NARAYANA PU COLLEGES

KARNATAKA
OUTGOING.2 ND PU PCMC H.T-2 (TOPPERS-2) DATE : 05/04/17
TIME: 1.30 Min KCET MODEL MAX.MARKS : 90

PHYSICS
1) A body projected horizontally with a velocity of 98 ms-1 from the top of a tower
covered a vertical displacement of 24.5 m in the last second of its fall. The height of
the tower is
1) 78.4 m 2) 44.1 m 3) 39.2 m 4) 19.6 m
2) If a projectile projected at 30o to the horizontal reaches the ground two seconds after
its projection, the change in its velocity in that interval of time is
1) 9.8 ms-1 2) 14.7 ms-1 3) 19.6 ms-1 4) 29.4 ms-1
3) In uniform circular motion
1) Both velocity and acceleration are constant
2) Acceleration and speed are constant but velocity changes
3) Both acceleration and velocity change
4) Both acceleration and speed are constant
4) A body is projected at an angle of 30 o to the horizontal with a velocity 39.2 ms-1. The
ratio of its vertical components of its velocity after 1 s, 3 s and 4 s is
1) 1 : 2 : 1 2) 4 : 3 : 1 3) -1 : 2 : -3 4) 1 : -1 : -2
5) The width of a river is 100m and the velocity of flow of water is 0.4 m/s. A person
attempts to swim right across the river with a velocity 4 m/s. How far down the
stream does he reach the other bank
1) 100 m 2) 10 m 3) 8 m 4) None
6) A body of mass 6 kg moves in a straight line according to equation x = t3 40t where
x denotes the distance in metre and t the time in seconds. The force on the body at t =
4 seconds is
1) 36 N 2) 64 N 3) 72 N 4) 144 N
7) Two blocks of masses 5 kg and 10 kg are connected by a mass less spring. A force of
10 N acts on 10 kg mass. At the instant 5 kg mass has an acceleration of 0.2 ms 2, the
acceleration of 10 kg mass would be
10 kg
5 kg 10 N

1) 0.1 ms-2 2) 0.4 ms-2 3) 0.6 ms-2 4)0.9 ms-2

8) A man lifts a body of weight 400N by pulley down on a rope with a force F. The
upper pulley is attached to the ceiling by a chain, and the lower pulley is attached to
the weight by another chain. If the weight is lifted at constant speed, the value of F is

1) 400N 2) 200N 3) 800N 4) None

m1
9) If the system shown in the above figure is in equilibrium , then
m2

1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 3 3) 3 :1 4) 1 : 2
10) In the given figure, if the surfaces are smooth, the ratio of T1 and T2 is

1) 3 : 2 2) 1 : 3 3) 1 : 5 4) 5 : 1
11) The tensions in the strings T1 and T2 are .................. respectively

T1 13.6kg T2

4kg 2kg

1) 4 N , 2 N 2) 35.2N, 21.6N 3) 17.6N, 10.8N 4) 19.2N, 31.2N

12) A rocket of initial mass 5000 kg ejects gas at a constant rate of 15 kgs1 with a relative
speed of 10 kms1. Neglecting gravity, the acceleration of the rocket one minute after
the blast is
1) 9.2 ms2 2) 18.3 ms2 3) 27.5 ms2 4) 36.6 ms2
13) Which of the following forces can be applied on a body so as not to cause acceleration
of the body?
1) 6,7,15 2) 8,7,16 3) 5, 12, 20 4) 9, 10, 12
14) A projectile is fired at 30 0 to the horizontal. The vertical component of its velocity is
80 ms-1. Its time of flight is T. What will be the velocity of the projectile at t = T/2?

1) 80ms 1 2) 80 3ms 1
3) 80 / 3 ms 1 4) 40ms 1

15) Two bodies are thrown up at angles of 450 and 60 0 respectively, with the horizontal. If
both bodies attain same vertical height, then the ratio of velocities with which these
are thrown is

1) 2/3 2) 2 / 3 3) 3/ 2 4) 3/2
16) From the top of a tower a particle is projected with a velocity of 19.6 m/s at an angle
of 30 0 with the horizontal. If g= 9.8 m/s2, the particle will move at right angles to its
initial direction of motion after a time of
1) 2s 2) 4s 3) 6s 4) 8s
17) Which of the four arrangements in the figure correctly shows the vector addition of
two forces F1 and F2 to yield the third force F3?

1) 2)

3) 4)

18) Uniform force F1 acts for time interval t1 on a particle initially at rest. The particle is

then acted upon by uniform force F2 for time interval t2 and it comes to rest. This is

possible only if

1) F1t1 F2t 2 0 2) F1t1 F2t2 0 but F1 t1 F2 t2

3) F1t2 F2t1 0 4) F1t2 F2t1 0 but F1 t2 F2 t1

19) Two masses of 10 kg and 5 kg are suspended from a rigid support as shown in fig.
below the system is pulled down with a force of 150 N attached to the lower mass.
The string attached to the support breaks and the system accelerates downwards.

If the downward force continues to act, what is the acceleration of the system?
1) 20ms 2 2) 10ms2 3) 5ms 2 4) zero
20) A river is flowing from W to E with a speed of 5 m/min. A man can swim in still
water with a velocity 10 m/min. In which direction should the man swim so as to take
the shortest possible path to go to south?
1) 30 0 east of south 2) 60 0 east of south
3) South 4) 30 0 west of north
21) A body is projected from A at angle of 900 with the plane AB. It again touches the
plane at B after time T. Then, what is the length AB?

1) Tu sin 2) Tu cos 3) Tu tan 4) Tu cot

22) A force-time graph for a linear motion is shown in the figure. The segments shown
are circular. The linear momentum gained between 0 and 8 seconds is

1) 0 2) 6 Ns 3) 12 Ns 4) 20 Ns
23) A body is projected at an angle so that its range is maximum. If T is the time of
flight then the value of maximum range is (acceleration sue to gravity =g)
g 2T gT gT 2 g 2T 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
24) The displacement of the point of a wheel initially in contact with the ground when the
wheel rolls forward quarter revolution where perimeter of the wheel is 4 m, is
(Assume the forward direction as x-axis)
2 2
1) 2
2 4 along tan 1

with x-axis

2 2
2) 2
2 4 along tan 1
2
with x-axis

2 2
3) 2
2 4 along tan 1

with x-axis

2 2
4) 2
2 4 along tan 1
2
with x-axis

25) The greatest and least resultant of two forces acting at a point are 29 Kg wt. and 5 Kg
wt. respectively. If each force is increased by 3 Kg wt. the magnitude of the resultant
of new forces acting at right angles to each other is
1) 45 kg wt 2) 35 kg wt 3) 25 kg wt 4) 15 kg wt
26) A number of bullets are fired in all possible directions with the same initial velocity u.
the maximum area of ground covered by bullets is
2 2 2
u2 u2 u u
1) 2) 3) 4)
g 2g g 2g
27) A projectile is thrown at angle with vertical. It reaches a maximum height H. the
time taken to reach highest point of its path is

H 2H H 2H
1) 2) 3) 4)
g g 2g g cos

28) A body is projected up such that its position vector varies with time as


r 3ti 4t 5t 2 j m. Here t is in second. The time when its y-coordinate is zero is

1) 3 s 2) 1 s 3) 0.8 s 4) 1.25 s
29) A ball projected with 202 m/s at angle 450 with horizontal. The angular velocity of
the particle at highest point of its journey about point of projection is
1) 0.1 rad/s 2) 0.2 rad/s 3) 0.3 rad/s 4) 0.4 rad/s
30) An insect tapped in a circular groove of radius 12 cm moves along the groove steadily
and complete 7 revolutions in 100 seconds. The linear speed of the motion in cm/s
1) 5.3 2) 4 3) 3 4) 5

CHEMISTRY
31) In an ionic compound A+X- the degree of covalent bonding is greatest when
1) A+ and X- ions are small 2) A+ is small and X- is large
3) A+ and X- ions are approximately of the same size
4) X- is small and A+ is large
32) Which of the following has highest ionic character?
1) MgCl2 2) CaCl2 3) BaCl2 4) BeCl2
33) Ionic compound in general possess both
1) High melting points and non-directional bonds
2) High melting points and low boiling points
3) Directional bonds and low boiling points
4) High solubilitys in polar and non-polar bonds.
34) Type of hybridization of central carbon in propadiene is
1) sp3 2) sp2 3) sp 4) none of these
3
35) The d-orbital involved in sp d hybridization is
1) d x2 y 2 2) d xy 3) d z2 4) d zx
36) Which of the following is correct order of repulsive interactions?
1) lp lp 1 p bp bp bp
2) 1p bp lp lp bp bp
3) bp bp 1 p bp lp lp
4) any of the three depending upon the type of molecule
37) The shape of CO2 molecule is similar to
1) H2O 2) BeF2 3) SO2 4) none of these
38) Of the three molecules XeF4, SF4, SiF4 one which have tetrahedral structures is
1) All the above 2) Only SiF4
3) Both SF4 and XeF4 4) Only SF4 and XeF4
39) The geometrical arrangement and shape of I3 are respectively

1) Trigonal bipyramidal geometry, linear shape

2) Hexagonal structure, linear shape
3) Triangular planar geometry, triangular shape
4) Tetrahedral geometry, pyramidal shape
40) The pairs of species with similar shape is
1) PCl3, NH3 2) CF4,SF4 3) PbCl2,CO2 4) PF5, IF5
41) Which of the following molecule is polar?
1) SO3 2) SO2 3) SF6 4) all are polar
42) Which of the following molecules has shortest C H bond ?
1) ethene 2) ethane 3) ethyne 4) methane
43) Which of the following is not different for two atoms in N Cl bond?
1) Electro negativity 2) Valency
3) Atomic size 4) Ionisation potential
44) Which one of them has the highest melting point?
1) NaCl 2) NaF 3) NaBr 4) Nal
45) Which of the crystal should be the softest and have the lowest boiling point?
1) Covalent crystals 2) Ionic crystals
3) Metallic crystals 4) Molecular crystals
46) A compound with molecular formula C4H4O has all the four carbon atoms and the
oxygen atom in the ring. It also has two double bonds. The compound is
1) Homocyclic and aromatic 2) heterocylic and aromatic
3) Homocyclic but not aromatic 4) heterocyclic but not aromatic
47) Which of the following is cumulated diene?
1) 1, 3-butadiene 2) Allene 3) Crotonylene 4) Allylene
48) The correct IUPAC name of acetonitrile is
1) Cyanomethane 2)2-Ketopropanenitrile
3) Methanenitrile 4) Ethanenitrile
49) Which of the following species is an electrophile?
1) H2O 2) NH3 3) C2H5OH 4) SO3
50) The order of stability of free radical is
1) Tertiary > Allyl >Benzyl 2) Allyl > Benzyl > Tertiary
3) Benzyl >Allyl > Tertiary 4) Tertiary > Benzyl > Allyl
51) Inductive effect involves
1) Delocalization of -electrons 2) Displacement of -electrons
3) Delocalization of n-electrons 4) Displacement of -electrons
52) Hyperconjugation involves
1) Delocalization of -electrons into an adjacent -bond
2) Delocalization of n -electrons into an adjacent -bond
3) Delocalization of -electrons into an adjacent -bond
4) All are true.
53) Carbanion is iso-structural with
1) Free radical 2) Carbonium ion 3) Ammonia 4) Carbene
54) Which of the following is an example of elimination reaction?
1) Chlorination of methane 2) Dehydration of ethanol
3) Nitration of benzene 4) Hydroxylation of ethylene
55) Electrophile in the case of chlorination of benzene in presence of FeCl3 is
1) Cl+ 2) Cl- 3) Cl 4) FeCl
56) Pick out the alkane which differs from the other members of the group
1) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane 2) Pentane
3) 2-Methylbutane 4) 2, 2-dimethylbutane
57) The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide are
1) One sigma, one pi 2) One sigma, two pi
3) Two sigma, one pi 4) Two sigma, two pi
58) The compound formed in the positive test for nitrogen with Lassaigne solution of an
organic compound is L
1) Na4 [ Fe CN 5 NOS ] 2) Na3[ Fe CN 6 ]

3) Fe CN 3 4) Fe4 Fe CN 6
3

59) How will you separate a solution (miscible) of benzene +CHCl3 ?

1) Sublimation 2) Filtration 3) Distillation 4) Crystallisation
60) Pressence of halogen in organic compounds can be detected using
1) Dumas test 2) Liebigs test 3) Beilsteins test 4) Kjeldhls test

MATHEMATICS
4 2
61) 3sin x cos x 6 sin x cos x 4 sin 6 x cos 6 x

1) 3 2) 6 3) 4 4) 13
62) If ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. Then
cos 1800 A cos 180 0 B cos 1800 C sin 90 0 D

1) -1 2) 0 3) 1 4) 2
5sin 3cos
63) If lies in the first quadrant and 5 tan 4, then
sin 2 cos
1) 5/14 2) 3/14 3) 1/14 4) 0
tan 2250 cot 810 cot 69 0
64)
cot 2610 tan 210
1 1
1) 1 2) 3) 3 4)
2 3
0 0
1 1
65) cos 52 sin 2 22
2

2 2
3 1 3 1 3 3 3 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 2 4 2 4 2 4 2
P Q
66) In a PQR, R if tan and tan are the roots of the equation
2 2 2
ax 2 bx c 0 a 0 then

1) a b c 2) b c a 3) a c b 4) b c
1 1
67) If x 2cos 200 , then the value of x3 3
x x
1) 1/4 2) 1/2 3) 1 4) 1/8
2
68) If tan tan tan 3 then which of the following is equal to 1
3 3
1) tan 2 2) tan 3 3) tan 2 4) tan 3

69) , 2 2 2 2cos8 k cos k
16
1) 2 2) 4 3) 8 4) 16
70) cos 360 cos 720
1) 1 2) 1/2 3) 1/4 4) 1/8
71) tan 90 tan 270 tan 630 tan810
1) 0 2) 2 3) 1 4) 4
0 0
1 1
72) A quadratic equation whose roots are tan 22 and cot 22
2 2
1) x 2 2 2 x 1 0 2) 2 x 2 2 x 1 0

3) x 2 2 2 x 1 0 4) x 2 2 2 x 1 0
4 2 x y x y
73) cos x cos y , cos x cos y 14 tan 5cot
5 7 2 2
1) 0 2) 1/4 3) 5/4 4) 3/4
74) If A B C 2700 , then cos 2 A cos 2 B cos 2C 4sin A sin B sin C
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
1 4sin100 sin 70 0
75) The value of the expression
2 sin100
1) 1/2 2) 1 3) 2 4) 1/3
76) Let p n be a statement and let p n p n 1 n N , then p n is true.

1) For all n
2) for all n > 1
3) For all n > m, m being a fixed +ve integer
4) Nothing can be said
77) If p is a prime number then n p n is divisible by p when n is a
1) Natural number greater than 1 2) Irrational number
3) Complex number 4) Odd number
78) n 1, n even digit in the units place of 22n 1
1) 5 2) 7 3) 6 4) 1
1 1 1
79) .......n terms =
2.5 5.8 8.11
n n n n
1) 2) 3) 4)
6n 4 3n 2 4n 6 2 2n 3

80) If a, b and n are natural numbers then a 2 n1 b2 n1 is divisible by

1) a b 2) a3 b3 3) a + b 4) a 2 b 2
81) The number an 6 n 5n for n 1, 2,3,........... when divided by 25 leave the remainder
1) 9 2) 7 3) 3 4) 1
2
n n 1
82) If 1 5 12 22 35 ..... to n terms then n th term of L.H.S is
2
n 4n 1 n 3n 1 n 3n 1 n 4 n 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 2 2 3
3 2
83) If 23 43 63 ...... 2n Kn 2 n 1 then K =
1) 1/2 2) 1 3) 3/2 4) 2
84) If n is a positive integer, then n.1 n 1 .2 n 2 .3 ..... 1.n
n n 1 n n 1 n 2
1) 2)
2 6
n n 1 n 2 n n 1 2n 1
3) 4)
2 6
n
85) For any integer n 1, then k k 2 is equal to
k 1

n n 1 n 2 n n 1 2n 1
1) 2)
6 6
n n 1 2n 7 n n 1 2n 9
3) 4)
6 6
1 1 1 kn
86) If .....n terms then k =
2 4 4 6 6 8 n 1
1) 1/4 2) 1/2 3) 1 4) 1/8
n n
87) If 10 3.4 x is divisible by 9 for all n N , then least positive value of x is
1) 1 2) 5 3) 14 4) 23
2
88) n n n if
3 2

1) n =3 2) n =1 3) n 2 3 4) n 2 1
89) S n 13 23 33 .... n3 and Tn 1 2 3 4.....n
1) S n Tn3 2) S n Tn 2 3) S n Tn2 4) S n Tn3
2
1 n
90) If ak for k 1,2,3,.....n, then ak
k k 1 k 1
n n2 n4 n6
1) 2) 2 3) 4 4) 6
n 1 n 1 n 1 n 1