AND

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Fill in the particulars of the answer booklet with blue/black ball point pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill
in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is three hours duration
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry
and Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question
is allotted 4(four) marks for correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct
response for each question. 1/4 (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating
incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made
if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one
response in any question will be treated as wrong and marks for wrong response will
be deducted as per instructions 6 above.
8. Use Blue/ Black ball point pen only for writing particulars/ marking responses on the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of
papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device etc. inside the examination hall.
10. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet
only. This space is given at the bottom of each page.
11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty in the Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away
this Test Booklet with them.
12. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.
13. The results of the examination will be put up on the following link within 15 days:
http://www.pragyan.org/ Dhisai
Section A - Physics
1. Find the energy stored in a 60 cm length of a laser beam operating at 4 mW.

a. 3.2x10-12 J b. 4x10-12 J c. 8x10-12 J d. 3x10-12 J

2. Light decribed by the equation E = (100 V/m) [sin (5 x 1015 s-1) t + sin (8 x 1015 s -1)t] falls
on a metal surface having work function 2.0 eV. Calculate the maximum kinetic energy of
the photoelectrons.
a. 1.29eV b. 4.27eV c.5.26eV d.3.27eV
3. A silver ball of radius 4.8 cm is suspended by a thread in a vacuum chamber. Ultraviolet
light of wavelength 200 nm is incident on the ball for some time during which a total light
energy of 1 x 10-7 J falls on the surface. Assuming that on the average one photon out of
every ten thousand is able to eject a photoelectron, find the electric potential at the surface
of the ball assuming zero potential at infinity. What is the potential at the centre of the ball?
a. 0.7V b. 0.3V c. 0.6V d.0.9V
4. Let An be the area enclosed by the nth orbit in a hydrogen atom. The graph of In
(An/A,) against ln(n)
(A) will pass through the origin
(B) will be a straight line with slope 4
(C) will be a monotonically increasing nonlinear curve

(D) will be a circle

Which of the above statements are true
a)A,B,C b)B,C c)A,B d)all

5. If the two ends of a p-n junction are joined by a wire,

(a) there will not be'a steady current in the circuit
(b) there will be a steady current from the n-side to the p-side
(c) there will a steady current from the p-side to the n-side
(d) there may or may not be a current depending upon the resistance of the connecting wire

6. Free nuclei kept in a train emit alpha particles. When the train is stationary and a uranium
nucleus decays, a passenger measures that the separation between the alpha particle and
the recoiling nucleus becomes x in time t after the decay. If a decay takes place when the
train is moving at a uniform speed v, the distance between the alpha particle and the
recoiling nucleus at a time t after the decay, as measured by the passenger will be

(a) x + vt (b) x - vt (c) x

(d) depends on the direction of the train
7. A glass surface is coated by an oil film of uniform thickness 1x 10 -4 cm. The index of
refraction of the oil is 1.25 and that of the glass is 1.50. Find maximum wavelength of light in
the visible region (400 nm-750 nm) which are completely transmitted by the oil film under
normal incidence.
a)455nm b)736nm c)714nm d)556nm

8. A gun of mass M fires a bullet of mass m with a horizontal speed V. The gun is fitted with
a concave mirror of focal length f facing towards the receding bullet. Find the speed of
separation of the bullet and the image just after the gun was fired.

a) 2(1+m/M)V b)2(1+m2/M2)V c)2(m/M)V d)(m2/M2)V

9. A compound microscope consists of an objective of focal length 1 cm and an eyepiece of
focal length 5 cm. An object is placed at a distance of 0.5 cm from the objective. What
should be the separation between the lenses so that the microscope projects an inverted
real image of the object on a screen 30 cm behind the eyepiece?

a) 7 cm b) 9cm c)5cm d) 3cm

10. A thin prism of crown glass (r = 1.515, v = 1.525) and a thin prism of flint glass (r=
1.612 , v= 1.632) are placed in contact with each other. Their refracting angles are 5.0
each and are similarly directed. Calculate the angular dispersion produced by the
combination.
a )0.25deg b)0.15 deg c)o.275deg d)0.8 deg

11. Consider the following two statements regarding a linearly polarized, plane
electromagnetic wave:
(A) The electric field and the magnetic field have equal average values.
(B) The electric energy and the magnetic energy have equal average values.

(a) Both A and B are true

(b) A is false but B is true,
(c) B is false but A is true,
(d) Both A and B are false.
12. A laser beam has intensity 2.5 x 10 W/2, the amplitudes magnetic fields in the beam is a)
6.24 T
b) 5.79 T
c) 1.44 T
d) 2.79 T

13. Figure shows a horizontal solenoid connected to a battery and a switch. A copper ring is
placed on a
 Frictionless track, the axis of the ring being along the axis of the solenoid.

As the switch is closed, the ring will

(a) Remain stationary

(b) Move towards the solenoid
(c) Move away from the solenoid
(d) Move towards the solenoid or away from it depending on which terminal (positive or
negative) of the battery is connected to the left end of the solenoid.

14. A long solenoid of radius 2 cm has 100 turns/cm and carries a current of 5 A. A coil of
radius 1 cm having 100 turns and a total resistance of 20 is placed inside the solenoid
coaxially. The coil is connected to a galvanometer. If the current in the solenoid is reversed
in direction, the charge flown through the galvanometer is
a) 0.2 mC
b) 2 mC
c) 0.4 mC
d) 4 mC

15. Two charges 2 106 C and 1 106 C are placed at a separation

of 10 cm. Where a third charge should be placed such that it experiences no net force due
to these charges?
a) 5.9 cm from large charge
b) 5.9 Cm from small charge
c) 2.4 cm from small charge
d) 2.4 cm from large charge

16. The AC voltage across a resistance can be measured using

(a) A potentiometer
(b) A hot-wire voltmeter
(c) A moving-coil galvanometer
(d) A moving-magnet galvanometer

17. Find the charges on the three capacitors connected to a battery as shown in figure.
Take1=2.0,2=4.0,3=6.0andV=12 volt.

q1 =24, q2 = 48 , q3 = 96
a) q1, q2, q3 are correct
b) q1, q2 are correct and q3 is incorrect
c) q1 is correct and q2, q3 are incorrect
d) none of the above

18. The potentiometer wire AB shown in figure is 50 cm long. When AD = 30 cm, no

deflection occurs in the galvanometer. Find R

a) 4 ohms
b) 8 ohms
c) 12 ohms
d) 7 ohms

19. A long, straight wire carries a current i. Let B, be the magnetic field at a point P at a
distance d from the wire. Consider a section of length l of this wire such that the point P lies
on a perpendicular bisector of the section. Let 2 be the magnetic field at this point due to
this section only. Find the value of d/l so that 2 differs from 1 by 1%.
a) 0.035
b) 0.05
c) 0.02
d) 0.07

20. Assume that each iron atom has a permanent magnetic moment equal to 2 Bohr
magnetons (1 Bohr magneton equals 9.27 x 1024A-2). The density of atoms in iron is 8.52 x
1028 atoms/3.Find the maximum magnetic field B on the axis inside the cylinder.
a) 2 T
b) 1 T
c) 0.5 T
d) 0.25 T

21 .The equation of state of some gases can be expressed as Vander wals equation i.e.
(P+a/v2)(V-b)=RT. Where P is pressure, V is volume and T is the absolute temperature and
a,b,R are constants. The dimensional formulae of a is
(a)[M1L1T-1]
(b)[M1L5T-2]
(c)[M1L-5T-2]

(d)[M1L-6T-1]
22. If the resultant of all the external forces acting on a system of particles is zero, then from
an inertial frame, one can surely say that
(a) linear momentum of the system does not change in time
(b) kinetic energy of the system does not change in time
(c) angular momentum of the system does not change in time
(d) potential energy of the system does not change in time
23. A Vernier callipers has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the
Vernier scale which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this Vernier callipers, the least
count is
(a) 0.02 mm (b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.1 mm (d) 0.2 mm
24. Two solid cylinders P and Q of same mass and same radius start rolling down a fixed
inclined plane from the same height at the same time. Cylinder P has most of its mass
concentrated near its surface, while Q has most of its mass concentrated near the axis.
Which statement(s) is (are) correct?
(a) Both cylinders P and Q reach the ground at the same time.
(b) Cylinder P has larger linear acceleration than cylinder Q.
(c) Both cylinders reach the ground with same translational kinetic energy.
(d) Cylinder Q reaches the ground with larger angular speed.
25. If the change in the value of g at the height h above the surface of the earth is the same
as at a depth x below it, then (both x and h being much smaller than the radius of the earth)
(a) x=h/2
(b) x=h2
(c) x=2h
(d) x=h

26. Here is a displacement-time graph of an object which is not moving with simple
harmonic motion. But it is still an oscillation and it has a period.
 Estimate that period.
(a) 0.25 s.
(b) 0.3 s.
(c) 1s.
(d) 2s

27. Four particles, each of mass M and equidistant from each other, move along a circle of
radius R under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each
particle is
(a) [GM (1+ 2(b)1/2)/R)
(b) 1/2* [GM (1+ 2(b)1/2)/R) 1/2
(c) (GM/R) 1/2
(d) (GM 2 (b)1/2/ R) 1/2

28. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in a straight line. In first s, after starting
from rest it travels a distance a, and in next s it travels 2a, in same direction, then
(a) Amplitude of motion is 4a
(b) Time period of oscillations is 6
(c) Amplitude of motion is 3a
(d) Time period of oscillations is 8

29. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown vertically upwards with a speed U. The
time taken by the particle, to hit the ground, is n times that taken by it to reach the
highest point of its path. The relation between H, u and n is
(a) 2 g H = nu2 (n 2)
(b) g H = (n 2) u2
(c) 2 g H = n2u2
(d) g H = (n 2)2 u 2

30. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find the number of possible natural
oscillations of air column in the pipe whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz. The
velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 12
(d) 8
Section B Chemistry

31.A stream of electrons from a heated filament was passed between two charged plates
kept at a potential difference V esu. If e and m are charge and mass of an electron,
respectively, then the value of h/l (where l is wavelength associated with electron wave) is
given by :
(1) 2meV
(2)( meV)1/2
(3) (2 meV)1/2
(4) meV
32.Which of the following compounds is metallic and ferromagnetic?
(1) CrO2
(2) VO2
(3) MnO2
(4) TiO2

33.The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are 393.5 and 283.5 kJ
mol1, respectively. The heat of formation (in kJ) of carbon monoxide per mole is:
(1) 676.5
(2) 676.5
(3) 110.5
(4) 110.5
34.18 g glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g water. The vapour pressure of water (in
torr) for this aqueous solution is:
(1) 76.0
(2) 752.4
(3) 759.0
(4) 7.6
35. The pair having the same magnetic moment
is: [At. No. : Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27]
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(2) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [Cr(H2O)6]2+
(3) [CoCl4]2- and [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(4) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [CoCl4]2-

36. The main oxides formed on combustion of Li, Na and K in excess of air are respectively:
(1) LiO2, Na2O2 and K2O
(2) Li2O2, Na2O2 and KO2
(3) Li2O, Na2O2 and KO2
(4) Li2O, Na2O and KO2

37. Galvanization is applying a coating of:

(1) Cr
(2) Cu
(3) Zn
(4) Pb
38.Which one of the following bases is not present in DNA ?
(1)Adenine
(2)Cytosine
(3)Thymine
(4)Quinoline

39.The volume of 0.1N dibasic acid sufficient to neutralize 1 g of a base that furnishes
0.04 mole of OH- in aqueous solution is :
(1) 200 mL
(2) 400 mL
(3) 600 mL
(4) 800 mL
40. The bond angle H-X-H is the greatest in the compound :
(1) CH4
(2) NH3
(3) H2O
(4) PH3

41. An aqueous solution of a salt MX2 at certain temperature has a vant Hoff factor of 2.
The degree of dissociation for this solution of the salt is:
(1) 0.33
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.67
(4) 0.80
42. The following statements concern elements in the periodic table. Which of the
following is true?
(1) All the elements in Group 17 are gases.
(2) The Group 13 elements are all metals.
(3) Elements of Group 16 have lower ionization enthalpy values compared to those of Group
15 in the corresponding periods.
(4) For Group 15 elements, the stability of +5 oxidation state increases down the group.

43. Assertion: Among the carbon allotropes, diamond is an insulator, whereas, graphite is a
good conductor of electricity. Reason: Hybridization of carbon in diamond and graphite are
sp3 and sp2, respectively.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation for the
assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation for
the assertion.
(3) Assertion is incorrect statement, but the reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

44. Fluorination of an aromatic ring is easily accomplished by treating a diazonium salt with
HBF4. Which of the following conditions is correct about this reaction?
(1) Only heat
(2) NaNO2/Cu
(3) Cu2O/H2O
(4) NaF/Cu
45. Observation of Rhumanns purple is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
(1) Reducing sugar
(2) Cupric ion
(3) Protein
(4) Starch
46. Lithium forms body centred cubic structure. The length of the side of its unit
cell is 351 pm. Atomic radius of the lithium will be:
(1) 75 pm
(2) 300 pm
(3) 240 pm
(4) 152 pm

47. Which of the following on thermal decomposition yields a basic as well

as an acidic oxide?
(1) NaNO3

(2) KClO3
(3) CaCO3
(4) NH4NO3

48. The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) at
temperature T is 4 x 104. The value of Kc for the reaction, NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g) at
the same temperature is :
(1)0.02
(2) 2.5 x 102
(3) 4 x 104
(4) 50.0

49. How many chiral compounds are possible on monochlorination of 2methyl butane?
(1) 8
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6

50. 2Hexyne gives trans2Hexene on treatment with:

(1) Pt/H2

(2) Li/NH3
(3) Pd/BaSO4
(4) LiAlH4

51. An organic compound 'X' having molecular formula C5H10O yields phenyl
hydrazone and gives negative response to the Iodoform test and Tollen's test. It
produces n-pentane on reduction. 'X' could be:-
(1) 2-pentanone
(2) 3-pentanone
(3) n-amyl alcohol
(4) pentanal
52. The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic medium produces:-
(1) Azoxybenzene
(2) Azobenzene
(3) Aniline
(4) p-Aminophenol
53. Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is
given by:- (At. nos, Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr =
24, Co = 27) (1)Ti3+
(2) Cr2+
(3) Co2+
(4) Ni2+

54. Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas?
(1) S is negative and therefore, H should be highly positive
(2) S is negative and therefore, H should be highly negative
(3) S is positive and therefore, H should be negative
(4) S is positive and therefore, H should also be highly positive
55. The pair of compounds that can exist together is:
(1) FeCl3 , SnCl2
(2) HgCl2 , SnCl2
(3) FeCl2 , SnCl2
(4) FeCl3, KI

56. In acidic medium, H2O2 changes Cr2O72- to CrO5 which has two (-O- O-) bonds
Oxidation state of Cr
in CrO5 is :
(1)+5
(2)+3
(3)+6
(4)-10

57. The product of the reaction given below is:

58.

59.
.
60.

Section C Mathematics
61. Let A = {1, 2, 3}. The total number of distinct relations that can be defined over A is
a. 29 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) None of these

62. For all complex numbers z1,z2 satisfying |z1|=12 and |z2 3 4i| = 5, the minimum
value of |z1-z2| is
a. 2 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) None of these
63.

64.

65.
66.

67.

68.

69.

70.
71.

72. In a certain test, there are n questions. In this test, 2 (n-k) students gave wrong answers
to atleast k questions, where k = 0,1,2n. If total number of wrong answer is 4095, then the
value of n is

(A) 11 (B) 12 (C)13 (D) 15

73.

74.

75.

76. Three letters are to be sent to different persons and addresses on the three envelopes
are also written. Without looking at the addresses, the probability that the letters go into
the right envelope is equal to
 (A) 1/27 (B) 1/9 (C) 4/27 (D) 1/6

77.

78.

79. Find the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point P(1,6,3) on the line x/1 = (y-1)/2
= (z-2)/3. Also find the distance from P.

(A) (1,2,3) , 4 (B) (1,3,5) , 13

(C) (2,3,4) , 11 (D) (2,4,6) , 3

80.

Where n is any Integer.

81.

82.
83.

84.

85.

86.

87. In an experiment 15 observations on, the following results were available

88. The area cut off from a parabola by any double ordinate is k times the corresponding
rectangle contained by that double ordinate and its distance from the vertex, then k
is:

(a) 2/3 (b) 1/3

(c) 3/2 (d) 3

89. In a triangle ABC, a: b: c = 4: 5: 6. The ratio of the radius of the Circumcircle to that of
the Incircle is:

(a) 16/9 (b) 16/7

(c) 11/7 (d) 7/16

90. Consider the following statements: