HEMATOLOGY
1. Variation in shapes of RBC: Poikilocytosis
2. Variation in sizes of RBC: Anisocytosis
3. Leukoerythroblastosis is not associated with
______: Erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN)
4. Procedure employs blood w/ EDTA diluted with
0.105 M NaCitrate or NSS: Modified Westergren
5. What is the T-cell growth factor and mast cell
activating factor effect in stimulating erythroid
and myeloid proliferation: Interleukin-9 or IL-9
6. Largest of all hematopoietic stem cells: Polyploid
megakaryocyte
7. Which among RBC has figure of 8, loop shaped:
Cabot rings
8. Which among cells is the earliest erythroid
recognizable precursor: pronormoblast
9. Which of the ff mononuclear cells are w/o specific
cytoplasmic granules: Lymphocytes
10. Which ff cell is larger than monocyte w/ irregular
cell membrane with blunts and pseudopods:
Megakaryoblasts
11. Common precursor for granulocytes, monocytes,
erythrocytes and megakaryocytes: Myeloid stem
cells
12. Rbc thinner than normal, peripheral rim of
hemoglobin w/ dark Hgb containing area:
Leptocytes
13. Disintegrating RBC: Schistocytes
14. Cell that has deep purple and paler nucleus which
often nearly hidden by granules: Basophils
15. Last nucleated cell: Orthochromic Normoblast
16. Hematopoietic stem cells also known as CFU-GEM
expresses: CD34/CD33
17. Promotes differentiation and maturation of
megakaryocytes: Thrombopoietin
18. Large cell w/ single eccentric nucleus has reticular
chromatin and prominent nucleolus: Osteoblast
19. Nutritional deficiency of Cobalamine, due to
failure of gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factors:
Pernicious Anemia
20. During fetal life, all Rbc produce HbF, in adults,
0.2-7% are HbF: TRUE
21. Reticulocytopenia and ABN RBC are primary
findings, ABN granulocyte are rare and less than
1% blast cells: Refractory Anemia
22. Acute Myelocytic Leukemia seen in: M4
23. Earliest Thrombopoiesis w/ overlapping lobe and
small amount of basophilic cytoplasm:
Megakaryoblast
24. Degrades fibrin clot and retract fibrinogen forms
FDP: Plasmin
25. Content of eosinophilic specific granules toxic to
parasite that neutralize heparin and release
histamine: Major Basic Protein
26. Pathway using 2,3-BPG: Rapaport-Luebering
Shunt
27. Cooper Cruick Shank method is for: Absolute
Basophil Count
28. Result of PT & PTT mixing studies: mixed plasma
is normal, after 1-2 hrs it is prolonged, suggestive
of : Presence of FVIII inhibitor
29. Lab findings of DIC: (increase D-dimer,
increase PT/PTT, decrease platelet count)
30. Conjugated protein serves as a vehicle of oxygen
and carbon dioxide: Hemoglobin
31. Absorbance of spectrophotometer for
determining Hgb using HCN: 540nm
32. Quantitative measure of Carboxy Hgb: Either
(Differential spectrophotometer, gas
chromatography)
33. Problem solving: memorize corrected WBC count
34. Young cells w/ residual RNA polychromatophilic
RBC in air dried film stained with __?: Brilliant
Cresyl Blue and New Methylene Blue
35. Bilobed structure which recognized by size and
bright red granules: Eosinophil
36. Abundant blue cytoplasm, eccentric round
nucleus w/ light vacuoles w/ well defined golgi
zone adjacent to nucleus: Plasma Cell
37. 1 g of Hgb carries ___ mg of Iron: 3.47
38. Reveals pancytopenia, decrease hematopoietic
cell lines resulting to low all blood levels:
Aplastic Anemia
39. Genetically impairment of globin synthesis:
Thallasemia
40. Which of the ff also called CSF-1: Monocyte
macrophage CSF
41. Fastest Hgb at pH 8.4 in alkaline medium: HbH
42. Hgb not denatured by alkaline solution: HbF
43. Variety of Acute leukemia predominant blasts
cannot classify using morphologic, cytochemical,
ultrastructural and immunologic or DNA analysis:
Acute undifferentiated Leukemia
44. Normal value of reticulated platelet count: 3-20%
45. Term used if RBC is hypochromic and
normochromic: Anisochromia
46. This are the Pro-Tcell markers except? CD3, CD 7,
CD2, CD17
47. Which of the ff refers to total red cell mass:
absolute polycythemia vera
48. Normal Retic count at birth? 3-7%
49. Not required for RBC production: Folic Acid, Iron,
Protein or Vitamin E
50. Rare autosomal dominant shows pale blue
inclusion resembling Dohle bodies: May Hegglin
Anomaly
51. Autosomal dominant that failure normal
segmentation of neutrophils: Pelger Huet
Anomaly
52. AML w/ minimal differentiation: M0
53. A molecule of Hgb is consist of ___ polypeptide
chain: 2
54. A mixture of oxidized denatured Hgb during
oxidative hemolysis: SulfHgb
55. Principle involved in automated counting:
Electric Impedance
56. Measures fibrin clot from activation of F7 to fibrin
stabilizing clot: PT
57. Lymphoreticular neoplasm involved in skin:
mycosis fungoides
58. Global test adequacy of primary hemostasis:
template BT
59. Activator that initiates the fibrinolysis and convert
plasminogen to plasmin: t-PA
60. Primary test in diagnosis of hairy cell leukemia:
ACP
61. Decrease function of F2, 7, 10 (Protein C, Protein
S): warfarin
62. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients with
deficiencies in which factor in intrinsic factor:
F8,9, 11, 12
63. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients with
deficiencies in which factor in extrinsic factor: F7
64. Cofactor of required in activation of F2 by
activated F8: F5
65. Diluting fluid in platelet count in phase contrast:
1%NH4Oxalate
66. In phase contrast microscope, how many squares
in platelets in improved neubauer: 25 small
squares
67. Light angle scatter in laser-based cell counting
chamber is used to measure: cytoplasmic
granularity
68. Patients with infectious mononucleosis, this blood
cell is infected: B-lymphocyte
69. Inhibits factor 2,9,7,11,10, enhances the activity
of anti-thrombin as natural anticoagulant:
Heparin
70. Which of the ff not function of spleen as
hematopoietic origin: secretion of mitogen
71. Immature non-nucleated RBC with RNA granules:
Reticulocytes
72. Not associated with sickle cell: promotes spleen
destruction
73. Tissue extract with phospholipid and tissue factor
that activates F7 in extrinsic pathway:
thromboplastin
74. Use to connote the appearance of neoplastic cell
w/ non-hodgkins lymphoma: lymphosarcoma
cell leukemia
75. This altered of immune response against host
own immune system that produce Antibody
against itself: AutoImmune Hemolytic Anemia
76. Useful in identifying w/ Beta-Thalassemia trait
that elevated upto 7%: HbA2
77. Chronic progressive panmyelosis characterized
by triad findings vary in fibrosis in the marrow,
splenomegaly and leukoerythroblastic anemia:
Myelofibrosis w/ myeloid metaplasia
78. Sensitive test in folate or cobalamine deficiency.
Measures ability of marrow cells in vitro to utilize
deoxyuridine in DNA synthesis: deoxyuridine
suppression test
79. Life span of basophil in bone marrow: 7 days
80. Hematopoiesis begins at the 6th week of fetal life:
Liver
81. Majority of iron bound to _____ which has capacity
to bind 331 mg of iron/dl: Transferrin
82. Abnormal RBC due to abnormal radium potassium
ratio in the RBC: Stomatocytes
83. F8 deficiency: Hemophilia A
84. Average concentration HgB in a given RBC:
MCHC
85. Not considered myeloproliferative disorder: AML
86. Cytokines produced by macrophages and kupffer
cell: IL-18
87. HgB constituent that may degraded and return to
amino acid pool: Globin
88. Last stage of granulocytic that capable of mitosis:
Myelocyte
89. Production of azurophilic granules:
Promyelocyte
90. Water soluble complex of ferric salt and protein:
Ferritin
91. Platelet survival: 8-11 days(in vivo) 3-5
days(in vitro)
92. Provides initial hemostasis due to injury: platelet
plug
93. Condition of panmyelosis with increase
megakaryocytes, granulocytes, erythrocytes:
Polycythemia vera
94. General measure in intrinsic and common
pathway: PTT
95. General measure in extrinsic and common
pathway: PT
96. An 18- Kda produce by activated T-cell and mast
cell: IL-4
 MICROBIOLOGY
1. Cell wall that has large amount lipids:
Mycobacterium
2. Characteristic of lactose (-) citrate (-) urease (-),
non motile, lysine decarboxylase (-): Shigella
dysenteriae
3. Primary test to differentiate S. aureus and S.
epidermidis: Coagulase Test
4. Helicobacter pylori is associated with: ulcer of
gastric mucosa
5. Campylobacter is associated with:
gastroenteritis
6. Pulmonary form of anthrax is known as:
Woolsorters Disease
7. Eatons Agent is another name of what genus:
Mycoplasma pneumonia
8. Organism loss of ability to synthesize
peptidoglycan cell wall: L-form
9. Freis Test is for: Lymphogranuloma venereum
10. Method of typing Klebsiella is use in clinical lab:
K antigen
11. Susceptible in ethylhydrocupreine HCl is test for:
Streptococcus pneumoniae
12. Species that is soluble to Na-Desoxycholate:
Streptococcus pneumonia
13. Positive to gelatin reaction: Serratia
liquefaciens
14. Positive to malonate reaction: Enterobacter
aerogenes
15. Species that have buff(light brown) colony:
Flavobacterium meningosepticum
16. Strains of Mycoplasma that produce small
colonies required urea and cholesterol for
growth: T-strain
17. Selective medium in recovery of Vibrio cholera
from stool: TCBS and alkaline peptone water
18. Voges-Proskauer test detects which end product
of glucose fermentation: acetoin
19. pH where methyl red test is +: pH 4.5
20. Genera that is positive to Phenylalanine
Deaminase: Morganella, Proteus,
Providencia
21. Media used to isolate Brucella for blood and bone
marrow as specimen: Biphasic-Castaneda
with Brucella broth
22. Agent for conjunctivitis or known as pink eye:
Hemophilus influenzae biotype III
23. Majority of H. influenza infection are caused by
capsular serotype: b
24. Which of the ff cause Lyme Disease: Borrelia
burgdorferi
25. Using Loefflers methylene blue, it shows various
letter shapes and metachromatic granules, it is
most likely: Corynebacterium sp.
26. Which Clostridium sp. Can cause
pseudomembranous colitis: C. difficile
27. Antimicrobial susceptibility test for anaerobes:
Microtube broth dilution
28. Mycobacterium that can grown in MacConkey
Agar: M. chelonae-fortuitum complex
29. Bacitracin test is susceptible which group of
streptococcus: Group A
30. Mycobacterial catalase test differs from catalase
test from S. aureus as it uses the reagent: 30%
H2O2
31. Which of the ff is best rapid non cultural test for
G. vaginalis with vaginosis: 10% KOH
32. Sulfone-Dapsone Test used to treat: Leprosy
33. Concentration of Ca and Mg in susceptibility
medium is significant when testing the
susceptibility of P. aeruginosa to: Gentamicin
34. Which antibiotic has cell wall inhibition:
Vancomycin
35. Which antibiotic act inhibit protein synthesis:
Gentamicin
36. Heat shocking of an original culture may be
needed for the recovery of : Anaerobic
sporeforming G(+) bacilli
37. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is: either
toxigenic or non-toxigenic
38. Listeria monocytogenes is: catalase +, motile,
VP +, dont produce acid from mannitol
39. Confirmation of diagnosis of diphtheria, it is
essential to: demonstrate toxin production
40. Pasteurization is process of in which: total
bacterial count is lowered by heating at 62
degree Celsius for 30 mins.
41. Paper strip for H2S producer is impregnated with:
Lead acetate
42. Flagellar staining technique: Leifson
43. Porphyrin test is for identification of:
Haemophilus sp.
44. Selective Enrichment broth: Selenite broth
45. Positive result of Arylsulfatase: Red
46. Infectious jaundice is one symptoms of Weil
Disease : leptospirosis
47. Infectious body of Chlamydia: Elementary body
48. Which of the ff grow in artificial medium:
Rickettsia typhi, Chlamydia trachomata, R.
rickettsii, Rochalimaea Quintana
49. Chlamydospore structures seen in: Coccidiodes,
Mucor, Microspores, Candida albicans
50. Fungi where mycelium lacks septaceous portion
is: Coccidiodes, Trichophyton, Phizopus, Candida
sp.
51. Fungi of dermataceous can be obtain from skin
by what method: scrap tissue from the
infected area
52. Germ tube test +: Candida albicans
53. Fungi grows into 2 different forms: Dimorphic
fungi
54. All genera are dermatophytes except:
Sporothrix
55. Presence of encapsulated fungi in CSF:
Cryptococcus neoformans
56. Common is Gardeners or Rose Fever: Sporothrix
57. Tissue phase of Paracoccidiodes braziliense is:
yeast cell with multipolar budding around
the periphery
58. Chickenpox: Varicella Zoster virus
59. Human herpes Type6: Roseola
60. When should pregnant women concern in Rubella
infection: 1st trimester
61. Steps involved in replication of virus except:
Mitosis
62. Kopliks spot: Measles
63. Quellung Reaction: Capsule
64. In bacterial growth, growth ceases, while toxic
products accumulated in: stationary phase
65. Which of the ff Quality control for dry heat oven:
B. subtilis v. niger
66. Iodophores compose of iodine and: detergents
67. Ordinary NH4disinfectants are easily inactivated
by: organic material
68. Which of the ff is not G(-): Peptococcus,
Salmonella, Branhamella, Aeromonas
69. Which of the ff is not anaerobe: Veilonella,
Fusobacterium, actinomyces, Campylobacter
70. Most abundant normal flora in throat cultures:
Alpha hemolytic Streptococcus
71. Most common pathogen in throat cultures:
Group A streptococcus
72. Staphylococcal protein A coated with Antiserum
is used which of ff sero test in CSF:
Coagglutination
73. Using sheep blood agar, it eliminates beta
hemolytic: Hemophilus
74. UTI in old women: Staph. Saprophyticus
75. Differentiate of Thayer martin medium and
Modified Thayer: Nystatin
76. Propionibacteria is: Aerobes gram + rods
77. Viruses contain: either DNA or RNA
78. German measles: Rubeola
79. The ff specimen is acceptable for microbiology
culture: with swab and specimen with
catheter
80. Grape-like microconidia: Trichophyton
mentagrophytes
81. Media for pigment development for T. rubrum:
Cornmeal agar
82. Transport medium for Neisseria gonorrhea
83. Most important cause of respiratory viral infection
in children: Influenza, Parainfluenza, human
papilloma virus, respiratory syncitial virus
84. Among this bacteria, which is least biochemically
reactive of Enterobacteriacea: Shigella
85. ff specimen accepted for anaerobic: gastric
washings, midstream urine, stool, aspiration
biopsy
86. each of the ff antibiotic is use to isolate
pathologic fungi from contaminants: penicillin-
streptomycin, vancomycin-nystatin,
cycloheximide-chloramphenicol, nystatin-
streptomycin
87. quality control in monitor reagent in antibiotic
disk is: container first open, once a week, once a
month
88. gram () anaerococcus seen as red fluorescence
under UV light: veilonella, neisseria,
fusobacterium, peptococcus
89. tubular cells of human kidney shed this virus:
EBV, CMV, adenovirus, rubella
90. intracellular inclusion of epithelial cells of urine of
infants w/ symptoms jaundice, neurologic defects,
low birth rate: EBV infection, CMV infection,
Variola virus, Rubella virus
91. HBV and HIV are similar in: nucleic acid
composition, mode of transmission, cross-reacting
ag, reqd of reverse transcriptase
92. Scalp infection in children are from this epidemic
ringworm: trichophyton, dermaphitus,
microsporum gypseum, microsporum aldonei
93. Concentration methods for AFBS: digestion of
bleach, centrifugation, digestive of mucus alkali,
AOTA
94. + toxic subs for niacin test: Cyanogen bromide