Chapter 10

Chapter 10Product, Branding, and Packaging Concepts
ESSAY
1. What is a product?
ANS:
Answer not provided.
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

OBJ: 10-01 Understand the concept of a product and how products are classified.
NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Product MSC: Knowledge
2. Describe and illustrate the four major categories of consumer products.
ANS:
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

3. Distinguish between consumer products and business products.
ANS:
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product MSC: Knowledge
4. Discuss the implications for a firm's marketing strategy of classifying a product as a convenience,
shopping, specialty, or unsought item.
ANS:
PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult

NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Strategy MSC: Comprehension
5. Identify and describe the major categories of business products.
ANS:
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
NAT: AACSB: Communication | MKTG: Product MSC: Knowledge
6. Discuss the dimensions of a product mix.
ANS:

OBJ: 10-02 Explain the concepts of product item, product line, and product mix, and understand how
they are connected. NAT: AACSB: Communication | MKTG: Product
MSC: Knowledge
7. For each product life cycle stage, discuss the strategic implications.
ANS:

OBJ: 10-03 Understand the product life cycle and its umpact on marketing strategies.
NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Strategy MSC: Knowledge
8. Discuss the marketing efforts that are likely to be used during the growth stage of the product life
cycle.
ANS:

NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Strategy MSC: Knowledge
9. Why do products fail?
ANS:

10. What is brand loyalty? Explain the three degrees of brand loyalty.
ANS:
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
OBJ: 10-05 Explain the value of branding and the major components of brand equity.
11. Discuss the issues marketers should consider when selecting a brand name. Give specific examples.
ANS:

OBJ: 10-06 Recognize the types of brands and how they are selected and protected.
NAT: AACSB: Communication | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Strategy | MKTG: Marketing Plan
MSC: Application
12. Discuss the branding policies marketers can use. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each?
ANS:

OBJ: 10-07 Identify two types of branding policies, explain brand extensions, co-branding, and brand
licensing. NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Strategy
MSC: Knowledge
13. What functions do packages perform? Why are packaging considerations important to marketers?
ANS:

OBJ: 10-08 Describe the major packaging functions and design considerations as well as how
packaging is used in marketing strategies. NAT: AACSB: Communication | MKTG: Product
MSC: Knowledge
MULTIPLE CHOICE
14. A(n) ____ is a concept, philosophy, or image.

a. product
b. good
c. idea
d. service
e. issue
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
15. According to the text, a product is defined as
a. anything the customer receives in an exchange.
b. the physical object the customer receives in an exchange.
c. the service that is rendered to a customer.
d. the idea that the customer receives in an exchange.
e. goods and services the customer receives in an exchange.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
16. To make intangible products more tangible or real to the consumer, marketers often
a. use low prices on intangible goods.
b. use symbols or cues to help symbolize product benefits.
c. use external reference prices.
d. use multiple channels of distribution.
e. offer more support services with such products.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
NAT: AACSB: Communication | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Marketing Plan
MSC: Knowledge
17. Which of the following best illustrates how a firm can use a symbol to make an intangible product
more tangible?
a. McDonald's arches
b. Mercedes Benz emblem
c. Nike swoosh
d. Traveler's Insurance umbrella
e. Arrows on Wrigley gum packages
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Marketing Plan
MSC: Application
18. A light bulb can be considered all of the following except

a. a consumer product.
b. a business product.
c. either a consumer product or a business product.
d. a business product if it is used to light an assembly line in a factory.
e. a consumer product if it is used to light the office of the board of directors.
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product MSC: Comprehension
19. Products are classified as being business or consumer products according to the
a. goals of the organization.
b. buyer's intended use of the product.
c. seller's intended use of the product.
d. location of use.
e. types of outlets from which they are purchased.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
20. Which of the following is most likely to be considered a convenience good?

a. A lamp
b. A haircut
c. Running shoes
d. Gatorade
e. Concert tickets purchased online
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product MSC: Application
21. Energizer batteries would be classified as which type of product?

a. Convenience
b. Shopping
c. Specialty
d. Unsought
e. Industrial service
22. Products which are relatively inexpensive and frequently purchased with minimal effort are classified
as ____ products.
a. shopping
b. convenience
c. industrial
d. specialty
e. unsought
23. Convenience products are

a. relatively inexpensive, frequently purchased items for which buyers exert only minimal
purchasing effort.
b. frequently purchased items for which buyers are willing to exert considerable effort.
c. frequently purchased items that are found in certain retail outlets.
d. items that are expensive but are easy to purchase.
e. items that require some purchase planning and for which the buyer often will not accept
substitutes.
24. Products for which buyers are willing to spend much time comparing stores and brands for differences
in prices, product features, and services are called ____ products.
a. shopping
b. specialty
c. service
d. convenience
e. unsought
25. Shannon Hill needed to buy an airline ticket to visit her parents. She called several airlines to compare
rates and chose a flight on Southwest Air Lines because, for comparable prices, it had a better
reputation for service. For Shannon, this flight is an example of which type of product?
a. Shopping
b. Convenience
c. Specialty
d. Unsought
e. Industrial
26. Shopping products have a ____ inventory turnover and need ____ distribution outlets than
convenience goods.
a. similar; more
b. higher; fewer
c. higher; more
d. lower; more
e. lower; fewer
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
27. Buyers do not compare alternatives when shopping for ____ products.
a. convenience
b. specialty
c. shopping
d. unique
e. unsought
28. The Carsons are going on a vacation back to Texas. When they lived there, Gwen Carson loved Blue
Bell Cookies. Blue Bell is sold only in Texas. She plans to buy two boxes at the first store she visits
after they arrive. For Gwen, Blue Bell represents a(n) ____ product.
a. convenience
b. shopping
c. specialty
d. unsought
e. durable
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
29. David Wilson is an avid collector of Major League Baseball memorabilia. He greatly desires to own
the "special" bat that got the slugger Sammy Sosa a seven-game suspension due to its illegal contents.
This is an example of a(n) ____ product.
a. shopping
b. unique
c. specialty
d. historical
e. unsought
30. When a sudden problem confronts a consumer, such as emergency automobile repair, he or she is
likely going to view solutions to that problem as
a. specialty products.
b. installations.
c. unsought products.
d. shopping products.
e. convenience products.
31. Nick Arnold's Auto Towing Service would best be described as a(n) ____ product.
a. convenience
b. unsought
c. specialty
d. durable
e. shopping
32. Business products are

a. purchased for personal consumption.
b. chosen on the basis of preferences expressed by a business procurement department.
c. purchased for both their functional aspects and their psychological rewards.
d. classified according to their characteristics and intended uses.
e. not purchased by nonbusiness organizations.
33. Facilities, factories, and production lines with very large equipment are all classified as
a. accessory equipment.
b. permanents.
c. installations.
d. component parts.
e. MRO facilities.
34. As the production manager of an engineering firm, you went out and bought a metal cutting machine.
What you have purchased can best be classified as a
a. raw material.
b. processed component.
c. component part.
d. service.
e. business product.
35. An accountant buys a supply of pencils to be used in calculating the taxes of other business firms.
Based on this information, pencils in this case would be considered what type of product?
a. Business
b. Process materials
c. Raw material
d. Convenience
e. Consumer
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
36. Business products are classified into the following seven categories according to characteristics and
intended uses: raw materials, installations, accessory equipment, component parts, process materials,
business services, and
a. production activities.
b. service assistance.
c. specialty industrial products.
d. computer programming and operation services.
e. MRO supplies.
37. Minerals, chemicals, timber, and agricultural products are considered

a. process materials.
b. accessory materials.
c. MRO supplies.
d. component parts.
e. raw materials.
38. A distributor of plumbing supplies purchases a desktop computer to aid in inventory control. This
computer is an example of which type of business product?
a. Raw material
b. Installations
c. Accessory equipment
d. Component part
e. Process material
39. Although they become part of a larger product, ____ can often be easily identified and distinguished
on the larger product.
a. component parts
b. accessory parts
c. raw materials
d. process materials
e. MRO supplies
40. A set of Bose car speakers sold to Ford for use in the production of a hybrid Escape, would be an
example of a(n)
a. component part.
b. specialty item.
c. accessory equipment.
d. raw material.
e. process material.
41. The intangible products that most organizations use in their operations are called
a. component parts.
b. MRO supplies.
c. process ideas.
d. business services.
e. installations.
42. Products used directly in the production of a final product but are not easily identifiable are
categorized as
a. accessory products.
b. component parts.
c. MRO supplies.
d. assembly components.
e. process materials.
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult
43. A product item is best described as a

a. component of a marketing mix.
b. particular brand.
c. specific characteristic of a product.
d. specific version of a product.
e. unit of measure for the product.
they are connected. NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Product
MSC: Knowledge
44. Sara Lee Corporation manufactures desserts, breads, pantyhose, meats, and a variety of other products.
These products make up Sara Lee's product
a. line.
b. item.
c. mix.
d. width.
e. depth.
MSC: Knowledge
45. A product line is defined as

a. products that can be designated as a unique offering among the organization's products.
b. products that an organization makes available to consumers.
c. a group of closely related products that are considered a unit because of marketing,
technical, or end-use considerations.
d. a specific group of products that are offered to the market.
e. products that are sold by the same firm or a division of a firm.
MSC: Knowledge
46. A product mix is best described as

a. all products offered by a firm.
b. product, distribution, promotion, and price.
c. many products sold by one firm.
d. all products of a particular type.
e. a group of closely related products that are considered a unit because of market, technical,
or end-use considerations.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult
MSC: Knowledge
47. Procter & Gamble makes at least eight different laundry detergents. This is most relevant to the issue
of
a. width of product mix.
b. product mix consistency.
c. depth of product mix.
d. a market mix.
e. a promotion mix.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult
they are connected. NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product
MSC: Application
48. The depth of a product mix is measured by the average number of

a. convenience products as compared with the number of specialty products.
b. different product lines offered by the company.
c. different products offered in each product line.
d. specialty products as compared with the number of convenience products.
e. product features that the company offers.
MSC: Knowledge
49. Hershey Foods Corp. offers a line of candy that includes Kit Kat, Mr. Goodbar, Krackel, Hershey's
Kisses, Reese's Peanut Butter Cups, Rolo, and Twizzlers. These candies best illustrate Hershey's
product mix
a. width.
b. depth.
c. length.
d. volume.
e. life cycle.
MSC: Application
50. One company markets such diverse products as Rosarita Mexican foods, Max Factor cosmetics, and
Samsonite luggage. These various offerings exhibit this firm's product mix
a. width.
b. depth.
c. length.
d. volume.
e. dimension.
MSC: Application
51. The width of a product mix is measured by the number of product

a. dimensions in the product line.
b. features in each brand.
c. items in the product line.
d. lines a company offers.
e. specialties a company offers.
MSC: Knowledge
52. The four major stages of a product life cycle include

a. prosperity, recession, depression, and recovery.
b. specialty, convenience, shopping, and unsought goods.
c. decline, stabilization, exposure, and growth.
d. introduction, growth, maturity, and decline.
e. awareness, interest, trial, and adoption.
53. Sales start at zero and profits are negative during the ____ stage of the product life cycle.
a. decline
b. growth
c. initial
d. maturity
e. introduction
54. During the introduction stage of a successful product, profits are usually
a. at their highest point.
b. negative and decreasing.
c. negative and increasing.
d. positive and increasing.
e. declining.
55. Which of the following is the most typical example of a new product introduction?
a. Pringles sold in snack-sized containers
b. A brand-new nut discovered in Africa
c. A car that uses no oil or gasoline
d. Shoes that literally make you run faster
e. A device that cools your car while parked outside
NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Marketing Plan
MSC: Application
56. In which stage of the product life cycle do profits peak?

a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Decline
d. Termination
e. Maturity
57. In which stage of the product life cycle do profits begin to decrease?
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline
e. Recovery
58. Which stage of the product life cycle begins when a business reaches the breakeven point with the
product?
a. Maturity
b. Growth
c. Introduction
d. Market testing
e. Decline
59. Which stage in the product life cycle is critical to a product's survival because competitive reactions to
the product's success during this period will affect the product's life expectancy?
a. Decline
b. Expansion
c. Growth
d. Introduction
e. Stabilization
60. Aggressive pricing is typical during the ____ stage of the product life cycle.
a. decline
b. growth
c. introduction
d. plateau
e. stabilization
NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Pricing
MSC: Knowledge
61. Which of the following tactics would typically be employed when a product is in the growth stage of
its life cycle?
a. Lowering prices after developmental costs have been recovered
b. Raising promotion expenditures as a percentage of total sales
c. Moving from intensive to selective distribution
d. Raising prices to encourage competitors to enter the market
e. Reducing the number of product models in the product line
NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Strategy | MKTG: Pricing MSC: Comprehension
62. When a business finds itself squeezed out of a market for a product or loses interest in that product, it
is a sign of being in the ____ stage of the product life cycle.
a. maturity
b. growth
c. introduction
d. market reduction
e. decline
63. During the maturity stage

a. product modifications are unnecessary.
b. there is less emphasis on changing a product's price.
c. marketing strategies are rarely altered.
d. some competitors are forced out.
e. limited advertising expenditures are required to maintain market share.
64. Which stage of the product life cycle is characterized by intense competition?
a. Decline
b. Plateau
c. Introduction
d. Maturity
e. Stabilization
65. When banks add new services during the maturity stage, the objective they are most likely trying to
achieve is
a. pruning items from the product line.
b. generating cash flow.
c. maintaining their market share.
d. filling geographic gaps.
e. increasing their share of the customer.
NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Strategy MSC: Knowledge
66. Sales usually start to decline during the ____ stage of the product life cycle.
a. beginning of the termination
b. end of the growth
c. beginning of the decline
d. beginning of the growth
e. end of the maturity
67. When Clorox introduced bleach in a no-drip bottle, the firm was taking action consistent with its
product being in the ____ stage of the product life cycle.
a. introduction
b. growth
c. stabilization
d. maturity
e. decline
68. Which of the following stages of the product life cycle is likely to see dealers offered promotional
assistance from the producer?
a. Maturity
b. Growth
c. Introduction
d. Market reduction
e. Decline
NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Strategy
MSC: Knowledge
69. The producers of Schick razor blades use a marketing strategy that includes large advertising
expenditures and more price flexibility for the various types of blades offered. Based on this example,
razor blades are in the ____ stage of the product life cycle.
a. decline
b. evaluation
c. growth
d. introduction
e. maturity
NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Strategy MSC: Application
70. Dish Network satellite TV cut back advertising expenditures to minimum levels and reduced the
number of channel members for its industrial satellite product. These actions indicate that its product is
in the ____ stage of its life cycle.
a. introduction
b. growth
c. maturity
d. early
e. decline
71. The stage of the product life cycle when marketers consider eliminating products that are not
contributing to profitability or the overall effectiveness of a product mix is the ____ stage.
a. maturity
b. decline
c. growth
d. introduction
e. reorganization
72. Weyerhaeuser is evaluating its complete product mix. It wishes to decrease some of its marketing
expenditures and streamline its product offerings. Weyerhaeuser will most likely look at products in the
____ stage of the product life cycle as possibilities for elimination.
a. not yet developed
b. growth
c. introduction
d. maturity
e. decline
73. A firm with a product in the decline stage of the product life cycle may decide to gradually reduce
marketing expenditures and realign its marketing mix to one that requires fewer resources. This
approach is called
a. harvesting.
b. investing.
c. realigning.
d. divesting.
e. mixing.
NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Strategy
MSC: Knowledge
74. When Sony realized its CD players were in the decline stage, it decided to immediately withdraw all of
its marketing support from these declining products, an approach known as
a. harvesting.
b. divesting.
c. investing.
d. realigning.
e. squashing.
NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Strategy MSC: Application
75. Which of the following best defines the interest stage in the product adoption process?
a. The buyer tries to find the product in a retail store.
b. The buyer considers the benefits and determines whether to try the product.
c. The buyer tries the product to determine its usefulness.
d. The buyer seeks information and is receptive to learning about the product.
e. The buyer uses objective sources to learn about the product.
OBJ: 10-04 Describe the product adoption process.
NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Customer MSC: Comprehension
76. As Jessica enters Best Buy's car electronics department, she is asked by the salesperson if she has seen
the new plug-in cell phones with TV display. She answers that she didn't know that this type of phone
accessory for cars was available. Based on this information, she is now in what stage of the product
adoption process for this item?
a. Awareness
b. Interest
c. Evaluation
d. Trial
e. Adoption
NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Customer MSC: Application
77. Which of the following is not a stage in the buyer's product adoption process?
a. Awareness
b. Adoption
c. Trial
d. Exploration
e. Interest
NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Customer MSC: Knowledge
78. When Saturn offers to let qualified buyers test drive the new Saturn SKY roadster, the dealer is trying
to stimulate which stage of the product adoption process?
a. Awareness
b. Interest
c. Evaluation
d. Trial
e. Adoption
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult
79. When Minute Maid mailed out free samples of its new instant drink mix, it was trying to move
prospective customers into the ____ stage of the product adoption process.
a. awareness
b. interest
c. evaluation
d. trial
e. adoption
80. An individual knows that a product exists, but has little information regarding the product and does not
seek additional information. In what stage of the product adoption process is that person?
a. Trial
b. Adoption
c. Interest
d. Awareness
e. Evaluation
81. When an individual considers whether a product will meet certain criteria that are critical for meeting
his or her needs, in what stage of the product adoption process is this individual?
a. Interest
b. Awareness
c. Evaluation
d. Trial
e. Adoption
82. An individual moves into the adoption stage of the adoption process at the point when he or she
a. is self-motivated to get information about the product.
b. begins using that specific product.
c. seriously considers whether the product will satisfy his or her needs.
d. experiences the product for the first time.
e. becomes aware that the product exists.
83. Depending on the length of time it takes them to adopt a new product, people can be divided into five
major adopter categories: early adopters, early majority, late majority, laggards, and
a. late adopters.
b. nonadopters.
c. innovators.
d. middle adopters.
e. middle majority.
84. The last group to adopt a new product, ____, is oriented toward the past and is suspicious of new
products.
a. non-adopters
b. laggards
c. innovators
d. late adopters
e. late majority
85. When Jones' Soda launched its Turkey Gravy flavored soda, it was hoping to take advantage of the
short-lived clear-products fad. By the time it launched the soda, the fad for quirky soda flavors had
already waned, and customers were no longer clamoring for these type of products. The reason this
product failed is
a. poor timing.
b. the company's failure to match product offerings to customer needs.
c. ineffective branding.
d. design problems.
e. overestimation of market size.
86. All of the following are reasons why new products fail except
a. overestimated market size.
b. followed a systematic plan.
c. distributed insufficiently.
d. had poor timing.
e. promoted poorly.
87. The part of a brand that can be spoken including letters, numbers, and words is the
a. brand.
b. brand mark.
c. brand name.
d. trade name.
e. trademark.
88. Kleenex Boutique is a brand ____ of tissues made by the Kimberly-Clark Corporation.
a. mark
b. identification
c. name
d. guarantee
e. type
89. McDonald's golden arches are a classic example of a

a. brand.
b. brand symbol.
c. brand name.
d. brand mark.
e. trademark.
90. A distinguishing factor between a brand name and a brand mark is that a brand name
a. creates customer loyalty.
b. consists of words.
c. identifies only one item in the product mix.
d. is registered with the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office.
e. implies an organization's name.
91. Healthy Choice is a ____ manufactured by ConAgra Foods, which is a ____.

a. brand mark; trade name
b. brand name; trade name
c. trade name; brand
d. brand name; trademark
e. brand mark; trademark
92. A trademark signifies
a. that the owner has exclusive use of a brand and others are prohibited from using it.
b. that a product was manufactured by a particular company.
c. the full and legal name of an organization.
d. the level of quality of a product based on its legally protected rights.
e. the inventive use of a brand name or brand mark to identify a company's products.
93. Brand ____ is a customer's favorable attitude toward a specific brand and, depending on its strength,
some likelihood of the consistent purchase of this brand.
a. loyalty
b. equity
c. awareness
d. personality
e. quality
94. The three levels of brand loyalty from strongest to weakest are
a. preference, insistence, recognition.
b. insistence, recognition, preference.
c. insistence, preference, recognition.
d. recognition, preference, insistence.
e. insistence, preference, indifference.
95. Melissa needs some spaghetti sauce and always buy Ragu. However, her local supermarket is out of
Ragu and since Melissa wants to get home to cook dinner she settles for Prego. Melissa has brand
____ for Ragu and brand ____ for Prego.
a. insistence; recognition
b. insistence; preference
c. loyalty; preference
d. preference; recognition
e. preference; loyalty
NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Customer MSC: Application
96. Which of the following products is an example of a manufacturer brand?

a. Sears Kenmore washing machines
b. JC Penney jeans
c. Kmart tires
d. Pioneer stereos
e. Safeway tomato sauce
97. Private distributor, generic, and manufacturer are the three types of
a. equity.
b. brands.
c. producers.
d. packaging.
e. trade names.
98. A ____ brand usually requires a producer to become involved in distribution, promotion, and pricing
decisions.
a. dealer
b. manufacturer
c. private distributor
d. store
e. wholesaler
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult
99. Private distributor brands are owned by

a. manufacturers only.
b. manufacturers and retailers.
c. wholesalers only.
d. manufacturers and wholesalers.
e. wholesalers or retailers.
100. A product that is simply labeled with the product category is considered a
a. private brand.
b. no-name product.
c. generic brand.
d. poor quality item.
e. lean manufacturer brand.
101. A product that is simply labeled with the product category is considered a
a. private brand.
b. no-name product.
c. generic brand.
d. poor quality item.
e. lean manufacturer brand.
102. Which of the following should be the least important concern for marketers when selecting a brand
name?
a. Choosing a name that is easy to say and recall
b. Positively suggesting the product's major benefits
c. Designing a name that can be used in all different types of media
d. Developing an advertising campaign to introduce the name
e. Checking to see if the name is already trademarked by another company
103. Which of the following is a primary factor specific to services in choosing a brand name?
a. The service brand is usually the same as the company name so it must be flexible enough
to fit several services.
b. The name must convey an image of great customer service because this is more important
for services than for goods.
c. The name should be distinctive and set the company apart from potential competitors.
d. Shortness and conciseness are extremely important when choosing brand names for
services so that they can easily be remembered.
e. Service brands are much more difficult to protect legally, so marketers must focus on
creating brands with made-up words or a combination of letters and numbers.
NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Product| MKTG: Strategy
MSC: Knowledge
104. Besides generic names, what other types of names are very difficult to protect?
a. Names created by the company
b. Surnames and geographic names
c. Arbitrarily chosen names not related to the product
d. Arbitrarily chosen names related closely to the product
e. Names that contain shapes and colors
105. When a firm uses a policy of naming each product differently, this strategy is called ____ branding.
a. brand-extension
b. family
c. differentiated
d. individual
e. new-product
licensing. NAT: AACSB: Communication | MKTG: Product| MKTG: Strategy
MSC: Knowledge
106. R. J. Reynolds markets several brands of cigarettes, including Vantage, Camel, Winston, and Salem.
This is an example of which type of branding policy?
a. Generic
b. Individual
c. Family
d. Line family
e. Brand extension
licensing. NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product
MSC: Application
107. When ____ branding is used, each of a firm's products is branded with at least part of the same name.
a. individual
b. trademark
c. family
d. selective
e. brand-extension
MSC: Knowledge
108. When Anheuser-Busch added Michelob Light to the line of Michelob beers, the firm was using ____
branding.
a. brand-extension
b. individual
c. exclusive
d. selective
e. existing
MSC: Application
109. When a firm uses an existing brand name as part of a brand name for a new product, this is called ____
branding.
a. brand-extension
b. licensed
c. family
d. individual
e. new-product
MSC: Comprehension
110. An agreement in which one company allows another to use its brand on other products for a fee is
called
a. co-branding.
b. brand extension.
c. brand licensing.
d. trademark licensing.
e. cooperative branding.
licensing. NAT: AACSB: Communication | MKTG: Product
MSC: Knowledge
111. If Ralph Lauren, a designer of fine clothing, authorized Dan River Mills to market a line of sheets
under the Ralph Lauren namethis arrangement is an example of
a. brand extension.
b. brand licensing.
c. product continuation.
d. private branding.
e. individual branding.
MSC: Application
112. To use co-branding effectively, which one of the following is probably least important?
a. The brands involved should represent a complementary fit in a customer's mind.
b. The brands that are teamed together should not lose their individual identities.
c. The brands involved should be owned by two or more organizations.
d. To avoid confusion on the part of customers, co-branding should be done in a way so that
it is obvious which brand is the main brand or key brand.
e. The co-branded product should be able to benefit from the distribution system of both
brands involved.
licensing. NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Strategy
MSC: Knowledge
113. When a product tries to capitalize on the brand equity of two separate brands, marketers are using
a. licensing.
b. dual-branding.
c. partnerships.
d. brand extension.
e. co-branding.
licensing. NAT: AACSB: Communication | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Strategy
MSC: Knowledge
114. The development of a container and graphic design for a product is called
a. licensing.
b. labeling.
c. preparing.
d. packaging.
e. distributing.
MSC: Knowledge
115. In marketing, family packaging means

a. packaging products in a quantity suitable for use for an average-sized family.
b. putting a set of related products all in the same package.
c. making all of a company's or product line's packaging look similar.
d. putting the same brand name on all a company's products.
e. designing and selling only products that are related.
packaging is used in marketing strategies.
NAT: AACSB: Communication | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Strategy
MSC: Knowledge
116. The most important function of packaging is

a. offering convenience to customers.
b. protecting the product and maintaining its functionality.
c. covering the product.
d. communicating information to the customer.
e. attracting the attention of the customer.
MSC: Knowledge
117. Packaging is most important, as a strategic tool, for
a. consumer convenience products.
b. consumer shopping products.
c. industrial products.
d. consumer specialty products.
e. services.
118. The spray bottle for Windex Glass Cleaner could be considered a secondary-use package because
a. its shape is ideal for multiple-unit packaging.
b. glass cleaner works on chrome as well as glass.
c. the spray nozzle has an adjustable valve.
d. customers can reuse it for other purposes.
e. it has a shape similar to other glass cleaner bottles.
packaging is used in marketing strategies. NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product
MSC: Application
119. A secondary-use package is defined as one that

a. can be used as a promotional tool.
b. can be reused for purposes other than its initial use.
c. facilitates transportation, storage, and handling for middlemen.
d. is recyclable and environmentally safe.
e. promotes an overall company image.
MSC: Knowledge
120. ____ packaging means that the product is packaged in line with the packaging practices associated
with a particular product category.
a. Category-consistent
b. Category-specific
c. Innovative
d. Multiple-category
e. Selective
MSC: Knowledge
121. A no-drip spout on a bottle of liquid Tide laundry detergent is an example of ____ packaging.
a. category-consistent
b. innovative
c. traditional
d. secondary-use
e. convenience
MSC: Application
122. Multiple packaging is

a. likely to decrease serving size.
b. the same as family packaging.
c. likely to increase demand.
d. the most effective type of packaging for decreasing demand.
e. the most expensive type of packaging.
MSC: Knowledge
123. Nathan recently purchased a floor lamp from Wal-Mart. The floor lamp came in a compact cardboard
box and assembly was required. This is an example of ____ packaging.
a. secondary-use
b. multiple
c. category-consistent
d. innovative
e. handling-improved
MSC: Application
124. Packaging that is designed to flow through the distribution channel easily is called ____ packaging.
a. category-consistent
b. multiple
c. innovative
d. handling-improved
e. logistic
NAT: AACSB: Communication | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Distribution
MSC: Knowledge
125. Labeling is important for three specific reasons, including promotional and legal reasons. What is the
third reason?
a. Marketing
b. Branding
c. Strategy
d. Informational
e. Packaging
OBJ: 10-09 Understand the functions of labeling and selected legal issues.
126. Federal laws require the disclosure of nutritional information on labels. So far, evidence on this matter
a. indicate that consumers regularly use the information.
b. have been conducted only by the federal government.
c. have shown mixed results about the use of this information.
d. prove that labels are necessary only for promotional reasons.
e. indicate that consumers do not use the information.
127. Garments must be labeled with the country of manufacture, fabric content, and
a. clothing style.
b. size.
c. inspection code.
d. care instructions.
e. universal product code.
128. The Fair Packaging and Labeling Act focuses on the voluntary adoption of packaging standards by
firms within industries. It also provides enforcement power to the Federal Trade Commission and the
Food and Drug Administration, and establishes
a. specific package colors for selected product categories.
b. package design approval procedures.
c. mandatory labeling requirements.
d. designated package sizes for certain product categories.
e. packaging regulations from the Consumer Product Safety Commission.
Scenario 11.1
Use the following to answer the questions.
Gillette shaving razors were first manufactured in 1895. Over the years, Gillette made improvements
on their razors offering many "firsts" such as the Mach3, the Sensor, and the Fusion. For many years,
women were forced to use razors designed primarily for men, but often marketed to women by
offering them in different colors and with minimal modifications. In 1998 Gillette developed the Venus
razor, based on the Mach3 but made specifically for women. Gillette promoted the Venus razor
heavily, with television ads and other forms of media. The Gillette product line, now owned by Procter
& Gamble, continues to introduce new versions of the Venus, such as the Venus Embrace, which has
additional blades and other modifications.
129. Refer to Scenario 11.1. Shaving razors fall into which of the following classification of consumer
products?
a. Convenience products
b. Shopping products
c. Substitute products
d. Specialty products
e. Accessory equipment
130. Refer to Scenario 11.1. When Gillette developed the Venus razor in 1998, in which stage of the product
life cycle was the Venus?
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Profit
d. Maturity
e. Decline
131. Refer to Scenario 11.1. Molly has been using a Bic disposable razor for her shaving needs for the last
ten years. She doesn't really see the need to spend more money on razors, but she sees that it is
becoming more difficult to find the Bic, and so she is considering the Venus Embrace. Molly is
definitely not a(n) ____ in the product adopter categories, and is more likely to be ____.
a. innovator; an early adopter
b. early adopter; an innovator
c. early majority; an early adopter
d. innovator; an early majority
e. innovator; a late majority
132. Refer to Scenario 11.1. Tasha is shopping for personal care items at her local Target. She walks by one
aisle and sees a floor-standing display for the new Venus Embrace. She hadn't thought about buying a
new razor, but the display has caught her attention. Which stage of the product adoption process is
Tasha most likely in at the present time?
a. awareness
b. attention
c. evaluation
d. trial
e. adoption
Scenario 11.2
Use the following to answer the questions.
Megabus is a new line operating in the Northeast and Midwestern United States, plus in Canada. It
offers travelers a cheap alternative to driving and flying between large cities, keeping the fares
extremely low yet offering the latest technology. Unlike the traditional Greyhound Lines, Megabus is
an express service, and is equipped with Wi-Fi, video screens, headsets, and seat belts. Many buses
also run on biodiesel fuel. Additionally, Megabus picks up and drops off people in the centers of cities
rather than at inconveniently-located terminals. Patrons can book tickets at Megabus.com, where some
fares begin at just $1. Routes are limited, and are offered out of cities such as Toronto, New York,
Baltimore, Philadelphia, and Chicago. Recently, its competitor Greyhound, has launched two new bus
lines, BoltBus and NeOn, with similar fares and high-tech amenities. A fare on NeOn bus from
Buffalo, NY to New York City is $50.00 roundtrip, while the same fare through Greyhound's
traditional bus line costs $92.00. The benefit of Greyhound's traditional line is that there are more
departure times and more stops in smaller towns along the way.
133. Refer to Scenario 11.2. What product(s) is Megabus marketing?

a. Megabus is a service and therefore is not marketing a product.
b. The ride between cities is a service product and is the only one Megabus is marketing.
c. The ride between the cities, which is the core product, plus the supplemental features of
Wi-Fi, video screens, and other technology.
d. The ride between cities, which is a convenience product.
e. The ride between cities, which is a shopping product.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult
134. Refer to Scenario 11.2. When Greyhound launched the BoltBus and NeOn bus lines, this is an example
of
a. a branding extension.
b. co-branding.
c. an extension in the width of the product mix.
d. an extension in the depth of the product mix.
e. family branding.
MSC: Application
135. Refer to Scenario 11.2. Casey is searching the website of Megabus.com for the schedule and fares of a
trip between Buffalo, NY and New York City. Case is most likely in which of the following stages of
the product adoption process?
a. adoption
b. trial
c. evaluation
d. interest
e. awareness
136. Refer to Scenario 11.2. Megabus is most likely in which of the following stages of the product life
cycle?
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline
e. Rejection
TRUE/FALSE
137. A product need not be a physical product.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

138. A service is intangible and is the result of the application of human or mechanical efforts to people or
objects.

139. Supporting services, such as installation and guarantees, are part of a product.

140. The core product element of the total product can include installation, delivery, training, and financing.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

141. Use of the product is the most important means of distinguishing consumer products from business
products.

142. The two major product categories are business and institutional.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

143. Bread is usually a convenience product.

144. Consumers are reluctant to purchase substitute brands if a desired brand of a convenience product is
unattainable.

145. Buyers want to exert only minimal effort to obtain shopping products.

146. Obtaining a specialty product involves a considerable amount of comparison activity.

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Customer
MSC: Knowledge
147. Component parts usually need to be processed significantly before they are used in production.

148. Process materials are used directly in the production of products.

149. A product line is a particular version of a product that can be designated as a distinct offering on the
organization's list of products.

MSC: Knowledge
150. A product line includes a group of closely related product items that are considered to be a unit
because of marketing, technical, or end-use considerations.

MSC: Knowledge
151. Product mix refers to a related group of products in the product line.

MSC: Knowledge
152. The depth of a product mix is measured by the average number of product types in a product line.

MSC: Knowledge
153. The width of a product mix refers to the number of generic products offered by a company.

MSC: Knowledge
154. A product mix is the composite or total group of products that an organization makes available to
customers.

MSC: Knowledge
155. Procter & Gamble has a wider product mix than does Baskin Robbins.

MSC: Application
156. Many products never get beyond the introduction stage.

157. Communicating product benefits to consumers is very important in the introduction stage.

NAT: AACSB: Communication | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Strategy
MSC: Knowledge
158. New products seldom generate enough sales to bring immediate profits.

159. Price cuts are typical in a product's growth stage.

MSC: Knowledge
160. Intensive competition causes price increases during the growth stage of the product life cycle.

MSC: Knowledge
161. Distribution outlets become more difficult to secure during the growth stage of a product's life cycle
because of aggressive competition.

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Distribution
MSC: Knowledge
162. Profits decline in the maturity stage, largely because of increased competition.

163. A seller's profits peak in the maturity stage of a product's life cycle.

164. Sales peak in a product's maturity stage.

165. Many products are in the maturity stage of the product life cycle.

166. The marketing mix should be left alone during the maturity stage of the product life cycle; tampering
with it may bring an early death to the product.

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Marketing Plan MSC: Knowledge
167. During a product's maturity stage, all sales promotion efforts are focused on consumers.

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Promotion MSC: Knowledge
168. A business can justify keeping a product as long as it contributes to profits or enhances the
effectiveness of a product mix.

169. Sometimes new marketing channels open up in the decline stage.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Distribution
MSC: Knowledge
170. Promotion decreases in importance during a product's decline stage.

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Promotion
MSC: Knowledge
171. Sellers can sometimes prolong a product's life cycle.

172. When an organization introduces a new product, people do not all begin the adoption process at the
same time, nor do they move through the process at the same speed.

173. Trial is the first stage of the product adoption process.

174. In the awareness stage of the product adoption process, the buyer seeks information about the product.

175. "The people to check with" are the early adopters.

176. The first adopters of a product are the innovators.

177. Early adopters are the first group of consumers to adopt a new product.

178. Laggards are the last to adopt a new product and usually distrust new products.

179. One of the most common reasons new products fail is because of a company's failure to match product
offerings to customer needs.

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking | CBE: Model Product | CBE: Model Strategy
MSC: Knowledge
180. The success of launching a new product is based primarily on luck.

181. If a company repositions a relative product failure, that product might become a successful member of
the product line.

182. A brand name is the part of the brand that is spoken.

183. Brand preference is the strongest form or degree of brand loyalty.

184. Brand recognition exists when a customer is aware that the brand exists and views it as an alternative
to purchase if the preferred brand is unavailable or if the other available brands are unfamiliar to the
customer.

185. Brand preference is a degree of brand loyalty in which a customer definitely prefers one brand over
competitive offerings and will purchase this brand if available.

186. Brand equity is a customer's favorable attitude toward a specific brand and, depending on strength,
some likelihood of consistent purchase of the brand when needs for a product in this product category
arise.

187. Four major elements underlie brand equity including brand name awareness, brand loyalty, perceived
brand quality, and brand associations.

188. Brand equity helps give a brand the power to capture and maintain a consistent market share, which
provides stability to an organization's sales volume.

189. Apple Computer is an example of a manufacturer brand.

190. Competition between manufacturer brands and private distributor brands is becoming more intense in
several major categories.

191. A generic brand indicates only the product category.

192. A brand name should indicate the product's major benefits.

193. Marketers may use brand names that have absolutely no meaning to avoid negative connotations.

194. Family branding occurs when all of a firm's products are branded with all or part of the same name.

195. Individual branding facilitates market segmentation.


197. The brands used for co-branding cannot be owned by the same company.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult

198. Co-branding capitalizes on the trust that customers have in both companies involved, especially when
the brands complement one another in the mind of the buyer.

NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product | CBE: Model Strategy | CBE: Model Customer
MSC: Knowledge
199. Brand licensing gives a company the ability to gain more revenue and low-cost or free promotional
exposure.

200. A Jeep leather jacket is an example of brand licensing.

201. Individual branding facilitates market segmentation.

MSC: Knowledge

MSC: Knowledge
203. The brands used for co-branding cannot be owned by the same company.

MSC: Knowledge
204. To gain customer acceptance, the two brands involved in co-branding must represent a complementary
fit in the minds of buyers.

MSC: Knowledge
205. Co-branding capitalizes on the trust that customers have in both companies involved, especially when
the brands complement one another in the mind of the buyer.

licensing.
NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Promotion | MKTG: Customer
MSC: Knowledge
206. Brand licensing gives a company the ability to gain more revenue and low-cost or free promotional
exposure.

MSC: Knowledge
207. Packages are always secondary ingredients of a marketing strategy.

208. Package characteristics shape buyer impressions of a product during use.

NAT: AACSB: Communication | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Customer
MSC: Knowledge
209. The basic purpose of packaging is to create eye appeal.

NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Promotion
MSC: Knowledge
210. Family packaging cannot be used for individual product lines; it must apply to the entire product mix
of the firm.

MSC: Knowledge
211. A package can be used to attract customers' attention.

NAT: AACSB: Analytic | MKTG: Product | MKTG: Promotion
MSC: Knowledge
212. The Cool Whip container is an example of a secondary-use package.

MSC: Application
213. The crush-proof cylinder package for Pringle's potato chips is an example of innovative packaging.

MSC: Application
214. Labels facilitate product identification.

215. Labeling and packaging are closely interrelated.

216. The instruction "Refrigerate after opening" on a salad dressing label is an example of the descriptive
function of labeling.

217. Nutritional information on labels is required by law, though consumers are indifferent to its
availability.

218. The Food and Drug Administration requires that food processors indicate the amount of carbohydrates,
calories, and fat in a product.

219. The Federal Trade Commission is solely responsible for establishing and enforcing packaging
regulations.


Chapter 10

Enviado por

Dados do documento

Título original

Direitos autorais

Formatos disponíveis

Compartilhar este documento

Compartilhar ou incorporar documento

Opções de compartilhamento

Você considera este documento útil?

Este conteúdo é inapropriado?

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

Chapter 10

Enviado por

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

Chapter 10Product, Branding, and Packaging Concepts

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

2. Describe and illustrate the four major categories of consumer products.

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

3. Distinguish between consumer products and business products.

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult

5. Identify and describe the major categories of business products.

6. Discuss the dimensions of a product mix.

PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

9. Why do products fail?

PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

14. A(n) ____ is a concept, philosophy, or image.

18. A light bulb can be considered all of the following except

20. Which of the following is most likely to be considered a convenience good?

21. Energizer batteries would be classified as which type of product?

23. Convenience products are

32. Business products are

37. Minerals, chemicals, timber, and agricultural products are considered

43. A product item is best described as a

45. A product line is defined as

46. A product mix is best described as

48. The depth of a product mix is measured by the average number of

51. The width of a product mix is measured by the number of product

52. The four major stages of a product life cycle include

56. In which stage of the product life cycle do profits peak?

63. During the maturity stage

89. McDonald's golden arches are a classic example of a

91. Healthy Choice is a ____ manufactured by ConAgra Foods, which is a ____.

96. Which of the following products is an example of a manufacturer brand?

99. Private distributor brands are owned by

115. In marketing, family packaging means

116. The most important function of packaging is

119. A secondary-use package is defined as one that

122. Multiple packaging is

133. Refer to Scenario 11.2. What product(s) is Megabus marketing?

137. A product need not be a physical product.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

143. Bread is usually a convenience product.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

146. Obtaining a specialty product involves a considerable amount of comparison activity.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

148. Process materials are used directly in the production of products.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

91. Healthy Choice is a manufactured by ConAgra Foods, which is a .