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10. Dark exhaust gas from the engine is caused by ______. engine overload
11. Cracked cylinder liner of a 2-stroke engine is indicated hunting of jacket cooling water
by___________. pressure
12. Condensers located in the various stages of the flash
seawater
evaporator are cooled by_________.
13. What is the minimum number of hours of rest in a 24
10 hours
hour period?
14. Parts of the pump used to maintain the alignment of the
bearings
pump are_____.
15. Main engine lube oil sump tank is located __________. at the bottom of the engine
97. Stern tube is used to__________. support and seal the propeller shaft
100. Before using a boiler compressed air soot blower drain the soot blower pneumatic
system, you should __________. operating lines
The condition and state of
101. Which of the following is the most critical information that readiness of portable fire-
the officer in an engineering watch be relayed during extinguishing equipment and fixed
taking over a watch? fire-extinguishing installations and
fire-detection systems
102. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water
gums, varnishes, and acids
contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally______.
103. Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers
frequently starting and stopping
to_____________.
prevent excessive load on the
104. Unloader in air compressor is use to________.
motor during starting
105. What is the most important parameter to check right
lube oil pressure
after any diesel engine is started?
106. Which condition could cause the feed pump of an
Excessive feed water temperature
auxiliary boiler to lose suction?
107. A squeaking sound occurring from within an operating
tight compressor bearings
reciprocating air compressor is an indication of_______.
108. Salinity cell is installed in the distilling unit to indicate the
quality of water produced
____________.
change in the amount of vapor
109. The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends
produced within an enclosed
upon the__________.
chamber
provide an orifice between the high
110. The purpose of expansion valve is to__________. pressure and low pressure side of
the system
111. In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric heating of the air leaving the
efficiency normally results from________. cylinders
112. A badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge
constant running of the compressor
valves will cause __________.
113. Which of the conditions listed would cause the stern
A worn or damaged stern tube seal.
tube lube oil header tank level to decrease?
4 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
114. Which characteristic of the theoretical Otto cycle does The entire fuel charge is present for
not occur in the theoretical Diesel cycle. ignition.
115. When securing a fuel oil heater, you should cut out the steam before securing
__________. the oil flow
116. Which of the following conditions should be immediately
Oil in the drain inspection tank.
reported to the engineering officer on watch?
117. An engine fails to start even if all temperatures and
fuel is contaminated with water
pressures are normal because______.
118. If the temperature of the fuel oil entering in atomizer is produce heavy black smoke at any
too low, the burner will __________. load condition
119. If two compressors must be operated in parallel in order
oil levels in both compressor
to maintain the box temperatures, a careful watch should
crankcases
be kept on the __________.
COMPETENCE 2
120. If you do not wear goggles and helmet, your chances of
hurt
being ______ will be greater
127. He must have had an accidentor he ______ then would have been here
134. The most critical time during bunkering is when ______. final topping off is occurring
135. After being rescued from the vessel accident, the people
thank
agreed that they had much to ______.
141. Let ______ the real fact of the accident me tell you
COMPETENCE 3
because the volume adjustment of
150. Acoustic feedback can arise__________
the speaker is too high
noise in speech-breaks in an SSB-
151. Squelch mode serves to suppress__________
signal
152. The legal type VHF-antenna has a length
1 meter
of__________.
reduce distortion of weak incoming
153. Automatic amplifier regulation is used to__________
signals
154. When onboard channel 16 is used for a shore radio-
simplex
connection, you always work__________.
155. Which wave length applies to a frequency of 2000 kHz? 1500 meters
166. With the squelch mode on the VHF__________ undesirable noise is suppressed
COMPETENCE 4
change in the amount of vapor
167. The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends
produced within an enclosed
upon the__________.
chamber
168. How are hydraulic valve lash adjusters on diesel engine
Forced lubrication
rocker arm assemblies being lubricated?
169. When starting the air compressor after long period of
rest the shaft should be rotated prior to restarting to check motor condition
____________.
170. Main component of the engine to regulate speed is the
governor
___________.
171. The high pressure cut-out switch will stop the a stoppage of condenser cooling
refrigeration compressor when there is______. water flow
172. A port and helix duel injection pump having upper and vary the beginning and ending of
lower plunger helixes is designed to _________. injection
173. During the initial pull down of the box temperature in a
refrigeration system, which of the devices listed is used
Evaporator pressure regulator
to prevent excessive gas pressure at the compressor
suction?
174. When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, which
Trip the three way dump valve.
of the listed steps should be carried out first?
175. Which of the following statements best describes an oil No shaft liner is needed in the area
lubricated stern tube bearing installation? of the babbitted bearing surface.
176. The low pressure side of a refrigeration system is
expansion valve to the compressor
considered to exist from the ______.
177. How often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank
At least once a year.
vessels be tested ?
178. What procedure of cooling compressed gases under
After cooling
constant pressure before going to the air reservoir?
179. Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers
frequently starting and stopping
to_____________.
180. Breaking the fuel into fine spray to provide good
atomizing
combustion is called__________.
Two stage compressors are
181. Which of the following statement is true concerning the
generally more efficient than single
overall efficiency of air compressors?
stage compressors
182. Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the
pressure and temperature
steam supplied to the first-effect of a low pressure
fluctuations in the entire unit
submerged tube distilling plant will cause _____.
183. Which characteristic of the theoretical Otto cycle does The entire fuel charge is present for
not occur in the theoretical Diesel cycle. ignition.
195. Stern tube is used to__________. support and seal the propeller shaft
196. What do we call the storage tank for liquid refrigerant? Condenser
236. Main engine lube oil sump tank is located __________. at the bottom of the engine
237. If the bowl of a disk type centrifugal purifier when oil will be lost through the water
operated as a separator is not primed, the______. discharge ports
238. For proper air temperature control in an air conditioning
Chilled water system supply
system using chilled water circulation, which parameter
temperature
should remain constant regardless of load changes?
239. Salinity cell is installed in the distilling unit to indicate
quality of water produced
the______.
240. A stopper is inserted into the spout of a closed container
in which water has been heated to a temperature of 100
Both pressure and temperature will
degrees C. If additional thermal energy is imparted,
rise
what changes will occur to the pressure and temperature
inside the container?
241. A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal
between two stages of a flash type evaporator carryover in the first- stage
indicates_____.
242. The turbo charger delivers air into the cylinder at
pressure greater than atmospheric
________.
243. If you are operating a centrifugal water service pump
pump discharge capacity is reduced
with worn wear rings, the____ .
244. Hydraulic pumps most commonly used in steering
axial piston type
systems are of the ______ .
245. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and
increase compressor efficiency
an aftercooler to___________ .
246. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water
gums, varnishes, and acids
contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally______.
due to the inability of this type of
247. A centrifugal pump requires priming____________. pump to lift water to cover the
suction or eye of the impeller
248. An emergency bilge suction is required
machinery space bilges
for________________.
249. An important point of consideration when replacing a dry select the proper size of filter so
type intake filter on an air compressor is to____. that air flow is not restricted
retain the lube oil as long as
250. The construction of the main propulsion engine lube oil
possible before it recirculates
sump tank should _______ .
through the system
251. Condensers located in the various stages of the flash
seawater
evaporator are cooled by_________.
252. It is a form of energy which crosses the boundary of a
system during a change of state produced by a
Heat
difference of temperature between the system and its
surroundings.
253. The separation chamber of the purifier is called
bowl
________.
10 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
254. If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated
pump would overheat
with the discharge valve closed the____________.
255. In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric heating of the air leaving the
efficiency normally results from________. cylinders
256. What will cause in dirty intercoolers on an air
increased motor current
compressor?
257. Why the fuel is be circulated before lighting off a cold To heat the fuel enough for proper
boiler? atomization
258. Burned gas from each cylinder is directed to the exhaust
2-stroke engine
manifold which is part of___________.
259. One of the major components of centrifugal pump
impeller
is___________.
260. If a crankcase explosion has occurred in a diesel engine, The crankcase should remain
and the crankcase remains intact, which precautions unopened until the engine has
should be observed? cooled
261. The liquid indicator sight glass is generally located in the
high pressure liquid line
____________.
262. In a two stage flash evaporator, heated feedwater is first and second stage flash
vaporized in the_________. chambers
263. What usually indicates if an air compressor inter-cooler
a clogged intercooler
pressure rises above normal?
264. The final heating of the feedwater in a flash type distilling low pressure steam admitted to the
plant is carried out by______. feedwater heater
provide an orifice between the high
265. The purpose of expansion valve is to__________. pressure and low pressure side of
the system
266. The degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine the size of the holes in the fuel
cylinder depends primarily on _______. nozzle
267. Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitation in a Vapor pockets formed in the suction
centrifugal pump? flow stream.
268. A squeaking sound occurring from within an operating
tight compressor bearings
reciprocating air compressor is an indication of_______.
269. In which of the listed types of evaporators is brine
Solo-shell low pressure
density control most important?
if the bilges become flooded and
270. The emergency bilge suction valve is typically
they can not be emptied by any
used____________.
other means
Reduce the possibility of
271. Many cast iron pistons are designed with heat dams ,
overheating the top compression
which serve to________.
ring
272. A dehydrator installed in a refrigeration system is used
moisture from the system
to remove _____.
273. Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through stop-check valves installed in the
the bilge system is prevented by______________. bilge suction manifolds
300. The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is delay the compression process until
to________. . the motor is up to its speed
301. Differential pistons are used in reciprocating air accomplish more than stage of
compressor to__________. compression in one cylinder
COMPETENCE 5
if the bilges become flooded and
303. The emergency bilge suction valve is typically
they can not be emptied by any
used____________.
other means
bilge system will lose vacuum and
304. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not
prevent other bilges from being
properly seat, the _______.
pumped out
the ability of oil to separate from
305. Demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as _____.
water
306. The first step when beginning to set the slide valves on a center the steam piston in the
duplex reciprocating pump is to _____ . cylinders
307. If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually
over a long period of time, you should replace the _____ wear rings
.
308. Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitation in a Vapor pockets formed in the suction
centrifugal pump? flow stream.
309. After the installation of new impeller wear rings, by
check the shaft and impeller
pressing them onto the pump impeller hub, it is
assembly on centers to see if the
advisable to_____.
ring surfaces are true
.
310. An O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak
compression set or wear
when it has lost its interference fit due to____.
311. The final heating of the feedwater in a flash type distilling low pressure steam admitted to the
plant is carried out by______. feedwater heater
312. Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped bleed off all stored energy from the
with accumulators, you should________. accumulators
313. What is the purpose of the relief valves installed in the To protect the pump from high
fuel service pumps? discharge pressure
314. If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated
pump would overheat
with the discharge valve closed the____________.
315. What equipment is required when processing bilge slops 15 PPM Oil Content Monitor of Oily
for overboard discharge? Water Separator
316. Most pump manufacturers of pumps recommend that
one size larger than the pump
the SUCTION piping dimension of centrifugal pumps be
suction nozzle
_________.
317. The precaution that should be observed to prevent
close the recirculating valve when
damage of the service pump when warming up the fuel
atomizing temperature is reached
system to the boiler is to ________________.
318. What is the theoritical lift of a pump handling fresh water
10.35 m
at atmospheric pressure?
319. If you are operating a centrifugal water service pump
pump discharge capacity is reduced
with worn wear rings, the____ .
320. The bilge system has been performing well; however,
Attempt to pump out another bilge
the aft starboard engine room bilge-well suddenly fails to
well to determine if the entire
be pumped out. Which statement should be done first to
system is affected
determine the cause?
321. What auxiliary machine or device is used to segregate
oil and water accumulated in the engine room before it is Oily bilge separator
being discharge overboard?
322. An oil fog lubrication system is recommended high speed continuous operation of
for______. roller bearings
323. How often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank
At least once a year.
vessels be tested ?
COMPETENCE 6
359. On some diesel-electric ships, the DC propulsion motor
will only attain half speed when the generator fields are
raising the generator engine speed
fully excited. Speeds above this are obtained by______
.
360. In a diesel electric plant, raising the generator's field
excitation will cause the DC propulsion motor to increase in speed
_________ .
361. To properly use a hook-on-type volt/ammeter in hook the jaws of the instrument
checking current flow, you must first________ . around the insulated conductor
362. An alternator operating in parallel begins to vibrate
severely and eventually trips out on the reverse power the alternator was operating out of
relay. The cause of the vibration was a result of synchronism
______________________.
363. An alternator operating in parallel begins to vibrate
severely and eventually trips out on the reverse power the alternator was operating out of
relay. The cause of the vibration was a result synchronism
of_________.
364. If a three-phase induction motor malfunctions and drops the motor will continue to run if it is
to a single-phase (one supply line open) ____. not heavily loaded
365. The device that most commonly utilizes the principle of
transformer
electromagnetic induction is the________ .
cleaning the windings, if accessible,
366. Routine maintenance of dry-type transformers should
with a vacuum cleaner or very low
include ____.
pressure air
prevent the motor from restarting
367. A low-voltage protection circuit as used in the electric
automatically on restoration of
motor starting equipment, will ____.
voltage
421. A resistance in a circuit of unknown value is to be tested the ammeter in series and the
using the voltmeter/ammeter method. Therefore, the voltmeter in parallel with the
meters should be connected with _________. resistance
422. When using an ohmmeter to test a semiconductor diode,
you find a low resistance in both the forward and reverse
short
bias directions. This indicates that the diode has
a/an_____.
423. There is no brilliant change in synchro lamps when the
synchroscope pointer is in the phase of Stationary
_____________.
424. Which of the following physical characteristics does a
wound- rotor induction motor possess that a squirrel Slip rings
cage motor has none?
425. A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a
electromagnet
soft iron core is the description of a simple______.
426. Which of the following conditions will occur if the
The brake will be set by spring
solenoid coil burns on a cargo winch with an electrical
force.
brake?
427. The most commonly used electric motor on board is
3 phase cage-rotor induction motor
_______________.
428. If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel
engine, creates pulsations when coupled with a
synchronous generator operating in parallel; the
hunting
generator rotor may be periodically pulled ahead or
behind its normal position as it rotates. This condition is
sometimes called__________.
429. A three-phase alternator is operating at 450 volts with
the switchboard ammeter indicating 300 amps. The kw
meter currently indicates 163.6 KW, with a power factor 23.2 KW
of 0.7. If the power factor increases to 0.8, the KW meter
reading would increase by______.
430. In general, polyphase induction motors can be started
across-the-line starters
on full line voltage by means of ________ .
569. When troubleshooting a lead-acid storage battery, a measuring and comparing all cells
weak or dead cell is best detected by ____________ specific gravity
570. In order to check the performance of a transistor
removed from its circuit, the instrument to be used ohmmeter or transistor tester
should be a/an_____.
571. The mica used in the commutators of DC machinery is
Harder than copper
_____________.
572. When supplying emergency lighting loads, the storage
battery initial voltage must exceed the standard system 5%
voltage by more that_______.
573. To repair small electrical motor that has been Wash it fresh water and apply
submerged in saltwater , you should________. external heat
574. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, the first
check the voltage supply from the
step to be taken before testing the circuit voltage is
power source
to_____.
575. The electrolyte in a lead-acid storage battery consists of
distilled sulfuric acid
water and ___________
576. Signal injection/trading is a method commonly used in
A radio
troubleshooting ______.
589. When trouble shooting motor controllers, a shorted relay Charged insulation and or a blown
or contactor coil is often indicated by_______. control fuse
590. Which of the damages listed below can occur to the rapid corrosion of switch
components of a winch motor? components
591. When testing for blown fuses in a three-phase supply de-energize the circuit and then use
circuit to a motor, you should first _____________. a continuity tester
592. The purpose of DC generator brushes is to Conduct electric current to an
____________. outside circuit
593. If all of the ground detection lamps burn with equal
brilliance whether the test button is depressed or release No grounds exist
then __________.
594. When troubleshooting AC motors, portable growler can
Shorted stator coils
be used for locating ____________.
595. When you are troubleshooting a DC motor that fails to
Fuses and circuit breaker
start, the first thing to check is the ______.
596. To check the three lines fuses of a three phase system Place the starter in the stop
consisting of a threephase motor, you must___. position
597. While troubleshooting a circuit in an engine room central Resistor's circuit must be de-
control console, a resistor is suspected of being faulty. energized and at
Which of the following precautions must be observed if least one end of the component
an ohmmeter is to be used to check its value? isolated.
598. What kind of maintenance system repairs a cargo winch
motor due to unusual sound of bearing during loading or Condition
unloading of cargo?
COMPETENCE 8
614. A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU may also
structural bulkhead
be a/an_____________.
615. The test of metals which measures the resistanceof the
charpy test
metal to impact is called____________.
616. The dead center of a lathe can be properly used only
center drilled
after the end of the work piece has been __________.
617. In machine shop practice, a center gauge is used for
60 thread cutting tools
checking the angle of______________ .
618. To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must
stop the lathe rotation
first __________.
619. Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the
Aluminum
highest operating lathe speed?
620. What type of gasket is used on high pressure steam
metallic
flange joints?
624. Ferrous metals are metals containing __________. a large percentage of iron
COMPETENCE 9
650. What will happen when there is an excessive wear on a There will be an excessive leakage
centrifugal pump shaft? past the packing gland
651. What is used as a jointing materials for fresh and sea
Rubber
water pipes?
652. In hydraulic system, all machines which are consumers
motor
of hydraulic power equipped with ________.
653. 4/3 Way valve is a type of directional valve with
4 ports and 3 positions
___________ .
654. The following are parts of the main bowl of purifier
bolt
except___________.
655. A hydraulic system where all oil goes back to the tank is
open loop system
termed as____________.
656. Return port of a hydraulic directional valve is designated
T
by letter __________.
657. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what
The filters and strainers should be
special attention should be given to the hydraulic
checked frequently.
system?
658. What should be done if localized scoring is discovered
Correct the cause of scoring and
on the pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance
install a new shaft sleeve.
inspection?
659. What will be the result of badly leaking refrigeration Continues running of the
compressor discharge valves? compressor
660. The nut of the bowl assembly is confirmed when marks on the body and nut
tight___________. are aligned
661. What factors shorten the life of valve springs? Fatigue and compression
666. An oil film of a lubricant is affected by the______. working temperature of the engine
671. The size of flexible hose used in a hydraulic system is the numerical designation found on
indicated by______________. the 'skin' of the hose
COMPETENCE 10
686. The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution
five years
Emergency Plan expires after __________.
687. Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil
Reporting requirements
Pollution Emergency Plan?
688. Which is not a mandatory part of the Shipboard Oil
Diagrams
Pollution Emergency Plan?
689. Which of the following classes of fire would probably
Class B
occur in the engine room bilges?
700. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by______. human error
766. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by______. human error
COMPETENCE 11
770. What is a danger of a half full tank onboard tanker Loss of stability due to free surface
vessel? effect
771. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates
has poor stability
that the vessel __________.
772. The purpose of the inclining experiment is determine the lightweight center of
to____________. gravity location
773. What is the point to which vessel's center of gravity (G)
may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive Metacenter
stability?
774. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to determine the lightweight center of
__________. gravity location
775. When a vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly, what does
Vessel has poor stability
this indicate?
776. The value of KM at any draft may be taken from
Hydrostatic Table
the______.
777. A vessel's stability is greatly reduced by liquid free
surface. Which of the listed conditions would develop the Tanks which are 40% full.
greatest adverse effect?
778. With no environmental forces present, where is the
center of gravity of an inclined vessel vertically aligned center of buoyancy
with?
779. What is the purpose of bilge keels? Reduce the amplitude of roll
781. What caused a vessel trimmed down by the bow? A greater draft forward than aft
800. The purpose of bilge keels is to _______________. reduce the amplitude of roll
806. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel? Its period of roll is long.
811. What happens when you add weight to a vessel? Reduce reserve buoyancy
835. The bilge keel is for the purpose of__________. reducing rolling
839. Vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. What Establish flooding boundaries and
is the first step to be taken in attempting to save the prevent further spread of flood
vessel? water
840. The inward curvature of the ship's side is the_________. tumble home
844. Why is the vessel's stability increases when tanks are The vessel's center of gravity is
ballasted? lowered
845. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main
center of gravity will move upwards
deck the________.
847. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to determine the lightweight center of
__________. gravity location
848. If the ship takes a sudden severe list or trim from an Determine the cause before taking
unknown cause, What will be your first action? countermeasures
Vessel's stability at small angles of
849. What is initial stability?
inclination
850. What determines the true measure of a vessel's stability
righting moment
at all angles of inclination?
861. What is the trim of the vessel? Difference in fore and aft drafts
868. Where can you take the value of KM at any draft? Hydrostatic Table
869. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the
The width of the tank
free surface correction?
870. Which statement is correct regarding a negative It should always be immediately
metacentric height? corrected
871. Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance
between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and
LBP
the after-most points on a small passenger vessel's
waterline at her deepest operating draft?
should always be immediately
872. A negative metacentric height __________.
corrected
873. What do you call a tendency of a ship to resist a change
Longitudinal stability
in trim?
It decreases at increased angles of
874. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE? heel due to pocketing when a tank
is 90% full.
875. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main
The GM will increase
deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
877. Where should you pay particular attention to be able to The vertical distribution of the deck
maintain adequate stability in loading deck cargo? cargo
878. What is a danger of a half full tank onboard tanker Loss of stability due to free surface
vessel? effect
879. The ratio of volume of displacement to a block having
the same length, breadth and draft of the vessel is Block coefficient
known as_____.
880. What should you do In order to minimize the effects of a Place the heaviest woods in the
tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber? lower holds
881. Which of the following will increase the height of the Discharging weight from lower
center of buoyancy of your vessel? decks
882. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main
The GM will increase
deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
It is an indication of a vessel's
883. What is a metacentric height? stability for small angles of
inclination
884. The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim is
longitudinal stability
call_______.
885. A vessel trimmed down by the bow has
a greater draft forward than aft
_________________ .
886. What is the inward curvature of the ship's side? Tumble home
894. The trim of a vessel is the___________. difference in fore and aft drafts
896. The bilge keel is for the purpose of: Reducing rolling
899. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel? Its period of roll is long.
COMPETENCE 12
901. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the
engine room. You should secure the power, then use a portable CO2 extinguisher
__________.
902. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. If possible you should __________.
903. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the
engine room. After securing the power, what should you Use a portable CO2 extinguisher
do?
904. At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their
stations and demonstrate their ability to perform duties In the Muster List (Station Bill)
assigned to them ________.
905. The supply of carbon dioxide used in a fixed
the space requiring the largest
extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at
amount
least sufficient for __________.
914. A class "B" fire would most likely occur in the_______. engine room bilge
925. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills? Once every month
935. Fighting an oil rig fire in a watertight compartment with A list of the vessel due to the water
hoses, what could reduce the stability of the rig? accumutation in the compartment
939. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT
electricity
__________.
940. What do you call a chemical, as listed on a Material
Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that supplies oxygen Oxidizer
required to start or support fire?
949. Extinguishing oil fire is very effective when__________. cutting off oxygen source
950. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire, what Do not attack the fire from opposite
should they do or not do? sides
951. What is the best way to combat an engine room bilge Foam extinguisher and low velocity
fire? water fog
952. Which of the following classes of fire would probably
Class B
occur in the engine room bilges?
953. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash
as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition CO2
temperature?
954. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry
At the seat of the fire, starting at the
chemical extinguisher. Where should the discharge be
near edge
directed?
955. A fire is considered 'under control' the fire is contained and no longer
when_________________ . spreading
956. A CO2 fire extinguisher provided aboard a MODU has
It must be recharged
lost 10% of its charge. What should be done?
the master control valve shut and
957. Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks shall
valves to individual cargo tanks
be set with __________.
open
The master control valve shut and
958. What arrangement must valves on steam-smothering
valves to individual cargo tanks
lines to cargo tanks be set?
open
959. A burning mattress is considered as which of the
Class A
following classes of fire?
960. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there should arrange to have a B-II
are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To extinguisher placed in the lower
comply with regulations, you __________. pumproom
961. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there should arrange to have a B-II
are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To extinguisher placed in the lower
comply with regulations, you__________. pumproom
962. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a
removing the fuel
shipboard fire by __________.
Through the use of foam
963. Which is the best way to combat an engine room bilge
extinguisher and low velocity water
fire? .
fog
964. Combustible gas indicator is operated by drawing an air over an electrically heated platinum
sample into the instrument_______. filament
965. A cut-off valve in the fire main system of a MODU may
be closed to protect a portion of the system on an Freezing
exposed deck from which factor?
966. In the event of fire, doors to a stair case must be closed
Convection
to prevent the spread of fire in what way?
967. When using a mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the
at a vertical surface
stream of foam is most effective when directed ______.
968. Which among the choices oil fire can be best
Cutting off oxygen source
extinguished?
969. A definite advantage of using water as a fire rapid expansion as water absorbs
extinguishing agent is its characteristic of __________. heat and changes to steam
970. The total available supply of CO2 for use in a fixed
extinguishing system of a cargo vessel shall be at least Space requiring largest amount
sufficient for what space?
42 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
The master control valve shut and
971. What arrangement must valves on steam-smothering
valves to individual cargo tanks
lines to cargo tanks be set?
open
972. A class "D" fire would involve the burning of__________. magnesium
973. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
Put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. What should you possibly do?
974. How can a fire in an oil rig ballast pump room be brought Shut all sources of air into the
under control with minimal impact on stability? compartment
975. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you attach a low-velocity fog applicator
would __________. with the nozzle shut down
976. What is the definite advantage of using water as a fire Rapid expansion as water absorbs
extinguishing agent ? heat and changes to steam
977. The supply of carbon dioxide used in a fixed
the space requiring the largest
extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at
amount
least sufficient for __________.
978. Where is a class B fire would most likely to occur? Engine room bilge
COMPETENCE 13
992. How often must inspection of proper working of the
Weekly
EPIRB s and SART s take place on board?
1000. Where are fire and lifeboat stations required to be listed? Muster list
1004. What is the purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor? To aid in its recovery
1005. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a raft,
Use visual distress signals in
you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently
conjunction with the EPIRB
carrying out a search pattern. You should:
1006. A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with
pendants
__________.
1007. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you
righting strap
should pull on the __________.
1008. Where is the number 2 lifeboat on a tanker located? Forwardmost on the port side
1009. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a raft,
Use visual distress signals in
you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently
conjunction with the EPIRB
carrying out a search pattern. What should you do?
1010. The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position
tested monthly
Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.
1011. On an ocean going vessel, a lifeboat without desalting
3 liters of water
kits is certified to carry what provision for each person?
1055. What is the difference of steering oar in a lifeboat as Longer than the others and should
compare to others? be lashed to the stern
1056. Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed In
muster list
the________ .
1057. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has Tie the rafts together and try to stay
sunk, what should you do? in a single group
1058. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy
seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by rigging a sea anchor
__________.
1059. Engines for lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel
24 hours
to operate for how many hours?
1060. The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio
monthly
beacon (EPIRB) must be tested __________.
1061. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered
a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How One
many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
1062. What must all personnel be familiar with in regards to
Boarding and operating procedures
lifeboats?
1063. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has not panic since the safety valves
inflated. You should __________. allow excess pressure to escape
1064. If you have to abandon ship and enter a life raft, your
remain in the vicinity of the vessel
main course of action should be_______ .
46 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1065. On an ocean going vessel, a lifeboat without desalting
3 liters of water
kits is certified to carry what provision for each person?
The point in the waterplane which
1066. What is the center of flotation of a vessel? __________.
the vessel lists and trims
longer than the others and should
1067. The steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.
be lashed to the stern
1068. If you have to abandon ship and enter a life raft, What
Remain in the vicinity of the vessel
should be your main course of action?
1069. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. What is the Hypothermia caused by cold
greatest danger in high latitudes? temperature
1070. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. An air tank will provide about ten
Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in minutes of air for the survivors and
flames? the engine.
1071. What is the correct maintenance for the battery of an
Load must be checked weekly
EPIRB?
must be submerged to a certain
1072. A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft________.
depth to release automatically
1073. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you
remain in the immediate vicinity
should __________.
1074. How can an inflatable life raft be manually released from By pushing the button on the
its cradle? hydrostatic release
1075. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has tie the rafts together and try to stay
sunk, you should __________. in a single group
should be righted by standing on
1076. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding
__________. the righting straps, and leaning
backwards
1077. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids in and out of a vessel that is holed
flowing __________. in a wing tank
1078. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a slacking the tripping line and towing
heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________. the sea anchor by the holding line
1079. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you
righting strap
should pull on the __________.
1080. If you reach shore in a liferaft, what is the first thing to Drag the raft ashore and lash it
do? down for a shelter
The point in the waterplane which
1081. What is the center of flotation of a vessel? __________.
the vessel lists and trims
1082. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot and tropical Deflate the floor panels to cool
weather, what should you possibly do? personnel
1083. One can check the functioning of the SART activating the SART and checking
by__________ the effect on the radar screen
1084. Which statement best describe a hydrostatic release It must be submerged to a certain
mechanism for a life raft? depth to release automatically
1085. A hydrostatic release mechanism for a life must be submerged to a certain
raft__________________ . depth to release automatically
1086. Which among the choices is part of the required
Painter
equipment for a lifeboat?
1087. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.
1088. The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position
tested monthly
Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.
1091. Where must a lifeline be connected to the life raft . All around
1102. Generally, what is used to inflate life rafts? Non-toxic inert gas
1103. After having thrown the life raft and stowage container
By pulling on the painter line
into the water, how is the life raft inflated?
1104. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft.
How much water per day should you permit each 0.5 liter
occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
standing on the CO2 bottle, holding
1105. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right
the bottom straps, and throwing
it by __________.
your weight backwards
Securely attached around the
1106. How are lifelines attached to a life float? outside in bights no longer than
three feet
1108. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after passengers are strapped to their
capsizing IF the __________. seats
1109. The following information must be given on the SART the MMSI number
1115. After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads,
the davit arms begin moving up the tracks until the limit switch
movement is stopped by the______________ .
1116. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the about which the vessel lists and
waterplane __________. trims
1117. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable
pull the hook release handle and
above the water, you must pull the safety pin and
use the ratchet bar
__________.
Stand on the CO2 bottle, hold the
1118. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, what should
bottom straps, and throw your
you do to right it?
weight backward
1119. What should you do with your EPIRB if you are in a life Bring it inside the life raft and leave
raft during storm conditions? it on
COMPETENCE 14
1126. The ABC-rules are an important part of the First Aiders
know how. What does the First Aid ABC-rules stands Airway Breathing Circulation
for?
1127. What first aid is appropriate for skin contact with tank unnecessary haste and appearance
residue from a cargo of leaded gasoline? of uncertainty
1128. What is the primary objective of First Aid? To prevent further injury
1143. When can a tourniquet be used to control bleeding? When all other means have failed
1144. How are first, second, and third degree burns classified? According to layers of skin affected
1146. The primary objective of First Aid is: To prevent further injury
1147. When giving first aid you should avoid Unnecessary haste and
__________________. appearance of uncertainty
1148. What is the most important element in administering
Start the treatment quickly
CPR?
1149. While underway, fire break out in the forward part of the
vessel. Whenever practicable, what will be the first thing Put the vessel's stern into the wind
you will do if your are on watch?
1150. What is the first aid treatment for small cuts and open Stop the bleeding, clean, medicate,
wounds? and cover the wound
1151. Every inflatable life raft , inflatable lifejacket and
every 12 months.
hydrostatic release units shall be serviced__________
1152. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting
situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire There is an outlet for the smoke
fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be and heat
used when ________.
1153. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite /hypothermia
Hand or body heat the affected
may be either superficial or deep, and the affected
parts skin-to-skin, example frozen
tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid should
hand in persons opposite armpit
be given a person with frostbite ?
1154. The MOST important element in administering CPR is: Starting the treatment quickly
1163. How are first, second, and third degree burns classified? According to layers of skin affected
1164. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life avoid subjecting the victim to any
threatening situation, the person giving first aid unnecessary disturbance during
must__________ . movement
1165. What is the most effective first aid treatment for chemical To immediately flood the affected
burns? area with water
1166. A drip tray containing oil is on fire. The only fire fighting
The water can be applied in a fine
equipment available is water hose with spray jet/spray
spray starting from the front in a
nozzle. How, if at all, should you attempt to put out this
sweeping motion.
fire using water?
1167. A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing.
Check his pulse and start CPR
You must:
Emergency treatment at the scene
1168. What is first aid?
of the injury
1169. When should training in personal survival techniques be
Before being employed
given?
1170. The ABC-rules are an important part of the First Aiders
know how. What does the First Aid ABC-rules stands Airway Breathing Circulation
for?
1171. A person slowly feel more sleepy and thirsty. The skin
become very dry and there is a sweet taste of the
Insulin
breath. The glucose reaction shows positive. What kind
of medicine will the person need as soon as possible?
1172. A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY
when all other means have failed
__________.
1173. If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, what
Check the bilge drain plug
should you do first?
1174. What do you call a device used to immobilize fractures
Splint
and help prevent bone displacement?
1175. If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, your
Check the bilge drain plug
should first:
1176. What is the primary purpose for applying a splint in first
It immobilizes fractured bone
aid?
1177. What does the abbreviation ABC mean in first aid? Air, Breathing, Circulation.
1187. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is stop the bleeding, clean, medicate,
to___________ . and cover the wound
1188. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite and
Hand or body heat the affected
hypothermia may be either superficial or deep, and the
parts skin-to-skin, example frozen
affected tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid
hand in persons opposite armpit
should be given a person with frostbite ?
1189. First aid to poisoning bitten by spider. I. clean wound by
I ,II & III
alcohol I I. lie down victim keep quiet
1190. When giving first aid, aside from understanding on how
to conduct primary and secondary surveys what are the The limits of your capabilities
other aspect you should consider?
1191. Which of the following procedures is always Have the rescuers wear an
recommended in the rescue of an unconscious person approved self-contained breathing
from a compartment containing an unsafe atmosphere? apparatus.
1192. Since electrical burn victims have been subjected to To check for breathing and
electric shock, what is the first medical response? heartbeat
COMPETENCE 15
1193. Who is the authorize to cancel load line certificate of
Ship administration
vessel?
1194. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry
Oil Record Book
must be made in the __________.
1195. One of the many objectives of this code is to ensure the
early and efficient collection and exchange of security- ISPS Code
related information. What is this code?
1196. Sanitary, ballast, bilge or general service pumps may be They are not normally used for
accepted as fire pumps provided: (SOLAS II-2/4.3.2) pumping oil
1197. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that electric served by two electric power feeder
and electro-hydraulic steering gear motors shall be circuits
1198. Lifeboats for ocean-going vessels shall carry in excess
50% of persons on board
of the required regulation by________.
1199. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry
Oil Record Book
must be made in the __________.
1200. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on
2
a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT?
1235. Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on Master or Offshore Installation
a vessel is the job of whose officer? Manager
1236. What is the minimum number of immersion suits that are
required to be provided for each open lifeboat under 3
SOLAS rules?
1237. At what security level is further specific protective
security measures to be maintained for a limited period
of time when a security incident is probable or imminent, Security level 3
although it may not be possible to identify the specific
target?
1238. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on
1
a cargo vessel of 900 GT?
1239. What is defined as the inspection of the vessel
authorized by the Philippine Coast Guard to verify the
Port State Control
compliance to the National Regulations and International
Standards?
1240. When you join a new ship, how are you informed about
By muster lists exhibited in
safety rules, alarm instructions and your own duties in
conspicuous places
case of an emergency?
COMPETENCE 16
1241. It is a value underlying the behavior as a Filipino where it
stimulates generosity and working together, but it is gratitude
often abused is called _________.
1318. What are the keys to good human relations? Treat people as individual
1326. The most frequently used appraisal approach is ______. a superiors rating of subordinate
1327. Welding and burning are among the factors which give
The welder shall have been
the highest risk of fire on board ships. Precaution has to
instructed in the use of the ship's
be taken to avoid this risk. Which of the following safety
welding plant.
rules may be regarded as the most important?
1328. The requirements for special welding procedures to be
used on a construction portfolio
MODU must be contained in the .
COMPETENCE 17
1335. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the
engine room. You should secure the power, then use a portable CO2 extinguisher
__________.
1336. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and
figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The
2 inches
height of the letters and figures must be at least
__________.
1337. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they not attack the fire from opposite
should __________. sides
1338. A safety ring pin is usually inserted in the handle of a accidental discharge from the
CO2 fire extinguisher to prevent________ . extinguisher
check operating pressures and
1339. After an engine is started you should __________.
temperatures, and check for leaks
1340. A good approach to personnel safety is to assume that
all tanks and pump rooms are potentially dangerous.
any of the above conditions occur
You should immediately leave an area
whenever________.
1341. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room
evacuate all engine room personnel
fire, you must __________.
1342. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should
close all openings to the area
__________.
It is visible for a shorter time than a
1343. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?
fuel oil spill.
1344. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a
separate and accessible location
tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.
1345. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked
an identification number
with __________.
1346. When instructing a crew member concerning the right
way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to bend his knees and lift with his legs
__________.
1347. One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent
conducts electricity
is that foam_____.
1348. The maximum number of personnel allowed on a
4
personnel transfer basket is __________.
1349. What do oil discharge in large quantities form which
affect birds at sea and may strand on beaches if these
slicks
do not disperse into the water as water droplets before
reaching shore?
1350. To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you
Give him sips of cool water
should __________.
1393. Which activity will have the greatest fire-fighting effect in Extinguishing attempt is started
case of a fire? immediately
1394. Which fire-fighting equipment is most efficient and with
Central gas extinguishing system
least side effects in case of a large fire in the engine
and/or water fog.
room?
1395. Which of the following is NOT TRUE why there may not Enclosed space has no proper
be enough oxygen in an enclosed space or tank? circulation of air.
1396. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on
CO2
electrical fires?
1397. How do you treat a person suffering from heat
Give him sips of cool water
exhaustion?
1402. Before CPR is started, you should ____________. establish an open airway