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By
Dr. Alok Kumar
Centre for Innovative Leadership
Publishers
Publishers
UPKAR PRAKASHAN
(An ISO 9001 : 2000 Company)
The publishers have taken all possible precautions in publishing this book, yet if
any mistake has crept in, the publishers shall not be responsible for the same.
This book or any part thereof may not be reproduced in any form by
Photographic, Mechanical, or any other method, for any use, without written
permission from the Publishers.
Only the courts at Agra shall have the jurisdiction for any legal dispute.
ISBN : 978-81-7482-988-7
Price : 9500
(Rs. Ninety Five Only)
Code No. 1664
A Word to Reader
This book will be useful of all those who are preparing for interviews and various
competitive examinations, where the most basic and also in-depth understanding of
computers is required. The book is divided in three parts
* FundamentalCover basic questions on computers from day to day
awareness of computers.
* ApplicationCover questions related to computer applications, it includes
Windows Operating System and Keyboard Shortcuts, Microsoft Office,
Microsoft Word, PowerPoint, Access and Excel.
* AdvanceCovers questions on advance topics on computer, it includes
Operating system, Software Engineering, Data Structures and Algorithms,
Electronics Data Processing, Data Mining and Data ware house, Parallel
Computing and Window Programming, Data Base Management Systems.
Author hopes that this book will fulfil the needs of those who are in search of
relevant questions on computers.
With best wishes,
CONTENTS
Computer : Fundamental
Computer Awareness 313
Computer : Application
Microsoft Windows Operating System 1919
Computer : Advance
COMPUTER : FUNDAMENT
FUNDAMENTAL
AMENTAL
( Computer A
Awwar eness
areness
( Computer Security
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COMPUTER AWARENESS
1. The following device allows the user to add 8. A process of collecting, organizing, storing
external components to a computer system and otherwise maintaining a complete
(A) Storage devices historical record of programs and other
(B) Keyboards documents used or prepared during the
(C) Ports/ system boards different phases of the system is called
(D) Diskettes (A) Documentation (B) Document reader
2. Software that manages data in more than (C) Data process (D) None of these
one file at a time and these files are treated 9. What are connector symbol?
as tables with rows and columns rather than (A) They are used in a flowchart
as lists of records is (B) It represents a junction in a flow line
(A) Relational Data Base Management (C) Often used to transfer flow between
Package different pages of a lengthy chart
(B) Data Base Management Package
(D) All the above
(C) Documentation Package
(D) None of these 10. Console is
3. A program that remains in the memory while (A) A device that enables human operators
other programs are executing to communicate with the computer
(A) Resident Program (B) A device that enables human operators
(B) Non-Resident Program not to communicate with the computer
(C) Permanent Program (C) Communication between computers
(D) None of these (D) None of these
4. The total time elapsed between submission 11. Constant is a value written into a program
of command and data to a computer and instruction
getting the result of computation is the (A) that does not change during the
(A) Access time (B) Response time execution of the program
(C) Entrance time (D) None of these (B) that can change during the execution of
5. An automatic machine that is made to the program
perform routine human tasks is (C) that can vary during the execution of the
(A) Computer (B) Robot program
(C) Tanker (D) None of these (D) none of these
6. The time required to complete a single, 12. A removable direct-access storage medium
continuous execution of an object program containing multiple magnetic disks mounted
is called vertically on a single-shaft is referred as
(A) Run time (B) Access time
(A) Tape pack (B) Disk pack
(C) Random time (D) Response time
(C) Cylinder (D) None of these
7. Computer network is a
(A) A distributed data processing system 13. Diskette is a
(B) Multiple computers are linked together (A) A low-cost, thin flexible magnetic disk
for the purpose of data communication storage device
and resource sharing (B) High volume storage device
(C) Both A & B are false (C) Primary storage device
(D) Both A & B are true (D) None of these
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14. An optical input device that is used to read 23. A storage devices where the access time is
documents printed in a special type font is effectively independent of the location of the
known as data is referred as
(A) Document reader (B) Documentation (A) Direct access (B) Secondary storage
(C) Printer (D) None of these (C) Primary storage(D) None of these
15. For checking spelling one uses 24. A pictorial representation that uses pre-
(A) Dictionary Disk (B) Index disk defined symbols to describe either the logic
(C) Directory (D) None of these of a computer program or the data flow and
16. Process of finding/ correcting program errors processing steps of a system is referred as
is (A) Flowchart (B) Algorithm
(A) Bugs (B) Debugging (C) Program (D) None of these
(C) Hacking (D) Cracking
25. A flat, circular plate coated with a magnetic
17. Diagnostic routines is a material on which data can be stored by
(A) Programs used to print error messages magnetization of portions of the flat surface
(B) Indicates system problems and is
improper program instructions. (A) Disk (B) Tape
(C) Both A & B are true (C) Pen drive (D) None of these
(D) None of these
26. Disk operating system is referred for
18. The term DBMS is referred to
(A) DOS
(A) Data Base Management system
(B) Operating system which contains the
(B) The software used for the management,
maintenance and retrieval of the data disk-oriented commands and uses disk
stored in a data base devices for permanent storage
(C) Both A & B are true (C) Both A & B
(D) None of these (D) None of these
19. The speed at which data is transferred from 27. Document reader is
the main memory to another medium on (A) An optical input device used to read
which data are recorded is referred as documents
(A) Data transfer rate (B) Byte (B) A device that arrange the documents
(C) Buds (D) None of these (C) A device that is used to edit document
20. The time period during which a computer is (D) None of these
malfunctioning or not operating correctly due 28. One or more identifying lines printed at the
to machine failures is referred as bottom of a page are referred as
(A) Downtime (B) Uptime (A) Header (B) Footer
(C) Runtime (D) None of these (C) Index (D) None of these
21. Automatic execution of high-priority computer 29. FORTRAN is
programs that have been designed to pre-
(A) Formula Translation
empt the use of computer resources is
(B) A high-level mathematically oriented
referred as
(A) Foreground processing programming language
(B) background processing (C) Both A & B
(C) black processing (D) None of these
(D) white processing 30. A CPU designed specifically to handle the
22. Digitizer is an input device communications processing task with main
(A) Used to convert graphic and pictorial purpose is to off-load communications
data into binary inputs for a digital processing task from the host computer so
computer that the host computer can be dedicated for
(B) Used to convert graphic and pictorial applications and data processing jobs.
data into analog inputs for a digital (A) Backend processor
computer. (B) Front-end processor
(C) Used for debugging (C) Node processor
(D) None of these (D) None of these
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31. An adder which adds three binary digits and 39. Digital Computer is a computer
outputs a result bit and a carry bit is referred (A) that works with discrete quantities
as (B) that works with analog quantities
(A) Half adder (B) Quarter adder (C) Both A & B
(C) Full adder (D) None of these (D) None of these
32. Emulator is a program that 40. The subdivision of fields
(A) Permits one computer to execute the (A) always done to give the programmer
machine-language instructions of greater flexibility
another computer of a different make (B) dependent on programming language
(B) Which is not broken down into smaller used
units (C) never accomplished on fields containing
(C) Permits one computer to execute the numeric data
machine-language instructions of (D) all the above
another computer of same make. 41. The checking operation performed on input
(D) None of these is called
33. Emulator is a program that (A) validation of data (B) verification of data
(A) Permits one computer to execute the (C) vilification of data (D) control of data
machine-language instructions of 42. A device that attaches to both ends of an
another computer of a different make electrical bus and prevents reflection of
(B) Which is not broken down into smaller echoes of signals that reach the end of the
units bus is called
(C) Permits one computer to execute the (A) Terminator (B) Connector
machine-language instructions of (C) Processor (D) None of these
another computer of same make.
43. A device mounted on a communication
(D) None of these
satellite which receives, amplifies and
34. EDP is referred to retransmits signals from earth stations is
(A) Electronic Data Processing called
(B) Data processing through equipment (A) Terminator (B) Connector
that is predominantly electronic such as (C) Processor (D) Transponder
digital computer
44. Technique of using disk space to make
(C) Both A & B programs believe that the system contains
(D) None of these more random access memory (RAM) than
35. Internet banking is an example of is actually available is called
(A) Electronic funds transfer (EFT) (A) Virtual memory
(B) EDP (Electronic Data Processing ) (B) Secondary memory
(C) EBCDIC (C) Primary memory
(D) ASCII (D) None of these
36. EBCDIC is 45. A term means that the application software
(A) 6-bit coding system is priced separately from the computer
(B) 7-bit coding system hardware is called
(C) 8-bit coding system (A) Unbundled (B) Bundled
(D) 9-bit coding system (C) Utility (D) None of these
37. A data communication facility on which data 46. Following is not the operating system
can be transmitted in two directions is (A) UNIX (B) DOS
referred as (C) WINDOWS (D) BASIC
(A) Duplex (B) Simplex 47. Which of the following is true concerning
(C) Triplex (D) None of these personal computers?
38. Electronic Mail /Message System (EMMS) (A) They have been most successful in the
best suits to home.
(A) Postal service (B) They are user friendly
(B) Telephone service (C) No specific programming technique
(C) Telegraph service required
(D) None of these (D) All the above.
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48. While buying a PC system, one should first 58. The following magazine covers only the IBM
(A) identify hardware components PC and its compatibles
(B) define computing needs (A) Byte (B) PC Magazine
(C) both A and B (C) Personal Computing (D) Interface Age
(D) None of these 59. The word size of a microprocessor refers to:
49. The microcomputers which have the same (A) the number of machine operations
operating characteristics as the IBM performed/ second
microcomputers are called (B) the amount of information that can be
(A) IBM desk top stored / cycle
(B) IBM PC (C) the amount of information that can be
(C) IBM advanced computers stored in bytes
(D) None of theses (D) none of these
50. The personal computers are also referred 60. The primary memory of a personal computer
as consists
(A) desk top micros (A) ROM only
(B) advanced computers (B) RAM only
(C) palmtop computers (C) Both ROM and RAM
(D) all the above (D) Memory module
51. POS data-entry system is used extensively 61. Microsoft Excel is
by (A) financial planning package
(A) banking industry (B) electronic spreadsheet
(B) grocery industry (C) graphics package
(C) railroad industry (D) data-base management package
(D) word-processing industry 62. All the keys on the IBM PC keyboard repeat
52. Primary advantage of key-to-tape data-entry as long as one holds them down. These
systems keys are known as
(A) A large percentage of editing can be (A) typematic keys (B) functional keys
performed at the time of data entry (C) automatic keys (D) alphabetic keys
(B) Key verification is easily performed 63. Distributed data processing configuration
(C) The tape is reusable where all activities passes through a
(D) Keying errors can be detected as they centrally located computer is
occur (A) ring network
53. Maximum character EBCDIC can code (B) spider network
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) hierarchical network
(C) 64 (D) 256 (D) data control network
54. The hexadecimal number system has a 64. Communications device, combines
base of transmissions from several devices into on
(A) 2 (B) 4 line is
(C) 8 (D) 16 (A) concentrator (B) modifier
(C) multiplexer (D) full-duplex line
55. The use of parity bit is for
(A) coding (B) indexing 65. Data communications involving telegraph
(C) error-detection (D) none of these lines uses
(A) simplex lines
56. The following are basic types of record- (B) wideband channels
access methods (C) narrowband channels
(A) sequential and random (D) dialed service
(B) direct and immediate
(C) sequential and indexed 66. An advantage of the laser printer respect to
(D) on-line and real-time impact printer is
(A) it is quieter/ faster
57. Which of the following is input/output device? (B) output is of a high quality
(A) monitors (B) punched cards (C) support wide range of type fonts
(C) optical scanners (D) all the above (D) all the above
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67. Data entry can be performed with all of the 76. A sequential electronic circuit which can be
following except placed in one out of two stable states where
(A) OCR / OMR each state may be used to represent a binary
(B) COM digit is stated as
(C) Voice-recognition systems (A) Integrated circuit (B) Firmware
(D) MICR (C) Flip-flop (D) None of these
68. Magnetic tape can serve as 77. A sequence of instruction (software) that is
(A) input media substituted for hardware and stored in read-
(B) output media only memory (ROM) is called
(C) secondary-storage media (A) Integrated circuit (B) Firmware
(D) all the above (C) Flip-flop (D) None of these
69. The advantages of COM are its_____and__. 78. Anonymous FTP is the
(A) compact size; readability (A) Internet file transfer protocol
(B) compact size; speed (B) Protocol that requires password
(C) readability; speed (C) None access files
(D) compact size; low cost (D) None of these
70. Elementary data item are 79. EFF sites allows anonymous FTP that
(A) data item which is not broken down into (A) Do not require a password or access
smaller units (B) Requires password or access
(B) data item that can be broken down into (C) Is a none access file
smaller units (D) None of these
(C) data item which is not decomposed into 80. ANSI is
smaller units (A) American National Standards Institute
(D) none of these (B) A USA based national organization that
71. A semiconductor memory which allows the establishes uniform standards in
eraser of the information stared in it so that several fields of computers.
new information can be stared in it is referred (C) Both A & B are true
as (D) None is true
(A) EPROM (B) ROM 81. APL is
(C) RAM (D) None of these (A) A high level language for specifying
72. Extended ASCII uses complex algorithms.
(A) 8 bits for coding (B) 9 bits for coding (B) A real-time language primarily for
(C) 10 bits for coding (D) 11 bits for coding scientific applications.
(C) Only A is true
73. A device used for transmission of images (D) Both A & B are true
scanned at a transmitting point and
82. The overall design, construction, organiza-
duplicated at a receiving point is
tion and interconnecting of the various
(A) Facsimile (FAX) (B) Telephone
components of a computer system is
(C) Photocopier (D) None of these
referred as
74. A data transmission medium made of tiny (A) Computer Architecture
threads of glass or plastic that can transmit (B) Computer Flow chart
huge amount of information at the speed of (C) Computer Algorithm
light is (D) None of these
(A) Fiber optic cable (B) Copper cable 83. Asynchronous communication is
(C) Twisted wire cable (D) None of these (A) Communication between independently
75. A method of using a communication channel operating units
in which signals can be transmitted between (B) Communication between dependent
a source and a destination in both directions operating units
simultaneously is called (C) Communication between independent
(A) Full duplex (B) Half duplex and dependent operating units
(C) Quarter duplex (D) None of these (D) None of these
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M.C.Qs. on Computer | 9
10 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
119. The following piece of hardware is used as 130. Which of the following is not true of a
input phase of a computer-based information magnetic disk?
system (A) Users can update records by writing
(A) Printer (B) Diskette over the old data
(C) Monitor (D) Keyboard (B) It provides sequential access to stored
120. Software instructions intended to satisfy a data
user specific processing needs are called (C) It is slow relative to magnetic tape
(A) systems software (D) All of the above are true
(B) microcomputer
131. Which of the following was (were) not used
(C) documentation
(D) applications software in first-generation computers?
(A) vacuum tubes (B) punch cards
121. A term used for diskette is (C) magnetic core (D) all of the above
(A) disk cartridge (B) disk pack
(C) floppy disk (D) none of these 132. Following is not true for Backup files
(A) These are the files which are generated
122. Following is true for the digital computer
(A) Information is in form of a string of binary automatically in when one saves a
digits document.
(B) It can be used as analog processor (B) These files help in protecting the
(C) It is less accurate than the analog document due to out of order of the
computer computer or power failure.
(D) None of these. (C) These files delete as soon as computer
123. Comparing with secondary storage, primary is turned off
storage is (D) None of these
(A) slow and inexpensive 133. An algebra that deals with logical
(B) fast and inexpensive propositions which are either true or false is
(C) fast and expensive referred as
(D) slow and expensive (A) Boolean algebra (B) Modern Algebra
124. CPU performs read/write operations (C) Abstract Algebra (D) None of these
at any point in time in
134. Bandwidth is
(A) ROM (B) PROM
(C) EPROM (D) RAM (A) The range of frequencies available for
data transmission
125. Following is not the from of secondary
(B) Data transmission rate
storage
(C) Alternate for rubber band
(A) Magnetic tape (B) CDs
(C) Disk (D) Hard disk (D) None is true
126. Technique of placing software/programs 135. A coding structure in which characters are
in a ROM semiconductor chip is called represented by means of a series of parallel
(A) PROM (B) EPROM bars is
(C) firm ware (D) microprocessor (A) Bar Code (B) Menu bar
127. Following is not true for magnetic tape (C) Numeric bar (D) None of these
(A) low cost 136. In Broadband system a network system
(B) direct-access storage medium (A) Several analog signals share the same
(C) compact and portable physical network channel.
(D) highly reliable (B) Only digital signals share the same
128. The following is an nonvolatile memory physical network channel.
(A) ROM (B) RAM (C) Single analog signals share the same
(C) LSI (D) VLSI physical network channel.
129. The ________ can be programmed one (D) None of these.
time by either the manufacturer or the 137. Bit stands for
computer user. Once programmed, it cannot (A) binary digit
be modified. (B) one binary piece of information
(A) RAM (B) ROM (C) Both A and B are true
(C) PROM (D) EPROM (D) None is true
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12 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
M.C.Qs. on Computer | 13
174. Following communications lines, best suites 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (A)
to interactive processing applications 36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (B)
(A) narrowband channels 41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (A)
(B) simplex lines 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (A)
(C) full-duplex lines 51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (C)
(D) mixed-band channels 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (C)
175. Advantage of a multiprogramming system 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (C) 65. (C)
is 66. (D) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (A)
(A) simultaneous execution of program 71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (A)
instructions from two applications 76. (C) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (A) 80. (C)
(B) concurrent processing of two or more 81. (D) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (C) 85. (D)
programs 86. (A) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (A)
(C) single processing at a time 91. (A) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (D)
(D) none of these 96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (A) 100. (A)
176. A remote batch-processing operation where 101. (A) 102. (C) 103. (A) 104. (B) 105. (A)
data is solely input to a central computer 106. (A) 107. (C) 108. (A) 109. (A) 110. (A)
would require 111. (A) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (D) 115. (B)
(A) telegraph line 116. (B) 117. (B) 118. (A) 119. (D) 120. (D)
(B) simplex lines 121. (C) 122. (A) 123. (C) 124. (C) 125. (D)
(C) mixed-band channel 126. (C) 127. (B) 128. (A) 129. (C) 130. (B)
(D) none of these 131. (C) 132. (C) 133. (A) 134. (A) 135. (A)
136. (A) 137. (C) 138. (A) 139. (D) 140. (A)
Answer Sheet 141. (A) 142. (A) 143. (C) 144. (A) 145. (A)
146. (D) 147. (A) 148. (B) 149. (A) 150. (B)
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B) 151. (A) 152. (A) 153. (B) 154. (A) 155. (C)
6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (A) 156. (D) 157. (A) 158. (B) 159. (B) 160. (C)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A) 161. (B) 162. (A) 163. (D) 164. (A) 165. (A)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (A) 166. (A) 167. (A) 168. (A) 169. (A) 170. (A)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (A) 171. (B) 172. (A) 173. (C) 174. (C) 175. (B)
26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (B) 176. (B)
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COMPUTER SECURITY
1. A vulnerability scanner is 6. It is a software program designed to record
(A) a prepared application that takes (log) every keystroke on the machine on
advantage of a known weakness. which it runs
(B) a tool used to quickly check computers
(A) Keylogger (B) Worm
on a network for known weaknesses.
(C) an application that captures TCP/IP data (C) Virus (D) Cracker
packets, which can maliciously be used 7. It is a self-replicating program that infects
to capture passwords and other data computer and spreads by inserting copies
while it is in transit either within the
of itself into other executable code or
computer or over the network.
(D) a situation in which one person or documents.
program successfully masquerades as (A) Keylogger (B) Worm
another by falsifying data and thereby (C) Virus (D) Cracker
gaining illegitimate access. 8. Like a virus, it is also a self-replicating
2. A packet sniffer is program. The difference between a virus and
(A) a prepared application that takes it is that a worm does not create copies of
advantage of a known weakness.
itself on one system: it propagates through
(B) a tool used to quickly check computers
on a network for known weaknesses. computer networks.
(C) an application that captures TCP/IP data (A) Keylogger (B) Worm
packets, which can maliciously be used (C) Cracker (D) None of these
to capture passwords and other data
while it is in transit either within the 9. Viruses that fool a user into downloading
computer or over the network. and/or executing them by pretending to be
(D) a situation in which one person or useful applications are also sometimes
program successfully masquerades as called?
another by falsifying data and thereby (A) Trojan horses (B) Keylogger
gaining illegitimate access.
(C) Worm (D) Cracker
3. These hacker breaks security for altruistic
or at least non-malicious reasons. 10. These are program designed as to seem to
(A) White hat (B) Grey hat being or be doing one thing, but actually
(C) Blue hat (D) None of these being or doing another.
4. This hacker is a hacker of ambiguous ethics (A) Trojan horses (B) Keylogger
and/or borderline legality, often frankly (C) Worm (D) Cracker
admitted.
(A) White hat (B) Grey hat 11. It is a toolkit for hiding the fact that a computers
(C) Blue hat (D) None of these security has been compromised, is a general
5. This hacker is someone outside computer description of a set of programs which work
security consulting firms that are used to bug to subvert control of an operating system from
test a system prior to its launch, looking for its legitimate (in accordance with established
exploits so they can be closed. rules) operators.
(A) White hat (B) Grey hat (A) Rootkit (B) Keylogger
(C) Blue hat (D) None of these (C) Worm (D) Cracker
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16 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
COMPUTER : APPLICATION
APPLICATION
( Microsoft Windows Oper
Microsoft ating Sy
Opera stem
System
( Microsoft Windows K
Microsoft eyboar
Ke d Shor
yboard tcuts
Shortcuts
( Microsoft Of
Microsoft Offf ice
( Microsoft W
Microsoft or
Word
ord
( Microsoft Ex
Microsoft cel
Excel
( Microsoft P
Microsoft ow
Pow er
ower point
erpoint
( Microsoft Access
Microsoft
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MICROSOFT WINDOWS
OPERATING SYSTEM
1. In Windows operating system the 8. Word Processors that is the part of Windows
is the main screen area that one sees operating system
after he turn on a computer and log on to
(A) Wordpad
Windows.
(A) Desktop (B) Icons (B) Notepad
(C) Taskbar (D) None of these (C) Adobe Photoshop
2. In Windows operating system it sits at the (D) Jasc Paint Shop
bottom of windows desktop screen. It shows 9. Microsoft Windows provides a graphics
you which programs are running and allows
you to switch between them. It also contains application named
the Start button which one can use to access (A) Paint (B) Adobe Photoshop
programs, folders, and computer settings. (C) Jasc Paint Shop(D) None of these
(A) Sidebar (B) Icons
(C) Taskbar (D) None of these 10. Text Editor that is the part of Windows
operating system
3. In Windows operating system these are
small pictures that represent files, folders, (A) Wordpad
programs, and other items. Each one is (B) Notepad
used to make the computer do something. (C) Adobe Photoshop
(A) Sidebar (B) Icons (D) Jasc Paint Shop
(C) Taskbar (D) None of these
11. It is a visual aspect that indicates that a
4. In Windows operating system it is the long
horizontal bar at the bottom of a screen. control is ready to receive input from you in
Unlike the desktop, which can get obscured Windows operating system
by the windows on top of it, it is visible almost (A) Controls Focus
all the time.
(B) Dialog Boxes
(A) Sidebar (B) Icons
(C) Taskbar (D) None of these (C) Command Buttons
5. In Windows operating system it is a very (D) Text Boxes
important part of Windows, clicking on it 12. In Windows operating system it is a window
opens up what is called the start menu that is used to display text or to receive text
(A) Start button (B) Sidebar
from you. The type of text it displays or the
(C) Icons (D) None of these
type of text you are asked to provide depends
6. In Windows operating system when you
on the application or the situation.
delete a file or folder, it doesnt actually get
deleted right away, it goes to the . (A) Controls Focus (B) Dialog Boxes
(A) Recycle Bin (B) Dust Bin (C) Command Buttons (D) Text Boxes
(C) Cycle Bin (D) None of these
7. In Windows operating system the clock in Answer Sheet
windows xp sits on the and
displays the system time. 1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A)
(A) Taskbar (B) Start menu 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (B)
(C) Desktop (D) None of these 11. (A) 12. (D)
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MICROSOFT WINDOWS
KEYBOARD SHORTCUTS
1. In Windows operating system to display or 8. In Windows operating system shortcut key
hide the Start menu Windows Logo+R
(A) Windows Logo (A) Display Windows Help
(B) Windows Logo + BREAK (B) Lock the keyboard
(C) Windows Logo + D (C) Open the Run dialog box
(D) Windows Logo + M (D) Open Utility Manager
2. In Windows operating system the shortcut 9. In Windows operating system to Display the
key Windows Logo+SHIFT+M is used for System Properties dialog box
(A) Restore the minimized windows (A) Windows Logo
(B) Open My Computer
(B) Windows Logo + BREAK
(C) Search for a file or a folder
(D) Search for computers (C) Windows Logo + D
(D) Windows Logo + M
3. In Windows operating system the shortcut
key Windows Logo+E is used for 10. In Windows operating system to Display the
(A) Restore the minimized windows desktop
(B) Open My Computer (A) Windows Logo
(C) Search for a file or a folder (B) Windows Logo + BREAK
(D) Search for computers (C) Windows Logo + D
4. In Windows operating system the shortcut (D) Windows Logo + M
key Windows Logo+F 11. In Windows operating system to minimize
(A) Restore the minimized windows all of the windows
(B) Open My Computer (A) Windows Logo
(C) Search for a file or a folder (B) Windows Logo + BREAK
(D) Search for computers (C) Windows Logo + D
5. In Windows operating system shortcut key (D) Windows Logo + M
CTRL+Windows Logo+F
12. In Windows operating system to move for-
(A) Restore the minimized windows
(B) Open My Computer ward through the tabs
(C) Search for a file or a folder (A) CTRL+TAB (B) CTRL+SHIFT+TAB
(D) Search for computers (C) SHIFT+TAB (D) None of these
6. In Windows operating system shortcut key 13. In Windows operating system to move back-
Windows Logo+F1 ward through the tabs
(A) Display Windows Help (A) CTRL+TAB (B) CTRL+SHIFT+TAB
(B) Lock the keyboard (C) SHIFT+TAB (D) None of these
(C) Open the Run dialog box 14. In Windows operating system to move back-
(D) Open Utility Manager ward through the options
7. In Windows operating system shortcut key (A) CTRL+TAB (B) CTRL+SHIFT+TAB
Windows Logo+ L (C) SHIFT+TAB (D) None of these
(A) Display Windows Help 15. In Windows operating system one press F1
(B) Lock the keyboard key to
(C) Open the Run dialog box (A) Display help (B) Cut
(D) Open Utility Manager (C) Paste (D) None of these
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16. In Windows operating system after you 22. In Windows operating system after you
double-click a character on the grid of char- double-click a character on the grid of char-
acters, keyboard shortcut DOWN ARROW is acters, keyboard shortcut CTRL+END is
used for used for
(A) Move to the right or to the beginning of (A) Move to the first character
the next line (B) Move to the last character
(B) Move to the left or to the end of the previ- (C) Switch between Enlarged and Normal
mode when a character is selected
ous line
(D) None of these
(C) Move up one row
(D) Move down one row 23. In Windows operating system after you
double-click a character on the grid of charac-
17. In Windows operating system after you ters, keyboard shortcut SPACEBAR is used
double-click a character on the grid of char- for
acters, keyboard shortcut PAGE UP is used (A) Move to the first character
for (B) Move to the last character
(A) Move up one screen at a time (C) Switch between Enlarged and Normal
(B) Move down one screen at a time mode when a character is selected*
(C) Move to the beginning of the line (D) None of these
(D) Move to the end of the line 24. In Windows operating system to copy some-
18. In Windows operating system after you thing the following shortcut is used
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
double-click a character on the grid of char-
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
acters, keyboard shortcut PAGE DOWN is
used for 25. In Windows operating system to cut some-
thing the following shortcut is used-
(A) Move up one screen at a time
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
(B) Move down one screen at a time (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
(C) Move to the beginning of the line
26. In Windows operating system Shortcut
(D) Move to the end of the line
CTRL+Z is for
19. In Windows operating system after you (A) Undo something
double-click a character on the grid of char- (B) Delete something
acters, keyboard shortcut HOME is used for (C) Paste something
(A) Move up one screen at a time (D) None of these
(B) Move down one screen at a time 27. In Windows operating system shortcut DE-
(C) Move to the beginning of the line LETE is for
(D) Move to the end of the line (A) Undo something
(B) Delete something
20. In Windows operating system after you
(C) Paste something
double-click a character on the grid of char- (D) None of these
acters, keyboard shortcut END is used for
28. In Windows operating system shortcut
(A) Move up one screen at a time
SHIFT+DELETE is used for
(B) Move down one screen at a time
(A) Delete the selected item permanently with-
(C) Move to the beginning of the line out placing the item in the Recycle Bin
(D) Move to the end of the line (B) Copy the selected item
21. In Windows operating system after you (C) Rename the selected item
double-click a character on the grid of char- (D) Create a shortcut to the selected item
acters, keyboard shortcut CTRL+HOME is 29. In Windows operating system shortcut CTRL
used for while dragging an item
(A) Move to the first character (A) Delete the selected item permanently with-
(B) Move to the last character out placing the item in the Recycle Bin
(C) Switch between Enlarged and Normal (B) Copy the selected item
mode when a character is selected (C) Rename the selected item
(D) None of these (D) Create a shortcut to the selected item
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30. In Windows operating system shortcut 37. In Windows operating system CTRL+SHIFT
CTRL+SHIFT while dragging an item with any of the arrow keys
(A) Delete the selected item permanently (A) Highlight a block of text
without placing the item in the Recycle (B) Delete something
Bin (C) Paste something
(B) Copy the selected item (D) None of these
(C) Rename the selected item 38. In Windows operating system SHIFT with any
(D) Create a shortcut to the selected item of the arrow keys
31. In Windows operating system to delete the (A) Highlight a block of text
selected item permanently without placing (B) Delete something
the item in the Recycle Bin (C) Paste something
(A) Shortcut SHIFT+DELETE (D) Select more than one item in a window
(B) Shortcut CTRL while dragging an item or on the desktop, or select text in a
(C) Shortcut CTRL+SHIFT while dragging document
an item 39. In Windows operating system shortcut
(D) None of these CTRL+A is to
32. In Windows operating system move the in- (A) Select all
sertion point to the beginning of the next word. (B) Highlight a block of text
(A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW (C) Delete something
(B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW (D) Paste something
(C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW
40. In Windows operating system shortcut for
(D) None of these
paste is
33. In Windows operating system move the in- (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
sertion point to the beginning of the previ- (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
ous word
41. In Windows operating system Shortcut for
(A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
copy is
(B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
(C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
(D) None of these
42. In Windows operating system to paste some-
34. In Windows operating system move the in-
thing after cutting the following shortcut is
sertion point to the beginning of the next para-
used
graph
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
(A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
(B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW
(C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW 43. In Windows operating system shortcut
(D) None of these CTRL+C is used for
(A) Cut (B) Paste
35. In Windows operating system move the in-
(C) Copy (D) None of these
sertion point to the beginning of the previ-
ous paragraph 44. In Windows operating system the shortcut
(A) CTRL+RIGHT ARROW key CTRL+B is used for
(B) CTRL+LEFT ARROW (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
(C) CTRL+DOWN ARROW (B) Open the Search bar
(D) None of these (C) Start the Find utility
36. In Windows operating system move the in- (D) Open the History bar
sertion point to the beginning of the previ- 45. In Windows operating system the shortcut
ous paragraph key CTRL+E is used for
(A) CTRL+RIGHT ARROW (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
(B) CTRL+LEFT ARROW (B) Open the Search bar
(C) CTRL+DOWN ARROW (C) Start the Find utility
(D) CTRL+UP ARROW (D) Open the History bar
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46. In Windows operating system the shortcut 51. In Windows operating system the shortcut
key CTRL+F is used for key CTRL+O is used for
(A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box (A) Open the Favorites bar
(B) Open the Search bar (B) Open the Open dialog box
(C) Start another instance of the browser
(C) Start the Find utility
with the same Web address
(D) Open the History bar (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
47. In Windows operating system the shortcut CTRL+L
key CTRL+H is used for 52. In Windows operating system the shortcut
(A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box key CTRL+P is used for
(B) Open the Search bar (A) Open the Print dialog box
(C) Start the Find utility (B) Update the current Web page
(D) Open the History bar (C) Close the current window
(D) None of these
48. In Windows operating system the shortcut
53. In Windows operating system the shortcut
key CTRL+I is used for
key CTRL+R is used for
(A) Open the Favorites bar (A) Open the Print dialog box
(B) Open the Open dialog box (B) Update the current Web page
(C) Start another instance of the browser (C) Close the current window
with the same Web address (D) None of these
(D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as 54. In Windows operating system the shortcut
CTRL+L key CTRL+W is used for
49. In Windows operating system the shortcut (A) Open the Print dialog box
(B) Update the current Web page
key CTRL+L is used for
(C) Close the current window
(A) Open the Favorites bar
(D) None of these
(B) Open the Open dialog box
(C) Start another instance of the browser Answer Sheet
with the same Web address
(D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as 1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D)
CTRL+L 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
50. In Windows operating system the shortcut
16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (D)
key CTRL+N is used for 21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (B)
(A) Open the Favorites bar 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (D)
(B) Open the Open dialog box 31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (D)
(C) Start another instance of the browser 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (C)
with the same Web address 41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (B)
(D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
CTRL+L 51. (D) 52. (A) 53. (B) 54. (C)
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MICROSOFT OFFICE
1. Microsoft Office is 8. Microsoft Office Suite spreadsheet program
(A) Desktop applications is
(B) Operating system (A) Microsoft Excel
(C) Command window (B) Microsoft Word
(D) None of these (C) Microsoft Powerpoint
2. Microsoft Office is an office suite, for the (D) None of these
(A) Microsoft Windows operating systems 9. A competitor to the dominant Lotus 1-2-3 is
(B) Mac OS X operating systems (A) Microsoft Excel
(C) Both A and B are true (B) Microsoft Word
(D) None is true (C) Microsoft PowerPoint
3. Microsoft Word, Microsoft Excel, and (D) None of these
Microsoft PowerPoint are the part of 10. A personal information manager and e-mail
(A) Microsoft Office Suite communication software in MS Office is
(B) Microsoft Windows (A) Microsoft Outlook
(C) Mac OS X (B) Microsoft Word
(D) None of these
(C) Microsoft PowerPoint
4. The very first version of Microsoft Office was (D) None of these
released for
11. A popular presentation program for Windows
(A) Windows operating system
and Mac in Microsoft Office is
(B) Apple Macintosh OS
(A) Microsoft Word
(C) Unix
(B) Microsoft PowerPoint
(D) None of these
(C) Microsoft Access
5. The first version of MS Office to be released (D) None of these
for the Microsoft Windows operating system
is 12. To create slideshows, composed of text,
(A) Microsoft Office 3.0 graphics, movies and other objects, which
(B) Microsoft Office 2003 can be displayed on-screen and navigated
(C) Microsoft Office 2007 through by the presenter or printed out on
(D) Microsoft Office XP transparencies or slides one uses
(A) Microsoft Word
6. The word processor in MS office suite is
(B) Microsoft PowerPoint
(A) Microsoft Word
(C) Microsoft Access
(B) Microsoft Excel
(D) None of these
(C) Microsoft PowerPoint
(D) None of these 13. For Database management one uses
7. Microsoft Word is a word processor that (A) Microsoft Access
saves in its proprietaryformat. (B) Microsoft PowerPoint
(A) .doc (B) .pdf (C) Microsoft Access
(C) .txt (D) None of these (D) None of these
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14. It is software for creating newsletters, busi- 20. Microsoft Office Communicator is
ness cards, flyers, greeting cards or post- (A) Integrated communications client for
cards. conferences and meetings in real time
(A) Microsoft Publisher (B) Project management software to keep
(B) Microsoft PowerPoint track of events and to create network
(C) Microsoft Access charts and Gantt charts
(D) None of these (C) Diagram and flowcharting software
15. It is a Note-taking software for use with tab- (D) None of these
let PCs or regular PCs.
(A) Microsoft OneNote 21. Microsoft Office Document Imaging is
(B) Microsoft PowerPoint (A) An application that supports editing
(C) Microsoft Access scanned documents
(D) None of these (B) A scanning and OCR application
16. Microsoft Office SharePoint Designer is (C) Diagram and flowcharting software
used for (D) None of these
(A) A WYSIWYG HTML editor and web de-
22. Microsoft Office Document Scanning is
sign program for customizing
SharePoint applications, it replaces (A) An application that supports editing
Microsoft Office FrontPage scanned documents
(B) Project management software to keep (B) A scanning and OCR application
track of events and to create network (C) Diagram and flowcharting software
charts and Gantt charts (D) None of these
(C) Diagram and flowcharting software
23. Microsoft Office Groove is
(D) None of these
(A) A proprietary peer-to-peer software pack-
17. Microsoft Project is age aimed at businesses
(A) A WYSIWYG HTML editor and web de-
(B) An application that supports editing
sign program for customizing Share
scanned documents
Point applications, it replaces Microsoft
(C) A scanning and OCR application
Office FrontPage
(B) Project management software to keep (D) Diagram and flowcharting software
track of events and to create network 24. Microsoft Office InterConnect is
charts and Gantt charts (A) Business-relationship database
(C) Diagram and flowcharting software (B) An application that supports editing
(D) None of these scanned documents
18. Microsoft Visio is a (C) A scanning and OCR application
(A) A WYSIWYG HTML editor and web de- (D) None of these
sign program for customizing
SharePoint applications, it replaces 25. Microsoft Office Picture Manager is
Microsoft Office FrontPage (A) Basic photo management software
(B) Project management software to keep (B) An application that supports editing
track of events and to create network scanned documents
charts and Gantt charts (C) A scanning and OCR application
(C) Diagram and flowcharting software (D) None of these
(D) None of these
19. Microsoft Office Accounting is
(A) A tool for managing business finances Answer Sheet
(B) Project management software to keep 1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (A)
track of events and to create network 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)
charts and Gantt charts 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A)
(C) Diagram and flowcharting software 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (A)
(D) None of these 21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (A)
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MICROSOFT WORD
1. In Microsoft Word to cut something the 9. Why are headers and footers used in
following shortcut is used document?
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X (A) To enhance the overall appearance of
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these the document
2. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL+Z is for (B) To mark the starting and ending of a
(A) Undo something page
(B) Delete something (C) To make large document more readable
(C) Paste something (D) To allow page headers and footers to
(D) None of these appear on document when it is printed
3. In Microsoft Word shortcut DELETE is for 10. Which of the following shortcut key is used
(A) Undo something to check spelling?
(B) Delete something (A) F1 (B) F2
(C) Paste something (C) F7 (D) F9
(D) None of these
11. What does Ctrl + B shortcut accomplish in
4. A program which helps to create written Ms-Word?
document and lets you go back and make (A) It converts selected text into the next
corrections as necessary larger size of the same font
(A) Home row keys (B) Tool bar
(B) It adds a line break to the document
(C) Spreadsheet (D) Word processor
(C) It makes the selected text bold
5. Graphics for word processor (D) It applies Italic formatting t the selected
(A) Peripheral (B) Clip art text.
(C) Highlight (D) Execute
12. What is the minimum number of rows and
6. What type of software is used for creating columns that a word table can have?
letters papers and other documents?
(A) Zero
(A) Database
(B) 2 rows and 1 column
(B) Word Processor
(C) 2 rows and 2 column
(C) Spreadsheet
(D) Operating Program (D) 1 row and 1 column
7. What does the Ctrl + I shortcut key 13. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+R is
accomplish in Ms-Word? used for
(A) It converts selected text into the next (A) Open the Print dialog box
larger size of the same font (B) Update the current Web page
(B) It adds a line break to the document (C) Close the current window
(C) It makes the selected text bold (D) None of these
(D) It applies Italic formatting t the selected 14. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+W is
text. used for
8. What is the file extension of Ms-Word97- (A) Open the Print dialog box
2003 document? (B) Update the current Web page
(A) Dot (B) Doc (C) Close the current window
(C) Dom (D) Txt (D) None of these
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M.C.Qs. on Computer | 27
15. In Microsoft Word system to copy something 23. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to
the following shortcut is used the beginning of the previous paragraph
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X (A) CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these (B) CTRL+LEFT ARROW
16. In Microsoft Word shortcut SHIFT+DELETE (C) CTRL+DOWN ARROW
is used for (D) None of these
(A) Delete the selected item permanently 24. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to
without placing the item in the Recycle the beginning of the previous paragraph
Bin (A) CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
(B) Copy the selected item (B) CTRL+LEFT ARROW
(C) Rename the selected item (C) CTRL+DOWN ARROW
(D) Create a shortcut to the selected item (D) CTRL+UP ARROW
17. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL while
25. In Microsoft Word using CTRL+SHIFT with
dragging an item
any of the arrow keys
(A) Delete the selected item permanently
(A) Highlight a block of text
without placing the item in the Recycle
(B) Delete something
Bin
(C) Paste something
(B) Copy the selected item
(D) None of these
(C) Rename the selected item
(D) Create a shortcut to the selected item 26. In Microsoft Word using SHIFT with any of
18. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL+SHIFT the arrow keys
while dragging an item (A) Highlight a block of text
(A) Delete the selected item permanently (B) Delete something
without placing the item in the Recycle (C) Paste something
Bin (D) Select more than one item in a window
(B) Copy the selected item or on the desktop, or select text in a
(C) Rename the selected item document
(D) Create a shortcut to the selected item 27. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL+A is to
19. In Microsoft Word to delete the selected item (A) Select all
permanently without placing the item in the (B) Highlight a block of text
Recycle Bin (C) Delete something
(A) Shortcut SHIFT+DELETE (D) Paste something
(B) Shortcut CTRL while dragging an item
28. In Microsoft Word shortcut for paste is
(C) Shortcut CTRL+SHIFT while dragging
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
an item
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
(D) None of these
20. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to 29. In Microsoft Word shortcut for copy is
the beginning of the next word (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
(A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
(B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW 30. In Microsoft Word to paste something after
(C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW cutting the following shortcut is used
(D) None of these (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
21. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
the beginning of the previous word
31. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL+C is used
(A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
for
(B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW
(A) Cut (B) Paste
(C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW
(C) Copy (D) None of these
(D) None of these
22. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to 32. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+B is
the beginning of the next paragraph used for
(A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
(B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW (B) Open the Search bar
(C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW (C) Start the Find utility
(D) None of these (D) Open the History bar
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33. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+E is 38. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+N is
used for used for
(A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box (A) Open the Favorites bar
(B) Open the Search bar (B) Open the Open dialog box
(C) Start the Find utility (C) Start another instance of the browser
(D) Open the History bar with the same Web address
34. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+F is (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
used for CTRL+L
(A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
(B) Open the Search bar 39. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+O is
(C) Start the Find utility used for
(D) Open the History bar (A) Open the Favorites bar
35. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+H is (B) Open the Open dialog box
used for (C) Start another instance of the browser
(A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box with the same Web address
(B) Open the Search bar (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
(C) Start the Find utility CTRL+L
(D) Open the History bar 40. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+P is
36. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+I is used used for
for (A) Open the Print dialog box
(A) Open the Favorites bar (B) Update the current Web page
(B) Open the Open dialog box
(C) Close the current window
(C) Start another instance of the browser
with the same Web address (D) None of these
(D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
CTRL+L Answer Sheet
37. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+L is 1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (B)
used for 6. (B) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)
(A) Open the Favorites bar 11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
(B) Open the Open dialog box 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (A)
(C) Start another instance of the browser 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (A)
with the same Web address 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (C)
(D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as 31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (D)
CTRL+L 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (A)
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MICROSOFT EXCEL
1. In Excel default header for a worksheet is 8. In Excel which functions will calculate the
(A) Your name number of workdays between 6/9/2004 and
(B) The date and time 8/12/2004
(C) None (A) Workday (B) Date
(D) The sheet tab name (C) Networkdays (D) All of the above
2. In Excel which of the following is not an option
9. In Excel data marker on a chart are linked to
in the spelling dialog box
(A) Edit (B) Ignore data points in a worksheet, therefore,
(C) Ignore all (D) Change (A) You can automatically apply formatting
to a data series
3. Excel uses the . Function when creating a
data table (B) You can change the position of a data
(A) Average (B) Count marker and automatically change the
(C) Sum (D) Table data point value in the worksheet
4. In Excel you can copy cell formats from one (C) You can change a data print value and
cell to another by using the automatically are draw the chart
(A) Backspace key (B) Default font (D) (A) and (B)
(C) Format painter (D) Formatting toolbar 10. In Excel when you group worksheets
5. In Excel accounting style shows negative (A) You can enter variable data on multiple
numbers in worksheets at one time
(A) Bold (B) Brackets (B) You can print more than one worksheet
(C) Parentheses (D) Quotes at a time
6. In Excel you can use drag and drop to embed (C) You can enter common data, formats,
excel worksheet data in a word document and formulas on multiple worksheets
(A) By dragging a range of excel data to the
at one time
word button on the taskbar while
(D) (B) and (C)
pressing the Ctrl key
(B) By dragging a range of excel data to the 11. In Excel you can zoom a worksheet
Word button on the taskbar while (A) With the mouse pointer in Print Preview
pressing Shift key (B) With the zoom button on the Print
(C) By displaying both applications side-by- Preview toolbar
side and dragging a selected range of (C) With the Zoom command on the view
Excel data into the word application
menu
window while pressing the Ctrl key
(D) (A) and (C) (D) All of the above
12. You cannot link Excel worksheet data to a
7. In Excel the chart wizard
Word document
(A) Can place a chart on a new chart sheet
or on any sheet in the workbook (A) With the right drag method
(B) Can only place a chart on new chart sheet (B) With a hyperlink
(C) Can only place a chart on a new blank (C) With the copy and paste special
worksheet commands
(D) Can only be used to create embedded (D) With the copy and paste buttons on the
charts standard toolbar
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13. In Excel this type of software is similar to an (C) Automatically creates formulas and
accountants worksheet adds them to a worksheet
(A) Word processing (B) Database (D) None of the above
(C) Spreadsheets (D) Graphics
23. In Excel to protect a worksheet, you can
14. In Excel you can use the format painter choose Protection and the Protect Sheet from
multiple times before you turn it off by
the .. menu
(A) You can use the format painter button
only one time when you click it (A) Edit (B) Format
(B) Double clicking the format painter button (C) Tools (D) Data
(C) Pressing the Ctrl key and clicking the 24. In Excel you can open the Highlight Changes
format painter button dialog box by choosing Track Changes from
(D) Pressing Alt key and clicking the format the . Menu.
painter button (A) Edit (B) Insert
15. In Excel default header for a worksheet is (C) Format (D) Tools
(A) Your name (B) The date and time
25. In Excel which of the following is not a
(C) None (D) The sheet tab name
worksheet design criterion
16. In Excel which of the following is not an option
(A) Efficiency
in the spelling dialog box
(A) Edit (B) Ignore (B) Auditability
(C) Ignore all (D) Change (C) Description
(D) Clarity Correct Answer:
17. In Excel you can quickly change the
appearance of your work by choosing Auto 26. In Excel to copy cell contents using drag and
Format from the .. Menu drop, press the
(A) Edit (B) View (A) End key (B) Shift key
(C) Format (D) Tools (C) Esc key (D) None of above
18. In Excel.. is a group of cells that form a 27. In Excel if you press .., the cell accepts
rectangle on the screen. your typing as its contents.
(A) Calculation (B) Formula
(A) Enter (B) Ctrl + Enter
(C) Range (D) Range address
(C) TAB (D) Insert
19. In Excel following term describes explanatory
28. In Excel the auto fill feature
text attached to a cell
(A) Extends a sequential series of data
(A) Callout (B) Comment
(C) Dialog (D) Extension (B) Automatically adds a range of cell
values
20. In Excel the drag and drop method of copying
(C) Applies a boarder around selected cells
or moving
(D) None of above
(A) Can be used between worksheets but
not workbooks 29. In Excel the keyboard shortcut (button or
(B) Can be used between workbooks but buttons to be presse(D) for creating a chart
not worksheets from the selected cells
(C) Can be used between workbooks but (A) F3 (B) F5
not worksheets (C) F7 (D) F11
(D) None
30. In Excel you can use the formula palette to
21. In Excel 3-D reference in a formula (A) Format cells containing numbers
(A) Cannot be modified (B) Create and edit formulas containing
(B) Only appears on summary worksheets functions
(C) Limits the formatting options (C) Entered assumptions data
(D) Spans worksheets (D) Copy a range of cells
22. In Excel the auto calculate feature
31. What excel feature can you use if you want to
(A) Can only add values in a range of cells
work with one record at a time?
(B) Provides a quick way to view the results
(A) Auto Complete (B) Auto Filter
of an arithmetic operation on a range of
cells (C) Data Form (D) Sub Totals
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32. In Excel what chart object is horizontal or 40. Files created with Lotus 1-2-3 have an
vertical line that extends across the plot area extension
to make it easier to read and follow the (A) DOC (B) XLS
values? (C) 123 (D) WK1
(A) Category axis (B) Data marker 41. In Excel to delete an embedded objects, first
(C) Data point (D) Gridline (A) Double click the object
33. In Excel value used in a formula that does (B) Select the object by clicking it
not change is called a (C) Press the Shift + Delete keys
(A) Cell address (B) Constant (D) Select it and then press the delete key
(C) Function (D) Range 42. In Excel comments can be added to cells
34. In Excel which elements of worksheet can using
be protected from accidental modification ? (A) Edit > Comments
(A) Contents (B) Objects (B) Insert > Comments
(C) Scenarios (D) All of above (C) File > Comments
35. In Excel you can use the drag and drop (D) View > Comments
method to 43. In Excel which of the following is not a
(A) Copy cell contents worksheet design criterion?
(B) Move cell contents (A) Efficiency (B) Aditibility
(C) Add cell contents (C) Description (D) Clarity
(D) (A) and (B) 44. In Excel suppose you have columns of data
36. In Excel it is acceptable ot let long text flow that span more than one printed page. How
into adjacent cells on a worksheet when can you automatically print the column
(A) Data will be entered in the adjacent cells headings on each page?
(B) No data will be entered in the adjacent (A) Click page setup on the file menu, click
cells the sheet tab, and enter the row that
(C) There is nt suitable abbreviation of the contains these column headings under
text print titles.
(D) There is not time to format the next (B) Click page setup on the file menu, click
37. In Excel how can you delete a record? the page tab, click the options button,
(A) Delete the column from the worksheet then enter your choices.
(B) Select Data > Form from the menu to (C) Click page setup on the finle menu, click
open the Data Form dialog box, find the the sheet tab, and make a selection
record and Click the Delete button under the print heading.
(C) Select Data > Delete Record from the (D) All of above
menu 45. In Excel a fast way to add up this column of
(D) Click the Delete button on the Standard number is to click in the cell below the
toolbar numbers and then
38. Right clicking something in Excel (A) Click subtotals on the data menu
(A) Deletes the object (B) View the sum in the formula bar
(B) Nothing the right mouse button is there (C) Click the autosum button on the
for left handed people standard toolbar, then press enter
(C) Opens a shortcut menu listing (D) All of above
everything you can do to the object 46. In Excel which of the following is an absolute
(D) Selects the object cell reference?
39. In Excel Documentation should include (A) !A!1 (B) $A$1
(A) Destination and users of the output data (C) #a#1 (D) A1
(B) Source of input data 47. In Excel what symbol is used before a
(C) Information on the purpose of the number to make it a label?
workbook (A) (quote) (B) = (equal)
(D) All of the above (C) _ (underscore) (D) (apostrophe)
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48. In Excel which symbol must all formula begin 58. In Excel getting data from a cell located in a
with? different sheet is called
(A) = (B) + (A) Accessing (B) Referencing
(C) ( (D) @ (C) Updating (D) Functioning
49. In Excel which of the following formulas is 59. In Excel Tab scrolling button
not entered correctly? (A) Allow you to view a different worksheet
(A) =10+50 (B) =B7*B1 (B) Allow you to view additional worksheet
(C) =B7+14 (D) 10+50 rows down
(C) Allow you to view additional worksheet
50. In Excel which of the following formulas will columns to the right
Excel not be able to calculate? (D) Allow you to view additional sheets tabs
(A) =SUM(Sales)-A3
60. In Excel numeric value can be treated as a
(B) =SUM(A1:A5)*.5
label value if it precedes with
(C) =SUM(A1:A5)/(10-10) (A) Apostrophe () (B) Exclamation (!)
(D) =SUM(A1:A5)-10 (C) Hash (#) (D) Ampersand (&)
51. In Excel typical worksheet has . Number 61. In Excel concatenation of text can be done
of columns using
(A) 128 (B) 256 (A) Apostrophe () (B) Exclamation (!)
(C) 512 (D) 1024 (C) Hash (#) (D) Ampersand (&)
52. In Excel how many characters can be typed 62. In Excel data can be arranged in a worksheet
in a single cell? in a easy to understand manner using
(A) 256 (B) 1024 (A) Auto formatting (B) Applying styles
(C) 32,000 (D) 65,535 (C) Changing fonts (D) All of above
53. In Excel worksheet can have a maximum of 63. In Excel you can use drag-and-drop to
. Number of rows embed excel worksheet data in a word
(A) 256 (B) 1024 document
(C) 32,000 (D) 65,535 (A) By dragging a range of excel data to the
word button on the taskbar while
54. In Excel the following is not an example of a pressing the Ctrl key
value (B) By dragging a range of excel data to the
(A) 350 (B) May 10, 2001 word button on the taskbar while
(C) 57&per cent;(D) Serial Number 50771 pressing Shift key
55. In Excel chart wizard term data series refers (C) By dragging a range of excel data to the
to word button on the taskbar while
(A) A chart legend pressing Alt key
(B) A collection of chart data markers (D) None of above
(C) A set of values you plot in a chart 64. In Excel the auto calculate feature
(D) A data label (A) Can only add values in a range of cells
56. In Excel Chart wizard term data categories (B) Provides a quick way to view the result
refers to of an arithmetic operation on a range of
cells
(A) A chart plot area
(C) Automatically creates formulas and
(B) A horizontal axis
adds them to a worksheet
(C) The organization of individual values
(D) (A) and (C)
with a charts data series
(D) The data range that supply chart data 65. In Excel to view a cell comment
(A) Click the edit comment commands on
57. In Excel worksheet range is a the Insert menu
(A) A command used for data modeling (B) Click the Display comment command
(B) A range of values such as from 23 to on the window menu
234 (C) Position the mouse pointer over the cell
(C) A group of cells (D) Click the comment command on the
(D) A group of worksheets view menu
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66. In Excel say that you want to paste a formula 74. In Excel on an Excel sheet the active cell in
result but not the underlying formula to indicated by
another cell. In excel 2002, you would copy (A) A dark wide border
the cell with the formula, then place the (B) A dotted border
insertion point in the cell you want to copy to (C) A blinking border
what next? (D) None of above
(A) Click the Paste button on the standard 75. In Excel using the F11 shortcut key to create
toolbar a chart on chart sheet creates
(B) Click the arrow on the paste button on (A) A default chart
the standard toolbar, then click formulas (B) A 2-dimensional column chart
(C) Click the arrow on the paste button on (C) A 2-dimensional bar chart
(D) A 3-dimensional line chart
the standard toolbar, then click values.
(D) All of above 76. In Excel you can print
(A) A range of cells by range name
67. In Excel you can select a single range of cells (B) An entire worksheet
by (C) A single worksheet
(A) Clicking the upper-left cell in a group of (D) All of the above
cells and then pressing the Shift key
77. In Excel you can create only a horizontal page
while clicking the lower right cell in a
break by first selecting
group of cells (A) A row below the row where you want the
(B) Pressing the Ctrl key while dragging page break to occure
over the desired cells (B) A cell in row 1
(C) Pressing the Shift key and an arrow key (C) A cell in column A
(D) Dragging over the desired cells (D) (A) and (C)
68. All formula in Excel start with 78. In Excel you can create hyperlinks from the
(A) &percent; (B) + Excel workbook to
(C) = (D) - (A) A webpage on company internet
(B) A web page on the internet
69. In Excel you can use a function to combine
(C) Other Office application documents
text from two cells into one cell. But you can
(D) All
use an operator to do the same thing. Which
operator is that? 79. In Excel cell reference for a range of cells
that starts in cell B1 and goes over to column
(A) & (ampersan(D) (B) = (equal sign)
G and down to row 10 is
(C) (space) (D) All of the above
(A) B1-G10 (B) B1.G10
70. In Excel two common wildcard characters (C) B1;G10 (D) B1:G10*
that Excel recognizes are 80. In Excel advantage of using a spreadsheet
(A) * and ? (B) < and > is
(C) ^ and / (D) + and - (A) calculations can be done automatically.
71. In Excel divide symbol is (B) changing data automatically updates
(A) / (B) D calculations
(C) \ (D) ) (C) more flexibility
(D) all of the above
72. In Excel to add two cells (A1 and A2) together
you use the following formula 81. In Excel intersection of a row and column is
called :
(A) =A1 + A2 (B) =Add(A1+A2)
(A) Cata (B) A field.
(C) =together(A1:A2) (D) A1 plus A2
(C) A cell (D) An equation.
73. In Excel on an excel sheet the active cell in
82. There are three types of data found in a
indicated by spreadsheet
(A) A dark wide boarder (A) data, words, numbers
(B) A dotted border (B) equations, data, numbers
(C) A blinking border (C) words, numbers, labels
(D) None of above (D) numbers formulas, labels
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83. In Excel to select a column the easiest 90. In Excel to copy cell contents using drag and
method is to drop press the
(A) Double click any cell in the column (A) End key (B) Shift key
(B) Drag from the top cell in the column to (C) Ctrl key (D) Esc key
the last cell in the column 91. In Excel when you copy a formula
(C) Click the column heading (A) Excel erases the original copy of the
(D) Click the column label formula
(B) Excel edits cell references in the newly
84. In Excel if you press , the cell accepts copied formula
your typing as its contents. (C) Excel adjusts absolute cell references
(A) Enter (B) Ctrl+Enter (D) Excel doesnt adjust relative cell
(C) Tab (D) Insert references
85. In Excel to view a cell comment 92. In Excel autofill feature
(A) Click the edit comment command on (A) Extends a sequential series of data
(B) Automatically adds range of cell values
the insert menu (C) Applies a boarder around the selected
(B) Click the display comment command cells
on the window menu (D) None of the above
(C) Position the mouse pointer over the cell 93. In Excel which menu option can be sued to
(D) Click the comment command on the split windows into two
view menu (A) Format > window
86. In Excel when you want to insert a blank (B) View > window > split
imbedded excel object in a word document (C) Window > split
you can (D) View > split
(A) Click the object command on the insert 94. In Excel which of the following special
menu function keys allow the content in cell
(B) Click the office links button on the (A) Esc (B) Shift
(C) Return (D) Tab
standard toolbar
(C) Click the create worksheet button on the 95. In Excel which is not an advantage of using
computerized spreadsheets?
formatting toolbar
(A) Flexibility of moving entries
(D) Click the import excel command on the (B) Speed of calculation
file menu (C) Ability of generate tables
87. In Excel to save a workbook, you (D) Cost of initial setup
(A) Click the save button on the standard 96. In Excel To hold row and column titles in
toolbar from the menu place so that they do not scroll when you
(B) Press Ctrl+F5 scroll a worksheet click the
(C) Click Save on the Windows Start button (A) Unfreeze panes command on the
(D) Select Edit>Save window menu
(B) Freeze panes command on the window
88. In Excel you can edit a cell by menu
(A) Clicking the formula button (C) Hold titles command on the edit menu
(B) Double clicking the cell to edit it in-place (D) Split command on the window menu
(C) Selecting Edit>Edit Cell from the menu 97. In Excel the following will not cut information
(D) None of above (A) Pressing Ctrl + C
89. In Excel you can select a single range of cells (B) Selecting Edit>Cut from the menu
by (C) Clicking the Cut button on the standard
(A) Clicking the upper-left cell in a group of (D) Pressing Ctrl+X
cells and then pressing the Shift key 98. In Excel which of the following is not a way to
while clicking the lower right cell in a complete a cell entry?
group of cells (A) Pressing enter
(B) Pressing the Ctrl key while dragging (B) Pressing any arrow key on the keyboard
over the desired cells (C) Clicking the Enter button on the Formula
(C) Pressing the Shift key and an arrow key bar
(D) Dragging over the desired cells (D) Pressing spacebar
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99. In Excel you can activate a cell by (C) Enter the formula using any input values
(A) Pressing the Tab key and the appropriate mathematical
(B) Clicking the cell operators that make up your formula
(C) Pressing an arrow key (D) Choose the new command from the file
(D) All of the above menu
100. In Excel Text formulas 106. In Excel to center worksheet titles across a
(A) Replace cell references range of cells, you must
(B) Return ASCII values of characters (A) Select the cells containing the title text
(C) Concatenate and manipulate text plus the range over which the title text is
(D) Show formula error value to be centered
(B) Widen the columns
101. In Excel how do you insert a row?
(C) Select the cells containing the title text
(A) Right-click the row heading where you
plus the range over which the title text is
want to insert the new row and select to be enfettered
Insert from the shortcut menu (D) Format the cells with the comma style
(B) Select the row heading where you want
107. In Excel how do you delete a column?
to insert the new row and select Edit
(A) Select the column heading you want to
>Row from the menu
delete and select the Delete Row button
(C) Select the row heading where you want on the standard toolbar
to insert the new row and click the Insert (B) Select the column heading you want to
Row button on the standard toolbar delete and select Insert Delete from the
(D) All of the above menu
102. In Excel the following is not a basic step in (C) Select the row heading you want to
creating a worksheet delete and select Edit>Delete from the
(A) Save workbook menu
(B) Modifiy the worksheet (D) Right click the column heading you want
(C) Enter text and data to delet and select delete from the
(D) Copy the worksheet shortcut menu
103. In Excel how do you select an entire column? 108. In Excel how can you find specific information
(A) Select Edit > Select > Column from the in a list?
menu (A) Select Tools > Finder from the menu
(B) Click the Find button on the standard
(B) Click the column heading letter
toolbar
(C) Hold down the shift key as you click
(C) Select Insert > Find from the menu
anywhere in the column.
(D) Select Data > Form from the menu to
(D) Hold down the Ctrl key as you click open the Data Form dialog box and click
anywhere in the column the Criteria button
104. In Excel how can you print three copies of a 109. In Excel when integrating word and excel,
workbook? word is usually the
(A) Select File>Properties form the menu (A) Server (B) Destination
and type 3 in the Copies to print text box. (C) Client (D) Both (A) and (C)
(B) Select File >Print from the menu and 110. In Excel when a label is too long to fit within
type 3 in the Number of copies text box. a worksheet cell, you typically must
(C) Click the Print button on the standard (A) Shorten the label
toolbar to print the document then take (B) Increase the column width
it to Kinkos and have 2 more copies (C) Decrease the column width
made (D) Adjust the row height
(D) Press Ctrl+P+3 111. In Excel name box
105. In Excel to create a formula, you first (A) Shows the location of the previously
(A) Select the cell you want to place the active cell
formula into (B) Appears to the left of the formula bar
(B) Type the equals sign (=) to tell Excel that (C) Appears below the status bar
youre about to enter a formula (D) Appears below the menu bar
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112. In Excel Comments put in cells are called (C) use the key combination Ctrl+$
(A) Smart tip (B) Cell tip (D) double click the selection
(C) Web tip (D) Soft tip 121. In Excel the cell labeled F5 refers to
113. In Excel which is used to perform what if (A) row F column 5
analysis? (B) column F row 5
(A) Solver (B) Goal seek (C) function available in cells
(C) Scenario Manager (D) All of above (D) function key F4
114. In Excel you can use the horizontal and 122. In Excel when you are typing an equation
vertical scroll bars to into a cell the first thing that must be entered
(A) Split a worksheet into two panes is
(B) View different rows and columns edit (A) the first cell referenced
the contents of a cell (B) parenthesis
(C) Edit the contents of a cell (C) quotation marks
(D) View different worksheets (D) an equal sign
115. In Excel Multiple calculations can be made 123. In Excel using the AutoSum button will
in a single formula using replace in the selected cell
(A) standard formulas
(A) the sum of values in the cells column
(B) array formula
(B) nothing until you select a range of cells
(C) complex formulas
(C) the sum of the cells row unless you
(D) smart formula
change the range
116. In Excel To select several cells or ranges (D) a formula which will add values in the
that are not touching each other, you would range Excel guesses you want to add
while selecting
124. In Excel Book1 is an example of how are
(A) hold down the Ctrl key
numbered and named during each work
(B) hold down the Shift key
session
(C) hold down the Alt key
(A) Active cell (B) Formula bar
(D) hold down Ctrl + Shift key
(C) Menu bar (D) Name box
117. In Excel A certain spreadsheet shows in Page
125. In Excel the following displays the contents
Break Preview that cells in Rows 1-25 have
of the active cell
white background. The cells in row 26 that
contain data have a dark grey background, (A) Active cell (B) Formula bar
when you click the Print button (C) Menu bar (D) Name box
(A) nothing will print because some cells 126. In Excel Graphics objects on a chart are used
with data have been omitted to
(B) only the cells with gray background will (A) Add emphasis to chart data
print (B) Add interest to a chart
(C) the whole sheet will print (C) Help explain the chart data
(D) only the cells with white background will (D) All the above
print 127. In Excel to select a column the easiest
118. In Excel constant is another name for this method is to
type of data (A) Double click any cell in the column
(A) number (B) equation (B) Drag from the top cell in the column to
(C) formula (D) description the last cell in the column
119. In Excel the view that puts a blue a blue line (C) Click the column heading
around each page that would be printed is (D) Click the column label
the 128. In Excel to select an individual data marker
(A) Print Preview (B) Normal View or data label, you must
(C) Page Break Preview (D) Split View (A) Double click the data series
120. In Excel AutoCalculate will quickly add (B) Right click selected marker
selected cells if you (C) Click once to select the series markers
(A) right click on the status bar and select Sum or labels and click the desired marker
(B) click the AutoCalculate button on the or label again
toolbar (D) Double click the marker or label
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129. In Excel to delete and embedded object, first 139. In Excel the following is not a basic step in
(A) Double click the object creating a worksheet
(B) Select the object by clicking it (A) Save the workbook
(C) Press the Shift + Delete keys (B) Modify the worksheet
(D) Select it and then press Delete key (C) Enter text and data
130. This type of software contains rows and (D) Copy the worksheet
columns.
140. In Excel what does SUMIF function do?
(A) Drawing (B) Spreadsheet
(C) Database (D) Word processing (A) Adds up cell values based on a condition
(B) Adds all the numbers in a range of cells
131. In Excel to open an existing workbook, you
(C) Returns a subtotal in a list or database
can click the Open button on the toolbar.
(D) All of above
(A) Drawing (B) Formatting
(C) Forms (D) Standard 141. In Excel you can insert labels for
132. In Excel you can activate a cell by (A) All the data markers on a chart
(A) Pressing the Tab key (B) A data series
(B) Clicking the cell (C) A selected data marker
(C) Pressing an arrow key (D) All of the above
(D) All of above 142. In Excel Tab scrolling buttons
133. In Excel the following setup options cannot (A) Allow you to view a different worksheet
be set in the page setup dialog box? (B) Allow you to view additional worksheet
(A) Printer selection row down
(B) Vertical or horizontal placement (C) Allow you to view additional worksheet
(C) Orientation
columns to the right
(D) Row and column titles
(D) Allow you to view additional sheet tabs
134. In Excel term refers to a specific set of values
saved with the workbook 143. In Excel All macro keyboard shortcuts include
(A) Range (B) Scenario the .. key
(C) Trend line (D) What-if analysis (A) Alt (B) Ctrl
135. In Excel got functions? No? You need the (C) F11 (D) Shift
insert function dialog box. How do you get it? 144. In Excel to open the Format Cells dialog box,
(A) Right click a cell and then click insert press
(B) Click the insert menu and then click (A) Alt + 1 (B) Ctrl + 1
function (C) Ctrl + Shift + 1 (D) F1
(C) Type = in a cell
(D) All of the above 145. In Excel you can add a hyperlink to your
worksheet by pressing
136. In Excel the following describes how to select
(A) Alt + K (B) Ctrl + H
all the cells in a single column?
(A) Right click on column and select Pick (C) Ctrl + K (D) Ctrl + Shift + K
from list 146. In Excel to move to the previous worksheet,
(B) Use data text to columns menu item press
(C) Left click on the gray column title button (A) Alt + PgUp (B) Ctrl + PgUp
(D) Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard (C) Ctrl + PgDn (D) Shift + Tab
137. In Excel when you use the fill effects in the 147. In Excel you can select a single range of cells
format data series dialog box, you cannot
by
(A) Rotate text on the chart
(A) Clicking the upper-left cell in a group of
(B) Select a fore ground color
(C) Select a pattern cells and then pressing the Shift key
(D) Select a background color while clicking the lower right cell in a
group of cells
138. In Excel Paper spreadsheets can have all
the same advantages as an electronic (B) Pressing the Ctrl key while dragging
spreadsheet except which of the following? over the desired cells
(A) Rows and columns (B) Headings (C) Pressing the Shift key and an arrow key
(C) Speed (D) None (D) Dragging over the desired cells
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148. In Excel which of these will not select all the 156. In Excel all worksheet formula
cells in a document? (A) Manipulate values
(A) Clicking three times with the right (B) Manipulate labels
mouse button in the spreadsheet (C) Return a formula result
(B) Using the Edit Select All menu (D) Use the addition operator
(C) Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard 157. In Excel which of the following is a correct
(D) Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard order of precedence in formula calculation?
149. In Excel you can use the formula palette to (A) Multiplication and division exponentia-
tion positive and negative values
(A) Format cells containing numbers
(B) Multiplication and division, positive and
(B) Create and edit formulas containing
negative values, addition and subtraction
functions
(C) Addition and subtraction, positive and
(C) Enter assumptions data negative values, exponentiation
(D) Copy a range of cells (D) All of above
150. In Excel you can convert existing excel 158. In Excel the Paste Special command lets you
worksheet data an charts to an HTML copy and paste
document by using (A) Multiply the selection by a copied value
(A) FTP wizard (B) Cell comments
(B) Internet assistant wizard (C) Formatting options
(C) Intranet wizard (D) The resulting values of a formula
(D) Import wizard instead of the actual formula
151. In Excel circular reference is 159. In Excel the numbers in our worksheet look
(A) Geometric modeling tool like this: 1000. You want them to look like
(B) A cell that points to a drawing object this: $1,000.00. How can you accomplish
(C) A formula that either directly or indirectly this?
depends on itself (A) None of these
(D) Always erroneous (B) Select Format > Money from the menu
(C) Click the Currency Style button on the
152. In Excel when you insert an excel file into a formatting toolbar
word document. The data are (D) You have to retype everything and
(A) Hyperlinked placed in a word table manually add the dollar signs, commas,
(B) Linked and decimals.
(C) Embedded 160. In Excel which of the following is not a valid
(D) Use the word menu bar and toolbars data type in excel
153. In Excel the following is not information you (A) Number (B) Character
can specify using the solver (C) Label (D) Date/time
(A) Input cells (B) Constraints 161. Excel worksheet cells work very similarly to
(C) Target cell (D) Changing cells what common element of the windows
154. In Excel each excel file is called a workbook graphical user interface
because (A) Option buttons (B) List boxes
(A) It can contain text and data (C) Text boxes (D) Combo boxes
(B) It can be modified 162. In Excel which of the following options is not
(C) It can contain many sheets including located in the Page Setup dialog box?
worksheets and chart sheets (A) Page Break Preview.
(D) You have to work hard to create it (B) Page Orientation
(C) Margins
155. In Excel you can enter which types of data
(D) Headers and Footers
into worksheet cells?
(A) Labels, values, and formulas 163. In Excel one want to track the progress of the
stock market on a daily basis. Which type of
(B) Labels and values but not formulas
chart should one use?
(C) Values and formulas but not labels
(A) Pie chart (B) Row chart
(D) Formulas only
(C) Line chart (D) Column chart
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164. In Excel without using the mouse or the arrow 172. In Excel which formula can add the all the
keys, what is the fastest way of getting to cell numeric values in a range of cells, ignoring
A1 in a spreadsheet? those which are not numeric, and place the
(A) Press Ctrl +Home resulting a difference cell
(B) Press Home (A) Count (B) Average
(C) Press Shift + Home (C) Sum (D) None of above
(D) Press Alt + Home 173. In Excel to name a constant, you use the
165. Which of the following methods cannot be dialog box
used to edit the contents of a cell In Excel? (A) Create names (B) Define name
(A) Press the Alt key (C) Paste name (D) Format cells
(B) Clicking the formula bar 174. In Excel to cancel the marquee, press
(C) Pressing the F2 key (A) Ctrl + End (B) End
(D) Double clicking the cell (C) Esc (D) Shift + Esc
166. In Excel if you begin typing an entry into a cell 175. In Excel the function calculates depreciation
and then realize that you dont want your entry at the same amount each year over an
placed into a cell, you assets useful life
(A) Press the Erase key (A) DB (fixed-declining balance)
(B) Press Esc (B) SLN (straight line)
(C) Press the Enter button (C) DDB (double-declining)
(D) Press the Edit Formula button (D) All of above
167. In Excel default style for new data keyed in a 176. In Excel the following is not an underline
new workbook is option in the format cells dialog box
(A) Comma (B) Currency (A) Double
(C) Normal (D) Per cent (B) Single Engineering
(C) Single Accounting
168. In Excel LEN function does what?
(D) Double Accounting
(A) Compares the content in two cells
(B) Counts the numbers of characters in a 177. In Excel to center worksheet titles across a
range of cell, you must
cell
(A) Select the cells containing the title text
(C) Deletes extra space in text
and use the fill handle to center the text
(D) All of above
across a range of cells
169. In Excel this function converts miles to (B) Widen the columns
kilometers, kilograms to pounds, and so on (C) Select the cells containing the title text
(A) Convert (B) Product and use the fill handle to center the text
(C) Change (D) All of above across a range of cells
170. In Excel you can use the drag and drop (D) Widen the column
method to 178. In Excel when integrating Ms-Word and Excel,
(A) Copy cell contents Word is usually the
(B) Delete cells contents (A) Server (B) Source
(C) Add cell contents (C) Client (D) None
(D) All of above 179. In Excel Charts tips can
171. In Excel to balance your checkbook, your best (A) Show the formatting of a data label
method is (B) Show the name of a data series
(A) Copy your check amounts into Excel so (C) Show the value of data point
that youll have a neat printout to work (D) Both (B) and (C)
on 180. In Excel the Name box
(B) Use Excel to check your arithmetic (A) Shows the location of the previously
(C) Download the Checkbook register active cell
templates from Templates on Microsoft (B) Appears t the left of the formula bar
Office Online (C) Appears below the status bar
(D) All of above (D) Appears below the menu bar
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181. In Excel how do you change column width to 190. In Excel when the formula bar is activated,
fit the contents? you can see
(A) Single-click the boundary to the left to (A) The Edit Formula button
the column heading (B) The Cancel button
(B) Double click the boundary to the right of (C) The Enter button (D) All of above
the column heading 191. In a worksheet you can select
(C) Press Alt and single click anywhere in (A) Etire worksheet (B) Rows
the column (C) Columns (D) All of the above
(D) All of above 192. When you print preview a worksheet
182. In Excel when you work with large (A) the entire worksheet is displayed
worksheets, you may need to (B) the selected range is displayed
(A) Size the worksheet to fit on the specific (C) the active portion of the worksheet is
number of pages displayed
(B) Add and remove page breaks (D) All of the above
(C) Specify only certain print areas 193. In Excel to access the Go To Special feature,
(D) All of above you can press
183. In Excel Hyperlinks cannot be (A) Ctrl + G (B) Ctrl + O
(A) Special shapes like stars and banners (C) Ctrl + Shift + G (D) Ctrl + 1
(B) Drawing objects like rectangles ovals 194. In Excel which do you press to enter the
(C) Pictures current date in a cell?
(D) All can be hyperlinks (A) Ctrl + Shift + : (B) Ctrl + ;
(C) Ctrl + F10 (D) All of above
184. In Excel you can use the horizontal and
vertical scroll bars to 195. In Excel it is acceptable to let long text flow
(A) Split a worksheet into two panes into adjacent cells on a worksheet when
(B) View different rows and columns (A) Data will be entered in the adjacent cells
(C) Edit the contents of a cell (B) No data will be entered in the adjacent cells
(D) View different worksheets (C) There is no suitable abbreviation for the
text
185. What do we call a computer program that (D) There is not time to format the text
organizes data in rows and columns of cells? 196. In Excel you can group noncontiguous
You might use this type of program to keep a worksheets with
record of the money you earned moving (A) The group button on the standard
lawns over the summer. toolbar
(A) Spreadsheet program (B) The shift key and the mouse
(B) Database program (C) The ctrl key and mouse
(C) Word processor program (D) The alt+enter key
(D) Desktop publisher program 197. In Excel Weight refers to
186. In Excel you can add an image to a template (A) The print density of characters
by clicking the Insert Picture From File button (B) The height of the printed character
on the . Toolbar. (C) Upright or slanted shape
(A) Standard (B) Formatting (D) The design and appearance of
(C) Drawing (D) Picture characters
187. In Excel to drag a selected range of data to 198. When you link data maintained in Excel
another worksheet in the same workbook, workbook to a Word document
use the (A) The Word document cannot be edited
(A) Tab key (B) Alt key (B) The Word document contains a refe-
(C) Shift key (D) Ctrl key rence to the original source application
(C) The word document must contain a
188. In Excel when creating a vertical page break hyperlink
(A) The active cell must be A1 (D) The word document contains a copy of
(B) The active cell can be anywhere in the the actual data
worksheet
199. In Excel when you see a cell with a red
(C) The active cell must be in row 1
triangle in the top right corner, what does
(D) The active cell must be in column A
this signify?
189. In Excel to activate the previous cell in a pre- (A) There is an error in the cell
selected range, press (B) There is a comment associated with the cell
(A) The Alt key (B) The Tab key (C) The font color for text in the cell is red
(C) The Enter key (D) None of above (D) A formula cannot be entered into the cell
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200. In Excel to hold row and column titles in 207. An excel workbook is a collection of
places so that they do not scroll when you (A) Workbooks
scroll a worksheet, click the (B) Worksheets
(A) Unfreeze panes command on the (C) Charts
window menu (D) Worksheets and charts
(B) Freeze panes command on the window
menu 208. Excel files have a default extension of
(C) Hold titles command on the edit menu (A) Xls (B) Xlw
(D) Split command on the window menu (C) Wk1 (D) 123
201. In Excel which of these is a quick way to copy 209. In Excel one can use the format painter
formatting from a selected cell to two other multiple times before one turn it off by
cells on the same worksheet? (A) You can use the format painter button
(A) Use Ctrl to select all three cells, then on ly one time when you click it
click the paste button on the standard (B) Double clicking the format painter button
toolbar (C) Pressing the Ctrl key and clicking the
(B) Copy the selected cell, then select the format painter button
other two cells, click style on the Format
(D) Pressing the Alt key and clicking the
menu, then click Modify
format painter button
(C) Click format painter on the Formatting
toolbar twice then click in each cell you 210. In Excel Status indicators are located on the
want to copy the formatting to (A) Vertical scroll bar
(D) All of above (B) Horizontal scroll bar
202. To edit data in an embedded Excel (C) Formula bar
worksheet object in a Word document (D) Formatting toolbar
(A) Use the Excel menu bar and toolbars 211. In Excel you can open the scenario Manager
inside the word application dialog box by choosing scenarios from the
(B) Edit the hyperlink .. menu.
(C) Edit the data in a Excel source (A) View (B) Insert
application (C) Format (D) Tools
(D) Use the Word menu bar and toolbars 212. In Excel you can open the Sort dialog box by
203. In Excel Status indicators are located on the choosing Sort from the .. menu
(A) Vertical scroll bar (A) View (B) Format
(B) Horizontal scroll bar (C) Tools (D) Data
(C) Formula bar
213. In Excel to edit in an embedded excel
(D) Standard toolbar
worksheet object in a word document
204. In Excel Rounding errors can occur (A) Use the excel menu bar and toolbars
(A) When you use multiplication, division, inside the word application
or exponentiation in a formula (B) Edit the hyperlink
(B) When you use addition and subtraction (C) Edit the data in a excel source
in a formula application
(C) Because excel uses hidden decimal (D) Use the word menu bar and toolbars
places in computation
(D) When you show the results of formulas 214. In Excel to create a formula, you can use
with different decimal places that the (A) Values but not cell references
calculated results (B) Cell references but not values
(C) Values or cell references although not
205. In Excel one can copy data or formulas both at the same time
(A) With the copy, paste and cut commands
(D) Value and cell references
on the edit menu
(B) With commands on ta shortcut menu 215. In Excel when working in the page break
(C) With buttons on the standard toolbars preview, you can
(D) All of the above (A) View exactly where each page break
206. In Excel you cannot link excel worksheet data occurs
to a word document (B) Add or remove page breaks
(A) With the right drag method (C) Change the print area
(B) With a hyperlink (D) All of above
(C) With the copy and paste special 216. In Excel A data map is helpful
commands (A) When you have too much data to chart
(D) With the copy and paste buttons on the (B) To show a geographic distribution of
standard toolbar data
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(C) To compare data points (C) The word document must contain a
(D) To show changes in data over time hyperlink
217. In Excel Rounding errors can occur (D) The word document contains a copy of
(A) When you use multiplication, division or the actual data
exponentiation in a formula 225. Which area in an excel window allows
(B) When you use addition and subtraction entering values and formulas ?
in a formula (A) Title bar (B) Menu bar
(C) Because Excel uses hidden decimal (C) Formula bar (D) Standard toolbar
places in computation
(D) When you show the results of formulas Answer Sheet
with different decimal places than the 1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C)
calculated results 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (D)
218. In Excel you can copy data or formulas 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (C)
(A) With the copy, paste and cut commands 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (C)
on the edit menu 21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (C)
(B) With commands on a shortcut menu 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (D) 30. (B)
(C) With buttons on the standard toolbar 31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (D)
(D) All of the above 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (C)
219. In Excel Hyperlinks can be 41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (C)
(A) Text (B) Drawing objects 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (D) 50. (A)
(C) Pictures (D) All of above 51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (B)
220. In Excel to activate the previous cell in a pre- 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (A)
selected range, press 61. (D) 62. (D) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (C)
(A) The Alt key (B) The Tab key 66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (A) 70. (A)
(C) The Enter key (D) None of the above 71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (B)
221. In Excel when the formula bar is active, you 76. (D) 77. (D) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
can see 81. (C) 82. (D) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (C)
(A) The edit formula button 86. (A) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (D) 90. (D)
(B) The cancel button 91. (B) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (D)
(C) The enter button 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (D) 99. (D) 100. (C)
(D) All of the above 101. (A) 102. (D) 103. (A) 104. (B) 105. (A)
222. To copy formatting from one area in a 106. (A) 107. (D) 108. (D) 109. (D) 110. (B)
worksheet and apply it to another area you 111. (B) 112. (B) 113. (D) 114. (B) 115. (B)
would use 116. (A) 117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (B)
(A) The Edit>Copy Format and Edit>Paste 121. (B) 122. (D) 123. (D) 124. (D) 125. (B)
Format commands form the menu. 126. (D) 127. (C) 128. (D) 129. (D) 130. (B)
(B) The Copy and Apply Formatting dialog 131. (D) 132. (D) 133. ( A) 134. (B) 135. (B)
box, located under the Format>Copy and 136. (C) 137. (A) 138. (C) 139. (D) 140. (A)
Apply menu. 141. (D) 142. (D) 143. (A) 144. (B) 145. (C)
(C) There is no way to copy and apply 146. (D) 147. (D) 148. (A) 149. (B) 150. (B)
formatting in Excel You have to do it 151. (C) 152. (B) 153. (A) 154. (C) 155. (A)
manually 156. (C) 157. (D) 158. (D) 159. (C) 160. (B)
(D) The Format Painter button on the
161. (C) 162. (A) 163. (C) 164. (A) 165. (A)
standard toolbar
166. (B) 167. (C) 168. (A) 169. (A) 170. (A)
223. In Excel In a worksheet you can select 171. (C) 172. (C) 173. (B) 174. (C) 175. (B)
(A) The entire worksheet 176. (B) 177. (A) 178. (C) 179. (D) 180. (B)
(B) Rows 181. (B) 182. (D) 183. (D) 184. (B) 185. (A)
(C) Columns 186. (D) 187. (D) 188. (C) 189. (D) 190. (D)
(D) All of the above 191. (D) 192. (D) 193. (A) 194. (B) 195. (B)
224. When you link data maintained in an excel 196. (C) 197. (A) 198. (B) 199. (B) 200. (B)
workbook to a word document 201. (C) 202. (A) 203. (C) 204. (A) 205. (D)
(A) The word document cannot be edit 206. (D) 207. (D) 208. (A) 209. (B) 210. (C)
(B) The word document contains a 211. (D) 212. (D) 213. (A) 214. (D) 215. (D)
reference to the original source 216. (B) 217. (A) 218. (D) 219. (D) 220. (D)
application 221. (D) 222. (D) 223. (B) 224. (B) 225. (C)
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MICROSOFT POWERPOINT
1. In Microsoft PowerPoint to add a header or 8. In Microsoft PowerPoint the easy way to apply
footer to your handout, you can use varied animations to test on slides
(A) The title master (A) Apply effects in the custom animation
(B) The slide master text pane
(C) The handout master (B) Apply an animation scheme
(C) Customize bullets with animated clipart
(D) All of above
(D) All of above
2. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following will not
9. In Microsoft PowerPoint using a custom
advance the slides in a slide show view animation effect, how do you make text
(A) Esc key (B) The spacebar appear on a slide by letter
(C) The Enter key (D) The mouse button (A) Apply the animation scheme fade in one
3. In Microsoft PowerPoint to select all of the by one.
boxes of an organization chart (B) Apply an entrance effect, and then set it
(A) Clicking and edit and select all to by letter in the effect option dialog box*
(B) Right click the chart background and (C) Apply the fly in entrance to the text, and
then click select all then set its speed to very slow.
(C) Press and hold the SHIFT key and click (D) All of above
each box 10. In Microsoft PowerPoint to exit the
(D) All of above PowerPoint application, you should
(A) Click the application minimize button
4. In Microsoft PowerPoint what are lines, curve, (B) Click the document close button
freeform, and scribble (C) Double click the application control
(A) Emphasis effects that can be applied to menu icon
animations (D) Double click the document control menu
(B) Types of custom motion paths icon
(C) Predefined entrance and exit effects
11. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can create a new
(D) All of the above presentation by completing all of the following
5. When using PowerPoint, to play a PowerPoint except
show for previewing the show, select (A) Clicking the new button on the standard
(A) View, slide sorter (B) View, slide toolbar
(C) View, slide show (D) View outline (B) Clicking file, new
6. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to see all (C) Clicking file open (D) Pressing Ctrl + N
the slides on one screen use 12. In Microsoft PowerPoint you have
(A) View, slide sorter customized a design template in one
(B) View, slide presentation and you want to use it in another
(C) View, master presentation. What the best way to do this?
(D) View, slide show (A) Use the browse feature in the slide
design task pane to find the file that has
7. In Microsoft PowerPoint the best place to your design template and apply it to the
find animated images for your presentation current file.
(A) Microsoft online (B) Copy and paste the slide with the design
(B) Word clipart template you want to include the new
(C) PowerPoint tools and ins presentation; inserted slide will inherit
(D) All of the above the design
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(C) Save the presentation that has the 20. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can tell when
design template with a new name, and an object is active because
then use a new file to your presentation (A) The object is highlighted
(D) All of the above. (B) Eight small sizing handles appear
surrounding the text
13. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
(C) A box frame appears surrounding the
displays when an image is selected
text
(A) Add clip art only if it relates to your topic
(D) (B) and (C) both
(B) Be sure to place at least one clipart
image per slide 21. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is not
(C) Resize the image so it takes up as much an option when printing handouts
space as your text (A) Six slides per page
(D) Both (A) and (B) (B) Five slides per page
(C) Three slides per page
14. The Microsoft clip gallery allows you to (D) Two slides per page
(A) Add word art images to a slide
22. In Microsoft PowerPoint the best way to
(B) Spell check your presentation
design the layout for your slides
(C) Add clip art images to a slide or slides
(A) Create layouts for slides, handouts and
(D) Add slides to a presentation
notes using the Master Layout dialog
15. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following box in slide master view
command select all object at one time when (B) For each new slide, select a layout from
selecting multiple objects to be deleted the Slide Layout task pane
(A) Alt + A (B) Ctrl + A (C) Apply templates from the Slide Design
(C) Shift + Enter (D) Edit, Select All task pane
16. In Microsoft PowerPoint to edit the text within (D) None of above
the boxes of an organization chart, you 23. In Microsoft PowerPoint any and every
(A) Select the box and text, then make command can be found on the
changes (A) Drawing toolbar (B) Formatting toolbar
(B) Select the box, then make the dchanges (C) Standard toolbar (D) Menu bar
(C) Highlight the text, them make the 24. In Microsoft PowerPoint slide that is used to
changes introduce a topic and set the tone for the
(D) (A) and (B) both presentation is called the
17. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following allow (A) Table slide (B) Graph slide
you to select more than one slide in a (C) Bullet slide (D) Title slide
presentation 25. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
(A) Alt + Click each slide features should you use when typing in he
(B) Shift + drag each slide notes text box
(C) Shift + Click each slide (A) Slide shows (B) Insert
(D) Ctrl + Click each slide (C) Slide master (D) Zoom
18. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following options 26. In Microsoft PowerPoint following should be
in the printer dialog box would you select to used when you want to add a slide to an
prit slides 5 and 12 in a presentation? existing presentation
(A) Slides (B) Custom shows (A) File, add a new slide
(C) Current slide (D) All of the above (B) Insert, new slide
19. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following (C) File, open
toolbars provides different options in various (D) File, new
master views 27. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is the
(A) Common tasks toolbar default page setup orientation for notes
(B) Drawing toolbar pages, outlines and handouts
(C) Formatting toolbar (A) Vertical (B) Landscape
(D) Standard toolbar (C) Portrait (D) None of above
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28. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is the 36. In Microsoft PowerPoint slide show options
default page setup orientation for slides in available to the presenter include all of the
PowerPoint following except
(A) Vertical (B) Landscape (A) Transitions command
(C) Portrait (D) None of above (B) Speaker notes command
(C) Meeting reminder command
29. In Microsoft PowerPoint are symbols used
(D) Navigation commands
to identify items in a list
(A) Icons (B) Markers 37. In Microsoft PowerPoint presentation
(C) Bullets (D) Graphics designs regulate the formatting and layout
for the slide and are commonly called
30. In Microsoft PowerPoint toolbars that are (A) Design plates (B) Templates
displayed by default in the PowerPoint (C) Placeholders (D) Blueprints
window includes
38. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
(A) Menu bar, standard toolbar, formatting
bypasses the print dialog box when printing
toolbar, drawing toolbar, status bar
individual slides or an entire presentation
(B) Menu bar, standard toolbar, formatting
(A) File, print, preview
toolbar, drawing toolbar, status bar
(B) The print button
(C) Standard toolbar, formatting toolbar, (C) File, print
drawing toolbar, status bar (D) Ctrl + P
(D) Menu bar, standard toolbar, status bar,
39. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can show the
drawing toolbar
shortcut menu during the slide show by
31. In Microsoft PowerPoint view that displays (A) Clicking the shortcut button on the
the slides on a presentation as miniature formatting toolbar
representations of the slides is called (B) Right clicking the current slide
(A) Slide show (B) Slide sorter view (C) Clicking an icon on the current slide
(C) Notes page view (D) Outline view (D) (A) and (B) both
32. In Microsoft PowerPoint view that displays 40. In Microsoft PowerPoint auto clipart is a
only text (title and bullets) is feature that
(A) Slide show (B) Slide sorter view (A) Automatically places clipart in your
(C) Notes page view (D) Outline view presentation
33. In Microsoft PowerPoint the entry effect as (B) Scans your presentation for incorrect
one slide replaces another in a show is spelling in your words on each slide
(C) Scans your presentation for incorrect
called
spelling in Word Arts objects
(A) Animation
(D) All of above
(B) Slide transition
(C) Custom animation 41. Which file format can be added to a
(D) Preset animation PowerPoint show?
(A) .jpg (B) .giv
34. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following (C) .wav (D) All of the above
presentation elements can you modify using
42. In Microsoft PowerPoint two kind of sound
the slide master
effects files that can be added to the
(A) Slide comments
presentation are
(B) Slide transitions (A) .wav files and .mid files
(C) Speaker note font and color (B) .wav files and .gif files
(D) All of above (C) .wav files and .jpg files
35. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following (D) .jpg files and .gif files
provides a printed copy of your presentation 43. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
(A) Outline includes special effects that can be applied
(B) Speaker notes to drawing objects
(C) Audience handouts (A) Gradient fills (B) Line color and style
(D) All of the above (C) Rotating (D) All of above
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44. In Microsoft PowerPoint the term used when 52. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following format
a clip art image changes the direction it faces options should be used to display dollars
(A) Group (B) Flip on an axis
(C) Rotate (D) (A) and (B) both true (A) Normal (B) Percentage
45. In Microsoft PowerPoint the term used when (C) Currency (D) Comma
you press and hold the left mouse key and 53. In Microsoft PowerPoint to maintain the
move the mouse around the slide perspective (height and width ratio) of an
(A) Highlighting (B) Dragging
object when resizing, you need to
(C) Selecting (D) (B) and (C) both true
(A) Press and hold the shift key while
46. In Microsoft PowerPoint size of a table object dragging a corner sizing handle
(A) Is dependent on the amount of text (B) Press and hold the alt + ctrl keys while
within the table dragging a middle handle
(B) Is determined by the presentation (C) Drag a corner sizing handle
design but can be changed (D) (A) and (C) both true
(C) Is determined by the presentation
design and cannot be changed 54. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is/are
(D) (A) and (C) both are true true about rulers and guides
(A) Rulers and guides can be turned on or
47. In Microsoft PowerPoint size of an
off
organization chart object
(B) Rulers and guides print on the slide
(A) Is determined by the presentation
(C) Rulers and guides help place objects
design and cannot be changed
on the slide
(B) Is determined by the presentation
(D) (A) and (C) both true
design but can be changed in
PowerPoint 55. In Microsoft PowerPoint to edit the text within
(C) Is dependent on the amount of text the boxes of an organization chart, you
within the organization chart (A) Select the box and text, then make the
(D) Both (A) and (C) are true changes
(B) Select the box, then make the changes
48. In Microsoft PowerPoint special effects used
(C) Highlight the text, then make the
to introduce slides in a presentation are
changes
called
(D) Highlight the text then make the change
(A) Effects (B) Custom animations
(C) Transitions (D) Present animations 56. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following best
describes serifs
49. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can edit an
(A) Serifs on characters help to differentiate
embedded organization chart object by
between similar looking letters
(A) Clicking edit object
(B) Serifs fonts are best for viewing test at a
(B) Double clicking the organization chart
distance
object
(C) Serifs are fine cross strokes that appear
(C) Right clicking the chart object, then
at the bottom and top of a letter
clicking edit MS-Organizaiton Chart
(D) Serif font are very simple in appearance
object
(D) (B) and (C) are true 57. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following options
changes the fill color of an object back to the
50. In Microsoft PowerPoint the term used when
default color
you press and hold the left mouse key and
more the mouse around the slide (A) Template (B) Automatic
(A) Highlighting (B) Dragging (C) Patterns (D) Fill colors
(C) Selecting (D) Moving 58. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following you
51. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is not use to add shading to a drawing object on or
one of PowerPoints views an auto shape object
(A) Slide show view (B) Slide view (A) Text box tool (B) Line tool
(C) Presentation view (D) Outline view (C) Fill color (D) (B) and (C) both true
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59. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following tools 67. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to edit a
enable you to add text to a slide without using chart, you can
the standard placeholders (A) Triple click the chart object
(A) Text box tool (B) Line tool; (B) Click and drag the chart object
(C) Fill color (D) Auto shapes tool (C) Double click the chart object
60. In Microsoft PowerPoint cell is defined as (D) Click the chart objects
(A) The intersection of a column and a row 68. In Microsoft PowerPoint an image is
(B) An input box selected, it displays which of the following?
(C) A rectangular marker (A) Two corner handles
(D) All of the above (B) Six middle handles
61. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following must (C) Eight sizing handles
be used with the mouse when you want to (D) Six boxes
resize an image from the center and keep it
proportioned 69. In Microsoft PowerPoint material consisting
(A) The space bar (B) The alt key of text and numbers is best presented as
(C) The ctrl key (D) The shift key (A) A table slide (B) A bullet slide
(C) A title slide (D) All of the above
62. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following should
be used with the mouse when you want to 70. In Microsoft PowerPoint is a motion path
draw a perfect shape (A) A type of animation entrance effect
(A) The spacebar (B) The alt key (B) A method of advancing slides
(C) The ctrl key (D) The shift key (C) A method of moving items on a slide
63. In Microsoft PowerPoint on which part of the (D) All of the above
chart are the values entered in a data sheet 71. In Microsoft PowerPoint what is a slide-title
displayed master pair?
(A) The title area (B) The legend (A) The title area and text area of a specific
(C) The y-axis (D) The x-axis slide
64. In Microsoft PowerPoint one way to make a (B) A slide master and title master merged
PowerPoint slide display animations is to into a single slide
(A) Select the slide in normal view; and click (C) A slide master and title master for a
Format, Animation specific design template
(B) Click the PowerPoint window and move
(D) All of above
it around vigorously with the mouse for
a manual animation effect 72. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following should
(C) Select the slide in slide sorter view, right you use if you want all the slide in the
click and choose preset animations presentation to have the same look
from the shortcut menu (A) The slide layout option
(D) PowerPoint does not have an animation (B) Add a slide option
feature (C) Outline view
65. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is not (D) A presentation design template
a way to cut ext 73. In Microsoft PowerPoint in the context of
(A) Select the text and press the delete animations, what is a trigger?
button (A) An action button that advances to the
(B) Select the text and select Edit, Cut from
next slide
the menu
(B) An item on the slide that performs an
(C) Select the text and click the Cut button
on the toolbar action when clicked
(D) Select the text and press Ctrl + X (C) The name of a motion path
(D) All of above
66. In Microsoft PowerPoint which of the
following can you use to add times to the 74. In Microsoft PowerPoint if you have a
slides in a presentation PowerPoint show you created and want to
(A) Slice Show menu send using email to another teacher you can
(B) Rehearse timing button add the show to your email message as
(C) Slide transition button (A) Inclusion (B) Attachment
(D) All of the above (C) Reply (D) Forward
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75. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to edit a 83. Which of the following is an example for
chart, you can automatic text formatting
(A) Triple click the chart object (A) Underlining hyperlink
(B) Click and drag the chart object (B) Adjusting extra space
(C) Double click the chart object (C) Replacing two -s with an em hyphens
(D) Click the chart object (D) All of above
76. In Microsoft PowerPoint to exit the PowerPoint 84. Which of the following is not a way to create
(A) Click the application minimize button a new presentation?
(B) Click the document close button (A) Using the Scan-In Slides feature
(C) Double click the applications control (B) From scratch (create a blank
menu icon
presentation
(D) Double click the document control menu
(C) Using a template
icon
(D) Using the auto content wizard
77. In Microsoft PowerPoint to preview a motion
path effect using the custom animation task 85. The quickest way to create a PowerPoint
pane, you should presentation is to use the
(A) Click the play button (A) Word for windows templates
(B) Click the show effect button (B) Auto creation wizard
(C) Double click the motion path (C) Auto content wizard
(D) All of above (D) Presentation wizard
78. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can create a new 86. Which of the following toolbars provide
presentation by completing all of the different options in various master views?
following except (A) Common tasks toolbar
(A) Clicking the new button on the standard (B) Drawing toolbar
toolbar (C) Formatting toolbar
(B) Clicking file, new (D) Standard toolbar
(C) Clicking file open
(D) Pressing Ctrl + N 87. How can you create a uniform appearance
79. Which of the following will not advance the by adding a background image to all slides?
slides in a slide show view? (A) Create a template
(A) The esc key (B) The space bar (B) Edit the slide master
(C) The enter key (D) The mouse button (C) Use the autocorrect wizard
(D) All of the above
80. To import text from a word document that
uses headings into a PowerPoint 88. How do you create speaker note pages that
presentation: show the slides, related notes, and your
(A) This can not be done in PowerPoint company logo on each page?
(B) Click Insert, Slides from Outline (A) Edit the notes master and add your
(C) Click Import, Word Document Headings company logo
(D) Click File, New, Presentation from Word (B) Edit the slide master and insert your
Headings company logo and notes pane
81. Format painter (C) Edit the handout master to include your
(A) To paint pretty pictures on your slides company logo and one slide per page
(B) To copy formatting from one object or with additional note space
piece of text and then apply it elsewhere (D) All of the above
(C) To change the background color of your
slides 89. Which option on the custom animation task
(D) To paint pretty pictures on background pane allows you to apply a preset or custom
of slides motion path?
82. Slide show options available to the presenter (A) Add effect (B) Emphasis
include all of the following except (C) Animate now (D) All of the above
(A) Transitions command 90. What is the term used when a clip art image
(B) Speaker notes command changes the direction of faces?
(C) Meeting minder command (A) Group (B) Flip
(D) Navigation commands (C) Rotate (D) All of the above
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91. The slide that is used to introduce a topic 100. Which of the following tool enables you to
and set the tone for the presentation is called add text to a slide without using the standard
the placeholders?
(A) Table slide (B) Graph slide (A) Text tool box (B) Line tool
(C) Bullet slide (D) Title slide (C) Drawing tool (D) Auto shapes tool
92. Which of the following features should you 101. Want your logo in the same position on every
use when typing in the notes text box? slide, automatically. Insert it on the
(A) Slide show (B) Insert (A) Handout master (B) Notes master
(C) Slide maser (D) Zoom (C) Slide master (D) All of the above
93. Which option allows you to select line, curve, 102. Which of the following views is the best view
freeform or scribble tools? to use when setting transition effects for all
(A) Create effect slides in a presentation?
(B) Insert motion path (A) Slide sorter view (B) Notes pages view
(C) Draw custom path (C) Slide view (D) Outline view
(D) All of the above 103. Objects on the slide that hold text are called
94. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can embed a (A) Placeholders (B) Object holders
MS-Organization Chart in a slide by (C) Auto layouts (D) Text holders
(A) Clicking the object command on the edit 104. Which of the following provides a means of
menu printing out feature notes with a miniature
(B) Clicking the object command on the edit slide on a printed page?
menu (A) Slide with animation
(C) Clicking the insert new slide button the (B) Outline view
standard toolbar, then double click the (C) Notes page
organization chart button on the (D) Audience handout
formatting toolbar 105. Which command brings you to the first slide
(D) Clicking the MS-Organization Chart in your presentation?
button on the standard toolbar (A) Next slide button (B) Page up
95. In Microsoft PowerPoint to select one (C) Ctrl + Home (D) Ctrl + End
hyperlink after another during a slide 106. In normal view, how can you quickly change
presentation, what do you press? to handout master view?
(A) Tab (B) Ctrl + K (A) Click the outline tab and select handout
(C) Ctrl + h (D) All of above master view
96. In Microsoft PowerPoint which application (B) Press the shift key and click the handout
view works best for adding slide transitions? master view button
(A) Slide show view(B) Slide sorter view (C) On the view menu, click slide sorter, and
(C) Slide view (D) Notes view click handouts.
97. Which of the following views is the best view (D) All of above
to use when setting transition effects for all 107. How can you quickly reinstate a deleted
slides in a presentation ? footer placeholder in master view?
(A) Slide sorter view (B) Notes page view (A) Create a new slide master
(C) Slide view (D) Outline view (B) Re-apply the footer placeholder
98. Which option can be used to set custom (C) Re-apply the slide layout
timings for slides in a presentation? (D) All of the above
(A) Slider Timings (B) Slider Timer 108. Which of the following can you use to add
(C) Rehearsal (D) Slide Show Setup times to the slides in a presentation?
99. Which of the following should be used when (A) Slide show menu
you want to add a slide to an existing (B) Rehearse timings button
presentation? (C) Slide transition button
(A) File, add a new slide (D) All of the above
(B) Insert, New slide 109. Objects on the slide that hold text are called
(C) File Open (A) Placeholders (B) Object holders
(D) File, New (C) Auto layout (D) Text holders
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110. You have got a bunch of digital holiday photo (C) Scans your presentation for incorrect
you want to put into a slide show. What the spelling in word art objects
quickest method? (D) All of the above
(A) Apply a multiple-picture layout to several 117. In Microsoft PowerPoint to select all the
slides, and use the clipart icon on the boxes of an organization chart
slides to import your picture (A) Click edit, select all
(B) On the insert menu, point to the picture, (B) Right click the chart background click
click from file, and select your picture in select all
a group for each slide (C) Press and hold the shift key and click
(C) On the insert menu, point the picture and each box
click new photo album (D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
118. In Microsoft PowerPoint to adjust the width
111. In Microsoft PowerPoint Line spacing refers of table columns, you
to (A) Click table menu. Column width, then
(A) The space between the lines of text make adjustments
(B) The height of the line (B) Drag the vertical gridline between two
(C) The length of the line
columns
(D) (A) and (C) both
(C) Drag the column markers on the table
112. In Microsoft PowerPoint which of the ruler bar
following uses the spelling and grammar (D) Both (B) and (C)
feature to indicate an incorrect spelling?
119. In Microsoft PowerPoint to add a new row to
(A) The incorrect word appears in all capital
a table you would
letters
(A) Click the insert rows command on the
(B) The incorrect word has a wavy red line
insert menu
under it
(B) Press the enter key
(C) The incorrect word appears italicized
(C) Click the insert rows button on the
(D) The incorrect word appears bold
standard toolbar
113. In Microsoft PowerPoint in Microsoft (D) None of the above
PowerPoint which of the following bypasses
120. In Microsoft PowerPoint after moving a clip
the print dialog box when printing individual
art image to a particular location on the slide,
slides or an entire presentation?
(A) File, Print Preview (B) The print button you can immediately reverse the action using
(C) File, print (D) Ctrl + P the
114. In Microsoft PowerPoint how do you add (A) Click the not do move object command
degrees of transparency to shapes such as on the edit menu
arrows, so that the slide background shows (B) Click on the undo button
though? (C) Click on redo button
(A) Use #D style 4 button on the drawing (D) All of above
toolbar 121. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can edit an
(B) Use the Set Transparent Color button embedded organization chart object by
on the Picture toolbar (A) Clicking the edit object
(C) Use the Transparency slider in the (B) Double clicking the organization chart
Format AutoShapes dialog box object
(D) All of above (C) Right clicking the chart object, then
clicking edit MS-Organization Chart
115. In Microsoft PowerPoint material consisting
object
of text and numbers is best presented as
(D) (B) and (C) both are true
(A) A table slide (B) A bullet slide
(C) A title slide (D) All of above 122. You edit an embedded table object by
(A) Clicking the edit sub command of the
116. In Microsoft PowerPoint auto clip art is a document object command on the edit
feature that menu
(A) Automatically places clip art in your (B) Double clicking the table object
presentation (C) Right clicking the table object, then
(B) Scans your presentation for incorrect clicking edit document on the edit menu
spelling of words on each slide (D) All of above
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123. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can embed a 129. In Microsoft PowerPoint you were giving your
Microsoft Word tale in a slide by presentation, and you need to click a slide
(A) Clicking the insert new slide button on thats few slides back. How do you get there?
the standard toolbar, then double (A) Press ESC to get back into a normal
clicking table view; click the slide thumbnail in normal
(B) Clicking the insert Microsoft word table view; then click the resume slide show
button on the formatting toolbar button
(C) Clicking the insert Microsoft word table (B) Press backspace until your desired
button on the standard toolbar slide
(D) Both (A) and (C) (C) Right click, point to go on the shortcut
124. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can embed a menu, point to by title, and click the slide
organization chart in a slide by you want to go to
(A) Clicking the object command on the edit (D) All of above
menu 130. In Microsoft PowerPoint which of the
(B) Clicking the insert new slide button on following should you do to bring a bullet back
the standard toolbar, then double clicking to a previous level?
the organization chart auto layout (A) Press the shift + tab keys
(C) Clicking the ms organization chart (B) Press the shift key
button on the formatting toolbar (C) Press the enter key
(D) Clicking the ms organization chart (D) Press the tab key
button on the standard toolbar 131. In Microsoft PowerPoint good design
125. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can add multiple determines
subordinates to a position by (A) Credibility (B) Readability
(A) Clicking the subordinate button as you (C) First impression (D) All of above
press and hold shift 132. In Microsoft PowerPoint your presentation is
(B) Clicking the subordinate button each ready to go, but you dont know if PowerPoint
and every time you add a subordinate is installed on the computer, you will use to
(C) Clicking the subordinate button as many present with whats the safe way
times as the desired boxes (A) Save your presentation as a web page
(D) All of above (B) Set up your presentation to be browse
126. How would you create the following diagram as a kiosk
in PowerPoint (C) Use the Pack and Go wizard
(A) Use auto shapes and the drawing toolbar (D) All of the above
to create the diagram and design it 133. In Microsoft PowerPoint view that displays
(B) Open the diagram gallery from the the slides of a presentation as miniature
drawing toolbar and choose this representations of the slides is called
diagram type (A) Slide show (B) Slide sorter view
(C) Use the chart command on the insert (C) Notes page view (D) Outline view
menu to import the diagram 134. In Microsoft PowerPoint view that displays
(D) All of above only text (title and bullets) is
127. Which of the following provides a means of (A) Slide show (B) Slide sorter view
printing out features notes with a miniature (C) Notes page view (D) Outline view
slide on a printed page? 135. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
(A) Slides with animation provides a printed copy of your presentation
(B) Outline view (A) Outlines (B) Speaker notes
(C) Notes page (C) Audience handouts (D) All of above
(D) Audience handout 136. In Microsoft PowerPoint presentation
128. Which command brings you to the first slide designs regulate the formatting and layout
in your presentation? for the slide and are commonly called
(A) Next slide button (B) Page up (A) Design templates (B) Templates
(C) Ctrl + home (D) Ctrl + end (C) Placeholders (D) Blueprints
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137. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following should 144. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can show the
you use if you want all the slides in the shortcut menu during the slide show by
presentation to have the same look (A) Clicking the shortcut button in the
(A) The slid layout option formatting toolbar
(B) The add a slide option (B) Right clicking the current slide
(C) Outline view (C) Clicking an icon on the current slide
(D) A presentation design template (D) A and b
145. In Microsoft PowerPoint to insert a new slide
138. In Microsoft PowerPoint the key deletes text
in the current presentation, we can choose
before, or the left of, the insertion point (A) Ctrl + M (B) Ctrl + N
(A) Backspace (B) Page up (C) Ctrl + O (D) Ctrl + F
(C) Delete (D) Page down
146. Microsoft PowerPoint is a
139. Which of the following is not a transition (A) Database program
effect? (B) Spreadsheet program
(A) Blinks diagonal (B) Dissolve (C) Presentation program
(C) Fade through black (D) Blinds vertical (D) Word processing program
140. In Microsoft PowerPoint to create a 147. In Microsoft PowerPoint the name of the form
PowerPoint presentation from a template used to input chart values
(A) Click File, New, select the presentations (A) Datasheet (B) Microsoft Excel
tab and choose a template (C) Microsoft graph (D) Auto form
(B) Click File, New Template and choose a 148. In Microsoft PowerPoint Right clicking
template something in PowerPoint
(C) Import a presentation template from (A) Deletes the object
PowerPoints template wizard (B) Selects the object
(C) Opens a shortcut menu listing for the
(D) Click Create Template from scratch,
object
Now
(D) Nothing he right mouse button for
141. In Microsoft PowerPoint to save a operation
presentation you 149. In Microsoft PowerPoint after choosing a
(A) click save on the windows start button predefine template, . option has to
(B) press Ctrl + F5 be chosen to change a background color
(C) select File, Save from the menu (A) Design template (B) Color scheme
(D) click the saver button on the formatting (C) Animation scheme (D) Color effects
toolbar 150. In Microsoft PowerPoint ellipse Motion is a
142. In Microsoft PowerPoint to change font size predefined
of a selected slide title, you (A) Design template (B) Color scheme
(A) Click the toolbars font dropdown arrow (C) Animation scheme (D) None of these
and choose the font you prefer 151. In Microsoft PowerPoint we can replace a
(B) Click format, title and choose a font from font on all slides with another font using the
the font tab . option
(C) Click the toolbars increase font size (A) Edit, Fonts
button (B) Tools, Fonts
(C) Tools, Replace Fonts
(D) Click title, new font, ok.
(D) Format, Replace Fonts
143. In Microsoft PowerPoint to change font size 152. In Microsoft PowerPoint special effects used
of a selected slide title, you to introduce slides in a presentation are
(A) Click the toolbars Font dropdown arrow called
and choose the font you prefer (A) Effects (B) Custom animations
(B) Click Format, Title and choose a font (C) Transitions (D) Preset animations
from the font tab 153. In Microsoft PowerPoint the key on the
(C) Click the toolbars Increase Font Size keyboard can be used to view slide show
button (A) F1 (B) F2
(D) Click Title, New Font, OK (C) F5 (D) F10
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154. In Microsoft PowerPoint it is the name of the 162. In Microsoft PowerPoint Animation schemes
form used to input chart values can be applied to .. in the presentation
(A) Datasheet (B) Microsoft Excel (A) All slides (B) Select slides
(C) Microsoft graph (D) Auto form (C) Current slide (D) All of the above
155. Which of the following you must first complete 163. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following feature
in order to delete an object? allows you to select more than one slide in
(A) Double click the image slide sorter view
(B) Select the image (A) Alt + Click each slide
(C) Resize the image (B) Shift + drag each slide
(D) Move the image to a new location (C) Shift + Click each slide
156. In Microsoft PowerPoint the term used to (D) Ctrl + Click each slide
describe the separation of a clip art object 164. In Microsoft PowerPoint one thing the
into different parts so that it becomes a common tasks button allows you to do is
PowerPoint object (A) Apply a design template to a slide
(A) Embedding (B) Regrouping (B) Insert a new slide
(C) Ungrouping (D) Grouping (C) Choose a new layout for a slide
157. In Microsoft PowerPoint auto shapes tool (D) All of above
provides you with 165. In Microsoft PowerPoint file which contains
(A) Fancy text to place on your slide readymade styles that can be used for a
(B) usually found shapes presentations is called
(C) Any shape you want to add on a slide (A) Auto style (B) Template
(D) Clip art that is related to your (C) Wizard (D) Pre-formatting
presentation
166. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following fill
158. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following should effects can you use for the slide background
be used when you want to add a slide to an (A) Gradient (B) Texture
existing presentation (C) Picture (D) All of the above
(A) File, add a new slide
167. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
(B) Insert, new slide
statements is not true
(C) File, open (A) Holding down the Shift key while you
(D) File, new draw an object creates perfect squares,
159. An organization has a president, vice circles and straight lines
president, managers and supervisors. On (B) The text in a text box cant be formatted
what level of an organization chart are the (C) The drawing toolbar contains tools for
vice presidents drawing shapes, lines, arrows, and
(A) Fourth level (B) Third level more
(C) Second level (D) First level (D) Ctrl + S save the document
160. In Microsoft PowerPoint press animation 168. In Microsoft PowerPoint chart can be put as
effects allows you to a part of the presentation using
(A) Add clip art images to your slides (A) Insert -> Chart
(B) Create a custom transition to the nect (B) Insert -> Pictures -> Chart
slide (C) Edit -> Chart
(C) Show bullet items as they are discussed (D) View -> Chart
(D) None of above 169. The arrangement of elements such as Title
161. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following and Subtitle text, pictures, tables etc. is called
features allows you to view slides in a slide (A) Layout (B) Presentation
show without manually advancing each slide (C) Design (D) Scheme
(A) Adding build effects 170. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following are
(B) Setting slide times types of sound files
(C) Adding transitions (A) LOG files (B) DAT files
(D) All of these (C) WAV files (D) DRV files
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171. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following can you 180. In Microsoft PowerPoint the handout master
use to add times to the slides in a contains placeholders fro all of the following
presentation except
(A) Microsoft graph (B) Microsoft Table (A) Slide number (B) Title
(C) Microsoft Excel (D) Microsoft Word (C) Footer (D) Header
172. In Microsoft PowerPoint view can be used
to enter speaker comments
Answer Sheet
(A) Normal (B) Slide show
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C)
(C) Slide sorter (D) Notes page view
6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
173. In Microsoft PowerPoint best way to insert a
new slide in a presentation is to use the 11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (D)
(A) Normal view 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
(B) Special view 21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (D)
(C) Slide show view 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (B)
(D) Slide sorter view
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (C)
174. In Microsoft PowerPoint the best view for
36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (D)
getting your thoughts for a presentation out
on the computer 41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (D)
(A) Outline view (B) Notes page view 46. (B) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (B)
(C) Slide sorter view (D) Slide view 51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (D) 55. (A)
175. In Microsoft PowerPoint boxes that are 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (A)
displayed to indicate that the text, pictures or
61. (C) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (C) 65. (A)
objects are placed in it is called
(A) Placeholder (B) Auto text 66. (B) 67. (C) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C)
(C) Text box (D) Word art 71. (C) 72. (D) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (C)
176. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is not 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (B)
a feature of PowerPoint 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (A) 85. (C)
(A) Printing transparencies
86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (A) 89. (B) 90. (C)
(B) Printing the speakers notes along with
slide images 91. (D) 92. (D) 93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (B)
(C) Linking a slide transition with a laser 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (C)
pointer 101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (A) 104. (D) 105. (C)
(D) Drawing with a pen
106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (B) 109. (A) 110. (A)
177. In Microsoft PowerPoint the option can be
111. (D) 112. (B) 113. (B) 114. (C) 115. (A)
used to create a new slide show with the
current slides but presented in a different 116. (D) 117. (D) 118. (D) 119. (D) 120. (B)
order 121. (D) 122. (D) 123. (D) 124. (B) 125. (D)
(A) Rehearsal 126. (B) 127. (D) 128. (C) 129. (C) 130. (A)
(B) Custom slider show 131. (D) 132. (C) 133. (B) 134. (D) 135. (C)
(C) Slide show setup
136. (B) 137. (D) 138. (A) 139. (A) 140. (A)
(D) Slide show view
141. (C) 142. (C) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (A)
178. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following are
actions you can assign to an action button 146. (C) 147. (A) 148. (C) 149. (B) 150. (C)
or slide object 151. (D) 152. (C) 153. (C) 154. (A) 155. (B)
(A) Run a macro (B) Play a sound 156. (C) 157. (B) 158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (C)
(C) Hyper link (D) All of above
161. (B) 162. (D) 163. (C) 164. (D) 165. (B)
179. Which option in PowerPoint allows to carry
166. (D) 167. (B) 168. (B) 169. (A) 170. (C)
slides from one computer to another?
(A) Save As (B) Save and Go 171. (A) 172. (D) 173. (D) 174. (A) 175. (A)
(C) Pack and Go (D) Web and Go 176. (C) 177. (B) 178. (D) 179. (B) 180. (B)
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MICROSOFT ACCESS
1. In Access to open new database press 11. Press the following keys in Access to Save a
(A) CTRL+N (B) CTRL+O database object
(C) ALT+F4 (D) None of these (A) CTRL+P
2. In Access to open an existing database (B) P or CTRL+P
(C) CTRL+S or SHIFT+F12
press
(D) F12
(A) CTRL+N (B) CTRL+O
(C) ALT+F4 (D) None of these 12. Press the following keys in Access to Open
the Save As dialog box
3. In Access, to Exit Office Access 2007Access (A) CTRL+P
(A) CTRL+N (B) CTRL+O (B) P or CTRL+P
(C) ALT+F4 (D) None of these (C) CTRL+S or SHIFT+F12
4. In Access press CTRL+N to (D) F12
(A) Open a new database 13. In Access to Open a combo box
(B) Open an existing database (A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
(C) Exit Office Access 2007Access (B) DOWN ARROW
(D) None of these (C) PAGE DOWN
5. In Access press CTRL+O to (D) F9
(A) Open a new database 14. In Access to Refresh the contents of a
(B) Open an existing database Lookup field (Lookup field: A field, used on a
(C) Exit Office Access 2007Access form or report in an Access database, that
(D) None of these either displays a list of values retrieved from
6. In Access press ALT+F4 to a table or query, or stores a static set of
(A) Open a new database values.) list box or combo box
(A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
(B) Open an existing database
(B) DOWN ARROW
(C) Exit Office Access 2007Access
(C) PAGE DOWN
(D) None of these
(D) F9
7. Press the following keys in Access to Print 15. In Access to Move down one page
the current or selected object (A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
(A) CTRL+P (B) P or CTRL+P (B) DOWN ARROW
(C) S (D) C or ESC (C) PAGE DOWN
8. Press the following keys in Access to Open (D) F9
the Print dialog box from Print Preview 16. When using Access Database, use this
(A) CTRL+P (B) P or CTRL+P feature to have Access select only certain
(C) S (D) C or ESC records in the database to prepare form
9. Press the following keys in Access to Open letters.
the Page Setup dialog box from Print Preview (A) Report (B) Table
(A) CTRL+P (B) P or CTRL+P (C) Query (D) Tools
(C) S (D) C or ESC 17. In Access to Move down one line
10. Press the following keys in Access to Cancel (A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
Print Preview or Layout Preview (B) DOWN ARROW
(A) CTRL+P (B) P or CTRL+P (C) PAGE DOWN
(C) S (D) C or ESC (D) F9
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18. In Access press.to Move 27. In Access press to Toggle the focus forward
the selected control to the left (except between controls in the wizard
controls that are part of a layout) (A) TAB (B) ALT+N
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X (C) ALT+B (D) ALT+F
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
28. In access press to Move to the next page of
19. In Access press .to Move the wizard
the selected control to the right (except (A) TAB (B) ALT+N
controls that are part of a layout) (C) ALT+B (D) ALT+F
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
29. In Access press UP ARROW to
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
(A) Move up one line
20. In Access press .to Paste (B) Move up one page
the contents of the Clipboard in the upper-
(C) Exit the combo box or list box
left corner of the selected section
(D) None of these
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these 30. In Access press PAGE UP
(A) Move up one line
21. In Access press .to Cut the
(B) Move up one page
selected control and copy it to the Clipboard
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X (C) Exit the combo box or list box
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these (D) None of these
22. In Access press .to Copy 31. In Access press TAB
the selected control to the Clipboard (A) Move up one line
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X (B) Move up one page
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these (C) Exit the combo box or list box
(D) None of these
23. In Access press RIGHT ARROW or
CTRL+RIGHT ARROW 32. In Access to find the next occurrence of the
(A) Move the selected control to the right text specified in the Find and Replace dialog
(except controls that are part of a layout) box when the dialog box is closed
(B) Move the selected control to the left (Datasheet view and Form view only)
(except controls that are part of a layout) (A) CTRL+F (B) CTRL+H
(C) Move the selected control up (C) SHIFT+F4 (D) None of these
(D) None of these 33. In Access to open the Find tab in the Find
24. In Access press LEFT ARROW or and Replace dialog box (Datasheet view and
CTRL+LEFT ARROW Form view only)
(A) Move the selected control to the right (A) CTRL+F (B) CTRL+H
(except controls that are part of a layout) (C) SHIFT+F4 (D) None of these
(B) Move the selected control to the left
34. In Access to open the Replace tab in the Find
(except controls that are part of a layout)
and Replace dialog box (Datasheet view and
(C) Move the selected control up
Form view only)
(D) None of these
(A) CTRL+F (B) CTRL+H
25. In Access press ALT+F11 to (C) SHIFT+F4 (D) None of these
(A) Display the Control menu
(B) Display the shortcut menu 35. In Access to switch between Edit mode (with
(C) Close the active window insertion point displaye(D)
(D) None of these (A) F2 (B) F4
(C) F5 (D) F6
26. In Access press ALT+F11 to
(A) Display the Control menu 36. In Access to switch to the property sheet
(B) Display the shortcut menu (Design view in forms and reports in both
(C) Close the active window Access databases and Access projects)
(D) Switch between the Visual Basic Editor (A) F2 (B) F4
and the previous active window (C) F5 (D) F6
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37. In Access to switch between the upper and 47. In Access press DOWN ARROW or CTRL+
lower portions of a window (Design view of DOWN ARROW
queries, and the Advanced Filter/Sort (A) Move the selected control to the right
window) (except controls that are part of a layout)
(A) F2 (B) F4 (B) Move the selected control to the left
(C) F5 (D) F6 (except controls that are part of a layout)
38. In Access to switch to Form view from form (C) Move the selected control up
Design view (D) None of these
(A) F2 (B) F4 48. In Access to Increase the height of the
(C) F5 (D) F6 selected control
39. In Access press to Cycle through the field (A) SHIFT+RIGHT ARROW
grid, field properties, Navigation Pane, (B) SHIFT+DOWN ARROW
access keys in the Keyboard Access System, (C) DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN
Zoom controls, and the security bar (Design ARROW
view of tables) (D) None of these
(A) F6 (B) F7
(C) F8 (D) None of these 49. In Access press F11 to
(A) Toggle the Navigation Pane
40. In Access press to Open the Choose Builder
(B) Cycle between open windows
dialog box (Design view window of forms
(C) Restore the selected minimized window
and reports)
when all windows are minimized
(A) F6 (B) F7
(C) F8 (D) None of these (D) Turn on Resize mode for the active
window when it is not maximized; press
41. In Access press to Open the Visual Basic the arrow keys to resize the window
Editor from a selected property in the property
sheet for a form or report 50. In Access press CTRL+F6 to
(A) F6 (B) F7 (A) Toggle the Navigation Pane
(C) F8 (D) None of these (B) Cycle between open windows
42. In Access press to Switch from the Visual (C) Restore the selected minimized window
Basic Editor back to form or report Design when all windows are minimized
view (D) Turn on Resize mode for the active
(A) F6 (B) F7 window when it is not maximized; press
(C) F8 (D) None of these the arrow keys to resize the window
43. Switch from the Visual Basic Editor back to 51. In Access press ENTER to
form or report Design view in Access press (A) Toggle the Navigation Pane
(A) ALT+F11 (B) Cycle between open windows
(B) SHIFT+F7 (C) Restore the selected minimized window
(C) A and B both are true when all windows are minimized
(D) None is true (D) Turn on Resize mode for the active
44. In Access press to Move to the previous page window when it is not maximized; press
of the wizard the arrow keys to resize the window
(A) TAB (B) ALT+N 52. In Access press CTRL+F8 to
(C) ALT+B (D) ALT+F (A) Toggle the Navigation Pane
45. In Access press to Complete the wizard (B) Cycle between open windows
(A) TAB (B) ALT+N (C) Restore the selected minimized window
(C) ALT+B (D) ALT+F when all windows are minimized
46. In Access press UP ARROW or CTRL+UP (D) Turn on Resize mode for the active
ARROW window when it is not maximized; press
(A) Move the selected control to the right the arrow keys to resize the window
(except controls that are part of a layout) 53. In Access press ALT+SPACEBAR to
(B) Move the selected control to the left (A) Display the Control menu
(except controls that are part of a layout) (B) Display the shortcut menu
(C) Move the selected control up (C) Close the active window
(D) None of these (D) None of these
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54. In Access press SHIFT+F10 to 62. You add a table to the query design window
(A) Display the Control menu (A) Select Edit>Add Table from the menu
(B) Display the shortcut menu (B) Select Tools>Add table from the menu
(C) Close the active window (C) Click the Show Table button on the
(D) None of these toolbar
55. In Access press CTRL+W or CTRL+F4 to (D) Select the table from the Table list on
(A) Display the Control menu the toolbar
(B) Display the shortcut menu 63. Which of the following type s of queries are
(C) Close the active window action queries?
(D) None of these (A) Update queries.
56. In Access to reduce the height of the selected (B) Crosstab Queries
control (C) Parameter queries
(A) SHIFT+RIGHT ARROW (D) Append Queries
(B) SHIFT+DOWN ARROW 64. A query prompts a user for a data and then
(C) DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN displays only records that contain the
ARROW specified date. The type of of query is this
(D) None of these (A) A parameter query
57. In Access to increase the width of the (B) A crosstab query
selected control (C) An update query
(A) SHIFT+RIGHT ARROW (D) An action query
(B) SHIFT+DOWN ARROW 65. Which of the following is NOT a report
(C) DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN section?
ARROW (A) Report Header section
(D) None of these (B) Summary section
58. In Access to move the selected control down (C) Page header section
(A) SHIFT+RIGHT ARROW (D) Details section
(B) SHIFT+DOWN ARROW 66. You can display a database object in design
(C) DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN view by
ARROW (A) Opening the database object and
(D) None of these clicking the view button on the toolbar
59. A- Press DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN (B) Selecting the database object and
ARROW , B- Press SHIFT+LEFT ARROW: 1- clicking the design button on the
Move the selected control down, 2- Reduce database window
the width of the selected control. (C) Selecting the database object and
(A) A-1, B-2 (B) A-2, B-2 press Ctrl + V
(C) A-1, B-1 (D) A-2, B-1 (D) Opening the database object and
60. According to Access Help, whats a good way selecting Tools>Design view
to design a database? 67. How can you display the relationship in a
(A) Start from data access pages and work database?
backward (A) Select View > Relationship form the
(B) Sketch the design of your database menu
using a pencil and paper (B) Click the Relationship button on the
(C) Use the Table Analyzer to reverse- toolbar
engineer your flat source data. (C) Select Edit >Relationship from the menu
(D) None of above (D) All the above are true
61. Which editor was provided for use with 68. If you are creating a cross tab query, what
Access Basic? must table you are querying contain?
(A) The Visual Basic 1.0 editor (A) Lots of confusing information
(B) Notepad (B) More than 100 records
(C) The QuickBasic editor (C) At least one field
(D) All of above (D) None of the above
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69. A query summarizes information in a grid, 76. How can you display Pivot Table report
organized by regions and months. Which summary data in a currency format?
type of query is this? (A) Use custom calculation
(A) A cross tab query (B) Type in the currency symbol
(B) An update query (C) Modify the field settings
(C) A parameter query (D) None of the above
(D) An action query 77. What method can you use to add a new table
to your database?
70. What type of text box does the toolbox and to
(A) Use Design View to create a table
a form?
(B) Enter data directly by using a datasheet
(A) Unbound (B) Bound (C) Both of above
(C) Rebound (D) Calculated (D) All of the above
71. The filter by selection feature allows you to 78. Which action do you use in a a macro to
filter automatically send a report snapshot in an
(A) Those records that match an entity in a email message?
field (A) Use mail (B) Send object
(B) Records based on a criterion you (C) Run macro (D) All of the above
specify 79. How can you display sales grouped by
(C) Records that meet any of several criteria country, region, and salesperson, all at the
you specify same time?
(D) All of above (A) Use the Sort Descending command.
72. What is the memo data type field used for? (B) Use the Pivot table view command
(A) To add table (C) Use the find command on specified
groups
(B) To store objects created in other
(D) All of above
programs
(C) For long text entries 80. The checking operation performed on
(D) For shout text entries of no more than input data is called the
(A) Validation of data
255 characters
(B) Verification of data
73. What is the purpose of the description (C) Cross check
column in Table Design View? (D) Control of data
(A) To define the data type applied to each 81. A form defines
field within the table (A) Where data is placed on the screen
(B) To describe the data that should be (B) The width of each field
entered in each field (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) To enter lookup data that the field should (D) All of the above
refer to. 82. The following method you can use to add a
(D) None of the above new table to your database
74. What is the propose to a sub datasheet? (A) Use Design View to create a table
(A) To provide a hierarchial view of related (B) Enter data directly by using a datasheet
tables or queries in a single window (C) Both of above
(B) To display grouped data in a report (D) All of the above
(C) To display summarized data. 83. The following you can use in a macro to
(D) All of the above automatically send a report snapshot in an
email message
75. Which of the following is not a selection (A) Use mail (B) Send object
technique ? (C) Run macro (D) All of the above
(A) To select a word, double click the word
84. To display sales grouped by country, region,
(B) To select an entire table click the empty
and salesperson, all at the same time
bosx to the left of the field names (A) Use the Sort Descending command.
(C) To select a row, click the record selector (B) Use the Pivot table view command
box to the left of the row (C) Use the find command on specified
(D) To select a column, double click groups
anywhere in the column (D) All of above
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85. The checking operation performed on (C) Double click the form selector box in the
input data is called the upper left corner of the form
(A) Validation of data (B) Verification of data (D) All of the above
(C) Cross check (D) Control of data
94. You can keep the sum([Sales]) to calculate
86. A form defines the totals for each month in
(A) Where data is placed on the screen (A) the report footer section
(B) The width of each field
(B) the page footer section
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) the month group footer section
(D) All of the above
(D) the summary section
87. To insert a graphic of your companys logo
on a report 95. The procedure for selecting multiple controls
(A) Click the image button on the toolbox on a report?
and drag on the report to draw a place (A) Hold down the Shift key as you click each
holder for the graphics object that you want to select
(B) You cant. Microsoft Access wont let you (B) If the controls are aligned along a
insert graphics files. horizontal or vertical line, click the
(C) Select Insert > Picture from the menu horizontal or vertical ruler above or to
(D) Select Tools > Insert Picture from the the left of the controls
menu (C) Hold down the Ctrl key as you click each
88. The Fill/Back Color button on the formatting object that you want to select
toolbar applies color to: (D) All of these above are true
(A) The border fo the selected control
96. The following database object can you
(B) The text in the selected control
(C) All aspects of the control import from one Microsoft Access database
(D) The background of the selected control to another?
(A) Queries (B) Tables
89. The type of query extract the data and put
them into separate table (C) Forms (D) All of the above
(A) A parameter query 97. What field type is used to store picture in a
(B) A make-table query table?
(C) An update query (A) Memo (B) OLE
(D) A crosstab query (C) Hyperlink (D) None
90. The following criterion is NOT written using
the proper syntax? Answer Sheet
(A) Haris (B) <500
(C) NO VALUE 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B)
(D) Between #1/1/2000# and #12/31/2000# 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (D)
91. (IF [Age]>65, Senior,Adult) This 11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
expression is an example of: 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. ()
(A) A conditional expression 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (D)
(B) Algebraic expression 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (B)
(C) Something that belongs in a Microsoft 31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (A)
Excel book 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (A) 40. (B)
(D) A financial expression 41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D)
92. The following property determines what is 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (B)
displayed in a control. 51. (C) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (C)
(A) The control source property 56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (B)
(B) The display property 61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B)
(C) The comes from property 66. (B) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (A)
(D) The data property 71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (D)
93. You view the properties of a form 76. (C) 77. (C) 78. (B) 79. (B) 80. (A)
(A) Select View>Form properties form the 81. (C) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (B) 85. (A)
menu 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (C)
(B) Right click anywhere on the form and 91. (A) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95. (A)
select properties from the shortcut menu 96. (D) 97. (B)
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OPERATING SYSTEM
1. The main memory of the computer 8. I/O tables are used
(A) Controls the operations of computer. (A) To assign I/O devices of computer
(B) Performs data processing functions. (B) To manage I/O devices of computer
(C) Stores data and programs. system
(D) None of these. (C) A and B both true
(D) A and B both false.
2. Program counter (P(C) contains
9. The operating system control tables
(A) Address of an instruction to be fetched
maintains file table, because
(B) Instructions most recently fetched
(A) These tables manage I/O devices and
(C) Data to be written into memory
channels of the computer system.
(D) Data to be read from memory (B) These tables provide information about
3. MAR (memory address register) the existence of files, their location on
(A) Contains data to be written into memory. secondary memory and their current
(D) Contains data to be read from memory. status.
(C) Specifies location in memory for next (C) These tables provide information to
read/or writer. manage process.
(D) Contains address of next instruction to (D) None of these.
be fetched. 10. Processor in computer
4. IR (Instruction register) (A) Controls the operations of the computer/
processes data functions.
(A) Contains the address of an instruction
(B) Stores data and program.
to be fetched.
(C) Moves data between computer and its
(B) Contains the instruction most recently external environment.
fetched (D) None of these.
(C) Specifies memory addresses.
11. Memory buffer register (MBR) contains
(D) None of these.
(A) Data that is to be written into memory
5. Which of the following is not an address (B) A particular I/O device.
register? (C) Exchange data between I/O module and
(A) Index register (B) Segment pointer the processor.
(C) Stack pointer (D) Data register. (D) The instruction most recently fetched.
6. Following is not the state of Five-State 12. I/O modules move data
process model (A) Between external environment and
(A) Ready (B) Running computer.
(C) Not Running (D) New. (B) In the computer main memory.
(C) In Processors
7. Memory table is used
(D) None of these.
(A) To allocate main memory to processes
(B) To allocate secondary memory to 13. I/O OBR (I/O Buffer register) is
processes (A) Used for the exchange of data between
(C) To manage virtual memory an I/O module and the processor.
(D) A, B and C are true. (B) Specifies particular I/O device.
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(C) (A) and (B) both true. (C) Multiple user processes with multiple
(D) (A) and (B) both false. threads per process.
14. User-visible register (D) None of these.
(A) Enables machine language 21. The Windows 2000, operating system
programmer to minimize main memory supports
reference by optimizing register use. (A) Multiple user processes with single
(B) Enables assembly language thread per process.
programmer to minimize main memory (B) Multiple processes with multiple thread
reference by optimizing register use. per process.
(C) A and B both true. (C) Single process with single thread.
(D) A and B both false.
(D) Single process with multiple threads.
15. The operations of the processor are
supervised by 22. In the pure User Level Threads (ULT)
(A) Control and Status register (i) Thread management is done by
(B) Data register. application,
(C) Address register. (ii) Thread management is done by kernel,
(iii) Kernel is not aware of the existence of
16. User-Visible register Which of the following
do not support GUI (Graphical User thread,
Interface) (iv) Application program interface (API) to
(A) DOS (B) WINDOWS the kernel thread facility.
(C) Linux (D) None of these. (A) i, iii are true
17. In the given operating system match the (B) i, ii and iii are true
correct (C) All are false
(i) Thread (ii) Process (D) None of these are true
(A) The unit of resource ownership. 23. The Window 2000 (W2K) and Linux are the
(B) The unit of dispatching. example of
(A) (i) A and (ii) B (C) (i) B and (ii) A (A) User Level Thread (ULT)
(D) (i) A, B (E) (ii) A, B. (B) Kernel Level Thread (KLT)
(C) A and B both
18. The MS-DOS an operating system supports
(D) None of these.
(A) Single user process and multiple
24. The following is not an advantage of User
threads
Level Threads (ULT).
(B) Multiple user process and single thread
(A) Thread switching does not requires
(C) Single user process and single thread
kernel mode privileges because all of
(D) Multiple user processes and multiple the thread management are within the
threads.
user address space of a single process.
19. The UNIX, an operating system supports (B) Here scheduling can be application
(A) Multiple user processes and single specific.
thread per process. (C) ULT can be run an any operating system.
(B) Multiple user processes and multiple (D) When ULT executes a system call, not
threads per process. only that thread blocked, but all of the
(C) Single user process and single thread threads within the process are blocked.
per process. 25. The Linux operating system supports
(D) Single user process and multiple (A) Single thread per process and single
threads per process. process.
20. The Java run time environment is an (B) Multiple thread per process and single
example of process.
(A) Single user process with multiple (C) Single thread per process and multiple
threads processes.
(B) Multiple user processes with single (D) Multiple thread per process and multiple
thread per process. processes.
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26. The Vector and array processors fall into 34. Operating System is
(A) Single Instruction Single Data (SIS(D) (A) Software
stream (B) Hardware
(B) Single Instruction Multiple Data (SIM(D) (C) Software and Hardware both
stream. (D) None of these.
(C) Multiple Instruction Single Data (MIS(D)
35. The concept used to support multi
stream.
programming environment on a computer
(D) Multiple Instruction Multiple Data
(MIM(D) system. is
(A) Virtual memory
27. In cluster
(B) Hierarchy of physical memory
(A) Computers communicate with each
others via fixed paths or via some (C) Display of multiple windows
network facilities (D) None the above.
(B) Computer communicates with each 36. Which combination of the following features
others via a shared memory. will suffice to characterize an OS as a multi
(C) Both (A) and (B) programmed OS ?
(D) None of these. (i) More than one program may be loaded
28. The cluster is a case of into main memory at the same time for
(A) Distributed memory execution.
(B) Shared memory (ii) If a program waits for certain events such
(C) Master/slave architecture as I/O, another program is immediately
(D) Symmetric multi processor. scheduled for execution.
29. The master/slave architecture is an example (iii) If the execution of a program terminates,
of another program is immediately
(A) Distributed memory processing scheduled for execution.
(B) Shared memory processing (A) (i) only (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) Symmetric multi processing
(C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii).
(D) None of these.
37. Turnaround time is defined as
30. I/O modules in computer
(A) Delay between job submission and job
(A) Controls the operation of the computer.
completion
(B) Stores data and program.
(B) A waiting time
(C) Move data between the computer and
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
external environment.
(D) None of these
(D) Provides communication among
processors and main memory. 38. The only state transition initiated by the user
31. Instruction register contains process itself in an operating system is
(A) The address of an instruction to be (A) Block (B) Timer run out
fetched. (C) Dispatch (D) Wake up
(B) The instructions most recently fetched. 39. Window 98 is a
(C) The data to be written into memory. (A) Single user system
(D) The data to be read from memory. (B) Multi user system
32. The following (C) Single tasking system
(A) Start? Fetch next instruction? (D) None of these.
Execute Instruction ? Halt, represents 40. OS/390 is a
(B) Instruction cycle with interrupt (A) Single user system
(C) Instruction cycle without interrupt (B) Multi user system
(D) Instruction cycle with two interrupts (C) Single tasking system
(E) None of these. (D) None of these.
33. Instruction processing consists of 41. Thread is
(A) Fetch cycle only (A) Dispatch able unit of work
(B) Execution cycle only (B) Can be interrupted
(C) Fetch and Execution cycle both (C) A and B both true
(D) None of these. (D) A and B both false.
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(C) Operating system kernel can run on any (C) The semaphore value becomes non-
processor either master or slave. positive
(D) All scheduling and process manage- (D) The semaphore value becomes non-
ment is done on master processor. negative.
56. In monolithic operating system 64. In semaphore when the order of processes
(A) Virtually any procedure can call any that are waiting to be removed from the queue
other procedure. is first in first out (FIFO) then it is called
(B) Virtually specific procedure can call any (A) Weak semaphore
other procedure. (B) Strong semaphore
(C) Virtually specific procedure can call (C) Binary semaphore
specific procedure. (D) None of these.
(D) None of these. 65. In semaphore the process blocked by wait
57. In Layered operating system following operation is unblocked if
statement is false (A) Semaphore value becomes non-
(A) Most or all the layers execute in kernel negative
mode. (B) Semaphore value becomes non-
(B) Interaction only takes place between positive
adjacent layers. (C) Semaphore value is negative
(C) Functions are organized hierarchically. (D) Semaphore value is positive.
(D) None of these. 66. The compaction is the technique in memory
58. When operating system always run on a management that is used to over come
particular processor and that particular (A) Internal fragmentation
processor do all scheduling and process (B) External fragmentation
management then this is an example of (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Master/slave architecture (D) None of these.
(B) Symmetric multiprocessor 67. Physical address (absolute address) in
(C) Cluster memory partitioning is
(D) None of these.
(A) Actual location in main memory
59. In micro kernel architecture following is false.
(B) A reference to memory location
(A) Intersection takes place only between
independent of current assignment
adjacent layers.
(C) A logical address
(B) Intersection takes place via micro kernel.
(D) None of these.
(C) It supports portability.
(D) It supports object-oriented operating 68. The frame
system. (A) Can hold exactly one page of data
60. In the following processes: a = a + 1; b = 2 (B) Can hold more than one page of data
b; b = b + 1; a = 2 a;the output is. (C) Can hole two page of data
(A) a > b (B) a < b (D) None of these.
(C) a = b (D) None of these. 69. The page table that is maintained by
61. A Semaphore is initialized to operating system
(A) Negative integer value (A) Shows frame location for each page of
(B) Positive integer value the process
(C) Non-negative integer value (B) Shows actual address in main memory
(D) Non-positive integer value. (C) Referrer memory location to memory
62. The wait operation (D) None of these.
(A) Decrements the semaphore value 70. Match the following pairs
(B) Increments the semaphore value A. Logical address
(C) Fixes the semaphore value (1) An actual location in main memory
(D) None of these. B. Relative address
63. In semaphore, the process executing the wait (2) An address is expressed as a location
is blocked if relative to some known point.
(A) The semaphore value becomes C. Physical address
negative (3) A memory location independent of the
(B) The semaphore value become positive current assignment of data to memory
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95. When pre cleaning policy is applied in (C) Replacement policy for virtual memory
memory management management.
(A) A page is written out to secondary (D) None of these.
memory only when it has been selected (i) A- Fetch, B-Demand paging, C-Pre-
for replacement. paging; 1-Determines when a page
(B) Modified pages are written before their should be bought into main memory. 2-
page frames are needed so that can be A page is bought into main memory only
written out in batches. when a reference is made to a location
(C) A and B both true. on that page. 3-Pages other than the
(D) None of these. one demanded by a page fault are
96. In virtual memory management, when local bought in.
control policy is applied (E) A 1, B 2, C 3
(A) It determines the number of processes (F) A 3, B 2, C 1
that are to be resident in main memory. (G) A 2, B 3, C 1
(B) It determines the number of processes (H) A 3, B 1, C 2
that are to be resident in virtual memory. 101. When process is swapped out of main
(C) It determines when a modified page memory and put in a suspended state
should be written out to secondary (A) All of its resident pages are moved out.
memory. (B) All of the pages that were previously in
(D) None of these. main memory are returned to main
97. In two level scheme if each page is mapped memory.
by 4-byte (22) page table entry then to create (C) Pages other than the one demanded by
a page table composed of 220 page table a page fault are bought in main memory.
entry one requires (D) None of these.
(A) 222 bytes (B) 212 bytes 102. Statement A: The placement policy
(C) 216 bytes (D) None of these. determines where in real memory a process
98. In defining page table structure in virtual piece is to reside. Statement B: The fetch
memory, A page number portion of a virtual policy determines when a page should be
address is mapped into a hash table using bought into main memory.
simple hash function, where hash table (A) A and B both true
contains a pointer to the inverted page table, (B) A and B both false
which contains page table entries, this (C) A is true, B is false
approach is referred as (D) A is false, B is true
(A) One page table per process structure. 103. When a frame in main memory is locked
(B) Two level page table structure. (A) The page currently stored in that frame
(C) Inverted page table structure. can be replaced.
(D) None of these. (B) The page currently stored in that frame
99. A fetch policy for virtual memory determines cannot be replaced.
(A) When a page should be bought into (C) Pages currently in frame can be
main memory. removed in round-robin style.
(B) Where in real memory a process piece (D) None of these.
is to be reside.
104. Statement A : In memory management, the
(C) The selection of a page in memory that
replacement policy deals with the selection
is to replaced.
of pages in memory to be replaced by arrived
(D) The page in memory that is not been
new page. Statement B: In memory
referenced for long time.
management, the policy the fetch policy
100. The demand paging and pre paging of virtual determines when a page should be bought
memory management are into main memory.
(A) Fetch policy for virtual memory (A) A and B both false
management. (B) A and B both true
(B) Placement policy for virtual memory (C) A is true, B is false
management. (D) A is false, B is true
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105. The Least Recently Used (LRU) policy 111. A policy in memory management referred as
(A) Replaces the page in memory that has clock policy because one can visualize the
not been referenced for the least time. page frames as laid out in
(B) Replaces the page in memory that has (A) Straight line (B) Rectangle
not been referenced for the longest (C) Circle (D) Square
time. 112. In memory management :A-Fixed allocation
(C) Replaces the page in memory in round policy, B-Variable allocation policy: 1-It gives
robin fashion. a process a fixed number of frames in main
(D) None of these. memory within which to execute. 2-It allows
106. In memory management where replacement the number of page frames allocated to a
is allowed in First-in-First-out (FIFO) fashion process to be varied over the life time of the
(A) The page frames are allocated to a process. 3-In it a number of allocated frames
are decided at initial load time.
process as circular buffer and pages
(A) A 1, 3, B 2 (B) A 1, B 3
are removed in random order.
(C) A 2, B 1, 3 (D) A 1, 2, B 3
(B) The page frames are allocated to a
process as circular buffer and pages 113. In uni-processor scheduling :A : Turnaround
are removed in round-robin order. time, B : Response time, 1: A time interval
(C) Replaces the pages that are least between the submission of a process and
referred. its completion. 2: For interactive process, it
(D) Replaces the pages that are most is a time from the submission of a request
until the response begins to received. 3: It
referred.
includes actual execution time plus time
107. By principle of locality, in least recently used spent waiting for resources.
policy, in memory management (A) A 2, 2, B 3 (B) A 1, 3, B 2
(A) The page replaced in memory is least (C) A 2, B 1, 2 (D) A 2, B 1, 3
likely to be referenced in the near future. 114. In uni-processor management processor
(B) The page replaced in memory is most through put
likely to be referenced in the near future. (A) Is a measure of how much work is being
(C) The pages replaced in memory in performed
round-robin fashion. (B) Is the percentage of time that the
(D) None of these. processor is busy
108. In First-In-First-out (FIFO) replacement policy (C) Is a time interval between the
used in memory management, the page submission of a process and its
frames to allocated to a process as circular completion
buffer and (D) None of these
(A) The most recent page is removed at first 115. In uni-processor scheduling, a priorities
(B) The most recent page is removed at the enforcement is
last (A) When processes are assigned priorities
(C) The most recent page is removed any and scheduling policy favor higher
time priority processes.
(D) None of these (B) The scheduling keeps resources of
system busy.
109. The memory management, y one clock policy (C) Here currently running process can be
is applied then the page first loaded into a interrupted and moved to ready state by
frame in memory its use bit is set to the operating system.
(A) Zero (B) One (D) None of these.
(C) Two (D) Three 116. In uni-processor scheduling, if non-
110. In memory management Free page list is: preemptive policy is applied then
A- A list of page frames available for reading (A) Once a process is in running state, it
in pages. B- A list where replaced page is continues to execute until it terminates
assigned without modification. C-A list where or block itself.
replaced page is assigned with modification. (B) Currently running process can be
(A) A, B, C are true (B) A and B are true interrupted and moved to ready state by
(C) A and C are true (D) B and C are true. the operating system.
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(C) The clock interrupt is generated at (C) A policy where process with shortest
periodic intervals. expected processing time is selected
(D) None of these. next.
117. In aperiodic (real time) tasks (D) None of these.
(A) The dead line for start is mandatory, but
123. In round robin (time slicing) policy applied
for finish it is not.
(B) The dead line for finish is mandatory, on uni-processor scheduling
but for start it is not. (A) When interrupt occurs, the currently
(C) The dead line for finish and start is running process is placed in ready
mandatory. queue, and next ready job is selected in
(D) The dead line for finish and start is not First come First serve basis.
mandatory. (B) When interrupt occurs, the currently
118. The time table of railway, and airline which running process is placed in ready
defines arrival and departure can be queue and next ready job is selected in
considered as random order.
(A) Hard real time scheduling
(C) No interruption is entertained.
(B) Soft real time scheduling
(C) None real time scheduling. (D) None of these.
(D) None of these. 124. If normalized turnaround time of different
119. When preemptive policy is applied to uni- process are given. Then Highest
processor scheduling then response ratio next policy in uni-
(A) Once a process is in running state, it processor scheduling policy selects.
continues to execute until it terminates (A) The ready process with lowest
or block itself. normalized turnaround time.
(B) Currently running process can be
(B) The ready process with highest
interrupted and moved to ready state by
the operating system. normalized turnaround time.
(C) The processes are assigned priorities. (C) The process with shortest expected
(D) None of these. processing time.
120. The normalized turnaround time is (D) The process with highest expected
(A) Ratio of turnaround time to service time processing time.
(B) Ratio of turnaround time to waiting time 125. In multi processor scheduling, independent
(C) Ratio of service time to waiting time parallelism indicates
(D) Ratio of waiting time to service time.
(A) There is synchronization among
121. In uni-processor scheduling, shortest processes at gross level.
process next policy is
(B) There is no explicit synchronization
(i) A: Non-preemptive policy
(ii) B: Preemptive policy among processes.
(iii) C: A policy where the process with (C) A parallel processing or multi tasking is
shortest expected processing time is done within a single application.
selected next. (D) None of these.
(iv) D: A policy where the process with 126. In multi processor scheduling : A: Course
shortest expected processing time is
gained parallelism, B: Medium grained
not selected.
(B) A and D are true (C) B and C are true parallelism, C: Fine grained parallelism; 1-
(D) A and C are true (e) B and D are true. Concurrent processes running on a multi
122. In uni-processor scheduling, shortest programmed uni- processor. 2- Parallel
remaining time policy is processing or multi tasking is done within a
(A) A policy where scheduler chooses the single application. 3- Parallel processing is
process that has the shortest expected done within a single instruction stream.
remaining processing time. (A) A 1, B 2, C 3
(B) A policy where scheduler discards the (B) A 2, B 3, C 1
process that has the shortest expected (C) A 3, B 2, C 1
remaining process time. (D) A 1, B 3, C 2
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127. In round robin (time slicing) policy applied 132. Par begin (P1)
on uni processor scheduling (A) Suspends main program, execute
(A) When interrupt occurs, the currently procedure P1 and after execution
running process is placed in ready resume main program.
queue, and next ready job is selected in (B) Procedure P1 is delayed infinitely due
First come First serve basis. to other procedure are given preference.
(B) When interrupt occurs, the currently (C) Procedure P1 is not considered for
running process is placed in ready execution.
queue and next ready job is selected in (D) None of these.
random order. 133. The mail box and ports are examples of
(C) No interruption is entertained. (A) Indirect process communication
(D) None of these. (B) Direct process communication.
(C) Both A and B true
128. If normalized turnaround time of different
(D) None is true
process are given. Then Highest response
ratio next policy in uni processor scheduling 134. In Dynamic partition of main memory in
policy selects memory management, the sized of process
and memory partition is
(A) The ready process with lowest
(A) of exactly same size
normalized turnaround time.
(B) of different size.
(B) The ready process with highest
(C) Both A and B true
normalized turnaround time. (D) None is true
(C) The process with shortest expected
135. In the simple paging in memory
processing time.
management where
(D) The process with highest expected
(A) Process can be loaded into a partition
processing time.
of equal or greater size.
129. In multi processor scheduling, independent (B) Process is loaded into a partition of
parallelism indicates exactly same size.
(A) There is synchronization among (C) Process is divided into a number of
processes at gross level. equal size pages of same length as of
(B) There is no explicit synchronization frames.
among processes. (D) None of these.
(C) A parallel processing or multi tasking is 136. A. Absolute Loading B. Relocatable Loading
done within a single application. C. Dynamic Run-Time Loading; 1- It requires
(D) None of these. that a load module always be loaded into
130. In multi processor scheduling; A: Coarse some location in main memory. 2- A load
gained parallelism, B: Medium grained module can be located anywhere in main
parallelism, C: Fine grained parallelism; 1- memory.
Concurrent processes running on a multi (A) A 2, B 1, C 1
(B) A 1, B 1, C 2
programmed uni processor, 2 Parallel
(C) A 1, B 2, C 2
processing or multi tasking is done within a
(D) A 1, B 2, C 1
single application, 3-Parallel processing is
done within a single instruction stream. 137. The disk and tape devices are referred as
(A) A 1, B 2, C 3 (A) Block oriented I/O devices
(B) A 2, B 3, C 1 (B) Stream oriented I/O devices
(C) Logical I/O devices
(C) A 3, B 2, C 1
(D) None of these
(D) A 1, B 3, C 2
138. Which of the following is not human readable
131. A situation where two or more processes
I/O device ?
coordinate their activities based on a
(A) Video display terminals
condition is referred as (B) Key board
(A) Synchronization (B) Dead lock (C) Printers
(C) Starvation (D) Par begin (D) Disk drives
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139. Following is not the stream oriented I/O 147. In RAID scheme, which of the RAID level does
device not use parity calculation in redundancy
(A) Printer achievement
(B) Mouse (A) RAID 4 (B) RAID 3
(C) Communication modules (C) RAID 2 (D) RAID 1
(D) Disk/tape 148. In system buffer cache, used in UNIX,
140. The direct memory access (DM(A) module following not true
(A) Controls the data exchange between (A) It is a disk cache
main memory and I/O module. (B) It is not a disk cache
(B) The processor issues I/O command, (C) Data transfer between buffer cache and
execute subsequent instructions and user process space always occurs
interrupt I/O module. using DMA.
(C) The processor issues I/O commands (D) I/O operations with disk are handled
to an I/O module. through buffer code.
(D) None of these.
149. In disk scheduling, the shortest service time
141. In disk scheduling, the seek time is
first policy selects the disk request that
(A) The time taken to position the head at
(A) In cure the maximum seek time
the track.
(B) In cure the minimum seek time
(B) The time taken to reach the beginning
(C) Is received first
of sector once the track is selected.
(D) Is received at last.
(C) A and B both.
(D) None of these. 150. The CSCAN, in disk scheduling states
142. The access time in disk scheduling is (A) The arm movement is uni directional
(A) The time taken to position the head at (B) The arm movement is bidirectional
the track. (C) The are is to be state fixed
(B) The time taken to reach the beginning (D) None of these.
of the sector of the track. 151. RAID-O does not support the following
(C) The sum of seek time and rotational characteristics: A: RAID is a set of physical
delay. disk drives viewed by the operating system
(D) None of these. as a single logical drive. B: Data distributed
143. The transfer time in disk scheduling is across the physical drives of an array. C: Re-
(A) Proportional to rotation speed. demdant disk capacity is used to store parity
(B) Inversely proportional to rotation speed. information, which guarantees data
(C) Equal to rotation speed. recoverability in case of a disk failure.
(D) None of these. (A) A and B (B) A only
144. In last- in-first- out, disk scheduling policy (C) B only (D) C only
(A) Recently received request is entertained 252. The UNIX scheduling gives
at the last. (A) Highest preference to real time
(B) Recently received request is entertained processes
first. (B) Highest preference to kernel mode
(C) Requests are selected at random processes
(D) None of these. (C) Highest preference to user mode
145. In disk scheduling, SCAN algorithm states processes
(A) The arm is required to move in one (D) Highest preference to shared
direction only. processes.
(B) The arm can be moved in any direction. 153. In disk scheduling when SCAN (Look) policy
(C) The arm is fixed. is applied and when last track reached
(D) None of these. in one direction
146. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent (A) The service direction is reversed and
Disks) scheme consists of scan proceeds in opposite direction.
(A) Five levels from one to six. (B) The arm returns to the opposite end of
(B) Six levels, from zero to five. the disk and scan begins again.
(C) Seven levels, from zero to six. (C) A and B both true.
(D) None of these. (D) None of these.
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154. In RAID (Redundant Array of Independent 161. Which of the RAID level does not employ
Disks) scheme, which of the following RAID independent access technique ?
level does not include redundancy to improve (A) RAID 6 (B) RAID 5
performance ? (C) RAID 4 (D) RAID 3
(A) RAID level 0 (B) RAID level 1
(C) RAID level 2 (D) RAID level 4 162. Which of the following RAID level uses
independent access technique and
155. In which of the following RAID scheme,
redundancy is achieved by the simple distributes the parity strips across all disks?
expedient of duplicating all the data ? (A) Two (B) Three
(A) RAID level 0 (B) RAID level 1 (C) Four (D) Five
(C) RAID level 2 (D) RAID level 3 163. Cache memory is
156. In shortest service time first policy, applied (A) Bigger and slower than main memory
on disk scheduling, the disk request is (B) Bigger and faster that main memory
selected (C) Smaller and slower than main memory
(A) That requires the least movement of disk (D) Smaller and faster than main memory
arm from its current position.
(B) That requires the maximum movement 164. By principle of locality, cache memory
of disk arm from its current position. (A) Increases average memory access
(C) That is recently received. time.
(D) On random. (B) Reduces average memory access time
157. The RAID (Redundant Array of Independent (C) Does not affect the average memory
Disks) level one requires access time
(A) Same disk space of the logical disk that (D) None of these
it support. 165. Following is not true for disk cache
(B) Twice disk space of the logical disk that
(A) It is a buffer in main memory for disk
it support.
sector
(C) Thrice disk space of the logical disk that
(B) It contains the copy of some of the sector
it support.
(D) Half disk space of the logical disk that it on the disk
support. (C) It is bigger is size than main memory
(D) It is smaller is size than main memory
158. Match the following in RAID scheme : A-
Parallel access array, B-Independent 166. In disk storage devices, data are recorded
access array, 1- All member disks participate on and later retrieved from disk via a
in the execution of every I/O request. 2- Each conducting coil named
member disk participates separately in the (A) Tail (B) Foot
execution of every I/O request. 3- Here (C) Head (D) Hand.
spindles of the individual drives are 167. In disk storage devices during read and write
synchronized so that each disk head is in operation
the same position on each disk at any given
(A) Head is rotate while platter is stationary
time.
(B) Head is stationary while platter rotates
(A) A 1, 3 and B 2
(C) Head and platter are both stationary
(B) A 1, and B 2, 3
(C) A 2 and B 1, 3 (D) None is true
(D) A 1, 2 and B 3 168. In magnetic disk, density that is in bits per
159. The following RAID level employer parallel linear inch
access technique and single redundant disk (A) Increases in moving from the outer most
(A) RAID level 0 (B) RAID level 1 track to the inner most track.
(C) RAID level 2 (D) RAID level 3 (B) Decreases in moving from the outer
160. The RAID scheme indicate most track to the inner most track.
(A) Random access of information data. (C) Remains same in moving from the outer
(B) Random array of independent disks. most track to the inner most track.
(C) Redundant array of independent disks. (D) Randomly distributed in moving from the
(D) Redundant access of information data. outer most track to the inner most track.
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169. Data from and to magnetic disk is 178. For file management, in file operations
transformed in device drivers are
(A) Continuation (A) Disk drivers (B) Tape drivers
(B) Blocks (C) A and B both (D) None of these.
(C) Block and Continuation both 179. In file management, the primary interface of
(D) None of these. computer system with external environment
170. On magnetic disks, the data on the platter is is done through
organized in a concentric sets of rings called (A) Device drivers
(B) Basic file system
(A) Sectors (B) Gaps
(C) Basic I/O supervisor
(C) Rings (D) Tracks
(D) Logical I/O.
171. In disk storage devices the width of head is:
180. In file management, users and applications
(A) Same of the track access records via
(B) More than of the track (A) Physical I/O (B) Basic I/O supervisor
(C) Less than of the track (C) Logical I/O (D) None of these.
(D) None is true.
181. Match the following for file system
172. In a fixed head disk, the number of read/write architecture : A-Basic file system, B-Logical
head per track are I/O module, 1- Deals with blocks of data, 2-
(A) One (B) Two Deals with file records, 3- Provides general
(C) Three (D) Four. purpose record I/O capacity.
173. CD defines (A) A 1, B 2, 3 (B) A 1, 2, B 3
(A) Computer device (C) A 2, 3, B 1 (D) A 1, 3, B 2
(B) Computer disk 182. Match the following access rights :A-Specific
(C) Compact disk user, B-User group, C-All ; 1- Individual user
(D) None of these who are designated by user I, 2-A set of users
who are individually defined, 3-Every user
174. A-Fixed-Head disk, B-Movable-Head disk, 1-
has access to the system.
One head per track and al head are mounted
(A) A 1, B 2, C 3
on rigid arm that extends across all tracks.
(B) A 2, B 1, C 3
2- Only one head and head is mounted on (C) A 1, B 3, C 2
the arm, such that it can position the track. (D) A 3, B 2, C 1
(A) A 1, B 2 (B) A 2, B 1
183. In file management, the pile
(C) A 1, B 1 (D) A 2, B 2
(A) The collection of data in order which they
175. The record is the collection of arrive.
(A) Fields (B) Files (B) A fixed format used for records.
(C) Data base (D) None of these. (C) Records keep with some key sequence.
176. In File system architecture which is the (D) None of these.
correct arrangement from lower level to 184. In file management, in the following record
higher. blocking method, the optional use of space
(A) Device drives, basic file system, basic I/ is made, without unused space left
O supervisor, logical I/O. (A) Fixed blocking
(B) Basic file system, basic I/O, logical I/O, (B) Variable-length spanned blocking
device drives. (C) Variable-length un-spanned blocking
(C) Basic I/O, basic file system, logical I/O, (D) None of these.
device drives. 185. In secondary storage management, If
(D) None of these. allocation of file is made on an individual
177. In file management system the following block basis and each block contains a
communicate directly with periphing I/O pointer to the next block in the chain then it
devices. is referred as
(A) Device drives (A) Contiguous allocation
(B) Basic file system (B) Chained allocation
(C) Basic I/O supervisor (C) Indexed allocation
(D) Logical I/O. (D) None of these.
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186. In secondary storage management, bit table, 193. UNIX was developed by
for each block on disk a vector contains (A) Bell Labs for PDP-7 in 1970
(A) One bit each block (B) Microsoft for IBM computers
(B) Two bit each block (C) Macintosh
(D) None of these.
(C) Three bit each block
(D) Four bit each block. 194. UNIX is a
(A) Operating system
187. In bit table used for Free space management (B) Hardware
in secondary storage (C) Programming language
(A) Bit zero corresponds to free block (D) None of these.
(B) Bit one corresponds to free block 195. In UNIX process management, the system
(C) Bit zero corresponds to block in use process runs in
(D) None of these (A) Kernel mode only
188. The amount of memory (in bytes) required (B) Kernel and user mode both
for a block bitmap is (C) User mode only
(A) Disk size 8 (D) None of these.
(B) Disk size/ (8 file system block size) 196. In UNIX process management, the user
(C) File system block size/disk size processes runs in
(D) None of these. (A) Kernel mode only
(B) Kernel and user mode both
189. In 16 G byte disk with 512-bit block, the bit (C) User mode only
table requires (D) None of these.
(A) 1 M bytes (B) 2 M bytes
197. In UNIX process management, the following
(C) 3 M bytes (D) 4 M bytes.
is true
190. Application Programming Interface is (A) User process enters kernel mode by
(A) A set of function and call programs that issuing a system call when interrupt
allows clients and servers to occurs.
intercommunicate. (B) Kernel mode is executed in user
(B) A database, where information access process.
is limited to the selection of rows that (C) User process enters kernel mode with
satisfy all search criteria. out issuing a system call when interrupt
(C) A computer usually a high powered work occurs.
(D) None of these.
station.
(D) None of these. 198. The number of process states recognized
by UNIX
191. If in a computer networking environment
(A) Two (B) Nine
when all the processing is done on single (C) Eight (D) Seven.
computer can be referred as
199. In process management of UNIX system,
(A) Host based processing
which of the following process states are
(B) Server based processing
running states in respect of whether the
(C) Client based processing process is executing in user or kernel mode
(D) None of these. (A) Ready to run (in memory) state
192. In three tier client/server architecture (B) Ready to run (in swappe(D) state
application software match the following: A- (C) Preempted state
User machine, 1-Client, B- Middle-tier, 2- (D) A and C are true
Application server, C- Backend server, 3 Data 200. A task in a blocked state is
servers. (A) Executable
(A) A 1, B 2, C 3 (B) Waiting for some temporarily unavailable
(B) A 1, B 3, C 2 resource
(C) A 2, B 1, C 3 (C) Running
(D) A 3, B 2, C 1 (D) None of these
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249. Shared sub-directories and files are 259. Fragmentation of the file system
example of (A) can always be prevented
(A) cyclic graph directory (B) occurs only if the file system is used
(B) tree structured direction improperly
(C) one level directory (C) can be temporarily removed by
(D) none of these compaction
250. The lowest level of I/O control consists of (D) is a characteristic of all file systems
(A) device drivers 260. File record length
(B) interrupt handlers
(A) should always be fixed
(C) both A and B above
(B) should always be variable
(D) none of the above
(C) depends upon the size of the file
251. Which type of design problem in file system (D) should be chosen to match the data
(A) how the file system should look to the character
user
(B) algorithm and data structure must be 261. Disaster recovery
created to map the logical file system (A) is needed by every installation
onto the secondary storage device (B) is never needed
(C) Both A and B above (C) varies in degree between installations
(D) none of the above (D) requires off-site computer for immediate
252. Of the following which is the methods for use
allocating disks 262. Wild-card specifies
(A) Contiguous (B) Linked (A) provide an easy way of finding groups
(C) Indexed (D) All of the above of related files
253. External fragmentation solved by which (B) are only used when printing the contents
allocation? of files
(A) contiguous allocation (C) can be used when writing a file
(B) linked allocation (D) allow several files to be read
(C) index allocation simultaneously
(D) both B and C 263. The allocation map
254. Which O/I are best method for allocating? (A) is used to store program data
(A) Contiguous (B) Linked (B) specifies which blocks are used by
(C) Index (D) All of the above which file
255. Allocate the first hole that is big enough is (C) is updated by applications programs
called (D) allows programs to erase files
(A) first fit (B) best fit 264. The activity of a file
(C) worst fit (D) all of the above (A) is a low percentage of number of
256. Allocate the smallest hole that. is big enough records that are added to or deleted
is called from a file
(A) first fit (B) best fit (B) is a measure of the percentage of
(C) worst fit (D) all of the above existing records updated during a run
(C) refers to how closely the files fit into the
257. The most efficient data set organization is
allocated space
(A) a sequential file
(B) an ISAM file (D) is a measure of the number of records
(C) variable depending upon the usage of added or deleted from a file compassed
the data set with the original number of records
(D) a partitioned data set 265. The volatility of a file refers to
258. A partitioned data set is most used for (A) The number of records added or deleted
(A) storing program data from a file composed to the original
(B) storing ISAM files number of records in that file
(C) a program or source library (B) Efficiency with which non-sequential
(D) storing backup information files are processed
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(C) The extent where the records of the file (C) if the process can be moved during its
are contiguous and in proximity to others execution from one memory segment
(D) Percentage of records that has changed to another
in a given time period (D) all of the above
266. Which types of file organization are 271. In dynamic loading
supported by magnetic tape? (A) for better memory utilization use
dynamic loading
(A) random files
(B) it does not requires special support
(B) contiguous sequential file from the operating system
(C) indexed sequential file (C) disadvantage is unused routine is never
(D) all of the above loaded
267. Address Binding is defined as (D) all of the above
(A) Compiler will typically bind these 272. Fragmentation of the file system
symbolic addresses to relocatable (A) occurs only if the file system is used
addressees improperly
(B) Each binding is a mapping from one (B) can always be prevented
address space to another (C) can be temporarily removed by
(C) The linkage editor or loader win in turn compaction
bind these relocatable addresses to (D) is the characteristic of all files system
absolute addresses 273. Stub
(D) All of the above (A) is included in the image for each library
268. Compile time routine reference
(A) where the process will reside in (B) is small piece of code that indicates how
memory, then absolute code can be to locate the appropriate memory
resident library routine
generated
(C) how to load the library if the routine is
(B) where the process will reside in
not already present
memory, then the compiler must
(D) all of the above
generate relocatable code
(C) if the process can be moved during its 274. Local replacement
execution from one memory segment (A) allows a process to select a replacement
to another,the binding must be delayed frame from the set of all frames
(B) requires that each process selects from
until run time
only its own set of allocated frames
(D) all of the above
(C) both (A) and (B) above
269. Load time (D) none of the above
(A) where the process will reside in
275. Thrashing
memory, then absolute code can be
(A) the high paging activity
generated
(B) is spending more time in paging than
(B) where the process will reside in executing
memory, then the compiler must (C) both A and B above
generate relocatable memory (D) none of the above
(C) if the process can be moved during its
276. Thrashing can be avoided if
execution from one memory segment
(A) the pages, belonging to the working set
to another, then binding must be
of the programs are in main memory
delayed until run time
(B) the speed of CPU is increased
(D) all of the above
(C) the speed of I/O processor is increased
270. Execution time (D) all of the above
(A) where the process will reside in 277. The memory allocation scheme subject to
memory, then absolute code can be external fragmentation is
generated (A) segmentation
(B) where the process will reside in (B) swapping
memory, then the compiler must (C) pure demand paging
generate relocatable code (D) multiple contiguous fixed partitions
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278. In virtual memory systems, dynamic address 285. The total time to prepare a disk drive
translation mechanism for a block of data to be read
(A) is the hardware necessary to implement from it is
paging (A) seek time
(B) stores pages at a specific location on disk
(B) Latency
(C) is useless when swapping is used
(D) is the part of the operating system (C) latency plus seek time
paging algorithm (D) transmission time
279. Relocatable programs 286. Following illustrates Associative Memory
(A) cannot be used with fixed partitions (A) The address of the data is supplied by
(B) can be loaded almost anywhere in the user
memory (B) Same as the tracks associated with disk
(C) do not need a linker memory
(D) can be loaded only at one specific
(C) No need for address; information is
location
used as address
280. Fixed partitions (D) Data is accessed serially
(A) are very common in current operating
systems 287. A disk scheduling algorithm in an operating
(B) are very efficient in memory utilization system causes the disk arm to seek back
(C) are very inefficient in memory utilization and forth across the disk surface servicing
(D) are most used on large mainframe all requests in its path, based on
operating systems (A) First Come First Served
281. Virtual system swapping (B) Shortest Seek Time First
(A) allocates all of memory to one program (C) Sean
(B) pages working set pages in and out as (D) None of these
a group
(C) is never as efficient as normal paging 288. Access to moving head disks requires three
(D) is used only on systems that are periods of delay before information is
thrashing brought into memory. The response that
282. The term paging refers to correctly lists the three time delays for the
(A) boosting up the priority of a process in physical access of data in the order of the
multilevel of queues without feedback relative speed from the slowest to the fastest
(B) gradually increasing the priority of jobs is
that wait in the system for a long time to (A) latency time, cache overhead time, seek
remedy infinite blocking
time
(C) keeping track of the time a page has
been in memory for the purpose of LRU (B) transmission time, latency time, seek
replacement time
(D) letting job reside in memory for a certain (C) seek time, latency time, transmission
amount of time, so that the number of time
pages required can be estimated (D) cache overhead time, latency time, seek
accurately time
283. With a segmentation, if there are 64 289. An unpaged cache associates disk domains
segments, and the maximum segment size
with the address of the read and continues
is 512 words, the length of the logical
address in bits is for a specific length. The major disadvantage
(A) 12 (B) 14 of unpaged cache is that
(C) 15 (D) 16 (A) it allows cache domain to contain
284. High paging rate redundant data
(A) may cause high I/O rate (B) it does not allow writes to be cached
(B) keeps the systems running well (C) its access time is greater than that of
(C) is a symptom of too much processor paged caching
activity (D) read ahead cache domain blocks are
(D) always creates a slow system necessarily fixed in size
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290. UNIX recognizes following I/O devices 126. (A) 127. (A) 128. (B) 129. (B) 130. (A)
(A) Disk and Tape drives 131. (A) 132. (A) 133. (A) 134. (A) 135. (C)
(B) Terminals 136. (C) 137. (A) 138. (D) 139. (D) 140. (A)
(C) Communication lines 141. (A) 142. (C) 143. (A) 144. (B) 145. (A)
(D) All the above. 146. (C) 147. (D) 148. (B) 149. (B) 150. (C)
151. (D) 152. (A) 153. (A) 154. (A) 155. (B)
Answer Sheet 156. (A) 157. (B) 158. (A) 159. (D) 160. (D)
161. (D) 162. (D) 163. (D) 164. (B) 165. (C)
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (D) 166. (C) 167. (B) 168. (A) 169. (B) 170. (D)
6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (A) 171. (A) 172. (A) 173. (C) 174. (A) 175. (A)
11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 176. (A) 177. (A) 178. (C) 179. (B) 180. (C)
16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A) 181. (A) 182. (A) 183. (A) 184. (B) 185. (B)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (D) 186. (A) 187. (A) 188. (B) 189. (D) 190. (A)
26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (C) 191. (A) 192. (A) 193. (A) 194. (A) 195. (A)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C) 196. (B) 197. (A) 198. (B) 199. (D) 200. (B)
36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (B) 201. (C) 202. (A) 203. (A) 204. (D) 205. (A)
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (B) 206. (C) 207. (B) 208. (B) 209. (D) 210. (C)
46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (D) 211. (A) 212. (B) 213. (C) 214. (D) 215. (C)
51. (D) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 216. (A) 217. (D) 218. (A) 219. (C) 220. (B)
56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (D) 221. (A) 222. (B) 223. (B) 224. (C) 225. (D)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (B) 226. (B) 227. (B) 228. (B) 229. (C) 230. (D)
66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (A) 69. (A) 70. (A) 231. (B) 232. (D) 233. (C) 234. (B) 235. (C)
71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (A) 236. (C) 237. (B) 238. (C) 239. (C) 240. (C)
76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (B) 79. (A) 80. (A) 241. (C) 242. (B) 243. (B) 244. (C) 245. (A)
81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (A) 246. (C) 247. (B) 248. (A) 249. (A) 250. (C)
86. (A) 87. (D) 88. (A) 89. (B) 90. (A) 251. (C) 252. (B) 253. (D) 254. (B) 255. (A)
91. (A) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (B) 95. (B) 256. (B) 257. (C) 258. (C) 259. (C) 260. (C)
96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (A) 261. (C) 262. (A) 263. (B) 264. (A) 265. (A)
101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (B) 105. (B) 266. (B) 267. (D) 268. (A) 269. (B) 270. (C)
106. (B) 107. (A) 108. (B) 109. (B) 110. (B) 271. (D) 272. (C) 273. (D) 274. (B) 275. (C)
111. (C) 112. (A) 113. (B) 114. (A) 115. (A) 276. (A) 277. (A) 278. (A) 279. (B) 280. (C)
116. (A) 117. (C) 118. (A) 119. (B) 120. (A) 281. (D) 282. (B) 283. (C) 284. (A) 285. (C)
121. (D) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B) 125. (B) 286. (C) 287. (C) 288. (C) 289. (A) 290. (D)
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SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
1. Computer system is a 9. Sub system is
(A) Hardware (B) Software (A) Dependent system
(C) Bioware (D) Virtual ware (B) Independent system
2. Object model is a (C) Component
(A) Rule (B) Process guidance (D) None of these
(C) System model (D) Entity 10. System architecture model identifies
3. Software engineering is an engineering (A) Hardware components
discipline concerned with (B) Software components
(A) Software development (C) Virtual components and software
(B) Software production
components
(C) Software implementation
(D) All the above (D) Hardware and software components
both
4. A workflow model represents
(A) Sequence of activities 11. Which one is functional component ?
(B) Role of users involved (A) Reliability (B) Maintainability
(C) Set of activities (C) Computation (D) Performance
(D) None of these 12. A class room in a school is a
5. Sensor component (A) System (B) Sub-system
(A) Causes changes in system (C) Module (D) None of these
environment
(B) Communicate with other components 13. Floating point process is a
(C) Collects information from system (A) Communication component
environment (B) Computation component
(D) Coordinate the operation of other (C) Coordination component
components. (D) Sensor component
6. Which is the correct order ? 14. Digital-analog converter that converter digital
(A) System development ? system input into analog output is a
installation ? system operation (A) Communication component
(B) System installation ? system operation?
(B) Computation component
system development
(C) Sensor component
(C) System decomposition? system
installation ? system design (D) Interface component
(D) None of these. 15. In software system requirements, the
7. Sensor component is a functional requirement for the system
(A) Functional component describes
(B) Non-functional component (A) Services the system is expected to
(C) Reliability component provide
(D) None of these (B) Factors of system development
8. Which one is not the non-functional activity ? (C) Reliability, response time or system
(A) Reliability (B) Performance capacity
(C) Coordination (D) Maintainability (D) None of these
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16. In software system requirements, the 23. In block diagrams, relationship between
interface requirements are components is shown by
(A) Requirements that are derived from the (A) Boxes (B) Ovals
interface of existing system (C) Circular (D) Lines/Arrows
(B) Requirements that are derived from the 24. Cities, states and country can be defined as
interface of proposed system
(A) Subsystem Cities, states: System
(C) Requirements that are derived from the
country
interface of existing and proposed
(B) Subsystem state :System country,
systems
(D) None of these cities
(C) Subsystem Country: System cities,
17. Validation plan describes state
(A) Quality procedure
(D) Subsystem Country, state: System
(B) Schedule procedure
Cities
(C) Management procedure
(D) None of these 25. Which of the following is correct system
18. Software requirement specification is design process ?
(A) The official statement of what is required (A) Identify system requirement define
of the system developers system develop system
(B) The non official statement of system (B) Define system develop system
interface identify system
(C) Non specified format of system working (C) Identify system develop system
(D) None of these operate system
19. What is Ethnography (D) None of these
(A) A graphic tool 26. Making different sub-system to work together
(B) Observational technique used to is
understand social and organizational (A) System definition
requirements (B) System operation
(C) A graph with nodes (C) System integration
(D) None of these (D) System decomposition
20. In Data Processing model 27. System procurement process involves
(A) Here data-flow diagram show, how data (A) Specifying system requirement
is processed at different stages in the (B) Choosing suppliers
system. These are behavioral models (C) A and B both
(B) It registers all/ selected activities of a (D) None of these
computer system.
(C) Technique used to transform raw data 28. System decommissioning normally takes
into a more useful form. place
(D) Data is shifted to modern data base (A) At the beginning of the development
management system. process
(B) At the middle of the development
21. In Data recording
process
(A) Here data-flow diagram show, how data
(C) After the end of useful operational time
is processed at different stages in the
system. (D) At the beginning of the useful
(B) It registers all/ selected activities of a operational time
computer system. 29. System operation takes place after
(C) Technique used to transform raw data (A) System specification
into a more useful form. (B) System design
(D) Data is shifted to modern data base (C) System installation
management system. (D) System decomposition
22. Thermo couple in furnace is a 30. Software processes are
(A) Communication component (A) Activities involved in producing software
(B) Computation component system
(C) Sensor component (B) Activities involved in selling software
(D) Interface component systems
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93. A control model, where one system is 100. If the server is only responsible for data
designed as the system controller and has management and software on the client
responsibility for managing the execution of implements the application logic, then one
other sub-systems can be referred as
can referrer this model as
(A) Centralized control model
(B) Call-return control model (A) Client server model
(C) Object oriented model (B) Fat client server model
(D) None of these (C) Thin client server model
94. A sequential control model where control (D) None of these
starts at the top of a subroutine hierarchy 101. In system models, object is
and through sub-routine calls, passes to
(A) An entity that has a state and defined
lower levels is referred as
(A) Manager control model set of operations that operates on that
(B) Call-return control model state
(C) Object oriented model (B) Software program
(D) None of these (C) Programming language, that develops
95. A control model where one system any given program
component is designed as system manager (D) None of these
which controls the starting, stopping and
coordination other system processes can 102. When the state of object changes by internal
be referred as operations, executing within the object it self,
(A) Manager control model then these objects are referred as
(B) Object oriented model (A) Active object (B) Inactive object
(C) Event driven control model (C) Silent object (D) None of these
(D) None of these
103. The objects that are realized on call as
96. When is a system where each sub-system
can respond to generated event are referred parallel process with method corresponding
as ? to defined object operations can be referred
(A) Event driven control system as
(B) Object oriented model (A) Active object (B) Servers
(C) Manager control model (C) Modules (D) None of these
(D) None of these
104. For real time system following is not true
97. An event driven control system, when an
event is transmitted to each sub-system and (A) Correct functioning of the system
each sub-system that handles that event depends on the result produced by the
responds to it is referred as system
(A) Broadcast model (B) Correct functioning of the system
(B) Manager control model depends on the time at which the results
(C) Call-return control model
are produced
(D) None of these
(C) The time of processing affects the
98. Embedded system
system output
(A) Run on single processor
(B) Run on integrated group of process (D) The time of processing does not affects
linked by network the system out-put
(C) Network models 105. If in a software system, the operation is
(D) None of these degraded if results are not produced
99. If all the application processing and data according to the specified timing require-
management is carried out on the server and
ments then the software system is referred
client is only responsible for running the
system then this is referred as as
(A) Client-server model (A) Soft real time system
(B) Thin client server model (B) hard real time system
(C) Thick client server model (C) Real time system
(D) None of these (D) None of these
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(C) A quantitative option analysis that allows (C) A system continues in operation after
the cost of various options to be compu- some system faults have manifested
ted, and options can be compared on themselves.
objective basis (D) A system whose operation is incorrect,
(D) Extent to which a software system or if results are not produced according to
component allows for or supports the timing specifications
anonymous transactions 124. The misuse of system vulnerability is
119. Algorithmic cost modeling is (A) As low as reasonably practical (ALARP)
(A) Quality measures that address how risk
easily a system can evolve or migrate (B) Architectural design
(B) Piece of software that acts to accomplish (C) Attack
tasks on behalf of its user (D) None of these
(C) A quantitative option analysis that allows
125. Attribute-based identification is
the cost of various options to be
(A) Here each component has a unique
computed, and options can be
compared on objective basis name and an associated set of attribute,
(D) Extent to which a software system or which differs for each version of
component allows for or supports component
anonymous transactions (B) Extent to which a software system
records information concerning
120. Application program interface is
transactions performed against the
(A) It supports system modeling during the
system.
analysis and design stages of the
(C) Extent to which a system or component
software process
is operational and accessible when
(B) Organization responsible for approving
U.S. standards required for use
(C) Stimuli that occurs irregularly (D) They are used to describe the over all
(D) Formalized set of software calls and behavior of the system.
routines that can be referenced by an 126. Auditable is
application program in order to access (A) Here each component has a unique
supporting system or network services* name and an associated set of attribute,
121. Method of defining a collection of hardware which differs for each version of
and software components and their component
interfaces to establish the framework for the (B) Extent to which a software system records
development of a computer system information concerning transactions
(A) As low as reasonably practical (ALARP) performed against the system
risk (C) Extent to which a system or component
(B) Architectural design is operational and accessible when
(C) Attack required for use
(D) None of these (D) They are used to describe the over all
122. Probability of an accident arising because behavior of the system
of hazard is minimum subject of other costs 127. Availability is
(A) As low as reasonably practical (ALARP)
(A) Here each component has a unique
risk
name and an associated set of attribute,
(B) Architectural design
(C) Attack which differs for each version of
(D) None of these component
(B) Extent to which a software system
123. Fault tolerance system are
records information concerning transac-
(A) These system runs on a single proce-
ssor or an integrated group of processors tions performed against the system.
(B) A system where each sub-system can (C) Extent to which a system or component
respond to generated events where the is operational and accessible when
events might be generated from other required for use
sub-systems or from the environment (D) They are used to describe the over all
of the system. behavior of the system.
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145. Transforming of logic and data from design 151. Composition model is
specifications (design descriptions) into a (A) Extent to which all the parts of a software
programming language
system or component are present and
(A) Compatibility (B) Compactness
(C) Coding (D) Communication each of its parts is fully specified and
146. An inter change of information between developed.
computer systems and peoples or between (B) Testing of individual hardware/software
people. components
(A) Compatibility (B) Compactness (C) An Entity-relation (E-R) diagram show
(C) Coding (D) Communication how entities in the system are
147. Extent to which a system or component composed of other entities
makes efficient use of its data storage
(D) It consists of wide range of different
space- occupies a small volume.
(A) Compatibility (B) Compactness types of computer programs, which be
(C) Code (D) Communication used to support software process
148. Entity-relation model is activities such as a requirement
(A) It describes the basic entities in the analysis, system modeling, debugging
design and relation between them. and testing.
(B) Observational techniques used to
understand social and organizational 152. Match the following : A-Control metrics : B-
requirements. Process metrics: C- Control: D-Correctness:
(C) It is based on the idea of developing an 1- They are associated with software
initial implementation, exposing it uses process. 2- They are associated with
on requirement and refining it through
software products. 3- Protective measure
many versions until an adequate system
has been developed. that reduces system vulnerability. 4- Extent
(D) Based on an idea of developing an initial to which a system or component is free from
implementation, exposing this to uses faults in its specification, design, and
comment and retiring it until and implementation
adequate system has been developed. (A) A-1, B-2,C-3,D-4 (B) A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1
149. Ability of two or more systems or components (C) A-3, B-2,C-1,D-4 (D) None is true
to perform their required functions while
sharing the same hardware or software 153. Corrective maintenance is
environment (A) Maintenance performed to correct faults
(A) Compatibility (B) Compactness in hardware or software
(C) Code (D) Communication (B) A failure of software-controlled systems
150. Completeness in software system is in convenience, but there are source
referred as
systems where system failure is
(A) Extent to which all the parts of a software
system or component are present and resulted in significant critical losses.
each of its parts is fully specified and (C) Failure that corrupts system state or data
developed. (D) None is true
(B) Testing of individual hardware/software
154. Corrupting failure is
components
(C) An Entity-relation (E-R) diagram show (A) Maintenance performed to correct faults
how entities in the system are in hardware or software
composed of other entities. (B) A failure of software-controlled systems
(D) It consists of wide range of different in convenience, but there are source
types of computer programs, which be
systems where system failure is
used to support software process
activities such as a requirement resulted in significant critical losses.
analysis, system modeling, debugging (C) Failure that corrupts system state or data
and testing. (D) None is true
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189. Match the following : A- Managed device : B- 193. Match the following A- Functional
Managed object: C- Managed processes: 1- requirements: B- Functional scope : C-
Type of node residing on a network, such as Function-point count: D- Function-related
a computer, printer or routers that contain a measures: 1- It describe the functionality or
management agent. 2- Characteristic of a services that system is expected to provide.
managed device that can be monitored, 2- Range to which a system component is
modified or controlled. 3- It is a defined capable of being applied. 3- These are
language independent productive measure..
process model. Procedures used are
4- It is related to the overall functionality of
defined and scheduling and relationship
the delivered software.
between them is defined.
(A) A-4,B-2,C-3,D-1 (B) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4
(A) A-1, B-3,C-2 (B) A-1,B-2,C-3 (C) A-1,B-3,C-2,D-4 (D) A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4
(C) A-2,B-3,C-1 (D) A-3,B-2,C-1
194. Lehmans Second Law (Lehman and
190. Goal is Belady 1985) is
(A) Extent to which a system or component (A) Continuing change: A program used in
performs a broad range of functions. real-world environment must change
(B) The objective of an organization to necessarily or become progressively
achieve. less useful in that environment.
(C) Methods and techniques for converting (B) Increase complexity: As an evolving
data to or from graphic display via program change, its strictures tend to
computers. become more complex. Extra resources
(D) None of these must be devoted to preserving and
simplifying the structure.
191. Implementation phase is (C) Large program evolution: Program
(A) Period in the software life cycle in which evolution is a self-regulating process.
a software product is created from (D) None of these
design documentation and debugged.* 195. Hazard probability
(B) Period in the software life cycle in which (A) Hazard cannot arise due system design.
a software product is integrated in its (B) The probability of the event occurring
operational environment, and tested in which create a hazard.
this environment to ensure it performs (C) An assessment of the worst possible
as required. damage, which could result from a
(C) Period in the software life cycle during particular hazard.
which the basic version of a software (D) A condition with the potential for causing
product is adapted to a specified set of or contributing to an accident.
operational environments and is 196. Flexibility
distributed to a customer base. (A) The software and hardware system
(D) None of these architectures that provide explicit
support for tolerance, which includes
192. Evolvability is software redundancy and fault-
(A) Trustworthiness with which a system or tolerance controller that detects
component can be modified to take problems and supports fault recovery
advantage of new software or hardware (B) It is an initial step for requirements
technologies. engineering process, includes the
(B) An error of some kind or an unexpected outline description of system, its use in
event occurs during the execution of a an organization and recommending the
program system feasibility.
(C) Trustworthiness with which a system or
(C) Here the objective of the process is to
component can be modified for use in
work with uses to explore their applications or environments other than
requirement and deliver a final system. those for which it was specifically
(D) Possible loss or harm in computing designed.
system. (D) None of these
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(C) It is the widely used hazard technique analysis. It is abstract and only defines the
(D) Incorrect step, process, or data principal process activities and deliverables.
definition in a computer program 3-Specifications expressed in a language
206. Lehmans Fourth Law (Lehman and Belady whose vocabulary, syntax and semantics are
1985) is formally defined. 4-It is more common to
(A) Organizational stability: Over a waterfall model, but here the development
programs lifetime, its rate of process is based on formal mathematical
development is approximately constant transformation of a system specification to
and independent of the resources an exactable program.
devoted to system development. (A) A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4
(B) Increase complexity: As an evolving (B) A-4,B-2,C-3,D-1
program change, its strictures tend to (C) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4
become more complex. Extra resources (D) A-1,B-3,C-2,D-4
must be devoted to preserving and 210. Lehmans First Law (Lehman and Belady
simplifying the structure. 1985) is
(C) Large program evolution: Program (A) Continuing change: A program used in
evolution is a self-regulating process. real-world environment must change
(D) None of these necessarily or become progressively
207. Human error is less useful in that environment.
(A) It is concerned with the design, (B) Increase complexity: As an evolving
evaluation, and implementation of program change, its strictures tend to
interactive computing systems for become more complex. Extra resources
human use and with the study of major must be devoted to preserving and
phenomena surrounding them. simplifying the structure.
(B) Extent to which a software product fulfills (C) Large program evolution: Program
its purpose without wasting users time/ evolution is a self-regulating process.
energy/degrading their morale. (D) None of these
(C) Human behavior that results in the 211. Graphics
introduction of faults into a system. (A) Extent to which a system or component
(D) None of these performs a broad range of functions.
208. Fault-tolerant architectures is (B) The objective of an organization to
(A) The software and hardware system achieve.
architectures that provide explicit (C) Methods and techniques for converting
support for tolerance, which includes data to or from graphic display via
software redundancy and fault- computers.
tolerance controller that detects (D) None of these
problems and supports fault recovery*
(B) It is an initial step for requirements 212. Intolerable risk is
engineering process, includes the (A) Ability of two or more systems, to
outline description of system, its use in exchange information and to use the
an organization and recommending the information that has been exchanged.
system feasibility. (B) Time taken to respond to an event.
(C) Trustworthiness with which a system or (C) Either the hazard not arises, if arise; it
component can be modified for use in will not result in an accident.
applications or environments other than (D) None of these
those for which it was specifically 213. Hazard
designed.
(A) Hazard cannot arise due system design.
(D) None of these
(B) The probability of the event occurring
209. Match the following: A- Formal mathematical which create a hazard.
transformation: B- Formal process model: (C) An assessment of the worst possible
C-Formal Specifications: D-Formal System damage, which could result from a
development: 1- Here the formal mathema- particular hazard.
tical representation of the system takes (D) A condition with the potential for causing
place. 2- It is a starting point for process or contributing to an accident.
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(C) The fault detection mechanism is (C) The anticipate risks which night affect
initiated after the system state has been the project schedule or the quality of the
changed to check if a fault has occurred. software being developed and to take
(D) None of these action to avoid these risks.
224. Retrospective Fault detection is (D) None of these
(A) Reason for a computer program to 229. ROCOF (Rate of failure occurrence) is
resume execution after a failure, using (A) The probability that the system will
status and results recorded at a cause an accident
checkpoint. (B) Extent to which a system or component
(B) Period of time in the software life cycle can function correctly in the presence of
during which support for a software invalid inputs or stressful environment
product is terminated. conditions.
(C) The fault detection mechanism is (C) The frequency of occurrence with which
initiated after the system state has been unexpected behavior is likely to occur
changed to check if a fault has occurred* (D) None of these
(D) None of these 230. Software system is
225. Risk planning process (A) Associated with functionality of software
(A) Extent to which a software module can and constraints of operations defined.
be used in more than one computing (B) It consists of computer programs,
program configuration files that are used to set
(B) It involves regular monitoring of the risks up these programs system
identified and of new risks that develops. documentation for describing to
(C) It considers each of the key risks that structure of the system and used
are identified and identifies strategies documentation that describes use of the
to manage the risk. system.
(D) None of these (C) It involves executing an implementation
226. Software engineering method is of the software with test data and
(A) Associated with production of software examines the outputs of the software
as per specification and its operational behavior to check
(B) Structured approach to software that it is performing as required
development, whose aim is to facilitate (D) None of these
the production of high-quality software 231. Scalability is
in a cost-effective way. (A) Avoiding catastrophic moment
(C) An engineering discipline, concern with (B) Ease with which a system or component
software development. are modified to fit the problem area.
(D) None of these (C) It is a bounded area of responsibility.
227. Restart is (D) None of these
(A) Reason for a computer program to 232. Risk analysis process is
resume execution after a failure, using (A) Here each identified risk is analyzed and
status and results recorded at a prioritized
checkpoint. (B) It begins after all hazards are identified.
(B) Period of time in the software life cycle For each hazard, the outcome of the risk
during which support for a software assessment process is a statement of
product is terminated. acceptability.
(C) The fault detection mechanism is (C) The anticipate risks which night affect
initiated after the system state has been the project schedule or the quality of the
changed to check if a fault has occurred. software being developed and to take
(D) None of these action to avoid these risks.
228. Risk Management is (D) None of these
(A) Here each identified risk is analyzed and 233. Reusability is
prioritized (A) Extent to which a software module can
(B) It begins after all hazards are identified. be used in more than one computing
For each hazard, the outcome of the risk program.
assessment process is a statement of (B) It involves regular monitoring of the risks
acceptability. identified and of new risks that develops.
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(C) It considers each of the key risks that (C) It is concerned with establishing a
are identified and also identifies confidence level in the system that might
strategies to manage the risk. vary from low to high
(D) None of these
(D) None of these
234. Safety argument is
(A) Associated with the role of people 239. Role is
involved in software process and the (A) Avoiding catastrophic moment
activities for which they are responsible. (B) Ease with which a system or component
(B) The most effective technique for are modified to fit the problem area.
demonstrating the safety of a system is (C) It is a bounded area of responsibility
proof by contradiction. (D) None of these
(C) It is concerned with establishing a 240. Robustness is
confidence level in the system that might
(A) The probability that the system will
vary from low to high
cause an accident
(D) None of these
(B) Extent to which a system or component
235. Risk assessment is can function correctly in the presence of
(A) Here each identified risk is analyzed and invalid inputs or stressful environment
prioritized conditions
(B) It begins after all hazards are identified. (C) The frequency of occurrence with which
For each hazard, the outcome of the risk unexpected behavior is likely to occur.
assessment process is a statement of (D) None of these
acceptability.
241. Risk monitoring process
(C) The anticipate risks which night affect
the project schedule or the quality of the (A) Extent to which a software module can
software being developed and to take be used in more than one computing
action to avoid these risks. program
(D) None of these (B) It involves regular monitoring of the risks
identified and of new risks that develops.
236. Risk is
(C) It considers each of the key risks that
(A) The probability that the system will
are identified and identifies strategies
cause an accident
to manage the risk.
(B) Extent to which a system or component
(D) None of these
can function correctly in the presence of
invalid inputs or stressful environment 242. These objects can be realized as parallel
conditions. process with method corresponding to
(C) The frequency of occurrence with which defined object operations.
unexpected behavior is likely to occur. (A) Self-descriptiveness
(D) None of these (B) Servers
237. Safety is (C) Simplicity
(A) Avoiding catastrophic moment (D) None of these
(B) Ease with which a system or component 243. Safety validation is
are modified to fit the problem area. (A) Associated with the role of people
(C) It is a bounded area of responsibility. involved in software process and the
(D) None of these activities for which they are responsible.
238. Role/action model is (B) The most effective technique for
(A) Associated with the role of people demonstrating the safety of a system is
involved in software process and the proof by contradiction.
activities for which they are responsible (C) It is concerned with establishing a
(B) The most effective technique for confidence level in the system that might
demonstrating the safety of a system is vary from low to high
proof by contradiction. (D) None of these
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255. Software requirements specification are (B) Here one sub system encapsulates a
(A) A set of activities and associated results set of procedures, which can be called
that produce a software product. by other sub-systems.
(B) It is concerned with re-implementing (C) It is concerned with studying existing
legacy system to make them more process to understand the relationship
maintainable. between different parts of the process.
(C) It is the official statement of what is (D) None of these
required of the system developers; it 260. Software metric is
includes uses requirements for a (A) It is the general process of changing
system and detailed specification of the system after it has been delivered. The
system requirements changes can be to correct coding error
(D) None of these. to correct design error, or adding new
256. Software migration and evolution is components to system.
(A) Time-period that begins when a (B) It is concerned with deriving a numeric
software product is conceived and ends value for some attribute of a software
when the software is no longer available product or a software process.
for use. (C) It is any type of measurement, which
(B) Adaptive maintenance, performed to relates to software system, process and
make a computer program usable in a related documentation.
(D) None of these
changed environment.
(C) A simplified description of a software 261. Software specification is
process that is presented from a (A) Associated with functionality of software
particular perspective. and constraints of operations defined.
(D) None of these (B) It consists of computer programs,
configuration files that are used to set
257. Software process is up these programs system documen-
(A) A set of activities and associated results tation for describing to structure of the
that produce a software product system and used documentation that
(B) It is concerned with re-implementing describes use of the system.
legacy system to make them more (C) It involves executing an implementation
maintainable. of the software with test data and
(C) It is the official statement of what is examines the outputs of the software
required of the system developers; it and its operational behavior to check
includes uses requirements for a that it is performing as required
system and detailed specification of the (D) None of these
system requirements 262. System is
(D) None of these. (A) The set of system services and
258. Software re-engineering is constraints in details
(B) System functions that restricts the use
(A) A set of activities and associated results
of objects to certain users.
that produce a software product.
(C) Purposeful collection of interrelated
(B) It is concerned with re-implementing components that work together to
legacy system to make them more achieve some objective.
maintainable (D) None of these
(C) It is the official statement of what is
263. Software testing is
required of the system developers; it
(A) Associated with functionality of software
includes uses requirements for a
and constraints of operations defined.
system and detailed specification of the (B) It consists of computer programs,
system requirements configuration files that are used to set
(D) None of these. up these programs system
259. Procedural interface documentation for describing to
(A) Trustworthiness with which a system structure of the system and used
are transferred from one hardware documentation that describes use of the
environment to another system.
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14. The complexity of the average case of an 24. When in order traversing a tree resulted E A
algorithm is C K F H D B G; the preorder traversal would
(A) Much more complicated to analyze than return
that of worst case (A) FAEKCDBHG (B) FAEKCDHGB
(B) Much more simpler to analyze than that
(C) EAFKHDCBG (D) FEAKDCHBG
of worst case
(C) Sometimes more complicated and 25. When representing any algebraic expression
some other times simpler than that of E the following uses only binary operations
worst case in a 2-tree
(D) None of the above (A) the variable in E will appear as external
nodes and operations in internal nodes
15. The following data structure allows deleting (B) the operations in E will appear as exter-
data elements from front and inserting at rear nal nodes and variables in internal
(A) Stacks (B) Queues nodes
(C) Deques (D) Binary search tree (C) the variables and operations in E will
16. This data structure allows deletions at both appear only in internal nodes
ends of the list but insertion at only one end. (D) None of the above
(A) Input-restricted deque 26. When converting binary tree into extended
(B) Output-restricted deque binary tree, all the original nodes in binary
(C) Priority queues tree are
(D) None of the above (A) internal nodes on extended tree
(B) external nodes on extended tree
17. The following data structure is non-linear (C) vanished on extended tree
type (D) None of the above
(A) Strings (B) Lists
27. The post order traversal of a binary tree is
(C) Stacks (D) None of the above DEBFCA. Find out the pre order traversal
18. The following data structure is linear type (A) ABFCDE (B) ADBFEC
(A) Strings (B) Lists (C) ABDECF (D) None of the above
(C) Queues (D) All of the above 28. Which of the following data structure is lin-
19. To represent hierarchical relationship be- ear data structure?
tween elements, the following data structure (A) Trees (B) Graphs
is not suitable (C) Arrays (D) None of the above
(A) Deque (B) Priority 29. The operation of processing each element
(C) Tree (D) All of above in the list is known as
(A) Merging (B) Inserting
20. A binary tree whose every node has either
(C) Traversal (D) All the above
zero or two children is called
30. Finding the location of the element with a
(A) Complete binary tree
given value is called
(B) Binary search tree
(A) Traversal (B) Search
(C) Extended binary tree (C) Sort (D) All of the above
(D) None of above
31. Arrays are best data structures for
21. The depth of a complete binary tree is given (A) relatively permanent collections of data
by (B) the size of the structure and the data in
(A) Dn = n log2n (B) Dn = n log2n+1 the structure are constantly changing
(C) Dn = log2n (D) Dn = log2n+1 (C) both of above situation
(D) none of above situation
22. The complexity of Binary search algorithm is
(A) O(n) (B) O(log ) 32. Linked lists are best suited for
(C) O(n log n) (D) None of the above (A) relatively permanent collections of data
(B) the size of the structure and the data in
23. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is the structure are constantly changing
(A) O(n) (B) O (n2) (C) both of above situation
(C) O(n log n) (D) None of the above (D) none of above situation
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33. Each array declaration need not give, implicitly 41. Which of the following is not a limitation of
or explicitly, the information about the binary search algorithm ?
(A) name of array (A) binary search algorithm is not efficient
(B) data type of array when the data elements are more than
(C) first data from the set to be stored 1000.
(D) index set of the array (B) must use a sorted array
34. The complexity of merge sort algorithm is (C) requirement of sorted array is expen-
(A) O(n) (B) O(log n) sive when a lot of insertion and dele-
(C) O(n log n) (D) None of these tions are needed
35. The indirect change of the values of a vari- (D) there must be a mechanism to access
able in one module by another module is middle element directly
called 42. Two dimensional arrays are also called
(A) internal change (A) tables arrays
(B) inter-module change (B) matrix arrays
(C) side effect (C) both of the above
(D) all the above (D) none of the above
36. Two main measures for the efficiency of an 43. The term push and pop is related to the
algorithm are (A) Array (B) Lists
(A) Time and space (C) stacks (D) all of above
(B) Processor and memory
44. A data structure where elements can be
(C) Complexity and capacity
added or removed at either end but not in
(D) Data and space
the middle is referred as
37. The time factor when determining the effi- (A) Linked lists (B) Stacks
ciency of algorithm is measured by (C) Queues (D) Deque
(A) Counting the number of key operations
(B) Counting the number of statements 45. The following sorting algorithm is of divide-
(C) Counting the kilobytes of algorithm and-conquer type
(D) None of the above (A) Bubble sort (B) Insertion sort
(C) Quick sort (D) None of the above
38. The space factor when determining the effi-
ciency of algorithm is measured by 46. An algorithm that calls itself directly or indi-
(A) Counting the maximum memory rectly is known as
needed by the algorithm (A) Recursion
(B) Counting the minimum memory needed (B) Polish notation
by the algorithm (C) Traversal algorithm
(C) Counting the average memory needed (D) None of the above
by the algorithm 47. The elements of an array are stored suc-
(D) Counting the maximum disk space cessively in memory cells because
needed by the algorithm (A) by this way computer can keep track only
39. All the above* Which of the following data the address of the first element and the
structures are indexed structures addresses of other elements can be
(A) linear arrays (B) linked lists calculated
(C) both of above (D) none of above (B) the architecture of computer memory
40. Which of the following is not the required does not allow arrays to store other than
condition for binary search algorithm serially
(A) there must be mechanism to delete and/ (C) A and B both false
or insert elements in list (D) A and B both true
(B) the list must be sorted 48. The memory address of the first element of
(C) there should be the direct access to the an array is called
middle element in any sublist (A) base address (B) floor address
(D) none of the above (C) foundation address (D) first address
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49. The memory address of fifth element of an 54. A connected graph T without any cycles is
array can be calculated by the formula called
(A) LOC(Array[5])=Base(Array[5])+(5-lower (A) tree graph (B) free tree
boun(D), where w is the number of (C) tree (D) All of the above
words per memory cell for the array 55. The difference between linear array and a
(B) LOC(Array[5])=Base(Array[4])+(5-Upper record is
boun(D), where w is the number of (A) An array is suitable for homogeneous
words per memory cell for the array data but hte data items in a record may
(C) LOC(Array[5]=Base(Array)+w(5-lower have different data type
boun(D), where w is the number of (B) In a record, there may not be a natural
words per memory cell for the array ordering in opposed to linear array.
(D) None of the above (C) A record form a hierarchical structure but
a linear array does not
50. The following data structure cant store the (D) All of above
non-homogeneous data elements
56. The following data structure store the ho-
(A) Arrays (B) Records
mogeneous data elements
(C) Pointers (D) None of the above
(A) Arrays (B) Records
51. The in order traversal of tree will yield a sorted (C) Pointers (D) None of the above
listing of elements of tree in 57. Which of the following data structure is not
(A) Binary trees linear data structure?
(B) Binary search trees (A) Arrays (B) Linked lists
(C) Heaps (C) A and B are true (D) None is true
(D) None of above
Answer Sheet
52. In a Heap tree values in a node is greater
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (A)
than 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B)
(A) every value in left sub tree and smaller 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B)
than right sub tree 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (C)
(B) every value in children of it 21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (A)
(C) Both of above conditions are true 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (B)
(D) None of above conditions are true 31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (C)
53. In a graph if e=[u, v], Then u and v are called 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (A)
(A) endpoints of e 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (B)
(B) adjacent nodes 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (A)
(C) neighbors 51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (D)
(D) all of the above 56. (B) 57. (C)
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(C) A process where an individual learns (C) A prediction made using an extremely
how to carry out a certain task when simple method, such as always
making a transition from a situation in predicting the same output.
which the task cannot be carried out to (D) None of these
a situation in which the same task under 63. Naive prediction is
the same circumstances can be carried
(A) A class of learning algorithms that try to
out.
derive a Prolog program from examples
(D) None of these
(B) A table with n independent attributes can
58. Learning algorithm referrers to be seen as an n- dimensional space.
(A) An algorithm that can learn (C) A prediction made using an extremely
(B) A sub-discipline of computer science simple method, such as always
that deals with the design and predicting the same output.
implementation of learning algorithms. (D) None of these
(C) A machine-learning approach that
abstracts from the actual strategy of an 64. Knowledge is referred to
individual algorithm and can therefore (A) Non-trivial extraction of implicit
be applied to any other form of machine previously unknown and potentially
learning. useful information from dat(A)
(D) None of these (B) Set of columns in a database table that
can be used to identify each record
59. Meta-learning is within this table uniquely.
(A) An algorithm that can learn
(C) collection of interesting and useful
(B) A sub-discipline of computer science
patterns in a database
that deals with the design and
(D) none of these
implementation of learning algorithms.
(C) A machine-learning approach that 65. Node is
abstracts from the actual strategy of an (A) A component of a network
individual algorithm and can therefore (B) In the context of KDD and data mining,
be applied to any other form of machine this refers to random errors in a
learning. database table.
(D) None of these (C) One of the defining aspects of a data
60. Machine learning is warehouse
(A) An algorithm that can learn (D) None of these
(B) A sub-discipline of computer science 66. Projection pursuit is
that deals with the design and (A) The result of the application of a theory
implementation of learning algorithms. or a rule in a specific case
(C) An approach that abstracts from the (B) One of several possible enters within a
actual strategy of an individual algorithm database table that is chosen by the
and can therefore be applied to any other designer as the primary means of
form of machine learning. accessing the data in the table.
(D) None of these (C) Discipline in statistics that studies ways
61. Inductive logic programming is to find the most interesting projections
(A) A class of learning algorithms that try to of multi-dimensional spaces
derive a Prolog program from examples* (D) None of these
(B) A table with n independent attributes can 67. Statistical significance is
be seen as an n- dimensional space. (A) The science of collecting, organizing,
(C) A prediction made using an extremely and applying numerical facts
simple method, such as always (B) Measure of the probability that a certain
predicting the same output. hypothesis is incorrect given certain
(D) None of these observations.
62. Multi-dimensional knowledge is (C) One of the defining aspects of a data
(A) A class of learning algorithms that try to warehouse, which is specially built
derive a Prolog program from examples around all the existing applications of
(B) A table with n independent attributes can the operational dat(A)
be seen as an n- dimensional space (D) None of these
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PARALLEL COMPUTING
1. It is the simultaneous use of multiple (C) A program or set of instructions that is
compute resources to solve a computational executed by a processor.
problem (D) None of these
(A) Parallel computing 6. Shared Memory is
(B) Single processing (A) A computer architecture where all
(C) Sequential computing processors have direct access to
(D) None of these common physical memory
2. Parallel Execution (B) It refers to network based memory
(A) A sequential execution of a program, access for physical memory that is not
one statement at a time common.
(B) Execution of a program by more than (C) Parallel tasks typically need to exchange
one task, with each task being able to dat(A) There are several ways this can
execute the same or different statement be accomplished, such as through, a
at the same moment in time shared memory bus or over a network,
(C) A program or set of instructions that is however the actual event of data
executed by a processor. exchange is commonly referred to as
(D) None of these communications regardless of the
method employe(D)
3. Scalability refers to a parallel systems (D) None of these
(hardware and/or software) ability
(A) To demonstrate a proportionate 7. Distributed Memory
(A) A computer architecture where all
increase in parallel speedup with the
processors have direct access to
removal of some processors
common physical memory
(B) To demonstrate a proportionate
(B) It refers to network based memory
increase in parallel speedup with the
access for physical memory that is not
addition of more processors
common
(C) To demonstrate a proportionate (C) Parallel tasks typically need to exchange
decrease in parallel speedup with the dat(A) There are several ways this can
addition of more processors be accomplished, such as through, a
(D) None of these shared memory bus or over a network,
4. Parallel computing can include however the actual event of data
(A) Single computer with multiple exchange is commonly referred to as
processors communications regardless of the
(B) Arbitrary number of computers connec- method employe(D)
ted by a network (D) None of these
(C) Combination of both A and B 8. Parallel Overhead is
(D) None of these (A) Observed speedup of a code which has
5. Serial Execution been parallelized, defined as: wall-clock
(A) A sequential execution of a program, time of serial execution and wall-clock
one statement at a time time of parallel execution
(B) Execution of a program by more than (B) The amount of time required to coordi-
one task, with each task being able to nate parallel tasks. It includes factors
execute the same or different statement such as: Task start-up time, Synchro-
at the same moment in time nizations, Data communications.
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(C) Refers to the hardware that comprises (C) Multiple processors can operate
a given parallel system - having many independently but some do not share
processors the same memory resources
(D) None of these (D) None of these
9. Massively Parallel 14. In designing a parallel program, one has
(A) Observed speedup of a code which has to break the problem into discreet chunks
been parallelized, defined as: wall-clock of work that can be distributed to multiple
time of serial execution and wall-clock
tasks. This is known as
time of parallel execution
(B) The amount of time required to coordinate (A) Decomposition (B) Partitioning
parallel tasks. It includes factors such as: (C) Compounding (D) Both A and B
Task start-up time, Synchronizations, Data 15. Latency is
communications. (A) Partitioning in that the data associated
(C) Refers to the hardware that comprises with a problem is decompose(D) Each
a given parallel system - having many parallel task then works on a portion of
processors the dat(A)
(D) None of these
(B) Partitioning in that, the focus is on the
10. Fine-grain Parallelism is computation that is to be performed
(A) In parallel computing, it is a qualitative rather than on the data manipulated by
measure of the ratio of computation the computation. The problem is
to communication
decomposed according to the work that
(B) Here relatively small amounts of
computational work are done between must be done. Each task then performs
communication events a portion of the overall work.
(C) Relatively large amounts of (C) It is the time it takes to send a minimal
computational work are done (0 byte) message from one point to
between communication / synchroni- other point
zation events (D) None of these
(D) None of these 16. Domain Decomposition
11. In shared Memory (A) Partitioning in that the data associated
(A) Changes in a memory location effected with a problem is decompose(D) Each
by one processor do not affect all other parallel task then works on a portion of
processors. the dat(A)
(B) Changes in a memory location effected (B) Partitioning in that, the focus is on the
by one processor are visible to all other computation that is to be performed
processors rather than on the data manipulated by
(C) Changes in a memory location effected
the computation. The problem is
by one processor are randomly visible
decomposed according to the work that
to all other processors.
(D) None of these must be done. Each task then performs
a portion of the overall work.
12. In shared Memory: (C) It is the time it takes to send a minimal (0
(A) Here all processors access, all memory
byte) message from point A to point (B)
as global address space
(D) None of these
(B) Here all processors have individual
memory 17. Functional Decomposition:
(C) Here some processors access, all (A) Partitioning in that the data associated
memory as global address space and with a problem is decompose(D) Each
some not parallel task then works on a portion of
(D) None of these the dat(A)
13. In shared Memory (B) Partitioning in that, the focus is on the
(A) Multiple processors can operate computation that is to be performed
independently but share the same rather than on the data manipulated by
memory resources the computation. The problem is
(B) Multiple processors can operate decomposed according to the work that
independently but do not share the must be done. Each task then performs
same memory resources a portion of the overall work.
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(C) Here one SMP can directly access instructions and then sequentially performs
memory of another SMP and not all them.
processors have equal access time (A) Single Program Multiple Data (SPMD)
to all memories (B) Flynns taxonomy
(D) None of these (C) Von Neumann Architecture
27. It distinguishes multi-processor computer (D) None of these
architectures according to how they can be 32. Load balancing is
classified along the two independent (A) Involves only those tasks executing a
dimensions of Instruction and Dat(A) Each communication operation
of these dimensions can have only one of (B) It exists between program statements
two possible states: Single or Multiple. when the order of statement execution
(A) Single Program Multiple Data (SPMD) affects the results of the program.
(B) Flynns taxonomy (C) It refers to the practice of distributing
(C) Von Neumann Architecture work among tasks so that all tasks are
(D) None of these kept busy all of the time. It can be
28. In the threads model of parallel considered as minimization of task idle
programming time.
(A) A single process can have multiple, (D) None of these
concurrent execution paths 33. Synchronous communication operations
(B) A single process can have single, referred to
concurrent execution paths. (A) Involves only those tasks executing a
(C) A multiple process can have single communication operation
concurrent execution paths. (B) It exists between program statements
(D) None of these when the order of statement execution
29. These applications typically have multiple affects the results of the program.
executable object files (programs). While the (C) It refers to the practice of distributing
application is being run in parallel, each task work among tasks so that all tasks are
can be executing the same or different kept busy all of the time. It can be
program as other tasks. All tasks may use considered as minimization of task idle
different data time.
(A) Single Program Multiple Data (SPMD) (D) None of these
(B) Multiple Program Multiple Data (MPMD) 34. Data dependence is
(C) Von Neumann Architecture (A) Involves only those tasks executing a
(D) None of these communication operation
30. Here a single program is executed by all (B) It exists between program statements
tasks simultaneously. At any moment in time, when the order of statement execution
tasks can be executing the same or different affects the results of the program.
instructions within the same program. These (C) It refers to the practice of distributing
programs usually have the necessary logic work among tasks so that all tasks are
programmed into them to allow different kept busy all of the time. It can be
tasks to branch or conditionally execute only considered as minimization of task idle
those parts of the program they are designed time.
to execute. (D) None of these
(A) Single Program Multiple Data (SPMD)
(B) Multiple Program Multiple Data (MPMD) Answer Sheet
(C) Von Neumann Architecture 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A)
(D) None of these 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
31. These computer uses the stored-program 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
concept. Memory is used to store both 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (B)
program and data instructions and central 21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B)
processing unit (CPU) gets instructions and/ 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (A)
or data from memory. CPU, decodes the 31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B)
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WINDOW PROGRAMMING
1. Frames is 8. Checkbox in window programming
(A) the exterior of a window. (A) displays text and can be clicked with the
(B) the interior of a frame window. mouse or spacebar
(C) windows used for input/output that are (B) a checkmark which the user can select
placed on a panel window (C) a list from which one item can be se-
(D) None of these lected.
(D) area in which text may be entered.
2. Panels is
(A) the exterior of a window. 9. Combobox in window programming
(B) the interior of a frame window (A) displays text and can be clicked with the
mouse or spacebar
(C) windows used for input/output that are
(B) a checkmark which the user can select
placed on a panel window
(C) a list from which one item can be se-
(D) None of these
lected.
3. Controls are (D) area in which text may be entered.
(A) the exterior of a window. 10. Edit in window programming
(B) the interior of a frame window. (A) displays text and can be clicked with the
(C) windows used for input/output that are mouse or spacebar
placed on a panel window (B) a checkmark which the user can select
(D) None of these (C) a list from which one item can be se-
4. In frame windows lected.
(A) One can put another frame windows (D) area in which text may be entered
(B) One can not put another frame windows 11. Groupbox in window programming
5. A panel window is a window (A) does nothing except draw a rectangle, it
(A) which can only exist inside a frame win- is used to visually group controls to-
dow gether
(B) which can not exist inside a frame win- (B) displays text
dow (C) for input of multiple lines of text
(C) which can exist outside the frame win- (D) none of these
dow 12. Label in window programming
(D) none of these (A) does nothing except draw a rectangle, it
is used to visually group controls to-
6. These exist panel windows inside gether
the same frame window. (B) displays text
(A) Several (B) Only one (C) for input of multiple lines of text
(C) None (D) None of these (D) none of these
7. Button in window programming 13. Memo in window programming
(A) displays text and can be clicked with the (A) does nothing except draw a rectangle, it
mouse or spacebar is used to visually group controls to-
(B) a checkmark which the user can select gether
(C) a list from which one item can be se- (B) displays text
lected. (C) for input of multiple lines of text
(D) area in which text may be entered. (D) none of these
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14. All the classes necessary for Windows pro- 20. Window class, onActivate/2, defines
gramming are in the module (A) is executed when a window is becom-
(A) win.txt (B) win.std ing visible or is being hidden
(C) win.main (D) none of these (B) when a window is being disabled or en-
15. Window class, onCreate/1 ,defines abled this event is executed
(A) is executed when a visible window is (C) this event is executed when the user
being created switches to another window of the same
(B) is executed when a window is being application
closed, it is possible to prevent the win- (D) when a window receives the keyboard
dow from closing
focus this event is executed
(C) when the background of a window must
be erased this event is executed 21. Window class, onEnable/1, defines
(D) when a window must be re-painted this (A) is executed when a window is becom-
event is executed ing visible or is being hidden
16. Window class, on Close/2 (B) when a window is being disabled or en-
(A) is executed when a visible window is abled this event is executed
being created (C) this event is executed when the user
(B) is executed when a window is being switches to another window of the same
closed, it is possible to prevent the win- application
dow from closing (D) when a window receives the keyboard
(C) when the background of a window must focus this event is executed
be erased this event is executed
(D) when a window must be re-painted this 22. Window class, onKBFocus/3, defines
event is executed (A) is executed when a window is becom-
17. Window class, onEraseBackground/1, de- ing visible or is being hidden
fines (B) when a window is being disabled or en-
(A) is executed when a visible window is abled this event is executed
being created (C) this event is executed when the user
(B) is executed when a window is being switches to another window of the same
closed, it is possible to prevent the win- application
dow from closing (D) when a window receives the keyboard
(C) when the background of a window must focus this event is executed
be erased this event is executed
(D) when a window must be re-painted this 23. Window class, onSetCursor/3, defines
event is executed (A) the window wants to know what cursor
it must display for the mouse pointer
18. Window class, onPaint/2, defines
(A) is executed when a visible window is (B) the mouse is moved over a window
being created (C) when a mouse button is pressed this
(B) is executed when a window is being event is executed
closed, it is possible to prevent the win- (D) a mouse button is released
dow from closing 24. Window class, onMouseMove/5 , defines
(C) when the background of a window must (A) the window wants to know what cursor
be erased this event is executed it must display for the mouse pointer
(D) when a window must be re-painted this
(B) the mouse is moved over a window
event is executed
(C) when a mouse button is pressed this
19. Window class, onShow/2, defines event is executed
(A) is executed when a window is becom-
(D) a mouse button is released
ing visible or is being hidden
(B) when a window is being disabled or en- 25. Window class, onMouseDown/5, defines
abled this event is executed (A) the window wants to know what cursor
(C) this event is executed when the user it must display for the mouse pointer
switches to another window of the same (B) the mouse is moved over a window
application (C) when a mouse button is pressed this
(D) when a window receives the keyboard event is executed
focus this event is executed (D) a mouse button is released
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26. Window class, onMouseUp/5 , defines 34. Window class, onSize/2, defines
(A) the window wants to know what cursor (A) during the processing of a key this event
it must display for the mouse pointer is executed with the ASCII value of the
(B) the mouse is moved over a window key pressed
(C) when a mouse button is pressed this (B) a menu command was selected
event is executed (C) a menu item is selected
(D) a mouse button is released (D) a window was resized
27. Window class, onMouseDoubleClick/5, de- 35. Window class, onMove/2, defines
fines (A) a window is moved to a new position
(A) a mouse button was double clicked (B) the user wants to view a floating popup
(B) the user clicks on a window menu for the window
(C) a key on the keyboard is pressed (C) an event from the vertical scrollbar of
(D) a key on the keyboard is released the window
(D) an event from the horizontal scrollbar of
28. Window class, onClick/1, defines
the window
(A) a mouse button was double clicked
(B) the user clicks on a window 36. Window class, onInitPopupMenu/2, defines
(C) a key on the keyboard is pressed (A) a window is moved to a new position
(D) a key on the keyboard is released (B) the user wants to view a floating popup
menu for the window
29. Window class, onKeyDown/3 , defines (C) an event from the vertical scrollbar of
(A) a mouse button was double clicked the window
(B) the user clicks on a window (D) an event from the horizontal scrollbar of
(C) a key on the keyboard is pressed the window
(D) a key on the keyboard is released
37. Window class, onVScroll/3, defines
30. Window class, onKeyUp/3, defines (A) a window is moved to a new position
(A) a key on the keyboard is pressed (B) the user wants to view a floating popup
(B) a key on the keyboard is released menu for the window
(C) a mouse button was double clicked (C) an event from the vertical scrollbar of
(D) the user clicks on a window the window
31. Window class, onChar/3, defines (D) an event from the horizontal scrollbar of
(A) during the processing of a key this event the window
is executed with the ASCII value of the 38. Window class, onHScroll/3, defines
key pressed (A) a window is moved to a new position
(B) a menu command was selected (B) the user wants to view a floating popup
(C) a menu item is selected menu for the window
(D) a window was resized (C) an event from the vertical scrollbar of
32. Window class, onCommand/2, defines the window
(D) an event from the horizontal scrollbar of
(A) during the processing of a key this event
the window
is executed with the ASCII value of the
key pressed 39. SizerClient in window programming ?
(B) a menu command was selected (A) this type of sizer ensures that a panel
(C) a menu item is selected window fills the complete client rect-
(D) a window was resized angle of a frame window
(B) this sizer class makes a panel stick to
33. Window class, onMenuSelect/2, defines one side of a frame window and the
(A) during the processing of a key this event size of the panel window is a fixed num-
is executed with the ASCII value of the ber of pixels.
key pressed (C) this sizer ensures that a panel window
(B) a menu command was selected is percentage of the size of a frame win-
(C) a menu item is selected dow.
(D) a window was resized (D) None of these
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40. SizerFixed in window programming (C) this sizer ensures that a panel window
(A) this type of sizer ensures that a panel is percentage of the size of a frame win-
window fills the complete client rect-
dow.
angle of a frame window
(B) this sizer class makes a panel stick to (D) None of these
one side of a frame window and the
size of the panel window is a fixed num- Answer Sheet
ber of pixels
(C) this sizer ensures that a panel window 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (A)
is percentage of the size of a frame win- 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (D)
dow.
(D) None of these 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A)
41. SizerPercent in window programming 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (C)
(A) this type of sizer ensures that a panel 21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C)
window fills the complete client rect-
angle of a frame window 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (B)
(B) this sizer class makes a panel stick to 31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A)
one side of a frame window and the
size of the panel window is a fixed num- 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B)
ber of pixels. 41. (C)
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33. The activity of a file 42. You can switch back and forth between
(A) Is a low percentages of number of design and datasheet view by clicking the
records added or deleted from a file (A) queries object tab
(B) If high, reduces processing efficiency for (B) switch command on the view menu
sequential and non sequential files (C) view button
(C) Is a measure of the percentage of (D) select query title bar
existing records updated during a run 43. The table wizard
(D) Refers to how closely the files fit into the (A) Quickly creates a default report
allocated (B) Displays a subset of the data in a
34. The following statement is not valid about database
indexing (C) Contains sample tables and fields you
(A) it stores the index fields can use to create a table
(B) it stores the corresponding record (D) Automatically edits your data as you
number enter it
(C) it maintains the alphabetically order 44. The names, address, and account balance
(D) it duplicate the database file of all of your customers, select the best fit for
35. The following devices can be used to input answer
data into a database (A) record (B) file
(A) Keyboard, fax roller ball (C) database (D) key field
(B) Mouse, keyboard, monitor 45. An integrated collection of all of the data
(C) Mouse, keyboard, touch screen about your customers. Select the best fit for
(D) None of the above answer
36. The following command is used for sorting (A) Record (B) File
(A) list (B) browse (C) Database (D) Key field
(C) index (D) sort 46. An identification field in a record. Select the
37. List command is used to get best fit for answer
(A) List of database contents (A) Record (B) File
(B) List of database contents (C) Database (D) Key field
(C) List of variables used in database file 47. What is part of database that holds all of the
(D) None of the above information about one item or subject?
38. A field that uniquely identifies a record is (A) Record (B) File
called a (C) Query (D) Chart
(A) Main field (B) Header 48. What is a stored question about information
(C) Key field (D) None of above in a database?
39. Corrupted index file is corrected using (A) Record (B) Field
(A) Modifyindex (B) Recreateindex (C) Report (D) Query
(C) Reindex (D) None of the above 49. RDBMS stands for
40. The navigation buttons enable you to (A) Relational Database Management
(A) move from record to record in a table or System
form (B) Relation Data Module System
(B) move from page to page in report (C) Right Data Base Management System
(C) (A) and (B) both (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above 50. Pack command is used to
41. Different levels of access are assigned to (A) Remove records permanently
personnel records in the health and fitness (B) Remove records temporarily
gym. Only the system manager is able to (C) Restore records permanently
create delete or edit records. Certain other (D) Restore records temporarily
personnel are allowed to view all the records, 51. Modules are
whereas others are not permitted to view (A) selection of commands used to
complete records. The levels of access are automate repetitive tasks
controlled by (B) programs written in Visual C++
(A) Password (B) User ids (C) Object tabs
(C) Status (D) None of the above (D) Group of records
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86. Facilities offered by databases are 95. When you save an Access project, what file
(A) The ability to store a large amount of format do you use?
data in a structured format, easy update, (A) .adp (B) .xm.
sort, query, production of reports (C) .mdb (D) All of above
(B) Easy editing, spell check, perform 96. Which of the following criterion would find
calculations, library of mathematical records whose personality field does not
functions, replication equal Nice?
(C) The ability to rotate images, copy and (A) <>Nice (B) NOT Nice
paste, fill scale (C) <>Nice (D) IS NOT Nice
(D) None of above
97. What is the maximum character field size
87. Users who store data about real people for you can set for a field that has a text data
marketing purposes must register the data type?
and its potential use with (A) 64 (B) 255
(A) The computer misuse controller (C) 512 (D) All of above
(B) The data protection controller
(C) HM customs and excise 98. Which of the following fields would not make
(D) None of above a suitable primary key ?
(A) A date field
88. When you double click a query object, you
(B) An invoice number
open
(C) An autoNumber field
(A) The object in design view
(B) The object in print preview (D) A customers social security number
(C) The result of the query 99. Auto reports can contain each of the
(D) The underlying table on which the query following elements except
is based (A) A detail section (B) A page footer
89. Checks that are added to databases to detect (C) A group header (D) All of the above
unsuitable data on inpt are called 100. What is the abbreviation used for a software
(A) validation (B) verification package that permits the user to create,
(C) vegetation (D) none of above retrieve and maintain records in a database?
90. Auto Report allows you to (A) DASD (B) FMS
(A) View a subset of your data (C) EMMS (D) DBMS
(B) Create a simple report 101. A repository for data, usually covering some
(C) Create a data entry form specific topic is called
(D) Enter records (A) Data acquisition (B)Data bank
91. Auto Form allows you to (C) Real time (D) Database
(A) View a subset of your data 102. A notation for defining the form and structure
(B) Create a simple report
of data is known as
(C) Create a data entry form
(A) Data description language
(D) Enter records
(B) Binary language
92. The asterisk (*) is sometimes used in (C) Data channels
database queries. This character is then (D) Data definition language
called a
(A) Wildcard (B) Dummy 103. A data item, which is not broken down into
(C) Ditto (D) All of the above smaller units, is
(A) Data element
93. When performing a look-up operation using
(B) Elementary data item
a form
(A) You enter the search value into the form (C) Data entry
(B) You look at each form sequentially until (D) Database management
you see the one you want 104. Which of the following terms refers to the
(C) You type the key in an entry line, and the degree to which data in database system
correct form is displayed are accurate and correct?
(D) All of the above (A) Data security (B) Data validaity
94. Which custom date format displays the (C) Data independence (D) Data integrity
numeric day of the year when a date is 105. A repository for data, usually covering specific
entered? topic is
(A) YY (B) YYYY (A) Database (B) Data requisition
(C) Y (D) All of above (C) Data bank (D) Data collection
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106. A set of programs that handle firms data 116. DDP stands for
base responsibilities is called a (A) Distributed Double Processing
(A) Database Management System (DBMS) (B) Double Decimal Processing
(B) Database Processing System (DBPS) (C) Distributed Data Programming
(C) Data Management System (DMS) (D) Distributed Data Processing
(D) All of above
117. To see sales amount figures totaled, into
107. Which of the following is not a relational
database? which drop area would you drag that field?
(A) dBase IV (B) 4th Dimension (A) Drop column fields here
(C) FoxPro (D) Reflex (B) Drop row fields here
108. Which is used to provide the sight (C) Drop data items here
information to the right person at the right (D) None of the above
time for proper decision making ? 118. Which access feature do you use to develop
(A) DBMS (B) MIS applications that host access data on the
(C) ISO (D) PSO web?
109. Dbase-III was developed by (A) Dynamic web data
(A) Dec (B) IBM (B) Data access pates
(C) Ashton-tate (D) All of the above (C) Html data pages
110. Which of the following database objects asks (D) None of the above
a question of information in a database and 119. What is the common name for a column of
then displays the result?
data within an Access table?
(A) Tables (B) Reports
(C) Queries (D) Forms (A) Field (B) Record
(C) Row (D) None of the above
111. What data type should you choose for a zip
code field in a table? 120. A data structure consisting of several fields,
(A) Text (B) Number some or all of which are instances of the
(C) Memo (D) All of above same data structure, is called
112. A list consists of last names, first names, (A) Field (B) Bead
address and pin codes if all people in the (C) Database (D) Data collection
list have the same last and the same pin 121. A group of characters used to identiry a given
code, a useful key would be low level instruction is
(A) The pin code (A) File (B) Record
(B) The last name
(C) A compound key consisting of the first (C) Key field (D) Label
name and the last name 122. One or more characters used to identify a
(D) All of the above data field in a computer program is
113. What happens when you add the asterisk (() (A) File name (B) Database
from any field list ot a query? (C) Label (D) Group
(A) The table will not include any fields from 123. In Form view, which command displays
the table records alphabetically?
(B) The query sorts the tables record in the
order you specify (A) Find (B) Advanced Filter/Sort
(C) The query will include every field from (C) Sort (D) All of the above
the table* 124. Where do report and forms get their
(D) The query uses the records from the information form?
table without displaying them (A) Forms (B) Modules
114. The modify operation is likely to be done after (C) Tables (D) Queries
(A) delete (B) look up 125. The number of logical records in a physical
(C) insert (D) all of above
record is
115. The criteria BETWEEN 1/1/99 and 12/31/99 (A) group (B) blocking factor
would which is proper (C) sector (D) field
(A) Display records between the dates 1/2/
99 and 1/1/00 126. A top to bottom relationship among the items
(B) Display records between the dates 1/1/ in a database is established by a
99 and 12/31/99 (A) Hierarchical schema
(C) Display records whose dates equaled (B) Network Schema
1/1/99 or 12/31/99 (C) Relational schema
(D) All of the above (D) All of the above
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127. A command that lets you cange one or more 135. The way a particular application views the
fields in a record is data from the database that the applicaton
(A) Insert (B) Modify uses is a
(C) Look up (D) All of the above (A) Module (B) Relational model
128. A logical schema (C) Schema (D) Sub-schema
(A) Is the entire database 136. Which of the following is a database
(B) Is a standard way of organizing management system?
information into accessible parts (A) Ms-Word (B) Lotus 1-2-3
(C) Describes how data is actually stored (C) Oracle (D) None of above
on disk 137. What is the corresponding text for the <#1/1/
(D) All of the above 95# validation rule setting?
129. What is the purpose of the page field on a (A) Neter a value less or more than 1,195
pivot table report? (B) Value must be less than 95 characters
(A) It creates a new page for each type of (C) Enter a date before 1995
data (D) All of above
(B) It allows the data within the the Pivot 138. What is the name of the Visual Basic Editor
Table report to be filtered utility that allows you to view the Microsoft
(C) It displays a title for the Pivot Table report Access type librarys available objects and
(D) None of the above members?
130. What does the Special Effect button on the (A) Object Viewer (B) Object Browser
formatting toolbar do? (C) Type Library Spy (D) None of above
(A) It lets you add animation to your forms 139. A computer language for informing the DBMS
and reports to make them more regarding the data structure used is
entertaining and amusing (A) PASCAL (B) DDL
(B) It lets you select a transitional effect for (C) PROLOG (D) FORTRAN
how a form opens and closes. 140. Which of the following is not a data type ?
(C) It applies a 30d effect to a selected (A) Picture/graphic (B) Data/time
control (C) Texst (D) Number
(D) None of these
141. The executive responsible for the data
131. Pivot Table report data must meet which of processing function in an organization is
the following criteria? (A) PM (B) DBMS
(A) It must be in tabular form, have unique (C) DP (D) DPM
column labels, and each row must 142. Which of the following is NOT a type of
represent a unique piece of data Microsoft Access database object?
(B) Any dates should be formatted with the (A) Queries (B) Workbooks
data format and blank rows or columns (C) Forms (D) Tables
should be removed
(C) It must be in tabular form, have unique 143. A file containing relatively permanent data is
column lagels, and all rows must be (A) Random file (B) Transaction file
sorted (C) Master file (D) Sequential file
(D) Both (A) and (B) 144. The complete picture of data stored in
132. Customers, Orders. Whats their best database is known as
relationship? (A) Record (B) Scheme
(A) Many-to-many (B) One-to-one (C) System flowchart (D) DBMS
(C) One-to-many (D) All of the above 145. A subset of characters within a data field is
133. Which control does access use to link data known as
access page components to access data? (A) Record (B) File
(A) Microsoft Dynamic Data Control (C) Data string (D) Byte
(B) Microsoft Data Connection Control 146. Data items groped together for storage
(C) Microsoft Office Data Source Control purposes are called a
(D) None of the above (A) Record (B) Title
134. Which program do you use to edit code for (C) List (D) string
data access pages? 147. Which of the following terms does not
(A) Microsoft script editor describe a database structure used by a
(B) Microsoft code editor DBMS to link data from several files?
(C) Microsoft data access pages editor (A) Relational (B) Structural
(D) None of above (C) Network (D) All of the above
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148. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided 156. Which action will optimize your database
into fields called performance?
(A) Relations (B) Domains (A) Set the record set type to Snapshot
(C) Queries (D) All of the above (B) Use the compact and repair database
149. How do you filter by selection? tool
(A) Right click the field value and select filter (C) Create a replica of the database
by selection from the shortcut menu (D) All of the above
(B) Find and double click the value on which 157. The arranging of data in a logical sequence
you want to base the filter is called
(C) Find and select the value on which you (A) Sorting (B) Classifying
want to base the filter and select (C) Reproducing (D) Summarizing
tools>filter by selection from the menu
(D) None of the above 158. If a piece of data is stored in two places in
the database, then a
150. What is a fast way to adjust the width of a (A) Storage space is wasted
column? (B) Changing the data is one spot will cause
(A) Right click the left side of the column data inconsistency
heading
(B) Double click the left side of the column (C) It can be more easily accessed
heading (D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Double click the right side of the column 159. A relational database management
heading (RDBMS) package manages data in more
(D) Select tools>adjust column width from than one file at once. How does it organize
the menu these file? As
151. What are the columns in a Microsoft Access (A) Tables (B) Relations
table called? (C) Tuple (D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Rows (B) Fields
(C) Cells (D) Records Answer Sheet
152. How do you update Pivot Table report data 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B)
after changes are made to the source data? 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (D)
(A) Save your changes, close the workbook, 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A)
and then reopen it. 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C)
(B) Select the Pivot Table worksheet and 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (D)
press F9 on the keyboard 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (C)
(C) Click the report, and on the Pivot Table 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C)
toolbar, click the refresh data button 36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (C)
(D) All of the above 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (B)
153. In access, the best types of queries to use 46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (A)
for data analysis are: 51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (A)
(A) Select queries (B) Parameter queries 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (B)
(C) Action queries (D) All of the above 61. (C) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (B) 65. (D)
66. (B) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (D)
154. How can you add a table to the relationship 71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (A)
window? 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (A) 79. (C) 80. (B)
(A) Select Tools>Add table from the menu 81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (A) 84. (D) 85. (A)
(B) Select the table from the table list on the 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (B)
toolbar
(D) Click the show table button on the 91. (B) 92. (A) 93. (D) 94. (C) 95. (A)
toolbar 96. (C) 97. (B) 98. (A) 99. (D) 100. (D)
(D) Select Edit>Add table from the menu 101. (B) 102. (D) 103. (B) 104. (D) 105. (C)
106. (D) 107. (D) 108. (B) 109. (C) 110. (C)
155. What is the first step in creating a form or 111. (A) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (B)
report with the form wizard or report wizard?
(A) Selecting the fields that you want to 116. (D) 117. (C) 118. (B) 119. (A) 120. (B)
appear in the form or report 121. (D) 122. (C) 123. (C) 124. (C) 125. (D)
(B) Selecting the underlying table or query 126. (A) 127. (B) 128. (B) 129. (B) 130. (C)
on which you want to base the form or 131. (D) 132. (C) 133. (C) 134. (A) 135. (D)
report 136. (C) 137. (A) 138. (B) 139. (B) 140. (A)
(C) Reading several screens of mostly 141. (B) 142. (B) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (C)
useless information and clicking next 146. (A) 147. (B) 148. (B) 149. (A) 150. (C)
(D) Selecting how the form or report should 151. (B) 152. (C) 153. (A) 154. (B) 155. (B)
be formatted 156. (B) 157. (A) 158. (D) 159. (D)