JN0 343 Mar 15.16

Juniper JN0-343
Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-

ENT)
Version: 8.1
Juniper JN0-343 Exam
Topic 1, Volume A
QUESTION NO: 1
How much overhead does the GRE header add to an IPv4 packet?
A. 24 bytes
B. 32 bytes
C. 48 bytes
D. 64 bytes
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Based on the exhibit, in which spanning-tree state would the indicated port be?
A. listening
B. learning
C. forwarding
D. blocking
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 2

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which OSPF area type can contain Type 7 LSAs?
A. backbone
B. not-so-stubby
C. stub
D. totally stubby
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which two pieces of information are communicated by IS-IS TLVs? (Choose two.)
A. network protocols supported

B. designated router priority
C. authentication key
D. PDU Length
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which configuration disables a port when more than 30,000 Kbps of broadcast traffic is received
over an aggregated Ethernet interface with two member links?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Given the following output, what has been configured for the 192.168.3.0/24 prefix?

A. per-flow load balancing

B. a floating static route
C. per-packet load balancing
D. a qualified next hop
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Which two of the following are functions of the BGP update message? (Choose two.)
A. It withdraws routes that are no longer valid.

B. It notes that an unsupported option is detected from the open message.
C. It transports routing information between BGP peers.
D. It readvertises routes that have already been sent and acknowledged.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Which routing-instance type allows the sharing of interface routes and the support features used in
source-based routing?
A. virtual-router
B. vrf
C. forwarding

D. multi-instance
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
What is the minimum configuration necessary to create two VLANs and two operational RVIs?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which statement describes the default Junos OS behavior for OSPF?

A. External LSAs are advertised in a stub area.
B. An ABR does not announce a default route into a stub area.
C. Stub area internal routers generate a default route.
D. Only totally stubby areas need a default route.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
What are two valid BPDU types? (Choose two.)
A. topology change notification

B. configuration change
C. configuration
D. root bridge
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following is enabled by default on an EX Series switch?
A. MAC move limiting

B. storm control
C. IP source guard
D. dynamic ARP inspection
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which three statements correctly describe the default BGP advertisement behavior in the Junos
OS? (Choose three.)
A. Routes learned through EBGP are advertised to IBGP peers.

B. Routes learned through EBGP are advertised to other EBGP peers.
C. Routes learned through IBGP are advertised to other IBGP peers.
D. Routes learned through IBGP will be advertised to EBGP peers.
E. Routes learned through an IGP are automatically advertised to EBGP peers.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
When loop protection is enabled on an interface, what happens when the port stops receiving
BPDUs?
A. The port is placed in a loop-inconsistent role.

B. The port is placed into listening mode.
C. The port is transitioned into a forwarding state.
D. The interface is disabled.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which OSPF LSA type is sent by all routers in an area to advertise its connected subnets?
A. router
B. network
C. external
D. summary
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
Which command correctly assigns AS 65432 as the local router's autonomous system?
A. set protocols bgp local-as 65432

B. set routing-options local-as 65432
C. set protocols bgp autonomous-system 65432
D. set routing-options autonomous-system 65432
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Which statements are true about graceful Routing Engines switchover (GRES)?
A. Configuration on both Routing Engines must be synchronized.

B. The backup Routing Engine cannot be managed through IP address because RPD does not
run on backup the Routing Engine.
C. Different hostnames must be configured on both Routing-Engines.
D. Both Routing-Engines are managed through a single out-of-band-management IP address.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Configuring bpdu-timeout-action enables which protection mechanism?
A. root protection
B. BPDU protection
C. loop protection
D. RSTP protection
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which Junos command correctly configures the ge-0/0/0.0 interface to operate only for IS-IS Level
2?
A. set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 family iso level 2 enable

B. set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 family iso level 1 disable
C. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/0.0 level 2 enable
D. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/0.0 level 1 disable
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
Which two OSPF LSA types can be used to advertise routes between areas? (Choose two.)
A. router
B. network
C. external
D. summary
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
An administrator finds that traffic from a large file download over an HTTP session is not load-
balanced across multiple links in a LAG. What is the possible cause?
A. Per-packet load-balancing is not configured.

B. The redundant path has a different IGP metric.
C. The hash key is not configured in the forwarding-options stanza.
D. This is the expected behavior.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
In the following output, what does the asterisk indicate?

A. The interface is configured as a trunk.

B. The interface is configured for spanning-tree protocol.
C. The interface is active.
D. The interface is inactive.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
What is the default behavior of a trunk port when it receives transit traffic without a VLAN tag?
A. It drops the traffic.

B. It forwards the traffic.
C. It tags the transit traffic with lowest VLAN ID permitted on the trunk.
D. It tags the transit traffic with highest VLAN ID permitted on the trunk.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
Which configuration correctly sets interface ge-0/0/4 in trunk mode, carrying VLANs v10 and v20?
A. ge-0/0/4 {
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
vlan {
members [ v10 v20 ];
}

}
}
}
B. ge-0/0/4 {
unit 0 {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
}
}
}
}
C. ge-0/0/4 {
vlan-tagging;
unit 0 {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
}
}
}
}
D. ge-0/0/4 {
unit 10 {
family ethernet-switching;
}
unit 20 {
}
}
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which configuration summarizes external routes in the 172.16.0.0/22 range into a single prefix on
an ABR for Area 1?
A. protocols {
ospf {
area 0.0.0.1 {

nssa {
default-lsa {
default-metric 1;
metric-type 1;
}
}
area-range 172.16.0.0/22;
}
}
}
B. protocols {
ospf {
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
area-range 172.16.0.0/22;
}
}
}
}
C. protocols {
ospf {
area 0.0.0.1 {
stub summaries;
}
}
}
D. protocols {
ospf {
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa;
area-range 172.16.0.0/22 restrict;
}
}
}
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
What is the correct sequence of OSPF adjacency formation?
A. Down, Init, ExStart, 2way, Loading, Exchange, Full

B. Down, 2way, Init, ExStart, Exchange, Loading, Full

C. Down, Init, 2way, ExStart, Exchange, Loading, Full
D. Down, Init, 2way, Loading, ExStart, Exchange, Full
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Which BGP attributes are listed in the correct route selection order?
A. local preference, AS path, origin, MED

B. local preference, MED, AS path, origin
C. AS path, local preference, origin, MED
D. MED, origin, local preference, AS path
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
When processing inbound Ethernet frames, which firewall filter is evaluated first by an EX Series
switch?
A. port filter
B. VLAN filter
C. trunk filter
D. route filter
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following can be used for both security and loop prevention?
A. firewall filters
B. DHCP snooping
C. dynamic ARP inspection

D. MAC move limiting
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which protocol is an IGP?
A. LACP
B. STP
C. OSPF
D. PAGP
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
What is the default OSPF designated router (DR) priority?
A. 0
B. 64
C. 128
D. 255
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
Which instance type is used when configuring filter-based forwarding?
A. vrf
B. forwarding
C. virtual-router
D. fbf

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
What are three states for RSTP? (Choose three.)
A. discarding
B. blocking
C. listening
D. learning
E. forwarding
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Which statement regarding redundant trunk groups (RTGs) is true?
A. STP and RTG can be configured on the same interface.

B. An aggregated interface can be a member of an RTG.
C. Members of an RTG can carry different VLANs.
D. An RTG can contain up to 16 member links.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
When the DF bit is set, which two actions will a router perform by default on a packet that is larger
than the MTU of the interface? (Choose two.)
A. The router drops the packet.

B. The router sends an ICMP MTU exceeded message to the source.
C. The router fragments and forwards the packet.
D. The router generates a syslog message indicating that a packet was dropped due to the
exceeded MTU.

Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
Which two commands can be used to show the content of a bridge table? (Choose two.)
A. show ethernet-switching table

B. show route forwarding-table family ethernet-switching
C. show bridging table
D. show forwarding table
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
During OSPF neighbor adjacency formation, in which state is the initial database descriptor
sequence number chosen?
A. 2Way
B. ExStart
C. Exchange
D. Loading
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
A network with five switches has been configured to run Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
with default settings. How many seconds does it take to detect a failure between two neighboring
switches?
A. 2 seconds
B. 3 seconds
C. 6 seconds
D. 15 seconds

Answer: C
Reference: Page 3-14 of the JNCIS-ENT Routing Study Guide - "As previously mentioned, STP
uses BPDUs to elect a root bridge, identify root ports for each switch, identify designated ports
foreach physical LAN segment, prune specific redundant links to create a loop-free tree topology,
and report and acknowledge topology changes. RSTP configuration BPDUs also function as
keepalives. All RSTP bridges send configuration BPDUs every 2 seconds by default. You can alter
this value, if necessary."
QUESTION NO: 39
Which side of the OSPF router initiates the database description exchange?
A. the side with the higher IP address

B. the side with the higher router ID
C. the side with the higher priority
D. the side with the higher uptime
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
Two routers functioning as DR other on a broadcast link will establish which kind of OSPF
neighbor state with each other?
A. Exchange
B. 2Way
C. ExStart
D. Full
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
Which statement regarding the benefits of using GRE instead of IP-IP tunneling is true?
A. GRE supports both IP traffic and non-IP traffic.

B. GRE supports encryption.
C. GRE supports private IP addresses over the Internet.
D. GRE supports authentication.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Given that ge-0/1/1 is set up as a trunk port, which command set will NOT successfully set the
trunk to carry VLANs 10 and 11?
A. set interfaces ge-0/1/1.0 family ethernet-switching vlan members [Vlan10 Vlan11]

B. set interfaces ge-0/1/1.0 family ethernet-switching vlan members Vlan10 members Vlan11
C. set interfaces ge-0/1/1.0 family ethernet-switching vlan members Vlan10,Vlan11
D. set interfaces ge-0/1/1.0 family ethernet-switching vlan members Vlan10set interfaces ge-
0/1/1.0 family ethernet-switching vlan members Vlan11
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
Which two statements are true regarding a designated intermediate system (DIS) in an IS-IS
network? (Choose two.)
A. It performs a similar role to the designated router (DR) in OSPF.

B. It is not allowed to send any PDUs on a designated intermediate system (DIS).
C. A backup DIS is not elected.
D. DIS selection uses the router's IP address as a tiebreaker.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
Which operational command can verify load balancing?

A. show route details
B. show route table inet.0 extensive
C. show route forwarding-table family inet
D. show configuration forwarding-options
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
By default, how is the best IGP path determined when there are multiple equal-cost paths to a
destination?
A. first one learned

B. most recent one learned
C. random choice
D. highest next-hop IP address
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
Which STP protection feature should you use to prevent an inadvertent change in topology caused
by the receipt of a superior BPDU on an access interface?
A. BPDU protection
B. loop protection
C. root protection
D. topology protection
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
Which Junos operational mode command displays all BGP routes sent to the 172.16.1.1 peer?

A. show route sent-routes bgp 172.16.1.1
B. show route send-protocol bgp 172.16.1.1
C. show route advertised-routes bgp 172.16.1.1
D. show route advertising-protocol bgp 172.16.1.1
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
Which option shows the configuration syntax for a routed VLAN interface on an EX Series switch?
A. interfaces {
vlan {
unit 10 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.1/24;
}
}
}
}
vlans {
VLAN10 {
vlan-id 10;
routing-interface vlan.10;
}
}
B. interfaces {
vlan {
unit 10 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.1/24;
}
}
}
}
vlans {
VLAN10 {
vlan-id 10;
l3-interface vlan.10;
}
}
C. vlans {
VLAN10 {

vlan-id 10;
family inet {
address 1.1.1.1/24;
}
}
}
D. interfaces {
vlan {
unit 10 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.1/24;
}
}
}
}
vlans {
VLAN10 {
vlan-id 10;
}
}
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
Which of the following is a spanning tree option in EX Series switches?
A. MAC move limiting

B. root protection
C. root guard
D. BPDU source guard
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Which type of route is shown in the following output?

A. generate
B. aggregate
C. static
D. floating static
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
You have connected a spanning-tree-enabled device to your spanning-tree-enabled switch, but

the switch port does not forward traffic, even after you remove the device. Which command do you
use to re-enable forwarding?
A. clear interface status

B. clear spanning-tree blocking
C. clear ethernet-switching bpdu-error
D. clear ethernet-switching port-error
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
Which BGP attribute can modify only an adjacent AS's optimal entry point into the local AS?
A. MED
B. local preference
C. AS path
D. community

Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
A generated route is used to create a route of last resort when BGP routes from the 10.0.0.0/23
block are present. Given the following output, which next hop will be used as the forwarding next
hop for the generated route?
A. 172.16.0.2
B. 172.16.0.6
C. 172.16.0.10
D. 172.16.0.14
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
What is the default interval for a VRRP advertisement?

A. 1 second
B. 2 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 30 seconds
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
Which statement about LACP is true?
A. LACP is enabled by default on aggregated Ethernet interfaces.

B. LACP is enabled by default on redundant trunk groups.
C. The default mode of operation of an LACP interface is passive.
D. At least one side of an LACP session must be configured as passive.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
Under which hierarchy do you configure BGP neighbors?
A. *[edit protocols bgp]*

B. *[edit interfaces]*
C. *[edit routing-options]*
D. *[edit policy-options]*
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
What is one benefit of a switched LAN?
A. It enables the LAN to forward non-IP traffic.

B. It ensures that all hosts can reach each other by flooding all traffic to all ports.

C. It limits memory use by eliminating the need for a bridging table.
D. It limits the collision domain.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
What are two mandatory BGP attributes? (Choose two.)
A. route preference
B. origin
C. AS path
D. originator
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
By default, what is the IP time-to-live (TTL) value for an EBGP session?
A. 1
B. 63
C. 128
D. 255
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
Which OSPF LSA type has a domain flooding scope?
A. router
B. network
C. external
D. summary

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 61
On a broadcast, multi access network, which two criteria are used for electing a designated
intermediate system? (Choose two.)
A. router priority
B. sub network point of attachment
C. pseudo node ID
D. interface IP address
E. IS-IS TLV 3
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
Which command verifies that graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES) is operational?
A. show system switchover on the master RE

B. show system switchover on the backup RE
C. show task replication on the master RE
D. show task replication on the backup RE
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
Which command on an EX Series switch allows for the configuration of the duplex setting on
multiple interfaces at the same time?
A. interface-range
B. apply-path
C. interface-group
D. port-range

Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
You have two ABRs in the same NSSA area. What translates Type 7 LSAs to Type 5 LSAs?
A. The ABR with the highest RID.

B. The ABR with the lowest RID.
C. Both ABRs will translate.
D. The ABR configured with the area-range statement.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
What is the default value of the TTL in a VRRP advertisement?
A. 0 TTL
B. 1 TTL
C. 64 TTL
D. 255 TTL
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66
Which port is selected as the designated port if a designated bridge has multiple ports connected
to a LAN segment?
A. The port with the highest port ID

B. The port with the highest MAC address
C. The port with the lowest port ID
D. The port with the lowest MAC address
Answer: C

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 67
Which communication protocol does IS-IS use?
A. CLNP
B. LACP
C. STP
D. L2TP
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68
Filter-based forwarding requires a match filter, a routing instance, and which of the following?
A. a route map
B. a RIB group
C. a next hop
D. a policy map
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
Which command can be used to verify whether a BGP prefix is being advertised to a specific
neighbor?
A. show route protocol bgp <neighbor>

B. show bgp summary <neighbor>
C. show bgp neighbor <prefix>
D. show route advertising-protocol bgp <neighbor>
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 70
Which two statements are true regarding an RVI? (Choose two.)
A. An RVI must be in an EX Series switch to enable routing between VLAN segments.

B. An RVI does not require an IP address.
C. An RVI is a Layer 3 logical interface.
D. An RVI cannot coexist in an interface configuration if the switch performs Layer 2 operations.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71
Which two BGP message types are valid? (Choose two.)
A. refresh
B. acknowledge
C. keepalive
D. withdraw
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
Which virtual interface is used to configure a GRE tunnel?
A. gre-0/0/0
B. ip-0/0/0
C. vt-0/0/0
D. gr-0/0/0
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 73
Which configuration is used for IP6-over-IP4 tunnels?
A. set interfaces gr-0/0/0 encapsulation inetv6

set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 tunnel source 10.0.1.1
set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 tunnel destination 10.0.0.1
set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet address fec0:0:1006::1/126
B. set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 tunnel source 10.0.1.1
set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 family inetv6 address fec0:0:1006::1/126
C. set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 tunnel source fec0:0:1006::1/126
set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 tunnel destination fec0:0:2006::1/126
set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet address 10.0.0.1
D. set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 tunnel source 10.0.1.1
set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet6 address fec0:0:1006::1/126
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 74
How does a Level 1 IS-IS router reach destinations outside its own area?
A. through the closest Level 1 router

B. along the best path to the destination
C. through the closest Level 1/2 router
D. through the closest designated intermediate system (DIS)
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75
What is the primary purpose of the LLDP-MED?
A. It learns the MAC address of the peer device.

B. It communicates the provisioned VLAN ID to the peer device.
C. It eliminates the need for a spanning tree.
D. It authenticates the peer device.

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
Which protocol is an EGP?
A. OSPF
B. TCP
C. BGP
D. STP
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77
Using standard metrics, what is the maximum path cost in IS-IS?
A. 15
B. 16
C. 63
D. 1023
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
Which statement is true about IS-IS PDUs?
A. CSNPs are exchanged only during initial adjacency establishment when a complete LSDB is
being built.
B. PSNPs contain header information for all link-state PDUs in the IS-IS database.
C. Both the DIS and the backup DIS broadcast CSNPs over a broadcast link.
D. Separate CSNP and PSNP types exist for Level 1 and Level 2 systems.
Answer: D

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
Which type of protocol is OSPF?
A. link-state protocol
B. distance-vector protocol
C. path-vector protocol
D. modified distance-vector protocol
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 80
Click on the Exhibit button.

Based on the exhibit, which step in the BGP route-selection process causes the router to choose
the selected path?
A. MED
B. metric to next hop
C. local preference
D. neighbor ID
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81
Which two fields in an OSPF hello packet must match before OSPF neighbors can form an
adjacency? (Choose two.)
A. dead interval
B. neighbor
C. options
D. router priority
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
Which statement regarding internal BGP sessions is true?
A. Routers advertise all BGP-learned routes to all internal BGP neighbors.

B. The TTL of BGP control packets is set to 255.
C. Peering sessions only use physical interface IP addresses.
D. Plain text authentication can be used.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83

When does a root-protected port transition back to the forwarding state?
A. It does not transition back.

B. It transitions after 20 seconds.
C. It transitions when cleared by the operator.
D. It transitions when superior BPDUs are no longer received.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
When using the factory-default configuration, which VLAN is assigned to all interfaces on an EX
Series switch?
A. vlan1
B. native
C. default
D. unnumbered
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
Which configuration provides connectivity from the test routing instance to the 192.168.3.0/24
subnet in inet.0?
A. routing-options {
static {
rib-group master2test.inet.0;
route 192.168.3.0/24 next-hop 10.0.0.2;
}
rib-groups {
master2test.inet.0 {
import-rib [ inet.0 test.inet.0 ];
import-policy onlyStatic;
}
}
}

policy-options {
policy-statement onlyStatic {
term 1 {
from protocol static;
then accept;
}
term 2 {
then reject;
}
}
}
routing-instances {
test {
instance-type forwarding;
interface ge-0/0/0.500;
}
}
B. routing-options {
static {
route 192.168.3.0/24 next-hop 10.0.0.2;
}
rib-groups {
master2test.inet.0 {
export-rib inet.0;
import-rib [ inet.0 test.inet.0];
import-policy onlyStatic;
}
}
}
policy-options {
term 1 {
from protocol static;
then accept;
}
term 2 {
then reject;
}
}
}
routing-instances {
test {
}
}
C. routing-options {

static {
route 192.168.3.0/24 next-hop 10.0.0.2;
}
}
policy-options {
term 1 {
from {
instance master;
protocol static;
}
then accept;
}
term 2 {
then reject;
}
}
}
routing-instances {
test {
routing-options {
instance-import onlyStatic;
}
}
}
D. routing-options {
static {
route 192.168.3.0/24 next-table test.inet.0;
}
}
routing-instances {
test {
}
}
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 86

Which feature of the Junos OS installs routes in multiple routing tables?
A. RIB groups
B. virtual routers
C. forwarding table policy
D. routing table policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87

Given the attached exhibit, what will happen to traffic sourced from 192.168.1.100 and destined to
172.16.1.69/32?

A. It will use the default route.
B. It will be routed to 10.17.0.1.
C. It will be routed to 10.32.0.1.
D. It will be dropped.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 88
Which statement describes IS-IS operation?
A. Routes in a Level 2 area are advertised into Level 1 areas by default.

B. To advertise Level 2 routes into a Level 1 area, an export policy must be configured.
C. Level 1 routes are not advertised into Level 2 by default.
D. The Level 2 router advertises a default route into Level 1.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 89
By default, how frequently does the designated intermediate system (DIS) send out its hello
packets?
A. 3 seconds
B. 6 seconds
C. 9 seconds
D. 12 seconds
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90
Which Junos operational command displays all operational IS-IS neighbors?
A. show isis interface

B. show isis database
C. show isis neighbors
D. show isis adjacency
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
Which two statements are true about IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. All level 2 PDUs are flooded to Level 1 by default.

B. All level 1 PDUs are flooded to Level 2 by default.
C. Both Level 1 and Level 2 adjacencies can exist on the same interface.
D. Level 2 external routes are always available in Level 1.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 92
In which state is an interface placed if root-protect is enabled and a superior BPDU is received?
A. root
B. blocking
C. forwarding
D. alternate
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93
What does the OSPF LSA Type 3 summarize?
A. the interfaces and neighbors of routers

B. the router IDs of routers from other areas
C. an Ethernet segment

D. topology information from other areas
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 94
Which two LSA types are only generated by area border routers? (Choose two.)
A. Type 2
B. Type 3
C. Type 4
D. Type 5
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 95
Which configuration correctly assigns the deny-telnet firewall filter as an input filter to all ports in
VLAN 200?
A. user@switch> show configuration vlans

v200 {
vlan-id 200;
vlan-filter input deny-telnet;
}
B. user@switch> show configuration vlans
v200 {
vlan-id 200;
filter {
input deny-telnet;
}
}
C. user@switch> show configuration interface ge-0/0/10.0
vlan {
members v200;
vlan-filter input deny-telnet;
}
}

D. user@switch> show configuration interface ge-0/0/10.0
vlan {
members v200;
}
filter {
input deny-telnet;
}
}
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 96
Which step in the configuration of filter-based forwarding controls the selection of tables that will
share interface routes?
A. configuration of the RIB group

B. configuration of the routing instance
C. configuration of the filter match terms
D. configuration of member interfaces
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97
Which two of the following are contained in an OSPF hello packet? (Choose two.)
A. hello interval
B. dead interval
C. ex-start
D. link-state update
Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 98
What is the default value of the link-state advertisement (LSA) refresh timer in the Junos OS?
A. 10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 50 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 99
Which of the following is true of external LSAs in the Junos OS?
A. External LSAs are of Type 4.

B. Type 2 external LSAs do not consider internal reachability metrics.
C. The route preferences for Type 1 and Type 2 External LSA is 150 and 155, respectively.
D. Type 7 LSAs are never allowed in not-so-stubby areas.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 100
A new switch is added to an existing network with three switches already in place. Which attribute
must be configured within the spanning-tree protocol to ensure the new switch is the root bridge?
A. root-id
B. port-id
C. bridge priority
D. system MAC address
Answer: C
Explanation:
Topic 2, Volume B

QUESTION NO: 101
At which configuration hierarchy level is a static bridge table entry configured?
A. [ interfaces interface-name ]
B. [ protocols ]
C. [ ethernet-switching-options ]
D. [ forwarding-options ]
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 102
BGP is best described as what type of routing protocol?
A. link state
B. distance vector
C. path state
D. path vector
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 103
Which statement is correct about this configuration snippet?

A. Both voice and data traffic are tagged on ge-0/0/0.

B. Voice traffic is tagged on ge-0/0/0, but data traffic is not.
C. Data traffic is tagged on ge-0/0/0, but voice traffic is not.
D. Neither voice nor data traffic is tagged on ge-0/0/0.
Answer: A
Explanation: Both VLAN's were tagged on the interface but done 2 different ways. The first adds
the interface ge-0.0.0 to the VOIP vlan from the ethernet-switching-options voip hierarchy, and the
second adds the data vlan from the interface configuration hierarchy
QUESTION NO: 104
What can cause a route learned through IBGP to be marked as hidden?
A. unreachable next hop

B. local preference
C. AS path loop
D. route preference
Answer: A

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 105
Which three parameters are used by the Junos OS to distinguish traffic flows for load balancing
with load-balance per-packet configured? (Choose three).
A. incoming interface
B. destination address
C. destination port
D. source address
E. source port
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 106
A switch port is sending both tagged and untagged traffic. What is its possible configuration?
A. {master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/0]

user@switch# show
unit 0 {
port-mode access;
vlan {
members data;
}
}
}
B. {master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/0]
user@switch# show
unit 0 {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
members data;
}
}
}
C. {master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/0]

user@switch# show
unit 0 {
port-mode access;
vlan {
members data;
}
native-vlan-id data;
}
}
D. [edit ethernet-switching-options]
user@switch# show
voip {
interface all;
vlan voiceVLAN;
forwarding-class expedited-forwarding;
}
}
[edit vlans]
user@switch# show
voiceVLAN {
vlan-id 3;
}
}
[edit interfaces]
user@switch# show
ge-0/1/1 {
unit 0 {
port-mode access;
}
}
}
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 107
Which feature will cause the port to transition into a blocking state when BPDUs are no longer
being received?
A. RSTP
B. BPDU protection

C. loop protection
D. root protection
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 108
In the Junos OS, which attribute is used before the AS path in the BGP selection algorithm?
A. highest local preference

B. lowest local preference
C. lowest MED
D. weight
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 109
How many untagged VLANs can be configured on an EX Series switch port?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 4095
D. 4096
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 110
Which status for VRRP routers is NOT valid?
A. master
B. backup
C. transition
D. preempt

Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 111
Which misconfiguration would cause an OSPF neighbor ship to be stuck in an ExStart state?
A. authentication mismatch
B. timer mismatch
C. subnet mismatch
D. MTU mismatch
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 112
Which configuration is used to send and receive untagged packets through a trunk port?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 113

What is a requirement for link aggregation?
A. Member links must be on continuous ports.

B. Member links must be on the same switch in a Virtual Chassis.
C. The speed of the member links must be the same.
D. LACP must be configured.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 114
Router D is advertising a path for the 10.0.0.0/8 network through BGP and AS 2 is advertising this
path to AS 1. By default, what is the next hop for this path from router A's perspective?
A. router D's loopback address

B. router B's loopback address
C. router B's interface address for the external BGP session from router B to router C
D. router C's interface address for the external BGP session from router B to router C
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 115

In a switched network with redundant paths, which frame does not require the implementation of a
spanning tree to prevent a loop?
A. broadcast
B. unknown MAC address
C. known MAC address
D. ARP request
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 116
Which two statements are true regarding the default VLAN in EX Series switches?
(Choose two.)
A. All switch ports not specifically assigned to a user-defined VLAN belong to the default VLAN.
B. An administrator can change the VLAN ID of the default VLAN.
C. An interface that is part of the default VLAN cannot carry tagged traffic.
D. The show interface-command shows an asterisk (*) after the interface name if the interface is
part of default VLAN.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 117
An operator can use the show vlans command with no options to determine which two of the
following? (Choose two.)
A. Interfaces belonging to a VLAN

B. Link up or down status of an interface belonging to a VLAN
C. Known MAC addresses associated with a VLAN
D. IP address of the RVI associated with a VLAN
Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 118
Which two statements about GRE tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
A. GRE can be used to tunnel non-IP protocols, such as IPX.

B. GRE can provide encrypted communication.
C. GRE adds overhead of 16 bytes per packet.
D. GRE can be used to tunnel IPv6 traffic.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 119
Which BGP configuration option is required when peering with an IBGP neighbor using loopback
addresses?
A. local-address
B. local-interface
C. update-source
D. source-address
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 120
Which BGP attribute is used to influence inbound traffic when two peering sessions to the same
AS exist?
A. weight
B. local preference
C. router ID
D. MED
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 121
Which approach can you use to implement IPv6-over-IPv4 tunneling?
A. IPv4-compatible addressing
B. dual-stack implementations
C. IPsec
D. 6PE
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 122
When two OSPF routers on a broadcast network are ready to exchange database descriptor
packets, which router is responsible for setting the initial sequence number?
A. the DR
B. the BDR
C. the router with the higher RID
D. the router with the lower RID
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 123
Which feature is used to route traffic to a specified ISP based on the source address?
A. filter-based forwarding
B. BGP outbound policy
C. local preference
D. IP source routing
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 124

Which two forms of spanning-tree protection are offered by EX Series switches? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU protection
B. broadcast protection
C. core protection
D. root protection
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 125
Which Junos OS operational mode command provides a high-level view of all configured BGP
peers?
A. show bgp group

B. show bgp neighbor
C. show bgp summary
D. show bgp adjacency
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 126
Which configuration provides dynamic ARP inspection on access port ge-0/0/0?
A. secure-access-port {
interface ge-0/0/0.0 {
dhcp-trusted;
}
vlan vlan10 {
arp-inspection;
examine-dhcp;
}
}
B. secure-access-port {
dhcp-trusted;
}

vlan vlan10 {
dynamic-arp-inspection;
}
}
C. secure-access-port {
no-dhcp-trusted;
}
vlan vlan10 {
dynamic-arp-inspection;
examine-dhcp;
}
}
D. secure-access-port {
static-ip 255.255.255.255
}
vlan vlan10 {
arp-inspection;
}
}
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 127
Which command can you use to view the link-state PDUs?
A. show isis database detail

B. show isis route detail
C. show isis adjacency
D. show isis spf results
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 128
Which statement is true about IS-IS hello (IIH) PDUs?

A. The same IIH PDU is used for both point-to-point and broadcast networks.
B. IIH PDUs maintain the link-state database synchronization.
C. IIH PDUs provide the priority value used in DIS election.
D. IIH PDUs are transmitted only at the beginning of adjacency establishment.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 129
An OSPF broadcast segment has four OSPF-speaking routers. One router is in the DR state, one
is in the BDR state, and two are in DR other states. How many 2Way OSPF sessions does a
router in the DR other state have?
A. 1 session
B. 2 sessions
C. 3 sessions
D. 4 sessions
Answer: B
Reference: JNCIS-ENT Routing Study Guide, Chapter 310 - Open Shortest Path First
QUESTION NO: 130
Which two statements are true about NSR? (Choose two.)
A. Graceful Routing Engine switchover must be configured for NSR to function properly.
B. NSR and graceful restart can be enabled at the same time.
C. NSR relies on helper support on neighboring routers.
D. When NSR is enabled, RPD runs on the backup Routing Engine.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 131
Which two link-state advertisement (LSA) types are allowed in a stub area? (Choose two.)

A. LSA Type 1
B. LSA Type 2
C. LSA Type 4
D. LSA Type 5
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 132
An ABR is connected to an NSSA, but it also functions as an ASBR. Which configuration disables
the exporting of Type 7 LSAs into the connected NSSA?
A. no-type7
B. nssa
C. area-range
D. no-nssa-abr
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 133
What is a benefit of the 802.3ad standard?
A. loop detection
B. security
C. higher bandwidth
D. strict queuing
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 134
BGP uses which underlying protocol to establish connection to peers?
A. IP protocol 89

B. IP protocol 6
C. IP protocol 17
D. IP protocol 47
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 135
On an edge router, you want to create a default route with a next hop to an external connection.
The route should be available only when you are receiving routes from the external provider.
Which type of route would you configure on your device to accomplish this objective?
A. an aggregate route
B. a generated route
C. a primary contributing route
D. a static route
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 136
Which configuration command would you use to add an IPv6 static route to your Junos device?
A. set routing-options static route 0::/0 next-hop fec0:0:2003::2

B. set routing-options static route inet6 0::/0 next-hop fec0:0:2003::2
C. set routing-options static route ipv6 0::/0 next-hop fec0:0:2003::2
D. set routing-options rib inet6.0 static route 0::/0 next-hop fec0:0:2003::2
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 137

You configured an aggregate route of 192.168.8.0/21 and committed the updated configuration.
Using an operational show command, you notice that the newly configured route is not present in
the output. What would explain this behavior?
A. The next hop is not resolvable.

B. The next hop is not reachable.
C. There are no active contributing routes.
D. An aggregate route will not show up in the local table; it will be shared only with BGP
neighbors.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 138
In the output shown in the exhibit, which protocol does the route display?
A. static
B. aggregate
C. generate
D. BGP
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 139
You want several different subnets within your enterprise network to be reachable from outside the
enterprise network. Your edge router must share a single route advertisement about these
subnets with external devices. If one of the subnets is unavailable, your edge router should drop
any traffic destined to that subnet. Which type of route, configured on the edge device with default
behavior, accomplishes these objectives?

A. an aggregate route
B. a generated route
C. a primary contributing route
D. an OSPF route
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 140
You run the operational-mode command show ospf neighbor and notice that an expected OSPF
neighbor on a broadcast link is not detected. Which three issues cause this behavior? (Choose
three.)
A. A problem exists with the physical link or Data Link Layer connectivity.
B. The router IDs on the two devices do not match.
C. The IP subnet mask does not match on each end of the link.
D. The area type does not match on each end of the link.
E. The AS number on the two devices do not match.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 141
You execute the operational-mode command show ospf neighbor and notice that one neighbor
relationship remains in the exStart state. What causes this behavior?
A. The area IDs do not match on each end of the link.

B. The authentication parameters do not match on each end of the link.
C. The dead interval does not match on each end of the link.
D. The MTU does not match on each end of the link.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 142
You are viewing the Ethernet switching table and notice that a previous entry is no longer listed.

What is a valid reason for an entry to be removed from the table?
A. The learning limit is exceeded.

B. The filtering threshold is exceeded.
C. The MAC aging timer expired.
D. The ARP aging timer expired.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 143
Which mechanism keeps a switch from forwarding Layer 2 traffic from one broadcast domain to
another?
A. filtering
B. BPDU guard
C. aging
D. learning
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 144
An EX Series switch receives an Ethernet frame with a destination MAC address that is not in the
bridging table. How does the Junos OS handle the received frame?
A. The Junos OS learns the source MAC address and drops the frame.
B. The Junos OS learns the source MAC address and floods discovery BPDUs.
C. The Junos OS learns the source MAC address forwards the frame towards the root bridge.
D. The Junos OS learns the source MAC address and floods the frame.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 145

Which three actions are valid methods to clear all entries from the Ethernet switching table on an
EX Series switch? (Choose three.)
A. Restart the eswd process.

B. Issue the clear arp operational-mode command.
C. Reboot the switch.
D. Issue the clear ethernet-switching table operational-mode command.
E. Restart the rpd process.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 146
You are viewing the output of the operational-mode command show interfaces ge-0/0/4 on an EX
Series switch in which no ether-options are configured for the ge-0/0/4 interface. Which two default
settings are listed in the output? (Choose two.)
A. SpeeD. Auto
B. SpeeD. 1000mpbs
C. Duplex: Auto
D. Duplex: Full-Duplex
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 147
You must route both IPv4 and IPv6 packets in your environment. Which configuration should you
add at the [edit protocols] level to allow you to accomplish this objective?
A. ospf {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface all;
}
}
B. ospf {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface all;
family inet6;

}
}
C. ospf3 {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface all;
}
}
D. ospf3 {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface all;
allow ipv4;
}
}
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 148
In the exhibit, you run the command show ospf neighbor on R3 and notice that an adjacency with
R5 remains in the 2-Way state. Which statement is true?
A. A problem exists with the physical link or Data Link Layer connectivity.
B. The area type does not match on each end of the link.
C. The IP MTU does not match on each end of the link.
D. This output is normal in this configuration.
Answer: D

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 149
You see a route in your local routing table that was learned using OSPF. Which command allows
you to determine where the route originated?
A. show ospf route

B. show route protocol ospf
C. show ospf database
D. show ospf log
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 150
Which two events trigger an IS-IS LSP to be sent to a neighboring IS? (Choose two)
A. When a new IS-IS neighbor is detected.

B. When the cost of a link to an existing IS-IS neighbor has changed.
C. When a CSNP requests missing information.
D. When a device does not receive an expected IIH PDU.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 151
What does the attach bit in an IS-IS PDU indicate?
A. The L1/L2 router is exporting a default route into the area.

B. The L1/L2 router has reachability information to another IS-IS area.
C. The L1/L2 router is sending information from Level 2 towards Level 1.
D. The L1/L2 router is sending information from Level 1 towards Level 2.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 152
On a broadcast network, which three statements are true about IS-IS adjacencies? (Choose
three.)
A. Peers send full copies of databases at regular intervals.

B. IIH PDUs are used as a keep alive mechanism.
C. Peers can request missing link-state information.
D. An elected DIS retains its status as long as the device remains up.
E. Peers acknowledge receipt of link-state updates.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 153
Which two prerequisites does IS-IS need to operate? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS must be able to communicate between devices using IP.

B. IS-IS must be able to communicate using CLNS.
C. IS-IS must have a valid IP address configured on the loopback.
D. IS-IS must have a valid CLNS address.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 154
You configure a metric of 200 on an IS-IS enabled interface on Router-1. When you examine the
routing table entry for that link on another IS-IS device, you see a metric of 67. What would explain
this behavior?
A. Router-1 is sending both standard and wide metrics.

B. Router-1 is sending only wide metrics.
C. Router-1 has a metric multiplier set.
D. Router-1 has a configured reference bandwidth.

Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 155
On Switch-1, all configured interfaces belong to the default VLAN. Based on the topology and
bridge table shown in the exhibit, which two operations will Switch-1 perform if it receives a frame
sent by User A with a destination MAC address of 00:26:88:02:74:89? (Choose two.)
A. Switch-1 will flood the frame out all switch ports that belong to the default VLAN.
B. Switch-1 will flood the frame out all switch ports except ge-0/0/6.0.
C. Switch-1 will forward the frame out ge-0/0/9.0.
D. Switch-1 will update its bridge table with a new MAC entry for the device associated with User
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 156

A switch has just come online and currently has no learned unicast entries in its bridge table.
Which two statements regarding this switch and its operations are true? (Choose two.)
A. All frames received through a switch port will be flooded out all other switch ports belonging to
the same VLAN.
B. All broadcast frames received through a switch port will be flooded out all switch ports,
regardless of the VLAN.
C. The switch will dynamically add MAC entries to the bridge table for the destination MAC
address listed in received frames.
D. The switch will dynamically add MAC entries to the bridge table for the source MAC address
listed in received frames.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 157
You are deploying a Virtual Chassis consisting of four EX4200s. You have powered on all four
switches at the same time with the settings shown in the exhibit. Which Virtual Chassis member
will become the master?
A. Switch-1

B. Switch-2
C. Switch-3
D. Switch-4
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 158
The exhibit shows the Ethernet bridge table on an EX Series switch. What does the asterisk (*) in
the output indicate?
A. The asterisk (*) indicates a multicast MAC address.

B. The asterisk (*) indicates an invalid MAC address.
C. The asterisk (*) indicates the flood entry for all VLANs.
D. The asterisk (*) indicates all valid destination MAC addresses.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 159
VLANs provide separation for which type of domains?
A. collision domains
B. multicast domains
C. broadcast domains
D. virtual domains
Answer: C

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 160
What are two switch port default settings on EX Series switches? (Choose two.)
A. Set as trunk mode.

B. Set with VLAN ID 0.
C. Set with the native VLAN.
D. Set as access mode.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 161
Which two configurations are valid methods for associating a VLAN with an interface on EX Series
switches? (Choose two.)
A. {master:0}[edit interfaces]
user@ex# show
ge-0/0/4 {
unit 0 {
vlan {
members v100;
}
}
}
}
user@ex# show
unit 0 {
vlan v100;
}
}
user@ex# show
vlan-tagging;
unit 0 {

vlan v100;
}
}
D. {master:0}[edit vlans]
user@ex# show
v100 {
vlan-id 100;
interface {
ge-0/0/4.0;
}
}
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 162
No user-defined configuration exists for the default VLAN. Which configuration is valid on EX
Series switches?
A. {master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/4]

user@ex# show
unit 0 {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
members [ v4 v3 ];
}
native-vlan-id default;
}
}
user@ex# show
unit 0 {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
members [ v4 default ];
}
}
}
user@ex# show

unit 0 {
port-mode access;
vlan {
members [ v4 default ];
}
}
}
D. {master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/4]
user@ex# show
unit 0 {
port-mode access;
vlan {
members [ v4 Voice ];
}
}
}
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 163
By default, which VLAN ID value is associated with the default VLAN on EX Series switches?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 32
D. 255
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 164
On which interface would an IP address be configured for a routed VLAN interface?
A. ge-0/0/20.100
B. vlan.100
C. rvi.100

D. l3-interface.100
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 165
Which operational-mode command displays the IP address of all routed VLAN interfaces (RVIs)?
A. show interfaces terse vlan

B. show interfaces terse rvi
C. show interfaces terse ge-*
D. show vlans terse
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 166
Which three configurations are required for an operational routed VLAN interface (RVI)? (Choose
three.)
A. {master:0}[edit]
user@ex# show ethernet-switching vlan-map
vlan-id 10;
interface {
ge-0/0/1.0;
}
B. {master:0}[edit]
user@ex# show interfaces ge-0/0/1
unit 0 {
}
C. {master:0}[edit]
user@ex# show interfaces vlan.10
family inet {
address 192.168.10.1/24;
}
D. {master:0}[edit]
user@ex# show interfaces rvi.1
interface {

ge-0/0/1.0;
}
E. {master:0}[edit]
user@ex# show vlans v10
vlan-id 10;
interface {
ge-0/0/1.0;
} l3-interface vlan.10;
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 167
Which function(s) does STP serve in a Layer 2 network?
A. It detects and stops broadcast storms.

B. It distributes VLAN information between switches when a VLAN spans more than one switch.
C. It detects and eliminates loops.
D. It manages aggregated Ethernet bundles that span more than one switch.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 168
Which protocol or feature detects and eliminates Layer 2 loops in a network?
A. RTG
B. STP
C. LACP
D. GVRP
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 169
Which two statements are true regarding BPDUs of spanning tree protocols? (Choose two.)

A. Configuration BPDUs function as keepalives in STP and RSTP.
B. BPDUs are sent by the designated bridge but not the backup bridge on shared segments.
C. Configuration BPDUs are sent by both switches on point-to-point connections.
D. Configuration BPDUs are not sent out interfaces configured as edge ports.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 170
You just implemented a Layer 2 network that uses RSTP. Which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. All operational switch ports configured for edge mode will immediately transition to the
forwarding state.
B. All operational switch ports configured for full-duplex operation will function in point-to-point
mode.
C. You must manually specify the interfaces you want to operate in point-to-point mode.
D. Edge ports automatically discard received BPDUs.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 171
You just implemented RSTP in your Layer 2 network. Which two statements are true? (Choose
two.)
A. Switch ports in the alternate port role operating in indirect-recovery mode can immediately
transition to the root port role and forwarding state when a failure occurs without waiting for the
timer to expire.
B. Switch ports in the alternate port role operating in shared mode can immediately transition to
the root port role and forwarding state when a failure occurs without waiting for the timer to expire.
C. Switch ports in the alternate port role operating in point-to-point mode can immediately
transition to the root port role and forwarding state when a failure occurs without waiting for the
timer to expire.
D. Switch ports operating as edge ports automatically transition to the forwarding state, even
directly after a failure and recovery scenario.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 172
You just installed Switch-1 and Switch-2 in your network. Both switches are EX Series switches
and are connected to each other using a Layer 2 switch port. Switch-1 must run STP, whereas
Switch-2 must run RSTP. Given the scenario, which statement is true?
A. The two switches communicate using RSTP.

B. The two switches will not communicate using STP or RSTP.
C. The two switches communicate using STP.
D. The two switches run in dual-mode and communicate using STP and RSTP.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 173
As shown in the exhibit, Switch-3 receives a superior BPDU from Switch-2 over the ge-0/0/10.0
interface. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Switch-2's ge-0/0/10.0 port assumes the backup role and blocking state.

B. Switch-3's ge-0/0/10.0 port assumes the designated role and forwarding state.
C. Switch-2's ge-0/0/10.0 port assumes the designated role and forwarding state.
D. Switch-3's ge-0/0/10.0 port assumes the alternate role and blocking state.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 174
As shown in the exhibit, three switches are connected and participating in RSTP. Switch
-1 was elected the root bridge and Switch-2 has a lower-cost path to the root bridge than Switch-3.
Based on the details provided, which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Switch-3's ge-0/0/10.0 port assumes the alternate role and blocking state.
B. Switch-3's ge-0/0/10.0 port assumes the designated role and forwarding state.
C. Switch-2's ge-0/0/10.0 port assumes the designated role and forwarding state.
D. Switch-1's ports all assume the root port role and the forwarding state.
E. Switch-1's ports all assume the designated port role and the forwarding state.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 175
You recently implemented a Layer 2 network using RSTP. Which three statements are true
regarding a topology change reconvergence scenario? (Choose three.)
A. Switches do not flush MAC addresses learned from edge ports.

B. When a port transitions to the discarding state on edge or nonedge ports, TCNs are generated
and flooded.
C. When a port transitions to the forwarding state on nonedge ports, the local switch generates
and floods TCNs.
D. Switches do not flush MAC addresses learned through the same port through which TCNs are
received.
E. When a port transitions to the forwarding state on edge ports, the local switch generates and
floods TCNs.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 176
Which three statements are true regarding RSTP and its default behavior? (Choose three.)
A. All switch ports operating in the point-to-point mode have a quicker recovery time than switch
ports operating in shared mode.
B. All switch ports must pass through the listening and learning states before they can be placed
in the forwarding state.
C. Edge ports are automatically placed in the forwarding state when they are operational.
D. Nonedge ports must receive at least one BPDU every six seconds to remain operational.
E. TCN BPDUs are generated and flooded when switch ports transition to the discarding state.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 177

As shown in the exhibit, you recently installed four EX Series switches in your network. These
switches are using the default RSTP configuration. Which two statements are correct? (Choose
two.)
A. Switch-4 selects ge-0/0/10.0 as its root port.

B. Switch-4 selects ge-0/0/9.0 as its root port.
C. Switch-4's root cost path is 4000.
D. Switch-4's root cost path is 40000.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 178

Based on the topology and configurations shown in the exhibit, which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Switch-3 will be elected the root bridge.

B. Both of Switch-1's interfaces will assume the forwarding state.
C. Switch-2 will be elected the root bridge.
D. Both of Switch-3's interfaces will assume the forwarding state.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 179

Based on the topology and configurations shown in the exhibit, which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Switch-2's ge-0/0/12.0 interface will assume the designated port role.

B. Switch-1's ge-0/0/8.0 interface will assume the designated port role.
C. Switch-1's ge-0/0/12.0 interface will assume the designated port role.
D. Switch-3's ge-0/0/8.0 interface will assume the designated port role.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 180
Why would you configure root protection?
A. You want to protect the root bridge from receiving BPDUs on unauthorized interfaces.
B. You want to protect your network from unwanted topology changes from a rogue switch
attempting to become the root bridge.
C. You want to avoid a broadcast storm that originates on the root bridge.
D. You want to prevent unwanted user authentication to the root bridge by defining an acceptable
source-address list for authorized access.
Answer: B

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 181
You want to secure an interface on a switch so that a rogue switch running STP can not be
plugged into this interface. What accomplishes this objective?
A. BPDU protection
B. edge protection
C. rogue protection
D. root protection
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 182
You want your switch to disable an edge port when it receives spanning tree communications on
that port. Which feature accomplishes this objective?
A. RSTP edge port

B. BPDU protection
C. root protection
D. switch protection
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 183
What is one benefit of the root protection feature?
A. It guards against loops caused by unidirectional link failures.

B. It ensures downstream switches never become the root bridge.
C. It disables the port when it detects that a loop has formed over an edge port.
D. It guards against loops caused by a changed root bridge ID.
Answer: B

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 184
You have altered the factory-default storm control configuration so that interfaces on which the
storm control level is exceeded are temporarily shut down for five minutes. Which two methods
can you use to monitor that the auto recovery feature is working? (Choose two.)
A. Issue the monitor traffic violations command.

B. Issue the monitor start messages command.
C. Issue the show storm-control violations command.
D. Issue the show ethernet-switching interfaces command.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 185
Which two statements accurately describe the factory-default storm control configuration?
(Choose two.)
A. Storm control monitors traffic levels for broadcast traffic.

B. Storm control monitors traffic levels for multicast traffic.
C. Storm control drops all monitored traffic in excess of 80 percent.
D. Storm control drops all monitored traffic in excess of 20 percent.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 186
Which three statements accurately describe the factory-default storm control configuration?
(Choose three.)
A. Storm control monitors traffic levels for broadcast traffic.

B. Storm control monitors traffic levels for unknown unicast traffic.
C. Storm control drops all monitored traffic in excess of 80 percent.
D. Storm control monitors traffic levels for multicast traffic.

E. Storm control shuts down the interface on which the storm control level is exceeded.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 187
You want to alter the factory-default storm control configuration so that interfaces on which the
storm control level is exceeded are temporarily shut down for five minutes. Which configuration
excerpt accomplishes this objective?
A. {master:0}[edit ethernet-switching-options]
user@Switch-1# show
storm-control {
action-shutdown;
interface all;
error-disable {
disable-timeout 5;
}
}
B. {master:0}[edit ethernet-switching-options]
user@Switch-1# show
port-error-disable {
disable-timeout 300;
}
storm-control {
action-shutdown;
interface all;
}
C. {master:0}[edit ethernet-switching-options]
user@Switch-1# show
storm-control {
shutdown-action;
interface all;
error-disable {
disable-interval 5;
}
}
D. {master:0}[edit ethernet-switching-options]
user@Switch-1# show
port-error-disable {
disable-interval 300;
}
storm-control {

shutdown-action;
interface all;
}
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 188
What is the proper ingress processing sequence for firewall filters on an EX Series switch?
A. router filter, port filter, VLAN filter

B. port filter, VLAN filter, router filter
C. router filter, VLAN filter, port filter
D. VLAN filter, port filter, router filter
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 189
You just applied the Layer 2 firewall filter shown in the exhibit to a port as an input filter to block
traffic from a one source MAC address. After monitoring the port, you notice that all traffic
ingressing that port has stopped flowing. What is the problem?

A. The traffic is being blocked on the egress port. Another Layer 2 firewall filter must be applied on
the port to allow this traffic.
B. All other traffic is matching the default term and being discarded.
C. The Layer 2 firewall filters will not work at the port level. It must be applied at the VLAN level.
D. The from criterion must match on destination-mac-address and not source-mac-address.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 190
Which three types of firewall filters are supported on EX Series switches? (Choose three.)
A. router filters
B. switch filters
C. source filters
D. VLAN filters
E. port filters
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 191
You want to configure per-flow equal-cost multipath (ECMP) load balancing for only the OSPF
routes on Router-1. Which configuration example accomplishes this?
A. protocols {
ospf {
export EMCP;
}
}
policy-options {
policy-statement ECMP {
term first {
from protocol ospf;
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
}

}
export ECMP;
}
policy-options {
term first {
from protocol ospf;
then {
}
}
}
}
forwarding-table {
export ECMP;
}
}
policy-options {
term first {
from protocol ospf;
then {
}
}
}
}
forwarding-table {
export ECMP;
}
}
policy-options {
term first {
from protocol ospf;
then {
load-balance ECMP;
}
}
}
}
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 192
You want to configure per-flow load balancing for all routes on Router-1. Which configuration
example accomplishes this?
forwarding-table {
export ECMP;
}
}
policy-options {
term first {
then {
}
}
}
}
export ECMP;
}
policy-options {
term first {
then {
}
}
}
}
forwarding-table {
export ECMP;
}
}
policy-options {
term first {
from protocol ospf;
then {
}

}
}
}
forwarding-table {
export ECMP;
}
}
policy-options {
term first {
from protocol ospf;
then {
load-balance ECMP;
}
}
}
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 193
Router-A has an OSPF route to destination 172.18.3.0/24 with four equal-cost paths .How will
Router-A forward traffic destined to 172.18.3.5 based on Junos OS's default behavior?
A. Traffic will be load-balanced on all four available paths.

B. Traffic will be forwarded over the one path installed in the forwarding table.
C. Traffic forwarding will be rotated across each of the four paths for 1 minute on each path.
D. Traffic forwarding behavior depends on the hardware platform.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 194
Which three attributes are considered in the default configuration of per-flow load balancing for
routed IPv4 traffic? (Choose three.)
A. incoming interface
B. source MAC address

C. protocol
D. source IP address
E. destination port
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 195
You have a route in the inet.0 routing table that has four valid physical next hops assigned to it.
Which event prompts an update to the information in the forwarding table for this particular route?
A. When a new physical next hop is added to the next-hop set.

B. When any configuration change is committed on the router.
C. When a packet is forwarded towards the route destination.
D. When an additional route of the same IP address class is added to inet.0.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 196

A router is configured with the configuration shown in the exhibit. Traffic arriving on fe-0/0/0.0 is
not being routed to 10.1.1.1. What can you change to make the device route traffic arriving on fe-
0/0/0.0 to 10.1.1.1?
A. Add filter-based-forwarding enable to the configuration.

B. Ensure that the to-10.1.1.1 routing instance has a route to 10.1.1.1.
C. Add a from statement to the route-to-10.1.1.1 filter.
D. Explicitly configure an interface in the default route in the to-10.1.1.1 routing instance.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 197
Which configuration excerpt is necessary to cause all traffic received on fe-0/0/0.0 to be routed to
next-hop 10.1.1.1?
A. interfaces {
fe-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
policy-route route-to-10.1.1.1;
address 172.17.1.1/24;
}
}
}
}
policy-options {
policy-statement route-to-10.1.1.1 {
term 1 {
then {
next-hop 10.1.1.1;
}
}
}
}
B. interfaces {
fe-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
filter {
input route-to-10.1.1.1;
}
address 172.17.1.1/24;
}
}
}
}
firewall {
family inet {
filter route-to-10.1.1.1 {
term 1 {
then routing-instance to-10.1.1.1;
}
}
}
}
routing-instances {

to-10.1.1.1 {
routing-options {
static {
route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.1.1;
}
}
}
}
C. interfaces {
fe-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
filter {
input route-to-10.1.1.1;
}
address 172.17.1.1/24;
}
}
}
}
firewall {
family inet {
filter route-to-10.1.1.1 {
term 1 {
then next-hop 10.1.1.1;
}
}
}
}
D. interfaces {
fe-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
routing-instance to-10.1.1.1;
address 172.17.1.1/24;
}
}
}
}
routing-instances {
to-10.1.1.1 {
routing-options {
static {
route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.1.1;
}

}
}
}
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 198
What is the purpose of the configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. This configuration causes all routes for directly connected interfaces to be installed in oth the
inet.0 routing table and the inet.0 routing table for the blue routing instance.
B. This configuration causes all routes for directly connected interfaces that are assigned to the
blue routing instance to be installed in both the inet.0 routing table and the inet.0 routing table for
the blue routing instance.
C. This configuration causes all routes from inet.0 to also be installed in blue.inet.0.
D. This configuration allows you to specify my-rib-group in a static route's next-table statement to
cause the static route to first try to resolve the address in inet.0 and then in blue.inet.0.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 199
You want to configure filter-based forwarding. What are the three required configuration elements?
(Choose three.)
A. routing instance
B. firewall filter

C. policy statement
D. prefix list
E. RIB group
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 200
You want to ensure that interface routes appear in multiple routing instances. Which configuration
accomplishes this scenario?
A. Configure each interface under multiple routing instances.

B. Add an import policy for each routing instance.
C. Configure the routing instance to be a forwarding type instead of a virtual-router type.
D. Configure a RIB group and configure the router to install interface routes in the RIB group.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Topic 3, Volume C
QUESTION NO: 201
You want to ensure that all traffic arriving on interface fe-0/0/0.0 will be routed to next-hop
10.1.1.1, regardless of the more specific routes that might appear in the routing table. How can
you accomplish this configuration?
A. Configure a default route with a next hop of 10.1.1.1 and configure the always-use flag for the
route.
B. Configure and apply a firewall filter that sends all traffic to a routing instance, configure a default
route in that routing instance, and configure the router to install interface routes in that routing
instance.
C. Configure a routing policy that matches all traffic and sets the next hop to 10.1.1.1, and
configure a RIB group to ensure that the routing policy can resolve the next hop to 10.1.1.1.
D. Configure a firewall filter that matches all traffic and sets the next hop to 10.1.1.1, apply the
firewall filter to a RIB group, and assign the fe-0/0/0.0 interface to that RIB group.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 202
Which statement describes the operation of a stub area?
A. A stub area receives only a default route.

B. A stub area receives all routes from all other areas.
C. A stub area receives no external routes from other areas.
D. A stub area is automatically configured based on the presence of the E-bit in the hello
messages sent from the ABR.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 203
Which configuration allows the virtual IP address to respond to pings?
A. [edit interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 50 family inet address 192.168.0.12/24]

user@RouterA# show
vrrp-group 50 {
virtual-address 192.168.0.1;
fast-interval 250;
preempt;
accept-data;
}
B. [edit interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 50 family inet address 192.168.0.12/24]
user@RouterA# show
vrrp-group 50 {
fast-interval 250;
no-preempt;
no-accept-data;
}
C. [edit interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 50 family inet address 192.168.0.12/24]
user@RouterA# show
vrrp-group 50 {
fast-interval 250;
accept-icmp;
}
D. [edit interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 50 family inet address 192.168.0.12/24]
user@RouterA# show
vrrp-group 50 {

priority 220;
advertise-interval 10;
preempt;
accept-packets;
}
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 204
Why does a router create an ASBRSum (Type 4) LSA?
A. An ABR creates an ASBRSum (Type 4) LSA with the information contained in NSSA (Type 7)
LSAs it receives from NSSAs.
B. An ABR creates an ASBRSum (Type 4) LSA to describe the router ID of ASBRs located in
other areas.
C. An ASBR creates an ASBRSum (Type 4) LSA to describe its router ID so that routers in other
areas can reach the external networks it advertises.
D. An ABR creates an ASBRSum (Type 4) LSA to summarize routes received from other areas.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 205
For two OSPF neighbors to establish a full adjacency on a broadcast medium, what information in
their hello packets must match? (Choose two.)
41 / 79
A. network mask
B. router priority
C. dead interval
D. the list of neighbors on the network
Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 206
In the exhibit, Area 2.2.2.2 is configured as a not-so-stubby area and Area 1.1.1.1 is configured as
a normal area. R5 has an export policy that causes the RIP network prefixes to be announced
through OSPF. Which LSA type does R7 receive describing the RIP network prefixes?
A. Summary (Type 3)
B. ASBRSum (Type 4)
C. Extern (Type 5)
D. NSSA (Type 7)
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 207
What is preserved by enabling graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES)?
A. control-plane state
B. link-state protocol adjacencies
C. interface and kernel information
D. BGP peering relationships
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 208
In the exhibit, Areas 1.1.1.1 and 2.2.2.2 are configured as normal areas. R5 has an export policy
that causes the RIP network prefixes to be announced through OSPF. Which three LSA types
does R7 receive for the information advertised by R5? (Choose three.)
A. Router (Type 1)
B. Network (Type 2)
C. Summary (Type 3)
D. ASBRSum (Type 4)
E. Extern (Type 5)
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 209

In the exhibit, Areas 1.1.1.1 and 2.2.2.2 are configured as normal areas. In R7's OSPF
configuration, the interface on the 172.30.1.0/24 network is configured with the passive option. In
which LSA type does R5 receive the announcement for the 172.30.1.0/24 network?
A. Router (Type 1)
B. Network (Type 2)
C. Summary (Type 3)
D. Extern (Type 5)
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 210

You configure a network according to the topology shown in the exhibit but find that users
attached to R7 are having difficulty communicating with the rest of the network. What are two
solutions to the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Area 3.3.3.3 as a stub area.

B. Create a virtual link between R3 and R6.
C. Configure an OSPF export policy on R6 to export routes from Area 2.2.2.2 to Area 3.3.3.3 and
from Area 3.3.3.3 to Area 2.2.2.2.
D. Connect R6 to Area 0.0.0.0.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 211

In the exhibit, R5 is exporting the RIP network prefixes into OSPF. You want to limit the number of
LSAs sent to Area 2.2.2.2, but you want to ensure that all routers in other are as will have routes
to all networks contained in the LSAs sent by the routers in Area 2.2.2.2. Which configuration
change will enable this scenario?
A. Configure Area 2.2.2.2 as a stub area.

B. Configure Area 2.2.2.2 as a not-so-stubby area.
C. Configure an area range on R3.
D. Configure an export filter for OSPF on R3.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 212
You attach six routers (R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, and R6) to a single Ethernet LAN and configure the
routers with addresses in the same subnet. You do not modify the default priority of any router. R1
is chosen as the designated router and R2 is chosen as the backup designated router. How many
full adjacencies does R3 have?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 213
In the exhibit, four routers (R1, R2, R3, and R4) are attached to a single Ethernet LAN and
configured with addresses in the same subnet. All devices boot at the same time. Which router or
routers will send a Network (Type 2) LSA for the network?
A. R2
B. R4
C. R1 and R2
D. R3 and R4
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 214

In the exhibit, six routers (R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, and R6) are attached to a single Ethernet
LAN and configured with addresses in the same subnet. All devices boot at the same time. Which
router will become the designated router (DR), and which router will become the backup
designated router (BDR)?
A. DR:R3
BDR: R4
B. DR: R4
BDR: R3
C. DR: R6
BDR: R1
D. DR: R6
BDR: R2
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 215
Five routers (R1, R2, R3, R4, and R5) are attached to a single Ethernet LAN and configured with
addresses in the same subnet. R1 is chosen as the designated router (DR) and R2 is chosen as
the backup designated router (BDR). You add R6 and configure it as shown in the exhibit. Which
routers are now the DR and BDR?
A. DR:R1
BDR: R2
B. DR: R6
BDR: R1

C. DR: R6
BDR: R2
D. DR: R1
BDR: R6
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 216
You must configure an OSPF area that must not contain any ASBRs and that must not receive
any Extern (Type 5) LSAs. This area should be aware of the entire OSPF network, but it should
not be aware of routes external to OSPF. Which area type meets these requirements?
A. not-so-stubby area
B. totally stubby area
C. stub area
D. backbone area
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 217
Which statement describes an OSPF area for which no-summaries is configured?
A. The ABR does not generate any Summary (Type 3) LSAs towards the backbone.
B. The ABR does not generate any Summary (Type 3) LSAs for other OSPF areas.
C. The area does not summarize external routes generated within its area.
D. The area does not accept or create summaries of any kind.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 218
Which type of OSPF area restricts external routes from other areas but allows external routes to
be flooded by ASBRs within its own area?

A. not-so-stubby area
B. backbone area
C. stub area with no-summaries configured
D. stub area
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 219
Which two statements are true of OSPF stub areas? (Choose two.)
A. Stub areas might contain ASBRs and can receive external Extern (Type 5) LSAs from other
areas.
B. Stub areas cannot be crossed in the creation of a virtual link.
C. Stub areas cannot receive any Summary (Type 3) LSAs.
D. Stub areas cannot contain an ASBR.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 220
Router A is configured as the VRRP master and Router B is configured as the backup. Router A
has lost the mastership and has become the backup router and you need to find out why. Which
two commands should you use to determine why Router A is no longer the VRRP master?
(Choose two.)
A. show vrrp
B. show vrrp summary
C. show vrrp detail
D. show vrrp track
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 221
Which two statements are true of IS-IS? (Choose two.)

A. When configured on a broadcast segment, IS-IS elects a designated intermediate system that
establishes adjacencies with all IS-IS enabled nodes on the segment.
B. When configured on a broadcast segment, IS-IS forms a full mesh of adjacencies called a
mesh group; unlike OSPF, no designated device exists to represent the segment.
C. When configured on a broadcast segment, IS-IS elects a backup designated intermediate
system.
D. When configured on a broadcast segment, the network itself is called a pseudo-node
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 222
Which two statements are true regarding the election process of the DIS in IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. In the event of a priority tie, the DIS is the router with the lowest configured IP address.
B. In the event of a priority tie, the DIS is the router with the highest MAC address.
C. A user can configure a priority for DIS election from 0 to 255.
D. The default DIS election priority is 64 for Level 1 and Level 2.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 223
With which type of IS-IS router can an IS-IS Level 1-only router form an adjacency?
A. any IS-IS Level 1 router of any area

B. any IS-IS Level 2 router of any area
C. any properly configured IS-IS router
D. any IS-IS Level 1 router of the same area
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 224

Refer to the router configuration shown in the exhibit. To which IS-IS level(s) does this router
belong?
A. Level 2 only
B. Level 1 and Level 2
C. Level 1 only
D. Level 3 only
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 225
With which type of IS-IS router can an IS-IS Level 2-only router form an adjacency?
A. only other IS-IS Level 2 routers of the same area

B. any IS-IS router
C. any other IS-IS Level 2 router
D. IS-IS Level 1 routers of the same area
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 226

Refer to the router configuration shown in the exhibit. To which IS-IS area does this router belong?
A. Area 49
B. Area 0100
C. Area 49.2020
D. Area 49.2020.0100.1001.0001
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 227
In the exhibit, how many Level 1 adjacencies does Montreal have?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 228

The exhibit shows a BGP multihomed network connecting to ISP A and ISP B. The secondary link
is to be used only in a failover scenario in which the primary link is not usable. Which BGP
attribute should you use to influence inbound traffic to use the primary link t hat is sourced from
ISP C?
A. multiple exit discriminator (MED)

B. local preference
C. AS path
D. origin
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 229
In the configuration shown in the exhibit, you want to form an EBGP peering relationship to the
loopback address of a router administered by your ISP, but the session will not establish. What is
causing the problem?
A. EBGP cannot peer to a virtual address.

B. The EBGP session needs to be explicitly configured with multihop.
C. The EBGP session needs to be explicitly configured as type external.
D. The autonomous system information needs to be configured under [protocols bgp].
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 230

A new BGP session has been configured. Upon monitoring the session state, you notice that the

session has just transitioned from connect state to active state. What does the active state indicate
for this BGP session?
A. Something is wrong with your configuration. You must check your configuration and try again.
B. This is the expected behavior. You should wait longer for the BGP session to establish.
C. The OPEN messages collided. One BGP peer must be configured with the passive option.
D. No route exists to the neighbors peering address. Check the IGP for reachability.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 231
In the exhibit, the 172.32.1.0/24 prefix is being sent from Router A to Router B through BGP.
When the BGP announcement for 172.23.1.0/24 is sent from Router B and received by Router C,
which two attributes will be changed by default? (Choose two.)
A. AS path
B. origin
C. multiple exit discriminator (MED)
D. next hop
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 232
How do two BGP peers signal their capabilities to each other?

A. They include their capabilities in OPEN messages.
B. They send UPDATE messages with their capabilities after the session is established.
C. They send CAPABILITIES messages before they send OPEN messages.
D. The network operator must manually configure the capabilities on both BGP peers.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 233
Router 2 is peered using EBGP to Router 3's physical interface. A route is announced from Router
3 to Router 2. Router 2 then announces this route to Router 1 using IBGP. No routing policies are
configured on any of the three routers. What will the BGP next-hop attribute of this route be when
examined on Router 1?
A. 172.17.5.5
B. 10.10.10.1
C. 10.10.10.2
D. 192.168.5.50
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 234
In the exhibit, Router A and Router B have a VRRP relationship through Switch A. Router A is the
VRRP master and Router B's VRRP priority is set to the default. Based on the configuration for
Router A shown in the exhibit, which two interfaces must go down for Router B to become the
VRRP master? (Choose two.)
A. ge-0/0/0
B. ge-0/0/2
C. ge-0/0/3
D. ge-0/0/7
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 235
Which statement is true of BGP communities?
A. Communities are used to identify BGP routes based on the originating route's attributes,

whether it is an internal route, an external route, or unknown.
B. Communities are added by route reflectors. A route reflector appends its own IP address and
the autonomous system number separated by a colon in the community field each time a route
traverses it.
C. Communities are used to determine preference within a network; lower community values are
more preferable than higher values.
D. Communities are used as a tool for sorting and categorizing routes based on user-defined
criteria.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 236
In the exhibit, the route 66.129.237.5 belongs to a Web server within AS 344.
If you view the AS-path attribute of this route on a router in AS 9021, what will it be?
A. 344 11 221 6044

B. 221 6044 11 344
C. 9021 221 6044 11 344

D. 221 6044 11 344 9021
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 237
Company A wants to control how BGP traffic reaches the Internet.
What should you configure to ensure that traffic exits the network by way of Router 1 toward ISP
1?
A. You should change the underlying IGP metric to make Router 1 more preferable.
B. You should configure Router 1 to have a community with an IBGP export policy, which makes
its routes more preferable.
C. You should configure Router 1 to have a higher local-preference value with an EBGP import
policy to make its routes more preferable.
D. You should set Router 2's MED to a higher value using an IBGP export policy to make its
routes less preferable.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 238
Refer to the command-line output shown in the exhibit. How many routes has this router received
from the BGP peer at 10.10.10.1?
A. 0 routes
B. 2 routes
C. 3 routes
D. 57 routes
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 239
Refer to the command-line output shown in the exhibit. How many routes received from the BGP
peer at 192.168.1.2 are active for this router?
A. 3 routes
B. 4 routes
C. 46 routes
D. 53 routes
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 240
You want to change the BGP next hop to ensure that internal routers have reachability to networks
learned from external peers. Which configuration excerpt applied on the perimeter router achieves
this objective?
A. protocols {
bgp {
group internal {
type internal;
local-address 10.10.10.1;
neighbor 10.10.20.1 next-hop-self;
}
}
}
B. protocols {
bgp {
group internal {
type internal;
export change-next-hop;
neighbor 10.10.20.1;
}
}
}
policy-options {
policy-statement change-next-hop {
term 1 {
from {
protocol bgp;
external;
}
then {
next-hop self;
}
}
}
}
C. protocols {
bgp {

group internal {
type internal;
}
}
}
policy-options {
term 1 {
from {
protocol bgp;
route-type external;
}
then {
next-hop self;
}
}
}
}
D. protocols {
bgp {
group ext {
type external;
peer-as 111;
}
}
}
policy-options {
term 1 {
from {
protocol bgp;
}
then {
next-hop self;
}
}
}
}
Answer: C

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 241
Router-A and Router-B shown in the exhibit are peering between their loopback interfaces. Which
operational command on Router-A do you use to display all the BGP routes received from Router-
B?
A. show route receive-protocol bgp 10.10.10.2 all

B. show route receive-protocol bgp 10.10.10.1 all
C. show bgp rib-in neighbor 10.10.10.1
D. show bgp receive-protocol bgp 10.10.10.2
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 242

Router-A and Router-B shown in the exhibit are peering between their loopback interfaces. Which
operational-mode command on Router-B do you use to display the BGP routes advertised to
Router-A?
A. show route advertising-protocol bgp 10.10.10.2

B. show route advertising-protocol bgp 10.10.10.1
C. show bgp rib-out neighbor 10.10.10.1
D. show bgp neighbor 10.10.10.1 advertised-routes
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 243
Which two statements describe nonstop routing? (Choose two.)
A. RPD is running on the backup RE.

B. Graceful restart is required for nonstop routing to function.
C. Peer nodes are not alerted of RE mastership changes.
D. COSD is running on the backup RE.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 244
Router 2 is receiving a route to 10.0.0.0/8 from Router 4 and Router 5. What will Router 2 do with
the routes shown in the exhibit?
A. Router 2 will mark both routes active if the next hops are reachable.
B. Router 2 will prefer the route received from Router 4 because of a lower origin code value.
C. Router 2 will prefer the route that arrived first because neither route is necessarily preferable
over the other.
D. Router 2 will prefer the route received from Router 5 because it has a shorter AS path.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 245

Router 2 is receiving a route to 10.0.0.0/8 from Router 4 and Router 5. What will Router 2 do with
the routes shown in the exhibit?
A. Router 2 will mark both routes active if both next hops are reachable.
B. Router 2 will prefer the route received from Router 4 because of a lower origin code value.
C. Router 2 will prefer the route that arrived first because neither route is necessarily preferable
over the other.
D. Router 2 will prefer the route received from Router 5 because it has a lower MED value.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 246
Router 2 is receiving two announcements of a route to 10.0.0.0/8. Router 2 learned one version of
the route from ISP-2; this announcement of the route was received first. The second
announcement of the route was received from Router 1 using IBGP. What will Router 2 do with the
routes shown in the exhibit?
A. Router 2 will choose to forward traffic toward ISP 2 because this route was learned first.
B. Router 2 will choose to forward traffic toward Router 1 because newer routes are preferable.
C. Router 2 will choose to forward traffic toward ISP 2 because EBGP-learned routes are
preferred over IBGP-learned routes.

D. Router 2 will choose to forward traffic toward Router 1 because IBGP-learned routes are
preferred over EBGP-learned routes.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 247
Which two statements are true of GRE? (Choose two.)
A. GRE can encapsulate and transport protocols other than IP across an IP network.
B. GRE can create a point-to-point link between two devices separated by multiple hops
C. GRE encrypts the data it transports to ensure data integrity.
D. GRE maintains state at Layer 5 of the OSI reference model.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 248
Which field of the IP header is modified on a payload packet when using GRE?
A. time to live
B. source address
C. protocol
D. fragment offset
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 249
You must create an IP-IP tunnel between two routers on your network. These two devices are
separated by 10 hops. The tunnel appears to be established, but no traffic is traversing the tunnel.
What causes this behavior?
A. The tunnel's TTL has not been modified from the default value of 8.
B. Traffic is being dropped along the path because a configured MTU is greater than the tunnel's

MTU.
C. A route that directs traffic into the tunnel is not present.
D. BGP has not been enabled between tunnel end-points.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 250
Which three statements are true about tunnels? (Choose three.)
A. By default, GRE tunnels copy the ToS bits of the inner packet's IP header to the GRE header.
B. By default, GRE allows fragmentation of packets traversing nodes whose MTU is lower than the
de-encapsulating devices.
C. IP-IP tunnels transport only IP traffic.
D. GRE and IP-IP tunnels are configured by defining a logical unit for a tunnel interface.
E. GRE encapsulations and IP-IP encapsulations both add additional overhead to a packet.
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 251
You want traffic destined for the 66.142.1.0/24 network to traverse an IP-IP tunnel. You notice
traffic being sent to any address in that subnet is not being received. Upon reviewing the output
shown in the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. The route is in the wrong routing table.

B. The route is a static route; a dynamic routing protocol must be used.
C. The route is not active in the inet.2 routing table.
D. The route does not point to the IP-IP tunnel.
Answer: D

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 252
An IP-IP tunnel must meet which two requirements to function correctly? (Choose two.)
A. The tunnel end points must have a valid route to each other.
B. The tunnel end points must be distributed inside the IGP.
C. A GRE tunnel must be established first to carry the IP-IP tunnel.
D. All devices in between the tunnel end points must have a valid route to the tunnel end points.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 253
A GRE tunnel is established between two routers. When a user on one end sends traffic with a
large packet size to a user on the remote end, the packet never arrives. However, the problem
does not exist for smaller packets. What is the problem?
A. The tunnel is down on the remote end.

B. The don't-fragment bit is set on the traffic.
C. GRE tunnels do not support IP traffic.
D. No dynamic routing protocol exists to handle the traffic.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 254
You have created an IP-IP tunnel which will traverse interface at-0/1/0 and you would like to make
sure that the tunnel is operational. Which operational-mode command should you use to verify that
the IP-IP tunnel interface is up?
A. show ip tunnels interfaces

B. show interfaces at-0/1/0 terse
C. show interfaces ip-0/0/0 terse
D. show ip-0/0/0 interfaces terse

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 255
Devices S1 and S2 have the interface configurations as shown in the exhibit. You attach ge-0/0/0
on S1 to ge-0/0/0 on S2. You attach ge-0/0/1 on S1 to ge-1/0/20 on S2. However, the ae0
interface remains down on both S1 and S2. What should you change to cause the ae0 interface to

come up?
A. You should use consecutive interfaces on S2.

B. You should use interfaces on S2 that are on the same member of the Virtual Chassis.
C. You should configure at least one switch to run LACP in active mode.
D. You should make the list of VLANs on the ae0 interfaces on S1 and S2 match.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 256
You want to configure a redundant trunk group on a switch. You want ge-0/0/0.0 to be the default
link; however, if ge-0/0/0.0 fails and the switch begins using ge-0/0/1.0, you want the switch to
continue using ge-0/0/1.0 until ge-0/0/1.0 fails. Which configuration will accomplish this scenario?
A. redundant-trunk-group {
primary;
}
primary;
}
}
B. redundant-trunk-group {
no-preempt;
}
C. redundant-trunk-group {
primary;
}
}
D. redundant-trunk-group {
}
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 257
Which three steps must you complete for an aggregated Ethernet configuration on a switch?
(Choose three.)
A. Define the aggregated Ethernet interface under the [edit chassis] stanza.
B. Configure the interface under the [edit protocols lacp] stanza.
C. Configure the aggregated Ethernet interface.
D. Assign physical interfaces to the aggregated Ethernet interface.
E. Configure the minimum number of links required for the bundle to be operational.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 258
You are using redundant trunk groups (RTG) on your network.
Which two statements accurately describe RTG? (Choose two.)
A. RTG interfaces pass BPDU packets.

B. Aggregate Ethernet (AE) interfaces cannot be part of an RTG.
C. RTG is used as an alternative to STP/RSTP.
D. RTG connects an access switch to two aggregation switches.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 259
Which two packet types are handled solely by the RE within an EX4200? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF hellos
B. DHCP relay
C. STP BPDUs

D. IP multicast traffic
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 260
Which statement is correct regarding the VLAN factory-default configuration on an EX Series

switch?
A. The default configuration assigns the default VLAN to use ID 0.

B. The default configuration assigns the default VLAN to use ID 10.
C. The default configuration assigns all switch ports to the default VLAN.
D. The default configuration assigns the management port only to the default VLAN.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 261
Under which hierarchy do you configure OSPF?
A. [edit protocols ospf]

B. [edit routing-options]
C. [edit routing-protocols]
D. [edit protocols igp]
Answer: A
Explanation: 1C.JPR.Parma-VC.001.A1> show configuration protocols ospf
inactivE. traceoptions {
file ospf.txt;
flag state;
flag route;
flag general;
flag event detail;
}
traffic-engineering;
export ospf-redistribution;
area 0.0.0.0 {

interface ae0.0 {
interface-type p2p;
hello-interval 3;
authentication {
md5 1 key OMMITTED
}
}
interface lo0.0 {
passive;
}
}
QUESTION NO: 262
You add a GRE tunnel to transport packets between two routers. After implementing this, you
notice an increase in the number of dropped packets. While looking at packet captures, you notice
that the do-not-fragment (DF) bit is set in the IP header of all the dropped packets.
What would cause this changed behavior?
A. The GRE tunnel has a lower MTU than the physical interface.
B. GRE tunnels do not support fragmentation.
C. GRE tunnels do not support the DF bit.
D. The GRE tunnel has a higher MTU than the physical interface.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 263
Which three statements are correct about a Junos firewall filter? (Choose three.)
A. It examines each packet individually.

B. It tracks connections and allows you to specify an action to take on all packets within a flow.
C. It requires you to configure the Junos operating system to explicitly allow traffic in both
directions for each connection that you want to permit.
D. It permits the initial connection and then automatically permits bidirectional communications for

this connection.
E. It is stateless in nature and is used by the software to control traffic passing through the device.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 264
Which type of port must be an 802.1Q tagged port?
A. access
B. LAG
C. LACP
D. trunk
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 265
You want to allow RIP routes to be redistributed by an ASBR into the connected OSPF area, but
you do not want to recieve external routes from other OSPF areas.
Which OSPF area type would be used to satisfy the requirement?
A. transit area
B. stub area
C. totally stubby area
D. not-so-stubby area
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 266
What is a difference between a generated route and an aggregated route?
A. Generated routes have a higher preference by default.

B. Generated routes use a next hop of discard.
C. Generated routes have a lower preference by default.
D. Generated routes use a next hop of a contributing route.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 267
Two routers have established a peering using EBGP over a single T1 link.
How often will the routing table be synchronized between the two routers?
A. every 30 minutes
B. when an update message is received
C. every 30 seconds
D. when a notification message is received
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 268
You have enabled VRRP. You want to prevent preemptive behavior.
Which two actions must you perform? (Choose two.)
A. Use an IP address that is not assigned to a router interface.

B. Use the IP address of one of the routers as the virtual address.
C. Disable preemption with the no-preempt command.
D. Set both routers to the same priority value.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 269
Which two statements describe STP and RSTP interoperability? (Choose two.)

A. STP protocol discards any RSTP BPDUs it receives.
B. STP protocol accepts RSTP BPDUs but will not respond.
C. RSTP accepts STP BPDUs and responds with STP BPDUs.
D. RSTP discards STP BPDUs.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 270
Which feature allows you to drop unknown unicast traffic when exceeding a specified level?
A. MAC limiting
B. IP source guard
C. storm control
D. broadcast control
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 271
You are configuring DHCP snooping to improve security on your network.
Which configuration enables DHCP snooping on the VLAN?
A. ethernet-switching-options {
secure-access-port {
vlan default {
examine-dhcp;
}
}
}
B. ethernet-switching-options {
vlan default {
no-examine-dhcp;
}
}
}

C. ethernet-switching-options {
vlan default {
no-dhcp-trusted;
}
}
}
D. ethernet-switching-options {
vlan default {
dhcp-trusted;
}
}
}
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 272
Layer 2 interfaces can be assigned to operate in which two modes? (Choose two.)
A. route
B. access
C. trunk
D. distribution
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 273
Which three types of firewall filters are supported by Juniper Networks EX Series Ethernet
switches? (Choose three.)
A. a VLAN-based firewall filter applied to Layer 3 in the ingress and egress directions
B. a router-based firewall filter applied to Layer 2 routed interfaces in the ingress and egress
directions
C. a router-based firewall filter applied to Layer 3 routed interfaces in the ingress and egress
directions
D. a port-based firewall applied to Layer 2 switch ports in the ingress and egress direction

E. a VLAN-based firewall applied to Layer 2 VLANs in the ingress and egress directions
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 274
Your customer wants to connect a VoIP phone to interface ge-0/0/5 on an EX4200 switch in VLAN
20 and connect a PC to the VoIP phone. The PC should be part of VLAN 30.
Which two commands will implement this solution? (Choose two.)
A. set interface ge-0/0/5.0 family ethernet-switching vlan members vlan-30

B. set ethernet-switching-options voip interface ge-0/0/5.0 vlan 20
C. set interface ge-0/0/5.0 family ethernet-switching vlan members vlan-20
D. set ethernet-switching-options voip interface ge-0/0/5.0 vlan 30
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 275
You review the current LSA database and you suspect that your LSA database contains stale or
invalid database entries. You need to verify that your router is receiving LSAs from other routers in
your network.
Which action would you take to correct this problem?
A. Purge the LSDB.

B. Increase the max-age attribute for the LSDB.
C. Decrease the max-age attribute for the LSDB.
D. Disable and enable the interfaces.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 276

Which three statements are correct about the processing order of firewall filters on a Junos
device? (Choose three.)
A. A router-based firewall filter applied to an RVI applies to switched packets in the same VLAN.
B. A port-based firewall filter applied to an RVI does not apply to switched packets in the same
VLAN.
C. A router-based firewall filter applied to an RVI does not apply to switched packets in the same
VLAN.
D. The egress processing order is router, VLAN, port.
E. The ingress processing order is port, VLAN, router.
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 277
Which Junos platform provides Ethernet switching services?
A. M Series
B. T Series
C. EX Series
D. MAG Series
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 278
You are setting up EX4200 switches in a Virtual Chassis configuration to deliver high availability.
Which two actions would improve availability? (Choose two.)
A. Enable graceful Routing Engine switchover.

B. Set the mastership priority value of all switches to 255.
C. Distribute all uplink ports across the REs.
D. Distribute uplink ports across the various line cards in the VC.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 279
Which command shows the state of OSPF adjacencies?
A. show protocol ospf

B. show interfaces ospf neighbor
C. show ospf neighbor
D. show port ospf neighbor
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 280
Which three statements are correct about an AE interface? (Choose three.)
A. It can be configured as either active or passive.

B. It always load balances traffic equally.
C. It can support LACP.
D. It is referred to as a LAG.
E. It can be configured as active only.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 281
Router R2 is having adjacency problems with Router R1. Router R2 is stuck in ExStart state.
What is causing the problem?
A. There is a physical and data link layer problem between R1 and R2.
B. There is a misconfigured IP address on the R2 interface.
C. The hello and dead intervals on R2 do not match R1.
D. The interface MTU setting on R2 does not match R1.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 282
You want to configure a tunnel between two routers, and run the IS-IS routing protocol through the
tunnel.
Which tunnel meets this requirement?
A. GRE
B. IP-IP
C. IPsec
D. NGMVPN
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 283
Which two requirements are needed to load balance traffic per flow? (Choose two.)
A. a destination with equal cost paths

B. a properly applied policy with an action to load-balance per-packet
C. a properly applied policy with an action to load-balance per-flow
D. a destination with multiple active routes
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 284
Which two statements are correct about the voice VLAN feature? (Choose two.)
A. The voice VLAN feature enables access ports to accept both tagged and untagged traffic.
B. The voice VLAN feature requires access ports to accept untagged traffic only.
C. The voice VLAN feature always uses the same VLAN as the data VLAN
D. The voice VLAN feature is used with CoS to differentiate traffic.
Answer: A,D

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 285
You are analyzing packet captures on your network. You observe an OSPF Type 7 LSA.
In which area type did this packet originate?
A. backbone
B. stub
C. totally stubby
D. not-so-stubby area
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 286
Router A and Router B are on the same network segment and in the same OSPF area. Router A
receives an LSA header from Router B that is not currently in its own database.
Which OSPF packet type does Router A send to Router B?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 287
Which three statements are true of GRE tunnels? (Choose three.)
A. The local tunnel endpoint must have a valid route to the remote endpoint.
B. GRE tunnels must authenticate at both ends of the tunnel.

C. Tunnel endpoints must have a route that directs traffic into a tunnel.
D. The "gr" interface can only route packets that are IP protocol packets.
E. All intermediary devices must have a route to the tunnel endpoints.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 288
You have a traditional 3-tier network design.
What are two functions of the aggregation layer? (Choose two.)
A. It functions as the gateway to the WAN edge.

B. It connects access layer switches.
C. It provides inter-VLAN routing.
D. It facilitates device access.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 289
What is the default next-hop behavior for aggregate routes?
A. discard
B. resolve
C. reject
D. direct
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 290
Which configuration will cause IPv4 interface routes from inet.0 to appear in the myinstance
routing instance?

interface-routes {
rib-group inet myribgroup;
}
rib-groups {
myribgroup {
import-rib [ inet.0 myinstance.inet.0 ];
}
}
}
interface-routes {
rib-group inet myribgroup;
}
rib-groups {
myribgroup {
export-rib inet.0;
import-rib myinstance.inet.0;
}
}
}
interface-routes {
import into myinstance.inet.0;
}
}
rib-groups {
interface-routes {
import-rib [ inet.0 myinstance.inet.0 ];
}
}
}
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 291
Which statement is true regarding the minimum-interval configuration shown below?
user@router# show ospf
area 0.0.0.0 {

bfd-liveness-detection {
minimum-interval 300;
A. It is the minimum hold time before BFD informs OSPF that the BFD session has been torn
down.
B. It enables minimum transmit and receive intervals for 300 ms.
C. It enables minimum transmit and receive intervals for 300 seconds.
D. It is the minimum amount of time that the BFD session must remain alive before changing state.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 292
Which three networks are default Martian addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.0.0/12 orlonger
B. 127.0.0.0/8 orlonger
C. 192.0.0.0/24 orlonger
D. 10.0.0.0/8 orlonger
E. 0.0.0.0/8 orlonger
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 293
What is the purpose of MAC limiting?
A. MAC limiting limits the size of the CAM table and accelerates the aging of MAC addresses.
B. MAC limiting sets a maximum rate on addresses learned over a period of time to minimize
possible congestion caused by flooding.
C. MAC limiting limits the number of source MAC addresses that may be learned on an interface

and protects it from MAC spoofing.
D. MAC limiting on a Layer 3 interface prevents a duplicate MAC address for a single IP address.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 294
Which two adjacencies are allowed to form when configuring IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. a Level 1 router in Area 5 connected to a Level 2 router in Area 5

B. a Level 1 router in Area 4 connected to a Level 1 router in Area 2
C. a Level 2 router in Area 4 connected to a Level 2 router in Area 8
D. a Level 1 router in Area 3 connected to a Level 1 router in Area 3
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 295
A router is configured to use standard metrics. The router has a single link to a Level 2 IS-IS
neighbor.
What is the maximum metric for that link?
A. 63
B. 254
C. 1023
D. 65534
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 296
You want STP to behave similar to RSTP.
Which three configuration settings under the [edit protocols stp] hierarchy on an EX Series switch

allow this? (Choose three.)
A. max-age
B. bridge-priority
C. edge
D. forwarding-delay
E. hello-time
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 297
What describes the action of the qualified-next-hop parameter in a configuration?
A. It performs a recursive lookup on the destination network to confirm that the route is reachable.
B. It allows for the configuration of independent preferences for static routes to the same
destination.
C. It periodically pings the next hop to validate its existence thereby assigning the static route to
the forwarding table.
D. It verifies the maximum hop count limit before validating the static route.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 298
You are configuring a firewall filter and need to select a terminating action.
What are three terminating actions? (Choose three.)
A. reject
B. allow
C. accept
D. discard
E. drop
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 299
A company's Junos-based router has two EBGP peers and receives two BGP update messages
with the following information:
Peer A - AS path [ 65001 64513 12 ] ; MED 67 ; origin value 1
Peer B - AS path [ 65002 64513 12 ] ; MED 70 ; origin value 2
Assuming default values, how will the company router react to these updates?
A. The path through Peer A will be preferred for all traffic to that destination.
B. The path through Peer B will be preferred for all traffic to that destination.
C. The paths will be load balanced to that destination based on a Layer 3 hash.
D. The company router marks the routes as hidden to that destination because the MED exceeds
63.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 300
You have been asked to configure a route to 192.168.0.0/16 that will only be active under the
following criteriA.
- There is an active route to 192.168.100.0/24.

- The 192.168.100.0/24 route came from the protocol OSPF.
Which type of route accomplishes this task?
A. static
B. generate
C. aggregate
D. null
Answer: B
Explanation:
Topic 4, Volume D

QUESTION NO: 301
What are two BGP session types? (Choose two.)
A. internal
B. inside
C. outside
D. external
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 302
You are asked to configure a port to support both tagged and untagged traffic. You want to make
the trunk port ge-0/0/0 and also accept untagged traffic for the data VLAN.
Which configuration will satisfy the requirement?
A. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 vlan members data

B. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 untagged-vlan data
C. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 native-vlan-id data
D. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 default-vlan data
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 303
You want to enable an Ethernet Link Aggregation Group (LAG) on an EX Series switch.
Which commands enable this?
A. [edit chassis]
user@switch# set aggregated-devices ethernet device-count 1
[edit interfaces]
user@switch# set ae1 aggregated-ether-options minimum-links 1
user@switch# set ae1 aggregated-ether-options link-speed 10g
user@switch# set ae1 unit 0 family inet address 192.168.1.0/24
user@switch# set xe-0/1/0 ether-options 802.3ad ae1

B. [edit chassis]
user@switch# set chassis aggregated-devices ethernet device-count 2
[edit interfaces]
user@switch# set interface ae0 aggregated-ether-options minimum-links 1
user@switch# set interface ae0 aggregated-ether-options link-speed 10g
user@switch# set interface ae0 unit 0 family inet address 192.168.1.0/24
user@switch# set interface xe-0/1/0 ether-options 802.3ad ae0 fast
C. [edit chassis]
user@switch# set chassis aggregated-devices ethernet device-count 1
[edit interfaces]
user@switch# set interface ae0 aggregated-ether-options minimum-links 1
user@switch# set interface ae0 aggregated-ether-options link-speed 10g
user@switch# set interface ae0 unit 0 family inet address 192.168.1.0/24
D. [edit chassis]
user@switch# set aggregated-devices ethernet device-count 2
[edit interfaces]
user@switch# set ae1 aggregated-ether-options minimum-links 1
user@switch# set ae1 aggregated-ether-options link-speed 10g
user@switch# set ae1 unit 0 family inet address 192.168.1.0/24
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 304
Which statement describes a routing instance on a Junos device?
A. A routing instance provides separation of processing resources.

B. A routing instance provides control plane separation.
C. A routing instance virtualizes a Junos-based device, enabling it to run multiple copies of the
Junos OS on the same system.
D. A routing instance is a unique collection of routing tables, interfaces, and routing protocol
parameters.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 305
Which statement is true regarding redundant trunk groups (RTGs)?
A. STP and RTG can be used on the same interface.

B. An aggregated interface can be a member of an RTG.
C. Members of an RTG must carry different VLANs.
D. An RTG can contain up to 16 member links.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 306
You have implemented per-packet load balancing.
Which command would you use to verify that the load balancing is active?
A. show route | match load-balancing

B. show route | display forwarding-table
C. show route load-balancing
D. show route forwarding-table
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 307
A GRE tunnel is configured between Router1 and Router2 across the Internet. Performance on
the GRE tunnel is slow and Router1 is receiving ICMP messages from Router2.
What is the cause of this problem?
A. The do-not-fragment (DF) bit has not been set on Router2.

B. The do-not-fragment (DF) bit has not been set on Router1.
C. There is a duplex setting mismatch on the GRE tunnel.
D. The maximum segment size (MSS) setting has not been configured correctly for the GRE

tunnel.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 308
You would like the network attached to the ge-0/0/1.0 interface to be advertised into OSPF, but
you also want to prevent OSPF adjacencies from being formed on ge-0/0/1.0.
Which command will satisfy this requirement?
A. [edit protocols]
user@R1# set ospf area 1 interface ge-0/0/1.0 passive
B. [edit protocols]
user@R1# set ospf area 1 interface ge-0/0/1.0 secondary
C. [edit protocols]
user@R1# set ospf area 1 interface ge-0/0/1.0 flood-reduction
D. [edit protocols]
user@R1# set ospf area 1 interface ge-0/0/1.0 disable
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 309
You have an EX Series switch. You want to provide inter-VLAN routing between VLAN A and
VLAN B.
Which two steps must you perform? (Choose two.)
A. Assign a VLAN ID to the Layer 3 VLAN interface.

B. Assign at least one Layer 3 address to each VLAN.
C. Assign interfaces configured as family Ethernet-switching to VLAN A and VLAN B.
D. Assign interfaces configured as family inet to VLAN A and VLAN B.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 310
Which two put ge-0/0/0 and ge-0/0/1 into the VLAN data? (Choose two.)
A. set interfaces interface-range data-ports member ge-0/0/0

set interfaces interface-range data-ports member ge-0/0/1
set interfaces interface-range data-ports unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members data
B. set interfaces ge-0/0/0-1 unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members data
C. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 to ge-0/0/1 unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members data
D. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members data
set interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members data
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 311
Your router has formed two BGP peering relationships and received a route to 64.60.10.0/24 from
each peer. The router has verified the next-hop address can be reached for both peers.
What is the next step to determine which path is selected for the routing table?
A. Prefer the lowest origin value.

B. Prefer the shortest AS-path length.
C. Prefer the lowest local-preference value.
D. Prefer the highest local-preference value.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 312
Which two statements describe benefits of the Virtual Chassis? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Chassis offers control plane redundancy, which allows the use of NSR.
B. Virtual Chassis is an open standard to allow cross-vendor compatibility.
C. Virtual Chassis can be implemented on all Junos-based devices.
D. Virtual Chassis allows you to manage multiple switches as a single entity and potentially
eliminate using STP.

Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 313
Which three statements are default BGP advertisement rules? (Choose three.)
A. IBGP peers advertise routes received from EBGP peers to other IBGP peers.
B. EBGP peers advertise routes learned from IBGP or EBGP peers to other EBGP peers.
C. IBGP peers do not advertise routes received from IBGP peers to other IBGP peers.
D. EBGP peers do not advertise routes learned from IBGP or EBGP peers to other EBGP peers.
E. IBGP peers advertise routes received from IBGP peers to other IBGP peers.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 314
You want to limit the times a user can move their laptop from one switch port to another using
MAC move limiting.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can limit movement per VLAN rather than per port.
B. You can send the offending MAC address to a quarantined VLAN.
C. The switch can lockout the offending user's Active Directory account.
D. You can automatically send logs of the event.
E. The switch can automatically shutdown a port.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 315
A network administrator has just received a new EX Series switch to replace a router and Layer 2
switch. The network administrator has configured all of the Layer 2 parameters, however users are
reporting that they can only reach devices within their own VLAN.

What would solve the problem?
A. The network administrator must configure inter-VLAN routing.

B. The network administrator must administratively enable the VLAN.
C. The network administrator needs to clear the ARP table.
D. The network administrator needs to clear the bridge table.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 316
Which two new port roles does RSTP introduce? (Choose two.)
A. backup
B. forwarding
C. alternate
D. designated
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 317
Your network consists of three OSPF routers as shown below:
R1 -- R2 -- R3
You run the show ospf neighbor command on R2. The output shows no data in the output for
OSPF neighbors.
Which three actions will troubleshoot the adjacency problem for Router R2? (Choose three.)
A. Verify the physical and data link layer connectivity on Routers R1, R2, and R3.
B. Look for incorrect settings for MTU on Routers R1 and R3.
C. Look for mismatched configurations on Routers R1, R2, and R3 for IP subnet/mask, area
number, and area type.
D. Verify Router R1 and R3 to see if they are stuck in 2-way state.
E. Look for mismatched configurations on Routers R1, R2, and R3 for authentication, hello/dead
interval, and network type.

Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 318
A network administrator would like to prevent certain network addresses from being part of the
routing table.
Which Junos feature would be used to accomplish this task?
A. prefix lists
B. Martian addresses
C. route maps
D. static routes
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 319
You are analyzing a packet capture from your network running OSPF. You see a Type 2 LSA.
Which type of router originated the packet?
A. ABR
B. DR
C. ASBR
D. BDR
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 320
Which BGP configuration parameter allows the router to wait for the peer to initiate the open
request?

A. hold-time
B. passive
C. accept-remote-nexthop
D. out-delay
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 321
You want to enable nonstop active routing (NSR).
Which two commands must you use? (Choose two.)
A. set routing-options nonstop-routing

B. set routing-options graceful-restart
C. set chassis redundancy graceful-switchover
D. set routing-options graceful-switchover
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 322
Which protocol provides redundancy in a LAN environment through the use of master and backup
routers?
A. BGP
B. BFD
C. VRRP
D. RIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 323
Which two statements describe the behavior of Dynamic ARP Inspection? (Choose two.)

A. Dynamic ARP Inspection is disabled by default.
B. Dynamic ARP Inspection is enabled on individual ports.
C. Dynamic ARP Inspection is enabled by default.
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection is enabled on individual VLANs.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 324
What are two characteristics of an OSPF link-state update? (Choose two.)
A. A link-state update can be sent directly after an adjacency is formed.

B. A link-state update can only contain a single link-state advertisement (LSA).
C. A link-state update is sent in response to a link-state request.
D. A link-state update is used to determine which router is in charge of the database exchange.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 325
Which two common scenarios will prevent an IS-IS adjacency from forming? (Choose two.)
A. The interface MTU value is set lower than 1492.

B. An IP address is not configured on the lo0 interface.
C. There are mismatched Level 1 areas.
D. There are mismatched Level 2 areas.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 326
Several routers share a common LAN segment in area 224 and have formed adjacencies using
IS-IS. One router is elected as the designated intermediate system (DIS).

To which multicast address will the peers send their hello packets?
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.6
C. 01:80:C2:00:00:14
D. 49.0001.0224.0000.0015.00
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 327
You want to configure a static route to become available when the primary route fails.
Which parameter accomplishes this in the Junos OS?
A. secondary
B. qualified-next-hop
C. backup-route
D. resolve
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 328
You are running several EX4200 switches in a Virtual Chassis configuration. You want to
determine which switch will become the master of the Virtual Chassis after the switches are
rebooted.
Which three criteria play a role in determining this? (Choose three.)
A. switch priority
B. member ID
C. MAC address
D. prior master/backup status
E. serial number
Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 329
When is MAC limiting performed on a frame from an unknown source MAC address?
A. when the ingress PFE sends header information to RE

B. when the ingress PFE performs a MAC address lookup
C. when the PFE adds the MAC address to the bridge table
D. when the RE adds the MAC address to the bridge table
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 330
You have just configured a static route for management traffic, however you would like to prevent
the route from being redistributed into a dynamic routing protocol.
Which command should be added to accomplish this?
A. passive
B. reject
C. no-install
D. no-advertise
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 331
When analyzing BGP packets, you notice that specific path attributes are always present.
Which two attributes are seen in every update packet? (Choose two.)
A. AS path
B. local preference

C. origin
D. originator ID
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 332
You are creating an RVI.
Which configuration is correct?
A. user@switch# show interfaces

...
vlan {
unit 100 {
family ether-switching;
}
}
user@switch# show vlans
vlan1000 {
vlan-id 100;
address 66.47.110.26/24;
}
B. user@switch# show interfaces
ge-1/0/1 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 66.36.10.126/24;
}
}
}
vlan1000 {
vlan-id 100;
l3-interface ge-1/0/1.0;
}
C. user@switch# show interfaces
...
vlan {
unit 1000 {
family inet {

address 66.57.100.26/24;
}
}
vlan1000 {
vlan-id 100;
}
D. user@switch# show interfaces
ge-1/0/1 {
unit 100 {
family inet {
address 66.36.10.126/24;
vlan-id 100;
}
}
}
vlan1000 {
vlan-id 100;
}
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 333
Which OSPF reference bandwidth setting would give a 1-Gbps link a metric of 10?
A. 10
B. 1000
C. 10,000,000
D. 10,000,000,000
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 334
What are two considerations for determining the master router in VRRP? (Choose two.)

A. The router with a lower priority value.
B. The router with a higher priority value.
C. The router with the lowest IP address configured in the VRRP group.
D. Any router that has the no-preempt configuration option set.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 335
Tyler and Staci are network administrators for AS1 and AS2. Which routing protocol is used for
peering between autonomous systems?
A. OSPF
B. IS-IS
C. static routes
D. BGP
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 336
Which two commands will display the link speed of ge-0/0/0? (Choose two.)
A. show interfaces ge-0/0/0 | match "Speed"

B. show interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 statistics
C. show interfaces terse ge-0/0/0 extensive
D. show interfaces ge-0/0/0 brief
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 337
What are two types of PVLAN broadcast domains? (Choose two).
A. primary VLAN

B. community VLAN
C. broadcast VLAN
D. trunk VLAN
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 338
What are two purposes of MAC move limiting? (Choose two.)
A. to prevent users from changing switch ports without approval

B. to prevent Layer 2 loops
C. to prevent users from moving to an unauthorized VLAN
D. to prevent MAC spoofing
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 339
-- Exhibit --
[edit routing-options]
user@R1# show
static {
route 172.29.130.0/17 next-hop 172.30.25.1;
route 172.29.13.0/24 {
next-hop 172.30.25.1;
no-readvertise;
route 172.29.16.0/12 next-hop 172.30.25.1;
route 172.29.20.0/24 next-hop 172.30.25.1;

}
[edit protocols ospf]
user@R1# show
export Export_OSPF;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface lo0.0;
[edit policy-options]
user@R1# show
policy-statement Export_OSPF {
term match-static-routes {
from {
protocol static;
route-filter 172.29.0.0/16 orlonger;
then accept;
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, there is an OSPF policy to redistribute static routes.
Which routes will be propagated to OSPF neighbors?
A. 172.29.130.0/17
172.29.13.0/24
172.20.16.0/12

B. 172.29.13.0/24
172.29.20.0/24
C. 172.29.130.0/17
172.29.13.0/24
D. 172.29.130.0/17
172.29.20.0/24
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 340
-- Exhibit --
user@R1# show interfaces
ge-0/0/8 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 172.25.100.2/24 {
vrrp-group 10 {
priority 200;
-- Exhibit --
Two routers, R1 and R2, are part of a VRRP master and backup design.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct about this VRRP deployment? (Choose

two.)
A. The address 172.25.100.2 is only reachable on R1.

B. The address 172.25.100.1 is only reachable on R1.
C. The address 172.25.100.2 will only be reachable on the master of VRRP group 10.
D. The address 175.25.100.1 will only be reachable on the master of VRRP group 10.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 341
-- Exhibit --
interfaces {
ge-1/1/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 10.200.12.1/30;
lo0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 10.200.1.1/32;

routing-options {
static {
route 10.200.1.2/32 next-hop 10.200.12.2;
autonomous-system 65001;
protocols {
bgp {
group 65002 {
neighbor 10.200.1.2 {
peer-as 65002;
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, you are configuring an EBGP peering using the loopback address
between two routers.
Which parameter is needed to complete the configuration?
A. Multipath
B. Passive
C. Multihop
D. local-as
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 342
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show configuration | no-more
...
interfaces {
ge-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 10.210.12.131/27;
ge-0/0/1 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
filter {
input fbf;
address 10.210.14.1/24;
firewall {
filter fbf {
term 1 {

then {
routing-instance fbf;
routing-instances {
fbf {
routing-options {
static {
route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.210.12.129;
user@router> show route
inet.0: 4 destinations, 4 routes (4 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both
10.210.12.128/27 *[Direct/0] 3d 23:21:02
> via ge-0/0/0.0
10.210.12.131/32 *[Local/0] 3d 23:21:17
Local via ge-0/0/0.0
10.210.14.0/24 *[Direct/0] 00:00:07
> via ge-0/0/1.0
10.210.14.1/32 *[Local/0] 00:00:07

Local via ge-0/0/1.0
-- Exhibit --
What is causing the behavior shown in the exhibit?
A. The software is ignoring the fbf routing instance because it uses a reserved name.
B. The software is ignoring the default route in the fbf routing instance because there is no default
route in the main routing instance.
C. The software is not able to find an interface on the router configured with the 10.210.12.129
address.
D. The software is not able to resolve the next hop of the default route in the fbf routing instance.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 343
The switches shown in the exhibit were just powered on.

What is required to ensure that both of Switch B's ports are in a forwarding state?
A. Configure the bridge priority to 4k on Switch B.

B. Configure Switch B's ports to all be edge ports.
C. Configure uplinkfast on both of Switch B's ports.
D. Configure uplinkfast on Switch A and Switch D.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 344
-- Exhibit --
Router A.
interfaces {
ge-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 192.168.1.20/24 {
vrrp-group 27 {
priority 255;
authentication-type simple;
authentication-key <juniper123>;

Router B.
interfaces {
ge-4/2/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 192.168.1.19/24 {
vrrp-group 27 {
priority 200;
authentication-type simple;
authentication-key <juniper123>;
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, Router B comes up first and preemption is not enabled. Router A assumes
mastership for the virtual IP. Why does Router A assume a mastership role for the IP?
A. Router A's interface IP address and the virtual IP address match.

B. Router A is configured with a higher priority.
C. Router B is configured with a lower priority.
D. Router B has a lower primary IP address for the interface.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 345
An IP tunnel connects two routers over the Internet as shown in the exhibit.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A tunnel interface can serve as a next hop for static routes or participate in the networks IGP.
B. Routing protocols will always prefer a tunnel over a physical link because the tunnel is a one-
hop link with the lowest cost path.
C. You can ensure the IP tunnel serves as the backup path through administrative settings such
as cost and route preference.
D. IP tunnels are subject to the same simple firewall rules as the direct link between the two
routers, because the original IP header contents are open for the transit devices to see.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 346
-- Exhibit --
SITE1:
routing-options {
protocols {
bgp {

group 65002 {
neighbor 10.200.12.1 {
peer-as 65002;
SITE2:
routing-options {
protocols {
bgp {
group 65001 {
neighbor 10.200.12.2 {
peer-as 65003;
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, SITE1 is configuring an EBGP peering with SITE2. SITE2 configured the
incorrect peer AS during a maintenance window and now is unable to change the configuration
until the next maintenance window.
Which configuration would you use on SITE1 to establish the EBGP peering?
A. protocols {

bgp {
group 65002 {
passive;
neighbor 10.200.12.2 {
peer-as 65002;
}
}
}
}
B. protocols {
bgp {
group 65002 {
accept-remote-nexthop;
neighbor 10.200.12.2 {
peer-as 65002;
}
}
}
}
C. protocols {
bgp {
group 65002 {
local-as 65003;
neighbor 10.200.12.2 {
peer-as 65002;
}
}
}
}
D. protocols {
bgp {
group 65002 {
as-override;
neighbor 10.200.12.2 {
peer-as 65002;
}
}
}
}
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 347

-- Exhibit --
[edit protocols rstp]
user@switch# show
bridge-priority 32k;
max-age 20;
hello-timer 2;
forward-delay 15;
disable;
cost 20000;
mode point-to-point;
priority 128;
mode shared;
edge;
bpdu-block-on-edge;
-- Exhibit --
The exhibit shows the RSTP configuration for your EX Series switch. The switch begins receiving
BPDUs on a port and disables that port.
Which port is disabled?

A. ge-0/0/11.0
B. ge-0/0/12.0
C. ge-0/0/13.0
D. ge-0/0/14.0
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 348
Your current network is using Switch-1 and Switch-2 as a Layer 3 core pair. You change the EX
series switch core into a VC and configure the links between the switches to be a LAG.
Assuming that Switch-3 is operating at Layer 2 only, which two protocols would be removed from
this portion of the network? (Choose two.)
A. GRES
B. BFD
C. VRRP
D. STP
Answer: C,D

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 349
-- Exhibit --
[edit protocols bgp]
user@router# show
import in-protocol-level;
export out-protocol-level;
group ISPs {
type external;
import in-group-level;
export out-group-level;
neighbor 172.25.100.1 {
import in-neighbor-level;
peer-as 65505;
neighbor 172.25.200.1 {
export out-neighbor-level;
peer-as 65500;
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit,

which import policy is applied to routes received from neighbor 172.25.200.1?
A. policy in-protocol-level
B. policy in-group-level
C. policy in-neighbor-level
D. policy out-neighbor-level
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 350
-- Exhibit --
{master:0}[edit interfaces]
user@switch# show
ge-0/0/6 {
unit 0 {

port-mode access;
vlan {
members vlan100;
ge-0/0/7 {
unit 0 {
port-mode access;
vlan {
members vlan100;
{master:0}[edit ethernet-swtiching-options]
user@switch#show
mac-limit 1 action drop;
vlan 100 {
mac-move-limit 1 action drop;

}
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, what will the mac-move-limit command on ge-0/0/6 do?
A. Packets will be dropped if the switch detects the same source MAC address on interface ge-
0/0/6 and ge-0/0/7.
B. Packets will be dropped if the switch detects the same source MAC address on two separate
interfaces in VLAN 100.
C. Packets will be dropped and the event will be logged if the switch detects the same source
MAC address on two separate interfaces in VLAN 100.
D. Packets will be dropped and the event will be logged if the switch detects the same source
MAC address on ge-0/0/6 and ge-0/0/7.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 351

A network administrator has connected four switches as shown in the exhibit. The switches are at
their factory-default configurations and the administrator powers on all of the switches at the same
time.
Which switch will become the root bridge?
A. Switch A
B. Switch B
C. Switch C
D. Switch D
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 352
-- Exhibit --
ethernet-switching-options {
mac-limit 2 action shutdown;
no-dhcp-trusted;
storm-control {
interface all;
-- Exhibit --
You have configured a MAC limit on your switch.

Referring to the exhibit, when the MAC limit is exceeded, when will the port recover?
A. After 30 seconds
B. After the administrator enters the set ethernet-switching port-error clear command
C. After 300 seconds
D. After the administrator enters the clear ethernet-switching port-error command
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 353
-- Exhibit --
{master:0}[edit]
user@router# show interfaces
ge-0/0/1 {
unit 0 {
port-mode access;
vlan {
members data;
{master:0}[edit]
user@router# show ethernet-switching-options
voip {

vlan voice;
forwarding-class assured-forwarding;
{master:0}[edit]
user@router# show vlans
data {
vlan-id 10;
voice {
vlan-id 20;
-- Exhibit --
Given the configuration in the exhibit, which VLAN or VLANs would be tagged VLANs?
A. The voice VLAN and the data VLAN

B. Only the voice VLAN
C. Both VLANs are untagged
D. The data VLAN
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 354
-- Exhibit --
protocols {
bgp {

export exp-rt;
group int {
type internal;
neighbor 192.168.1.2;
neighbor 192.168.1.3;
group ext {
type external;
peer-as 65002;
policy-options {
policy-statement exp-rt {
term 1 {
from {
route-filter 200.200.200.0/24 orlonger;
then {
community add no-export;
accept;

}
-- Exhibit
Referring to the exhibit, route 200.200.200.0/24 is exported into BGP and the peering routers use
default BGP policies.
Which statement describes the advertisement for the 200.200.200.0/24 route?
A. The route will only be advertised intra-AS.

B. The route will only be advertised inter-AS.
C. The route will be advertised both intra-AS and inter-AS.
D. The route will not be advertised both intra-AS and inter-AS.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 355
Referring to the exhibit, a packet sent from User A to User B will be forwarded out interface 0/0/23
using which source MAC address?
A. Source MAC of user A

B. Source MAC of user B
C. Source MAC associated with IP address 10.10.10.1
D. Source MAC associated with IP address 10.10.20.1
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 356

If all OSPF routers shown in the exhibit boot at the same time, which router will be elected as the
designated router?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 357

Referring to the exhibit, a packet destined to 172.129.3.5 is sent from ISP X towards R1.
Which statement describes how R1 handles the packet?
A. It sends ICMP network unreachable messages back to the source.

B. It forwards the packet towards Network A.
C. It silently drops the packet and does not send a message back to the source.
D. It forwards the packet towards Network C.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 358
Referring to the exhibit, note that R5 is exporting the 172.168.1.0/24 route into OSPF. Which LSA
type does R2 send to R4?
A. Type 7
B. Type 5
C. Type 3
D. Type 1

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 359
Referring to the exhibit, R1, R2, and R3 boot at the same time. Several minutes later, R4 boots.
After R4 has been online for 40 seconds, which router will be the OSPF designated router?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 360
-- Exhibit --
routing-options {
router-id 10.10.1.2;

}
policy-options {
policy-statement loadbalance {
term 1 {
from {
route-filter 100.100.0.0/16 exact;
then {
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, you have configured a load balancing policy and the router has an equal
cost path for traffic to 10.100.0.0/16.
What must you do to complete the load balancing configuration?
A. Apply the policy as an export policy under the [edit forwarding-options] hierarchy.
B. Apply the policy as an import policy under the [edit forwarding-options] hierarchy.
C. Apply the policy as an export policy under the [edit routing-options forwarding-table] hierarchy.
D. Apply the policy as an import policy under the [edit routing-options forwarding-table] hierarchy.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 361

All OSPF routers shown in the exhibit booted at the same time, and the network has stabilized.
How many adjacencies does R1 have?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 362
You have two routers, R1 and R2, running OSPF in area 0. Router R1 is having problems with

forming and adjacency with Router R2.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct about the OSPF configuration in the Router R1
trace output?
A. Router R1 has the wrong OSPF area configured.

B. Router R2 has the wrong OSPF area configured.
C. Router R1 has the wrong interface configured for OSPF.
D. Router R2 has the wrong interface configured for OSPF.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 363
-- Exhibit --
user@Switch-1# run show dhcp snooping binding
DHCP Snooping Information:
MAC address IP address Lease (seconds) Type VLAN Interface
00:26:88:02:74:89 172.28.1.4 - static default ge-0/0/9.0
00:26:88:02:74:86 172.28.1.2 86113 dynamic default ge-0/0/6.0
00:26:88:02:74:87 172.28.1.3 86378 dynamic default ge-0/0/7.0
-- Exhibit --
DHCP snooping is implemented on an EX Series switch. The results display a static MAC to IP
binding on interface ge-0/0/9 as shown in the exhibit.
Which statement is correct?
A. MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static MAC address configured for a host attached to
interface ge-0/0/9.
B. MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static MAC address to IP address binding in the DHCP
server.
C. MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static MAC address to IP address configured on the L3
interface ge-0/0/9.

D. MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static address assigned using the command set interface
ge-0/0/9.0 mac-allowed 00:26:88:02:74:89.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 364
-- Exhibit --
policy-statement load-balance {
from {
then {
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which command or set of commands completes the configuration that will
load balance packets to destinations 172.24.0.0 and 172.24.0.1?
A. Set forwarding-options load-balance

B. Set routing-options forwarding-table export load-balance
C. Set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 policy load-balance
D. Set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 load-balance
E. Set forwarding-options export policy load-balance
F. Set forwarding-options load-balance
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 365
-- Exhibit --
[edit]
user@router# show routing-options
graceful-restart {
disable;
[edit]
user@router# show protocols bgp
graceful-restart;
group my-group {
type internal;
neighbor 192.168.1.2;
neighbor 192.168.2.2 {
graceful-restart {
disable;
-- Exhibit --
You have configured your router as shown in the exhibit.
Which statement is true based on the graceful restart (GR) configuration?
A. GR has been disabled globally for all protocols including BGP.

B. GR is enabled for all BGP neighbors.
C. GR is enabled only for BGP neighbor 192.168.1.2.
D. GR is not supported with BGP.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 366
Referring to the exhibit, you want to avoid using STP and the LAG is configured on ae0.
Which function would you use to prevent a Layer 2 loop?
A. VRRP
B. RTG
C. LACP
D. GRES
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 367
Referring to the exhibit, which interfaces will receive a packet sent to MAC address
00:05:85:7F:EB. 80 from the user with IP address 10.10.10.10?
A. 0/0/3 and 0/0/22

B. 0/0/9 and 0/0/23
C. 0/0/3, 0/0/9, 0/0/22, and 0/0/23
D. 0/0/1, 0/0/3, 0/0/9, 0/0/22, and 0/0/23
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 368
You have an Ethernet frame with an unknown destination address.
Which steps are required for the switch to process and forward the Ethernet frame?
A. 1. The frame enters the ingress port and Packet Forwarding Engine (PFE).
2. The ingress PFE performs the MAC address lookup, determines the egress PFE and port.
3. The ingress PFE forwards the frame to the egress PFE.
4. The egress PFE forwards the frame out the egress port towards the destination.
B. 1. The frame enters the ingress port and PFE.
2. The ingress PFE performs the MAC address lookup and determines the source MAC is

unknown.
3. The ingress PFE sends the header information to the RE, where the MAC is added.
4. If the RE adds a new source MAC address to the bridge table, the newly added MAC entry is
sent to all PFEs.
C. 1. The frame enters the ingress port and PFE.
2. The ingress PFE performs the MAC address lookup; the destination MAC belongs to the switch
so the PFE performs a L3 lookup.
3. The egress PFE forwards the packet out the egress port toward the destination.
D. 1. The frame enters the ingress port and PFE.
2. The ingress PFE performs the MAC address lookup, determines no match and replicates the
frame to other PFEs and local ports on same broadcast domain.
3. All other PFEs replicate the frame and forward those frames out all egress ports in the same
broadcast domain.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 369
What is the purpose of the native VLAN?
A. The native VLAN is used to assign the trunk's default VLAN if a global default VLAN is not
configured.
B. The native VLAN is only used on VoIP interfaces to allow a separate VLAN-ID for the voice
VLAN and data VLAN.
C. The native VLAN assumes VLAN 1 when no default VLAN is configured.
D. The native VLAN allows the interface to accept untagged packets.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 370
Two switches are powered on at the same time on the same LAN segment.
By default, what determines which switch will become the designated bridge?
A. the port cost for the associated interface

B. the bridge ID priority
C. the total root cost of the switch

D. the priority of the associated interface
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 371
You must modify the default RSTP port behavior on interface ge-0/0/9 so it can transition states
immediately when a host is plugged in. It is on a half-duplex link.
Which command meets this requirement?
A. set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/9.0 mode edge

B. set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/9.0 mode portfast
C. set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/9.0 mode point-to-point
D. set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/9.0 mode shared
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 372
Which statement describes how root protection protects your network?
A. It dynamically modifies the STP bridge priority to the best value in your network.
B. It ignores superior BPDUs from being accepted on a protected interface.
C. It changes protected ports to the blocking state if they receive superior BPDUs.
D. It is enabled on a switch and uses BPDUs to negotiate a better bridge priority than its
neighbors.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 373
You need additional security and are configuring IP source guard.
Which three statements accurately describe IP source guard? (Choose three.)

A. The default setting for access ports using IP source guard is untrusted.
B. IP source guard does not check packets received on a trunk interface.
C. You can enable IP source guard on interfaces and VLANs.
D. Packets with an invalid IP address or MAC address are rejected.
E. IP source guard checks the IP/MAC address of packets received against entries stored in the
DHCP snooping database.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 374
You need to prevent people outside the 192.168.1.0/24 network from accessing your Junos device
using FTP.
Which configuration, when applied to interface lo0.0, will provide the desired result?
A. firewall {
family inet {
filter protect-host {
term limit-ftp {
from {
source-address {
192.168.1.0/24 except;
0.0.0.0/0;
}
port ftp;
}
then discard;
}
}
}
}
B. firewall {
family inet {
term limit-ftp {
from {
source-address {
192.168.1.0/24 except;
0.0.0.0/0;
}
protocol tcp;

port ftp;
}
then discard;
}
term all-else {
then accept;
}
}
}
}
C. firewall {
family inet {
term limit-ftp {
from {
source-address {
192.168.1.0/24;
}
port ftp;
}
then discard;
}
}
}
}
D. firewall {
family inet {
term limit-ftp {
from {
source-address {
192.168.1.0/24;
}
protocol tcp;
port ftp;
}
then discard;
}
term all-else {
then accept;
}
}
}
}
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 375
Which two prefixes contribute to the aggregate route 10.1.0.0/20? (Choose two.)
A. 10.1.14.0
B. 10.1.15.0
C. 10.1.16.0
D. 10.1.17.0
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 376
What is the purpose of the forwarding routing instance type?
A. to create multiple Layer 3 switches

B. to create a virtual Layer 2 switch
C. to forward Layer 3 VPN traffic
D. to implement filter-based forwarding
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 377
Which command statically routes to a next hop that is not directly connected?
A. set routing-options static route 24.16.42.0/24 qualified-next-hop 64.8.21.3

B. set routing-options static route 24.16.42.0/24 multihop 64.8.21.3
C. set routing-options static route 24.16.42.0/24 next-hop 64.8.21.3 recursive
D. set routing-options static route 24.16.42.0/24 next-hop 64.8.21.3 resolve
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 378
The area border router (ABR) between the OSPF backbone area and a not-so-stubby area
(NSSA) will suppress which two LSA types for route updates into the NSSA? (Choose two.)
A. Type 3
B. Type 4
C. Type 5
D. Type 7
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 379
Which two statements describe the scenario when a router will send out a Type 4 link-state update
packet to its neighbors? (Choose two.)
A. Type 4 link-state update packets are unicast to every neighbor on regular intervals to keep the
database consistent between neighbors.
B. Type 4 link-state update packets are sent when the interface receives a Type 3 Link-State
Request packet from a neighbor.
C. Type 4 link-state update packets are multicast to every neighbor on regular intervals to keep
the database consistent between neighbors.
D. Type 4 link-state update packets are sent out to the designated router (DR) or backup
designated router (BDR) when a topology change occurs.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 380
Routers R1, R2, R3, and R4 are all connected on the same OSPF network segment. While
viewing the output of the show ospf neighbor command on R1, you notice that the interface
towards R2 is always in the 2Way state.
What would cause this state?

A. R1 is a DR device and R2 is a DROther device.
B. R1 and R2 are both DROther devices.
C. R1 and R2 are both BDR devices.
D. R1 is a DROther device and R2 is a DR device.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 381
What does an ABR between a backbone area and a totally stubby area inject into the totally
stubby area?
A. an LSA Type 4
B. an LSA Type 5
C. an external route
D. a default route
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 382
What are three common characteristics of OSPF and IS-IS? (Choose three.)
A. Both routing protocols maintain a link-state database calculated using the Dijkstra shortest path
first algorithm.
B. Both routing protocols elect a designated router and backup designated router for a shared
LAN segment.
C. Both routing protocols use hello packets to form and maintain adjacencies.
D. Both routing protocols use a SHA-1 hash for authentication purposes.
E. Both routing protocols allow for address summarization between areas.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 383
A network administrator is configuring IS-IS on a router using interface ge-0/0/3. The router being

configured should only be able to form IS-IS adjacencies with Level 1 routers in its own area.
Which command correctly accomplishes this requirement?
A. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/3.0 level 1 enable

B. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/3.0 level 2 disable
C. set interfaces interface ge-0/0/3.0 isis level 1 enable
D. set interfaces interface ge-0/0/3.0 isis level 2 disable
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 384
In which two situations will the BGP next-hop attribute point to Router A? (Choose two.)
A. When Router A sends routing updates to its EBGP peer Router B with multihop configured.
B. When Router A sends routing updates to its IBGP peer Router B when route reflectors are not
used.
C. When Router A sends routing updates to its IBGP peer Router B when route reflectors are
used.
D. When Router A sends routing updates to its IBGP peer after redistributing routes to BGP from
an IGP.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 385
A company has four routers connected as follows:
PEER ----- (A -- B -- C -- D)
Router A has an external BGP peer. IBGP peering sessions exist between A-B, B-C, C-D, and A-
D. The company is running an IGP for all internal segments and does not use static routes. Router
D cannot use BGP paths from Router A in its routing table.
What are two reasons why this is occurring? (Choose two.)

A. The routes have an unreachable next-hop address.
B. BGP synchronization is disabled by default.
C. Router A is not configured to use next-hop self.
D. The TTL exceeds 1, preventing BGP routing updates from being sent between Router A and
Router D.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 386
Your router has the following configuration:
[edit]
router-id 192.168.100.1;
Given this information, what is the correct Junos configuration for an IBGP session?
A. [edit]
group lab {
type external;
neighbor 192.168.100.2;
}
B. [edit]
group lab {
type 65505;
neighbor 192.168.100.2;
}
C. [edit]
group lab {
peer-as 65503;
neighbor 192.168.100.2;
}

D. [edit]
group lab {
peer-as 65505;
neighbor 192.168.100.2;
}
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 387
Which command is used to confirm the status of a tunnel interface?
A. show tunnel interface gr-0/0/0

B. show tunnels
C. show interfaces gr-0/0/0 detail
D. show interfaces tunnel detail
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 388
You have an EX4200 in a Virtual Chassis configuration. You need to establish a console
connection to the switch to troubleshoot an issue.
A. You must first determine which VC member is the master RE and connect to it.
B. You must first determine which VC member is the backup RE and connect to it.
C. You can connect to any member of the VC and your console session will be re-directed to the
master RE.
D. You can connect to any member of the VC but you will be connected to a local member and
from there you must connect to the master RE.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 389
Which two statements accurately describe VRRP? (Choose two.)
A. The master VRRP router sends periodic announcements to all other VRRP routers in the
group.
B. You can set the value of the TTL field for VRRP packets.
C. VRRP routers communicate using multicast address 224.0.0.5.
D. Each VRRP group uses a single MAC address.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 390
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --
A packet with a source MAC address of 00:26:88:02:74:23 enters your EX Series switch on port

ge-0/0/2.
Assuming the filter in the exhibit has been applied to interface ge-0/0/2, which action will apply?
A. It discards and counts the packet.

B. It rejects and counts the packet.
C. It accepts the packet.
D. It discards the packet.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 391
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --

Which statement describes what is happening in the exhibit?
A. A redistribution policy is defined under the [edit policy-options] hierarchy and applied to router
R3 under the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
B. A firewall policy is defined under the [edit policy-options] hierarchy and applied to router R3
under the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
C. A redistribution policy is inherited by router R3.
D. A redistribution policy is not properly configured.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 392
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, if all four switches in the Virtual Chassis boot at the same time, which of

the members will assume the master and the backup Routing Engine roles?
A. Member 0 will be the master and Member 2 will be the backup based on the serial number.
B. Member 2 will be the master and Member 0 will be the backup based on the serial number.
C. Member 0 and Member 2 will participate in an election process to determine the master and the
backup.
D. The configuration is missing a priority statement to make the determination.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 393
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --
You have just connected and powered on four EX Series switches as shown in the exhibit. All of
the switches have booted at the same time and have the default STP configuration.
Which two statements describe the STP roles of the switches?

A. The port connecting Switch A to Switch B is Switch A's root port.
B. The port connecting Switch A to Switch C is Switch A's root port.
C. The port connecting Switch A to Switch C is Switch C's root port.
D. The port connecting Switch C to Switch B is Switch C's designated port.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 394
What is the purpose of the storm control feature on EX Series switches?
A. to filter traffic based on fields in the IP header

B. to protect against a flood of OSPF routing updates
C. to prevent network outages caused by broadcast storms on the LAN
D. to facilitate Routing Engine (RE) failover in cases where the primary RE is overloaded
Answer: C
Reference:JNCIS-ENT Switching Study Guide, Chapter 52 Device Security and Firewall Filters
QUESTION NO: 395
Which statement describes the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
A. A switching protocol used to carry default VLANs.

B. A port security feature used to limit MAC addresses on a port.
C. A switching protocol that prevents loops.
D. A high availability protocol used to gracefully restart a switch.
Answer: C
Reference:JNCIS-ENT Switching Study Guide, Spanning Tree Chapter 31
QUESTION NO: 396
Which statement is true regarding a unified in-service software upgrade (ISSU)?

A. BFD must be enabled.
B. GRES and NSR must be enabled.
C. VRRP must be enabled.
D. OAM must be enabled.
Answer: B
Reference: JNCIS-ENT Routing Study Guide, High Availability Chapter 625
QUESTION NO: 397
Which protocol is a link-state routing protocol?
A. BGP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. MPLS
Answer: C
Reference: JNCIS-ENT Routing Study Guide, Open Shortest Path First Chapter 31
QUESTION NO: 398
Which statement correctly describes the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)?
A. A switching protocol used between switches on a branch office LAN.

B. A routing protocol used between autonomous systems.
C. A redundancy protocol that assists with interface failover on the LAN side of a device at the
network edge.
D. A security protocol that monitors traffic on a gateway device and shuts down a port based on
configured thresholds.
Answer: B
Reference: JNCIS-ENT Routing Study Guide, Border Gateway Protocol Chapter 41
QUESTION NO: 399
Which statement is correct regarding access ports on EX Series switches?

A. They are used for console management.
B. They can only be connected to routers.
C. They are used to establish a Virtual Chassis.
D. They can receive untagged traffic.
Answer: D
Reference:JNCIS-ENT Switching Study Guide, Chapter 22 Virtual Networks
QUESTION NO: 400
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --
User B is sending traffic to the destination MAC address of 00:26:88:02:74:89.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. All users will receive the traffic.

B. Only User A will receive the traffic.
C. Only User D will receive the traffic.
D. Both Users A and D will receive the traffic.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Topic 5, Volume E
QUESTION NO: 401
Which bridging mechanism is used to obtain the MAC addresses of nodes on the network?
A. listening
B. aging
C. learning
D. filtering
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 402
What are two characteristics of a shared LAN? (Choose two.)
A. All devices are part of the same collision domain.

B. Each device participates in its own collision domain.
C. All traffic is flooded out to all devices.
D. Traffic is intelligently forwarded to learned destinations.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 403
What are two characteristics of a switched LAN? (Choose two.)
A. All devices are part of the same collision domain.

B. Each device participates in its own collision domain.
C. All traffic is flooded out to all devices.
D. Traffic is intelligently forwarded to learned destinations.
Answer: B,D

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 404
Which three mechanisms build or maintain bridge tables in a switched LAN? (Choose three.)
A. learning
B. listening
C. flooding
D. purging
E. aging
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 405
Which statement describes the flooding bridging mechanism when it receives traffic destined to an
unknown MAC address?
A. The switch will discard the traffic and send a destination unreachable message.
B. The switch will clear the bridging table and forward traffic out all ports.
C. The switch will silently discard the traffic.
D. The switch will forward the traffic out all ports.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 406
-- Exhibit

-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which three elements must be configured to allow communication between
Host A and Host B, and between Host C and Host D? (Choose three.)
A. The ports connecting to the hosts must be configured as access ports.

B. The ports connecting to the hosts must be configured as trunk ports.
C. The ge-0/0/1 interface must be configured as a trunk port.
D. The ge-0/0/1 interface must be configured for a routed VLAN interface.
E. The ge-0/0/1 interface must be configured for a native VLAN.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 407
You must ensure that the user connected to ge-0/0/0 can send traffic from their computer as well
as their IP phone using the same physical port. The traffic coming from the computer will not
contain a VLAN tag, and traffic from the IP phone will be tagged using the . This traffic must
remain separated throughout the Layer 2 network.
Which feature must be used?

A. routed VLAN interface
B. native VLAN
C. voice VLAN
D. default VLAN
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 408
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which two elements must be configured to pass both tagged voice and
untagged data traffic? (Choose two.)
A. The ge-0/0/1 interface must be configured as a trunk port.

B. The ge-0/0/1 interface must be configured as an access port.
C. The ge-0/0/0 interface must be configured for the voice VLAN.
D. The ge-0/0/1 interface must be configured for the voice VLAN.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 409
-- Exhibit

-- Exhibit --
User D is trying to send traffic to User B.
Referring to the exhibit, what will happen to the traffic?
A. The traffic will only be sent to User B.

B. The traffic will be flooded to all users except User D.
C. The traffic will be dropped by the switch.
D. The traffic will only be sent to User B and User C.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 410
You are asked to ensure that your trunk port transmits both tagged and untagged traffic.
A. You must use the native VLAN feature on the trunk ports.
B. You must use the voice VLAN feature on the trunk ports.
C. You must use the voice VLAN feature on the access ports.
D. You must use the 802.1Q tunneling feature on the access ports.

Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 411
Which statement is correct regarding the default behavior of trunk ports on EX Series switches?
A. Trunk ports only transmit untagged traffic.

B. Trunk ports only transmit tagged traffic.
C. Trunk ports transmit both tagged and untagged traffic.
D. Trunk ports have 802.1Q tunneling enabled.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 412
You are asked to associate the v100 and v200 VLANs with the ge-0/0/1 interface.
Which two configurations are correct? (Choose two.)
A. {master:0}[edit]
user@switch# show interfaces ge-0/0/1
unit 0 {
vlan {
}
}
}
B. {master:0}[edit]
user@switch# show interfaces ge-0/0/1
unit 0 {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
}
}

}
C. {master:0}[edit]
v100 {
vlan-id 100;
interface {
ge-0/0/1.0;
}
}
v200 {
vlan-id 200;
interface {
ge-0/0/1.0;
}
}
D. {master:0}[edit]
v100 {
vlan-id 100;
}
v200 {
vlan-id 200;
}
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 413
-- Exhibit
{master:0}
user@switch> show vlans
Name Tag Interfaces
default
ge-0/0/1.0, ge-0/0/2.0, ge-0/0/3.0, ge-0/0/4.0,
ge-0/0/8.0*, ge-0/0/9.0*, ge-0/0/10.0*, ge-0/0/11.0*,

ge-0/0/12.0*, ge-0/0/13.0*
v10 10
ge-0/0/5.0, ge-0/0/6.0*, ge-0/0/7.0*
-- Exhibit --
You are trying to pass traffic using VLAN v10; however, traffic is not reaching the device
connected to port ge-0/0/5.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. The ge-0/0/5 interface is down.

B. The ge-0/0/5 interface is an access port.
C. The ge-0/0/5 interface has been deactivated.
D. The ge-0/0/5 interface is a trunk port.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 414
Which statement is true about STP on an EX Series switch?
A. STP requires MSTP to also be configured.

B. STP automatically rebuilds the tree when the topology changes.
C. STP builds loop-free paths in nonredundant Layer 2 networks.
D. The root bridge is the switch with the highest bridge ID.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 415
What are three advantages of RSTP over STP? (Choose three.)

A. RSTP introduces the alternate port role, which provides additional bandwidth for traffic heading
to the root bridge.
B. RSTP allows an alternate link to immediately transition to the forwarding state if the point-to-
point link fails.
C. RSTP allows a port to be an edge port when it connects to a LAN with no other bridges.
D. RSTP introduces the backup port role, which allows multiple ports to pass traffic into the same
LAN segment at the same time.
E. RSTP introduces the backup port role, which allows a second port on the shared LAN segment
to act as a backup port.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 416
Which three port states of RSTP are valid? (Choose three.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. flooding
D. learning
E. forwarding
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 417
What are two types of STP BPDUs? (Choose two.)
A. link-state
B. configuration
C. topology change notification
D. update
Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 418
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --
Based on the exhibit and assuming default port costs, in which RSTP port role and state is Switch
C's interface connecting to Switch B?
A. root, forwarding
B. alternate, discarding
C. alternate, forwarding
D. designated, forwarding

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 419
Which two statements are correct about how EX Series switches support STP and RSTP
interoperability? (Choose two.)
A. A switch running only STP accepts RSTP BPDUs and discards the RSTP-specific information.
B. A switch running only STP discards RSTP BPDUs.
C. A switch running RSTP accepts STP BPDUs and responds using STP BPDUs.
D. A switch running RSTP accepts STP BPDUs and responds using RSTP BPDUs.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 420
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --

The exhibit shows three switches interconnected using the default RSTP settings.
What is the role of Port A?
A. designated
B. root
C. alternate
D. blocking
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 421
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --
The exhibit shows three switches interconnected using RSTP.

What is the role of Port B?
A. designated
B. root
C. alternate
D. backup
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 422
Your network consists of four EX Series switches, configured with the following STP parameters:
S1: Bridge address - F F:33:44:77 ; Bridge priority - 16k
Given this information, which device will become the root bridge?
A. S1
B. S2
C. S3
D. S4
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 423
Your network consists of four EX Series switches, configured with the following STP parameters:

Given this information, which device will become the root bridge?
A. S1
B. S2
C. S3
D. S4
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 424
-- Exhibit

-- Exhibit --
In the exhibit, the switches have all been powered on at the same time and have the factory
default RSTP configuration.
Which action would ensure that Switch A becomes the root bridge?
A. On Switch A, issue the set protocols rstp bridge-priority 28k command.

B. On Switch A, issue the set protocols rstp bridge-priority 36k command.
C. On Switch C, issue the set protocols rstp bridge-priority 36k command.
D. On Switch B, issue the set protocols rstp bridge-priority 28k command.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 425
You are troubleshooting a spanning tree problem and must quickly determine the cumulative cost
to the root bridge.
Which CLI command should you use?
A. show spanning-tree bridge

B. show spanning-tree interface
C. show spanning-tree statistics interface
D. show protocols rstp
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 426
You have four interconnected switches all using default RSTP parameters. You are asked to
ensure that S1 becomes the root bridge.
Which configuration will accomplish this task?
A. {master:0}[edit]
user@S1# show protocols
rstp {
hello-time 2;
cost 1;
}
cost 1;
}
}
B. {master:0}[edit]
rstp {
hello-time 2;

priority 16;
}
priority 16;
}
}
C. {master:0}[edit]
rstp {
hello-time 2;
cost 100;
}
cost 100;
}
}
D. {master:0}[edit]
rstp {
hello-time 2;
priority 16;
}
priority 16;
}
}
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 427
-- Exhibit

-- Exhibit --
You manage the network shown in the exhibit. All four switches have the default RSTP settings.
The elected root bridge is switch-1. You must ensure that switch-4 always prefers the connection
to switch-3 to reach the root bridge.
Which two configurations will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
{master:0}[edit]
A. user@switch-4# show protocols

rstp {
priority 64;
cost 20000;
}
}
{master:0}[edit]
B. user@switch-4# show protocols

rstp {
priority 128;
cost 20000;
}
}
{master:0}[edit]
C. user@switch-3# show protocols
rstp {
priority 240;
cost 200000;
}
}
{master:0}[edit]
D. user@switch-3# show protocols
rstp {
priority 128;
cost 2000;
}
}
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 428
-- Exhibit --
{master:0}
user@switch> show spanning-tree interface
Spanning tree interface parameters for instance 0
Interface Port ID Designated Designated Port State Role
port ID bridge ID Cost
ge-0/0/6.0 128:519 128:519 32768.0019e2552481 200000 FWD DESG
ge-0/0/7.0 64:520 64:520 32768.0019e2552481 20000 FWD DESG
ge-0/0/8.0 32:521 32:521 32768.0019e2552481 20000 FWD DESG
ge-0/0/9.0 32:522 32:522 32768.0019e2552481 200000 FWD DESG

ge-0/0/11.0 32:524 32:524 32768.0019e2552481 2000 FWD DESG
ge-0/0/12.0 64:525 64:525 32768.0019e2552481 2000 FWD DESG
ge-0/0/13.0 64:526 64:526 32768.0019e2552481 2000 FWD DESG
-- Exhibit --
Which three statements are correct regarding the information shown in the exhibit? (Choose
three.)
A. ge-0/0/6 is using the default interface priority.

B. ge-0/0/11 is selected as the root port.
C. This switch is the root bridge.
D. This switch is not the root bridge.
E. ge-0/0/7 is using the default interface cost.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 429
-- Exhibit --
{master:0}
ge-0/0/1.0 142:519 142:519 0.002688027490 10000 BLK ALT (Root-Incon)
ge-0/0/2.0 142:520 142:520 4128.0019e2516580 10000 FWD DESG
ge-0/0/3.0 142:521 142:521 4128.0019e2516580 10000 FWD DESG
-- Exhibit --

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct about the ge-0/0/1 interface?
A. It has transitioned to the loop-inconsistent state.

B. It is root protected and has received a superior BPDU.
C. It has transitioned to a blocking state due to BPDU protection.
D. It is normally in blocking mode.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 430
-- Exhibit --
{master:0}
ge-0/0/1.0 142:519 142:519 0.002688027490 10000 FWD ROOT
ge-0/0/2.0 142:520 142:520 4128.0019e2516580 10000 FWD DESG
ge-0/0/3.0 142:521 142:521 4128.0019e2516580 10000 BLK DIS (Loop-Incon)
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true about the ge-0/0/3 interface?
A. The switch has transitioned the port to a loop-inconsistent state.

B. The switch received a superior BPDU on a root protected port.
C. The switch has transitioned to a blocking state due to BPDU protection.
D. The switch port is normally in blocking mode.
Answer: A

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 431
Which two statements about dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) are true? (Choose two.)
A. You enable DAI on each port.

B. Trunk ports are untrusted by default.
C. You can set individual ports as trusted by adding the dhcp-trusted parameter on a given port.
D. DAI depends on the entries found in the DHCP snooping database.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 432
Your security department has identified an increase in IP spoofing attacks.
Which feature should you enable with DHCP snooping to prevent these attacks?
A. ARP spoofing
B. DHCP option 82
C. MAC limiting
D. IP source guard
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 433
You are asked to ensure that an unauthorized switch running spanning tree cannot be added to
any edge port on your EX Series switch. The ports must discard any incoming spanning tree
packets but the interface must continue to forward traffic.
What should you do to accomplish the behavior?

A. Enable BPDU protection.
B. Enable BPDU protection and use the drop feature.
C. Enable root protection and use the drop feature.
D. Enable root protection.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 434
-- Exhibit --
{master:0}[edit]
user@switch# show firewall
filter block-traffic {
term count {
from {
source-address {
10.100.0.254/32;
then count blocked-subnet;
term reject-traffic {
from {
source-address {
10.100.0.254/32;
then discard;

}
term accept-rest {
then accept;
-- Exhibit --
You have a device that is sending a malicious packet to other devices in your Layer 2 network.
You are asked to ensure that packets sent from this device are not allowed to enter your network.
You must also keep track of the number of packets that are being received. The device's IP
address is 10.100.0.254. You have created and applied the firewall filter shown in the exhibit to the
correct port. However, traffic is still being forwarded into the network.
What is causing the problem?
A. The reject-traffic term must be placed before the count term.

B. The filter family is incorrect for a port based filter.
C. Layer 2 firewall filters do not have visibility to the Layer 3 header information.
D. The count term is implicitly accepting the traffic.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 435
Which two statements are true about firewall filters on an EX Series switch? (Choose two.)
A. The switch processes each packet through the firewall filters independently of all other packets.
B. You must explicitly allow traffic in both directions for each connection that you want to permit.
C. A router-based filter applied to an RVI applies to switched packets in the same VLAN.
D. Port-based and VLAN-based filters are applied under different family statements in the CLI.
Answer: A,B

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 436
In your network, you have configured an EX Series switch with port-based, VLAN-based, and
router-based firewall filters. The filters are applied to examine all outgoing traffic.
In which order will they be processed by the switch?
A. router, VLAN, port

B. VLAN, router, port
C. port, VLAN, router
D. router, port, VLAN
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 437
You are asked to inspect your EX Series switch for MAC limit violations.
Which two CLI commands would you use? (Choose two.)
A. show ethernet-switching mac-notification

B. show ethernet-switching interfaces
C. show log messages | match "mac limit"
D. show ethernet-switching mac-learning-log
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 438
You want to configure interface ge-0/0/3 to transition to an inconsistent role in the blocking state
when it receives a superior BPDU.

Which command would you use?
A. set interfaces ge-0/0/3.0 no-root-port

B. set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/3.0 root-protection
C. set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/3.0 no-root-port
D. set interfaces ge-0/0/3.0 root-protection
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 439
Interface ge-0/0/3 has been disabled because a storm control limit has been exceeded.
Which two commands are valid to recover the interface? (Choose two.)
A. user@switch> clear ethernet-switching storm-control-error interface ge-0/0/3

B. user@switch# set ethernet-switching-options secure-access-port disable-timeout 30
C. user@switch> clear ethernet-switching port-error interface ge-0/0/3
D. user@switch# set ethernet-switching-options port-error-disable disable-timeout 30
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 440
You are implementing a Layer 3 VPN on a Junos device.
Which routing instance type would you use?
A. virtual router
B. VRF
C. VPLS
D. forwarding
Answer: B

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 441
Which statement is true about an aggregate route?
A. Its default next-hop value is discard.

B. It has a lower route preference than a generated route.
C. It supports only active routes as contributing routes.
D. It has a default metric of 150.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 442
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --
You are performing a file transfer from HostA to ServerB. As shown in the exhibit, R1 and R2 have
four equal-cost paths.
Which statement is correct about the default behavior of the routers load-balancing this traffic?
A. The file transfer is balanced across all four paths.

B. The file transfer is balanced across interfaces ge-0/0/1 and ge-0/0/2.
C. The file transfer is balanced across interface ge-0/0/1.
D. The file transfer is sent across one path selected randomly by R2.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 443
You are configuring filter-based forwarding on your Junos device.
Which three components must be configured to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)
A. firewall filter
B. logical system
C. routing instance
D. routing policy
E. RIB group
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 444
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show route 0/0 exact detail
0.0.0.0/0 (1 entry, 1 announced)
*Aggregate PreferencE. 130
Next hop typE. Router, Next hop index: 546
Next-hop reference count: 4
Next hop: 10.210.18.1 via ge-0/0/4.200, selected
StatE. <Active Int Ext>

Local AS: 65400
AgE. 4:09:46
Task: Aggregate
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which type of route is displayed?
A. OSPF
B. aggregate
C. static
D. generate
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 445
You want to share routes between your Junos device's master routing instance and another
routing instance.
Which feature would be used to accomplish this task?
A. a static route
B. filter-based forwarding
C. a RIB group
D. an aggregate route
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 446
-- Exhibit --

user@R1> show route 66.129.0.0/22 exact detail
66.129.0.0/22 (1 entry, 1 announced)
*Aggregate PreferencE. 130
Next hop typE. Reject
Next-hop reference count: 2
StatE. <Active Int Ext>
AgE. 1:39:21
Task: Aggregate
Announcement bits (1): 0-KRT
AS path: I (LocalAgg)
Flags: Depth: 0 Active
AS path list:
AS path: I Refcount: 3
Contributing Routes (3):
66.129.0.0/24 proto Direct
-- Exhibit --
In the exhibit, R1 receives a packet with a destination address of 66.129.3.1.
Which action does R1 take on the packet?
A. R1 rejects the packet and sends an unreachable message back to the source.
B. R1 forwards the packet to the next hop associated with the primary contributing route.
C. R1 forwards the packet to the next hop associated with the contributor with the lowest RID.

D. R1 silently discards the packet.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 447
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --
You are required to configure a static route to 10.0.100.1 on R1. The traffic must flow through R3.
Referring to the exhibit, which static route configuration parameter meets this requirement?
A. install
B. retain
C. qualified-next-hop
D. resolve
Answer: D

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 448
-- Exhibit --
[edit routing-options martians]
user@router# show
23.0.0.0/8 longer;
24.0.0.0/8 orlonger;
25.0.0.0/8 exact;
26.0.0.0/8 prefix-length-range /8-/16;
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which route is eligible for installation on the local inet.0 routing table?
A. 23.0.0.0/8
B. 24.0.0.0/8
C. 25.0.0.0/8
D. 26.0.0.0/8
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 449
-- Exhibit

-- Exhibit --
In the exhibit, R2 has a failure and R6 is promoted from the BDR to the DR.
Which router is elected as the new BDR?
A. R1
B. R3
C. R4
D. R5
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 450
You have both IPv4 and IPv6 running in your network. You are asked to migrate your IGP from IS-
IS to OSPF. The network must retain OSPF connectivity between all routers.
A. You must use OSPFv2 on all your routers.

B. You must use OSPFv3 on all your routers.
C. You must use OSPFv4 on all your routers.
D. IPv6 routers must continue to use IS-IS.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 451
Which statement describes the role of an OSPF ABR?
A. It is used to inject external routes into OSPF.

B. It is used to export internal routes from OSPF.
C. It is used to connect a nonbackbone area to Area 0.
D. It is used to connect multiple nonbackbone areas.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 452
Which statement describes the role of an OSPF ASBR?
A. It is used to inject external routes into OSPF.

B. It is used to export internal routes from OSPF.
C. It is used to connect a nonbackbone area to Area 0.
D. It is used to connect a nonbackbone area to Area 1.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 453
Your network design currently consists of a single OSPF backbone area. You are asked to reduce
the size of the OSPF link-state database.
Which two steps allow you to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Include LSA export summarization policies on all participating ASBRs.

B. Define multiple backbone areas and interconnect them using virtual links.
C. Define multiple nonbackbone areas and connect them to the backbone area.
D. Include route summarization on the ABRs participating in the configured areas.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 454
-- Exhibit --
[edit]
user@router# show protocols ospf
traffic-engineering advertise-unnumbered-interfaces;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface all;
[edit]
user@router# show interfaces
ge-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 172.16.12.15/24;

}
ge-1/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 66.129.12.1/24;
lo0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 127.0.0.5/32;
[edit]
route-distinguisher-id 130.0.0.28;
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which address represents the RID?
A. 66.129.12.1
B. 172.16.12.15
C. 127.0.0.5

D. 130.0.0.28
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 455
In an OSPF hello packet, which field is evaluated only on broadcast media links?
A. network mask
B. hello interval
C. dead interval
D. options
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 456
Which three OSPF LSA types are allowed in an NSSA? (Choose three.)
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 4
D. Type 5
E. Type 7
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 457
You are viewing the output of the show ospf neighbor command from your routers on a LAN
segment and you notice that an interface has the state of 2way.
What would be the cause?

A. The two routers cannot communicate with each other.
B. The interface is between two DROther routers on a broadcast network.
C. One of the routers is waiting for an OSPF start event.
D. OSPF has not been configured on one of the routers.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 458
What are three types of OSPF packets? (Choose three.)
A. open
B. link-state acknowledgement
C. link-state interval
D. link-state request
E. database description
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 459
Your OSPF network consists of five Junos devices, R1 through R5, all in Area 0. You want to reset
the LSDB for the entire area.
Which action accomplishes this task?
A. Add the overload parameter to each device's OSPF configuration.

B. Issue the clear ospf database purge command on R1.
C. Issue the clear ospf neighbor command on R2.
D. Configure the OSPF lsa-refresh-interval parameter to 0 on each device.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 460

Your Junos device runs OSPF and BGP. You must limit the number of BGP prefixes within the
10.0.0.0/8 address block to be redistributed into OSPF.
Which parameter would help to control this potential problem?
A. overload, applied within the OSPF configuration

B. area-range 10.0.0.0/8 restrict, applied within the OSPF configuration
C. prefix-export-limit, applied within the OSPF configuration
D. prefix-limit, applied within the BGP configuration
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 461
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show ospf overview
InstancE. master
Router ID. 10.10.10.5
Route table index: 0
Configured overload, expires in 10 seconds
Area border router
LSA refresh timE. 30 minutes
Restart: Enabled
Restart duration: 20 sec
Restart grace perioD. 40 sec
Helper modE. enabled
AreA. 0.0.0.0
Stub typE. Not Stub
Authentication TypE. None
Area border routers: 0, AS boundary routers: 0

Neighbors
Up (in full state): 1
AreA. 0.0.0.1
Stub typE. Not so Stubby Stub
Authentication TypE. Password
Area border routers: 0, AS boundary routers: 0
Neighbors
Up (in full state): 1
Topology: default (ID 0)
Prefix export count: 10
Full SPF runs: 3
SPF delay: 0.200000 sec, SPF holddown: 5 sec, SPF rapid runs: 5
Backup SPF. Not Needed
-- Exhibit --
Your Junos device is running OSPF.
Which three statements are true about the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
A. The LSA refresh interval is at its default value.

B. The device is currently in OSPF overload state.
C. Protocol exchanges are encrypted for interfaces in Area 1.
D. A routing policy is applied.
E. Area 1 is an NSSA.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 462
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show ospf neighbor
Address Interface State ID Pri Dead
66.129.12.2 ge-0/0/2.0 ExStart 66.129.12.2 128 37
-- Exhibit --
What is the reason for the adjacency state shown in the exhibit?
A. There is an authentication mismatch.

B. There is a hello interval mismatch.
C. There is an IP network mismatch.
D. There is an interface MTU mismatch.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 463
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show ospf database
OSPF database, Area 0.0.0.0
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router 5.5.5.5 5.5.5.5 0x80000007 471 0x22 0x180 60
Router *66.129.12.2 66.129.12.2 0x80000010 470 0x22 0xeb7 48
Network *66.129.12.2 66.129.12.2 0x80000006 470 0x22 0x248 32
Network *172.16.12.110 66.129.12.2 0x80000009 470 0x22 0xcb7 32
OpaqArea 1.0.0.1 5.5.5.5 0x80000003 471 0x22 0x3cc 28
-- Exhibit --

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The local router has OSPF traffic engineering enabled.

B. The local router is originating two database entries.
C. The local router is originating three database entries.
D. The local router has OSPF traffic engineering disabled.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 464
-- Exhibit --
[edit protocols ospf]
user@R1# show
traceoptions {
file trace-ospf;
flag error;
area 0 {
interface all;
-- Exhibit --
You are using traceoptions, configured as shown in the exhibit, to monitor regular OSPF
communications between R1 and R2 in real time. However, you are not seeing the desired
information.
How would you resolve this problem?

A. Examine the syslog file.
B. Issue the show log trace-ospf command.
C. Add an additional traceoptions configuration at the [edit system] hierarchy level.
D. Add more flags to the existing traceoptions configuration.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 465
A link has failed in your IS-IS network.
Which type of PDU is triggered because of the failure?
A. CSNP PDU
B. PSNP PDU
C. link-state PDU
D. hello PDU
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 466
Which two statements are true about IS-IS router behavior? (Choose two.)
A. An IS-IS router attached to a broadcast, multi-access network establishes adjacencies with all
of its neighbors on the network.
B. An IS-IS router attached to a broadcast, multi-access network establishes an adjacency only to
the network's elected DIS.
C. If an IS-IS DIS attached to a broadcast, multi-access network fails, the backup DIS assumes
the primary DIS role.
D. If an IS-IS DIS attached to a broadcast, multi-access network fails, a new DIS is elected.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 467
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --
The exhibit shows an IS-IS network where R2 has failed.
Which router becomes the new DIS?
A. R3
B. R1
C. R5
D. R4
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 468
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --
Wide metrics have not been enabled in your IS-IS network.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the IS-IS total path metric value between R1 and R2?
A. 1023
B. 63
C. 1134
D. 1197
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 469
-- Exhibit --

user@router> show isis interface ge-0/0/2.0 detail
IS-IS interface database:
ge-0/0/2.0
Index: 71, StatE. 0x6, Circuit iD. 0x1, Circuit typE. 3
LSP interval: 100 ms, CSNP interval: 10 s
Adjacency advertisement: Advertise
...
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which IS-IS level is supported on the ge-0/0/2.0 interface?
A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D. Level 1 and Level 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 470
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show interfaces lo0.0
Logical interface lo0.0 (Index 66) (SNMP ifIndex 16)
Flags: SNMP-Traps Encapsulation: Unspecified
Input packets : 0
Output packets: 0
Security: ZonE. Null
Protocol inet, MTU: Unlimited
Flags: Sendbcast-pkt-to-re

Addresses
Local: 127.0.0.6
Protocol iso, MTU: Unlimited
Flags: None
Addresses, Flags: Is-Default Is-Primary
Local: 49.0001.0066.0129.0012.0002
-- Exhibit --
What is the area ID for the IS-IS NET address shown in the exhibit?
A. 0012
B. 49
C. 0002
D. 0001
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 471
You want to enable IS-IS on your Junos device, with ge-0/0/1 as a Level 2 only interface.
Which commands are necessary?
A. set interfaces lo0 unit 0 family iso address 49.0001.0921.0168.0201.00

set interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 0 family iso
set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/1 level 1 disable
B. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/1 enable
set interfaces lo0 unit 0 family iso address 49.0001.0921.0168.0201.00
set interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 0 family iso level 1 disable
C. set interfaces lo0 unit 0 family iso address 49.0001.0921.0168.0201.00
set interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 0 family iso level 2
D. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/1 enable
set interfaces lo0 unit 0 family iso address 49.0001.0921.0168.0201.00

set interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 0 family iso level 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 472
-- Exhibit
-- Exhibit --
R2 is receiving an EBGP route from R1. R3 is correctly receiving the route, but R4 is not.
How would you resolve this problem?
A. Change the R2, R3, and R4 peering session types to external.

B. Configure an IBGP session between R2 and R4.
C. Add a route reflector to AS 65501.
D. Configure a static route between R2 and R4.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 473
-- Exhibit

-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, you must ensure that on R1 the Internet routes learned from ISP A are
more preferred than Internet routes learned from ISP B.
Which statement will allow this behavior?
A. Use a policy to change the local preference value to be higher than 100 on routes learned from
ISP B.
B. Use a policy to change the MED value to be higher than 0 on routes learned from ISP A.
C. Use a policy to change the local preference value to be higher than 100 on routes learned from
ISP A.
D. Use a policy to change the MED value to be higher than 0 on routes learned from ISP B.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 474
Your network has multiple BGP connections to your ISP's edge router. You are asked to influence
which router is used by traffic entering your network without asking the ISP to make changes in
their network.
Which attribute should be used?
A. local preference
B. MED
C. community
D. aggregator
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 475
Your network has multiple BGP connections to your ISP's edge router. You are asked to influence
which router is used by traffic entering your network without asking the ISP to make changes in
their network.
Which attribute should be used?
A. local preference
B. origin
C. community
D. aggregator
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 476
You have recently configured EBGP on R1 using the ge-0/0/2 interface. You notice that the
EBGP-learned routes are present on R1 but these routes are not present in the routing tables on
any of the other IBGP peers. During your investigation, you notice that the routes on the other
IBGP peers are hidden.

What are two solutions to this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Use an import policy on R1 to change the next hop of the EBGP-learned routes before
advertising them to the IBGP peers.
B. Include the ge-0/0/2 interface as passive in R1's IGP configuration.
C. Use an export policy on R1 to change the next hop of the EBGP-learned routes before
advertising them to the IBGP peers.
D. Include the IBGP-facing interfaces as passive in R1's IGP configuration.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 477
You want to establish an EBGP peering session with the loopback IP address of your peer router.
Which BGP parameter must be used to accomplish this task?
A. multihop
B. multipath
C. local-interface
D. local-as
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 478
You are advertising your network's assigned prefixes to two upstream ISPs using BGP. You want
incoming traffic to prefer ISP-A over ISP-B.
Which action would you take to accomplish this task?
A. Set a higher local preference on the prefixes you announce to ISP-A.

B. Using a routing policy, prepend your ASN information to the AS path attribute on prefixes you
announce to ISP-B.

C. Using a routing policy, prepend your ASN information to the AS path attribute on prefixes you
announce to ISP-A.
D. Set the MED value lower on prefixes you announce to ISP-A.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 479
Which set of BGP attributes is preferred by the Junos OS?
A. MED. 100
AS path: 65512 65512 65512
Local preferencE. 100
Origin: I
B. MED. 50
AS path: 65512 65512 65512
Origin: E
C. MED. 100
AS path: 65512 65512 65512 65512
Origin: I
D. MED. 50
AS path: 65512 65512 65512
Origin: E
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 480
Which three statements are true regarding BGP peers? (Choose three.)
A. BGP peers can reside in the same AS or different ASs.

B. BGP peers on the same router must all use the same peer AS number.
C. External BGP peers have a default TTL value of 1.
D. External BGP peers will always accept the AS path, origin, and next-hop attributes from their
neighbors.
E. Internal BGP routers will propagate IBGP learned routes to other IBGP peers by default.

Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 481
What is the correct sequence of the BGP route selection process?
A. local preference, AS path, origin, MED, EBGP over IBGP, IGP metric cost, peer ID
B. local preference, AS path, MED, origin, EBGP over IBGP, IGP metric cost, peer ID
C. local preference, AS path, origin, MED, IGP metric cost, EBGP over IBGP, peer ID
D. local preference, origin, AS path, MED, EBGP over IBGP, IGP metric cost, peer ID
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 482
Your ISP reports that you are being sent a route prefix but you cannot see it in your routing table.
Which two commands will help? (Choose two.)
A. show route advertising-protocol bgp

B. show route detail
C. show route protocol bgp hidden
D. show route receive-protocol bgp
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 483
-- Exhibit --
[edit]
user@router# commit
[edit protocols]

'bgp'
Error in neighbor 172.27.1.4 of group ebgp:
must define local autonomous system when enabling BGP
error: configuration check-out failed
-- Exhibit --
You are configuring BGP on a new router. While attempting to commit the configuration, you
receive the error shown in the exhibit.
What must be done to allow the commit to complete?
A. Configure the autonomous-system parameter at the [edit forwarding-options] hierarchy.

B. Configure the autonomous-system parameter at the [edit routing-options] hierarchy.
C. Configure the autonomous-system parameter at the [edit protocols bgp group ebgp] hierarchy.
D. Configure the autonomous-system parameter at the [edit protocols bgp] hierarchy.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 484
-- Exhibit

-- Exhibit --
You recently configured a new EBGP peering from R1 to your ISP. You are asked to determine
which BGP routes are being advertised from R1 to this new EBGP neighbor.
Referring to the exhibit, which command is used to verify this information on R1?
A. show route export

B. show route receive-protocol bgp 172.27.0.2
C. show route protocol bgp
D. show route advertising-protocol bgp 172.27.0.1
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 485

You must verify whether the prefix 172.28.102.0/24 has been advertised by BGP peer 172.18.1.1
and accepted into the routing table.
Which command would you use to accomplish this task?

C. show route protocol bgp 172.28.102.0/24
D. show route summary
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 486
Prefix 172.28.102.0/24 has been advertised by BGP peer 172.18.1.1. You must verify that it has
been received by your Junos device before a policy has been applied.
Which command would you use?

C. show route protocol bgp 172.28.102.0/24
D. show route summary
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 487
You are asked to identify a tunneling solution between two remote sites and are considering GRE
and IP-IP tunnels to meet the requirement.
Which two statements describe the differences between the proposed solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Traffic forwarded through an IP-IP tunnel includes additional overhead when compared to traffic

flowing over a GRE tunnel.
B. Traffic forwarded through a GRE tunnel includes additional overhead when compared to traffic
flowing over an IP-IP tunnel.
C. IP-IP tunnels support non-IP traffic.
D. GRE tunnels support non-IP traffic.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 488
You are asked to deploy a GRE tunnel between two remote sites.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The tunnel endpoints must have tunnel interfaces to encapsulate the transported packets.
B. The tunnel endpoints must have tunnel interfaces to encrypt the transported packets.
C. All intermediate routers between the tunnel endpoints must have GRE transport support
enabled.
D. All intermediate routers between the tunnel endpoints must have a route to the tunnel
endpoints.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 489
You have deployed a GRE tunnel between Site A and Site B. The tunnel interfaces are up on both
tunnel endpoints but traffic is not being passed between the remote sites.
Which two reasons would cause this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The intermediate routers between the tunnel endpoints do not have GRE transport enabled.
B. The intermediate routers between the tunnel endpoints do not have routes to both tunnel
endpoints.
C. The tunnel endpoints do not have import policies redistributing routes out of the tunnel.
D. The tunnel endpoints do not have the required routes directing traffic into the tunnel.

Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 490
You have configured a GRE tunnel between two remote sites. This tunnel will be used to pass
traffic using RFC 1918 addressing over the Internet. You have verified that the tunnel interface is
up on both endpoints and see the output shown below:
user@router> show interfaces gr-0/0/0.0 terse
Interface Admin Link Proto Local Remote
gr-0/0/0.0 up up
Traffic between the remote sites is not being passed over this tunnel.
Which action would resolve this problem?
A. You must use an IP-IP tunnel to support traffic using RFC 1918 addressing.
B. You must use NAT to translate the private addresses to a public address.
C. You must enable path MTU to ensure packets are properly fragmented.
D. You must enable the inet protocol family on the GRE interfaces.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 491
Which two statements are true about RTG? (Choose two.)
A. RTG can be used as a replacement for STP.

B. Both active and backup links forward traffic.
C. RTG is based on the 802.1Q standard.
D. You only need to configure RTG on one side of the link.
Answer: A,D

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 492
Which two steps must be performed to carry out a unified ISSU on an EX Series Virtual Chassis?
(Choose two.)
A. Enable GRES and NSR, then verify that the Routing Engines are synchronized.
B. Download the new software package and copy it to both Routing Engines before the upgrade.
C. Verify that the master and backup Routing Engines are running the same software version.
D. Shut down the backup Routing Engine before the upgrade.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 493
You are asked to deploy graceful restart in your OSPF network.
What are two requirements to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. All routers must have restarting and helper modes enabled.

B. All routers must have redundant Routing Engines with graceful Routing Engine switchover
(GRES) enabled.
C. All routers must be configured for nonstop routing.
D. All routers must support nonstop forwarding.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 494
What are two benefits of the Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Reduces the processing overhead for protocols that support BFD.

B. Reduces initialization overhead for protocols that support BFD.

C. Provides a common method for managing timers for the supported protocols.
D. Provides protocols with an efficient detection method when establishing forwarding paths.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 495
You are asked to identify a high availability solution for your core routers and are debating
between using GRES as a standalone solution or NSR.
What are two primary differences between the two solutions? (Choose two.)
A. GRES allows an RE mastership change to occur without alerting peers of the change.
B. NSR allows an RE mastership change to occur without alerting peers of the change.
C. GRES works with graceful restart.
D. NSR works with graceful restart.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 496
-- Exhibit --
{master:0}
user@switch> show virtual-chassis status
Virtual Chassis ID. dd7e.1747.4783
Virtual Chassis ModE. Enabled
Mastership Neighbor List
Member ID Status Serial No Model priority Role ID Interface
0 (FPC 0) Prsnt BM0208105168 ex4200-24t 255 Master*
1 (FPC 1) NotPrsnt BM0208124231 ex4200-24t

Member ID for next new member: 2 (FPC 2)
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the output shown in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The GbE interfaces associated with the device would use the ge-0/0/x naming format.
B. The GbE interfaces associated with the device would use the ge-1/0/x naming format.
C. If a new member is added to this Virtual Chassis, it would assume the Routing Engine role.
D. If a new member is added to this Virtual Chassis, it would assume the line card role.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 497
-- Exhibit --
{master:0}
user@switch> show virtual-chassis status
Virtual Chassis ID. dd7e.1747.4783
Virtual Chassis ModE. Enabled
Mastership Neighbor List
Member ID Status Serial No Model priority Role ID Interface
0 (FPC 0) Prsnt BM0208105168 ex4200-24t 255 Master*
1 (FPC 1) NotPrsnt BM0208124231 ex4200-24t
Member ID for next new member: 2 (FPC 2)
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. This Virtual Chassis is formed through a preprovisioned configuration.
B. This Virtual Chassis is formed using the dynamic configuration process.
C. If member 1 returns to operation within this Virtual Chassis, it will retain member ID 1.
D. If member 1 returns to operation within this Virtual Chassis, it will receive member ID 2.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 498
-- Exhibit --
[edit]
user@R1# show interfaces ge-0/0/1
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 10.10.10.1/24 {
vrrp-group 10 {
priority 254;
[edit]
user@R2# show interfaces ge-0/0/1
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 10.10.10.2/24 {
vrrp-group 10 {

priority 1;
-- Exhibit --
Using the configuration details shown in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. R1 will become the master VRRP router.

B. R2 will become the master VRRP router.
C. If the elected master VRRP router fails, and then returns to an operational state, it will return to
the master VRRP router role.
D. If the elected master VRRP router fails, and then returns to an operational state, it will assume
the backup VRRP router role.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:

JN0 343 Mar 15.16

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JN0 343 Mar 15.16

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Juniper JN0-343

Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 2

Which OSPF area type can contain Type 7 LSAs?

A. network protocols supported

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 3

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 4

A. per-flow load balancing

A. It withdraws routes that are no longer valid.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 5

Which statement describes the default Junos OS behavior for OSPF?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 6

What are two valid BPDU types? (Choose two.)

A. topology change notification

Which of the following is enabled by default on an EX Series switch?

A. MAC move limiting

A. Routes learned through EBGP are advertised to IBGP peers.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 7

A. The port is placed in a loop-inconsistent role.

A. set protocols bgp local-as 65432

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A. Configuration on both Routing Engines must be synchronized.

Configuring bpdu-timeout-action enables which protection mechanism?

A. set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 family iso level 2 enable

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 9

A. Per-packet load-balancing is not configured.

In the following output, what does the asterisk indicate?

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A. The interface is configured as a trunk.

A. It drops the traffic.

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What is the correct sequence of OSPF adjacency formation?

A. Down, Init, ExStart, 2way, Loading, Exchange, Full

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A. local preference, AS path, origin, MED

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Which protocol is an IGP?

What is the default OSPF designated router (DR) priority?

Which instance type is used when configuring filter-based forwarding?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 15

What are three states for RSTP? (Choose three.)

Which statement regarding redundant trunk groups (RTGs) is true?

A. STP and RTG can be configured on the same interface.

A. The router drops the packet.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 16

A. show ethernet-switching table

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A. the side with the higher IP address

A. GRE supports both IP traffic and non-IP traffic.

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A. set interfaces ge-0/1/1.0 family ethernet-switching vlan members [Vlan10 Vlan11]

A. It performs a similar role to the designated router (DR) in OSPF.

Which operational command can verify load balancing?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 19

A. first one learned

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Which of the following is a spanning tree option in EX Series switches?

A. MAC move limiting

Which type of route is shown in the following output?

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You have connected a spanning-tree-enabled device to your spanning-tree-enabled switch, but

A. [edit protocols bgp]