100 Questions

MCQs
In
BASIC MEDICAL
SCIENCES
Practice Set I BASIC MEDICAL SCIENCES Single Option MCQ
BIOCHEMISTRY, MICROBIOLOGY AND PHARMACOLOGY

1. Regarding Classical complement pathway activation:

a. plasmin is incapable of activating C1 directly without antigen participation

b. C1 complement component is composed of two proteins
c. IgM is most capable of activating classical complement
d. IgG3 is least capable of activating classical complement

2. Which of the following microorganisms cannot be cultured in vitro?

a. M. avium-intracellulare
b. Crithidia fasciculata
c. Treponema pallidum
d. P. multocida

3. Drugs that interfere with activation of myosin:

a. Morphine
b. Phalloidin
c. Clonidine
d. Nitrates
e. Cytochalasin

4. A tick borne infection:

a. Scrub typhus
b. Endemic typhus
c. Spotted fever
d. Epidemic typhus

5. Colorimeter functions in accordance with

a. Henry law
b. Hardy-Weinberg law
c. Beer-Lambert law
d. Starling's law
e. van't Hoff law

6. Diuretics cause:

a. hyperchloremic acidosis
b. hypokalemic acidosis
c. hypokalemic alkalosis
d. hyperkalemic alkalosis
e. hyperkalemic acidosis

7. Which of the following technique/methods is based on emission of light by excited atoms?

a. Spectrofluorimetry
b. Spectrophotometry
c. Fiske-Subbarow method
d. Photoelectric colorimeter
e. Folin-wu method

8. Isosthenuria is characterized by specific gravity of

a. 1.032
b. < 1.010
c. 1.018
d. < 1.022

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9. Drug of first choice against infection with Proteus mirabilis:

a. Tetracycline
b. Imipenem
c. Ampicillin
d. Cefotaxime
e. Clarithromycin

10. Effect of action of Digitalis on the heart include all EXCEPT:

a. restores the diminished vagal tone

b. decreases sympathetic overactivity
c. causes bradycardia
d. vagal tone is diminished
e. vagal tone is increased

11. INCORRECT about Digitalis (cardiac glycoside):

a. | force of cardiac contraction

b. inhibits Na+K+ATPase
c. long duration of action
d. causes diuresis
e. y force of cardiac contraction

12. Globulins constitute about ______ of plasma proteins.

a. 3.5-5 g/dl
b. 25-30 mg/dl
c. 200-400 mg/dl
d. 2.5-3.5 g/dl

13. An intermediate-acting steroid muscle relaxant:

a. Gantacurium
b. Mivacurium
c. Pancuronium
d. Vecuronium

14. Plasma osmolality levels: which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. fluid restriction increases plasma osmolality

b. normal ratio of osmolality of urine/plasma is 3-4.5
c. urine plasma osmolality >300 mosm/kg in Central diabetes insipidus
d. normal value is 285-300 mosm/kg
e. urine plasma osmolality <300 mosm/kg in Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

15. Which of the following drugs used in parkinsonism has antimuscarinic properties?

a. Buspirone
b. Pimozide
c. Tetrabenazine
d. Biperiden
e. Ramelteon

16. Which of the following is a major anion in plasma?

a. magnesium
b. chloride
c. sulphate
d. phosphate
e. bicarbonate

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17. CORRECT about the mechanism of action of digitalis in atrial fibrillation (AF):

a. reduces ventricular rate

b. |decreases the number of concealed impulses
c. | ERP of A-V node
d. have no effect on ventricular node
e. have no effect on A-V nodal conduction

18. The normal phosphate level in plasma:

a. 24-30 meq/L
b. 4-5 mg/dl
c. 3.8-5.4 meq/L
d. 0.3-1.3 mg/dl
e. 2-4 mg/dl

19. Which of the following chemicals can precipitate proteins?

a. Sanger's reagent
b. cyanogen bromide
c. glacial acetic acid
d. phenylisothiocyanate
e. trichloroacetic acid

20. Which of the following do not account for cardiac toxicity of digitalis?

a. complete A-V block

b. excessive automaticity
c. hypokalemia
d. ventricular extrasystoles
e. hyperkalemia

21. Drugs highly bound to m1-acid glycoprotein

a. Valproic acid
b. Warfarin
c. Disopyramide
d. Phenytoin

22. The word "cuvette" means:

a. Filter
b. Microplate
c. Sample holder
d. Cabinet
e. Cover

23. Drug of first choice against infection with Campylobacter jejuni:

a. Nitrofurantoin
b. Metronidazole
c. Erythromycin
d. Cefepime
e. Tetracycline

24. Which of the following drugs prolongs refractoriness?

a. bretylium
b. verapamil
c. lidocaine
d. propafenone
e. propranolol

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25. Which of the following is the best separation method/technique to elicit enzyme activity in Units/ml?

a. Precipitation by salt
b. Ion exchange chromatography
c. Centrifugation
d. Affinity chromatography
e. Gel chromatography

26. A fourth generation Cephalosporin:

a. Cefepime
b. Cefuroxime axetil
c. Cefazolin
d. Cefixime

27. Which of the following is NOT a vasodilator?

a. Nitroglycerin
b. Sodium nitrite
c. Verapamil
d. Nitrendipine
e. Ergotamine

28. Which of the following drugs is a serotonin (5-HT2) receptor blocker?

a. Entacapone
b. Buspirone
c. Phenoxybenzamine
d. Flumazenil
e. Ramelteon

29. Class IA antiarrhythmic drug:

a. Disopyramide
b. Amiodarone
c. Lidocaine
d. Propafenone

30. The site generally used to cultivate virus in an embryonated egg:

a. Allantoic cavity
b. Albumin
c. Amniotic cavity
d. Yolk sac

31. Which of the following infections do not have any skin lesion?

a. Q fever
b. Endemic typhus
c. Scrub typhus
d. Epidemic typhus
e. Spotted fever

32. Chromatography was first employed by:

a. Rosalyn Yalow
b. Trommer
c. Martin and Synge
d. Willard Libby
e. Tswett

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33. Which of the following complement component is capable of creating pores in the plasma membrane of target cells?

a. C1qrsAgAb
b. C4b2b
c. C4b2b3b
d. C5B67
e. C5B6789

34. The most potent coronary vasodilator:

a. Nifedipine
b. Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)
c. Tamsulosin
d. Ranolazine
e. Sildenafil

35. Organism that causes actinomycotic mycetomas:

a. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
b. Actinomyces
c. Actinomyces naeslundii
d. Actinomycetes

36. Normal plasma Haptoglobin level is

a. 40-175 mg/dl
b. 150-200 mg/dl
c. 150-300 mg/dl
d. 40-180 mg/dl

37. IgA has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

a. accounts for 15% of Immunoglobulin pool

b. activates complement via alternative pathway
c. involved in immune exclusion
d. has a Serum half-life of about 5 days
e. has a serum concentration of about 0.8-4 mg/mL

38. Yohimbine:

a. nonselective m2 blocker
b. causes diuresis
c. selective m2 blocker
d. selective m2 agonist
e. long duration of action

39. Which of the following microorganisms is associated with Haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome (HRFS)?

a. Escherichia coli O157:H7

b. Sabia virus
c. Hantaan Virus
d. Enterocytozoon bieneusi
e. Cryptosporidium parvum

40. Which of the following is widely regarded as a universal solvent?

a. ethanol
b. methanol
c. Dimethylsulfoxide (DMSO)
d. water

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41. A type of eschar - tache noire" is seen in infection with:

a. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
b. Rickettsia sibirica
c. Coxiella burnetii
d. Rickettsia rickettsii
e. Rickettsia conorii

42. IgD has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

a. present on B-cell surface

b. activates complement via classical pathway
c. accounts for 1% of Immunoglobulin pool
d. has a serum concentration of about <0.003 mg/mL
e. has a Serum half-life of about 3 days

43. A punched out ulcer-eschar is characteristic of :

a. Q fever
b. Endemic typhus
c. Scrub typhus
d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
e. Epidemic typhus

44. Regarding amebiasis (amebic dysentery):

a. causative organism is Entamoeba coli

b. infection is due to ingestion of mature trophozoites
c. produce virulence factor internalin
d. produce virulence factor cysteine proteases
e. low carbohydrate-high protein diet favors development of amebic dysentry

45. A nondepolarizing neuromuscular relaxant:

a. succinylcholine
b. atropine
c. pancuronium
d. decamethonium

46. Which of the following is a vasoconstrictor substance?

a. PGE2
b. TXA2
c. Acetylcholine
d. Bupivacaine
e. PGF2m

47. Immunotoxins are:

a. monoclonal antibodies attached to IgM

b. monoclonal antibodies produced by hybridoma cells
c. myeloma tumour cells
d. monoclonal antibodies attached to a toxin

48. Normal serum level of m-2 macroglobulin

a. 150-300 mg/dl
b. 50-200 mg/dl
c. 40-150 mg/dl
d. 130-300 mg/dl

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49. Drug of first choice in sepsis due to Escherichia coli:

a. Aminoglycoside
b. Azithromycin
c. Cefotaxime
d. Imipenem
e. Clarithromycin

50. Specific gravity of urine and concentration test:

a. simplest test of tubular function

b. specific gravity of 1.010 corresponds to 600 milliosmol/kg
c. depends on the number of osmotically active particles
d. specific gravity is decreased in proteinuria

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Form a BASIC MEDICAL SCIENCES
BIOCHEMISTRY, ANSWERS

1 c
2 c
3 d
4 c
5 c
6 c
7 a
8 b
9 c
10 d
11 a
12 d
13 d
14 b
15 d
16 b
17 a
18 e
19 e
20 e
21 c
22 c
23 c
24 a
25 d
26 a
27 e
28 c
29 a
30 a
31 a
32 e
33 e
34 e
35 d
36 a
37 d
38 c
39 c
40 c
41 e
42 b
43 c
44 d
45 c
46 b
47 d
48 d
49 c
50 a

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{{s}}
BIOCHEMISTRY

* There may be more than ONE correct answer (Multiple Options may be correct).
Choose the correct answer(s):
{{f}}
1. Regarding the chemical structure of polynucleotide chains (DNA/RNA), correct is:

a. free phosphate moiety at 3' - end of the polynucleotide chain

b. nitrogenous bases are linked to sugar moieties
c. 3'-OH group at 5'-end of ribose sugar
d. backbone of a polynucleotide chain is formed by phosphodiester bonds
2. Hexokinase D:

a. present in liver
b. inhibited by fructose 6-phosphate
c. present in cytosol
d. low Km
3. A synthetic analog which is a Glutamine antagonist:

a. puromycin
b. methotrexate
c. azothymidine
d. azaserine
4. Biological oxidation:

a. in ETC flow of electrons is from electropositive potential to electronegative potential

b. energy is expended in this process
c. transfer of electrons from oxidized coenzymes to hydrogen
d. energy is released in this process
5. Benedict's test is characterized by all except:

a. blue color indicates 0.5% of sugar in urine

b. orange color indicates 1.5% of sugar in urine
c. yellow color indicates 1% of sugar in urine
d. red color indicates 2% of sugar in urine
6. All of the following are FAD-dependent Enzymes except:

a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. glutamate dehydrogenase
c. xanthine oxidase
d. pyruvate dehydrogenase
7. Not a correct statement:

a. amylose have glucose units linked together by a-1,4-linkages

b. branching is extensive in amylose
c. cellulose is an unbranched polymer of glucose residues
d. branching is extensive in glycogen

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8. One of the following is an example of low energy phosphate:

a. ester phosphates
b. phosphoenolpyruvate
c. arginine phosphate
d. creatine phosphate
9. Regarding the primary structure of insulin:

a. A chain has N-terminal phenylalanine

b. A chain has C-terminal glycine
c. B chain N-terminal has asparagine
d. B chain C-terminal has alanine
10. Not a reducing sugar:

a. Galactose
b. Sucrose
c. Glucose
d. Maltose
11. Regarding nucleoside and nucleotide, spot the correct statements:

a. nucleosides are derivatives of nucleotides

b. nucleosides results from polymerization of nucleotides
c. purines present in nucleotides are adenine and guanine
d. nucleotides are derivatives of nucleosides
12. What controls activation and repression of gene expression?

a. methylation of tRNA
b. methylation of DNA
c. methylation of histone
d. methylation of mRNA
13. Regarding Cardiac glycosides untrue is/are:

a. have positive inotropic effect

b. increase output in hypodynamic heart
c. increase O2 consumption
d. increases myocardial efficiency
14. All are correct about Proteins except:

a. proteins may have disordered secondary structure

b. ordered conformation is maintained by hydrogen bonds
c. alpha-Helix is a component of disordered secondary structure
d. -pleated sheet is a component of ordered secondary structure
15. Test which will distinguish glucose from fructose in urine:

a. Benedict's test
b. Bial's test
c. Methyl amine test
d. Seliwanoff's test

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16. The enzyme a-glucosidase is present in

a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Peroxisomes
c. Lysosomes
d. Mitochondria
17. Regarding hexokinase, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

a. present in liver
b. low Km
c. inhibited by Phosphoglycerate kinase
d. Inhibited by glucose 6-phosphate
18. Not a reducing substance:

a. Galactose
b. Fructose
c. Hypochlorite
d. Ascorbic acid
19. All of the following hormones regulate Acetyl-CoA carboxylase except:

a. malate
b. glucagon
c. citrate
d. insulin
20. Transmethylation of Guanidoacetate yields:

a. Thymidine monophosphate
b. Creatinine
c. Creatine phosphate
d. Creatine
21. The pathway of Niacin synthesis in rat, dog and pig is called as:

a. uronic acid pathway

b. purine salvage pathway
c. tryptophan-niacin pathway
d. quinolinate pathway
22. Which of the following enzymes is inducible by corticosteroids?

a. kynureninase
b. xanthine oxidase
c. tryptophan hydroxylase
d. tryptophan pyrrolase
23. What controls gene expression?

a. methylation of tRNA
b. methylation of mRNA
c. methylation of DNA
d. phosphorylation of histone

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24. alpha-helix:

a. is hydrophobic in nature
b. is hydrophilic in nature
c. of most fibrous proteins are left-handed
d. right handed less stable than left-handed a-helix
25. Which of the following syndromes is characterized by a decreased plasma phosphorus level?

a. Menkes syndrome
b. Fanconi syndrome
c. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
d. Bassen-Kornz Weig syndrome
26. All of the following substances are produced from tryptophan except:

a. Glutamic acid
b. Alanine
c. Acetoacetyl CoA
d. Niacin
27. Creatine:

a. synthesized from creatine phosphate

b. synthesized from guanidoacetate
c. normal serum level is 0.7 to 1.4 mg/dl
d. synthesized from creatinine
28. Regarding hormonal regulation of glycogen metabolism, mark the most incorrect statement(s):

a. Phosphodiesterese increases cAMP levels

b. high cAMP levels inhibit phosphatases
c. insulin activates phosphodiesterese
d. low cAMP levels stimulate protein kinases
29. Blood serotonin level of >400 ng/m is observed in:

a. Dermoids
b. Parkinsons disease
c. Downs syndrome
d. Phenylketonuria
30. ATP generated by oxidation of acetyl CoA:

a. 38
b. 10
c. 32
d. 2
31. Which of the following steps of Electron transport chain (ETC) do not primarily act as proton pump?

a. Complex IV or Cytochrome Oxidase

b. Complex II or Succinate-Q-Reductase
c. Complex-I NADH-CoQ reductase
d. Complex III or Cytochrome Reductase

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32. Insulin induces all of the following except:

a. Glucose-6-phosphatase
b. Phospho fructo kinase
c. Acetyl CoA carboxylase
d. Pyruvate kinase
33. A disease that results from defects in nucleotide biosynthesis:

a. Crigler-Najjer Syndrome
b. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
c. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
d. Fanconi syndrome
34. Salient features of double-helix structure of DNA:

a. made up of two polynucleoside chains

b. bases in two strands are paired through disulphide bonds
c. backbone is constituted by sugar-phosphate
d. two chains are coiled in left-handed fashion
35. Nucleic acids are polymers of __________.

a. purines and pyrimidines

b. nucleotides
c. ribonucleosides
d. nucleosides
36. A rare inherited deficiency disease in which there is defect in intracellular copper metabolism:

a. Menkes syndrome
b. Zellwegers syndrome
c. Wilsons disease
d. Ehlers-Dahlos syndrome
37. What is not true about DNA, histone and chromatin?

a. typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix

b. DNA is bound to basic protein histone
c. DNA is positively charged
d. heterochromatin is transcriptionally active chromatin
38. What is not correct about Citric acid cycle?

a. malonate is a competitive inhibitor of aconitase

b. arsenic compounds inhibit a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
c. ATP inhibits citrate synthase activity
d. ADP activates Isocitrate dehydrogenase
39. Digitalis has a

a. thiophene ring
b. steroid ring
c. lactone ring
d. quinazoline ring

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40. Which of the following drugs reduces the severity of reperfusion injury following ischemia?

a. Haloperidol
b. Calcium gluconate
c. Allopurinol
d. Calpastatin
41. Which of the following is an N-glycoside?

a. Disaccharides
b. DNA
c. Digitalis
d. N-acetylglucosamine
42. Which of the following is 'specifically' a NAD-dependent enzyme?

a. Pyruvate carboxylase
b. Succinate dehydrogenase
c. Lactate dehydrogenase
d. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
43. DNA was first identified in the nucleus by:

a. James Watson and Francis Crick

b. Friedrich Meischer
c. Erwin Chargaff
d. Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
44. The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP releases:

a. -7.0 kcal/mol
b. - 7.5 kcal/mol
c. -10.7 kcal/mol
d. -7.3 kcal/mol
45. Nucleosides:

a. hydrolysis of nucleoside yields sugar, phosphate and nitrogen base

b. nucleosides can contain phosphodiester bonds
c. serves as energy stores
d. some antiviral agents are nucleoside analogs
46. Which of the following is a component of Synovial fluid?

a. Hyaluronic acid
b. Chondroitin sulfate
c. Dermatan Sulfate
d. N-acetyl neuraminic acid
47. Most common reducing sugar in urine:

a. Fructose
b. Lactose
c. Sucrose
d. Glucose

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48. Redox potential of Oxygen is:

a. - 0.32 V
b. + 0.22
c. +0.82 V
d. + 0.29
49. True regarding primary structure of a protein:

a. forms an a-helix
b. covalent disulfide bonds may occur in primary structure
c. contains information required for formation of ribosome
d. characterized by leucine zipper
50. One of the following has no free aldehyde or ketone group:

a. Glucose
b. Lactose
c. Maltose
d. Sucrose

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BIOCHEMISTRY ANSWER SHEET
1. a b c d 32. a b c d
2. a b c d 33. a b c d
3. a b c d 34. a b c d
4. a b c d 35. a b c d
5. a b c d 36. a b c d
6. a b c d 37. a b c d
7. a b c d 38. a b c d
8. a b c d 39. a b c d
9. a b c d 40. a b c d
10. a b c d 41. a b c d
11. a b c d 42. a b c d
12. a b c d 43. a b c d
13. a b c d 44. a b c d
14. a b c d 45. a b c d
15. a b c d 46. a b c d
16. a b c d 47. a b c d
17. a b c d 48. a b c d
18. a b c d 49. a b c d
19. a b c d 50. a b c d
20. a b c d
21. a b c d
22. a b c d
23. a b c d
24. a b c d
25. a b c d
26. a b c d
27. a b c d
28. a b c d
29. a b c d
30. a b c d
31. a b c d

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NOTES