21 Answer

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATION

GENERAL STUIDES (P) TEST 2124 (2017)
Q 1.C
The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana has replace the existing two schemes National Agricultural
Insurance Scheme as well as the Modified NAIS. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It covers both commercial and horticulture crops (statement 2 incorrect).
The scheme covers kharif, rabi as well as annual commercial and horticultural crops. For Kharif crops, the
premium charged would be up to 2% of the sum insured. For Rabi crops, the premium would be up to
1.5% of the sum assured. For annual commercial and horticultural crops, premium would be 5 per cent.
The remaining share of premium will be borne equally by the central and respective state governments.
All farmers growing notified crops in a notified area during the season who have insurable interest in the
crop are eligible for the scheme.
The Scheme provides post harvest coverage. (Hence statement 3 is correct).
This scheme provides full coverage of insurance. It also covers the localized risks such as hailstorm,
landslide, inundation etc. Earlier schemes did not cover inundation. It provides post harvest
coverage. The NAIS did not cover while the modified NAIS covered only coastal regions.
Q 2.B
Brucellosis is a disease of mainly cattle, swine, goats, sheep and dogs. The infection is transmitted to
humans by animals through direct contact or indirectly by ingestion of animal products and by inhalation
of airborne agents. Consumption of raw milk and cheese made from raw milk (fresh cheese) is the major
source of infection in man.
A programme of "Brucella Free Villages" has been launched for implementation on pilot scale in 50
villages covering 10 states.
Q 3.A
Maharatna CPSEs
Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

Coal India Limited
GAIL (India) Limited
Indian Oil Corporation Limited
NTPC Limited
Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
Steel Authority of India Limited
Navratna CPSEs
Bharat Electronics Limited

Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
Container Corporation of India Limited
Engineers India Limited
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
1 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited
National Aluminium Company Limited
National Buildings Construction Corporation Limited
NMDC Limited
Neyveli Lignite Corporation Limited
Oil India Limited
Power Finance Corporation Limited
Power Grid Corporation of India Limited
Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited
Rural Electrification Corporation Limited
Shipping Corporation of India Limited
Airport Authority of India is a Miniratna. Hence A is the correct answer.
Q 4.B
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India will be set up to regulate functioning of Insolvency
Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies and Intelligence Utilities. (Statement 1 is correct)
The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) will adjudicate insolvency resolution for companies. The
Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) will adjudicate insolvency resolution for individuals. (Statement 2 is
incorrect)
The Code creates time-bound processes for insolvency resolution of companies and individuals. These
processes will be completed within 180 days. (Statement 3 is correct)
The resolution processes will be conducted by licensed insolvency professionals (IPs).
Information utilities (IUs) will be established to collect, collate and disseminate financial information to
facilitate insolvency resolution.
Q 5.D
The government has taken a number of policy initiatives to promote services exports which include the
Service Exports from India Scheme (SEIS) (part of new Foreign Trade Policy of 2015) for increasing
exports of notified services from India; organizing Global Exhibitions on Services (GES) and services
conclaves to augment exports of various services and position India as a key player in world services
trade; besides some initiatives in sectors like tourism and shipping.
Q 6.A
CSIR has come out with a technology for enabling the Indian leather sector achieve the set target of USD
27 billion by 2020 by making leather processing environmentally sustainable. This "Waterless chrome
tanning technology" is a first of its kind technology to reduce chromium pollution load.
Q 7.D
The core infrastructure elements in a smart city would include:

adequate water supply,
assured electricity supply,
sanitation, including solid waste management,
efficient urban mobility and public transport,
affordable housing, especially for the poor,
robust IT connectivity and digitalization,
good governance, especially e-Governance and citizen participation,
sustainable environment,
safety and security of citizens, particularly women, children and the elderly,
health and education
Q 8.D
Saur Sujala Yojana was launched in Chhattisgarh that would provide solar powered irrigation pumps to
farmers at a subsidized price. Under the scheme, solar powered irrigation pumps of 3HP and 5HP capacity
worth Rs 3.5 lakh and Rs 4.5 lakh respectively would be distributed to the farmers by March 31, 2019.
Q 9.A
Mormugao is an indigenously built warship equipped with a range of high-tech missiles. The vessel has
been built by government-run Mazgaon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd (MDL) and belongs to Visakhapatnam
class of ships being constructed under Project 15B.
The Project 15B missile destroyers are modern warships equipped with the latest weapons package, in
continuation of the lineage of the highly successful Delhi and Kolkata Class ships.
Fitted also with the Barak-8 long-range missiles, Mormugao has been named after the picturesque port in
Goa. The warships can achieve a maximum speed of 31-32 knots and are equipped with surface-to-surface
missiles, surface-to-air missiles, anti-submarine launchers, multi mission radar for surveillance along with
medium range air/surface surveillance radar and other advanced electronic warfare and decoys.
Q 10.B
NEW DELHI DECLARATION ON EDUCATION was adopted in the 4 th Meeting of BRICS Ministers of
Education in New Delhi, on September 30, 2016 to endure inclusive and quality education and promote
life long opportunities for all.
Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote life-long learning opportunities for all.
Q 11.C
Unlike Green Revolution which focussed on only five food grains- wheat, rice, maize, jowar and bajra-
the second green revolution includes whole agricultural sector within its ambit. Hence, it is also called the
Rainbow Revolution. (statement 1 is correct)
Emphasizing on the need to move on this path more vigorously in coming years, the benefits of the Green
Revolution, launched in mid-1960s, were mainly confined to certain areas. it was not successful in rain-
fed areas, which contribute about 60% of the country's total food-grain production. The government
therefore, now focusing more on bringing the second Green Revolution in eastern region, which has rich
water resources. (statement 2 is correct)
Q 12.D
In India, the new HAM is a mix of BOT Annuity and EPC models. (Statement 1 is correct). As per the
design, the government will contribute to 40% of the project cost in the first five years through annual
payments (annuity). The remaining payment will be made on the basis of the assets created and the
performance of the developer. Here, hybrid annuity means the first 40% payment is made as fixed amount
in five equal installments whereas the remaining 60% is paid as variable annuity amount after the
completion of the project depending upon the value of assets created. (Statement 3 is correct)
As the government pays only 40%, during the construction stage, the developer should find money for the
remaining amount. Here, he has to raise the remaining 60% in the form of equity or loans.
There is no toll right for the developer. Under HAM, Revenue collection would be the responsibility of
the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI). (Statement 2 is correct)
Advantage of HAM is that it gives enough liquidity to the developer and the financial risk is shared by the
government. While the private partner continues to bear the construction and maintenance risks as in the
case of BOT (toll) model, he is required only to partly bear the financing risk.
Government's policy is that the HAM will be used in stalled projects where other models are not
applicable.
Q 13.D
The funding support from MUDRA are of four types:

Micro Credit Scheme (MCS) for loans upto 1 lakh finance through MFIs.: Micro Credit Scheme is
offered mainly through Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs), which deliver the credit upto Rs.1 lakh, for
various micro enterprise activities. Although, the mode of delivery may be through groups like
SHGs/JLGs, the loans are given to the individuals for specific income generating micro enterprise
activity.
Refinance Scheme for Commercial Banks / Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) / Scheduled Co-operative
Banks: Different banks like Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Cooperative Banks
are eligible to avail of refinance support from MUDRA for financing micro enterprise activities.

Women Enterprise programme: In order to encourage women entrepreneurs the financing banks / MFIs
may consider extending additional facilities, including interest reduction on their loan. At present,
MUDRA extends a reduction of 25bps in its interest rates to MFIs / NBFCs, who are providing loans to
women entrepreneurs.
Securitization of loan portfolio: MUDRA also supports Banks / NBFCs / MFIs for raising funds for
financing micro enterprises by participating in securitization of their loan assets against micro enterprise
portfolio, by providing second loss default guarantee, for credit enhancement and also participating in
investment of Pass Through Certificate (PTCs) either as Senior or Junior investor.
In addition to it, accreditation / rating of MFI entities is one of the roles earmarked for MUDRA.
Hence all the given functions are performed by Mudra Bank.
Q 14.B
The Main objectives of Gramin Bhandaran Yojana is creation of scientific storage capacity with allied
facilities in rural areas to meet out various requirements of farmers for storing farm produce, processed
farm produce, agricultural inputs, etc., and prevention of distress sale by creating the facility of pledge
loan and marketing credit. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Subsidy of 33.33% of the capital cost of the project in case of projects located in North Eastern States,
hilly areas and those belonging to Women Farmers/ their self help groups / co-operatives and SC/ST
entrepreneurs & their self-help groups/ Co-operatives subject to a maximum ceiling on subsidy of
Rs.62.50 lakh will be provided. No maximum ceiling on subsidy in the case of cooperatives assisted by
NCDC. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The project would be implemented by Ministry of Agriculture. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
Q 15.C
Statement 1 is correct: Reinsurance is a process whereby one entity (the reinsurer) takes on all or part of
the risk covered under a policy issued by an insurance company in consideration of a premium payment.
In other words, it is a form of an insurance cover for insurance companies.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Foreign players are allowed to setup reinsurance companies in India. Insurance
Laws (Amendments) act, 2015 enables foreign reinsurers to set up branches in India.
For the development of insurance in an economy the presence of reinsurance companies is a precondition.
It becomes an essential precondition if the economy is trying to develop and expand insurance with the
active participation of the private sector insurance companies. This made the government convert the GIC
into a re-insurance company in 2000- this is the sole re-insurer in India, that too in the public sector.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 16.D
Within the broad category of Preferential Trade Agreemement, one can distinguish five forms, listed below,
with each subsequent arrangement being a deeper form of integration, requiring more coordination and a
greater loss of autonomy:
Partial Scope Agreement (PSA): A PSA is only partial in scope, meaning it allows for trade between
countries on a small number of goods.
Free Trade Agreement (FTA): A free trade agreement is a preferential arrangement in which members
reduce tariffs on trade among themselves, while maintaining their own tariff rates for trade
with nonmembers.
Customs Union (CU): A customs union (CU) is a free-trade agreement in which members apply a
common external tariff
(CET) schedule to imports from non-members.
Common Market (CM): A common market is a customs union where movement of factors of production
is relatively free
amongst member countries.
Economic Union (EU): An economic union is a common market where member countries coordinate
macro-economic and
exchange rate policies.

Q 17.B
Indian Enterprise Development Service (IEDS):

The Government of India approved cadre review and formation of the Indian Enterprise Development
Service (IEDS) in the Office of the Development Commissioner, Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises.
The creation of the new cadre and change in structure will not only strengthen the organization but will
also help to achieve the vision of "Startup India", "Stand-up India" and "Make in India".
The Service has been created by absorbing 11 trades/services, recruitment to which had been done
differently, following different rules. These will be established through an executive order not by the act
of parliament.
All these trades were created in the 1950s and 1960s when industries got developed under the regulation
regime.
The Indian Enterprise Development Service, to start with, will have a cadre strength of 617 officers, 6 of
which will be at the level of joint secretaries.
Q 18.C
A bank set up to buy the bad loans of a bank with significant nonperforming assets. By transferring the
bad assets of an institution to the bad bank, the banks clear their balance sheet of toxic assets but would be
forced to take write downs.
The problem of non-performing assets in Indian banks particularly the PSBs has assumed large
proportions. In this light a suggestion is the formation of a Bad Bank.
Q 19.A
Swiss Challenge: It is a way to award a project to a private player on an unsolicited proposal. Such
projects may not be in the bouquet of projects planned by the state or a state-owned agency, but are
considered given the gaps in physical or social infrastructure that they propose to fill, and the innovation
and enterprise that private players bring.
The government may enter into direct negotiations with a private player who submits a proposal and, if
they cannot agree on the terms of the project, consider calling for bids from other interested players.
Q 20.C
"e-TV" stands for the tourist visa facility launched for the citizens of 113 countries at 16 airports to give a
fillip to the travel and tourism sector.
The e-Tourist Visa enables the prospective visitor to apply for an Indian Visa from his/her home country
online without visiting the Indian Mission and also pay the visa fee online (statement 1 is correct). Once
approved, the applicant receives an email authorizing him/her to travel to India and he/she can travel with
a print out of this authorisation. On arrival, the visitor has to present the authorisation to the immigration
authorities who would then stamp the entry into the country.
This facility is available to Foreigners whose sole objective of visiting India is recreation, sight-seeing,
short duration medical treatment, casual business visit, etc. and not valid for any other purpose/activities.
This will allow entry into India within 30 days from the date of approval of e-Tourist Visa and will be
valid for 30 days stay in India from the date of arrival in India. (statement 2 is correct). The e-Tourist
Visa cannot be availed more than twice in a calendar year. The facility will encourage people to travel
with short-term planning, take via routes while travelling to other countries and bring family members
while on business visits.
Q 21.A
Teaser loans refers to loan which have differential rate of interest, which are particularly lower in the
initial period and higher in the later period. For this type of loan an introductory rate is offered. It is an
interest rate charged to a customer during the initial stages of a loan. This rate, which can be as low as 0%,
is not permanent. It has an expiration after a specified period of time.
Under the 'teaser loan' offer, a bank charges lower interest rates for the first two or three years and in the
later years the interest rate will automatically get reset to the then prevailing base rates.
These loans were banned by RBI in the past, as they lure the lower bracket group and put them under
duress in the later period due to higher rate of interest.
Q 22.A
Biofloc is a heterogenous aggregate of suspended particles and variety of microorganisms associated with
extacellular polymeric substances. It is composed of microorganisms such as bacteria, algae, fungi,
invertebrates and detritus, etc. It is a protein-rich live feed formed as a result of conversion of unused
feed and excreta into a natural food in a culture system on exposure to sunlight. The size and shape of
Biofloc varies. Biofloc can be cultured in concrete tanks, green house systems and ponds.
It can be used as substitute for fishmeal. It also serves as immunostimulant and probiotic in nursery
and grow-out culture systems of fish and helps enhance growth performance in the culture systems of fish.
In a Biofloc culture system, feed residues, dead organisms,excreta and skeleton of fish and shellfish
increases ammonia, nitrite and nitrate which affects water quality. Biofloc culture can be carried out in
freshwater and salinewater. Nitrogen cycle takes place in this system. Nitrosomonas, Nitrosococcus and
Nitrobacter are responsible for Nitrification. Nitrosomonas and Nitrosococcus converts Ammonia to
Nitrite. Nitrobacter is the bacteria which converts Nitrite to Nitrate. Denitrification is the stage in
which Pseudomonas converts Nitrate to Nitrogen.
Q 23.B
Statement 1 is correct: The mission of Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, is to promote foreign
direct investment (FDI) into developing countries to help support economic growth, reduce poverty, and
improve people's lives. MIGA insures cross-border investments made by investors in any MIGA member
country into a developing member country.
Statement 2 is correct: MIGA is a member of the World Bank Group.
Statement 3 is not correct: International Finance Corporation (IFC) issue Indias first masala bonds
to tap in foreign funding in local currency.
Q 24.B
It is an under construction freight corridor by Indian railways connecting Indian states from Punjab to
west Bengal. It is 1,840 km long and extends from Ludhiana in Punjab to Kolkata in West Bengal as a
series of projects with three sections. Recently, the International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IRBD), part of the World Bank Group, signed an agreement with the Union government to
lend $650 million to DFCCIL for the third phase of Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor. The first two
phases of the EDFC are already being implemented by the DFCCIL with the help of financial assistance
provided by the World Bank in the form of loans worth $975 million and $1,100 million respectively.
Q 25.A
An original equipment manufacturer (OEM) is a company whose products are used as components in the
products of another company, referred to as the value-added reseller (VAR). The OEM generally works
closely with the company that sells the finished product and customizes designs based on that company's
needs.
Case of India's defence sector:
In June 2016. India opened up the defence sector allowing foreign companies to own as much as 100%
equity in the local defence sector through the government approval route in cases where it is likely to
result in access to modern technology. The current foreign direct investment (FDI) regime permits foreign
companies to own 49% in Indian units through the automatic approval route.
The new rules could mean that Indian companies that were rushing to tie up with OEMs in expectation of
future business may find that their partners choose to enter the market on their own.
Under the previous rules, foreign OEMs (original equipment manufacturers) were required to form joint
ventures with domestic firms if they wanted to establish a manufacturing base in India. With the
amendment, an OEM can independently plan and implement operations in India.

Q 26.B
Statement 1 is correct. The Prime Minister has formally launched the Housing for All in rural
areas scheme. Under the scheme the Government proposes to provide an environmentally safe and secure
pucca house to every rural household by 2022.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The project cost will be shared by both the central government and the state
government.
Statement 3 is correct. Selection of beneficiaries is completely transparent process using the Socio
Economic Census 2011 data.
Other provisions of the "Housing for All in Rural Area Scheme":
There is a provision of Bank loan upto Rs. 70,000/-, if the beneficiary so desires.
The programme provides for skilling 5 lakh Rural Masons by 2019 and allows over 200 different housing
designs across the country based on a detailed study of housing typologies, environmental hazards and the
households requirements.
Local materials will be used largely - along with a complete home with cooking space, electricity
provision, LPG, toilet and bathing area, drinking water etc through convergence.
The payment process- will be through IT/DBT mode with Aadhaar linked Bank accounts with consent, to
ensure complete transparency and accountability.
Q 27.C
The Model APMC Act, 2003 provided for the freedom of farmers to sell their produce. The farmers could sell
their produce directly to the contract-sponsors or in the market set up by private individuals, consumers or
producers. The Model Act also increases the competitiveness of the market of agricultural produce by
allowing common registration of market intermediaries.
Salient Features of the Model APMC Act:
The Preamble of the Act is to provide for development of efficient marketing system, promotion of agri-
processing and agricultural exports and to lay down procedures and systems for putting in place an
effective infrastructure for the marketing of agricultural produce.
Legal persons, growers and local authorities are permitted to apply for the establishment of new markets
for agricultural produce in any area. Under the existing law, markets are setup at the initiative of State
Governments alone. Consequently, in a market area, more than one market can be established by private
persons, farmers and consumers.
There will be no compulsion on the growers to sell their produce through existing markets administered
by the Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC). However, agriculturist who does not bring his
produce to the market area for sale will not be eligible for election to the APMC. Hence, statement 1 is
not correct.
Separate provision is made for notification of 'Special Markets' or 'Special Commodities Markets' in any
market area for specified agricultural commodities to be operated in addition to existing markets.
A new Chapter on 'Contract Farming' added to provide for compulsory registration of all contract farming
sponsors, recording of contract farming agreements, resolution of disputes, if any, arising out of such
agreement, exemption from levy of market fee on produce covered by contract farming agreements and to
provide for indemnity to producers' title/ possession over his land from any claim arising out of the
agreement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Provision made for direct sale of farm produce to contract farming sponsor from farmers' field without the
necessity of routing it through notified markets.
Provision made for imposition of single point levy of market fee on the sale of notified agricultural
commodities in any market area and discretion provided to the State Government to fix graded levy of
market fee on different types of sales. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Licensing of market functionaries is dispensed with and a time bound procedure for registration is laid
down. Registration for market functionaries provided to operate in one or more than one market areas.
Commission agency in any transaction relating to notified agricultural produce involving an agriculturist
is prohibited and there will be no deduction towards commission from the sale proceeds payable to
agriculturist seller.

Provision made for the purchase of agricultural produce through private yards or directly from
agriculturists in one or more than one market area.
Provision made for the establishment of consumers'/farmers' market to facilitate direct sale of agricultural
produce to consumers.
Provision made for resolving of disputes, if any, arising between private market/ consumer market and
Market Committee.
State Governments conferred power to exempt any agricultural produce brought for sale in market area,
from payment of market fee.
Market Committees permitted to use its funds among others to create facilities like grading,
standardization and quality certification; to create infrastructure on its own or through public private
partnership for post-harvest handling of agricultural produce and development of modern marketing
system.
Q 28.C
Frankenfixation refers to the use of genetic modification to fix carbon dioxide into the soil. It is derived
from the term popularised by critics of genetically modified foods, 'Frankenfoods'. The U.S. Department
of Energy's Joint Genome Institute recently found a novel pathway based on a new CO2-fixing enzyme
that is nearly 20 times faster than the most prevalent enzyme in nature responsible for capturing CO2 in
plants by using sunlight as energy.
Q 29.B
Production Sharing Contract (PSC) is a term used in the Hydrocarbon industry and refers to an agreement
between Contractor and Government whereby Contractor bears all exploration risks, production and
development costs in return for its stipulated share of (profit from) production resulting from this
effort.
Production Sharing Contracts became widely adopted as part of the New Exploration and Licensing
Policy (NELP) launched by the Government in 1997 for enhanced exploration of oil and gas resources in
the country.
The Production Sharing Contracts (PSCs) under NELP are based on the principle of profit
sharing. When a contractor discovers oil or gas, he is expected to share with the Government the profit
from his venture, as per the percentage given in his bid. Until a profit is made, no share is given to
Government, other than royalties and cesses.
PSC allows the contractor to recover his cost, before giving Government its share in the contractor's
revenues, in case there is commercial discovery leading to production (Not all drilling leads to discovery
of oil/gas). Thus, a certain proportion of the balance revenues of the contractor are shared with the
Government.
The PSC regime has been changed with a revenue sharing contract model in 2016 through a Cabinet
decision of the Government dated 10.03.2016. However, the new regime is applicable only for future
contracts that would be awarded by the Government.
Q 30.C
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

District Central Co-op Banks: They operate as the apex bank for all cooperative societies in the district
and, therefore, are governed by state government and NABARD. Since they are regulated by the Banking
Regulations Act, they are governed by the RBI also.
The Banking model consists of a district central bank for each District in every state. The members and
their elected directors who represent a multitude of professional cooperative bodies like Milk Unions,
Urban cooperatives, Rural cooperatives, agricultural and non agricultural cooperatives and various others,
in turn would elect the bank's President. These banks are collectively represented by a State Apex Central
Cooperative bank for each state and it acts as the ultimate bank and apex body for the DCCs under each
state.

Q 31.A
Settling disputes is the responsibility of the Dispute Settlement Body (the General Council in another
guise), which consists of all WTO members. The Dispute Settlement Body has the sole authority to
establish "panels" of experts to consider the case, and to accept or reject the panels findings or the
results of an appeal. It monitors the implementation of the rulings and recommendations, and has the
power to authorize retaliation when a country does not comply with a ruling. (statement 1 is correct).
With regards to appeals:
Either side can appeal a panel's ruling. Each appeal is heard by three members of a permanent seven-
member Appellate Body set up by the Dispute Settlement Body and broadly representing the range of
WTO membership. (statement 2 is incorrect)
The losing "defendant" has to bring its policy into line with the ruling or recommendations of the DSB
[Dispute Settlement Body].
Q 32.B
Key highlights of the new IPR policy are as follows:
The Policy aims to push IPRs as a marketable financial asset, promote innovation and entrepreneurship,
while protecting public interest.
The plan will be reviewed every five years in consultation with stakeholders.
In order to have strong and effective IPR laws, steps would be taken including review of existing IP
laws to update and improve them or to remove anomalies and inconsistencies.
The policy is entirely compliant with the WTOs agreement on TRIPS. (Statement 2 is correct)
Special thrust on awareness generation and effective enforcement of IPRs, besides encouragement of IP
commercialisation through various incentives.
India will engage constructively in the negotiation of international treaties and agreements in consultation
with stakeholders. The government will examine accession to some multilateral treaties which are in
India's interest, and become a signatory to those treaties which India has de facto implemented to enable it
to participate in their decision making process, the policy said.
It suggests making the department of industrial policy and promotion (DIPP) the nodal agency for all IPR
issues. Copyrights related issues will also come under DIPPs ambit from that of the Human Resource
Development (HRD) Ministry. (Statement 1 is not correct)
Trademark offices have been modernised, and the aim is to reduce the time taken for examination and
registration to just 1 month by 2017. The government has already hired around 100 new examiners for
trademarks. Examination time for trademarks has been reduced from 13 months to 8 months, with the new
target being to bring the time down to one month by March 2017.
Films, music, industrial drawings will be all covered by copyright.
The Policy also seeks to facilitate domestic IPR filings, for the entire value chain from IPR generation to
commercialisation. It aims to promote research and development through tax benefits.
Proposal to create an effective loan guarantee scheme to encourage start-ups.
It also says "India will continue to utilise the legislative space and flexibilities available in international
treaties and the TRIPS Agreement." These flexibilities include the sovereign right of countries to use
provisions such as Section 3(d) and CLs for ensuring the availability of essential and life-saving drugs at
affordable prices. (Statement 3 INCORRECT)
The policy left the country's patent laws intact and specifically did not open up Section 3(d) of the Patents
Act, which sets the standard for what is considered an invention in India, for reinterpretation.
On compulsory licensing (CL), India has issued only CL for a cancer drug. Mr. Jaitley said, "We rarely
exercise this power." The statement assumes significance as developed countries, including the US, have
raised concerns over India issuing the CL. As per the WTO norms, a CL can be invoked by a government
allowing a company to produce a patented product without the consent of the patent owner in public
interest. Under the Indian Patents Act, a CL can be issued for a drug if the medicine is deemed
unaffordable, among other conditions, and the government grants permission to qualified generic drug
makers to manufacture it.
The IPR policy favoured the government considering financial support for a limited period on sale and
export of products based on IPRs generated from public-funded research.

Q 33.D
All the given statements are correct.

The companies Act 2013, mandates the setting up of a National Financial Reporting Authority, which will
monitor compliance with accounting and auditing standards. It will also have the power to investigate
auditors. The Act caps the tenure of a company auditor to a maximum period of 10 years; the old
companies law of 1956, had no such provisions.
The concept of one-man company has been introduced. One man company is the company with only one
person as its member (Sec 3 sub-clause 1).
The Companies Act 2013, introduces the concept of an independent director. For every listed company, at
least one-third of the directors should be independent. Companies act 1956 did not require companies to
appoint an independent director on its board. Provisions related to independent directors were set out in
Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement ("Listing Agreement").
Q 34.A
TTIP is a Mega Regional Agreement being negotiated between USA and EU. When concluded, it will be
a PTA between the United States and the European Community of 27 member states and representing "30
percent of global merchandise trade, about 40 percent of world trade in services, and nearly half of global
GDP".
Q 35.D
Various recent steps taken by Government for labor reforms:

A dedicated Shram Suvidha Portal: That would allot Labor Identification Number (LIN) to nearly 6
lakhs units and allow them to file online compliance for 16 out of 44 labor laws.
An all-new Random Inspection Scheme: Utilizing technology to eliminate human discretion in selection
of units for Inspection, and uploading of Inspection Reports within 72 hours of inspection is mandatory.
Universal Account Number: Enables 4.17 crore employees to have their Provident Fund account
portable, hassle-free and universally accessible.
Apprentice Protsahan Yojana: Will support manufacturing units mainly and other establishments by
reimbursing 50% of the stipend paid to apprentices during first two years of their training.
Revamped Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana: Introducing a Smart Card for the workers in the
unorganized sector seeded with details of two more social security schemes.
Q 36.A
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established with effect from 20th February 1997
by an Act of Parliament, called the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, to regulate telecom
services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which were earlier vested in the Central
Government. (statement 1 is correct)
It is only vested with regulatory powers as adjudcaory powers from the TRAI were trasfered
to Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT). (statement 2 is not
correct)
It is an independent body (statement 3 is not correct).
Q 37.B
The average poverty gap in the population as a proportion of the poverty line is known as Poverty Gap
Index.
The Squared Poverty Gap Index determines the degree of poverty for a given area. This method squares
the poverty gap for each individual/household, and thus puts more emphasis on observations that fall far
short of the poverty line rather than those that are closer.The Squared Poverty Gap Index is very similar to
the Poverty Gap Index because it also weights the poor based on how poor they are. The difference
between them is that the shortfalls of people below the poverty line are squared giving the very poor much
more weight than those falling only a few cents short of the poverty line.
The GII is an inequality index. It shows the loss in potential human development due to disparity between
female and male achievements in two dimensions, empowerment and economic status, and reflects a
country's position relative to normative ideals for the key dimension of women's health.

Sen (1976) has proposed an index that sought to combine the effects of the number of poor, the depth of
their poverty, and the distribution of poverty within the group. The Sen Index can be written as the
average of the headcount and poverty gap measures, weighted by the Gini coefficient of the poor.
Q 38.A
The National Skill Development Corporation, (NSDC) is a one of its kind, Public Private Partnership in
India, under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (statement 2 is correct and
statement 3 is incorrect). It aims to promote skill development by catalyzing creation of large, quality,
for-profit vocational institutions. (statement 1 is correct)
NSDC acts as a catalyst in skill development by providing funding to enterprises, companies and
organisations that provide skill training.
NSDC is a not-for-profit company set up under Section 25 of the Companies Act. It has an equity base of
Rs. 10 crore, of which the Government of India holds for 49%, while the private sector has the balance
51%.
Mission:
Upgrade skills to international standards through significant industry involvement and develop necessary
frameworks for standards, curriculum and quality assurance
Enhance, support and coordinate private sector initiatives for skill development through appropriate
Public-Private Partnership (PPP) models; strive for significant operational and financial involvement from
the private sector
Play the role of a "market-maker" by bringing financing, particularly in sectors where market mechanisms
are ineffective or missing
Prioritize initiatives that can have a multiplier or catalytic effect as opposed to one-off impact.
Objective:
To contribute significantly (30 per cent) to the overall target of skilling/up-skilling 500 million people in
India by 2022, mainly by fostering private sector initiatives in skill development programmes and to
provide funding.
Q 39.D
Azolla is an aquatic floating fern, found in temperate climate suitable for paddy cultivation. The fern
appears as a green mat over water. The Blue Green Algae cyanobacteria (Anabaena azollae) present as a
symbiont with this fern in the lower cavities actually fixes atmospheric nitrogen. The rate of nitrogen
fixed is around 25 kg/ha.
As green manure, Azolla is grown alone for two to three weeks in flooded fields. Afterwards, water is
drained out and Azolla fern is incorporated in the field before transplanting of paddy.
Dry Azolla flakes can be used as poultry feed and green Azolla is also a good feed for fish. Azolla
can be supplemented with regular feed of the animal @ 2-2.5 kg of azolla per cattle. It can be used as a
bio-fertilizer and as a mosquito repellent.
Q 40.A
"e-CHARAK" (e-Channel for Herbs, Aromatic, Raw material And Knowledge) is a platform to enable
information exchange between various stakeholders involved in the medicinal plants sector. It has been
jointly developed by the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB), Ministry of Ayush, Government of
India and Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).
It serves as a virtual market place for buyers and sellers of medicinal plants sector to interact with each
other and also as virtual showcase to display products and services related to medicinal plants sector.
It acts as a knowledge repository of technologies, market information and other resources related to
medicinal plants sector. e-CHARAK is available both as a web and mobile version.

Q 41.D
All the envisaged UMPPs are coal based both the coal pitheads and coastal locations (imported coal).
UMPPs are based on supercritical technology. It provides for higher fuel efficiency and lower greenhouse
gas emissions.
Power Finance Corporation is the nodal agency for all the UMPPs. Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is
the Technical partner.
The first UMPP was launched in Mundra by Tata Power. Reliance Power commissioned UMPP in Sasan,
Madhya Pradesh.
Q 42.D
The six (6) member countries of the South Asia Sub-regional Economic Cooperation (SASEC) program:
Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri Lanka.
Established in 2001, the SASEC program is a project-based partnership to promote regional
prosperity by improving cross-border connectivity, boosting trade among member countries, and
strengthening regional economic cooperation. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is the
secretariat and lead financier of the SASEC program. To date, ADB has approved 40 SASEC projects
worth almost $7.7 billion in transport, energy, trade facilitation, and information and communications
technology.
Q 43.C
The index for residential prices (RESIDEX) is published by the National Housing Bank (NHB). It is a
property price tracking index. It is used by various departments of the Government of India for
categorization of people for the implementation of various schemes. For example, department of urban
development uses RESIDEX as one of the parameters to identify residents belonging to Economically
Weaker Sections (EWS) etc.
Q 44.D
Industrial sector consumes the highest electricity than any other sector in India. Consumption of
electricity in agriculture continues to be low due to dependence on manual labour and lack of
mechanisation. Hence 1st statement is incorrect.
There is an under-utilisation of production capacity in most of the thermal power plants. Capacity
utilisation is measured by Plant Load Factor (PLF) which is the ratio of electricity generated to
production capacity. It is around 75-77%. Hence 2nd statement is incorrect.
T&D losses are not negligible in India. It amounts to nearly 20% in most of the states. In some states it is
upto 50%. Therefore 3rd statement is also incorrect.
Q 45.A
As part of Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20, the Department of Commerce has decided to galvanize Niryat
Bandhu Scheme and reposition it to achieve the objectives of "Skill India".
The objective of the Niryat Bandhu Scheme is to reach out to the new and potential exporters and mentor
them through orientation programmes, counselling sessions, individual facilitation, etc., for being able to
get into international trade and boost exports from India.
Q 46.B
Statement 1 is not correct. It is Sagarmala project which aims to develop port infrastructure in India.
Bharat Mala Project: The road transport and highways ministry is the implementing agency of Bharat
Mala project that envisages construction of 25,000 km of roads along India's borders, coastal areas, ports,
religious and tourist places as well as over 100 district headquarters.
The Planned Road Network will be further linked to a road network in coastal states, from Maharashtra to
Bengal which is very similar to a garland around the country.
"Bharat Mala" project will bring entire North-East in to the main stream of the country and all far-flunged
hilly areas will get connected to the country main road network. Thus statement 2 is correct.
It will also provide connectivity to huge number of ports, which will be part of the 'Sagar Mala' project
and hence complement it.
Q 47.B
Union Cabinet in September 2016 approved the establishment of a Higher Education Financing Agency
(HEFA).
It aims to fund projects for infrastructure and development of world class Labs in IITs/IIMs/NITs and
such other institutions.
The HEFA would be jointly promoted by the identified promoter and the Ministry of Human Resource
Development (MHRD) with an authorised capital of Rs 2,000 crore. The HEFA would be formed as a
SPV within a PSU Bank or Government-owned-NBFC (Promoter).
The HEFA would finance the civil and lab infrastructure projects through a 10-year loan. The principal
portion of the loan will be repaid through the internal accruals (earned through the fee receipts,
research earnings etc) of the institutions. The government would service the interest portion through the
regular Plan assistance.
The secured future flows would be securitised by the HEFA for mobilising the funds from the market. The
HEFA would also mobilise CSR funds from PSUs or corporates, which would in turn be released for
promoting research and innovation in these institutions on grant basis.
Q 48.D
The objective of setting up AEZs is to converge the efforts made, hitherto, by various central and state
government departments for increasing exports of agricultural commodities from India. The AEZ takes a
comprehensive view of a particular produce/ product located in a geographically contiguous area for the
purpose of developing and sourcing raw materials, their processing/packaging, and leading to final exports.
The benefits setting up of such zones are as follows:
Strengthening of backward linkages with a market oriented approach

Product acceptability and its competitiveness abroad as well as in the domestic market
Value addition to basic agricultural produce
Bring down cost of production through economy of scale
Better price for agricultural produce
Improvement in product quality and packaging
Promote trade-related research and development
Increase employment opportunities.
Q 49.D
FSSAI has been mandated by the FSS Act, 2006 for performing the following functions:
Framing of Regulations to lay down the Standards and guidelines in relation to articles of food and
specifying appropriate system of enforcing various standards thus notified.
Laying down mechanisms and guidelines for accreditation of certification bodies engaged in certification
of food safety management system for food businesses.
Laying down procedure and guidelines for accreditation of laboratories and notification of the
accredited laboratories.
To provide scientific advice and technical support to Central Government and State Governments in the
matters of framing the policy and rules in areas which have a direct or indirect bearing of food safety and
nutrition.
Collect and collate data regarding food consumption, incidence and prevalence of biological risk,
contaminants in food, residues of various, contaminants in foods products, identification of emerging risks
and introduction of rapid alert system.
Creating an information network across the country so that the public, consumers, Panchayats etc receive
rapid, reliable and objective information about food safety and issues of concern.
Provide training programmes for persons who are involved or intend to get involved in food
businesses.
Contribute to the development of international technical standards for food, sanitary and phyto-sanitary
standards.
Promote general awareness about food safety and food standards.

Q 50.D
Subjects covered by doha round are:

Agriculture:
The aim: More market access, eliminating export subsidies, reducing distorting domestic support, sorting out
a range of developing country issues, and dealing with non-trade concerns such as food security and rural
development.
Non-agricultural market access (NAMA)
The aim: "To reduce or as appropriate eliminate tariffs, including the reduction or elimination of high tariffs,
tariff peaks and tariff escalation (higher tariffs protecting processing, lower tariffs on raw materials) as well as
non-tariff barriers, in particular on products of export interest to developing countries".
Services
The aim: To improve market access and to strengthen the rules. Each government has the right to decide
which sectors it wants to open to foreign companies and to what extent, including any restrictions on foreign
ownership. Unlike in agriculture and NAMA, the services negotiations are not based on a "modalities" text.
Trade facilitation
The aim: To ease customs procedures and to facilitate the movement, release and clearance of goods. This is
an important addition to the overall negotiation since it would cut bureaucracy and corruption in customs
procedures and would speed up trade and make it cheaper.
Rules
These cover anti-dumping, subsidies and countervailing measures, fisheries subsidies, and regional trade
agreements.
The aim: "Clarifying and improving disciplines" under the Anti-Dumping and Subsidies agreements; and to-
clarify and improve WTO disciplines on fisheries subsidies, taking into account the importance of this sector
to developing countries.
The environment
These are the first significant negotiations on trade and the environment in the GATT/ WTO. They have two
key components:
Freer trade in environmental goods. Products that WTO members have proposed include: wind turbines,
carbon capture and storage technologies, solar panels.
Environmental agreements. Improving collaboration with the secretariats of multilateral environmental
agreements and establishing more coherence between trade and environmental rules.
Geographical indications: multilateral register for wines and spirits
This is the only intellectual property issue that is denitely part of the Doha negotiations. The objective is
to facilitate the protection of wines and spirits in participating countries.
Other intellectual property issues
Some members want negotiations on two other subjects and to link these to the register for wines and spirits.
Other members disagree.
GI "extension". Extending the higher level of protection for geographical indications beyond wines and
spirits.
Biopiracy, benefit sharing and traditional knowledge.
Dispute settlement
Aim: To improve and clarify the Dispute Settlement Understanding, the WTO agreement dealing with legal
disputes. These negotiations take place in special sessions of the Dispute Settlement Body (DSB).
Exceptionally, they are not part of the "single undertaking" of the Doha Round.

Q 51.B
Minimum Support Price (MSP) for pulses is provided through National Agricultural Cooperative
Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) and more recently through Small Farmers Agri Consortium
(SFAC). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The Department of Agriculture & Cooperation had approved the Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) as a
Central Sector Scheme, with a corpus of Rs.500 crores, to initially support market interventions for price
control of perishable agri-horticultural commodities.
Recently Government has approved creation of buffer stock of pulses through procurement at Minimum
Support Price and at market price through Price Stabilisation Fund. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 52.C
CSIR and NEERI took a joint initiative to develop a domestic multi-fuel stove: NEERDHUR, an
Improved Cook Stove (ICS) which has been developed by adopting a comprehensive approach of
technological innovations for improved stove efficiency, emission reduction and intensive stakeholder
interactions to address issues of adoption such as stove cost, stove maintenance, fuel affordability, and
availability.
The NEERI stove "NEERDHUR" addresses adoption and sustainability related challenges of ICS. It is a
multi-fuel (biomass, charcoal, agro residue etc.) stove with hybrid operation modes.
Q 53.A
Ministry of Human Resources Development, Govt. of India (MHRD), has recently launched National
Academic Depository.
NAD is a Unique, Innovative and Progressive step towards achieving Digital enablement of the Education
Records. NAD aspires to make the vision of Digital Academic Certificates for every Indian a reality. This
touches the lives of Indian youth and empowers them with Digital, Online, Trusted, Verifiable Certificates
which are accessible in a secure manner at all times.
NAD will develop an online portfolio of all education certificates across Academic Institutes (Universities /
Institutes / Boards) which can be submitted easily for employment, higher education, and loan and are easily
trusted and verified. NAD integrates directly with Boards / Universities which issue Certificates and hence
ensures Authenticity of Certificate Records.
Salient features of NAD-
A system for Issuance, Hosting, Access of Digital Certificates and Online Verification.
NAD will facilitate Academic Institutions to directly lodge the details of Academic Awards Issued in an
online manner.
The Academic Institution will include the details of the Aadhaar Number of the Student as part of the
Certificate details so that Certificate can be securely made available to the concerned student.
Certificate holders' will register on NAD system for accessing their certificate records. They will identify
themselves based on Aadhaar Verification framework provided by Unique Identification Authority of
India.
Registered students will have a Unique account on NAD System and can access all their records 24/7 in
an online secure manner.
NAD can be accessed online by all authorised verifiers (Academic Institutes admitting students for higher
education, Employers, Banks, Government organizations etc. for verification of academic awards of
prospective candidates). Verification Users would not need to approach Academic Institutes for
verification of the Certificate records; they can directly approach NAD system and lodge a Certificate
Verification request.
NAD System will notify the concerned student about the verification request and if the student confirms
to share the certificate details, the record would be made available to the verifying party for verification.
NAD system has the necessary security feature to ensure that only authorized users have access to
authorized functions

Q 54.A
CIP is the price at which central government issues food grains to state governments and UTs. (statement
1 is correct)
CIP will be much less than the economic cost incurred by the Central Government by way of
procurement, storage, transport and distribution. The difference between the economic cost and the CIP,
called the consumer subsidy, is borne by the Central Government through its annual non-Plan
budget. (statement 2 is incorrect).
Q 55.D
More than the poor or marginal farmers, the rich farmers get the benefit of subsidy. This keeps them
insulated against the competitive forces of the market and reduces the competition. Hence, 1st statement
is correct.
Subsidies encourage wasteful use of resources such as excessive use of electricity, fertilisers etc without
worrying about the cost of such usage. Hence, 2nd statement is correct.
Fertiliser subsidy such urea has led to excessive use of particular fertilisers, resulting in impaired
micronutrients in the soil. Hence, 3rd statement is correct.
Q 56.A
Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) is a price support mechanism implemented on the request of State
Governments for procurement of perishable and horticultural commodities in the event of a fall in market
prices. The Scheme is implemented when there is at least 10% increase in production or 10% decrease in
the ruling rates over the previous normal year.
Market Intervention Scheme works in a similar fashion to Minimum Support Price based procurement
mechanism for food grains, but is an adhoc mechanism.
Its objective is to protect the growers of these horticultural/agricultural commodities from making distress
sale in the event of bumper crop during the peak arrival period when prices fall to very low level. Thus it
provides remunerative prices to the farmers in case of glut in production and fall in prices.
Q 57.D
Main objectives of the Mission are:
Promote holistic growth of horticulture sector, including bamboo and coconut through area
based regionally differentiated strategies, which includes research, technology promotion, extension,
post harvest management, processing and marketing, in consonance with comparative advantage of
each State/region and its diverse agro-climatic features;
Encourage aggregation of farmers into farmer groups like FIGs/FPOs and FPCs to bring economy of
scale and scope.
Enhance horticulture production, augment farmers, income and strengthen nutritional security;
Improve productivity by way of quality germplasm, planting material and water use efficiency
through Micro Irrigation.
Support skill development and create employment generation opportunities for rural youth in
horticulture and post harvest management, especially in the cold chain sector.
Q 58.C
It is smart cities mission which aims to develop 100 cities all over the country making them citizen friendly
and sustainable. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Five hundred cities will be taken up under AMRUT. The category of cities that will be covered in the
AMRUT is given below:
All Cities and Towns with a population of over one lakh with notified Municipalities, including
Cantonment Boards (Civilian areas),
All Capital Cities/Towns of States/ UTs, not covered in 2.1(i),
All Cities/ Towns classified as Heritage Cities by MoUD under the HRIDAY Scheme,

Thirteen Cities and Towns on the stem of the main rivers with a population above 75,000 and less than 1
lakh,
Ten Cities from hill states, islands and tourist destinations (not more than one from each State).
AMRUT makes States equal partners in planning and implementation of projects, thus actualizing the spirit of
cooperative federalism.Hence statement 2 is correct.
Ministry of Urban Development is the nodal agency for the mission. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Q 59.C
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Issuing industrial licenses and formulating FDI policy come under the
purview of DIPP.
Statement 3 is not correct. The review and acceptance of the Copyright applications is controlled by the
Copyright Office, Department of Higher Education, MHRD.
The Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion was established in 1995 and has been reconstituted in the
year 2000 with the merger of the Department of Industrial Development. Earlier separate Ministries for Small
Scale Industries & Agro and Rural Industries (SSI&A&RI) and Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
(HI&PE) were created in October, 1999.
Role and functions of DIPP:
Formulation and implementation of industrial policy and strategies for industrial development in
conformity with the development needs and national objectives;
Monitoring the industrial growth, in general, and performance of industries specifically assigned to it, in
particular, including advice on all industrial and technical matters;
Formulation of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Policy and promotion, approval and facilitation of
FDI;
Encouragement to foreign technology collaborations at enterprise level and formulating policy parameters
for the same;
Formulation of policies relating to Intellectual Property Rights in the fields of Patents, Trademarks,
Industrial Designs and Geographical Indications of Goods and administration of regulations, rules made
there under ;
Administration of Industries (Development & Regulation) Act, 1951
Promoting industrial development of industrially backward areas and the North Eastern Region including
International Co-operation for industrial partnerships and
Promotion of productivity, quality and technical cooperation.
The rules regarding the granting of registration certificates and licenses are provided unde r The
Registration and Licensing of Industrial Undertaking Rules, 1952 and Notification 477(E) dated
July 25, 1991, of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion. Presently, an industrial license
is required for industries retained under compulsory licensing, the manufacturing of items reserved
for the small scale sector by larger units, and when the proposed location attracts restrictions.
Q 60.D
Under the National Action Plan on Climate Change, India has launched a dedicated National Mission on
Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) to define its strategies for climate mitigation and adaptation within the
agriculture sector.
Mission important objectives:
To make agriculture more productive, sustainable, remunerative and climate resilient by promoting
location specific Integrated/Composite Farming Systems;
To conserve natural resources through appropriate soil and moisture conservation measures;
To adopt comprehensive soil health management practices based on soil fertility maps, soil test based
application of macro & micro nutrients, judicious use of fertilizers etc.
To pilot models in select blocks for improving productivity of rainfed farming by mainstreaming rainfed
technologies refined through NICRA and by leveraging resources from other schemes/Missions like
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), Integrated
Watershed Management Programme (IWMP), RKVY etc.; and
To establish an effective inter and intra Departmental/Ministerial co-ordination for accomplishing
key deliverables of National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture under the aegis of NAPCC.
8 core missions of NAPCC are:
National Solar Mission

National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
National Water Mission
National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
National Mission for a "Green India"
National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change
Q 61.B
As a part of the Government's focus on the development of programmes that aim to directly and positively
impact peoples lives rapidly, the Ministry of Science and Technology has been at the forefront in
many such initiatives. Two Farmer-Centric initiatives of this Ministry are Biotech-KISAN and Cattle
Genomics. The Scheme is for farmers, developed by and with farmers, it empowers women, impacts
locally, connects globally, is Pan-India, has a hub-and spoke model and stimulates entrepreneurship and
innovation in farmers.
Q 62.C
Statement 1 is correct: Warehouse Receipts are documents issued by warehouses to depositors against
the commodities deposited in the warehouses, for which the warehouse is the bailee.
Warehouse Receipts may be either non-negotiable or negotiable (means transferable by simple
endorsement /signature). Negotiable warehouse receipts are transferred by endorsement and delivery; i.e.,
either the original depositor or the holder in due course (transferee) can claim the commodities from the
warehouse. NWRs can be traded, sold, swapped and used as collateral to support borrowing.
In India, the term 'negotiable warehouse receipt' is defined in Section 2(m) of the Warehousing
(Development and Regulation) Act, 2007 (WDR Act), which came into force from 25 October 2010.
WDR Act provides for issuance of Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (NWRs) by the warehouses
registered under this Act.
Statement 2 is correct: NWRs issued by registered warehouses help farmers to seek loans from banks
against NWRs and this way NWRs become a prime tool of trade. NWRs provide farmers with an
instrument that allows them to extend the sales period of modestly perishable products well beyond the
harvesting season. Negotiable warehouse receipts allow transfer of ownership of that commodity stored in
a warehouse without having to deliver the physical commodity. These receipts are issued in negotiable
form, making them eligible as collateral for loans. It is also beneficial to other stakeholders, such as,
banks, financial Institutions, insurance companies, trade, commodity exchanges as well as consumers.
NWRs can enhance banks interest in lending in respect of farm goods deposited by farmers in the
registered warehouses which can increase liquidity in the rural areas and encourage scientific warehousing
of goods.
Q 63.B
Statement 1 is not correct. The Minister of Finance who is in-charge of FIPB would consider the
recommendations of FIPB on proposals with total foreign equity inflow of and below Rs.5000 crore. The
recommendations of FIPB on proposals with total foreign equity inflow of more than Rs. 5000 crore
would be placed for consideration of Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA).
Statement 2 is correct. Sectoral cap i.e. the maximum amount which can be invested by foreign investors
in an entity, unless provided otherwise, is composite and includes all types of foreign investments, direct
and indirect, regardless of whether the said investments have been made under Schedule 1 (FDI), 2 (FII),
2A (FPI), 3 (NRI), 6 (FVCI), 9 (LLPs), 10 (DRs) and 11(Investment Vehicle) of FEMA (Transfer or Issue
of Security by Persons Resident Outside India) Regulations.
Q 64.B
The Baltic Dry Index (BDI) is an economic indicator issued daily by the London-based Baltic Exchange.
Not restricted to Baltic Sea countries, the index provides an assessment of the price of moving the major
raw materials by sea. Taking in 23 shipping routes measured on a time charter basis, the index covers dry
bulk carriers carrying a range of commodities including coal, iron ore and grain.
It is considered as a good proxy for the robustness of trade as well as an indicator of demand for shipping
services.
Q 65.D
National Mission on Agricultural Extension and Technology: The aim of the National Mission on Agricultural
Extension and Technology (NMAET) is to restructure and strengthen agricultural extension to enable delivery
of appropriate technology and improved agronomic practices to the farmers consists of four sub-missions
namely:
Agriculture extension;
Seed and planting material;
Agriculture mechanization; and
Plant protection and plant quarantine.
While four separate sub-missions are included in NMAET for administrative convenience, on the ground
these are inextricably linked to each other. The common threads running across all these are extension and
technology.
Q 66.A
Green Revolution refers to the large increase in production of food grains resulting from the use of High
Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds especially for wheat and rice. These HYV seeds came to be widely known
as the "miracle seeds".
Q 67.B
At present there are only two industries which are fully or partially reserved for the Central Government:
Atomic energy and nuclear research and related activities, i.e., mining, use, management, fuel
fabrication, export import, waste management, etc., of radioactive minerals (none of the nuclear powers in
the world have allowed the entry private sector in these activities, thus no such attempts look logical in
India, too).
Railways (many of the functions related to the railways have been allowed private entry, but still the
private sector cannot enter the sector as a full-fledged railway service provider).
The other industries require licencing. Presently there are five industries which require licencing:
Aero space and defence related electronics
Gun powder, industrial explosives and detonating fuse
Dangerous chemicals
Tobacco, cigarette and related products
Alcoholic drinks
Q 68.A
Assam-based ecologist and conservation activist Bibhuti Lahkar has become the first Asian to be awarded
the prestigious Heritage Heroes Award by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Mr Lahkar received the award for making a difference in the conservation of World Heritage sites in
challenging situations.
He has been awarded for working to save the grasslands, flora and fauna of Manas National Park area for
the past two decades and is currently engaged as Manas Landscape Administrator for Aaranyak, an NGO
working for biodiversity conservation in Northeast India.

Q 69.A
The World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO), the global body for promotion and protection of
intellectual property rights (IPR). It is a specialized agency of UN. Hence statement 1 is correct.
WIPO does not dictate or prescribe any mandatory measures.
All activities are member (country)-driven. WIPO only prepare a draft outline and tell its members what
all could be useful to include in such a (national IPR) policy. It is for the member country to accept it or
not, bearing in mind their level of development and developmental goals. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
Q 70.D
Statement 1 is correct: National Policy on Electronics launched in 2012 (NPE 12) is holistic, investor
friendly and market driven towards creating a conducive environment to attract global and domestic
companies to invest towards the growing Electronics System Design & Manufacturing (ESDM) sector in
India. It launched Electronic Manufacturing Clusters Scheme which provides 50% of the cost for
development of infrastructure and common facilities in Greenfield clusters (undeveloped or
underdeveloped area from electronic manufacturing point of view) and 75% of the cost for Brownfield
clusters (area where a significant number of existing EMC exists). Land can be made readily available in
several of the new Electronic Manufacturing Clusters being supported by the Government of India.
Currently around 30 Electronic Manufacturing clusters are notified and GoI is targeting for 200 Electronic
Manufacturing clusters by 2020.
Statement 2 is correct: It aims to give preference to domestically manufactured goods in Government
procurement. Extent of government procurement will not be less than 30%. Around 30 electronic products
are already notified under this scheme.
Statement 3 is correct: It aims to support start-ups in electronics and IP generation in the area of
electronics through Electronic Development Funds for Research & Development and Innovation.
Q 71.D
Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP): a certificate savings scheme was launched by the Government on 1st April,
1988. The scheme provides facility of unlimited investment (minimum investment 100 rupees) by way of
purchase of certificates from post offices in various denominations. Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) is a very
popular instrument among small savers, eligibility criteria to invest in Kisan Vikas Patra is possession of a
post office account. (statement 1 is not correct).
The instrument encourages people, who may have banked and unbanked savings to invest. It is a financial
service provided by the Department of Posts. (statement 2 is incorrect).
Q 72.C
Statement 1 is correct: Import substitution industrialization (ISI) is a trade and economic policy which
advocates replacing foreign imports with domestic production. The post independence industrial policy
that we adopted was closely related to this trade policy. In the first seven plans, trade was characterized by
what is commonly called an inward looking trade strategy. Technically, this strategy is called import
substitution. This policy aimed at replacing or substituting imports with domestic production.
India adopted this strategy before opening its economy in 1991.
Statement 2 is correct: In this policy the government protected the domestic industries from foreign
competition. Protection from imports took two forms: tariffs and quotas. Since, protection of domestic
industries means reducing the competition. It also restricts the import of new and advanced technology.
Thus the cost of products is generally higher. But government provided subsidies to keep the prices low.
Q 73.B
REITs are similar to mutual funds. While mutual funds provide for an opportunity to invest in equity
stocks, REITs allow one to invest in income-generating real estate assets. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
REITs raise funds from a large number of investors and directly invest that sum in income-generating real
estate properties (which could be offices, residential apartments, shopping centres, hotels and
warehouses). The trusts are listed in stock exchanges so that investors can buy units in the trust. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
Recenty, the Reserve Bank of India allowed foreign investments in Real Estate Investment Trusts
(REITs) and Infrastructure Investment Trusts (INVITS). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 74.C
United Group is a consolidated block of MPs belonging to smaller parties and independent members in
Rajya Sabha. Hence statement 1 is correct.
An association of members to form a parliamentary group shall have at least strength of fifteen members.
But in certain cases, even where the membership of an association of member is less than fifteen, it may
be given the nomenclature of a Group, under the orders of the Chairman, for the limited purpose of
functioning in the House, without according it a formal recognition as such.
The general practice is that a group which has a strength of five and more is recognized as a parliamentary
group for functioning in the House.
In 1990, six members belonging to different political parties formed a "United Parliamentary Group
(UPG)"
Members belonging to different political parties and unattached members who form an association with
distinctive designation may also be termed as a parliamentary group for the purpose of functioning in the
House, namely, allocation of time for participation in debates and allotment of contiguous seats in the
Chamber.
The group will find place in the Business Advisory Committee that decides time allotment. Thus
statement 2 is correct.
For the purpose of getting recognition, members concerned have to make a formal request to the
Chairman with the signatures of all members concerned.
Q 75.A
"Deemed Exports" refers to those transactions in which the goods supplied do not leave the country and
the payment for such supplies is received either in Indian rupees or in free foreign exchange.
For example supply of goods to Export Oriented Units (EOUs) or Software Technology Parks (STPs) or
Electronic Hardware Technology Parks (EHTPs) or Bio Technology Parks (BTP).
Q 76.A
Statement 1 is correct. For the first time the tenth plan went on to set the 'monitorable tragets' for eleven
select indicators of development for the centre as well as for the states.
Statement 2 is not correct. 'Governance' as one of the important factors of development was recognised
during the Tenth Five Year Plan. It was for the first time that the economic think tank, the Planning
Commission went to comment upon the issue of governance (which has been only of political concern till
date and the Planning Commission never thought to ponder upon such issues). In its first comment upon
it, the Planning Commission recognised governance among the most important factors to realise the
planned goals. After the World Bank report on Good Governance in the mid-1990s, the
government has been trying to sensitise the issue. Finally, it was the Tenth Plan which accepted the
immediate need for good governance.
Q 77.D
Statement 1 is incorrect. Thermal power is more polluting than hydro-electric power.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hydroelectric projects need huge investments compared to thermal
power plants. And India has a large reserves of coal supporting the thermal power generation in India.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Gestation period refers to the length of time required for the project to start
making profits. The hydro-electric projects are of high gestation period compared to thermal power
projects.
Q 78.C
Statement 1 is not correct. The disinvestment commission has defined strategic sale: "Strategic
disinvestment would imply the sale of substantial portion of the Government shareholding of a central
public sector enterprise (CPSE) of upto 50%, or such higher percentage as the competent authority may
determine, along with transfer of management control(statement 2 is correct). The idea for strategic sale
comes from the government's policy for a comprehensive approach for efficient management of
Government investment in CPSEs

Statement 3 is correct. The DIPAM (earlier Dept. Of Divestment) works under Finance Ministry and
deals with all the matters relating to management of central government investments in equity including
disinvestment of equity in central public sector undertakings.
Q 79.D
The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 was adopted in accordance with the goal of the state
controlling the commanding heights of the economy, the resolution left a category of industries for
the private sector but all the sector was kept under state control through a system of licenses.
No new industry was allowed unless a license was obtained from the government. This policy was
used for promoting industry in backward regions; it was easier to obtain a license if the industrial unit was
established in an economically backward area. In addition, such units were given certain concessions such
as tax benefits and electricity at a lower tariff. The purpose of this policy was to promote regional
equality.
Even an existing industry had to obtain a license for expanding output or for diversifying
production (producing a new variety of goods). This was meant to ensure that the quantity of goods
produced was not more than what the economy required. License to expand production was given only if
the government was convinced that the economy required the larger quantity of goods.
Q 80.B
Under the WTO Agreement on Agriculture (AoA), domestic agri-subsidies are classified into three
categories; green, blue and amber. Under WTO principles, "amber box" subsidies create trade distortions
because they encourage excessive production through farm subsidies to fertilisers, seeds, electricity and
irrigation. Within the amber box, de minimis is the minimal amount of subsidy WTO permits at 1986-88
prices. It is the minimal amounts of domestic support that are allowed even though they distort trade. The
de minimis figures for developed and developing countries are at five and 10 per cent of their agricultural
production respectively.
Q 81.D
All the given statements are correct.

Government, has taken up BharatNet, in mission mode to connect all 2,50,000 Gram Panchayats ( over
600 million rural citizens) in the country with 100 mbps broadband to bridge the rural coverage gap both
for broadband penetration and voice .The project is being implemented by Bharat Broadband Network
Limited, (BBNL), the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) created by Govt. of India for this purpose.
BharatNet will support e-governance services, telemedicine, tele-education, financial services, e-
commerce and e-entertainment and hence be benefitted to all the people in the remote areas. This would
open up new avenues for access service providers like mobile operators, cable TV Operators etc. to launch
next generation services, and spur creation of local employment opportunities encompassing e-commerce,
IT outsourcing etc. as well as services such as e-banking, e-health and e-education for inclusive growth.
This will also enable delivery of various services such as local planning, management, monitoring and
payments under Government schemes at panchayat level.
The entire project is being funded by Universal service Obligation Fund (USOF), which was set up for
improving telecom services in rural and remote areas of the country.
Q 82.D
Cheque Truncation System (CTS) is a cheque clearing system undertaken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
for faster clearing of cheques. As the name suggests, truncation is the process of stopping the flow of the
physical cheque in its way of clearing. In its place an electronic image of the cheque is transmitted with key
important data.
Following are the benefits of CTS:

Shorter clearing cycle and Superior verification and reconciliation process. (statement 2 correct)
No geographical restrictions as to jurisdiction on Operational efficiency for banks and customers.
(statement 3 correct)
Reduction in operational risk and risks associated with paper clearing.
Reduction in additional cost of movement of physical cheques. (statement 1 correct)

Q 83.D
"Hangzhou Consensus" calls on the G20 to deliver more inclusive economic growth through coordinated
macroeconomic policy, open trade and innovation. In short, it reaffirms the group's core mandate: to make
globalisation work for the benefit of all.
Q 84.C
A Scheme for Promotion of Innovation, Rural Industry and Entrepreneurship (ASPIRE) has been
launched with an objective to set up a network of technology centers, incubation centres to accelerate
entrepreneurship and also to promote start-ups for innovation and entrepreneurship in rural and agriculture
based industry with a fund of Rs.210 crores.
The planned outcomes of ASPIRE are setting up Technology Business Incubators (TBI), Livelihood
Business Incubators (LBI) and creation of a Fund of Funds for such initiatives with SIDBI.
Q 85.A
Predatory pricing is the act of setting prices low in an attempt to eliminate the competition. Predatory
pricing is illegal under anti-trust laws, as it makes markets more vulnerable to a monopoly. Companies
may engage in a variety of activities that intend to drive out competitors, such as create barriers to entry
for new competitors or unethical production methods to minimize costs.
Q 86.C
An anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on foreign imports that
it believes are priced below fair market value. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Dumping is a process where a company exports a product at a price lower than the price it normally
charges on its own home market. To protect local businesses and markets, many countries impose stiff
duties on products they believe are being dumped in their national market. Hence statement 2 is also
correct.
Q 87.A
Agreement on Subsidies and Countervailing Measures under WTO classifies all the subsidies under different
boxes as:
Green: Subsidies which are no or least market distorting includes measures decoupled from output such
as income-support payments, etc.
Amber: Those subsidies which are trade distorting and need to be curbed and actionable by trading
partners.
Blue Box: Only 'Production limiting Subsidies' under this are allowed. They cover payments based on
acreage, yield, or number of livestock in a base year.
These boxes did not consist of any IPR's or Non Tariff Barrier.
Q 88.B
The ICAR has initiated a program on "Attracting and Retaining Youth in Agriculture (ARYA)" in
selected districts through KVKs with an objective for entrepreneurial development of Youth in Rural
Areas to take up various Agriculture and allied activities. Service sector enterprises for sustainable income
and gainful employment. The identified youth are trained on entrepreneurship development skills by
providing a basket of options to start agriculture ventures for self employment.
It enables youth to establish network groups to take up resource and capital intensive activities like
processing, value addition and marketing.
Q 89.D
The Committee on Corporate Governance, headed by Shri Narayanmurthy was constituted by SEBI,
to evaluate the existing corporate governance practices and to improve these practices as the standards
themselves were evolving with market dynamics. The committees recommendations are based on the
relative importance, fairness, accountability, transparency, ease of implementation, verifiability and

enforceability related to audit committees, audit reports, independent directors, related parties, risk
management, directorships and director compensation, codes of conduct and financial disclosures.
Nachiket Mor Committee: Committee on Comprehensive Financial Services for Small Businesses and
Low Income Households: The Committee proposed the following: (i) provide each Indian resident above
the age of 18 with an individual, full-service electronic bank account, (ii) set up widely distributed
Electronic Payment Access Points offering deposit and withdrawal facilities at reasonable cost,(iii)
provide each low-income household convenient access to formally regulated providers that can provide
suitable: (a) credit products, (b) investment and deposit products, and (c) insurance and risk management
products at a reasonable price, and (iv) to provide every customer the legally protected right to be offered
suitable financial services.
P. J. Nayak Committee: To review the governance of bank boards in India. Some important
recommendations are: (i) Given poor asset quality and low productivity, either privatize PSU banks or
transform governance structure to make them efficient. (ii) Reduce government stake in PSU banks to less
than 50 percent. (iii) Remove dual structure of both Finance Ministry and RBI regulating PSU banks.
Give all regulatory authority to RBI. (iv) Improve quality of PSU bank board discussions; focus on key
areas like business strategy, financial reports, risk, and compliance. (v) The government should transfer
its stake in PSU banks to a holding company termed Bank Investment Company. (vi) Government should
reduce its stake in BIC to under 50 percent and appoint a professional management for BIC.
Q 90.C
Statement 1 is not correct. Cross breeds are more productive than indigenous cows in terms of milk
production.
Statement 2 and 3 are correct. Indigenous cattle are well known for their quality of heat tolerance and
ability to withstand extreme climatic conditions. Indigenous animals playing crucial role in the national
economy through supply of draught animal power, milk, cow dung (organic manure) and cow urine
(medicinal value).
Q 91.B
Statement 1 is incorrect. The policy of industrial licencing was aimed to encourage the establishment of
industry in backward regions. Licence was needed for both establishing a new industry and for expanding
the production. Licences were liberally issued for backward regions.
Statement 2 is correct. Industrial Policy Resolution 1977 encouraged the development of small scale
industries (SSI) with the aim of employment generation and equity. Number of items reserved for this
sector was increased (105 to 807). 'District Industries Centers' were established in every district, which are
instrumental for support to small scale industry. This agency would provide under a single roof all the
services and support required by small and rural entrepreneurs. Khadi and Village Industries Commission
was revamped.
Q 92.D
13 thematic circuits and 13 pilgrimage sites/destinations each have been identified by Ministry of Tourism
(MOT) under the new Plan Scheme Swadesh Darshan and National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and
Spiritual Augmentation Drive (PRASAD) respectively. Details are as under:
Swadesh Darshan Circuits:
North-East India Circuit, Buddhist Circuit, Himalayan Circuit, Coastal Circuit, Krishna Circuit, Desert
Circuit, Tribal Circuit, Eco Circuit, Wildlife Circuit, Rural Circuit, Spiritual Circuit, Ramayana Circuit and
Heritage Circuit.
PRASAD Circuits:
Ajmer, Amritsar, Amaravati, Dwarka, Gaya, Kamakhya, Kanchipuram, Kedarnath, Mathura, Patna, Puri,
Varanasi and Velankanni.

Q 93.D
The definition of services trade under the GATTS of WTO is of four types, depending on the territorial
presence of the supplier and the consumer at the time of the transaction.
from the territory of one Member into the territory of any other Member
(Mode 1 - Cross border trade); eg postal services.
in the territory of one Member to the service consumer of any other Member
(Mode 2 - Consumption abroad);eg Nationals of a country moved abroad as tourists, students, or patients
to consume the respective services would fall under M2.
by a service supplier of one Member, through commercial presence, in the territory of any other Member
(Mode 3 - Commercial presence); for eg service provided within a domestic market by a locally-
established affiliate, subsidiary, or representative office of a foreign-owned and - controlled company like
bank, hotel group etc.
by a service supplier of one Member, through the presence of natural persons of a Member in the territory
of any other Member
(Mode 4 - Presence of natural persons) for eg a foreign national provides a services within a country
abroad as a consultant or service provier of other company (IT professionals).
Q 94.A
Madurai Shanmukhavadivu Subbulakshmi born on 16th September, 1916 is known as a legendary

Carnatic singer. She died on 11th December, 2004. She was the first musician ever to be awarded the
Bharat Ratna as well as the first Indian musician to receive the Ramon Magsaysay Award. She received
several awards during her career such as Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan, Bharat Ratna and more. To
honour her legacy, UN (United Nations) issued a stamp on her 100th birth centenary.
Q 95.C
Recently the Friendship Motor Car Rally was flagged off from Delhi to Bangkok. The objective of the
rally is to improve connectivity by road in the South-East Asian region and to sensitize the stakeholders of
India Myanmar and Thailand Motor Vehicle Agreement regarding potential benefits of such a regulatory
regime.
Q 96.B
Statement 1 is not correct: Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP) gives an option to a company
looking for exploring hydrocarbons to select the exploration blocks on its own, without waiting for the
formal bid round from the Government.
Both Statement 2 and 3 are correct:
OALP was introduced vide a Cabinet decision of the Government dated 10.03.2016, as part of the new
fiscal regime in exploration sector called HELP, so as to enable a faster survey and coverage of the
available geographical area which has potential for oil and gas discovery.
What distinguishes OALP from New Exploration and Licensing Policy (NELP) of 1997 is that under
OALP, oil and gas acreages will be available round the year instead of cyclic bidding rounds as in NELP.
Potential investors need not have to wait for the bidding rounds to claim acreages.
Successful implementation of OALP requires building of National Data Repository on geo-scientific
data.
Q 97.D
The objective of the Agriculture Agreement is to reform trade in the sector and to make policies more market-
oriented. This would improve predictability and security for importing and exporting countries alike.
WTO Agreement on Agriculture provisions and rules relate to:
Market Access: removing tariff and non-tariff barriers
Domestic support: price support to farmers in the form of MSP

Export subsidies: subsidies provided for export of agri-products.
Hence all the statements are correct.
There is a separate Agreement on Sanitary and Phytosanitary measures.
The Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (the "SPS Agreement") entered
into force with the establishment of the World Trade Organization on 1 January 1995. It concerns the
application of food safety and animal and plant health regulations. It allows countries to set their own
standards. But it also says regulations must be based on science.
Q 98.D
Statement 1 is correct:This is first ever policy for Capital Goods sector with a clear objective of
increasing production of capital goods from Rs.2,30,000 crore in 2014-15 to Rs.7,50,000 crore in 2025
and raising direct and indirect employment from the current 8.4 million to 30 million.
Statement 2 is correct: The policy envisages increasing exports from the current 27 percent to 40 percent
of production. It will increase the share of domestic production in Indias demand from 60 percent to
80 percent thus making India a net exporter of capital goods.
Statement 3 is correct: The policy also aims to facilitate improvement in technology depth across
sub-sectors, increase skill availability, ensure mandatory standards and promote growth and capacity
building of MSMEs. The Policy will help in realising the vision of Building India as the World class
hub for Capital Goods. It will also play a pivotal role in overall manufacturing as the pillar of
strength to the vision of Make in India. The objectives of the policy will be met by the Department
of Heavy Industry in a time bound manner through obtaining approval for schemes as per the roadmap of
policy interventions.
Q 99.A
World Bank is all set to rank cities globally on a "ease of living" index. The index is being launched
keeping in mind that as cities grow and expand, the ease of living becomes an important parameter. The
index could include categories on social inclusion, cost of living, public transport, housing, education,
health, environment-friendliness, crime/safety, governance and corruption.
Q 100.D
National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) : - Envisaged under National Manufacturing Policy
NIMZs would be managed by SPVs (Special Purpose Vehicles) which would ensure master planning of the
Zone; pre-clearances for setting up the industrial units to be located within the zone and undertake such other
functions as specified in the various sections of this policy.
To enable the NIMZ to function as a self governing and autonomous body, it will be declared by the State
Government as an Industrial Township under Article 243 Q(c) (Part IXA) of the Constitution.Hence
Statement 2 is correct.
Objectives of NIMZ:
To increase the sectoral share of manufacturing in GDP to 25% by 2022.Hence Statement 1 is

correct.
To double the current employment level in the sector.
To enhance global competitiveness of the sector
Andhra Pradesh is the first state to set India's first national investment and manufacturing zone.Hence
Statement 3 is correct.
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VISIONIAS

ANSWERS & EXPLANATION

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

Bharat Electronics Limited

Airport Authority of India is a Miniratna. Hence A is the correct answer.

The core infrastructure elements in a smart city would include:

The funding support from MUDRA are of four types:

3 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

Hence all the given functions are performed by Mudra Bank.

4 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

Indian Enterprise Development Service (IEDS):

Case of India's defence sector:

6 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

Other provisions of the "Housing for All in Rural Area Scheme":

Salient Features of the Model APMC Act:

7 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

8 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

With regards to appeals:

Key highlights of the new IPR policy are as follows:

9 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

All the given statements are correct.

Various recent steps taken by Government for labor reforms:

10 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

11 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

The benefits setting up of such zones are as follows:

Strengthening of backward linkages with a market oriented approach

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Subjects covered by doha round are:

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Salient features of NAD-

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Main objectives of the Mission are:

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Role and functions of DIPP:

Mission important objectives:

8 core missions of NAPCC are:

National Solar Mission

19 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

Statement 1 is incorrect. Thermal power is more polluting than hydro-electric power.

21 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

All the given statements are correct.

Following are the benefits of CTS:

22 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

23 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

Swadesh Darshan Circuits:

24 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

Madurai Shanmukhavadivu Subbulakshmi born on 16th September, 1916 is known as a legendary

WTO Agreement on Agriculture provisions and rules relate to:

Market Access: removing tariff and non-tariff barriers

Domestic support: price support to farmers in the form of MSP

25 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

Hence all the statements are correct.

There is a separate Agreement on Sanitary and Phytosanitary measures.

To increase the sectoral share of manufacturing in GDP to 25% by 2022.Hence Statement 1 is

Copyright by Vision IAS

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