Morphopathology_4th_Exam_Teste_S.F.

1. Which of the following statements is true about seminoma

a. It is a benign tumor of the seminiferous tubules
b. It is a radioresistant tumor
c. It is most commonly affects adults below the age 30 years
d. All of the above
e. None of the above +

2. Which of the following statements is true about Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

a. It predominantly affects the peripheral prostatic zone
b. It very commonly changes into prostatic carcinoma
c. Untreated cases may be complicated by renal failure +
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

3. Which of the following statement is true about prostatic carcinoma?

a. Most cases are estrogen dependent tumor
b. Most cases arise in peripheral prostatic zone
c. Gleason combined grade 3+1 (total 4) means high grade tumor
d. All of above +
e. None of above

4. Which of the following statements about senile prostatic hyperplasia is incorrect?

a. It occurs in about 90% of males over 70 years old
b. Typically involves the periuretheral region of prostate +
c. Hyperplasia of both glands and stroma is seen histologically
d. It is a risk factor for prostatic carcinoma +
e. It may lead to urination disturbances

5. The macroscopic pattern of prostatic hyperplasia includes the following EXCEPT:

a. Increased in size
b. Nodular
c. Dense consistence
d. Brown colored+
e. Contains fibrous tissue filaments

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6. The complications in Prostatic hyperplasia are the following EXCEPT:

a. Urine retention
b. Urinary bladder wall atrophy+
c. Urinary bladder wall hypertrophy
d. Pyelonephritis
e. Cystitis

7. Prostate cancer most frequent histologic types are:

a. Epidermoid carcinoma
b. Transitional cell carcinomas
c. Adenocarcinoma+
d. Nondifferentiated carcinoma+
e. All of them

8. The secondary Syphilis is characterized by the followings:

a. Macular rash +
b. Syphilitic gummas
c. Langhans cells
d. Condyloma lata +
e. Condylomas in to the intima

9. The tertiary Syphilis is characterized by the followings:

a. Macular rash
b. Syphilitic gummas +
c. Neurosyphilis +
d. Aortitis +
e. Condyloma lata

10. Which aortic segment is most common involved in Syphilis?

a. Ascent +
b. Descendent
c. Thoracic
d. Abdominal
e. Femoral

11. Congenital syphilis is characterized by the followings:

a. Macular rash
b. Syphilitic gumas
c. Hutchinson teeth +
d. Eight nerve deafness +
e. Condyloma lata

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12. Which type of pneumonia can develop in congenital syphilis?

a. Lobar
b. Interstitial
c. Necrotic
d. Alba +
e. Bronchopneumonia

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1. Which of the followings is most commonly associated with an early complete hydatidiform
mole?
a. Intravillous cistern formation and scalloping of villous surface
b. Polarization of trophoblastic column
c. Grape-like vesicles on gross examination
d. Mild circumferential trophoblastic hyperplasia on the villous surface +
e. An in situ choriocarcinoma

2. Which one of the following endometrial lesions is associated with the highest risk of
developing endometrial carcinoma?
a. Chronic endometritis
b. Complex hyperplasia with atypia+
c. Complex hyperplasia without atypia
d. Simple hyperplasia
e. Squamous metaplasia

3. Uterus mucosa morphologic patterns in glandular hyperplasia include the following:

a. Purulent inflammation
b. Thickens of the mucosal layer+
c. Polyposis+
d. Stromal hyperplasia+
e. Ulcerations

4. Female and male genital tract inflammatory disease include the following EXCEPT:
a. Endometritis
b. Orchitis
c. Cystitis+
d. Prostatitis
e. Salpingitis

5. Acute endometritis complications are:

a. Chronic pyelonephritis
b. Purulent endometritis+
c. Uterus body cancer
d. Purulent mastitis
e. Regional thrombophlebitis+

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6. Morphologic pattern in chronic endometritis includes the following EXCEPT:

a. Inflammatory infiltration
b. Epithelial desquamation and proliferation
c. Glands atrophy
d. Significant hemorrhage+
e. Cysts formation

7. Cervix Cancer risk factors are:

a. Endocervicosis+
b. Traumas
c. Epithelial dysplasia+
d. Purulent inflammation of the tube
e. Cervical polyps+

8. Uterus Cancer risk factors are:

a. Endocervicosis
b. Endometrial polyps+
c. Acute endometritis
d. Glandular hyperplasia of the endometrium+
e. Chronic endometritis

9. Precancerous changes in breast cancer

a. Traumas
b. Benign glandular dysplasia+
c. Mastitis
d. Intraductal papilloma+
e. Cutaneous papilloma

10. Breast Carcinoma lymphogenic metastases appear in the following lymph node EXCEPT:
a. Fossa axillary lymph node
b. Anterior chest lymph node
c. Occipital lymph node+
d. Subclavicular lymph node
e. Parasternal lymph node

11. Which statement concerning breast cancer is correct?

a. High grade tumors are well differentiated
b. Poorly differentiated tumors have positive lymph nodes when they are diagnosed
c. Low grade tumors have better prognosis +
d. For grading of breast carcinoma, the following information are used: nuclear grade, tubule
formation and nodal status
e. All of the above

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12. Which of the following statements is true about the partial type of vesicular mole:
a. The chromosomal pattern is often diploid (46XX or 46XY)
b. Fetus is often absent
c. The condition is commonly transformed into invasive mole
d. All chorionic villi are transformed into vesicles
e. None of the above +

13. Which of the following conditions is true about mammary sclerosing adenosis:
a. This sclerotic mammary lesion follows suppurative mastitis
b. It may be clinically and microscopically mistaken for fibroadenoma
c. It can be differentiated from invasive cancer by the presence of myoepithelial cells +
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

14. Which of the following benign mammary neoplasms is usually huge-sized?

a. Intracanalicular fibroadenoma
b. Pericanalicular fibroadenoma
c. Phylloides tumor +
d. Dark papilloma
e. None of the above

15. Which of the following mammary neoplasms has the highest incidence of bilaterality?
a. Lobular carcinoma +
b. Medullary carcinoma
c. Pagets disease
d. Mucoid carcinoma
e. Apocrine carcinoma

16. Which of the following types of mammary carcinoma may have a good prognosis?
a. Juvenile secretory carcinoma
b. Medullary carcinoma
c. Tubular or mucoid carcinoma occurring in a pure form (not mixed with other type)
d. All of the above +
e. None of the above

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17. Which of the following conditions does not indicate poor prognosis of breast carcinoma?
a. Inflammatory carcinoma
b. Skin invasion
c. Microcalcifications +
d. Cancer en cuirasse
e. Nipple retraction

18. Which of the following is not a risk factor for mammary carcinoma?
a. Multiparity +
b. Obesity
c. Late menopause
d. Positive family history
e. Early menarche

19. Which of the following sites shows the highest incidence of breast cancer involvement?
a. Lower outer quadrant of the breast
b. Upper outer quadrant of the breast +
c. Lower inner quadrant of the breast
d. Upper inner quadrant of the breast
e. Central compartment of the breast

20. Which of the following mammary lesions is most liable to be mistaken histologically for
carcinoma?
a. Phylloides tumor
b. Sclerosing adenosis +
c. Gynecomastia
d. Fibrocystic disease
e. Mammary duct ectasia

21. Which of the following statement is true about cervical carcinoma?

a. The endophytic types have better prognosis than the exophytic types
b. The risk of cancer development is higher in virgins than non-virgins
c. The patients may die from renal failure +
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

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22. Which of the following statement is true about cervical erosion?

a. This is superficial ulceration representing an early manifestation of cervical cancer +
b. This is cervical inflammation associated with epithelial damage and bleeding
c. This is cervical ulceration as result of puerperal sepsis
d. This is eversion of cervix as a result of inflammation and fibrosis
e. None of the above

23. Estrogenic hormones are synthesized in:

a. The theca tissue of mature follicles +
b. Granulosa cells of follicles +
c. Cells of the reticular zone of the adrenal cortex +
d. Chromophobe pituitary cells
e. The epiphysis

24. Diseases arising after pregnancy include:

a. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Placental polyp +
c. A miscarriage
d. Generic uterine infection +
e. Chorionepithelioma+

25. Ectopic pregnancy causes may be:

a. Inflammatory disease of the fallopian tubes
b. Scarring of the fallopian tube bends
c. Developmental abnormalities of the fallopian tubes
d. Tumor of the fallopian tubes
e. All of the above +

26. The following situations are obligatory precancerous:

a. Atypical glandular hyperplasia of the endometrium +
b. Focal adenomatous endometrial +
c. Adenomatous polyps endometrial +
d. Adenocarcinoma of the uterine body
e. Atrophic endometritis

27. During pregnancy can occur:

a. Preeclampsia+
b. Placental polyp
c. Premature birth +
d. Hydatiform mole +
e. Testicular cancer

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 Morphopathology_4th_Exam_Teste_S.F. A

28. Chronic endometritis is characterized by:

a. Lymph cells infiltration +
b. Plasma cells infiltration+
c. Sclerosis +
d. Exclusively neutrophil cells infiltration
e. Leukemic infiltration

29. The following are tubal pregnancy types:

a. Ampullar +
b. Intramural
c. Isthmic +
d. Interstitial +
e. Ecstratubal

30. Postpartum infection can be manifested as:

a. Endometritis
b. Endomyometritis
c. Sepsis
d. Preeclampsia
e. Horionepitelioma

31. Diseases of the female genital organs are classified into the following groups:
a. Inflammatory +
b. Immunopatologic
c. Dishormonal +
d. Tumoral +
e. Compensatory -adaptive

32. Tubal pregnancy outcomes include:

a. Complete tubal abortion +
b. Incomplete tubal abortion +
c. The fallopian tube rupture +
d. Purulent salpingitis
e. Eclampsia

33. The diagnostic features of tubal pregnancy are:

a. The presence of chorionic villi in the tube +
b. The presence of decidual tissue in the tube +
c. Presence of fetal tissue in a tube +
d. The presence of purulent salpingitis
e. The presence of developmental anomalies in the tube

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 Morphopathology_4th_Exam_Teste_S.F. A

34. Horyonepithelioma may develop as a result of:

a. Hydatidiform mole +
b. Endometritis
c. True cervical erosion
d. Pseudo- erosion
e. Adenomatous polyp

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 Morphopathology_4th_Exam_Teste_S.F. A

1. Kimatogenezis period is classified into:

a. Progenesis
b. Blastogenesis +
c. Embryogenesis +
d. Early and late fetal period +
e. All of the above

2. Duration of blastogenesis is:

a. Two weeks +
b. three weeks
c. four weeks
d. five weeks
e. Six weeks

3. Acording to the body extention, malformations are classified into:

a. Isolated +
b. Systemic +
c. Primary
d. Multiple +
e. Secondary

4. The central nervous system defects include:

a. Infarction
b. Acrania +
c. Microgyria +
d. Hydrocele
e. Piocefalia

5. Perinatal periodis classified into:

a. Antenatal +
b. Intrapartum+
c. Early neonatal+
d. Late neonatal
e. Prenatal

6. The following are the prenatal periods:

a. Progenesis
b. Blastogenesis +
c. Embryogenesis+
d. Fetogenesis +
e. Neonatal period

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7. The embryopathies are characterized by the following statements:

a. Missing of the organs+
b. Incomplete development of the organs+
c. Shape modifications+
d. Diplopagus
e. Heteropagus

8. Congenital malformations of the nervous system are:

a. Anencephaly+
b. Microcephaly+
c. Cerebral herniations+
d. Meningitis
e. Epispadias

9. Congenital malformations of the heart are:

a. Ventricular septal defect+
b. Tetralogy of Fallot+
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Mitral stenosis
e. Atrial septal defect

10. The following cardiac malformations are cyanotic:

a. Ventricular septal defect
b. Tetralogy of Fallot +
c. Transposition of the grate vessels +
d. Decstrocardia
e. Aortic coarctation

11. The following cardiac malformations are pale:

a. Atrial septal defect+
b. Ventricular septal defect+
c. Tetralogy of Fallot
d. Trilogy of Fallot
e. Transposition of the grate vessels

12. Complete absence of an organ is:

a. Agenesis +
b. Atresia
c. Dysplasia
d. Hyperplasia
e. Metaplasia

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13. Hypoplasia is:

a. Complete absence of an organ
b. Absence of an opening
c. Incomplete development or under- development of an organ with decreased numbers of
cells+
d. Overdevelopment of an organ associated with increased numbers of cells
e. None of the above

14. The following signs are related to prematurity:

a. A little mass and length of child (less than 2,5 kg and 47 centimeters)
b. Superfluous fluff is saved, especially on a shoulder girdle and superior portion of the
back
c. Absence or weak expressed of ossification nuclei
d. Nose and ears cartilages mildness
e. All of the above +

15. The following signs are related to overmaturity:

a. Dryness, shelling, partial skin maceration+
b. General hypotrophy+
c. Presence of ossify nucleuses of proximal epiphysis of tibia and humeral bones+
d. Absence or weak expressed of ossification nuclei
e. Presence of malformations

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 Morphopathology_4th_Exam_Teste_S.F. A

1. Differentiation of a low grade astrocytoma from glioblastoma multiforme is based on:

a. Absence of necrosis in glioblastoma multiforme
b. Presence of necrosis in glioblastoma multiforme +
c. Presence of necrosis in a well differentiated astrocytoma
d. Presence of vascular proliferation in a well differentiated astrocytoma
e. Presence of vascular proliferation in a glioblastoma multiforme +

2. The most common brain tumor in adults is:

a. Low grade astrocytoma+
b. Meningioma
c. Metastatic carcinoma
d. Glioblastoma muliforme
e. Oligodendroglioma

3. The following tumor(s) occurs commonly in the ventricles and in the hilum
terminale of the spinal cord:
a. Pilocytic astrocytoma
b. Hemangioblastoma
c. Oligodendroglioma
d. Meduloblastoma
e. Ependimoma +

4. A brain tumor which sometimes contain psammoma bodies is (are):

a. Hemangioblastoma
b. Meningioma +
c. Germ cell tumor
d. Primary brain lymphoma
e. Pineoblastoma

5. The following list of primary malignancies accounts for the majority of metastatic
brain tumors:
a. Lung, breast, melanoma +
b. Tests, ovary, melanoma
c. Lung, prostate, uterus
d. Pancreas, melanoma, uterus
e. Salivary glands, ovary, testis

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6. What is the most common primary intracranial tumor in adults?

a. Meningioma +
b. Ependimoma
c. Pineoblastoma
d. Craniopharingioma
e. Glioblastoma multiforme

7. The following tumor(s) contain perivascular pseudorosettes:

a. Ependimoma +
b. Oligodendroglioma
c. Glioblastoma multiforme
d. Meningioma
e. Pilocitic astrocitoma

8. The following statements is/are true regarding oligodendroglioma:

a. Account for less than 15% of gliomas
b. Usually a slow growing tumor, has better prognosis than astrocytoma
c. May be circumscribed and usually contain calcification
d. Has a predilection for white matter and histologically tumor cells have a "fried egg"
appearance due to surrounding by a clear cytoplasmic halo
e. All of the above +

9. The following tumors are considered to be glial:

a. Meningioma
b. Craniopharingioma
c. Astrocytoma +
d. Oligodendroglioma +
e. Ependimoma +

10. The following tumors are considered to be neuronal:

a. Meningioma
b. Meduloblastoma
c. Gangliocytoma+
d. Ganglioglioma +
e. Astrocytoma

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 Morphopathology_4th_Exam_Teste_S.F. A

1. Depending on the septic focus location we distinguish following types:

a. Septicemia
b. Hroniosepsis
c. Tonzillogennic +
d. Uterine +
e. Otogenic+

2. Sepsis types according to entry of infection:

a. Therapeutic
b. Surgical
c. Gynecologic
d. Umbilical
e. All of the above +

3. The so-called peripheral signs of septic endocarditis include:

a. Liebmann lesions+
b. Vakez -Osler syndrome
c. Osler nodes +
d. Dubois abscesses
e. Janeway lesions +

4. Clinical Signs of Septic Shock are the following:

a. Myocardial Depression+
b. Altered Vasculature+
c. Altered Organ Perfusion+
d. Altered lymph out flow
e. Melanosis

5. The following changes characterize septic shock:

a. Imbalance of O2 delivery and Consumption+
b. Metabolic (Lactic) Acidosis+
c. Aschoff bodies
d. Hemorrhagic infarction
e. All of the above

6.What inflammation type underlies anthrax carbuncle?

a. Serous
b. Purulent
c. Hemorrhagic +
d. Putrid
e. Catarrhal

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7.In septic (bacterial) endocarditis is observed:

a. Acute verrucous endocarditis
b. Chronic verucous endocarditis
c. Polypous ulcerative endocarditis +
d. Ethyl fibroplastic parietal endocarditis with eosinophilia
e. Diffuse endocarditis

8. Which of these organisms can cause sepsis:

a. Bacteria +
b. Buterflay
c. Animal parasites
d. Viruses
e. Mycobacterium+

9. Thefollowing adrenal glands change develop in the umbilical sepsis:

a. Cortical or medullary cell hyperplasia
b. Necrosis +
c. Hemorrhage +
d. Delipidization +
e. Depigmentation

10.The following change may occur in the brain in sepsis:

a. Swelling of the brain tissue +
b. Amyloidosis
c. Purulent inflammation +
d. Degeneration of nerve cells +
e. Multiple aneurysms of the arteries

11. Which of the following organisms is the MOST COMMON cause of nosocomial
bloodstream infections?
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis +
b. Escherichia coli
c. Enterococcus faecalis
d. Clostridium perfringens
e. Peptostreptococcus

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12. Which of the following are TRUE of sepsis?

a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) exhibits widespread clotting in capillaries.
b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) results in hemorrhage.
c. Clinical trials of patients with severe septis have shown positive results with heparin
treatment to treat microembolisms.
d. A and B +
e. All of the above

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