1. Which can be seen at the posterior rhinoscopy?

1) Three turbinate, the bottom of the nasal cavity;

2) Choana, Ostia of the auditory tubes, the posterior ends of the nasal turbinates;
3) The nasal septum, the posterior half a nose;
4) Soft palate, palatine tonsils;
5) Hard palate, base of the tongue.

2. Which of these is cartilage in the skeleton of the nasal septum?

1) Wing lateral cartilages;
2) Quadrangular cartilage;
3) Lateral cartilage;
4) Vomer;
5) Arytenoid cartilage;

3. Where in the nasal cavity opens nasolacrimal canal?

1) The upper nasal passage;
2) The nasal septum;
3) Lower nasal passage;
4) Middle nasal passage;
5) The lateral wall of the nasopharynx.

4. Where opens the front and middle ethmoidal cells?

1) The upper nasal passage;
2) Nasal septum;
3) Lower nasal passage;
4) Middle nasal passage;
5) The lateral wall of the nasopharynx.

5. Where opens posterior ethmoidal cells?

1) The upper nasal passage;
2) Nasal septum;
3) Lower nasal passage;
4) Middle nasal passage;
5) The lateral wall of the nasopharynx.

6. Point out the complication that is not found in acute rhinitis?

1) Sinusitis;
2) Ethmoiditis;
3) Retropharyngeal abscesses;
4) Sinusitis;
5) Middle uveitis.

7. A characteristic feature of chronic purulent sinusitis is revealed by anterior rhinoscopy is?

1) Redness of nasal mucosa;
2) Hypertrophy and swelling of nasal turbinate;
3) Enlargement and tenderness of submandibular lymph nodes;
4) A strip of pus in the middle nasal passage;
5) A strip of pus in the lower nasal passage..
8. Large arteries of the nasal cavity are?
1) External carotid artery;
2) Superior-maxillary artery;
3) Spheno-palatine artery;
4) anterior and posterior ethmoidal artery;
5) Naso-palatine artery.

9. Examination which is carried out by the posterior rhinoscopy?

1) Oropharynx;
2) Nasopharynx;
3) Hypopharynx;
4) Nasal cavity;
5) Sphenoid sinus.

10. Where is located usual bleeding zone of Kisselbach?

1) In anteroinferior patr of the nasal septum;
2) In the posterior part of the nasal septum;
3) In the bottom of the nasal cavity;
4) In low back part of the nasal septum;;
5) In the lateral wall of the nasal cavity.

11. What characterizes the 2-stage of acute rhinitis?

1) A feeling of dryness and tension in the nose, swelling of the mucous membrane;
2) The increase in inflammation, copious amounts of clear, watery fluid and mucus,
conjunctivitis, sneezing;
3) A significant reduction in swelling of the mucous membrane, improve nasal breathing;
4) A large number of purulent discharge;
5) Crusts in the nose with an unpleasant odor.

12. Complaints of hypertrophic rhinitis?

1) Difficulty in nasal breathing, headache, decreased sense of smell and hearing, stiffness;
2) Dry nose, crusting;
3) Unpleasant smell, anosmia;
4) Difficulty in nasal breathing, profuse mucous or serous discharge;
5) Constant release of mucus from the nose or mucopurulent character, periodic congestion in the
nose, difficulty in nasal breathing in a horizontal position.

13. Diagnose: a patient in serious condition hectic fever, chills, heavy perspiration, headache, pale skin,
proptosis, eyelid edema, chemosis, restriction of movement of the eyeball. The clinical pattern of a
chronic-purulent sinusitis?
1) Rhinogenous brain abscesses;
2) Rhinogenous meningitis;
3) Rhinogenous abscess of the orbit;
4) Rhinogenous sinus thrombosis;
5) Rhinogenous optic neuritis.
14. What form of tonsilar angina is called symbiosis of fusiform rods and spirahets the mouth?
1) Quinsy;
2) Adenovirus angina;
3) Herpetic angina;
4) Fuso-spirochetal angina;
5) Lymphatic angina.

15. What number determines the state of hypertrophy of the pharyngeal tonsils?
1) 3;
2) 4;
3) 5;
4) 1;
5) 2.

16. Classification of tonsilar angina according to B.S.Preobrazhenski?

1) Catarrhal, follicular, lacunar, fibrinous, herpes, abscess, necrotizing and mixed;
2) Catarrhal, follicular, gipertrofich-I, fibrinous;
3) Lacunar, fibrinous, atrophic;
4) Simple follicular, necrotizing;
5) Catarrhal, hypertrophic, atrophic.

17. Diagnose: In patients with severe condition, body temperature 39 , severe pain on swallowing,
weakness, fatigue, enlargement and tenderness of submandibular lymph nodes, enlarged tonsils, pale-
yellow plaque, merging with each other, plaque extend beyond the tonsils?
1) Catarrhal angina;
2) Follicular angina;
3) Lacunar tonsillitis;
4) Quinsy;
5) Necrotizing tonsillitis.

18. Diagnose: patient complicated nasal breathing, recurrent epistaxis, closed twang. By the anterior
rhinoscopy in the nasal passages purulent bloody discharge. By the posterior rhinoscopy tumor
formation of red color on a broad basis with Gluck, smooth surface, easy to bleed on probing.
1) Angiofibroma;
2) Melamoma;
3) Mixed tumor;
4) Hairy polyp;
5) Hemangioma.

19. Diagnosis: the patient serious condition, temperature of 39 , pain during movement of the head and
neck, weakness, malaise, lockjaw masticatory muscles, submandibular lymph node palpation enlarged
and painful. Local: redness, swelling, spherical bulging of the lateral wall of pharynx with almond
shape affected side.
1) Paratonsilar abscess;
2) Quinsy;
3) Lymphatic angina;
4) Angina Simonov - Vincent;
5) Agranular angina
.
20. What is called inspection of the nasopharynx?
1) Epipharyngoscopy;
2) Mesopharyngoscopy;
3) Hypopharyngoscopy
4) Laryngoscopy;
5) Oesophagoscopy.

21. What is known as inspection of hypopharynx?

1) Epipharyngoscopy;
2) Mesopharyngoscophy;
3) Rhinoscopy;
4) Indirect laryngoscopy;
5) Oesophagoscopy.

22. Treatment of hypertrophy of the tonsils is?

1) Washing of lacunae of tonsils antiseptic solutions;
2) Intra lacunar antibiotics;
3) Adenotomy;
4) Tonsillotomy;
5) Tonsillectomy.

23. Adenoid vegetation - is a hypertrophy of the tonsils?

1) Lingual;
2) Pharyngeal;
3) Tubal;
4) Side bolsters;
5) Palatine.

24. What disease is characterized dirty brown plaque beyond the tonsils, which are removed with
difficulty?
1) Lacunar tonsillitis;
2) Tonsillitis in infectious mononucleosis;
3) Agranulotsitosis flu;
4) Diphtherial tonsillitis ;
5) Paratonsilla r abscesses.

25. What anatomical structures visible at hypopharyngoscopy?

1) Root of the tongue, vocal cords, epiglottis, pyriform fossa;
2) Nasopharynx lateral walls, pharyngeal ostia of auditory tube, choana;
3) Soft palate, uvula, anterior and posterior air cells, palatine tonsils, posterior and lateral walls
of palate.
4) The true vocal folds;
5) Space below vocal folds.

26. Which of the following conditions applies to an absolute contra-tonsillectomy?

1) The presence of carious teeth;
2) Inflammation of the gums;
3) Menstruation;
 4) The last weeks of pregnancy, pustular skin diseases;
5) Diseases of the blood and circulatory system, severe diabetes, the risk of coma.

27. Indication for tonsillectomy with chronic tonsillitis are except?

1) Simple Chronic tonsillitis toxicoallergic type first degree with absence of the effect of
conservative treatment;
2) Chronic tonsillitis toxicoallergic type, second degree;
3) Chronic tonsillitis complicated side paratonsilar abscesses;
4) Tonsillar sepsis;
5) Simple chronic tonsillitis, toxicoallergic type, first degree resestance to conservative
treatment.

28. How larynx do you know?

1) 3;
2) 2;
3) 4;
4) 1,
5) 5.

29. At what age is common subglottic laryngitis?

1) From 1 month to 3 months;
2) From 6 to 12 months.
3) From 2 to 5 years;
4) From 5 to 10 years;
5) From 10 to 15 years.

30. Where is the conic bundle?

1) Between the hyoid bone and the thyroid cartilage;
2) Between the cricoid and tracheal rings;;
3) Between the thyroid cartilage and the cricoid cartilage;
4) Between the arytenoid cartilage;
5) Between the epiglottis and the thyroid cartilage.

31. What is the function of Posterior arytenoid muscles of the larynx?

1) Extends the glottis;
2) Narrows the glottis;
3) Brings the arytenoid cartilages to each other;
4) Pulls the vocal cords;
5) Lowers the epiglottis.

32. What is the function of a ring-side arytenoid muscles of the larynx?

1) Narrows the glottis;
2) Lowers the epiglottis;
3) Strings vocal cords;
4) Brings arytenoid cartilages to each other;
5) Extends the glottis.
33. At what age are often recorded attacks of false croup?
1) After 50 years;
2) 1-7 years,
3) There is no relationship between the ages;
4) over 12 years;
5) Puberty.

34. Select the correct list of the functions of the larynx:

1) Respiratory, Protective, olfactory, voice productive;
2) Respiratory, protective, voice productive;
3) Taste;
4) Motality, respiratory;
5) Protective, breathing.

35. How many cartilaginous skeleton consists of half rings of the trachea?
1) 10-12;
2) 16-20;
3) 8-10;
4) 23-30;
5) 23-25.

36. What anatomical structures represent the middle floor of the larynx?
1) The true vocal cords and glottis;
2) The epiglottis and supraglotic folds;
3) vestibular and vocal folds;
4) Marginal ventricles and the vestibular folds; vocal folds and subglottic larynx.

37. What is laryngeal edema?

1) Catarrh of the mucosa, submucosa and internal muscles;
2) Convulsive contraction of the glottis;
3) No Disease history, and One of the many manifestations of Pathological Processes of
inflammatory and non-inflammatory etiology;
4) diffuse or limited hyperplasia of epithelial layer ofthe larynx;
5) Atrophy of the glandular mucosa of the larynx apparatus.

38. What is acute laryngitis?

1) Catarrh of the mucosa, submucosa and internal muscles;;
2) convulsive contraction of the glottis;
3) Nosological and one of the manifestations of many pathological processes of inflammatory and
non-inflammatory etiology;
4) diffuse or limited hyperplasia epithelial layer of the larynx;
5) Atrophy of the glandular mucosa of the larynx apparatus.

39. The main symptom of stenosis of the larynx?

1) expiratory dyspnea;
2) inspiratory dyspnea
3) Acrocyanosis;
4) diffuse cyanosis;
 5) Breathing Cheyne-Stokes type.

40. What disease is characterized by three major symptoms: hacking cough, change of voice, stenotic
breathing?
1) glottal angina;
2) Chondro-perichondritis of the larynx;
3) Laryngeal abscess;
4) Acute laryngo-trachiitis;
5) Trauma larynx.

41. What stage laryngeal stenosis corresponds to the following clinical picture: deepening and shortness of
breath, apnea between inhalation and exhalation, inspiratory dyspnea by physical exertion?
1) Breathing is not Fully compensated;
2) Decompensated breath;
3) Stoppage of breath;
4) Asphyxia;
5) Lightning stenosis.

42. What disease is characterized by the following clinical picture: hoarseness, with laryngoscopy red
mucosa of the larynx, papules on the vocal folds, the simultaneous presence of the same process in the
throat. Ineffective specific treatment of laryngitis?
1) Tuberculosis in the stage of infiltration;
2) Syphilis, secondary stage;
3) scleroma, nodular or infiltrative stage;
4) Lupus;
5) Hypertrophic Laryngitis.

43. What will be the result of Webers test in the first period of acute otitis media?
1) Positive;
2) Negative;
3) Laterization a healthy ear;
4) Laterization a sore ear;
5) Prolonged.

44. Where localized slit perforation of the tympanic membrane in acute otitis media?
1) the lower front;
2) anterior superior;
3) anterior-posterior;
4) Postero-inferior;
5) Posterior-superior.

45. In which quadrant of the tympanic membrane usually do paracentesis for acute otitis media?
1) the lower front;
2) anterior superior;
3) anterior-posterior;
4) Postero inferior;
5) Posterior-superior.
46. For otitis what etiology characterized by air bubbles filled with blood resulting in the eardrum for acute
otitis media?
1) Virus;
2) Tuberculosis;
3) Bacterial;
4) Fungal;
5) Mixed.

47. What is a group of diseases of the inner ear include Meniere's disease?
1) inflammatory diseases of the organ of Corti;
2) Toxic lesion of the inner ear;
3) The disease is based on the hydrops of the labyrinth;
4) traumatic;
5) Purulent diseases of the inner ear.

48. At what age is the most common Menieres disease?

1) At the age of 15;
2) in old age (70-80 years);
3) In the newborn;
4) Adolescents;
5) Young age.

49. Otosclerosis - it is:

1) Disease of Eustachian tube;
2) Inflammation of the auditory nerve;
3) inflammation of the inner ear;
4) occupational diseases;
5) Degenerative changes in the bones, mostly stirrup.

50. What pathological changes in the bony labyrinth in patients with otosclerosis?
1) Resorption of bony labyrinth;
2) No changes in bony labyrinth;
3) Appearance of foci of spongiosis;
4) Inflammation bony labyrinth;
5) Bleeding in the walls.

51. What are the subjective manifestations of otosclerosis?

1) Characteristic no complaints;
2) Purulent secretion from the ear;
3) The congestion in the ears;
4) The sense of transfusion fluid in the ear;
5) Hearing loss and tinnitus.

52. Neuritis of the auditory nerve - is it?

1) Lesion of any part of the auditory analyzer;
2) Lesion of Cortis apparatus;
3) Lesion of the buccal pouches;
4) Lesion of Hensleys gyrus;
 5) None of the above.

53. What is a cholesteatoma?

1) polyp;
2) Cluster concentric superposes mass of epidermal layers and products of degeneration,
mainly cholesterol;
3) Products of degeneration, microorganisms;
4) Granulation;
5) Polyps and granulation.

54. If there is any condition develops cholestoatoma?

1) Upon germination of the epidermis of the external auditory canal through a perforation in
the edge of Attic;
2) In the presence of polyps in the tympanic cavity;
3) If a central perforation of the tympanic membrane;
4) If there are multiple perforations in eardrum;
5) In the presence of granulation tissue in the eardrum.

55. Where is connected bony labyrinth?

1) With the auditory tube;
2) With the anterior cranial fossa ;
3) With tympanic cavity;
4) With the mastoid;
5) With posterior cranial fossa.

56. With the help of experience measures the duration of perception through the bone?
1) Accumetry;
2) Audiometry;
3) Schwabach test;
4) Webers test;
5) Rinne test.

57. Where is the spiral organ?

1) In the bony cochlea;
2) In the membranous cochlea;
3) In vestibulei;
4) In the tympanum;
5) In the semicircular canals.

58. What makes in inferior wall of the tympanic cavity?

1) mastoid;
2) The bulb of the jugular vein;
3) The internal carotid artery;
4) The eardrum;
5) The middle cranial fossa.
59. What disease is characterized by the development of the stapes ankylosis?
1) Meniere's disease;
2) Catarrh of middle ear;
3) otosclerosis;
4) Cochleonuritis;
5) Eustachiitis.

60. What disease is characterized by the following symptoms: dizziness, seizures, tinnitus, and hearing loss?
1) Otosclerosis;
2) Catarrh of middle ear;
3) Eustachiaitis;
4) diffuse otitis externa;
5) Meniere's disease.

61. Typical symptoms of latent stage otogenic abscesses of the brain and cerebellum?
1) no symptoms, or in a very weakened form;
2) Headache, accompanied by lethargy, fever, nausea;
3) Different group of symptoms ( 4 group);
4) The phenomenon of increasing cerebral edema, paralysis of vital centers;
5) Generalization of purulent infection.

62. Choose t0he correct answer: where there is a accumulation of pus under extradural or epidural abscesses:
1) The accumulation of pus between the dura and the bone;
2) The accumulation of pus between the inner surface of the temporal bone and the pia mater;
3) The spread of pus through the destroyed portion of the dura mater;
4) Chronic serous inflammation of the arachnoid and pia mater;
5) sigmoid sinus thrombophlebitis.

63. A child with acute otitis media appeared painful swelling of the ear canal. What a group of cells of the
mastoid process involved in inflammation?
1) Goblet cells;
2) Periantral;
3) Apical;
4) perisinus;
5) Perelabirinthine.

64. What is indicated by pain in the ear, accompanied by hearing loss?

1) Otosclerosis;
2) Otitis externa;
3) The presence of cerumen;
4) Eustachiitis;
5) Inflammation of the parotid gland.

65. What anatomical structures of the middle ear is affected in acute purulent otitis media?
1) Eustachian tube;
2) Epitimpanum;
3) Mesotimpanum;
4) Hypotympanium;
 5) The entire system of the middle ear.

66. Absolute indication for radical surgery is:

1) Cholesteatoma in attico-antral area;
2) Existence of intracranial complications;
3) Signs of mastoiditis;
4) facial nerve Pares;
5) Persistent central perforation of the tympanic membrane.