following forms a layered structure?
e. 12 a. graphite b. white tin c. sulfur
92. A certain solid is a good insulator, is brittle, and has a high melting d. red phosphorous e. all of these
point. The substance readily conducts electricity when molten. This 102.Which of the following forms a solid with the diamond structure?
substance is most likely _____ in nature. a. sulfur b. white tin c.
a. molecular b. covalent c. ionic d. metallic red phosphorous d. sodium e. gray
e. it could be more than one of these tin
93. In a metallic solid, _______ are located at the lattice points.
a. neutral metal atoms b. molecules c. positively charged core 103.The crystal defect in which an atom or ion is displaced from its regular
ionsd. electrons e. atomic clusters position in the lattice to an interstitial site is called a(n)
94. The metal with the highest melting point is a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect c. F-center
a. Pt b. Rh c. Nb d. Ga e. d. site defect e. berthollide
W 104.Irradiation of NaCl with ultraviolet light can cause
95. A structure that forms naturally when identical rigid spheres are placed a. chloride ions to lose electrons to the crystalline lattice
as close together as possible is called a ____ arrangement. b. formation of an F-center
a. primitive b. close-packed c. face-centered d. dense c. formation of a nonstoichiometric crystal
e. nematic d. all of these
96. A crystal structure which yields close packing for uniform rigid spheres e. none of these
is 105.In a plastic crystal,
a. primitive cubic b. tetragonal c. body-centered cubic d. a. the molecules tumble before the lattice s disrupted
all of these e. none of these b. the lattice is disrupted before the molecules begin to tumble
97. In the hexagonal close-packed structure, each atom has a coordination c. the molecules are rod-like
number of d. all of these
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. none of these
e. 12 106.The rate constant of a reaction depends upon
98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to ________ other a. initial concentration of reactants
carbon atoms b. extent of reaction
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 c. temperature
e. 8 d. time of reaction
107.Which of the following factors does not influence the rate of a 114.The value of k, the specific rate constant, may be increased by
reaction? a. decreasing the concentration of D
a. Concentration of reactants b. increasing the concentration of A
b. Nature of reactants c. increasing the concentration of C
c. Molecularity of the reaction d. increasing the temperature
d. Temperature 115.What effect does an increase in temperature of 10C have on the rate of
108.The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be reduced from the reaction?
a. the temperature dependence of the rate a. Halved b. Multiplied by 1.5
b. the rate law c. Doubled d. Tripled
c. the net equation 116.Which of the following is the best explanation for the effect of increase
d. the activation energy in temperature on the rate of the reaction?
109.The activation energy of a reaction may be lowered by a. It increases the number of particles with the necessary
a. raising the temperature activation of energy
b. lowering the temperature b. It enables the reacting particles with the necessary activation
c. removing the products of the reaction energy
d. adding a catalyst c. It lowers the activation energy for the reaction
110.The equilibrium constant in a reversible chemical reaction at given d. It enables the activated complex to be more easily converted to the
temperature products
a. depends on the initial concentrations of the reactants 117.The reactions of high molecularity are rare because
b. depends on the concentration of one of the products at equilibrium a. activation energy of many body collisions is very high
c. does not depend on the initial concentrations b. many body collisions have low probability
d. is not characteristic of the reaction c. many body collisions are not favoured energetically
d. none of the above statement is true
118.At 25C , the half life for the decomposition of N2O5 is 5.7 hours,
Answer the following questions 111-113 with the help of the and is dependent of the initial pressure of N2O5 the specific rate
hypothetical reaction and its rate law constant is
3A(g) + B(g) +2C(g) D(g) + 2E(g) a. ln 2 b. (1/5.7)hr-1
Rate of formation of D = k[A] [B]2 -1
c. (ln2/5.7) hr -1
d. (ln2/5.7)hr
111. Doubling of the concentration of A increases the rate of reaction by a 119.If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the
factor of reactant, the reaction is of
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9 a. zero order b. first order
112.Doubling of the concentration of B increases the rate of the reaction by c. second order d. third order
a factor of
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9 120.Who among the following gave the law of photochemical equivalence?
113.If the volume of the container is suddenly reduced to one-half its a. Drapper b. Einstein
original volume the rate will increase by a factor of c. Grotthus d. Lambert
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16 121.The energy of electromagnetic radiation depends on
 a. its amplitude b. its frequency b. has a negative oxidation potential
c. its wave length d. none of the above c. is readily oxidized
122.What term is used to define the phenomenon of emission of light in a d. shows a negative oxidation number
chemical reaction?
a. Chemical luminescence
b. Photosensitization 130.A Faraday of electricity is
c. Both chemical luminescence and photosensitization a. one ampere per second
d. None of the above b. 96,500 coulombs per second
123.Raman spectra may be obtained in c. 6.02 x 1023 electrons per second
a. IR and Visible region d. 6.02 x 1023 electronic charges
b. Visible region only 131.When aqueous HCl is electrolyzed
c. IR and micro wave region a. chlorine gas is produced at the anode
d. UV and visible region b. hydrogen gas is produced at the anode
124.ESR spectra mainly helps in study of c. oxygen gas is produced at the anode
a. compounds having hydrogen d. oxygen gas is produced at the cathode
b. compounds having carbons 132.The number of electrons necessary to produce 1.00gm of Cu from
c. free radicals Cu2+ at the cathode of an electrolytic cell is
d. ionic compounds a. 1.89 x 1022 b. 3.04 x 103
21
125.Which one of the following rate laws has an overall order of 0.5 for the c. 9.47 x 10 d. 1.91 x 1025
reactions involving substances X, Y, Z.? 133.A possible advantage to using the half reaction method for balancing
a.
Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz) oxidation-reduction equation is
b.
Rate = k (Cx)0.5 (Cy) 0.5 (Cz)0.5 a. electrons need not be balanced
c.
Rate = k (Cx)1.5 (Cy) 1 (Cz)0 b. oxidation numbers are not assigned
d.
Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)0/(Cy)2 c. charges are not balanced
126.Chemical reaction rates in solution do not depend to any great extent d. atoms need not be balanced
upon 134.In a galvanic cell the cathode
a. pressure b. temperature a. is always made of copper
c. concentration d. catalyst b. is always made of zinc
127.Which of the following might be used as an electrode? c. may be made of an inert metal
a. A stick b. A nail d. always attracts negative ions in the solution
c. A glass rod d. A soda straw 135.Hydrogen ions are more readily reduced than
128.The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H2 at 1.0 atm to H+ at 1.0 x 10-1 M a. Ag+ b. Cu++
is c. Cl2 d. Zn++
a. 0.00V b. 0.059V 136.Not all galvanic cells contain
c. 0.059V d. 0.030V a. a cathode b. an anode
129.A good reducing agent c. a porous partition d. ions
a. will always react rapidly 137.When a cell of a lead storage battery is being charged, it is
 a. a galvanic cell b. an electrolytic cell 145.As a lead storage battery is discharged
c. a Daniel cell d. a dry cell a. water is used up
138.A current of 9.65 ampere is drawn from a Daniel cell for exactly 1 hour. b. lead is formed
The loss of mass of anode is c. lead sulfate is consumed
a. 0.180g b. 23.6g d. sulfuric acid is consumed
c. 0.197g d. 11.8g 146.If a large quantity of cobalt metal were dropped into a solution
139.The following reaction does not occur spontaneously (all ions at 1m containing Ag+, Fe+2, Cu+2, the products of the reaction will be:
concentration; all gases at 1 atmosphere pressure) a. Ag, Fe and Cu b. Ag, Fe++ and Cu+
a.
2Cr(s) + 3Cl2(g) 2 Cr+3 + 6 Cl-
c. Fe++, Cu and Co++ d. Fe++, Cu, Ag and Co++
b.
NO3- + 2 H+ + Ag(s) Ag+ + H2O + NO2(g)
c.
NO3- + 4 H+ + 3 Ag(s) 3 Ag+ + NO(g) +2H2O 147.Which of the following instruments makes use of the standard electrode
potentials and the variation of electrode potential with concentration?
d.
Cl2(g) + 2 Br- 2 Cl- + Br2
a. Polarimeter b. pH meter
140.If 0.200 liter of 0.100 M NaCl are electrolyzed until the OH -
concentration is 0.0500M, how many moles of Cl2 gas are produced? c. Electrophorous d. Electrophotometer
a. 5.00 x 10-3mole b. 1.00 x 10-2mole
-2 148.The series in which the electrode potentials of metals are arranged in an
c. 5.00 x 10 mole c. 1.00 x 10-1mole
order is known as:
141.As the lead storage battery is charged,
a. electrical conductivity series
a. the amount of sulfuric acid decreases
b. electrode potential series
b. the lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulfate
c. electrochemical series
c. sulfuric acid is regenerated
d. chemical affinity series
d. lead dioxide dissolves
142.If an aqueous solution of KI is electrolyzed (with platinum electrodes)
one would expect to find
149.In a salt-bridge KCl is used because
a. potassium deposited at the cathode
a. agar-agar forms a good jelly with it
b. oxygen liberated at the anode
b. KCl is an electrolyte
c. the solution around the cathode becoming alkaline
c. K+ and Cl- have the same transference number
d. the solution around the anode becoming brown
d. KCl is present in calomel electrode
143.When an aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed, a product formed at
150.Four colorless salt solutions are placed in separate test-tubes and a
the cathode is
strip of copper is dipped in each.. which solution finally turns blue?
a. Na b. H+
- a. Pb (NO3)2 b. Zn (NO3)2
c. OH d. Cl2
144.If aqueous Cu SO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a current of 2.00 c. AgNO3 d. Cd (NO3)2
ampere, the volume of ozygen produced at STP at the anode is
a. 3.10 x 10-4 liter b. 6.96ml 151.When an electric current is passed through a cell containing an
electrolyte, positive ions move towards the cathode and negative ions
c. 1.16 x 10-4 liter d. 1.16 ml towards the anode. What will happen if the cathode is pulled out of
solution?
 a. The positive ions will start moving towards the anode and negative
ions will stop moving
b. The negative ions will continue to move towards the anode and the
positive ions will stop moving The standard electrode potential (E) for Fe+++ + e Fe++ is
c. Both negative and positive ions move towards the anode
d. None of these movements will take place a. 0.476V
152.What is the standard cell potential for the cell Zn; Zn +2 (IM) ll Cu+2 b. 0.404V
(IM); Cu (E for Zn+2 l Zn = -.76; E for Cu+2 l Cu = +0.34) c. +0.404V
d. +0.771V
a. -0.076 + 0.34 = -0.42 V
155.The magnitude of the individual half cell potentials are given
b. 0.34 (-0.76) = +1.10V
c. 0.34 (-0.76) = +0.42V (i) CO2+ + 2e Co 0.28V
d. 0.76 (+0.34) = -1.10V (ii) Hg2+ + 2e 2Hg 0.78V
153.One Faraday of current was passed through the electrolytic cells placed
in series containing solutions of Ag +, Ni+2 and Cr+3 respectively. The when both the half cells (a) and (b) are connected with SHE, the
amount of Ag (At.Wt. 108), Ni (At. Wt. 59) and Cr (At. Wt. 52) metallic electrode Co is found to be ve and Hg electrode is found to be
deposited will be: +ve. The correct sign for the electrode potentials will be:
Silver Nickel a. +ve for half cell (I)
Chromium b. +ve for half cell (ii)
a. 108g 29.5g c. ve for half cell (ii)
17.5g 156.When an iron wire is immersed in an acidic solution of CuSo4, the blue
color of the solution is lost after some time. This is due to
b. 108g 59g a.
reduction of Cu++
52.0g b.
oxidation of CuSO4
c.
c. 108g 108g formation of double complex between iron and copper sulfate
d.
108g formation of a colorless salt of Cu++
157.Magnesium cannot displace from solution the ions of
d. 108g 117.5g a. sodium b. lead
166g
c. copper d. gold
154.Given standard electrode potentials
E 158. The mathematical statement of Gibbs phase rule is

Fe++ + 2e Fe -0.440V a. F = C-P+2 b. C = F-P+2

c. C = F-P+1 d. P = C+F+2
Fe+++ + 3e Fe -0.036V
159. The homogenous physically distinct and mechanically separable parts
of the heterogeneous system in equilibrium are called
 a. phases b. components c. transition temperature
d. all of the above
c. degrees of freedom d. none of the above
160. What is the degree of freedom of a system consisting of a gaseous
mixture of carbon dioxide and nitrogen?
ALGEBRA
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3 1. The sum of two numbers is 11. The sum of their reciprocals is 11/30.
Find the smaller number.
161. How many phases are present in the water system? a. 6 b. 5 c. 2 d. 3
a. 0 b. 1
2. The sum of the squares of two numbers is 58 and the difference of
c. 2 d. 3 their squares is 40. Find the larger no.
a. 7 b. -7 c. 3 d. 3
162. How many phases will be there in the system made of water and
methyl alcohol? 3. Find the smallest positive integer, which leaves a remainder of 2 when
a. 3 b. 1 divided by 4, 6 and 8.
a. 98 b. 50 c. 26 d. 74
c. 1 d. 0
163. How many components are necessary to define the following 4. The sum of two numbers is 4 and their product is 2. Find the sum of
equilibrium? their reciprocals.
a. b. c. 2 d. 4
5. A number has two digits whose sum is 10. The difference between the
CaCO3 CaO + CO2 original number and the number resulting from an
Solid solid gas interchange of its digit is 54. What is the original number?
a. 45 b. 54 c. 28 d. 82
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3 6. A number is less than 100, and its tens digit is four more than its units
digit. If the number with the digits reversed is
164. The minimum number of phases existing in a system is subtracted from the original number, the remainder is three times the
a. 0 b. 1 sum of the digits. Find the original number.
a. 84 b. 48 c. 26 d. 62
c. 2 d. 3
165. The incongruent melting point is so called
a. peritectic temperature
b. meritectic temperature
7. A fathers age is now five times that of his first-born son. Six years 14. A pipe can alone fill a tank in 5 hrs, while a drain could do the contrary
from now, the old mans age will be only three times that in 12 hrs. How long would it take the pipe to fill the
of his son. Find the sons present age. tank if the drain was simultaneously opened during the duration of the
a. 12 b. 30 c. 6 d. 36 filling job and if the tank were entirely emptied at the
start?
8. A mother is now three times as old as her daughter. In 4 years, the a. 7.6 hrs b. 8.6 hrs c. 4.42 hrs d. 4.06 hrs
mother will be four times as old as the daughter was, two
years ago. How old is the daughter?
a. 36 b. 12 c. 20 d. 60 15. A pipe can fill a tank in 7 hrs while a drain pipe can empty the tank in a
matter of 11 hrs. If for the first 4 hrs, the drain was
9. If the altitude and the base of a triangle were each increased by 2 cm, left open while the pipe was filling it, how much longer would it have
the area would increase by 19 cm2. If the altitude is taken the input pipe to fill the tank full if the tank was
increased by 3 cm and the base is decreased by 4 cm, the area will be emptied at the start?
decreased by 5 cm2. Find the base of the triangle. a. 5.5 hrs b. 7.6 hrs c. 15.2 hrs d. 6.12 hrs
a. 7 b. 10 c. 9 d. 8

10. A rectangular piece of cardboard has an area of 150 cm 2. By a cutting a 16. An ocean going vessel traveling at 20 kph between two ports of call of
square 2 cm wide on each side from each of the a short distance of 45 km, takes an hour and 12
corners and folding up the sides, an open box is formed having a minutes less time when going with the low tide current than against it.
volume of 132 mL. Find the length of the original What was the rate of the current?
cardboard. a. 0.44 kph b. 225 kph c. 20.5 kph d. 5 kph
a. 8 b. 7 c. 10 d. 15
17. A job can be done in as many days as there are men in the
11. How soon after three oclock will the hands of a clock be together? group. If the number of men is reduced by 4, the work is
a. 3:16:22 b. 3:15:00 c. 16:22 d. 15:00 delayed by 5 days. How many were there in the original group?
12. At what time between 6 and 7` oclock are the hands of a clock a. 18 b. 16 c. 20 d.
coincident? 24
a. 6:30 b. 6:32.73 c. 6:32.5 d. 6:35
18. A project can be done by 8 girls in 5 days. 5 boys can do the
13. One pipe alone can fill a tub in 12 minutes. Another pipe can fill it in
only 8 minutes. How long would it take both pipes to fill same project in 6 days. How long will it take for 3 boys and 6
the tub? girls to do the job?
a. 4.7 mins b. 20.0 mins c. 4.8 mins d. 4.9 mins a. 4 days b. 5 days c. 6
days d. 8 days
19. The sum of two numbers is 14. The sum of the squares of the 24. Two jet planes traveling toward each other took off at the same
numbers is 100. Find the product of the two numbers. time from two airports located 4800 km apart. If they passed
a. 42 b. 48 c. 54 each other after 2 hours, determine the speed (kph) of the faster
d. 56 plane if one plane is flying at 160 kph faster than the other.
a. 1280 b. 1300 c. 1320
20. The amount of 135 is to be divided among three brothers in the d. 1350
ratio 3: 5: 7. What is the biggest amount received by a
brother? 25. A man driving his car at a certain speed will reach his destination
a. 54 b. 63 c. 72 6 hours. If he increased his speed by 24kph, he would
d. 75 have reached his destination in 5 hours. Find the distance of his
destination.
21. A high concentrated solution having a volume of 100 liters is 25% a. 750 km b. 720 km c. 650 km d.
gasoline. How much gasoline should be added to the 600 km
solution to produce a 50-50% mixture?
a. 50 L b. 75 L c. 40 L d. 26. Find the value of x if : (a + b) x = (a2 + 2ab + b2 ) x-3
60 L a. 4 b. 6 c. 8
d. 10
22. The gasoline tank of a car contains 50 liters gasoline and alcohol,
the alcohol comprising 25%. How much of the mixture 27. Find the value of x2 + 1/x2 if : x + 1/x = 7
should be drawn off and replaced by alcohol so that the tank a. 45 b. 47 c. 49
contains a mixture of 50-50% solution? d. 51
a. 14.5 L b. 15 L c. 16 L d.
16.67 L 28. Find the value of x if : Log x = ln (2x)
a. 0.254 b. 0.294 c. 0.354 d.
23. The number 142 is divided into two parts such that when the 0.394
greater part is divided by the smaller part, the quotient is 3 and
remainder is 14. What is the greater part?
a. 110 b. 112 c. 114 d. 29. Simplify : 7a+2 8(7a+1) + 5(7a) + 49(7a-2)
a. 5a b. 3 c. 7a d. 7a
116
30. If 33y=1, what is the value of y/33? 40. Find a quadratic equation whose roots are 2- 5 and 2 + 5.
a. 0 b. 1 c. undefined d. infinity a. x2 4x + 1 = 0 b. x2 + 4x + 1 = 0
2
c. x 4x 1 = 0 d. x2 + 4x-1 = 0
31. Which of the following is true?
a. 2 X 2 = 2 b. 24 = 4( 6 ) 41. Find the 6th term of the expansion of (1/2a 3)16.
c. 10 = 5 + 2 d. 55+ 55 + 55 + 55 + 55 = 56 22113 66339
a. 256a11 b. 128a 11
32. Find k so that 4x2 + kx +1 = 0, will only have one real solution.
a. 1 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
22113 66339
c. 128a 11 d. 256a 11
33. If the sum of the first 50 positive odd integers is subtracted from the 42. What is the sum of the coefficients of the expansion of (2x 1)20?
sum of the first 50 positive even integers, then the a. 1 b. 0 c. 215 d. 225
difference is
a. 100 b. 50 c. 150 d. 250 6
1
43. Find the middle term in the expansion of 2 x 2
34. Find the 347th digit in the decimal expansion of 825/999. 4 y
a. 6 b. 5 c. 8 d. 2
5 x6 x6
a. 3 b. 5
35. Find the sum of the series 1 + - 1/8 + 1/16 + . . . . 2 y y3
a. 2/3 b. 4/3 c. 1.312 d. none of the above
5 x6 5 x6
c. d.
36. Find the sum of the series 1 + - 1/8 + 1/16 + . . . . 4 y3 8 y 3
a. 2/3 b. 4/3 c. 1.312 d. none of the above
44. In the complex number 3 + 4i, the absolute value is
37. A tank full of alcohol is emptied one-sixth of its content and then filled
a. 10.0 b. 7.2 c. 5.0 d. 5.7
up with water and mixed. If this is done six times and
the tank has a capacity of 6 liters, how much alcohol remains?
45. Simplify : i1997 + i1999
a. 3 liters b. 2 liters c. 1 liter d. 0 liter
a. 1 + I b. I c. 1 I d. 0
38. Solve for x in the equation x x x ... 3
a. 6 c. 3 46. Evaluate : 10 7
b. 3 d. 3 3
. imaginary b. 70 c. 10 d. 70
39. Evaluate log6 3
a. 0.61 b. 0.08 c. 216 d. 729
47. A series of numbers which are perfect square numbers (i.e. 1, 4, 9, 16,
25) is called
a. Fourier series b. Fermats number
c. Eulers number d. Fibonacci number

48. If the roots of an equation are zero, then they are classified as TRIGONOMETRY
a. trivial solutions c. conditional solutions
b. extraneous solutions d. hypergolic solutions 1. Add : 273452 + 322518
a. 60010 b. 595970 c. 60100 d. 5910
49. Infinity minus infinity is
a. Infinity b. 0 c. Indeterminate d. 1 2. Solve for x if tan 3x = 5 tan x
50. The logarithm of 1 is
a. 15.705 b. 20.705 c. 35.705 d. 30.705
a. 0 b. 1 c. data insufficient d. 3. Solve for x : tan-1 (x+1) + tan-1 (x-1) = tan-1 (12)
51. The polynomial x3+4x23x+8 is divided by x-1, then the remainder is a. 1.50 b. 1.20 c. 1.25 d. 1.33
a. 10 b. 14 c. 5 d. 7
4. If sin A = 2/5, what is the value of 1 cos A?
52. Which of the following is not a factor of 2x4+11x3+16x2+x-6=0? a. 0.08 b. 0.92 c. 0.40 d. 0.61
a. 1 b. 2 c. -3 d.
5. Find the supplement of an angle whose complement is 62
1 -2 3
a. 28 b. 118 c. 152 d. 35
53. Given 3 X 3 matrix, -1 2 2 . Find its determinant.
0 1 3 6. For what value of (less than 2) will the following equation be
a. 0 b. 2 c. -1 d. 5 satisfied? sin2 + 4sin + 3 = 0
a. b. /4 c. 3/2 d. /2
54. Determine the value of y:
2x + y 3z = 3 7. If sin - cos = -1/3, what is the value of sin 2?
x + y 2z = 1 a. 1/3 b. 1/9 c. 8/9 d. 4/9
xyz=4
8. Given : cos3 - 2cos2 + cos = 0. Find
a. - 2 b. 4 c. 1 d. 0 a. 45 b. 60 c. 90 d. 30
 5 3 sin A
9. Find the minimum positive value of
3 5 cos B 19. What is the value of (log 5 to the base 2) + (log 5 to the base 3)?
a. 5/8 b. c. 1 d. 5/3 a. 7.39 b. 3.79 c. 3.97 d. 9.37

10. If cos 0, then sec - sin tan =? 20. Find the value of sin (arc cos 15/17).
a. sin b. cos c. tan d. 1 a. 8/9 b. 8/21 c. 17/9 d. 8/17

11. sinA sin3A + cosA cos3A = ? 21. A pole cast a shadow 15-m long when the angle of elevation of
a. cos2A b. sin2A c. cos4A d. sin4A the sun is 61o. If the pole has lean 15o from the vertical
directly toward the sun, what is the length of the pole?
12. If tan x = , tan y = 1/3, what is the value of tan (x+y)? a. 54.23 b. 48.64 c. 36.84 d.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 64.84

2 tan 2 22. The area of the isosceles triangle is 36-sq. m with the included
13. Simplify:
1 tan2 2 angle of 30o between the two equal sides. Find the perimeter
of the triangle.
a. cos b. sec c. sin d. tan a. 30.21 b. 32.12 c. 28.43
d. 29.65
14. Given: sin A = 3/5; cos A < 0 and cos B = -12/13; tan B < 0, determine cos
(A-B)
a. 123/845 b. 123/845 c. 33/65 d. 63/65 23. If an equilateral triangle is circumscribed about a circle of radius
10-cm, determine the side of the triangle.
15. Simplify cos (30-) cos (30+) as a function of only a. 34.64 b. 64.12 c. 36.44
a. cos b. sec c. tan d. sin d. 32.1
16. Express sin 145 in terms of a function of a positive acute angle
a. cos 35 b. sin 35 c. cos 55 d. cos -55 24. Find the length of the side of a regular octagon that is inscribed
in a circle of radius 243 inches.
17. If sin 4x = cos (40 + x), solve for x
a.143 b.154 c.165 d.
186
a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

18. cos (A+B) cos A + sin (A+B) sin A 25. Find the area of a parallelogram whose sides are 67 cm and 43
a. sin B b. cos B c. sin A d. cos A cm, the acute angle between them being 65.
 a. 1305 b. 1611 c. 1805 d.
2611 31. At one side of a road is a pole 25 ft. high fixed on the top of a wall, 15
ft high. On the other side of the road, at a point on the
ground directly opposite, the flagstaff and the wall subtend equal
26. Express in radian the angle between the hands of a clock at 3:25 angles. Find the width of the road.
PM. a. 25 ft b. 40 ft c. 60 ft d. 30 ft
a. 0.73 b. 0.83 c. 0.93 d.
1.0 32. The angle of elevation of the top of the tower B from the top of tower A
is 28 and the angle of elevation of the top of tower A
27. The three dimensions of a rectangular parallelepiped are in the from the base of the tower B is 46. The two towers lie in the same
ratio 2:3:5. If the volume is 810 cu cm, what is the length of horizontal plane. If the height of tower B is 120 m, find
the height of tower A.
the longest side?
a. 87 m b. 91 m c. 79 m d. 66 m
a. 6 b. 9 c. 15 d.
18

28. Three spheres of radii 1, 2 and 3 inches, respectively, are

33. Express 18 in mils
melted and formed into a new sphere. Find the radius of this new
a. 220 mils b. 320 mils c. 330 mils d. 400 mils
sphere.
a. 3.3 b. 4.3 c. 5 d. 6 34. A circle is divided into two parts by a chord 3 cm away from the
center. Find the area of the smaller part, in square cm, if the
29. The two bases of a trapezoid are 12 inches and 18 inches circle has an area of 201 cm2.
respectively. If the angles at the extremities of one base are 65 a. 372.5 b. 363.6 c. 368.4 d. 53.7
and 40 respectively, find the longer leg. 35. Given a triangle whose sides are 24 cm, 30 cm, and 36 cm. Find the
a. 5.63 b. 6.23 c. 7.21 d. radius of a circle which is tangent to the shortest and
7.81 longest side of a triangle, and whose center lies on the third side.
a. 9 cm b. 12 cm c. 11 cm d. 18 cm
30. Find the radius of circle circumscribed about the triangle for 36. If a steel ball is immersed in an 8 cm diameter cylinder, it displaces
which A = 50, B = 20, and a = 35 inches. water to a depth of 2.25 cm. The radius of the ball is
a. 22.84 b. 25.64 c. 31.25 a. 6 cm b. 3 cm c. 2 cm d. 4 cm
d. 36.55
37. Each interior angle of a regular nonagon is equal to 6. The slope of the line joining ( 2,-3) and the midpoint of the line
a. 140 b. 144 c. 135 d. 150 segment joining (0,4) and (5,-2) is
a. 8 b. 8 c. 3 d. 3
38. A polygon has 350 diagonals. How many sides are there?
a. 28 b. 25 c. 32 d. 30 7. Find the distance from the point (2,3) to the line 3x+4y+9=0
a. 5 b. 5.4 c. 5.8 d. 6.2
39. One angle is 20 less than thrice its supplement. What are the angles?
a. 20, 160 b. 45, 135 c. 55, 125 d. 50, 130
8. Find the acute angle formed by the lines 2x + y 8 = 0 and x +
40. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 30 cm. The perimeter is 72 cm.
3y + 4 = 0.
Find the length of its shortest side. a. 30o b. 35o c. 45o d.
a. 16 b. 24 c. 18 d. 27 60o

9. If the points (-2, 3) , (x,y) and (-3, 5) lie on the straight line, then
ANALYTIC GEOMETRY the equation of the line is _____.
1. Find the area of the triangle with vertices (2,-1), (-3, 4) and (0,-3). a. x + 2y 1 = 0 b. 2x + y 1 = 0
a. 10 b. 9.5 c. 10.5 d. 9 c. x + 2y + 1 = 0 d. 2x + y + 1 = 0

2. A copying machine reduces the side of a triangle by 20%. The area of the
triangle is reduced by 10. Two vertices of a triangle are (2,4) and (-2, 3) and the area is 2
a. 36% b. 20% c. 18% d. 40% square units, the locus of the third vertex is
a. x 4y = -10 b. x 4y = -18
3. A spherical balloon is being inflated so that the surface increases by
20%, then the volume of the sphere increases by c. none of the above d. both a and b
a. 20% b. 30% c. 31.5% d. 31.45%
11. Find the area of the triangle which the line 2x 3y + 6 = 0 forms
4. The midpoint of the line segment between P 1(x1,y1) and P2(-2,4) is with the coordinate axis.
Pm(2, -1). Find the coordinate of P1 a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d.
a. (6,-5) b. (5,-6) c. (6,-6) d. (-6,6) 5

5. If the distance between the points (8,7) and (3,y) is 13, what is the 12. The intercepts of a straight line on the x and y axes are 4 and
value of y? 6, respectively. Find its equation.
a. 5 b. 19 c. 19 or 5 d. 5 or 19
 a. 3x + 2y = 12 b. 2x + 3y = 12 c. 3x 2y = 18. Find the angle between two vectors whose direction numbers
12 d. 2x 3y = 12 are (2, 1, 1) and (1, -1, 2).
a. 300 b. 400 c. 450
13. What is the distance between the center of the circles X 2 + Y2 d. 60 0

+ 2X + 4Y 3 = 0 and X2 + Y2 - 8X - 6Y + 7 = 0 ?
a. 7.07 b. 7.77 c. 8.07 19. Find the polar equation of a circle with center at the (3, 0) and
d. 8.77 the radius 3.
a. r = 3cos b. r = 3sin c. r = 6cos d. r
14. Find the radical axis of the circle x 2 + y2 + 8x 6y = 0 and the = 6sin
circle x2 + y2 -12x 16y + 20 = 0.
a. 2x + y = 2 b. 2x y = 2 c. x + 2y = 2 d. x 20. Find the angle that the line 2y-9x-18=0 makes with the x-axis.
2y = 2 a. 74.8 b. 4.5 c. 47.8 d. 77.5

15. Find the eccentricity of the curve: 9X 2 - 4Y2 - 36X + 8Y = 21. Find the length of the chord common to the circles x 2+y2=64 and
4. x +y2-16x=0
2

a. 1.76 b. 1.80 c. 1.86 a. 14 b. 13 c. 12 d. 11

d. 1.92
22. Find the area of the circle whose center is at (2,-5) and tangent to the
line 4x+3y-8=0
16. The moons orbit is an ellipse with the earth at one focus. The a. 6 b. 9 c. 3 d. 12
length of the major axis is 478,000 miles and the
eccentricity e = 0.055. Find the least distance from the earth to 23. What is the length of the latus rectum of the curve x2= - 12y
the moon in miles. a. 12 b. 3 c. 12 d. 3
a. 239,000 b. 225,855 c. 210,755 d.
190,255 24. Find the equation of the axis of symmetry of the function y = 2x 2
7x+5.
17. Find the coordinates of the midpoint of the line segment joining a. 4x+7=0 b. x-2=0 c. 4x-7=0 d. 7x+4=0
the points A (4, 1, 8) and B (6, -3, 4).
25. Find the length of the latus rectum of the following ellipse:
a. (5, -1, 6) b. (10, -2, 12) c. (-2, 4, 4) d.
25x2+9y2-300x-144y+1251=0
(0, 0, 0) a. 3.4 b. 3.2 c. 3.6 d. 3.0
26. The eccentricity of the ellipse x2/4 + y2/16 = 1 is
a. 0.725 b. 0.256 c. 0.689 d. 0.866 lim 3 x 1
1. Find
x2 x2
a. 0 b. 1 c. d.
infinite
27. Find the eccentricity of the curve 9x2 16y2 = 144
a. 0.6 b. 0.8 c. 1.25 d. 5/3
lim x3 2x 9
2. Find
28. The area of the region enclosed by the curve 4x2 + 25y2 = 50 x 2x3 8
a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 15 a. 0 b. 2 c. d.

29. What is the equation of the asymptote of the hyperbola lim x

x 2
y 2
3. Find
x 1 2 x tan 2
1?
9 4 a. e2 b. e2/ c. 0 d.
a. 2x-3y=0 b. 3x-2y=0 c. 2x-y=0 d. 2x+y=0
4. Find Limx ( 7 x3 ) / (4 x3 - 2x + 10 )
30. An arch 18 m high has the form of parabola with a vertical axis. The a. 0 b. 1.75 c. indeterminate
length of a horizontal beam placed across the arch 8m
from the top is 64m. Find the width at the bottom. d. infinity
a. 86m b. 96m c. 106m d. 76m
5. Find Limx 0 ( 1 ex ) / x
31. The collection of all points in the plane equidistant from two fixed a. -1 b. 1 c. -2
points is d. 2
a. ellipse b. parabola c. line d. circle
6. Find Limx 0 sin 3x / x
32. Find the value of k for which the equation x 2 4y2 + (k+1)x + k2 a. 0 b. 1/3 c. 1
= 0 represents two intersecting lines. d. 3
a. k =1 b. k = 0 c. k = 1, -1/3 d. k = -1,
1/3 7. Find the derivative of y if x2 + y2 = 1.
a. x/y b. x/y c. y-3
-3
DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
d. y
8. Find the derivative of y if xy + y2 = 1. 14. Find the point on the graph of y = x 2 at which the tangent line is
a. y / (x + y) b. y / (x + y) c. y / (x + 2y) parallel to the line y = 6x-1.
d. y /(x + 2y) a. (0,0) b. (1,1) c. (2,4)
d. (3,9)
9. Find the derivative of y = ex cos x2
a. ex sin x2 b. ex (cos x2 2x sin x2 ) c. ex cos x2 15. At a point (1,2) of the curve x2 xy + y2 = 3, find the slope of the
2 x
2x sin x d. 2x e sin x tangent line.
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2
d. 3
10. Find the partial derivatives with respect to x of the function xy 2 5y
+6. 16. If x + y = 6, find the maximum value of xy2
a. y2 5 b. y2 c. xy 5y a. 32 b. 30 c. 36 d. 40
d. 2xy
11. The length of a rectangle of constant area 800 q cm is increasing sin x
17. If f(x) = , then f (x) = ?
at a rate of 4 cm per second. What is the width of the 1 cos x
rectangle at the moment the width is decreasing at a rate of 0.5 1 1 c. 1 + cos x
a. b.
cm per second? 1 cos x 1 cos x
a. 10 cm b. 20 cm c. 30 cm
d. 40 cm 18. If xy = 6, find the minimum value of 2x + 3y
a. 12 b. 10 c. 9 d. 15
2
12. A particle moves around a curve y = x + 2x. At what point on the
19. Find a point on the curve y = e 2x whose tangent line is perpendicular to
curve are the x and y coordinates of the particles changing
the line x + 4y-8 = 0
at the same rate? a. (0,1) b. (ln 2 , 2) c. (ln2, 4)
a. (1, 3) b. (0, 0) c. (-1/2, -3/4)
d. (-1, -1) 20. Find the derivative of y = xx
a. xx b. xx (lnx) c. xx( l + lnx ) d. non
13. Find the slope- intercept equation of the normal line to the graph above
y = x3 x2 at the point where x=1.
a. y = x + 1 b. y = -x + 1 c. y = x 1 21. Find the largest area of a rectangle that could be inscribed in the ellipse,
d. y = -x 1 4x2 + 9y2 = 36
a. 12 b. 24 c. 6 d. 48
 29. Find the slope of the line tangent to y = -4/x at x=2
22. A balloon leaving the ground 18m from the observer rises 3m/sec. How a. 1 b. 0 c. 1 d. 2
fast is the angle of elevation of the line of sight
increasing after 8 sec? 30. Find the 3rd derivative of y= x ln x
a. 0.12 rad/s b. 0.08 rad/s c. 0.03 rad/s a. 1/x b. 1/x2 c. 1/x3 d. 1
31. The graph of y = x5 x will cross the x-axis
23. A box is to be constructed from a piece of zinc 20 in 2 by cutting equal a. twice b. thrice c. 4 times d. 5 tim
squares from each corner and turning up the zinc to
form the side. What is the maximum volume (cubic inch) of the box 32. Which of the following functions will have an inflection point?
that can be constructed? a. y = x4 b. y = x3 c. y = x2 d. y = x
a. 600 b. 593 c. 580
33. Find C so that the line y = 4x + 3 is tangent to the curve y = x2 + C
24. Water is flowing into a conical vessel 15 cm deep and having a radius a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7
of 3.75 cm across the top. If the rate at which the
water rises in 2 cm/sec, how fast is the water flowing (m 3/sec) into the
conical vessel when the water is 4 cm deep? INTEGRAL CALCULUS
a. 6.28 b. 2.37 c. 4.57
1. Find the (x + 1) (x 1) dx
25. At the minimum point, the slope of the tangent line to a curve is a. x2 + x + C b. x2 x + C c.
a. zero b. negative c. positive 0.33 x3 + x + C d. 0.33 x3 x + C

26. Given a function, y = f(x) whose f (x) = - f(x). Determine the function 2. Find the x x dx
a. logarithmic c. transcendental a. 2/5 x5/2 + C b. 5/2 x5/2 + C c.
b. exponential1 d. sinusoidal 2 x1/2 + C d. x1/2 + C
27. At the maximum point, the value of f (x) is 3. Find the (5 x2 + 1) dx / x
a. negative b. positive c. zero a. 2 x5/2 + 2 x1/2 + C b. 2 x5/2 2 x1/2 + C
5/2 1/2
x 2 c. 5 x + 2 x + C d. 5 x5/2 2 x1/2 +
28. The function, f ( x ) is discontinuous at C
x 2x 3
2

a. x = -1, 3 b. x = 1, -3 c. x = 1, -2 4. Find the 5sin 4 x cos x dx

 a. sin 4 x cos2 x + C b. 5 sin 4 x cos2 x + C c. 5 sin a. 2x 2ln( x + 2 ) +C b. 2x + 2ln( x + 2 ) +C c.
5
x+C d. sin 5 x + C 2x ln( x + 2 ) +C d. 2x + ln( x + 2 ) +C

5. Find the dx / ( 1 + sin x) 12. Find the 6dx / ( x2 9)

a. tan x + sec x +C b. tan x sec x +C a. ln ( x-3)/(x+3) + C b. ln ( x+3)/(x-3) + C c. 2
c. 2 (1 sin x )1/2 + C d. 2 (1 + sin x )1/2 + C arctan x/3 + C d. 6 arctan x/3 + C

6. Find the ( 1 sin x)1/2 dx 13. Find the 6dx / ( x2 + 9)

a. tan x + sec x +C b. tan x sec x +C a. ln ( x-3)/(x+3) + C b. ln ( x+3)/(x-3) + C c. 2
c. 2 (1 sin x )1/2 + C d. 2 (1 + sin x )1/2 + C arctan x/3 + C d. 6 arctan x/3 + C

7. Find the cot x dx 14. What is the integral of x (x+1)8 dx if the lower limit is zero and the
a. ln sin x + C b. ln sin x + C c. upper limit is 1.
ln cos x + C d. ln cos x + C a. 22.76 b. 34.76
c. 45.52 d. 54.52
8. Find the x sin x dx
a. x cos x + sin x + C b. x cos x sin x + C c. x 15. What is the integral of x3 dx / (x + 1) if the lower limit is zero and
cos x + sin x + C d. none of these the upper limit is 1.
a. 0.14 b. 0.28 c. 0.34
d. 0.38

16. What is the integral of x e 3x dx if the lower limit is zero and the
9. Find the ln x dx / x upper limit is 1.
a. ln x + C b. 2 ln x + C c. x ln x a. 1.57 b. 2.57 c.
x + C d. ln 2 x + C 3.57 d. 4.57

10. Find the ln x dx 17. What is the integral of dx / (x2 -9) if the lower limit is 4 and the
a. ln x + C b. 2 ln x + C c. upper limit is 5.
x ln x x + C d. ln 2 x + C a. 0.093 b. 0.193
c. 0.293 d. 0.393
11. Find the (2x + 2)dx / ( x + 2)
18. What is the area bounded by the curve y = x 3 , the x-axis , and
1
the line x = -2 and x= 1. 25. Evaluate xe x dx ?
0
a. 2.45 b. 4.25 c.
a. 1 b. e c. e1
5.24 d. 5.42

19. Find the area bounded by y = ex , x = 0 and y = 0.
6
26. Evaluate cos8 3 A dA
0
a. 1 b. 2 c. e 35
d. infinity a. /768 b. 45/786 c. 125/768

27. Find the area of the region bounded by the lines x = y, x = 2 ; y = 1/x2
20. Find the length of arc in one branch of the curve y 2 = x3 from x = a. 1 b. 2 c. 3
0 to x = 1.
a. 1.2 b. 1.44 c. 1.64 28. Determine the volume generated by rotating the region bounded by
d. 1.84 the line 2x+y-4=0 about the y-axis
a. 16/3 b. 4/3 c. 2/3
x
21. If 0 sin2ycos2ydx = 1 4 , then x is equal to 29. Find the volume generated by rotating the region bounded by x=y and
y2=4x, about the x-axis from x=1 and x=4.
a. /2 b. /6 c. /3 a. b. 2 c. 3
xdx
22. T o integrate 1+ x , by the u-substitution method, let u
4 30. The area bounded by the curve y 2=12x and the line x=3 is revolved
a. 1+x2 b. x2 c. 1+x4 about the line x=3. What is the volume generated?
a. 186 b. 179 c. 181
2
23. Evaluate 0
4 x 2 dx
a. 4 b. 2 c. d. 3 STATISTICS

1. In how many different ways can a ten-question true-

false examination be answered?
3x 4 x 5 dx
2
2
24. Evaluate
1
a. 12 b. 10
a. 0 b. 2 c. 1 c. 20 d. 210
2. A team of 5 students is to be chosen for a math contest. If there were 8. In how many different ways can 5 persons be seated in an
ten male and eight female students to choose from,
what is the probability that three team members will be male and two automobile having places for 2 in the front seat and 3 in the back
will be female? seat if only 3 can drive?
a. 5/18 b. 20/51 c. 5/9 a. 30 b. 60 c. 36
d. 72

3. In how many ways can seven trees be planted in a circle 9. How many ways can 4 boys and 4 girls be seated alternatively in
a. 720 b. 5040 c. 1440 the row of eight chairs?
a. 40320 b. 24
4. What is the number of permutation of the letters in the word c. 48 d. 1152
banana?
a. 36 b. 60 c. 52
d. 42
10. In how many different ways can 4 persons be seated in
5. In a mathematics examination, a student may select 15 problems consecutive seats in a row of 7 seats?
from a set of 20 problems. In how many ways can he a. 72 b. 96 c.
makes his choice? 120 d. 168
a. 3,000 b. 15,504
c. 1,860,480 d. 2.027 x 1016 11. How many different committees of 6 can be formed from 12 boys
and 20 girls if each committee is consisting of 4 boys and
6. There are 10 basketball teams in NCAA. If each team plays every 2 girls?
team twice, how many games are played? a. 34,560 b. 69,120
a. 45 b. 90 c. c. 94,050 d. 4,514,450
180 d. 120
12. How many different signals each consisting of 6 flags hung in a
7. How many different three-digit numbers greater than 300 can be vertical can be formed from 4 identical red flag and 2
formed with the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 if no repetitions are identical yellow flag?
allowed? a. 720 b. 24 c. 15
a. 3,125 b. 1,875 d. 12
c. 120 d. 36
13. How many 4 digits number can be formed from the number 0, 1, 19. What is the probability of drawing either an ace or a king in a
2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 if repetition is allowed? single draw from a deck of 52 playing cards?
a. 4,536 b. 10,000 a. 1/13 b. 2/13 c.
c. 5040 d. 9,000 7/52 d. 1/6

14. Which of the following can not be a probability value? 20. What is the probability of drawing either an ace or a heart in a
a. (0.99)2 b. 13/12 single draw from a deck of 52 playing cards?
c. 8/10 d. 0.01 a. 17/52 b. 4/13
c.9/26 d. 15/52
15. If A and B are complimentary events and probability of
occurrence of event A is zero or Pr(A) = 0, then Pr(B) is 21. From a bag containing 4 black balls and 5 white balls, two balls
a. less than one b. more than one are drawn. Find the probability that one is white and the
c. one d. zero other is black.
a. 4/9 b. 5/9 c.
16. Determine the probability of throwing a total of 7 in a single 2/3 d. 1/3
throw with two dice.
a. 1/3 b. c. 22. Two cards are drawn at random on an ordinary deck of cards.
1/6 d. 1/12 What is the probability that both cards are either a king or a
diamond?
17. In one of the parlor games, nineteen tickets from 1 to 19 are in a. 16/169 b. 20/221
the box. If two tickets are drawn at random. Determine the c. 4/13 d. 17/52
probability that both are odd.
a. 4/19 b. 5/19 c. 23. Two red books and 4 blue books are placed at random on a shelf.
6/19 d. 7/19 What is the probability that the blue books will be
together?
18. A box contains 4 red, 7 white and 5 blue balls. Two balls are a. 0.1 b. 0.143
chosen at random with replacement. What is the probability c. 0.2 d. 0.341
they are both red?
a. 1/16 b. 1/10 c. 24. A number from 1 to 10,000 inclusive is selected at random. What
1/12 d. 1/8 is the probability that it is a perfect square?
 a. 0.01 b. 0.015
c. 0.02 d. 0.025 31. The graphical representation of the cumulative frequency distribution in
a set of statistical data is called?
a. Mean c. Frequency Polyhedron
25. What is the probability of drawing 3 face cards in 3 draws from an
b. Histogram d. Mass Diagram
ordinary deck of card?
a. 0.0123 b. 0.00995
32. A shoe store sells 10 different sizes of shoes; each in both high cut &
c. 0.123 d. 0.0995 low cut variety, each either rubber or leather, and
each with white or black color. How many different kinds of shoes
26. If 10 coins are tossed, what is the probability that it will show 5 does he sell?
heads and 5 tails? a. 64 b. 80 c. 72 d. 92
a. 0.246 b. 0.256
c. 0.0246 d. 0.0256 33. In a poker game consisting of 5 cards, what is the probability of
holding 2 aces and 2 queens?
27. What is the probability of getting a number "4" thrice in five tosses a. 5!/52! b. 5/52 c.
33
of a dice? /54145 d. 1264/45685
a. 0.232 b. 0.322
34. In how many ways can PICHE Chapter with 15 directors choose a
c. 0.0232 d. 0.0322 president. a vice president, a secretary, a treasurer and
an auditor, if no member can hold more than one position.
28. If the probability that Ginebra, Alaska and Shell will win the PBA open a. 630630 b. 3300
conference championship are 1/5, 1/6 and 1/10
respectively. Find the probability that one of them will win the title. c. 360360 d. 3003
a. 7/15 b. 1/300 c. 7/100
35. A two-digit number is chosen randomly. What is the probability that it
is divisible by 7?
29. An urn contains 4 black balls and 6 white balls. What is the probability
of getting one black ball and one white ball in two a. 7/50 b.13/90
consecutive draws from the urn? c. 1/7 d. 5/7
a. 0.24 b. 0.27 c. 0.53
36. In raw data, the term that occurs most frequently is known as:
30. There is 1 defectives per 100 items of a product in a long run. What is a. mean c. mode
the probability that there is one and only one detective b. median d. quartile
in a random lot of 100.
a. 0.3697 b. 0.3967 c. 0.3796
37. In probability theory, the set of possible outcomes of an experiment is
termed as:
a. sample space c. a set of random variables
b. set of random counts d. a fuzzy set